Cell

Biology/Cell Biochemistry: Exam #1

Choose the single best answer.

1) By definition, prokaryotic cells do not possess __________.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

2) The __________ __________ is made up of two concentric membranes and is continuous with the
membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

a nucleus.
replication machinery.
ribosomes.
membrane bilayers.

plasma membrane
Golgi network
mitochondrial membrane
nuclear envelope

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3) Which of the following organelles has both an outer and an inner membrane?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

endoplasmic reticulum
mitochondrion
lysosome
peroxisome

4) Photosynthesis enables plants to capture the energy from sunlight. In this essential process,
plants incorporate the carbon from CO2 into high-energy __________ molecules, which the plant
cell mitochondria use to produce ATP.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

fat
sugar
protein
fiber

Th

5) Lysosomes are small organelles where fatty acid synthesis occurs.

(a)
(b)

true
false

6) Biologists cannot possibly study all living species. Instead, they try to understand cell behavior
by studying a select subset of them. Which of the following characteristics are useful in an
organism chosen for use as a model in laboratory studies?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

amenability to genetic manipulation

ability to grow under controlled conditions
rapid rate of reproduction
all of the above

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7) Select the answer that best completes the following statement: Chemical reactions in living
systems occur in an ____________ environment, within a narrow range of temperatures.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

8) Which subatomic particles can vary between isotopes of the same element, without changing
the observed chemical properties?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

9) The figure below depicts the structure of an atom. Use the information in the diagram to
choose the correct atomic number and atomic weight, respectively, for the atom.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

6, 12
12, 12
6, 18
12, 6

10) Something that is soluble in water is said to be __________________________.

A.
Hydrophobic
B.
Hydrophilic
C.
Lipophilic
D.
Lipophobic
E.
B and D

Th

electrons
protons and neutrons
neutrons
neutrons and electrons

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optimal
organic
extracellular
aqueous

11) Sodium fluoride has a molecular weight of 42 grams. What is the concentration, in grams per
liter (g/l), of a 10 M solution of glucose?

A. 420
B. 42
C. 21
D. 2.1
E. 1

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12) If you want to make 200 milliliters of 0.1 M sodium fluoride solution, how many milliliters of 5
M sodium fluoride stock would you need to add?

A. 400
B. 40
C. 20
D. 10
E. 4

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13) The table below indicates the electrons in the first four atomic electron shells for selected
elements. On the basis of the information in the chart and what you know about atomic
structure, which elements will form ions with a net charge of +1 in solution?
atomic number


energy level (electron shell)
(a)
carbon, sulfur
element
I
II
III
IV
(b) helium, neon
1 Hydrogen
2 Helium
(c)
sodium, potassium
6 Carbon
(d) magnesium, calcium
7 Nitrogen

Oxygen

10 Neon

11 Sodium
12 Magnesium
15 Phosphorus
16 Sulfur

17 Chlorine
18 Argon

19 Potassium

20 Calcium

14) Both DNA and RNA are synthesized by covalently linking a nucleoside triphosphate to the
previous nucleotide, constantly adding to a growing chain. In the case of DNA, the new strand
becomes part of a stable helix. The two strands are complementary in sequence and
antiparallel in directionality. What is the principal force that holds these two strands together?

(a)
ionic interactions
(b) hydrogen bonds
(c)
covalent bonds
(d) van der Waals interactions

Th

15) The energy used by the cell to generate specific biological molecules and highly ordered
structures is stored in the form of _____________.

(a)
Brownian motion.
(b) heat.
(c)
light waves.
(d) chemical bonds.

16) Your body extracts energy from the food you ingest by catalyzing reactions that essentially
burn the food molecules in a stepwise fashion. What is another way to describe this process?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

reduction
oxidation
dehydration
solvation

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19) The figure below is an energy diagram for the reaction XY. Which equation below provides
the correct calculation for the amount of free-energy change when X is converted to Y?
b

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

a + b c
a b
a c
c a

reaction pathway

!
20) For the reaction YX at standard conditions with [Y] = 1 M and [X] = 1 M, G is initially a large
negative number. As the reaction proceeds, [Y] decreases and [X] increases until the system
reaches equilibrium. How do the values of G and G change as the reaction equilibrates?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

G becomes less negative and G stays the same.

G becomes positive and G becomes positive.
G stays the same and G becomes less negative.
G reaches zero and G becomes more negative.

21) On the basis of the two reactions below, decide which of the following statements is false.
1:
2:

ATP + Y Y-P + ADP

Y-P + A B

A.

Reaction 1 is favorable because of the large negative G associated with the hydrolysis of
ATP.
Reaction 2 is an example of an unfavorable reaction.
If reactions 1 and 2 are coupled reactions, when they take place together, reaction 2 will
proceed in the forward direction.
Reaction 2 can be used to drive reaction 1 in the reverse direction.

B.
C.

isomerization.
oxidation.
reduction.
protonation.

free energy

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

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18) Seed oils are often dehydrogenated and added back into processed foods as partly unsaturated
fatty acids. In comparison with the original oil, the new fatty acids have additional double
carboncarbon bonds, replacing what were once single bonds. This process could also be
described as _____________.

Th

17) How do protein, nucleic acid and polysaccharide molecules polymerize (grow)?

A.
By condensation reactions
B.
By hydrolysis reactions
C.
By oxidation reactions

D.

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G = 100 kcal/mole
G = 50 kcal/mole

22) You are studying a biochemical pathway that requires ATP as an energy source. To your
dismay, the reactions soon stop, partly because the ATP is rapidly used up and partly because
an excess of ADP builds up and inhibits the enzymes involved. You are about to give up when
the following table from a biochemistry textbook catches your eye.

hydrolysis
reaction
creatine + ATP
ATP + H2O
pyrophosphate + H2O

enzyme C
enzyme D

creatine phosphate + ADP

+ 3 kcal/mole

ADP + phosphate

7.3 kcal/mole

2 phosphate

7 kcal/mole

glucose + phosphate

3.3 kcal/mole

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enzyme B

DG

!

Which of the following reagents are most likely to revitalize your reaction?

(a)
a vast excess of ATP
(b) glucose 6-phosphate and enzyme D
(c)
creatine phosphate and enzyme A
(d) pyrophosphate
glucose 6-phosphate + H2O

enzyme A

23) The correct folding of proteins is necessary to maintain healthy cells and tissues. Unfolded
proteins are responsible for such neurodegenerative disorders as Alzheimers disease,
Huntingtons disease, and CreutzfeldtJakob disease (the specific faulty protein is different for
each disease). What is the ultimate fate of these disease-causing, unfolded proteins?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

They are degraded.

They bind a different target protein.
They form structured filaments.
They form protein aggregates.

24) Molecular chaperones can work by creating an isolation chamber. What is the purpose of this
chamber?
(a)
(b)

Th

(c)
(d)

The chamber acts as a garbage disposal, degrading improperly folded proteins so that
they do not interact with properly folded proteins.
This chamber is used to increase the local protein concentration, which will help speed
up the folding process.
This chamber serves to transport unfolded proteins out of the cell.
This chamber serves to protect unfolded proteins from interacting with other proteins in
the cytosol, until protein folding is completed.

25) Why are a helices and b sheets common folding patterns in polypeptides?

A.
The unique amino acid sequences that generate these folding patterns are common in
polypeptides.
B.
Molecular chaperones tend to fold polypeptides in these common folding patterns.
C.
Amino acid side chains are not involved in forming the hydrogen bonds, allowing many
different sequences to adopt these folding patterns.

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26) The stable wrapping of one helix around another is typically driven by ________________
interactions.

(a)
hydrophilic
(b) hydrophobic
(c)
van der Waals
(d) ionic

27) You have two purified samples of protein Y: the wild-type (nonmutated) protein and a mutant
version with a single amino acid substitution. When washed through the same gel-filtration
column, mutant protein Y runs through the column more slowly than the normal protein.
Which of the following changes in the mutant protein is most likely to explain this result?

(b)
(c)

28) The process of generating monoclonal antibodies is labor-intensive and expensive. An

alternative is to use polyclonal antibodies. A subpopulation of purified polyclonal antibodies
that recognize a particular antigen can be isolated by chromatography. Which type of
chromatography is used for this purpose?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

affinity
ion-exchange
gel-filtration
any of the above

29) Which of the following statements about allostery is true?

(a)

Allosteric regulators are often products of other chemical reactions in the same
biochemical pathway.
Allosteric regulation is always used for negative regulation of enzyme activity.
Binding of allosteric molecules usually locks an enzyme in its current conformation, such
that the enzyme cannot adopt a different conformation.

Th

(b)
(c)

the loss of a binding site on the mutant-protein surface through which protein Y
normally forms dimers
a change that results in the mutant protein acquiring an overall positive instead of a
negative charge
a change that results in the mutant protein being larger than the wild-type protein

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(a)

30) The nucleotide sequence of one DNA strand of a DNA double helix is 5-GGATTTCG-3. What is
the sequence of the complementary strand?

A.
5-GGATTTCG-3
B.
5-GCTTTAGG-3
C.
5-CGAAATCC-3
D.
5-CCTAAAGC-3

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31) The complete set of information found in a given organisms DNA is called its
____________.

(a)
genetic code.
(b) coding sequence.
(c)
gene.
(d) genome.

32) The human genome is divided into linear segments and packaged into structures called
chromosomes. What is the total number of chromosomes found in each of the somatic cells in
your body?

(a)
22
(b) 23
(c)
44
(d) 46

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33) What evidence suggests that the large amount of excess junk DNA in a genome may serve an
important function?

A.
All organisms have excess junk DNA.
B.
A portion of junk DNA is highly conserved in its DNA sequence among many different
eukaryotic species.

34) The core histones are small, basic proteins that have a globular domain at the C-terminus and a
long, extended conformation at the N-terminus. Which of the following is not true of the N-
terminal tail of these histones?

(a)
It is subject to covalent modifications.
(b) It extends out of the nucleosome core.
(c)
It binds to DNA in a sequence-specific manner.
(d) It helps DNA pack tightly.

Th

35) How do changes in histone modifications lead to changes in chromatin structure?

(a)
They directly lead to changes in the positions of the core histones.
(b) They help recruit other proteins to the chromatin.
(c)
They cause the histone N-terminal tails to become hyperextended.

36) The inactivation of one X chromosome is established by the directed spreading of

heterochromatin. The silent state of this chromosome is _______________ in the subsequent cell
divisions.

(a)
completed
(b) switched
(c)
erased
(d) maintained

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37) The chromosomes we typically see in images are isolated from mitotic cells. These mitotic
chromosomes are in the most highly condensed form. Interphase cells contain chromosomes
that are less densely packed and __________________________.

(a)
occupy discrete territories in the nucleus.
(b) share the same nuclear territory as their homolog.
(c)
are restricted to the nucleolus.
(d) are completely tangled with other chromosomes.
38) DNA replication is considered semiconservative because ____________________________.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

after many rounds of DNA replication, the original DNA double helix is still intact.
each daughter DNA molecule consists of two new strands copied from the parent DNA
molecule.
each daughter DNA molecule consists of one strand from the parent DNA molecule and
one new strand.
new DNA strands must be copied from a DNA template.

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39) What part of the DNA replication process would be most directly affected if a strain of bacteria
lacking the exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase were used to make the cell extracts?

(a)
initiation of DNA synthesis
(b) Okazaki fragment synthesis
(c)
leading-strand elongation
(d) lagging-strand completion

40) Which of the following statements about the newly synthesized strand of a human
chromosome is true?

(a)
It was synthesized from a single origin solely by continuous DNA synthesis.
(b) It was synthesized from a single origin by a mixture of continuous and discontinuous
DNA synthesis.
(c)
It was synthesized from multiple origins solely by discontinuous DNA synthesis.
(d) It was synthesized from multiple origins by a mixture of continuous and discontinuous
DNA synthesis.

Th

41) DNA polymerases are processive, which means that they remain tightly associated with the
template strand while moving rapidly and adding nucleotides to the growing daughter strand.
Which piece of the replication machinery accounts for this characteristic?

(a)
helicase
(b) sliding clamp
(c)
single-strand binding protein
(d) primase





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42) Which of the following compounds is the least flexible?

A.

B.

C.


43) Several members of the same family were diagnosed with the same kind of cancer when they
were unusually young. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for this
phenomenon? It is possible that the individuals with the cancer have _______________________.

inherited a cancer-causing gene that suffered a mutation in an ancestors somatic cells.

inherited a mutation in a gene required for DNA synthesis.
inherited a mutation in a gene required for mismatch repair.
inherited a mutation in a gene required for the synthesis of purine nucleotides.

44) What is X referring to?

A.
A-T base pair
B.
G-C base pair
C.
deoxyribose
D.
phosphodiester bonds
E.
purine base

5 end

O
P O
_
O O

3 end

O
P O

O
O P
_
O O

O
_
O P O

O
P O

O_
P O
O

5 end

3 end

45) Imagine meiosis in a diploid organism that only has a single chromosome. Like most diploid
organisms, it received one copy of this chromosome from each of its parents and the two
homologs are genetically distinct. If only a single homologous recombination event occurs
during meiosis, which of the following choices below correctly describes the four gametes
formed.

Th

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

None of the gametes will contain chromosomes identical to the chromosomes found in
the original diploid cell.
All four of the gametes will have chromosomes identical to the chromosomes found in
the original diploid cell.
Three of the gametes will have chromosomes identical to the chromosomes found in the
original diploid cell, while one of the gametes will have chromosomes that are different.
Two of the gametes will have chromosomes identical to the chromosomes found in the
original diploid cell, while two of the gametes will have chromosomes that are different.

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