Documenti di Didattica
Documenti di Professioni
Documenti di Cultura
for
CBSE Preliminary 2010
1.
The dimension of
t: 0 E ,
(1) MLT-1
(3) ML-1T-2
Sol. Answer (3)
Energy density =
=,
2.
(t + 5t1
v =- (t + 5t2
a= 2 (t + 5t3
= 2 v3t2
3.
have the magnitudes and directions indicated in the figure. Which of the following
lb
ld
- ~
(1)
(3)
E+e=t
d+c =t
(2)
(4)
E+c=t
a+e=1
4.
A particle has initial velocity (37 + 4)) and has acceleration (0.4/ + 0.3 })
(1) 10 units
(2)
7 units
(4)
8.5 units
v = o+at
= 71 + 7}
v=
5.
7J2
6.
the block and the cart is J.l. The acceleration a of the cart that will
(2)
a> mg
f.!.
A man of 50 kg mass is standing in a gravity free space at a height of 10 m above the floor. He throws a
stone of 0.5 kg mass downwards with a speed 2 m/s. When the stone reaches the floor, the distance of the
man above the floor will be
(1) 20 m
(2)
9.9
(3) 10.1 m
(4)
10 m
0.5 X 1Q
= 0.1
50
Total height= 10 + 0.1 = 10.1 m
7.
An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water passes through the pipe and leaves it with a velocity of
2 m/s. The mass per unit length of water in the pipe is 100 kg/m. What is the power of the engine?
w
200 w
(1) 800
(2)
(3)
(4)
w
100 w
400
=dv3p
= J.tV3
= 1QQ
8.
= 8QQ W
A ball moving with velocity 2 m/s collides head on with another statio
coefficient of restitution is 0.5 then their velocities (in m/s) after coli"
(1) 0, 2
(3) 1, 1
=m x
v 1 + 2mv2
= v1 + 2v2
0.5 x 2 = v2 - v1
2
Adding v 2 = 1, v1 = 0
9.
,.'f
(1)
r>
-
J.lQ
(i)2
(2)
r = J.lQ w2
(4)
r <- J.lQ2
(i)2
10.
r from the
centre
(i)
A circular disk of moment of inertia It is rotating in a horizontal plane, about its symmetry axis, with a constant
angular speed wr Another disk of moment of inertia lb is dropped coaxially onto the rotating disk. Initially the
second disk has zero angular speed. Eventually both the disks rotate with a constant angular speed ffir- The
energy lost by the initially rotating disc to friction is
(1)
(3)
Ibit
2(/t+lb)
1
It
2(/t+lb)
(i)
(2)
2
W
I
(4)
Ib
2(/t+lb)
1
2
W
lb -It
Ut+lb)
(i).
11.
Two particles which are initially at rest, move towards each other under the action of their internal
If their speeds are v and 2v at any instant, then the speed of centre of mass of the system will
(1) v
(2)
2 v
(3) Zero
(4)
1.5
12.
3V
(1)
(2)
(3) 6
3V
12
1
Voc-
..{i
=>
v2
v;
=>
v2
=f,
r2
= 2 V1
=6 v
ituat~
13.
potential at a
at
at the centre of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The gravitational
(2)
(4)
Sol. Answer (2)
-GM
GM
a
2
-3GM
a
3GM
a
GM
14.
A ball is dropped from a high rise platform at t = 0 starting from rest. After 6 seconds another ball is thrown
downwards from the same platform with a speed v. The two balls meet at t = 18 s. What is the value of v?
(Take g = 10 m/s2 )
(1) 60 m/s
(2)
75 m/s
(3) 55 m/s
(4)
40 m/s
-Q
182
= V X 1 2 + .2. Q X 1 22
2
v = 75 m/s
15.
(2)
Q
(3) 16
Sol. Answer (3)
A
A'=-
==> L' = 4L
Q'
==>
A' L
Q = A L'
16
Q
16
(1)
(2)
ar2 T 4
R2
(4)
ar 4T 4
r4
If !!U and !!W represent the increase in internal energy and work done by the system respectively in a
thermodynamical process, which of the following is true?
(1) !!U
=-
(3) !!U
= !!W,
!1 W, in a isothermal process
in a isothermal process
(2)
(4)
!!U
=!1 W,
in a adiabatic process
co
2
3co
2;
(2)
co
Simple harmonic motion of frequency n
(4)
(2)
(4)
2 T
=-
dt 2
2
ffi x,
19.
J2r
(1)
(3)
J2
Tu::JM
T2 =
~M+M
T2
M
=
.fi~
20.
(3) nA
(2)
nA
2
(4)
2n:A
A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz makes 4 beats per second with the vibrating string of a piano. The beat
frequency decreases to 2 beats per sec when the tension in the piano string is slightly increased. The frequency
of the piano string before increasing the tension was
(1) 508 Hz
(2)
510Hz
(3) 514Hz
(4)
516Hz
= 512 -
=508Hz
22.
Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves?
(1) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation
(2) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attains the maxima and minima at the same place and same time
(3) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors
(4) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the
propagation of wave
of
A lens having focal length f and aperture of diameter d forms an image of intensity ~~~e!lt'
in central region of lens is covered by a black paper. Focal length of lens and int
respectively
f
I
(1) -and-
(2)
3f
I
(3) -and-
(4)
.
d
diameter
f..1=140
(2)
f.l = 1.33
(4)
f.l = 1.50
25.
,e
arrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. IfF is the force of repulsion between
er of electrons missing from each ion will be (e being the charge on an electron)
(2)
(4)
n=
26.
A square surface of side L meter in the plane of the paper is placed in a uniform electric field E (voltlm) acting
along the same plane at an angle e with the horizontal side of the square as shown in figure. The electric flux
linked to the surface, in units of volt-m, is
(1) Zero
(2)
EL2
(4)
EL 2 sine
27.
= E . S , here
_i
S ==> ~
=0
A series combination of n 1 capacitors, each of value C1 , is charged by a source f pot tial difference 4 V.
When another parallel combination of n2 capacitors, each of value C 2 , is charge
source of potential
difference V, it has the same (total) energy stored in it, as the first combin tie has. he value of C2, in terms
of c1' is then
16C1
(1) n1n2
(2)
(3) 16 ~2 c1
(4)
11---{J--------l
= /1
=> R
= k/1
=>X= (/2-/1)
=>X= k(/2- /1)
= kern-
(2)
k(/2
/ )
1
and k/2
(4)
k(/2
/ 1)
and k/1
29.
A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 ohm and gives a full scale deflection for 30 mA current. If it is to
work as a voltmeter of 30 volt range, the resistance required to be added will be
(1) 1000 Q
(2)
900 Q
(3) 1800 Q
(4)
500 Q
R= - - G
lg
30.
9.67
10-3 kg
m =Zit
pended in a uniform magnetic field acting in the plane of the loop . If the
32.
(2)
3F
(3)
(4)
-3F
~2
33.
A thin ring of radius R meter has charge q coulomb uniformly spread on it. The ring rotates about its axis with
a constant frequency of f revolutions/s. The value of magnetic induction in Wb/m 2 at the centre of the ring is
(1)
~oqf
2R
J..loq
(3) 2nfR
(2)
(4)
~oqf
2nR
~oq
2fR
= Jloqf
2R
34.
2R
(2)
(4)
A vibration magnetometer placed in magnetic meridian has a small bar magnet., The
oscillations with a time period of 2 sec in earth's horizontal magnetic field of 24 microtesl .
field of 18 microtesla is produced opposite to the earth's field by placing a current carryi
period of magnet will be
(1) 4s
(2)
1s
(3) 2s
(4)
3 s
Toc-
JB
~ =~=~=2
36.
un1f~
r agn i((
(1) 2 11V
.....t..:.._
:r
(3) 1tJlV
(2)
2 1tJlV
(4)
%J.!V
'(.~'
= Bnr2
dt
= Q 025
37.
>V'TT~'oL
x1x1Q-3
r cu1 the reading of voltmeter V1 and V2 are 300 volts each. The reading of the voltmeter V3 and
IV
Aa
respectively
L
R = 100
220V, 50 Hz
(2)
1 50 V, 2. 2 A
(4)
220 V, 2.0 A
38.
A 220-volt input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of 2.0 ampere at 440 volts. If the
efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current drawn by the primary windings of the transformer is
(1) 5.0 ampere
(2)
3.6 ampere
(4)
2.5 ampere
440x 2 100
x220
80
=5A
39.
(2)
1.00
(3) 1.02
Sol. Answer (2)
he
n~
1 A.1
-=-p2 nhe
2 A.
2
40.
(1)
(2)
(4)
So
qV
1
2
= -mv 2
2VE 2
41.
The potential difference that must be applied to stop the fastest photo electrons emitted by a nickel surface,
having work function 5.01 eV, when ultraviolet light of 200 nm falls on it, must be
(1) 1.2
(3) -1.2
(2)
2.4
(4)
-2.4
he
= --~
'A
1240evnm
= - - - - 5.01 eV
200nm
(2)
o"""""'=~"f'l
2
5
loge
5
(3)
loge 2
=T av = 5 minute
loge 2
T112 = - - = 5 loge 2
'A
43.
(2)
(4)
-54.4 eV
= -13.6 eV
44.
The mass of a ~Li nucleus is 0.042 u less than the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The binding energy
per nucleon of ~Li nucleus is nearly
(1) 23 MeV
(2)
46 MeV
(4)
3.9 MeV
BE= l1Mc 2
= 0.042 x 931
MeV
= 5.6 MeV
45.
2 mv
(1)
(2)
v4
(3) v2
(4)
Ze
1
Sol. Answer ( 4)
1
ze2
fo = - - - - 4no .2.m v2
2
46.
ry-
p
out
fc
Rout
==:>
R,n
= Vout
1n
(!)
/
B
47.
(1)
(2)
48.
49.
To get an output Y = 1 from the circuit shown below, the input must be
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
25.3 g of
sodi ~~
carbonate dis ~~ompletely, molar concentration of sodium ion, Na+ and carbonate ions, co~- are
I r mass of Na2C03 = 106 g mol-1)
Molarity=
25 3 1000
x
= 0.955 M
106 X 250
= 2 0.955
= 1.910 M
X
0.955 M
(2)
(4)
53.
Property of the alkaline earth metals that increase with their atomic number
(1) Electro negativity
(2)
(4)
Ionization energy
54.
(4)
zr4+, Hf4+
(1) 4
(2)
10
(3) 7
H of buffer solution
+ log [B-]
[HB]
pOH
:.
= 10 ( :
concentration of [B-]
= [HB])
pH=14-10=4
56.
(2)
Addition of NaCI
(4)
10!:.6.
+
C-x
(2)
3.5
(4)
1.8x10~
10-4
[CH3COOH] =
[CH3COO-]
c- X
::::;
= 0.2 + x ""
c = 0.1
0.2 M
1.8x10- x0.1
=---0.2
58.
(1) 1.25
(2) 6.25
(3) 1.25
(4) 6 25
d[N:Pj]
1 d[NOJ
dt
d[0
dt
1 d[N2 0 5
2
--=-dt
2
2d[OJ
dt
~
~
~
entropies of X 2 , Y 2 and XY 3 are 60, 40 and 50 JK- 1mol- 1 respectively. For the reaction
(1) 500 K
(2)
750 K
(3) 1000 K
(4)
1250 K
= 50 - (30 + 60)
60.
During the kinetic study of the reaction 2A + B ~ C + D, following results were obtained
-1
-1
Run
[A] I molL
[B] I molL
0.1
0.1
6.0
10-
II
0.3
0.2
7.2
10-2
Ill
0.3
0.4
2.88
10-
IV
0.4
0.1
2.40
10-2
(2)
2.88x10-
[0.2t(0.3)"
[oAt [0.3]a
a=1
61.
For the reduction of silver ions with copper metal, the standard cell potential was found to be +0.46 V at 25C.
The value of standard Gibbs energy, ~G 0 will be (F = 96500 C mol-1 )
(1) -98.0 kJ
(2)
-89.0 kJ
(3) -89.0 J
(4)
-44.5 kJ
= --88780 j
""--89 kJ
62.
Which one of the following species does not exist under normal conditions?
(2)
(1) Li2
(3) Be2
AB crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with edge length 'a' equal to 387
two appositively charged ions in the lattice is
(2)
335pm
(3) 250 pm
(4)
200pm
u
'if
(1) 300 pm
65.
(3) Mn3+
(At. nos. Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28)
Co+3
= [Ar]3d 6
distance between
(2)
Ni3 +
(4)
Fe3+
66.
KP =Kc(RTt9
.1n9 = 0 for the reaction 2C (g)+ 0 2 (g)~ 2C02 (g)
Thus KP = Kc
67.
(1) 5.00
10-7 M3
(2)
4.00
10~ M3
(3) 4.00
10-7 M3
(4)
5.00
10~
M3
= 1 o-2
2S
28
= 10-2
2
s = 1o- = 5 x 1o-3 M
2
= [5 x 1o-3] [1 o-2]2
Ksp = 5 x 10-7 M3
in aqueous solutions?
(2)
(4)
= 57)
Lu 3+ (z = 71)
La 3+ (z
69.
(2)
(4)
Fact
(2)
K02
(3) Ba02
(4)
Mn02
71.
In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, the central atoms have sp2 hybridization?
(1) BF3 and NH;
(2)
(4)
NH; and Hp
The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii among the following isoelectronic species is
(1) K+ > Ca 2+ > Cl- > S2(3) e~- >
s 2-
(2)
(4)
s 2-
10 22
(3) 1.806
10 23
= 6.02 x
= NA x mole x 3
= 6.023 10
= 1.806 X 1023
X
74.
23
0.1
(2)
[Ni(CN)4 f-
(4)
[Fe(H20) 6f+
75.
(1)
(2)
CaS04
(4)
BaS04
Hydra ion energy decreases down the group, whereas lattice energy remains almost constant.
76.
The existence of two different coloured complexes with the composition of [Co(NH 3) 4CI2 j+ is due to
(1) Ionization isomerism
(2)
Linkage isomerism
(4)
Cooridnation isomerism
(2)
+ 3, + 5, + 4
(3) + 5, + 3, + 4
(4)
+ 5, + 4, + 3
H4P20s
X= 3
Hp2os
2x = 8
X= 4
Hp2o7
2x = 10
X= 5
78.
The tendency of BF3 , BCI3 and BBr3 to behave as Lewis acid decreases in the segld
(1) BF3 > BCI 3 > BBr3
(3) BBr3 > BCI 3 > BF3
(4)
incre~n
Group 16
80.
81.
(1) --0.6 fl 0
(2)
-1.8 fl 0
(3)
(4)
-1.2 fl 0
In which one of the following species the central atom has the type of hybridisation which is not the same
as that present in the other three?
(1) PCI5
(2)
SF4
(3) 13-
(4)
SbCI52 -
sp3&
82.
83.
6
lV
NaNO/HCI
(273- 278 K)
N, N-dimethylaniline
y~
(1) HN---&-N
~YH"
=N--&-NH
(2)
@-N = N-IQ\-N'
'\'::::..r 'cH
84.
85.
(2)
Oxidation
(3) Cracking
(4)
86.
(2)
Promethazine
(3) Valium
(4)
Naproxen
phenomenon of mutarotation?
(2)
(+) Sucrose
(4)
(+) Maltose
(2)
-(CHc.C = CH--CH
I
Cl
CN
I
(3) -(CHcCH)n
(4)
= -fCH2-CI = CH-CH2h
Cl
89.
(1)
(2)
CH2iH--COOC2 H5
Br
COOH
(4)
@_OCH,Ci-1,
COOH
COOC2 H5
~ @_ c,H,oH.,
@_
HBr
Br
@
FeCI,
90.
(2)
C6 H5CH(C6H5)Br
(3) C 6H5CH(CH3)Br
(4)
C6 H5C(CH 3)(C6H5)Br
91.
(2) @roH
(4)
Sol. Answer (2)
Due to greater e- releasing effect.
92.
o-bH-o
OH
(1)
(3) -OH
Sol. Answer (3)
o-R , acetic acid (II), 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol (Ill) and phenol (IV). In these the order of
cter will be
93.
(1)
(2)
(4)
Maximum resonance stabilized and maximum-1 and -M effect due to three -N02 groups, therefore more acidic
than CH3COOH.
94.
Acetamide is treated with the following reagents separately. Which one of these would yield m
(1) PCI5
(2)
NaOH-Br2
(3) Sodalime
(4)
Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of carbon-
97.
(2)
H~C~
H
H
H
(3)
(4)
&
HH
H H
Sol.
98.
@ c$rNq
(CH3) 3 C-X
(CH3) 2CH-X
(Ill)
(IV)
Nq
(I)
(II)
(2)
(4)
Among the given compounds, the most susceptible to nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl group is
(1) CH3COCI
(2)
CH3COOCH3
(3) CH3CONH 2
(4)
CH3COOCOCH3
(2)
-0.372C
(3) -0.520C
(4)
+0.372C
t.Tr = Kr m
t.Tr=To-Ts
101. Virus envelope is known as
(1) Core
(3) Virion
Sol. Answer (2)
(2)
(4)
&ech~occus,
p~ent in
103.
(1)
(2)
Gemini viruses
(3)
(4)
Viroids
e. iou proteins are present in prions. Prions contain only the protein coat of the virus and are responsible
for aiseases in human beings. Example, prions cause Kuru's disease, CJD, Scrapie and Bovine spongiform
encephalopathy.
104. Male and female gametophytes are independent and free-living in
(1) Sphagnum
(2)
Mustard
(3) Castor
(4)
Pinus
Gametophytes
(2)
Protista
(3) Fungi
(4)
Archaea
(2)
Octopus
(4)
Asc1d1a
107. Which one of the following statements about all the four of
Spongilfc:r.-IL...Q1:;o~r
(2)
Flat worms
(4)
Ctenophores
iploetastic and acoelomate. Whereas, sponges have cell aggregate type of body plan and
orals are diploblastic.
e following statements about certain given animals is correct?
arms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates
(2) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates
(3) Molluses are acoelomates
(4) Insects are pseudocoelomates
Sol. Answer (2)
Roundworms are (Aschelminthes) and pseudocoelomate. Whereas, flatworms are acoelomate, molluscs and
insects are coelomate.
(2)
(3) Plastoquinones
(4)
(2)
(3) Dictyosome
(4)
Plasma membrane
(3) Mitochondrian
(4)
Cytoplasm
114.
(1)
(2)
Late prophase
(3)
(4)
Late metaphase
~~&:>Ei!i~rance
115.
begins in early prophase and these are not observed in late prophase.
(2)
Saccharomyces
(3) Streptococcus
(4)
Chlamydomonas
(2)
Cuboidal epithelium
(4)
A
Fig. A
(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Late Anaphase
g c.
(1)
(2)
(3)
120. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by
(1) Back cross
(2)
Test cross
(4)
Pedigree analysis
121. The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic code, is its being
(1) Specific
(2)
Degenerate
(3) Ambiguous
(4)
Universal
(2)
Organ transplantation
(4)
Forensic science
(2)
(3) Mucor
(4)
Pea
(1) Too
(3) One
Four
So,
(2)
(3)
ely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones
Abbfit;1 .3% recombination in Drosophila w.r.t. body colour and eye colour genes.
126. Select the two correct statements out of the four (a-d) given below about lac operon.
(a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it
(b) In the absence of lactose the repressor binds with the operator region
(c) The z-gene codes for permease
(d) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monad
(2)
(4)
(1)
+ = male affected
(2)
D-=()
(3)
0 = unaffected male
(4)
D = unaffected female
(2)
(4)
(2)
Cotyledon
(3) Endosperm
(4)
Aleurone layer
(2)
Molybdenum
(4)
Zinc
130.
(1)
So
(1) Zinc
(2)
Molybdenum
(3) Copper
(4)
Manganese
(2)
Intrafascicular cambium
(4)
Phellogen
(2)
(1) Axile
(3) Basal
(1) Tracheids
(2)
Vessels
(3) Fibers
(4)
Transfusion tissue
136.
(1)
(2)
Monadelphous
(3)
(4)
Polyandrous
ose family shows cohesion of stamens by union of filaments into single bundle, known as monadelphous.
137. Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of
(1) Cucumber
(2)
Guava
(3) Plum
(4)
Brinjal
(2)
Gulmohur
(3) Cassia
(4)
Calotropis
(1) Azotobacter
(3) Rhodospirillum
(1) Alga
Bryophyte
(3) Gymnosperm
(4)
142.
Angiosperm
(1)
(2)
Glycolysis
(3)
(4)
Aerobic respiration
,"'\1 ....,~,,...,._
(2)
Tobacco
(3) Potato
(4)
Tomato
144. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (a- c) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human
adult
Respiratory capacities
Respiratory volumes
2500 mL
3500 mL
1200 mL
4500 mL
Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volumes?
(1) (a) 4500 mL, (b) 3500 mL
(2)
(4)
(3)
(4)
a.o.e:~
njury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valves of human heart is partially non-functional, the flow
v ...._'"'""d Into the pulmonary artery is reduced due to backfiOW Of blood into right atrium
147. Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
(1) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes
(2) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(3) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HC03
(4) Nearly 99 percent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules
(1) Gout
(2)
Tetany
(3) Anaemia
(4)
Angina pectoris
temperat~~IJd"tne
(1) Thalamus
(3) Pons
151.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
152. The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month
of pregnancy?
(1) Third month
(2)
Fourth month
(4)
Sixth month
153. Cu ions released from copper- releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs)
(2)
(4)
(2)
(4)
(3)
by kidneys
(4)
(2) Aldosterone
(3) Both Androstenedione and Dehydroepiandrosterone
(4) Adrenaline
Sol. Answer (4)
If the adrenal cortex is injured it will not affect the secretion of adrenaline, because it is secreted by adrenal
medulla.
158. Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct?
(1) Thermotaxis
(2)
Thigmotaxis
(3) Thigmonasty
(4)
Thigmotropism
(2)
1Jrg
(3)
(4) Large, producing abund
(2)
Gibberellin
(4)
Cytokinins
163. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called
(1) Autogamy
(2)
Xenogamy
(3) Geitonogamy
(4)
Karyogamy
(2)
(4)
(1) Ampulla
(2)
(3) Infundibulum
Sol. Answer (3)
The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary i
abdominal cavity released by ovaries.
I is NPP
(2)
(3) Natality
Wildlife sanctuary
(4)
Sacred groves
(1) Forest
(2)
Coal
(3)
(4)
Minerals
at~l resource is
173.
n petroleum ~v"L'"""'als
174. The two gases making highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are
(2)
(4)
CH4
(1) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich source of aerobic bacteria
(2) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste
(3) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle
(4) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is pure methane
Sol. Answer (1)
Methanobacteria are anaerobic.
176. Which two of the following changes (a-d) usually tend to occur inthe plain dwellers when theY.
(2)
(4)
(a)
177.
(4)
(a) A lion
four ~
eR
~llution
measurement.
a-d) given below and select the two correct ones auto of them
being consumers
(2)
(4)
179. The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation of response of organisms to abiotic factors. What do
a, band c represent respectively?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) Regulator
Conformer
Partial regulator
(2) Conformer
Regulator
(3) Regulator
Partial regulator
Conforme
Regulator
Conformer
u0
'if
(1) Typhoid
ia
(3) Pneumonia
181.
(1) Viruses
(3) Fungi
Sol. Answer (3)
(2)
Bacteria
(4)
Nematodes
BGA
Earthworm
All are biofertilizers and help in organic farming.
(2)
Glomus
(4)
Oscillatoria
(2)
Baculovirus
(4)
Glomus
(1) Frankia
(2)
Rhizobium
(3) Azospirillum
(4)
Oscillatoria
185. Consider the following four statements (a-d) regarding kidney transplant and sele
of these.
a.
b.
c.
d.
(2)
(3)
eing fully cured cent per cent with proper care and nutrition
(4)
us
nts a direct attack on T4 -cells. They are macrophages and T H-cells. Macrophages are HIV
e number of helper T-cells is depleted.
he correct statement from the ones given below
(1) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery
(2) Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth
(3) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer
(4) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate
Sol. Answer (3)
Morphine is a narcotic drug. It is a good sedative, as well as a pain killer, given to patients after surgery.
188. Toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis lead to the development of
(1) Thyrotoxicosis
(2)
Toxic goitre
(3) Cretinism
(4)
Simple goitre
Toxic agents in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis will lead to simple goitre.
Thyrotoxicosis and toxic goitre are under the category of hyperthyroidism.
189. The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs
(1) In the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division
(2) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the Fallopian tube
(3) Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
(4) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum
Sol. Answer (3)
(1)
(2)
(3) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less D
(4) It has more or less equal quantity of c t-G
Sol. Answer (2)
d".vi-s'{\_s~i~
d"~i~n~~s
(2)
(3)
naerobic conditions in the culture vessel
So
The tmer used in stirred tank bioreactor is to mix oxygen in the contents.
192. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, vitamins and proteins is called
(1) Micropropagation
(2)
Somatic hybridisation
(3) Biofortification
(4)
Biomagnification
(2)
Vector
(3) Probe
(4)
Clone
(2)
Baculovirus
(4)
Rhizopus nigricans
(2)
(4)
Insect-resistance
n~
as they can act as models for chemical safety testing and vaccine
Restriction endonucleases cuts the DNA at specific position within the DNA molecule.
198. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are
(1) High yield and resistance to bollworms
(2) Long fibre and resistance to aphids
(3) Medium yield, long fibre and resistance to beetle pests
(4) High yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests
(2)
(4)
5' GAATTC
vO
~~p.would
UV
Example:
&'lj-
~~
0~
3'-~AAG 5'