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MOCK TEST
PAPER - 1
* GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :
1.
2.
3.

4.

Section I : Q. No. 1 to 8, Q. No. 21 to 28 and Q. No. 41 to 48 are Single Correct Choice Type questions. For this section, 3
marks will be awarded for correct answer and zero marks for no answer. In all other cases, 1 mark will be awarded.
Section II : Q. No. 9 to 12, Q. No. 29 to 32 and Q. No. 49 to 52 are Multiple Correct Choice Type questions. For this section,
4 marks will be awarded for correct answer and zero marks for no answer. In all other cases, 1 mark will be awarded.
Section III : Q. No. 13 & 14, Q. No. 33 & 34 and Q. No. 53 & 54 are Multiple Matrix-Match Type questions. Each question
contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and
D, while the statements in Column-II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column -I can have correct matching
with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column-II. 2 marks each will be awarded for darkening the correct bubble in each row.
Hence the maximum marks of each question is 8 marks. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled
answer.
Section IV : Q. No. 15 to 20, Q. No. 35 to 40 and Q. No. 55 to 60 are Comprehension Type questions. For this section, 4
marks will be awarded for correct answer and zero marks for no answer. In all other cases, 1 mark will be awarded.

Time : 180 minutes

Max. Marks : 240

..Part - A : Mathematics..
3.

SECTION I - Single Correct Choice Type

The complex numbers 1 + i and 1 + 2i are both roots of the


equation x5 6x4 + Ax3 + Bx2 + Cx + D = 0,

4.

2.

5.

(c) 10
(d) 2
The set of values of x for which the identity

x 1
p
cos-1 x + cos-1 +
3 - 3x 2 = holds good, is
2 2
3
(a) [0, 1]

(b) 0,

1
2

1
(c) , 1
2

xq

2 tan -1 x
lim
equals eL then L is equal to
x
p

2
2
p
(b) (c) (d) 1
p
p
2
Let C1 and C2 are circles defined by x2 + y2 20x + 64 = 0 and
x2 + y2 + 30x + 144 = 0. The length of the shortest line
segment PQ that is tangent to C1 at P and to C2 at Q is
(a) 15
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 24
The sum of all positive integral values of a, a [1, 500] for
which the equation [x]3 + x a = 0 has solution is (where [ ]
denote the greatest integer function)
(a) 462
(b) 512
(c) 784
(d) 812
Area enclosed by the graph of the function y = ln 2x 1 lying
in the 4th quadrant is

(a)

(b) 20

where A, B, C, D R. The value of D is


(a) 20

dx

x 2008 + x = p ln 1 + x r + C , where p, q, r N and

need not be distinct, then the value of (p + q + r) equals


(a) 6024
(b) 6022
(c) 6021
(d) 6020

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question


has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
1.

Let

6.

(d) {1,0,1}
7.

2
(a)

2
e

(b)

4
e

(d)
11.

p
2

5
largest possible interval - , -1 then (p + q) is greater
3
than
(a) 2
(b) 2
Choose the correct options

(d) 6

the curve y = 2 x can have the slope equal to 5


(c) The magnitude of the gradient of the tangent at an

lim n sin (2p 1 + n 2 - 2np) (n N) equals p

=1
a
b2
is equal to e (where e is the eccentricity of the
hyperbola)
(d) TP and TQ are tangents to the parabola, y2 = 4ax at P
and Q. If the chord PQ passes through the fixed point
(a, b) then the locus of T is y = 2a (x a)

(b) x + y 2 = 0
(d) None of these

SECTION II - Multiple Correct Choice Type


This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONE
OR MORE is/are correct.
12.

10.

(1 - x)3/2 dx equals

Choose the incorrect statement


r r r
rr rr
(a) If a.b = a.c b = c (a 0)
r r r
r r r r
(b) If a b = a c b = c (a 0)
rr rr
r r r r r r r
(c) If a.b = a.c and a b = a c b = c (a 0)
r r r
(d) If v1 , v2 , v3 are non-coplanar vectors and
r
r
r
r
r
r
v v
v v
k1 = r 2r 3r ; k 2 = r 3r 1r and
v1 .(v2 v3 )
v1.(v2 v3 )
r
r
r
r r
r
v v
1
k3 = r 1r 2r then k1.(k 2 k3 ) = r r
r
v1 .(v2 v3 )
v1.(v 2 v3 )
Choose the correct options
(a) Locus of the feet of the perpendiculars drawn from the
foci on a variable tangent to the hyperbola
16y2 9x2 = 1 is x2 + y2 = 1/16
(b) A line passing through the point (21, 30) and normal to

(a) x + 3y + z = 4
(c) 5x 3y 4z = 2

9.

1/ 2

-1

1
2 e+
(d) 4 e -

e
e
Equation of the plane containing the lines
r
r
r = (1,1, 0) + t (1, -1, 2) , r = (2, 0, 2) + s ( -1,1, 0) is

(c)
8.

(1 + x)

Let f (x) = x3 + px2 + qx + 6, where p, q R and f ' (x) < 0 in

(c) 4

3p
-1 2
(a) The sum are tan 2 equals

4
r
r =1

(b)

extremity of latus rectum of the hyperbola

(c) Period of the function f (x) = sin 22x + cos42x + 2, is

p
4

SECTION III - Matrix-Match Type


This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be
matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are
labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column -I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be
darkened as illustrated in the following example:
If the correct matches are Ap, s and t; Bq and r; Cp and q; and Ds and t; then the correct darkening
of bubbles will look like the given :
13.

Column-I

A
B
C
D

p
p
p
p
p

x2

q
q
q
q
q

y2

r
r
r
r
r

s
s
s
s
s

Column-II

(A) The values of cos 2 q + sin 4 q for all q

p.

belong to (0, 1]

(B) In a DABC if tan A < 0 then values of tan B tan C

q.

3
belong to ,1
4

(C) For any real q np, n I the values of

(D) If A > 0, B > 0 and A + B =

cos 2 q - 1
cos2 q + cos q

p
then the values of 3 tan A tan B
3

r.

are less than 0


or greater than 2

s.

belong to (0, 1)

t
t
t
t
t

3
14.

Column-I

Column-II

(A) The roots of cubic equation (z + ab)3 = a3

( a 0, a R )

represent the vertices of a

p.

| tan a |

q.

3 3
| a |2
4

r.

2
|a-a|
3

s.

4 cos 2

triangle of area equal to


(B) If a is a complex number then the radius of the circle

(C) If arg z = a and z - 1 =1 then

z -a
= 2 is equal to
z -a

z-2
is equal to
z

(D) Let A and B represent complex numbers z1 and z2, which are roots of the equation
z2 + pz + q = 0. If AOB = a 0 and OA = OB, where O is the origin then

SECTION IV - Comprehension Type


This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3
multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
Paragraph for question nos. 15 to 17
Let E : denotes the event that a student does his homework
with P (E) = p and F : denotes the event that he answer the question
correctly.
15. If p = 0.75, then the value of P (E/F) equals
(a)

8
16

(b)

10
16

(c)

12
16

(d)

15
16

16. The relation P (E/F) P (E) holds good for


(a) all values of p in [0, 1]
(b) all values of p in (0, 1) only
(c) all values of p in [0.5, 1] only
(d) p = 0, 1
17. Suppose that each question has n alternative answers of
which only one is correct, and p is fixed but not equal to 0 or
1 then P (E/F)
(a) decreases as n increases for all p (0, 1)
(b) increases as n increases for all p (0, 1)
(c) remains constant for all p (0, 1)
(d) decreases if p (0, 0.5) and increases if p (0.5, 1) as
n increases.
Paragraph for question nos. 18 to 20
Consider a polygon of sides n which satisfies the equation
3.nP4 = n1P5.

a
2

p2
is equal to
q

18. Rajdhani express travelling from Delhi to Mumbai has 10


stations enroute. Number of ways in which a train can be
stopped at 3 stations if no two of the stopping stations are
consecutive, is
(a) 20
(b) 35
(c) 56
(d) 85
19. Number of quadrilaterals that can be made using the vertices
of the polygon of sides 10 if exactly two adjacent sides of
the quadrilateral are common to the sides of the n-gon, is
(a) 50
(b) 60
(c) 70
(d) None of these
20. Number of quadrilaterals that can be formed using the
vertices of a polygon of sides 10 if exactly 1 side of the
quadrilateral is common with the side of the n-gon, is
(a) 150
(b) 100
(c) 96
(d) None of these

..Part - B : Physics..
SECTION I - Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
21. Two blocks each of mass m lie on a smooth table. They are
attached to two other masses as shown in the figure. The
pulleys and strings are light. An object O is kept at rest on
the table. The sides AB and CD of the two blocks are made
reflecting. Find the acceleration of two images formed in
those two reflecting surfaces w.r.t. each other.

4
m

C m

A
O
B

22.

23.

The cylinder is attached with a conducting rod of length L ,


cross-section area (1/9) m2 and thermal conductivity K,
whose other end is maintained at 0C. If piston is moved
such that rate of heat flow through the conducing rod is
constant then velocity of piston when it is at height L/2
from the bottom of cylinder is :
[Neglect any kind of heat loss from system]

2m

3m

(a) 17g/6
(b) 7g/6
(c) 11g/6
(d) 5g/6
A small quantity of solution containing Na24 radionuclide
(half life 15 hours) of activity 1.0 microcurie is injected into
the blood of a person. A sample of the blood of volume
1cm 3 taken after 5 hours shows an activity of 296
disintegrations per minute. Determine the total volume of
blood in the body of the person. Assume that the radioactive
solution mixes uniformly in the blood of the person.
(1 curie = 3.7 1010 disintegrations per second).
(a) 5.91 litres
(b) 0.91 litres
(c) 3.21 litres
(d) 4.12 litres
Consider the potentiometer circuit arranged as in figure.
The potentiometer wire (resistance 15r) is 600 cm long. If the
jockey touches the wire at a distance of 560 cm from A, what
will be the current in the galvanometer ?
E

27.

(a)

K
m / sec
R

(b)

m / sec
10R

(c)

m / sec
100R

(d)

m / sec
1000R

A U-tube of base length l filled with same volume of two


liquids of densities r and 2r is moving with an acceleration
a on the horizontal plane. If the height difference between
the two surfaces (open to atmosphere) becomes zero, then
the height h is given by

N
r

E/2

24.

25.

26.

(a) 3E/22r
(b) 5E/22r
(c) 3E/11r
(d) 5E/11r
Three identical positive charges Q are arranged at the vertices
of an equilateral triangle. The side of the triangle is a. Find
the intensity of the field at the vertex of a regular tetrahedron
of which the triangle is the base.
(a)

(c)

KQ
a2
KQ

(b)

(a)

28.

a2

(c) 1/2
(d) 1 / 2
0.5 mole of an ideal gas at constant temperature 27C kept
inside a cylinder of length L and cross-section area A closed
by a massless piston.

(b)

3a
l
2g

a
2a
l
l
(d)
g
3g
An object is moving in the xy plane with the position as a
r
function of time given by r = x(t)i + y(t)j . Point O is at
r
r = 0 . The distance of object from O is definitely decreasing
when
(a) vx > 0, vy > 0
(b) vx < 0, vy < 0
(c) xvx + yvy < 0
(d) xvx + yvy > 0
(c)

KQ

(d) None of these


a2
A point source is emitting sound in all directions. Find the
ratio of distance of two points from the point source where
the difference in loudness levels is 3 dB. (log10 2 = 0.3)
(a) 2
(b) 3

a
l
2g

SECTION II - Multiple Correct Choice Type


This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONE
OR MORE is/are correct.
29.

If the first minima in a Youngs double slit experiment occurs

5
directly in front of one of the slits, (distance between slit
and screen D=12cm and distance between slits d=5cm.) then
the wavelength of the radiation used can be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 2/3 cm
(d) 4/3 cm
30. A small sphere of mass m suspended by a thread is first
taken aside so that the thread forms the right angle with the
vertical and then released, then
(a) total acceleration of sphere as a function of q is
g 1 + 3cos 2 q
(b) thread tension as a function of q is T =3mg cos q
(c) the angle q between the thread and the vertical at the
moment when the total acceleration vector of the sphere

31. A horizontal plank has a rectangular block placed on it. The


plank starts oscillating vertically and simple harmonically
with an amplitude of 40 cm. The block just loses contact
with the plank when the latter is at momentary rest. Then
(a) the period of oscillation is (2p/5)
(b) the block weighs double its weight, when the plank is
at one of the positions of momentary rest
(c) the block weighs 0.5 times its weight on the plank
halfway up
(d) the block weighs 1.5 times its weight on the plank
halfway down extreme.
32. A nonconducting disc having uniform positive charge Q, is
rotating about its axis with uniform angular velocity w. The
magnetic field at the centre of the disc is

-1

is directed horizontally is cos 1 / 3


(d) the thread tension at the moment when the vertical
component of the sphere's velocity is maximum will be
mg.

(a) directed outward


m 0 Qw
(b) having magnitude
4pR
(c) directed inwards

(d) having magnitude

m 0 Qw
2pR

SECTION III - Matrix-Match Type


This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be
matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are
labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column -I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be
darkened as illustrated in the following example:
If the correct matches are Ap, s and t; Bq and r; Cp and q; and Ds and t; then the correct darkening
of bubbles will look like the given :

A
B
C
D

p
p
p
p
p

q
q
q
q
q

r
r
r
r
r

s
s
s
s
s

t
t
t
t
t

33. Each of the properties of sound listed in the column - I primarily depends on one of the quantities in column - II. Write down the
matching pairs from the two columns.
Column I
Column II
(A) pitch
p. waveform
(B) quality
q. frequency
(C) loudness
r. intensity
(D) Sound level
s. wavelength
34. According to Bohrs model of H-atom, if Vn denotes the potential energy of electron, Kn the kinetic energy, En the total
energy and rn the radius of nth orbit, then match the following :
Column I
Column II
(A)

Vn
=?
Kn

p. 0

(B)

rn E nx , x = ?

q. 2

1
Z y, y = ?
rn
(D) Angular momentum in lowest orbital

(C)

r.

s.

SECTION IV - Comprehension Type

38.

This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3


multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
Paragraph for question nos. 35 to 37
The figure shows the interference pattern obtained in
double-slit experiment using light of wavelength 600nm. 1, 2, 3, 4
and 5 are marked on the five fringes.
Central bright fringe

12
35.

36.

37.

39.

40.

The third order bright fringe is


(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
Which fringe results from a phase difference of 4p between
the light waves emanating from two slits
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 4
Let DXA and DXC represent path differences between waves
interfering at 1 and 3 respectively then
( | DXC | | DXA | ) is equal to
(a) 0
(b) 300nm
(c) 600 nm
(d) 900nm

..Part - C : Chemistry..
SECTION I - Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
41.

42.

Paragraph for question nos. 38 to 40


Superposition of waves results in maximum and minimum of
intensities such as in case of standing waves. This phenomenon
is called as interference. Another type of superposition result in
interference in time which is called as beats. In this case waves are
analyzed at a fixed point as a function of time. If the two waves are
of nearby same frequency are superimposed, at a particular point,
intensity of combined waves gives a periodic peak and fall. This
phenomenon is beats. If w1 and w2 are the frequencies of two
waves then by superimposed y = y1 + y2, we get at
w - w 2 w1 + w 2
x = 0, y = 2A cos 1
.t sin
.t
2
2

Thus amplitude frequency is small and fluctuates slowly. A


beat i.e., a maximum of intensity occurs, also intensity depends
on square of amplitude. The beat frequency is given by
w beat = | w1 - w 2 | .

Number of beats per second is called as beat frequency.


A normal ear can detect only upto 15 Hz of frequency because of
persistence of ear.

If two sound sources of frequency difference 25 Hz are


sounded together. Then which of the following is correct ?
(a) A normal human ear will hear 25 Hz beat frequency
(b) A normal human ear will hear only 10 Hz beat frequency
(c) A normal human ear cannot hear this frequency
(d) A normal human ear cannot hear this beat frequency
Two sources of frequency 50 Hz and 52 Hz vibrated together
to produce beats, frequency of resultant wave
(a) 51 Hz
(b) 1 Hz
(c) 2 Hz
(d) 52 Hz
The frequency of beats produced when two sources of
sound are activated, one emitting wavelength 32 cm, other
32.2 cm is (Take vsound = 350 m/s)
(a) 14
(b) 18
(c) 7
(d) 10

43.

44.

An evacuated glass vessel weighs 50.0 g when empty, 148.0


g when filled with a liquid of density 0.98 g mL1 and 50.5 g
when filled with an ideal gas at 760 mmHg at 300 K. Determine
the molar mass or the gas.
(a) 123 g mol1
(b) 133 g mol1
1
(c) 128 g mol
(d) 111 g mol1
The energy of the electron in the second and third Bohr
orbits of the hydrogen atom is 5.42 1019 J and
2.41 1019 J, respectively. Calculate the wavelength of
the emitted radiation when the electron drops from third to
second orbit.
(a) 6.104 106 m.
(b) 6.604 107 m.
7
(c) 2.604 10 m.
(d) 4.604 107 m.
The densities of graphite and diamond are 2.25 and 3.51 gm/
cc. TheDGr value are 0 J mol1 and 2900 J mol1 for graphite
and diamond respectively. Calculate the equilibrium pressure
for the conversion of graphite into diamond at 25C.
(a) 0.12 109 Pa
(b) 3.12 109 Pa
(c) 5.32 109 Pa
(d) 1.52 109 Pa
2+
A solution has 0.05 M Mg and 0.05 NH3. Calculate the
approximate concentration of NH4Cl required to prevent
the formation of Mg(OH)2 in solution.

K sp[Mg(OH)2 ] = 9.0 1012 and ionization constant of NH3


is 1.8 105.
[Given : log 1.8 = 0.2552, log 1.34 = 0.1271]
(a) 0.067 M
(b) 0.67 M
(c) 1.67 M
(d) 1.27 M

7
45. I effect is shown by
(a) Aryloxy
(b) Ethyl
(c) Isopropyl
(d) tert-butyl
46. Consider the cell Ag(s) | AgBr(s)|Br (aq)|| AgCl(s) | Cl (aq)
| Ag(s) at 25C. The solubility product constants of AgBr &
AgCl are respectively 5 1013 & 1 1010. For what ratio
of the concentrations of Br & Cl ions would the emf of the
cell be zero ? [Given : 0.059 log 5 1013 = 0.7257]
(a) 1 : 200
(b) 1 : 100
(c) 1 : 500
(d) 200 : 1
47. Which of the following complex will show geometrical as
well as optical isomerism. [en = ethylene diamine]
(a) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(b) [Pt(NH3)Cl4]
4+
(c) [Pt(en3)]
(d) [Pt(en)2Cl2]
O

NaOCH3

48.
Ph

Product

Product is/are
O

(b)

O
Ph

CH2CH2OCH3

Ph

COOCH3
O

(c)

(d)
Ph

C OCH3
O

Cl
1
6

NO2
+ NH3

Ph

COCH3

SECTION II - Multiple Correct Choice Type


This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONE
OR MORE is/are correct.

heat
pressure

Cl
(a) No reaction is possible because Cl is present on
benzene ring.
(b) A nucleophilic substitution will take place in which
both Cl will be replaced by two NH2 groups.
(c) A nucleophilic substitution will take place in which
only Cl attached on C1 will be replaced by NH2.
(d) A nucleophilic substitution will take place in which
only Cl attached on C4 will be replaced by NH2.
50. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ?
(a) ionisation energy

CH2CH2 Br

(a)

49. Which of the following statement is false regarding following reaction ?

1
Screening effect

(b) The first ionisation energies of Be and Mg are more


than ionisation energies of B and Al respectively
(c) Atomic and ionic radii of Niobium and Tantalum are
almost same
(d) Metallic and covalent radii of potassium are 2.3 and
2.03 respectively.
51. Two elements A and B form compounds having molecular
formula AB2 and AB4. When dissolved in 20g of C6H6. 1g
of AB2 lowers the freezing point by 2.3 K, whereas 1.0g of
AB4 lowers it by 1.3 K. The molar depression constant for
benzene is 5.1 K kg mol1. Then
(a) Atomic mass of A = 25.58 u
(b) Atomic mass of B = 42.64 u
(c) Atomic mass of A = 42.64 u
(d) Atomic mass of B = 25.58 u
52. Choose the correct options for inferences drawn.
(a) Canary yellow precipitate with ammonium molybdate
PO43
(b) Brown ring test with dil. H2SO4 NO2
(c) Yellow ppt. with HgCl2 solution SO42
(d) Yellow ppt. with HgCl2 solution NO3

SECTION III - Matrix-Match Type


This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be
matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are
labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column -I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be
darkened as illustrated in the following example:
If the correct matches are Ap, s and t; Bq and r; Cp and q; and Ds and t; then the correct darkening
of bubbles will look like the given :
53.

54.

Column I
Definite dipole moment
CH4 + Cl2 (excess)
CH3COCH2CH3 + alkaline Cl2
Reacts with ammonium silver nitrate
Column I
(A) CH2 = CHCN + (CH 3 ) 2 NH

A
B
C
D

p.
q.
r.
s.

catalyst
(B) CH2 = CHCN

q. Nucleophilic substitution

O
||
(C) CH3 - C - Cl + (CH 3 ) 2 NH

r.

Nucleophilic addition

(D) ClCH2CH = CHCN + (CH3)2NH

s.

Free radical addition

This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3


multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
Paragraph for question nos. 55 to 57
The shapes of molecules can be predicted by VSEPR theory,
hybridization and dipole moment. Total number of hybrid orbitals
(H) on the central atom of a molecule can be calculated by using
the following relation :
H = [Total no. of valence electron pairs (P)3 (no. of atoms
surrounding the central atom, excluding Hydrogen atoms)]
One can also calculate total no. of bond pairs (n) around
central atom as n = total number of atoms surrounding the central
atom also, total no. of lone pairs (m) = H n
Thus, VSEPR notation of a molecule can be written as
AXnEm. Where, A denotes central atom of the molecule.
X denotes bond pairs on central atom of the molecule.
E denotes lone pairs on central atom of the molecule.
In a polar molecule, the net dipole moment of the molecule
m
55. VSEPR notation of chlorine trifluoride molecule is
(a) AX5
(b) AX3
(c) AX2E3
(d) AX3E2
56. Some molecules are given below
CO2, SO2, H2O
I
II III

q
q
q
q
q

r
r
r
r
r

s
s
s
s
s

t
t
t
t
t

Column II
CH3Cl
CHCl3
CCl4
CH2Cl2
Column II
p. Transition state involves
pentavalent carbon

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

SECTION IV - Comprehension Type

p
p
p
p
p

The incorrect increasing order of dipole moment of given


species is
(a) I < II < III
(b) II < I < III
(c) III < II < I
(d) III < I < II
57. Total number of hybrid orbitals on central iodine in tri-iodide
ion, are
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Paragraph for question nos. 58 to 60
Consider the inter conversion of nitrosotriacetoamine into
nitrogen phorone and water.

(aq)

N2(g) + H2O(l)

(aq) 20 kJ/ mol

9
The reaction is 1st order in each direction, with an equilibrium
constant of 104, the activation energy for the forward reaction is
57.45 kJ/ mol. Assuming arrhenius preexponetial factor of 1012 s1.
58. What is the expected forward rate constant at 300K , if we
initiate this reaction starting with only reactant
(a) 102
(b) 106
8
(c) 10
(d) 104

59.

If the change in entropy of the reaction is 0.07 kJ. K 1 mol

at 1 atm pressure. Calculate up to which temperature the


reaction would not be spontaneous. (For forward reaction)
(a) T < 285.7 K
(b) T > 250 K
(c) T < 340.2 K
(d) T > 200 K
60. Calculate Kp of the reaction at 300 K
(a) 2.4 104 atm1
(b) 104 atm
4
(c) 24.6 10 atm
(d) 2.82 102 atm1

10

PAPER - 2
* GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :
1.
2.
3.

4.

Section I : Q. No. 1 to 4, Q. No. 20 to 23 and Q. No. 39 to 42 are Single Correct Choice Type questions. For this section, 3 marks
will be awarded for correct answer and zero marks for no answer. In all other cases, 1 mark will be awarded.
Section II : Q. No. 5 to 9, Q. No. 24 to 28 and Q. No. 43 to 47 are Multiple Correct Choice Type questions. For this section, 4
marks will be awarded for correct answer and zero marks for no answer. In all other cases, 1 mark will be awarded.
Section III : Q. No. 10 & 11, Q. No. 29 & 30 and Q. No. 48 & 49 are Multiple Matrix-Match Type questions. Each question
contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D,
while the statements in Column-II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column -I can have correct matching with
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column-II. 2 marks each will be awarded for darkening the correct bubble in each row. Hence
the maximum marks of each question is 8 marks. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.
Section IV : Q. No. 12 to 19, Q. No. 31 to 38 and Q. No. 50 to 57 are Integer Answer Type questions. In this section, 4 marks
will be awarded for correct answer and 1 mark for each wrong answer. Marks will be awarded only if you have darken the
appropriate bubble.

Time : 180 minutes

Max. Marks : 240

..Part - A : Mathematics..
SECTION I - Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
1.

f(x) = sin 4 x + + cos4


6

x + is
6

(a)
4.

25
8

(c)

25
4

(d)

25
2

r >3

(b)

r <1

(c)

1 < r < 2 (d) 2 < r < 3

SECTION II - Multiple Correct Choice Type

(a) not a periodic function

This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question


has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONE
OR MORE is/are correct.

(b) a periodic function with period 2p

5.

(d) a period function with period p/2


If

w is an imaginary cube root of unity, then a root of the

equation

3.

(b)

If b1 , b2 and b3 (b1 > 0) are three successive terms of a G.P.


with common ratio r, the value of r for which the inequality
b3 > 4b2 3b1 holds, is given by
(a)

(c) a periodic function with period p


2.

25
12

x +1

w2

x + w2

w2

x+2

6.
= 0 is

(a) x = 1
(b) x = w
(c) x = w2
(d) x = 0
Let f (x, y) = 0 be the equation of a circle such that
f (0, y) = 0 has equal real roots and f (x, 0) = 0 has two distinct
real roots. Let g (x, y) = 0 be the locus of point P from where
tangents to circle f (x, y) = 0 make angle p/3 between them
and g (x, y) = x2 + y2 5x 4y + c, c R.
Let Q be a point from where tangents drawn to circle
g (x, y) = 0 are mutually perpendicular. If A, B are the points
of contact of tangents drawn from Q to circle g (x, y) = 0,
then area of triangle QAB is

Let f : A B and g : B C be functions and gof : A C.


Which of the following statement is true
(a) If gof is one-one then f and g both are one-one
(b) If gof is one-one then if is also one-one
(c) If gof is bijection then f is one-one and g is onto
(d) If f and g are both one-one then gof is one-one.
In the expansion of (x + y + z)20
(a) coefficient of x7y8z7 is zero
(b) total number of distinct terms is 231
(c) every term is of the form

7.

20!x 20 - r y r - k z k
(20 - r)!(r - k)!k!

(d) sum of coefficient is 320


The locus of the mid point of the focal radii of a variable
point moving on the parabola, y2 = 4ax is a parabola whose
(a) latus rectum is half the latus rectum of the original parabola
(b) vertex is (a/2, 0)
(c) directrix is y-axis
(d) focus has the coordinate (a, 0)

11
8.

For the hyperbola 9x2 16y2 18x + 32y 151= 0


(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

one of the directrix is x = 21/5


length of the latus rectum = 9/2
focii are (6, 1) and ( 4, 1)
eccentricity is 5/4

9.

1 1 1 2
Let E = + + + + ..... upto 50 terms, then
3 50 3 50
(a) E is divisible by exactly 2 primes
(b) E is prime
(c) E 30
(d) E < 35

SECTION III - Matrix-Match Type


p q r s
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be
matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are A p q r s
labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column -I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE B p q r s
statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be C p q r s
darkened as illustrated in the following example:
D p q r s
If the correct matches are Ap, s and t; Bq and r; Cp and q; and Ds and t; then the correct darkening
of bubbles will look like the given :
10.
Column-I
Column-II
(A) If a,b,c are unequal positive numbers and b is A.M of a and c then the roots of
p. of opposite signs
ax2 + 2bx + c = 0 are
(B) If a R, then the roots of the equation x2 (a + 1)x a2 4 = 0 are
q. rational numbers
(C) If a, b, c are unequal positive numbers and b is H.M of a and c then the roots of
r.
real and unequal
2
ax + 2bx + c = 0 are
(D) If a b < c and a = 0 then the roots of a2x2 + (b2 + a2 c2) x + b2 = 0 are
11.

t
t
t
t
t

s.

imaginary

t.
p.

of same sign
Column-II
A rational number

(B) If roots of equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, a 0 are a and b and the roots of the equation
a5x2 + ba2c2x + c5 = 0 are 4 and 8 then | ab | is

q.

An irrational number

(C) If log3 (log5 x) + log1/3 (log1/5 y) = 1 and x2y = 1 ( x, y R ) then the value of 5x + y is

r.

(D) Let a, b, c are rational numbers a -1 and x1, x2 are the real roots of the equation
x3 ax2 + bx c = 0 then x1 x2 is

s.

26

Column-I
(A) a, b, c, d are four distinct real numbers and they are in A.P. If
2 (a b) + x (b c)2 + (c a)3 = 2 (a d) + (b d)2 + (c d)3 then the value of x can be

12

SECTION IV - Integer Answer Type


This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate
bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers to question numbers
X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:

12.

point is at shortest distance from the circle

If n > 3 and n N , then find the value of n Cr = Cr .

x 2 + y 2 + 2 x - 2 2 y + 2 = 0, tangents are drawn to the

C0 abc - C1 (a - 1)(b - 1)(c - 1) + C2 (a - 2)(b - 2)(c - 2) +

circle and the parabola, then the area of the triangle PAB is

+ (-1) n Cn (a - n)(b - n)(c - n) .

13.

Find the principle value of the argument of the complex


number ii .

14.

If sin q cos q and x, y, z satisfy the equations

18.

x cos p - y sin p + z = cos q + 1

x sin p + y cos p + z = 1 - sin q

x cos ( p + q ) - y sin ( p + q ) + z = 2
x2 + y2 + z2.

15.

16.

then find the value of


A person has 6 friends and during a certain vacation he met
them during several dinners. He found that he dinned with
all the 6 exactly on one day, with every 5 of them on 2 days,
with every 4 of them on 3 days, with every 3 on 4 days; with
every 2 on 5 days. Furthers every friend was present at 7
dinners and every friend was absent at 7 dinners. Then find
the number of dinner(s) he had alone.
A straight line cuts the x-axis at point A (1, 0), and y-axis at

point B, such that OAB = a a > .C is a middle point

4
of AB, if B' is a mirror image of point B with respect to line OC
and C' is a mirror image of point C with respect to line BB',
then find the ratio of the areas of triangles ABB 'and BB ' C ' .
17.

If a point P on the parabola y 2 = 4 x is taken such that the

a where A and B are the points of contact on two different


lines on circle and parabola respectively, then find the value
of a.
P (x, y) is a point, which moves in the xy plane such that
2 [ y ]=3 [ x ], where [ . ] denotes the greatest integer function
and -2 x 5 , -3 y 6 . Then find the area of the
region containing the point P (x, y) .
x

19.

sin x

If f ( x ) = x - tan x
2 x sin 2 x

Lim
x0

cos x
- x3
5x

, then find the value of

f ( x)
.
x

..Part - B : Physics..
SECTION I - Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
20. In the figure shown S0 is a monochromatic source of light
emitting light of wavelength l (in air). Light falls on slit S
from S0 and then reach the slits S1 and S2 through a medium
of refractive index 1. Light from slits S1 and S2 reach the
screen through medium of refractive index 3.
A thin transparent film of refractive index 2 and thickness
t is placed infront of S2 . Point P is symmetrical w.r.t. S1 and

13
S2. Using the values d = 1 mm, D = 1m, 1 = 4/3, 2 = 3/2,
3 = 9/5 and t = (4/9) 105 m. The distance of central
maxima from P is

S1
O

S
S0

S1

d 1

S2
3m

d
1

S2

2,t

Screen

2D

(a) 1mm

(b) 0

(c) 2mm

(d) 0.5mm

21. When a galvanometer is shunted with a 4W resistance, the


deflection is reduced to one-fifth. If the galvanometer is
further shunted with a 2W wire, the further reduction in the
deflection will be (the main current remains the same).
(a) (8/13) of the deflection when shunted with 4W only
(b) (5/14) of the deflection when shunted with 4W only
(c) (3/4) of the deflection when shunted with 4W only
(d) (3/13) of the deflection when shunted with 4W only
22. Two vibrating strings of the same material but length L and
2L have radii 2r and r respectively. They are stretched under
the same tension. Both the strings vibrate in their
fundamental modes, the one of length L with frequency n1
and the other with frequency n2 . The ratio n1 / n2 is given
by :
(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) 8

(d) 1

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

the intensity at O is 4I0


the intensity at O is zero
the intensity at a point on the screen 1m below O is 4I0
the intensity at a point on the screen 1m below O is
zero
25. A double star is a system of two stars of masses m and 2m,
rotating about their centre of mass only under their mutual
gravitational attraction. If r is the separation between these
two stars then their time period of rotation about their centre
of mass will be proportional to
(a) r3/2
(b) r
1/2
(c) m
(d) m1/2
26. In the figure shown, the plates of a parallel plate capacitor
have unequal charges. Its capacitance is C. P is a point
outside the capacitor and close to the plate of charge Q.
The distance between the plates is d.
2Q

(a) A point charge at point 'P' will experience electric force


due to capacitor
(b) The potential difference between the plates will be
3Q/2C
(c) The energy stored in the electric field on the region
between the plates is 9Q2/8C
(d) The force on one plate due to the other plate is

23. A steel wire of length 4 m and diameter 5 mm is stretched by


5 kg-wt. Find the increase in its length, if the Youngs
modulus of steel of wire is 2.4 1012 dyne/cm2.
(a) 1.0041 cm.

(b) 0.0041 cm.

(c) 4.1 cm.

(d) 1.2 cm.

SECTION II - Multiple Correct Choice Type


This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONE
OR MORE is/are correct.

Q2
2pe 0 d 2

27. Suppose the potential energy between electron and proton


at a distance r is given by -

24. A parallel beam of light (l = 5000 ) is incident at an angle a


= 30 with the normal to the slit plane in a Youngs double
slit experiment. Assume that the intensity due to each slit at
any point on the screen is I0. Point O is equidistant from S1
and S2. The distance between slits is 1mm.
28.

Ke 2

. Application of Bohrss
3r 3
theory to hydrogen atom in this case shows that
(a) energy in the nth orbit is proportional to n 6
(b) energy is proportional to m 3 (m : mass of electron)
(c) energy in the nth orbit is proportional to n 2
(d) energy is proportional to m 3 (m = mass of electron)
During an experiment, an ideal gas is found to obey a
condition

P2
= constant [r = density of the gas]. The gas
r

14
is initially at temperature T, pressure P and density r. The
gas expands such that density changes to r /2
(a) The pressure of the gas changes to

(c) The graph of the above process on the P-T diagram is


parabola
(d) The graph of the above process on the P-T diagram is
hyperbola

2P

(b) The temperature of the gas changes to

2T

SECTION III - Matrix-Match Type


This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be
matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are
labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column -I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be
darkened as illustrated in the following example:
If the correct matches are Ap, s and t; Bq and r; Cp and q; and Ds and t; then the correct darkening
of bubbles will look like the given :

29.

Column I

Column II

(A) Electron jumps from lower to higher orbit

p.

Potential Energy changes

(B) A body is lifted in gravitational force

q.

Kinetic Energy changes

(C) Spring is compressed

r.

Negative work is done

(D) A body is pulled on a rough surface

s.

Conservative force acts

t.

Non-conservative force acts

30.

Column I

Column II

A. Wattless current

p.

When circuit contains only C

B.

Oscillating current

q.

When circuit contains only L

C.

Heating effect

r.

When both L and C are used

D.

Phase difference of

s.

When all L, C & R are used

p
2

A
B
C
D

p
p
p
p
p

q
q
q
q
q

r
r
r
r
r

s
s
s
s
s

t
t
t
t
t

15

SECTION IV - Integer Answer Type


This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate
bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers to question numbers
X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
X

31. The masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected


by a massless spring in fig. A force of 200 newton acts on
the 20 kg mass. At the instant shown, the 10 kg mass has
acceleration 12 m/sec2. What is the acceleration (in m/s2) of
20 kg mass?

10 kg

20 kg
200 newton

32. A particle is moving on x-axis has potential energy


U = 2 20x + 5x2 joules along x-axis. The particle is released at
x = 3. If the mass of the particle is 0.1 kg, then find how many
times of ten is the maximum velocity (in m/s) of the particle.
33. The length of a wire between the two ends of a sonometer is
105cm. If the sum of the distances of the positions of the two
bridges from one end is expressed as (182 x) cm so that the
fundamental frequencies of the three segments are in the
ratio of 1 : 3 : 15. Find the value of x.
34. A brass rod of length 50 cm and diameter 3.0 mm is joined to a
steel rod of the same length and diameter. If the change in
length of the combined rod at 250 C is (A 102) cm, given the
original lengths are at 40.0 C, what is the sum of digits of A?
The ends of the rod are free to expand (Co-efficient of linear
expansion of brass = 2.0 105 K1, steel = 1.2 105 K1 ).
35. Two long parallel wires carrying current 2.5 amperes and
1 ampere in the same direction (directed into the plane of

the paper ) are held at P and Q respectively such that they


are perpendicular to the plane of paper. The points P and Q
are located at a distance of 5 metres and 2 metres respectively
from a collinear point R (see figure). An electron moving
with a velocity of 4 105 m/s along the positive x- direction
experiences a force of magnitude 3.2 1020 N at the point
R. Find the value of I (in ampere).

5m

2m
R
P
Q
X - - - -O
X --- - -O
- - ............. x
2.5A
1A
36. A thin half ring of radius R = 20 cm is uniformly charged with
a total charge q = 0.70 millicoloumb (mC). If the magnitude
of electric field strength at the curvature centre of this half
ring is (100 k) V/m, find the value of k.
37. A hydrogen like atom (atomic number Z) is in a higher excited
state of quantum number n. The excited atom can make a
transition to the first excited state by successively emitting
two photons of energy 10.2 eV and 17.0 eV respectively.
Alternately, the atom from the same excited state can make
a transition to the second excited state by successively
emitting two photons of energies 4.25 eV and 5.95 eV
respectively. Determine the value of n.
(Ionization energy of H-atom = 13.6 eV)
38. A plano convex lens has a thickness of 4 cm . When placed
on a horizontal table, with the curved surface in contact with
it, the apparent depth of the bottom point of the lens is found

16
to be 3 cm. If the lens is inverted such that the plane face is in
contact with the table, the apparent depth of the centre of the
plane face is found to be 25/8 cm. If the focal length (in cm) of
the lens is 25y, find the value of y.

OH

(a)

(b)

Ph
H

CH3
Ph

CH3

OH

..Part - C : Chemistry..
CH 3

SECTION I - Single Correct Choice Type

(c)

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question


has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
39.

40.

41.

The bond dissociation enthalpies of H2(g) and N2(g) are


+ 435.95 kJ mol1 and + 941.8 kJ mol1 and enthalpy of
formation of NH3(g) is 46.024 kJ mol1. What is the
enthalpy of atomization of NH3(g)
(a) 0.170 MJ mol1
(b) 1.70 MJ mol1
1
(c) 1.170 MJ mol
(d) 2.130 MJ mol1
In Ostwalds process for the manufacture of nitric acid, the
first step involves the oxidation of ammonia gas by oxygen
gas to give nitric oxide gas and steam. What is the maximum
weight of nitric oxide that can be obtained starting only
with 10.00 g of ammonia and 20.00 g of oxygen ?
(a) 15g
(b) 20g
(c) 10g
(d) 25g
The molar volume of liquid benzene (density=0.877 g ml1)
increases by a factor of 2750 as it vapourizes at 20C. At
27C when a non-volatile solute (that does not dissociate)
is dissolved in 54.6 cm3 of benzene, vapour pressure of this
solution, is found to be 98.88 mm Hg. Calculate the freezing
point of the solution.
Given : Enthalpy of vapourization of benzene (l) = 394.57
Jg1. Enthalpy of fusion of benzene (l) = 10.06 kJ mol1

OH

OH

CH3

SECTION II - Multiple Correct Choice Type


This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question
has4 choices(a), (b), (c) and (d) for itsanswer, out of which ONE
OR MORE is/are correct.
43.

A solution of 0.2g of a compound containing Cu2+ and


C2O42 ions on titration with 0.02M KMnO4 in presence of
H2SO4 consumes 22.6 mL of the oxidant. The resultant
solution is neutralized with Na2CO3, acidified with dil. acetic
acid and treated with excess KI. The liberated iodine requires
11.3 mL of 0.05 M Na2S2O3 solution for complete reduction.
Then the correct options are
(a) Amount of C2O42 in the solution = 1.13 103 mol
(b) Amount of Cu2+ in the solution = 0.56 103 mol
(c) Amount of C2O42 in the solution = 0.56 103 mol
(d) Amount of Cu2+ in the solution = 1.13 103 mol

44.

Choose the correct statements


(a) BeO is insoluble but BeSO4 is soluble in water.
(b) The carbon hydride of the type CnH2n+2 act as Lewis
acid or base

Molal depression constant for benzene = 5.0 K kg mol 1.


[Given : log 100.2 = 2.00086, log 74.63 = 1.8729]

42.

(d) Ph

Ph

(a) 177.65 K

(b) 277.65 K

(c) Due to its high bond enthalpy, dihydrogen is not


particularly reactive at room temperature

(c) 517.65 K

(d) 237.15 K

(d) The s-block elements are very reactive

An unknown compound (A) with the M.F. C9H12O does


not decolorize Br 2 in CCl4 and is oxidised by hot KMnO4 to
give PhCO2H. The compound reacts with Na to give a
colourless and odourless gas. From the following results
deduce the correct structure for (A).
(i) The colour of Cr2O72- changes from orange to blue-green.
(ii) The compound can be resolved.
(iii) No precipitate of CHI3 is observed with I2 / OH-.
(iv) Oxidation with CrO3 / pyridine gives a chiral compound.

45.

Which of the following is (are) correct statement(s)


(assuming oxidation number of metal does not affect crystal
field energy)
(a) Considering H2O to be a weak ligand then on the basis
of CFSE only, we can say that [Co(H2O)6]2+ is more
stable than [Co(H2O)6]3+
(b) On the basis of CFSE only [Fe(NH3)6]2+ is more stable
than [Fe(NH3)6]+3
(c) All octahedral complexes of Ni(ll) are bound to be outer
d-complex
(d) The type of d-orbital involved in the hybridisation for
a square planar complex (CN = 4) is d 2 .
z

17
46. An aromatic chiral compound G (C8H8Br2) on treatment
with aqueous NaOH gives H (C8H9BrO). On heating G
with potassium tert-butoxide I (C8H7Br) is formed. With one
equivalent of methyl magnesium bromide in ether pbromoisopropylbenzene is formed which observation/s is/
are correct about these reactions.
(a) (I) is an optically inactive aromatic alkene
(b) H is an optically active phenol

47. Choose the correct options for


CH3
OH

H
14CH
3

Na

Red P
I2

Me Cl
b

MeONa

II

(a) I and II are identical


(b) I and II are different

(c) G =

(c) Mechanism of formation of I and II are same


(d) Mechanism of formation of I and II are different

(d) Benzylic halide gives nucleophilic substitution with


faster rate than aryl halide

SECTION III - Matrix - Match Type


This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have
to be matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in ColumnII are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column-I can have correct matching with ONE OR
MORE statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these
questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the following example:

p
p

q
q

r
r

s
s

t
t

D p

t
t

If the correct matches are Ap, s and t; Bq and r; Cp and q; and Ds and t; then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the given.

48.

49.

Column - 1

Column - II

(A) Left behind as waste in Kipps apparatus

p.

Mohrs salt

(B) It is green in colour

q.

Green vitriol

(C) On heating it leaves a residue that is brown in colour

r.

Basic copper carbonate

(D) On heating it leaves a residue that is black in colour

s.

Hydrated cupric chloride

Column - I

Column - II

(A) CH3CH2 CH2CN

p.

Reduction with PdC/H2

(B) CH3 CH2 OCOCH3

q.

Reduction with SnCl2/HCl

(C) CH3CH= CHCH2OH

r.

Development of foul smell on


treatment with chloroform and
alcoholic KOH

(D) CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2

s.

Reduction with diisobutylaluminium


hydride(DIBAL-H)

t.

Alkaline hydrolysis

18

SECTION IV - Integer Answer Type


This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the
questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The
appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the
ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers to
question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively,
then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:

50.

51.

The dipole moment of KCl is 3.332 1029 Coulomb meters


which indicates that it is a highly polar molecule. The
interatomic distance between K+ and Cl in this molecule is
2.6 1010 m. The percentage ionic character of KCl is 10x
then find the value of x.
At 27C, hydrogen is leaked through a tiny hole into a vessel
for 20 minutes. Another unknown gas at the same
temperature and pressure as that of H2 is leaked through
the same hole for 20 minutes. After the effusion of the gases
the mixture exerts a pressure of 6 atmosphere. The hydrogen
content of the mixture is 0.7 mole in a container of volume
3 litres. If the molecular weight of the unknown gas is
expressed as (1040 A), then what is the value of A.

52.

How many dipeptides are possible from two molecules of


a typical a-amino acid ?

53.

The edge length of unit cell of LiCl having rock salt type
lattice is 5.14. If Li+ ions precisely fit into the octahedral
woids of closed packed structure of Cl ions. If the ionic
radius (in pm) of Cl ions is expressed as 121x then what is
the value of x?

54.

The vapour pressure of pure benzene at a certain temperature


is 640 mm Hg. A non-volatile non-electrolyte solid weighing
2.176 g is added to 39.0 g of benzene. The vapour pressure of
the solution is 600 mm Hg. If the molecular weight of the solid
substance is expressed as

130
then find the value of A.
A

55.

We have taken a saturated solution of AgBr. Ksp of AgBr is


12 1014. When 107 mole of AgNO3 are added to 1 litre of
this solution then, conductivity (specific conductance) of
this solution is find as 11x 107 (S m1 units). Find the
value of x. Given, molar conductance of Ag+, Br and NO3
are 6103 Sm2mol1, 8103 Sm2mol1 and 7103 Sm2mol1.

56.

Consider a reaction aG + bH Products. When


concentration of both the reactants G and H is doubled, the
rate increases by eight times. However, when concentration
of G is doubled keeping the concentration of H fixed, the
rate is doubled. What will be the overall order of the reaction?

57.

Reductive ozonolysis of myrcene, a terpenoid

gives how many different products?

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