ENT

1. The most useful tuning fork test for unilateral impairment is?
a. rinne
b.webber
c.schwabach
d.bings
2. The lowest intensity of sound that the patient can identify is?
a. threshold
b.puretone
c.masking
d.cross hearing
3. Hughson Westlake technique of puretone audiometry?
a.starts examining the normal ear at 0 decibelat 125hz by bone conduction
testing
b. test 100 at 15-20 db lower than the treshold
c. give masking at high volumes at all times
d. use air conducting first on normal ear at 1000hz
4. the bone conduction testing and air conduction testing are both are both
abnormal in pure tone audiometry without gap of more than 10 db
a.normal
b.conductive type hearing loss
c.sensory neural hearing loss
d.mixed type hearing loss
5. if speech reception threshold is at 20db speech discrimination will be given at?
a.60db
b.10db
c.70db
d.20db
6. part of epiglottis attached to thyroid stem
a.petiole
b.tubercle
c.stem
d.neck
7. during inspiration this muscle is put into action
a. lateral cricoarytenoid
b.cricothyroid
c.posterior cricoarytenoid
d.interior arytenoids

8. area of larynx devoid of lymphatic

a.supraglottis
b.glottis
c.subglottis
d.anterior commisure
9. usual presentation of laryngeal hemangioma
a.bleeding

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b.stridor
c.diff of breathing
d.diff swallowing
location of the origin of laryngocoele
a.ventricle
b.post commisure
c.false vocal cord
d.subglottis
nose chin radiographi exam
a. submento vertical
b.upright waters
c.panoramic xray
d.caldwell
immediately complication of untreated septal hematoma
a.abscess
b.resorption of cartilage
c.saddle nose
d.sinusitis
horizontal buttress
a.zygomaticomaxillary
b.pterigomaxillary
c.orbital rim
d.nasomaxillary
pathognomonic sign of mandibular bone fracture
a.palpable deformity
b. pain on mastication
c.intraoral laceration
d.
loss of malar prominence indicates .
a. nasal bone fracture
b. maxillary bone fracture
c.zygomatic frature
d.

16. reference tOoth is determining occlusion

a.maxillary premolar
b.mandibular canine
c.maxillary 1st molar
d.mandibular 2nd molar
17. en block fracture of the palate and midface is?
a.le fort 1
b.le fort 2
c.le fort 3
d.le fort 4
18. fat herniation into the maxillary sinus in orbital floor fracture is seen
radiographically
a. air fluid deformity
b.tear drop deformity
c. step down deformity

d. popping eye deformity

19. le fort fracture refers to
a. mandibular bone fracture
b.zygomatic bone fracture
c.maxillary bone fracture
d.nasal bone fracture
20. muscles of mastication during biting
a. protrussor of the mandible
b.depressor of mandible
c. elevators of mandible
d. lateral movement of mandible
21. a patient with distocclusion pre injury sustains fracture on the body of the
mandible ideal aim in treating this patient is to restore occlusion to
a.class I oclussion
b.classII oclussion
c.classIII oclussion
d.class IV occlusion
22. 25 yo student driving a fast running sports car.. sustained facial injuries..
initial reactions should be?
a. adequate p.e and history
b.intravenous fluid infusion
c. nasal and oral cavity examination and debridement of blood
d. ancillary procedures xray and ct scan
23. the MC fractured part of the mandible
a.symphysis
b.condyle
c.alveolus
d.coronoid
24. muscles of the mandible that acts as protrusor and elevator
a. temporalis
b. masseter
c. medial pterygoid
d. lateral pterygoid
25. fracture of midface is best seen in?
a.lateral facial view
b.panoramic view
c.upright waters
d.submento vertical
26. stensens duct
a. parotid
b.submandibular
c.sublingual
d.minor salivary
27. whartins duct enters the oral cavity. This is the duct of?
a. parotid
b.submandibular
c.sublingual
d.minor salivary
28. the rivinus ductare 10 small duct that drains which salivary gland
a. parotid

b. submandibular
c. sublingual
d. minor salivary gland
29. what impt anatomic structure separates the parotid into superficial and deep
lobe?
a.masseter
b.facial nerve
c. buccinator
d. mandible
30. these salivary glands are numerous in number but contributes only 10% of total
saliva
a.parotid
b.submandibular
c. sublingual
d.minor salivary
31. total amount of saliva per day produced by the diff salivary gland?
a. 500ml
b.1000ml
c.1500ml
d.2000ml
32 radio contrast study of the salivary duct that may be used ..
a. salogram
b. ct scan
c. mri
d. radionuclide
33. ascending infection from oral cavity caused by staph aureus usual salivary
gland affected?
a. parotid
b.submandibular
c. sublingual
d.minor
34. acute viral sialadenitis (mumps) present with headache fever glandular swelling
with ear pain, dysphagia and trismus. It affects bilateral parotid glands in 75 % of
cases. What is the MC virus causing the disease
a. cytomegalovirus
b.paramyxovirus
c.influenza
d.herpes simplex
35. a mucocoele that occurs at the floor of the mouth growing to a larger size than
at other sites
a. ranula
b.sjogren
c.sarcoidosis
d.sialodenosis
36. axial pattern myocutaneous flap based on the thoracodorsal artery
a.pectoralis major myocutaneous flap
b.lat dorsi myocutaneous flap

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46.

c.temporal flap
d.delto pectoral flap
axial pattern myocutaneous flap based on the internal mammary artery
a.pectoralis major myocutaneous flap
b.lat dorsi myocutaneous flap
c.temporal flap
d.delto pectoral flap
axial pattern myocutaneous flap based on thoracoacromial artery
a.pectoralis major myocutaneous flap
b.lat dorsi myocutaneous flap
c.temporal flap
d.delto pectoral flap
axial pattern myocutaneous flap based on the supraorbital artery
a. pectoralis major myocutaneous flap
b. lat dorsi myocutaneous flap
c. temporalis flap
d. delto pectoral flap
two transpositional flap 90 degrees to each other
a.rhomboid transposition
b.v-y transposition
c.bilobed transposition
d.o-z transposition
a wedge of skin is excised to allow flap advancement
a. burrows
b.rotation flap
c. wedge
d.distal flap
skin tension line
a.lines of facial expression
b.orientation of collagen fibers
c.relaxed lines
d.tensed lines
lines of facial expression
a.lines of facial expression
b.orientation of collagen fibers
c.relaxed lines
d.tensed lines
mild euphoria mental alertness fight or flight rxn
a. tetracaine
b.chlorprocaine
c.lidocaine
d.cocaine
constrictors in anesthesia except
a. dec blood flow
b. prolong drug effect
c. inc the amount of drug needed
d. less of drug is absorbed
minimum safe dose of lidocaine
a. 5mg/kg
b.7.5mg/kg

c.7.5ml
d.5ml
47. face lift procedure
a. rhitidectomy
b.submental lipectomy
c.
d.
48. have a lower coefficient of friction
a. braided
b. absorbable
c. monofilament
d.
49. otherwise known as wolfes graft
a. full thickness skin graft
b.split thickness skin graft
c.thick split thickness skin graft
d.thin split thickness skin graft
50. NOT CLEAR
51 indirect examination of the neck, except
a. UTZ
b.angiography
c. FNAB
d. CT
52 superior boundary of the neck
a. clavicle
b.spinous process of c7
c.mastoid tips
d.SCM
53. attached to the foramen cecum and moves with tongue protrusion
a. thyroglossal duct cyst
b. type 1 brachial cleft
c.cystic hygroma
d.type 2 brachial cleft
54. painless mass of infancy that appear as multi or uni locular lateral.
a. lymphoma
b.type 1 brachial cleft
c.thyroglossal duct cyst
d.cystic hygroma
55. level VI lymph node
a. submandibular LN group
b. upper jugular LN group
c. pretracheal LN group
d. lower jugular
56. Diagnostic modality of choice for carotid body tumor?
a. T2 weighted MRI
b. Carotid arteriogram

c. Neck ultrasonography
d. neck x-ray
CASE:
25 yo female from QC with 2 yr history of neck mass, PE revealed:
Stable vital signs
Left 1.5cmx1.5cm and right 2cmx1.5cm solid, non tender mass
57. what blood examination should you request for this px
a. T3 T4 determination
b.FT3 TSH determination
c.T3 TSH
d.FT4 TSH
58. your above thyroid function test revealed normal result.. what modality should
you use to detect presence of malignancy
a. FNAB
b.large bore needle aspiration
c.incision biopsy
d.excision biopsy
59. head and neck malignancy usually seen in the salivary glands and not related to
alcohol use
a. squamous cell ca
b.adenocarcinoma
c.rhabdomyosarcoma
d.hodgkins lymphoma
60. MC paranasal sinus afflicted with squamous cell malignancy
a. frontal sinus
b.ethmoid sinus
c.maxillary sinus
d.sphenoid sinus
61. blood supply of pharynx except
a. basilar artery
b.lingual artery
c. maxillary
d. sphenoid
62. lateral attachment of pharynx except
a. medial pterygoid
b.hyoid bone
c.pterigo mandibular
d. base of the skull
63. NO reports of diverticula
a. laimers/ laimer haeckman area
b.killians dehiscence triangle
c.kilian jamieson
d.
64. anatomic narrowing at the level of the aortic arch from the maxillary
a. anterior compression
b.UES
c.LES
d.cardioesophageal
65. loss of or complete lack of ganglion cells( aurbachs plexus)

a. diffuse esophageal spasm

b. achalasia
c.laryngeal web
d.diverticulosis
66. not basic deformity of a cleft lip px
a. depression of lateral cruz
b. deflection of tip towards the non cleft side
c.short collumellar border
d
67. not a basic objective of repair of cleft lip
a. preserve philtrum, cupids bow, pout, mucocutaneous junction
b.shorten lip
c. reconstruct orbicularis oris
d.correct distortion alar base and columella
e. require orthodontic correction for deformed alveolus
68. tinnitus wc is perceived as autophony by the patient is secondary to
a. alteration of sound conduction
b.vascular pathology
c. patent ET
d.cervico-cranial vibrating phenomenon
69 episode of dizziness in which the most evidence to date locates the causative
lesion in the utricle
a. vestibular neuronitis
b.endolymphatic hydrops
c. acoustic neuroma
d. benign paroxysmal vertigo
70. structure that carries olfactory epithelium in lower animals
a. hiatus semilunaris
b.ethmo turbinalis
c.ethmoidal bullae
d.olfactory vesicle
71. blood supply of maxillary sinus
a. spheno palatine artery
b.opthalmic artery
c.anterior ethmoidal
d.infra orbital artery
72. the embryological derivative of the nasal septum is the
a. fronto nasal process
b.maxillary process
c.palatine process
d.mandibular process
73. potential space laterally bounded by the mandible and the parotid gland
a. peritonsillar space
b.retropharyngeal space
c.parapharyngeal space
d.submandibular space
74.complication includes edema of the glottis
a. peritonsillar abscess
b. retropharyngeal abscess

c.parapharyngeal abscess
d.submandibular abscess
e. masticator abscess
75. this space includes the visceral compartment which is a loose connective tissue
of the esophagus and trachea
a. peritonsillar abscess
b. retropharyngeal abscess
c.parapharyngeal abscess
d.submandibular abscess
e. masticator abscess
76. depressing the tongue on PE is usually difficult due to swelling in the floor of the
oral cavity
a. peritonsillar abscess
b. retropharyngeal abscess
c.parapharyngeal abscess
d.submandibular abscess
e. masticator abscess
77. this is made up of several intermuscular spaces bounded superiorly by the .
The cervical fascia stretching between the hyoid bone and mandible.
a. peritonsillar abscess
b. retropharyngeal abscess
c.parapharyngeal abscess
d.submandibular abscess
e. masticator abscess
TRUE OR FALSE
78 Cystic Hygroma occurs more commonly in the floor of the mouth F
79. thyroglossal duct cyst arise from vestigial lymph channel in the neck F
80. Branchial cleft cyst has internal opening at the pyriform sinus T
81. sistrunk procedure entails excision of the ____ and greater cornu of the hyoid
bone T
82. Nasopharyngeal malignancy usually metastasize to the level VI lymph node F
83. Systemic disease generally manifests with tender LN enlargement F
84. the glossopharyngeal nerve provide general sensation to the anterior F
85. the glossoepiglotic fold can be seen in the mesopharynx F

a.
b.
c.
d.

Esophageal atresia without fistula

Tracheoesophageal fistula w/o atresia
Esophageal atresia without TEF
Esophageal atresia with TEF

89. Fluids returning through the nose and mouth during swa. A
90. Fistula may occur bet cricoids and tracheal bifurcation B
91. rosethompson a. straight line closure A
92. Von lengenbeck
b. secondary cleft palate B
93 tennison randall c. triangular flap C

94. V-Y pushback a.two flap palatoplasty A

95. Millard
b.millard technique B
96. Rhytidectomy c. face lift C
97. palatal process of the opposite side in fused with nasal septum B
98. cleft through the secondary palate is in the midline and divides the incisive
foramen is separate from the premaxilla from the end of the palate D
99. incomplete cleft of the primary and secondary palates E
100. extends from the vermillion border to just short of the floor of the nasal
vestibule A