Bank of Questions

Pathology Questions
MCQs
Bank of Questions
1. A man was found dead after spending a night in a charcoal-heated closed

room. A uniform blue hemostatis was found on the back of the body. The most
likely diagnosis is:
a. CO poisoning
2. A man was found dead with a piece of cloth pushed in his mouth. Abrasions
and lacerations on the arms are also present. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Smothering
b. Chocking
c. Gagging
d. Hanging
3. After a prolonged exposure to Aniline dyes including B-naphthaline, a man is
at risk of developing?
a. Squamous cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder
b. Transisionl cell carcinoma of the kidney
c. Transitional cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder
4. A characteristic feature of smothering is:
a. Facial congestion
b. Facial abrasions
c. Petechia and cyanosis
d. Abrasions on the neck
5. In a car accident, the part of the aorta which may get affected/ruptured is:
a. Aortic root
b. Ascending aorta
c. Descending aorta
d. Abdominal aorta
6. An exposure to carbon tetrachloride would most commonly affect:
a. Lung
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Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Liver
c. Kidney
d. Brain
e. Bone
7. A patient had burn injuries involving 20% of his total body surface area. He
was initially stable however he died 3 weeks after the accident. This is mainly
because of:
a. The burns were extensive
b. He had inhalational injury
c. He was exposed to severe hypoxia
d. The burns were full-thickness
8. A single round opening wound was found on the forehead of a patient. The
wound was penetrating (9 mm) into the cranial cavity. A 6 cm of black
stippling was found around the opening. The most likely cause of this injury
is:
a. A penetrating wound
b. Close contact gun shot
c. Distant gun shot
d. Intermediate range gun shot
9. The process of reviewing and checking weekly on the temperature of the
water bath is a part of:
a. Quality control
b. Quality assurance
c. Quality improvement
d. System review
10. The process of reviewing the frozen section diagnosis with the final
diagnosis before releasing the case is a part of:
a. Quality assurance
b. Quality control
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Quality improvement
d. System review
11. The most commoncause of discrepancy between frozen section diagnosis &
the final diagnosis is:
a. Misinterpretation
b. Sampling error
c. Block sampling
d. Technical issues
12. An acceptable discrepancy rate between the frozen section diagnosis and the
final diagnosis is:
a. <2%
b. 0%
c. <10%
d. <5%
13. Pathologist "A" was reviewing a breast cancer case of pathologist "B" to be
presented in the tumor board. He came across a lymph node showing a
cluster of atypical cells in thesubscapular area, which was suspicious for
metastasis. The most appropriate action to be taken by pathologist "A" is to:
a. Defer the case and discuss it with pathologist "B"
b. Ignore the whole story
c. Do IHC and report the case
d. Ask pathologist B to discuss the case
14. If you receive a slide for a second opinion from an outside hospital without
patients identification, the most appropriate action would be:
a. Reject the slides and do not process them
b. Call the physician and retrieve patients data and identification
c. Process the slides and dont release the report
d. Process and report the case as any other case
Pathology Questions
MCQs
15. During performing a transthoracic FNA of the lung, which of the following
type of cells is a normal contaminant?
a. reviL
b. neeiiS
c. sioLuSN
d. luwie
16. What is the most common encountered organism in CSF cytology?
a. aCSaeaC
b. sNeiLgeeeoN
c. aLaerununnoNuSiucuLpCSN
17. The most helpful feature to distinguish between atypical repair and nonkeratinizing squamous cell carcinoma in PAP smears is:
a. Course irregular chromatin
b. Enlarged nuclei
c. The presence of nucleoli
18. Which of the following features is seen in invasive carcinoma in cytology:
a. Prominent nucleoli
b. Hyperchromasia
c. Naked nuclei
d. Small clusters of hyperchromatic nuclei
19. In a cytology smear, which of the following is not associated with a
perinuclear halo:
a. HPV
b. Pregnancy
c. Treatment with estrogens
d. Gardinella vaginalis
e. Chlamydia trachomatis
Pathology Questions
MCQs
20. All of the following entities show clusters of small hyperchromatic cells,
except:
a. LSIL
b. HSIL
c. Endometrial cells
d. Metaplastic cells
e. Atrophy
21. All of the following features are in favor of HSIL, except:
a. Smaller cells
b. High N:C ratio
c. Coarser chromatin
d. More irregular nuclear membrane
e. High nuclear volume
22. What do you recommend a patient with a diagnosis of ASC-H on pap smear:
a. Repeat in 4-6 months
b. Repeat after treatment with estrogens
c. Colposcopy
d. LEEP
23. The most common source of floaters is:
a. Knife
b. Embedding
c. Water bath
d. Cover slip
24. The presence of abundant lymphocytes in CSF cytology indicates:
a. Bacterial meningitis
b. Viral meningitis
c. Fungal meningitis
Pathology Questions
MCQs
25. An FNA was done from a 3 x 2 cm lung mass. It showed small uniform cells in
groups and individually. Some of the cells had a plasmacytoid appearance.
No nucleoli were seen. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Carcinoid tumor
b. Sqaumous cell carcinoma
c. Small cell carcinoma
26. A diabetic man suffered a severe chest pain. Investigations showed ischemic
changes. The patient was stable but then he developed hypovolemia and
cardiac arrest. What is the immediate cause of death is this patient?
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Cardiac arrest
c. Acute myocardial infarction
27. A diabetic patient developed an orbital infection. Sections showed nonseptated hyphal elements. The most likely cause is:
a. Aspergillosis
b. Cryptococcosis
c. Mucromycosis
28. A tumor with a bland cytology, locally aggressive and has a potential to
metastasize:
a. Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma
b. Giant cell tumor
c. Fibromatosis
29. A muscle biopsy showed mild perimysial lymphocytic infiltrate, muscle
fibers with basophilic-rimmed vacuoles and angular muscle fibers. The most
a. Dermatomyositis
b. Nerve denervation
c. Inclusion body myositis
Pathology Questions
MCQs
30. A most characteristic feature of inclusion body myositis is:

a. B-cell infiltrate
b. T-cell infiltrate
c. Group atrophy
d. Basophilic-rimmed vacuoles
31. Pagetoid spread of melanocytes are seen in melanoma as well as in the
following nevus:
a. Unnas nevus
b. Nevus spilus
c. Acral melanocytic melanoma
d. Halo nevus
32. A finding in the brain of a 7-year old boy with Downs syndrome:
a. Metaplasia
b. Dysplasia
c. Atrophy
d. Hyperplasia
e. Hypertrophy
f. Neoplasia
33. Depletion of which of the following substances in the cytoplasm would
increase the harmful effects of free radicals:
a. NADPH oxidase
b. Glutathione
34. Which of the following lesions is HMB-45 positive and associated with
tuberous sclerosis:
a. Lymphangioleiomyoma
b. Rhabdomyoma
35. The correct panel for a primary lung adenocarcinoma is:
a. TTF-1 +ve, CK7 +ve, p63 ve, CDX2 ve
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. TTF-1 +ve, CK20 +ve, p63 ve, CDX2 +ve

c. TTF-1 ve, CK7 +ve, p63-ve, CDX2 ve
d. TTF-1 ve, CK7 ve, p63 +ve, CDX2 ve
36. Which immunohistochemical stain is positive in lung adenocarcinoma and
negative in mesothelioma:
a. Calretenin
b. Cytokeratin
c. Thrombomodulin
d. WT1
e. MOC 31
37. A patient had a history of colectomy for colon cancer. He is presenting with a
white firm mesenteric mass with no hemorrhage or necrosis. What is the
most likely diagnosis:
a. Fibromatosis
b. GIST
c. Metastatic colon cancer
38. Paramesangial electron-dense deposits are seen in:
a. Membranous glomerulonephritis
b. IgA nephropathy
c. FSGS
d. Diabetic nephropathy
e. Amyloidosis
39. IgG and C3 can be strongly seen in the mesangium and capillaries in the
following disease:
a. Henoch-Schnlein purpura
b. FSGS
c. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Pathology Questions
MCQs
40. The common feature between membranous glomerulonephritis and poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is:
a. Both have double-contour basement membrane
b. The presence of sub-epithelial deposits
c. The presence of sub-endothelial deposits
41. What is the most common type of E.coli associated with hemolytic uremic
syndrome:
a. Enterotoxigenic E.coli
42. What is the probable diagnosis in a male patient with recurrent thrombosis:
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Transitional cell carcinoma
c. Pancreatic cell carcinoma
43. Multinucleated giant cells are seen in all of the following conditions, except:
a. Adamantinoma
44. The most common germ cell tumor in a woman is:
a. Dysgerminoma
b. Mature cystic teratoma
c. Yolk sac tumor
d. Embryonal carcinoma
45. A brain tumor was detected as calcifications on an X-ray. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
a. Choroidal plexus papilloma
b. Oligodendroglioma
c. Hemangioma
46. Which brain tumor is characterized by macroscopic edema:
a. Meningioma
b. Ependymoma
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Schwannoma
47. What is the earliest feature of an in-utero fetal demise:
a. Desquamation
b. Mummification
c. Arthrogryposis
d. Umbalical cord knot
48. The effect of HPV on squamous cells is:
a. Hyperplasia
b. Hypoplasia
c. Atrophy
d. Metaplasia
e. Neoplasia
49. Signet ring carcinoma is by definition:
a. The presence of > 50% signet-ring cells
b. The presence of > 50% mucinous cells
50. Antimicrosomal antibodies are seen in:
a. Hashimotos thyroiditis
b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
51. This disease has a nephritic clinical presentation and granular IgG & C3
deposits:
a. Membranous glomerulonephritis
b. DM
c. Amyloidosis
d. MPGM
52. The mutation seen in medullary thyroid carcinoma is:
a. RET oncogene
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Pathology Questions
MCQs
53. Which tumor is positive to SMA, Desmin, CD34 and bcl-2:

a. Angiosarcoma
b. Fibroadenoma
c. PASH
54. What does Ollier disease include:
a. Enchondromatosis
b. Exostosis
55. Which tumor has the translocation t(12:22):
a. Clear cell sarcoma
b. Synovial sarcoma
c. Rhabdoid tumor
56. The most common renal tumor < 2 months of age is:
a. Wilms tumor
b. Clear cell sarcoma
c. Rhabdoid tumor
57. Which tumor is FLY1 positive:
a. Clear cell sarcoma
b. Rhabdoid tumor
c. PNET/Ewings sarcoma
d. Synovial sarcoma
58. The most important prognostic factor in melanoma is:
a. Breslow thickness
b. Clark level
59. Which tumor is considered in the differential diagnosis of basal cell
carcinoma:
a. Trichoepithelioma
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Pathology Questions
MCQs
60. Which skin tumor is positive to CAM5.2:

a. Hidradenoma
61. Which skin tumor is positive to CK20 and has suniform cells:
a. Merkel cell carcinoma
62. The most common tumor in the minor salivary glands is:
a. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
63. The most common tumor in the adrenal glands is:
a. Metastatic carcinoma
b. Pheochromocytoma
c. Neuroblastoma
d. Adrenal cortical carcinoma
64. Which product has the potential to initiate apoptosis:
a. Granzyme B
b. Cytochrome p-450
65. The immunohistochemical profile of mycosis fungoides is:
a. CD3 +ve, CD4 +ve, CD8 -ve
b. CD3 ve, CD4 +ve, CD8 ve
c. CD3 +ve, CD4 ve, CD8 +ve
66. In an FNA, a smear showed cylindrical hyalinized loops of basal lumina.
What is the most probable diagnosis:
a. Hepatocellular carcinoma
b. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
67. What does 46,XY r(14) mean?
a. Ring chromosome 14 with a deletion
b. Ring chromosome 14 with a translocation
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Pathology Questions
MCQs
68. The immunohistochemical profile of synovial sarcoma is:

a. CK +ve, EMA +ve, CD99 +ve, TFE1 +ve, bcl2 +ve
69. When a patient has an autosomal dominant disease but he/she is
phenotypically normal, this is attributed to:
a. Variable expression
70. A child fell down during riding his bicycle. He had superficial sloughing of
the epidermis. What do you call such a lesion:
a. Laceration
b. Abrasion
c. Contusion
71. During wound healing, when do neutrophils start to appear:
a. 6 24 hours
b. before 6 hours
c. 24-48 hours
72. Transbronchial biopsies are not helpful in which of the following lung
diseases:
a. Interstitial lung diseases
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Carcinomas
73. What is the molecular change seen in breast carcinoma in situ when it
transforms into invasive carcinoma:
a. Possession of collagenase activity
b. Loss of E-cadherin
74. Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis is caused by:
a. E.coli and proteus
75. Which of the following conditions is a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma:
13
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Sclerosing Cholangitis
76. Which of the following tumor is known to have an abnormality in
chromosome 11:
a. Wilms tumor
77. Trisomy 7 & 17 is seen in which of the following tumors:
a. Papillary renal cell carcinoma
78. The difference between De Quirvian thyroiditis & Hashimotos thyroiditis is
that the former is characterized by:
a. A higher chance of complete recovery
79. The difference between biliary atresia and congenital hepatic fibrosis is that
the former is characterized by:
a. Ductular proliferation
b. Ductal plate malformation
80. Which pancreatic tumor is CK ve:
a. Solid pseudopapillary tumor
b. Pancreatoblastoma
c. Acinic cell carcninoma
81. The PAS +ve granules in the hepatocytes of Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
disease are due to:
a. Misfolded protein in the endoplasmic reticulum
b. Misfolded protein in the lysosomes
82. The ultimate step in viral elimination occurs in the:
a. Lysosome
b. Phagosome
c. Phagolysosome
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Pathology Questions
MCQs
83. In the recent update of the TNM classification of colon cancer, which of the
following is not part of this classification:
a. Tumor size
b. Metastasis
c. Number of lymph nodes
d. Invasion to the muscularis propria
e. Measurement of the distance between the tumor and the deepest
point of invasion
84. Which of the following tumors show a juxta-articular position, a low-grade
cartilage forming tumor and a high undifferentiated sarcoma:
a. Chondrosarcoma
b. Chondroblastic osteosarcoma
c. Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma
85. Which of the following renal tumors may show soft tissue extension but it is
still not considered to have an aggressive behavior:
a. Oncocytoma
b. Angiomyolipoma
86. Ameloblastoma is characterized by:
a. A locally aggressive course
87. Which cartilage-producing tumor is characterized by the presence of
hematopiotic elements between its components:
a. Enchondroma
b. Chondrosarcoma
c. Osteochondroma
88. Which cartilage-producing tumor can be seen as a lytic bone lesion with
irregular margins:
a. Well-differentiated chondrosarcoma
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Pathology Questions
MCQs
89. Which of the following tumors occurs most commonly in long bones of
children or young adults and it is characterized by a spindle cell sarcomatous
component with osteoid formation. This component is seen intimately
admixed with a cartilaginous component of an equivalent grade:
a. Chondroblastic osteosarcoma
90. What is the most common jaw lesion and shows multinucleated giant cells:
a. Central giant cell granuloma
b. Aneurysmal bone cyst
c. Osteoclastoma
d. Brown tumor
91. A patient is complaining of multiple skin nodules which was composed of

many osteoclast-like giant cells, the most likely diagnosis is:
a. Giant cell tumor of tendon sheath
92. Which of the following entities has a striking female predominance:
a. Collagenous colitis
93. What is the most common cause for urinary tract infections:
a. E.coli
94. Which soft tissue tumor is characterized by areas of high grade
dedifferentiation:
a. Pleomorphic MFH
b. Rhabdomyosarcoma
95. Which of the following entities is positive for HMB45 and negative for S100,
and CK:
a. Angiomyolipoma
16
Pathology Questions
MCQs
96. Which skin lesion is characterized by granulomas with central basophilic

degenerated collagen:
a. Granuloma annulare
97. Which of the following features is a favorable factor in neuroblastoma
a. Age < 1 year
b. The presence of N-Myc
98. What pancreatic lesion is associated with VHL syndrome:
a. Microcystic serous cystadenoma
99. Cowadry A inclusions are seen in:
a. HSV
100.
Multinucleaion, nuclear molding and chromatin margination are seen in:

a. HSV
101.
Drying artifact in cytology causes:

a. Nuclear englargement
b. Vacuolated cytoplasm
c. Hyperchromatic nuclei
102.
What does the abbreviation MOSD stand for:

a. Method of sheet data
103.
Which disease occurs in Orientals and associated with high levels of IgE,
recurrent infections, lymphadenopathy and peripheral eosinophilia:
a. Kimuras disease
b. Castelman disease
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Langerhans histiocytosis
e. Epitheliod hemangioma
17
Pathology Questions
104.
MCQs
Which lesion is characterized by the presence of blood vessels lined by

epithelioid endothelial cells:
a. Kimura disease
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Langerhans histiocytosis
e. Epithelioid hemangioma
105.
Which lymphoma as 2 cell populations, germinal centres & activated Bcells:

a. MALTomas
b. SLL/CLL
c. Follicular lymphoma
d. DLBCL
e. Mantle cell lymphoma
106.
Which lymphoma is characterized by t(11:14):

a. Mantle cell lymphoma
107.
Transolocation t(11:18) is seen in:

a. MALTomas/MZL
108.
Which tumor is associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome:

a. Sex cord tumor with annular differentiation
b. Fibroma
109.
Which tumor totally lacks any differentiation:

a. Adenosarcoma
b. MMMT
c. Adenofibroma
d. Undifferentiated uterine sarcoma
18
Pathology Questions
110.
MCQs
Which stain is used to differentiate atypical teratoid/rhaboid tumor from

choroidal plexus carcinoma:
a. EMA
b. GFAP
c. CK
d. Synaphtophysin
e. Vimentin
111.
The most common source for ovarian squamous cell carcinoma is:
a. Endometriosis
b. Mature teratoma
c. Endometriod adenocarcinoma
112.
The major difference between classic Hodgins lymphoma and nodular

lymphocyte predominant Hodgkins lymphoma is:
a. Nodularity
b. Inflammatory background
c. Positivity of tumor cells to CD30 and CD15
113.
Which tumor is positive to CD5 & CD117

a. Thymoma
b. Thymic carcinoma
c. Systemic mastocytosis
114.
Which tumor is characteristically located in the neck of males:

a. Spindle cell lipoma
115.
What is the typical immunochemical profile of Hodgkin lymphoma:

a. CD30+ve, CD45-ve, CD15+ve
116.
Which entity is characterized by a positive staining for CD20 and Bcl2:

a. Follicular lymphoma
19
Pathology Questions
117.
MCQs
What is the most common clinical presentation of respiratory

papillomatosis:
a. Post obstruction pneumonia
b. Change in voice
c. Cavitary lung lesions
118.
The most common cause for respiratory papillomatosis:

a. HPV 16
b. HPV 11
c. HPV 18
d. HPV 1
119.
Which renal tumor is characterized by the presence of a central scar and

prominent nucleoli:
a. Oncocytoma
120.
Which of the following tumors has a villoglandular architecture and it

shows positivity for ER and PR:
a. Endometriod endometrial adenocarcinoma
121.
Birbeck granules are seen in which of the following entities:

a. Langerhans histiocytosis
122.
Which tumor shows neurosecretory granules and synaptic vesicles under

EM:
a. Neuroblastoma
b. Pheochromocytoma
123.
Which of the following tumors has the genetic abnormality t(7:17):

a. Endometrial stromal sarcoma
124.
Which of the following oral cysts has the greatest tendency to recur:
a. Odontogenic keratocyst
20
Pathology Questions
125.
MCQs
Which of the following cystic renal diseases is characterized by cysts at

the cortico-medullary junction:
a. Medullary cystic kidney disease
b. Medullary sponge kidney
c. Polycystic kidney disease
d. Renal dysplasia
126.
Which disease is characterized by hepatomegally, neurological symptoms

and the presence of cells with a PAS +ve fibrillary cytoplasm:
a. Gaucher disease
127.
Which cells are responsible for the production of IgE in type 1

hypersensitivity reactions:
a. CD4 lymphocytes
b. Mast cells
c. Neutrophils
d. Macrophages
128.
How does the infection reach the brain in a case of HIV:

a. Infected macrophages
129.
What does the window period mean in a case of HIV:

a. The interval between the time of infection and the development of
detectable antibodies
130.
What is the best method for diagnosing amyloidosis:

a. Congo red special stain
131.
What is a large area of a subcutaneous blood collection called:

a. Ecchyomosis
132.
Why is there no light-chain restriction in Hodgkins lymphoma:
21
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. The neoplastic cells represent < 1% of the tumor cells

133.
Which organism characteristically causes suppurative inflammation and

microabscesses:
a. Staph. aureus
b. C. neoformans
134.
Which tumor is -catenin +ve and focally +ve to CD117:

a. Fibromatosis
b. GIST
135.
The most common clinical presentation of Digeorge syndrome is:

a. Defects in the heart and blood vessels
b. Clinical hypocalcemia
c. Facial anomalies
136.
Fragile X syndrome is characterized by all of the following, except:

a. Tandem repeat of trinucleotides
b. Affects only males
c. Mental retardation is more severe in consecutive generations
137.
What is the mechanism of neutrophilic killing of bacteria:

a. NADPH oxidative reaction
138.
The most important cells to be present in the diagnosis of temporal

arteritis are:
a. Neutrophils
b. Giant cells
c. Lymphocytes
d. Plasma cells
139.
The indication of performing frozen section in breast specimens is to:

a. Assess the margins
22
Pathology Questions
140.
MCQs
The most common cause of a bloody nipple discharge is:

a. Intraductal papilloma
141.
All of the following are true regarding intraductal papillomas, except:

a. Nipple retraction
b. Bloody nipple discharge
c. Growth in the lactiferous ducts
d. Multiple lesions
142.
The turn around time (TAT) for frozen section according to the CAP is:
a. 100% of the frozen blocks must be completed by 20 min
b. 90% of the frozen blocks must be completed by 10 min
c. 90% of the frozen blocks must be completed by 20 min
d. 50% of the frozen blocks must be completed by 20 min
143.
Which study can be either retrospective or prospective and in which the

investigators are interested in rare exposures?
a. Case control study
b. Cohort study
c. Prevalence study
d. Interventional trial
144.
The most favorable location for carcinoid tumor is:

a. Appendix
b. Colon
c. Stomach
145.
Nutmeg liver associated with:

a. Chronic passive congestion
b. Portal vein thrombosis
23
Pathology Questions
146.
MCQs
A patient suffered from multiple pleural nodules and pleural thickening

which composed of spindle cells, CK +ve and Calretenin +ve, the most
a. Synovial sarcoma
b. Malignant mesothelioma, sarcomatoid type
147.
Which tumor with the translocation t(X:18):

a. Synovial sarcoma
148.
Pre analytical review of control management of immunohistochemistry

includes:
a. New reagent lots
b. Antibody validity
c. Procedure and protocol
d. Tissue fixation
149.
A 10-y old boy had fever with sore throat. His mother gave him aspirin
after which the child became comatosed and his liver enzyme elevated.
What is the most likely diagnosis:
a. Reyes syndrome
b. Alpha1 antitrypsin deficiency
c. Biliary atresia
d. Wilson disease
150.
An 11-y old male developed dementia, hemiballismus and elevated liver

enzymes. CT scan showed liver cirrhosis. What other finding is expected
to be present in this patient:
a. Antimitochondrial antibodies
b. PAS postive esinophilic cytoplasmic globules
c. Kayser-Fleischer ring in the cornea
24
Pathology Questions
151.
MCQs
A 12-y old boy presented with an abdominal mass. The mass was found to
be +ve for CD20, CD43, CD10, Bcl 6 & -ve for Bcl 2. Which translocation he
most likely has:
a. t (8:14)
b. t (2:4)
c. t (11:14)
d. t (14:18)
152.
Calculate the mean of the following weights 78, 80, 83, 85, 86, 87, and 90:
a. 84.1
b. 80
c. 87
153.
The investigators want to study the effect of exercise program on death.

They found 30 deaths in 100 persons in the control group (not taking the
exercise program) and 50 deaths in 100 persons in the study group
(taking the exercise program). What is the relative risk of death in the
study group compared to the control group:
a. 0.2
b. 0.3
c. 0.5
d. 0.6
154.
What does Rhodococci infection cause:

a. Malakoplakia
b. Pseudoinflammatory tumor
c. Pseudotuberculosis
155.
Where do you see antimitochondrial antibodies:

a. Primary biliary cirrhosis
156.
What are the most common sites for secondary ovarian metastases:
a. Gastrointestinal tract (colon or stomach)
25
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Breast
c. Uterus
157.
What is the most common testicular tumor in children:

a. Embryonal carcinoma
b. Yolk sac tumor
c. Seminoma
158.
What is the most specific immunohistochemical stain of glomus tumor:

a. SMA
b. CD34
c. CD31
d. Desmin
159.
What is the most specifin immunostain of Langerhans cells:

a. CD68
b. CD20
c. CD 1a
160.
What is the tumor marker for yolk sac tumor:

a. Alpha fetoprotein
b. CEA
161.
B2-nephthylamine is considered a risk factor for cancer in which of the

following organs:
a. Urinary bladder
162.
On performing an FNA of the thyroid, which of the following, according to

the Bethesda, renders the diagnosis insufficient:
a. Only colloid, no follicular cells
b. 2 follicular cells with macrophages
c. 3 follicular cell groups only
d. Abundant Hurthle cells
26
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. 7follicular cell groups, each containing 10 to 12 cells

163.
A 30-y old female has a breast mass. FNA showed three-dimensional

clusters with high N/C ratio and nuclear atypia, also there were bipolar
naked nuclei within the epithelial group. What is the most likely
diagnosis:
a. Fibroadenoma
b. Ductal carcinoma
c. Lobular carcinoma
164.
The mot common location of malakoplakia in urinary tract is:

a. Renal pelvis
b. Urinary bladder
c. Urethra
d. Testis
e. Epididymis
165.
The most common location of peptic ulcer:

a. Gastric antrum
b. Second part of duodenum
c. First part of duodenum
d. GEJ
166.
The most common location of polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma:

a. Parotid glands
b. Submandibular glands
c. Submental glands
d. Palate
167.
Which lymphoma is commonly associated with immunocompromised

patient(AIDS):
a. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
b. Follicular lymphoma
27
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
168.
Which of the following lesions commonly occur in the posterior

mediastinum:
a. Bronchogenic cyst
b. Lymphoma
c. Thymoma
d. Sarcoidosis
e. Schwanoma
169.
Which of the following thymic lesions is commonly associated with

myasthenia gravis:
a. Thymic follicular hyperplasia
b. Thymoma
c. Thymitis
170.
Which of the following is associated with karyorrhexis and cell

fragmentation:
a. Viral hepatitis
b. Chronic alcoholic liver disease
c. Renal graft rejection
d. Barbiturate overdose
e. Brown atrophy of the heart
171.
The benefit of literature review in a study is:

a. Precision
b. Applicability
172.
Rhodinin stain is used for:

a. Iron
b. Copper
c. Lead
d. Fat
28
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Zinc
173.
The purpost of MHC II matching before an allograft transplantation is to

prevent:
a. Cytotoxic CD8 T-cell activation
b. CD4 T-helper cell activation
c. Graft vs host disease
174.
Which gene is considered as a gate keeper of the cell cycle:

a. P16
b. RB
c. BRAC1
175.
Which tumor in the endocervix is considered a low grade malignancy with

a good prognosis:
a. Endocervical adenocarcinoma, usual type
b. Endomeriod adenocarcinoma of the uterus involving the cervix
c. Papillary serous adenocarcinoma of the uterus
d. Villoglandular papillary adenocarcinoma of cervix
176.
Which of the following is true regarding uterine papillary serous

adenocarcinoma:
a. Has BRAC1 gene
b. Has P53 mutation
c. Occurs with unopposed estrogen
d. Has K-Ras mutation
e. Occurs in the women at the 2nd and 3rd decade
177.
An HIV patent had cough and dyspnea. His lung biopsy showed intraalveolar frothy eosinophilic material. Which special stain may be useful:
a. PAS
b. Modified Methamin silver stain
c. Mucicarmin
29
Pathology Questions
178.
MCQs
Which of the following is a risk factor for hepatic angiosarcoma:

a. Vinyl chloride
b. Asbestos
179.
Which interstitial lung disease is strongly associated with smoking:

a. Usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP)
b. Desquamative interstitial pneumonia (DIP)
c. Non specific interstitial pneumonia (NSIP)
180.
A patient presented with coughing. His lung biopsy showed patchy

interstitial mononuclear cell infiltrate. What is the most likely causative
organism:
a. E.coli
b. Aspergillus
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Mycoplasma pneumonia
e. Adenovirus
181.
What is the most common salivary gland lesion in HIV patients:

a. Epidermoid cyst
b. Lymphoepithelial cyst
c. Lymphoepithelioma-like carcinoma
182.
Which ovarian tumor occurs in younger women with vitalization

symptoms:
a. Steroid secreting tumor
b. Sertoli- Leydig cell tumor
183.
Which ovarian tumor occurs in postmenopausal women and it presents

bilaterally with pareneoplastic hormonal effect:
a. Small cell carcinoma of the ovary, pulmonary type
b. Small cell carcinoma of the ovary, hypercalcemic type
30
Pathology Questions
184.
MCQs
Which of the following ovarian tumors occurs in young women and it

metastasizes by the time of its diagnosis:
a. Adult granulosa cell tumor
b. Sex cord tumor with annular differentiation
c. Small cell carcinoma of the ovary, hypercalcemic type
d. Clear cell carcinoma
e. Serous cystadenocarcinoma
185.
The most commonly readily diagnosed entity of lymph node FNA is:
a. Metastatic carcinoma
b. Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Reactive lymph node
e. Follicular lymphoma
186.
A 30-y African female, domestic worker, presented with painful inguinal

lymphadenopathy. Microscopically showed granulomas. The most likely
diagnosis is:
a. Treponema palladium
b. Gardinella vaginalis
c. HSV
d. Candida infection
187.
A female patient underwent a bone marrow transplantation. Her CBC

results were normal but she developed a skin rash. What is the most likely
cause:
a. GVHD
188.
A female patient had a car accident and broke a femur and an arm. In few
days, she developed dyspnea, What is the cause of her new symptom:
a. Fat embolism
b. ICU stay
31
Pathology Questions
189.
MCQs
A lung biopsy showed alveolar hyaline membrane formation without

inflammatory cells infiltrate. What is the most likely diagnosis:
a. Diffuse alveolar damage
190.
Which of the following organisms is an obligate intracellular microbe:

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. N. Meningitidis
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d. Yersenis
e. Rickettsia
191.
Which of the following is the most common glioma in the brain:

a. Oligodendroglioma
b. Low grade astrocytoma
c. Glioblastoma multiform
d. Piliocytic astrocytoma
e. Ependymoma
192.
What does the fried-egg appearance of oligodendrocytes represent:

a. Cell cytoplasm
b. Delayed fixation artifact
c. Lipid in the cytoplasm
d. Glycogen in the cytoplasm
193.
A newborn was found to have atransluminating mass at the lower lumber

spinal region. He also has flattening of the skull. This patient is at risk for
developing:
a. Hydrocephalus
b. Medulloblastoma
c. Cerebellar vermis agenesis
194.
A zellen-ballen architecture is characteristic of which lesion:
32
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Schwannoma
b. Chordoma
c. Paraganglioma
195.
Which of the following thyroid tumors is positive for CK19:

a. Follicular carcinoma
b. Follicular adenoma
c. Hurthle cell neoplasm
d. Papillary carcinoma
196.
Which tumor is commonly associated with VHL syndrome:

a. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma
b. Papillary renal cell carcinoma
197.
Which tumor has the following immunohistochemical profile: PLAP+ve,

OCT4+ve, CD99+ve, CD30+ve, CK +ve, CD117-ve:
a. Emberyonal carcinoma
b. Yolk sac tumor
c. Dysgerminoma
198.
All of the following are associated with nephrotic syndrome except:

a. Proteinurea
b. Hypoalbuminemia
c. Hypertension
d. Hyperlipidemia
199.
The abuse of which of the following drugsis associated with myocardial

infarction:
a. Opiates
b. Heroin
c. Cocaine
33
Pathology Questions
200.
What
is
the
MCQs
microscopic
description
of
rapidly
progressive
gloumerolonephritis:
a. Crescent formation
b. Subepithelial IgG deposition
c. Hyaline nodules
201.
Which of the following is least likely to be associated with hematurea:

a. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
b. Minimal change disease
c. Membrenoproliferative glomerulonephritis
202.
A tall young male patient presented with a ruptured aortic aneurysm.

Which gene mutation he probably has:
a. FMR
b. Fibrilin
203.
A hypersensitivity reaction with pronounced eosinophillia is seen after

the exposure to:
a. Inhaled dust
b. Liver flukes
204.
Which of the following prevents collagen synthesis during wound healing:

a. Infection
b. Diabetes
c. Vitamin C deficiency
205.
Which of the following predicts the behavior of malignant phylloids tumor

of the breast:
a. Tumor diameter
b. Ki67 index
c. Stromal over growth
d. P16
34
Pathology Questions
206.
MCQs
The vast majority of bronchoalveolar mucinous carcinomas are classified

now according to the new classification as:
a. Invasive mucinous carcinoma
b. Minimally invasive carcinoma
207.
A patient has multiple meningiomas and brain tumors with chromosome

22 abnormality. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. NF1
b. NF2
208.
The cell of origin in mycosis fungoides is:

a. CD4
b. CD8
c. Dendritic cells
209.
Which of the following viruses is associated with nasopharyngeal

carcinoma:
a. EBV
b. HPV
c. CMV
210.
Which of the following is considered to be an oncogenic infectious agent:

a. T-cell lymphotropic virus
211.
Which of the following cutaneous lesions has prominent nuclei &

macronucleoli:
a. Spitz nevus
b. Blue nevus
c. Melanoma
212.
What type of nevus has prominent nucleoli and mild atypia:

a. Spitz nevus
35
Pathology Questions
213.
MCQs
Which of the following procedures will help to avoid metastasis in

melanoma:
a. Early diagnosis and complete excision
b. Removal of sentinel lymph node
c. Chemotherapy
d. Reduce exposure of UV light
214.
What is the most common type of uterine tumors that is associated with
endometriosis:
a. Yolk sac tumor
b. Clear cell carcinoma
c. Endometriod tumor, secretary type
215.
What is the most common mediastinal lymphoma in children:

a. Lymphoblastic lymphoma
b. Nodular sclerosis HL
c. Mixed cellularity HL
d. MCL
e. DLBCL
216.
Which of the following tumors most resembles adrenocortical carcinoma:

a. Renal clear cell carcinoma
b. Breast ductal carcinoma
217.
What is the most common cause of obstructive jaundice in children:

a. Bile duct hamartoma
b. Mesenchymal hamartoma
c. Choledocal cyst
d. Biliary atresia
218.
An autopsy showed an atrophied pancreas (fibrosis & inspissated

secretions in the ducts) and normal islet cells. What is the most common
cause:
36
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Cholelithiasis
b. Alcohol
219.
What is the feature seen in a baby of a diabetic mother:

a. Insulinoma
b. Nesidioblastosis
220.
All of the following are features of extrahepatic obstruction, except:

a. Bile duct proliferation
b. Bile duct with inspissated bile
c. Neutrophilic infiltration
d. Portal tract edema
e. Hepatocyte and canalicular without bile
221.
What is the latest hematolymphoid neoplasms classification:

a. WHO 2010
b. WHO 2008
c. WHO 2010
d. REAL classification
e. RAPPAPORT classification
222.
The majority of patients with post-infectious glomerulonephritis will have

the following outcome:
a. Complete recovery
b. RPGN
c. MPGN
d. Membranous glomerulonephritis
223.
In a case of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, glycosylation of the amino

acids will cause:
a. Cataract
b. Peripheral neuropathy
c. Retinal microaneurysm
37
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Atherogenesis
e. Amyloid islets
224.
The most common organism causing infective endocarditis is:

a. Staph. aureus
b. Strept. viridins
c. Strept. Pyogenes
225.
Which one of the following organs is affected by red infarction:

a. Spleen
b. Heart
c. Liver
d. Kidney
e. Lung
226.
The most common organism causing rheumatic heart disease:

a. Strept. pyogenes
227.
The accumulation of fluid in inflammation is due to:

a. Endothelial contraction
b. Lymphatic obstruction
c. Arteriolar vasoconstriction
228.
Injury to the middle meningeal artery will lead to:

a. Epidural hemorrhage
b. Subdural hemorrhage
c. Intracranial hemorrhage
229.
Which AR disorder has no grossly identified cysts but hepatic microcysts

are present:
a. Congenital hepatic fibrosis
b. Caroli disease
c. Caroli syndrome
38
Pathology Questions
230.
MCQs
Which of the following is considered a risk factor for aortic dissection:

a. Diabetes mulletis
b. Hypertension
c. Hyperlipidemia
231.
WaterhouseFriderichsen syndrome is due to:

a. Meningococcal infection
b. H. Influenza
c. E. Coli
232.
What is the most common site for atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor:

a. Cerebropontine angle (Posterior fossa)
b. Cerebellum
c. 3rd ventricle
233.
An example of antigen cross reactivity is:

a. Rheumatic heart disease
234.
A urine cytology showed multinucleated giant cells, the most probable

cause is:
a. BCG therapy
b. Urothelial Ca
c. Cystitis
235.
Which tumor is positive for CD1a and S100 and has nuclear grooves:
a. Kimura disease
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Langerhan's cell histiocytosis
e. Epitheliod hemangioma
39
Pathology Questions
236.
MCQs
Which of the following presents as multiple liver nodules with

heterogeneous blood flow:
a. FNH
b. Fibro-lamellar HCC
c. Hepatic adenoma
d. Regenerative nodules
237.
The grading of a teratoma depends on:

a. The amount of immature neuroepithelium
238.
Which of the following is a subserosal uterine tumor and positive for

calretinin and CK:
a. Adenomatoid tumor
239.
Which of the following hepatic tumors that its prognosis depends on

histology & mitosis:
a. Teratoma
b. Hepatoblastoma
c. Poorly differentiated rhabdomyosarcoma
d. Mesenchymal hamartoma
240.
Which of the following of PTC subtypes has a poor prognosis:

a. Macrofollicular
b. Nodular facitis like stroma
c. Oncocytic
d. Columnar cell variant
241.
Which ovarian tumor can cause pseudoprecocious puberty:

a.
242.
Juvenile granulosa cell tumor
P-value is significant if it is:

a. 0.5
b. >0.05
40
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. <0.05
d. <0.5
243.
Which immunostain help to differentiate between angiomyolipoma and

leiomyoma:
a. HMB45
244.
What do lymphocytes attack in graft versus host disease in the liver:

a. Hepatic bile ducts
245.
What is the immunofluoresence patter of IgG in Goodpastures syndrome:

a. Linear IgG
246.
Which of the following tumors has been linked to a viral etiology:

a. Angiosarcoma
247.
Which
of
the
following
ovarian
lesions
is
characterized
by
hyperestrogenism:
a. Adult granulosa cell tumor
248.
Which of the following tumors does not recur after complete excision.
Sections show epithelioid cells, which have a tendency to grow around
small blood vessels:
a. Angiomyofibroblastoma
b. Epthelioid sarcoma
c. Aggressive angiomyxoma
d. Leiomyosarcoma
249.
Sections in a thyroid showed a diffuse involvement of both lobes of the

gland with papillary and hyperplastic follicles lined by bland looking cells.
What is the most likely diagnosis:
a. Graves disease
41
Pathology Questions
250.
MCQs
A child presented with skull lesions, which showed prominent eosinophils

and spindle cells positive for CD 117. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Histiocytosis X
b. Systemic mastocytosis
251.
Which product is responsible for the pain, fever and vasodilatation that
occurs in a case of acute appendicitis:
a. Bradykinin
b. Thrombaxane
c. Prostaglandin
d. NO
252.
Regarding identification, the following is true:

a. There is no way to identify people with severe postmortem
changes
b. Tattoos are the most credible way to identify a person
c. Visual identification is rarely used
d. Muslims never use tattoos
e. A positive identification means that the person is identified
"Beyond a Reasonable Doubt
253.
Given the postmortem examination reveals a right lower quadrant scar

and a history of an arm fracture. We would most likely confirm the
identity of the person by the following, except:
a. Visually
b. Identify the person through imaging the arm and comparing it to
the imaging available in his electronic medical chart
c. Asking the wife to identify the body
d. Asking the family to identify the body
e. Asking the boss to identify his body
42
Pathology Questions
254.
MCQs
Given the postmortem examination reveals a right lower quadrant scar

and a history of an arm fracture. We would most likely confirm the
identity of the person by the following:
a. Visually
b. Identify the person through imaging the arm and comparing it to
the imaging available in his electronic medical chart
c. Identify the person through imaging the bodys teeth and
comparing it to his dental records
d. Sampling skin and cartilage for DNA analysis and compare to a
family member
e. Fingerprinting the deceased and comparing to that present filed in
the national database
255.
We can best confirm the sex of the person by the following:

a. Visually
b. By examining the skull and pelvis
c. By identifying scars on the body
d. Sampling skin and cartilage for DNA analysis and compare to a
family member
e. Through imaging the skeleton or teeth and comparing it to the
imaging available in the electronic medical chart
256.
We would most likely confirm the identity of the body by the following,
except:
a. Visually, through national ID
b. Asking the family to identify the body
c. Asking his coworker to identify the body
d. Asking his boss to identify his body
e. Identify the person through imaging the bodys teeth and
comparing it to his dental records
257.
The identified body may show:

a. Rigor mortis
43
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Livor mortis in the hands and feet only

c. Skin slippage
d. Livor mortis on the chest and abdomen
e. Multiple cut wounds
258.
We most likely would estimate or confirm the age of the above mentioned
person by the following, except:
a. Visually
b. Specific features and measurements of the skeleton and teeth, by
gross (visual) examination or imaging
c. Asking the friends
d. Asking the family
e. Asking the boss
f. National identification
g. Drivers license
h. Medical records
259.
Regarding the post-mortem examination (PME), the following applies:

a. Radiology is essential.
b. No PME is needed.
c. We should meet with the family at their wish (via phone or in
person) to discuss the findings and suggestions.
d. The injuries are due to assault prior to death.
e. There will be multiple bruises, abrasions and lacerations to the
head and abdomen and limbs.
260.
A 30-yr old man from an underdeveloped country complained of lower

limb edema and draining sinuses in the foot. The micro-organism is
filamentous and positive for Gram stain and partially for AFB. What is the
most likely causative agent of this infection:
a. Actinomyces Esraieli
b. Cryptococcosis
c. Nocardia
44
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Diphtheria
e. Pneumocystic carinii
261.
What is the causative organism of atypical pneumonia:

a. Mycoplasma pneumonia
262.
What is the causative organism of sinonasal papilloma:

a. HPV
b. HIV
c. EBV
d. RSV
263.
In a sputum cytology specimen, Creola bodies are seen in which of the

following conditions:
a. Aspergillosis
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Adenocarcinoma
264.
Which of the following features is not seen in sarcoidosis:

a. Giant cells
b. Schumann bodies
c. Creola bodies
d. Asteroid bodies
e. Epithelioid cells
265.
Ferruginous bodies are composed of:

a. Pollen
b. Iron
c. Asbestos
d. Lead
266.
Which of the following findings is helpful in diagnosing aspergillosis:
45
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Asteroid bodies
b. Oxalate crystals
267.
Which of the following organisms can cause an eosinophilic pneumonia,

granulomas palisading a central eosinophilic material and brochoalveolar
destruction:
a. GMS +ve aspergillosis
b. Geimsa +ve leishmaniasis
c. AFB +ve TB
d. GMS +ve Fungi
268.
What is the function of caspases

a. Apoptosis
b. Coagulative necrosis
c. Caseaus necrosis
d. Pinocytosis
e. Phagocytosis
269.
Which of the following is an acute-phase protein:

a. IL-6
b. Bradykinin
c. Interferon
d. Histamine
270.
Which of the following is a pro-apoptotic gene:

a. P53
b. Bcl-2
c. Bcl-x
271.
Which of the following tumors is typically seen within the peritoneal

cavity of young males:
a. Desmoplastic small round cell tumor
46
Pathology Questions
272.
MCQs
All of the following cells can undergo from G0 to G1 after a trauma in the
abdomen, except:
a. Skeletal muscles
b. Smooth muscles
c. Liver cells
d. Endothelial cells
e. Fibroblasts
273.
During wound healing, when does a wound return to its normal strength:
a. 3 months
b. Never returns to normal
c. 1 month
d. 1 year
274.
What tumor is most likely to co-express CK5/6 & WT-1 and desmin in a
dot-like pattern on immunohisochemical examination: (PIP 2012 B)
a. Dysgerminoma
b. Epithelioid sarcoma
c. Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor
d. Intra-abdominal desmoplastic small round cell tumor
e. Renal clear cell carcinoma
275.
Which of the following muscle diseases shows a positive ATPase stain:

a. Myotonica dystrophica
b. Duchanne muscular dystrophy
c. Degenerative diseases
d. Mitochondrial myopathies
276.
A young female presented with neurological deficit, visual disturbances

and peripheral numbness. Which of the following vasculitis is the most
likely cause of her symptoms:
a. Takayasu vasculitis
b. Kawasaki disease
47
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Temporal arteritis
d. Polyangitis nodosa
e. Wegners granulomatosis
277.
Which of the following is the most common type of aneurysms caused by

hypertension:
a. Saccular aneurysms
b. Atherosclerotic aneurysms
c. Berry aneurysms
d. Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms
278.
Which of the following is least likely to be associated with a significant

ductular reaction:
a. Primary biliary cirrhosis
b. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
c. Chronic hepatitis B
d. Large bile duct obstruction due to gallstones
e. Massive liver necrosis
279.
Which of the following thyroid tumors is most likely to undergo clear cell
change:
a. Papillary carcinoma
b. Follicular carcinoma
c. Medullary carcinoma
d. Spindle cell anaplastic carcinoma
e. Hurthle cell tumors
280.
What is the most common type of lymphoma in the brain:

a. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
281.
Anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid is characterized by:

a. Metastasis at the time of presentation
48
Pathology Questions
282.
MCQs
What is the most common type of breast cancer occurring in young

females:
a. Secretory carcinoma
283.
Which of the following lesions occurs usually in the vulva? It is well

circumscribed and highlighted by perivascular cuffs of epithelioid
desmin-positive cells. It does not usually recur after excision:
a. Angiomyofibroblastoma
284.
CDX2 is negative in which of the following tumors:

a. Colon cancer
b. Carcinoid of appendix
c. Gastric adenocarcinoma
d. Adenocarcinoma of the ampulla of vater
e. Cholangiocarcinoma
285.
Which organ is most commonly affected in cat scratch disease:

a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Lymph nodes
286.
Which of the following vulval lesions is poorly circumscribed, myxoid,

large and typically recurs after excision:
a. Aggressive angiomyxoma
287.
Which of the following liver lesions has no gender predilection:

a. Fibrolamellar HCC
b. Focal nodular hyperplasia
c. Bile duct hamartoma
d. Hepatic adenoma
e. Nodular regenerative hyperplasia
288.
Cholangiocarcinoma is associated with which of the following conditions:
49
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Caroli disease
289.
A renal biopsy from a patient with a history of renal transplant showed

arteritis and tubulitis. What is the most likely diagnosis:
a. Acute rejection
b. Chronic rejection
c. Acute tubular necrosis
d. GVHD
290.
What is the most common malignant germ cell tumor in females:

a. Dysgerminoma
b. Immature teratoma
c. Choriocarcinoma
d. Granulosa cell tumor
291.
What is the most common soft tissue tumor arising in the first and second
decades of life:
a. Rhabdomyosarcoma
b. Neuroblastoma
c. Ewing sarcoma
d. Lymphoblastic lymphoma
292.
What is the most common location for minor salivary glands tumors:
a. Oral cavity and hard palate
293.
Which of the following is a grade I meningioma:

a. Papillary
b. Microcystic
c. Rhabdoid
d. Clear cell
e. Chordoid
50
Pathology Questions
294.
MCQs
A 50-yr old male presented with a 3-day history of dementia and he

eventually died. What is the most likely cause:
a. Prion protein misfolding (spongiotic encephalitis)
295.
Which of the following conditions is a risk factor for developing squamous

cell carcinoma:
a. Xeroderma pigmentosa
b. Ionizing radiation
c. HPV type 3
d. EBV
296.
Which of the following tumors would show long thin branching microvilli
ultrastructurally:
a. Mesothelioma
297.
Which of the following renal tumors would show a large number of

mitochondria ultrastructurally:
a. Oncocytoma
298.
What does apoptosis include:

a. Release of cytochrome C into the cytoplasm
299.
Which of the following renal tumors would show cytoplasmic lysosomes:

a. Chromophobe RCC
b. Clear cell RCC
c. Papillary RCC
d. Oncocytoma
300.
Which of the following renal tumors arise from the intercalated ducts and
show cytoplasmic microvesicles:
a. Chromophobe RCC
b. Clear cell RCC
c. Papillary RCC
51
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Oncocytoma
301.
What is the embedding media for electron microscopy:

a. Resin
b. Paraffin
c. Gelatin
d. Non-paraffin wax
302.
What is the most suitable fixative for electron microscopy examination:

a. Gluteraldehyde
303.
Where do you see the deposition of immune complexes in the cutaneous

manifestations of systemic lupus erythromatosus:
a. Dermo-epidermal junction
b. Tips of the dermal papillae
c. Dermis
d. Perivascular
e. Perineural
304.
HLA-B27 is seen in association of which of the following conditions:

a. Ankylosing spondylitis
305.
What is the most important inflammatory mediator in rheumatoid

arthritis:
a. TNF
b. IL-6
c. Histamine
306.
A deletion in 3p is seen in which of the following tumors:

a. Small cell carcinoma
307.
Which of the following tumors shows BRAF and KRAS mutations and may
arise from a benign lesion:
52
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Endometriod endometrial adenocarcinoma

b. Serous adenocarcinoma, low grade
c. Serous adenocarcinoma, high grade
d. Clear cell carcinoma
e. Ovarian endometriod adenocarcinoma
308.
Which uterine carcinoma has the PTEN mutation:

a. Papillary serous carcinoma
b. Endometriod endometrial adenocarcinoma
c. Transitional cell carcinoma
d. Mucinous carcinoma
309.
A patient presented with multiple skin nodules, an adrenal mass with high
urine catecholamines and a 4-cm mass in the temporoparietal area of the
brain. What is the most likely diagnosis:
a. N-Myc
b. P53
c. KRAS
d. Rb
e. NF1
310.
What is the expected mutation in a woman who is diagnosed for the first
time with breast cancer and has no family history:
a. BRCA1
b. P53
c. BRCA2
d. PTEN
311.
Which of the following pancreatic tumors is associated with VHL

syndrome:
a. Pancreatic serous cystadenoma
312.
Which syndrome is characterized by multiple meningiomas:
53
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. NF-2
b. NF-1
c. Li-Fraumeni Syndrome
d. Tuberous sclerosis
e. VHL syndrome
313.
Which of the following familial conditions is characterized by

hemangioblastomas in the retina and brain, cysts in the kidney, pancreas,
liver and increased risk of clear cell renal cell carcinoma:
a. VHL syndrome
314.
Which ovarian syndrome is characterized by a P53 and BRCA1 mutation:

a. Clear cell carcinoma
b. Serous carcinoma, high grade
c. Serous carcinoma, low grade
d. Endometriod carcinoma
315.
A female patient with history of uterine fibroids has developed multiple

pulmonary nodules. Which of the following sentences is correct:
a. Both tumors have the same clone.
316.
A patient was found to have signet ring carcinoma which had the
following immunostain pattern: MUC1 ve, MUC2 +ve, CDX2 +ve, MUC5AC
+ve, PSA ve, TTF1 ve, CK7 ve and CK20 +ve. What is the most likely
primary site of this tumor:
a. Lung
b. Prostate
c. Pancreas
d. Colon
e. Breast
317.
The discohesiveness and diffuse infiltration in signet ring carcinoma is

due to:
54
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Loss of E-cadherin
318.
Which of the following tumors strongly expresses ALK-1:

a. Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor
319.
Giant cells in pancreatic undifferentiated carcinoma with osteoclast-like

giant cells are typically:
a. CD68 +ve and CK ve
b. CD68 ve and EMA +ve
320.
Which lymphoma is negative for CD5, CD23, CD10 & cyclin D1:
a. MALT lymphoma
321.
Which lymhoma is positive for CD5 and CD23:

a. CLL/SLL
322.
Which lymphoma is positive for CD5 and cyclin D1:

a. Mantle cell lymphoma
323.
Which tumor is positive for CD99, CD43, CD34 and CD79a:

b. Ewings sarcoma/PTEN
324.
Which immunostain is helpful in differentiating thymoma from thymic

carcinoma:
a. CD5 immunostain
325.
Which type of lung carcinoma is typically peripheral in location:

b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Carcinoid tumor
55
Pathology Questions
326.
MCQs
All of the following conditions are characterized by cytotoxic T-cells

infiltration, except:
a. Drug eruption
b. Urticaria
c. GVHD
d. Erythema multiform
327.
Which of the following tumors shares the immunohistochemical profile of

Ewings sarcoma:
328.
What is the stage for a patient with invasive ductal carcinoma of the
breast and infiltration of the dermal lymphatics:
a. T1
b. T2
c. T3
d. T4d
329.
What is the CAP recommendation time for frozen section:

a. 15 min
b. 20 min
c. 25 min
d. 30 min
330.
What is the most common type of gastric polyps:

a. Fundic gland polyp
b. Adenomatous polyp
c. Hyperplastic polyp
331.
What is the most common benign liver tumor:

a. Cavernous hemangioma
332.
What is the most common type of stones seen in gallstones:
56
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Cholesterol stones
b. Calcium stones
c. Mixed stones
333.
A female patient presented with watery discharge. Pap showed clusters of

malignant glandular cells in a clear background:
a. Fallopian tube carcinoma
b. Transitional zone carcinoma
c. Endometrial carcinoma
d. Endocervical carcinoma
334.
Red bags are used for the disposal of:

a. Biological waste products and contaminated containers
b. Sharp objects
c. Biologically contaminated towels, papers and containers
d. Biochemical containers
335.
What would a physician do if he/she injured himself/herself with a knife

or needle prick:
a. Squeeze the blood and wash with water
b. Go to ER immediately
c. Write an incidence report
336.
What is the most common cause of discrepancy between the frozen

section and the permanent diagnosis:
a. Overwhelming work
b. Incomplete history and clinical data
c. Inadequate sampling of the specimen
337.
Frozen section can not be used to assess which of the following:

a. Margins
b. Diagnosis
c. Grade
57
Pathology Questions
338.
MCQs
What is the most common cause of error in the pathology reports:

a. Overwhelming work
b. Incomplete history and clinical data
c. Inadequate sampling of the specimen
339.
Sections of a lymph node showed monocytoid B-cells and reactive

follicular hyperplasia with epithelioid histiocytic infiltrations. What is the
most likely diagnosis:
a. HIV
b. Reactive lymph node
c. Cat scratch disease
d. Toxoplasma infection
340.
Which of the following liver diseases show ground-glass appearance:

a. HBV
341.
Which of the following lymphomas involves the splenic red pulp and
spares the white pulp:
a. Hairy cell leukemia
342.
What is the 2nd most common malignancy of the major salivary glands:
a. Acinic cell carcinoma
343.
A cerebellar lesion showed hairy-like cells. What is the most likely

diagnosis:
a. Pilocytic astrocytoma
344.
What is the definition of spongiosis:

a. Intercellular edema in the epidermis
b. Intercellular edema in the keratinocytes
c. Edema of the dermis
58
Pathology Questions
345.
MCQs
What do you call the obstruction of the hepatic venous blood flow:
a. Budd Chiari syndrome
b. Crigler Najjar syndrome
346.
What is the most likely diagnosis in a young male with a tumor in the
peritoneal cavity:
a. Ewings sarcoma/Primitive neuroectodermal tumor
b. Desmoplastic round cell tumor
c. Alveolar soft part sarcoma
d. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
347.
What is the most common cardiac cause for cyanosis:

a. Tetralogy of Fallot
348.
Gardner syndrome is associated with which of the following tumors:

a. Elastofibroma
b. Dermatofibroma
c. Spindle cell lipoma
d. Nuchal fibroma
e. Fibrolipoma
349.
P53 overexpression is seen in which of the following breast tumors:

a. Basal-like
b. Luminal A
c. Luminal B
d. Unclassified
e. Her 2 neu
350.
A female patient presented with an irregular mass and calcifications on

the mammogram. Sections showed foamy cells. What is the most likely
diagnosis:
a. Trauma
59
Pathology Questions
351.
MCQs
Which of the following renal tumors shows a prominent desmoplastic

reaction:
a. Collecting duct carcinoma
352.
A 16-yr old female presented with a breast lesion. Sections showed

nodules with stromal and ductular proliferation and adipose tissue:
a. Sclerosing adenosis
b. Fibroadenoma
c. Hamartoma
d. Tubular adenoma
e. Fibrocystic disease
353.
A lung adenocarcinoma has a lipoid pattern without stromal or vascular

invasion. Cells are columnar with apical mucin. What is the most likely
diagnosis:
a. BAL, mucinous type
354.
Which tumor is positive for SMA and HMB-45:

a. PEComas
355.
INI1/BAF47 is used for the diagnosis of which of the following tumors:

a. Epitheliod sarcoma
356.
Which of the following viral genes is mostly linked to the pathogenesis of

cancer:
a. LCR
b. E3
c. E4
d. E6
357.
Secondary hyperparathyroidism is related to which of the following

conditions:
a. Chronic renal disease
60
Pathology Questions
358.
MCQs
Hypertension is part of all of the following conditions, except:

a. Acromegally
b. Addisons disease
c. Cushing disease
d. Pheochromocytoma
e. Conns disease
359.
Which of the following entities can be diagnosed by a peripheral blood

smear:
a. CML
360.
Which immunostain can help you differentiate between follicular

lymphoma and follicular hyperplasia:
a. Bcl-2
361.
A skin disease shows dermal papillae microabscesses and IgA positive on

IF, which of the following entities is usually associated with this disease:
a. Celiac disease
362.
Which of the following associations is linked to MENIIb:

a. Pancreas and parathyroid
363.
T-cell enteropathy associated lymphoma is related to which of the

a. Celiac disease
b. Crohns disease
c. Whipples disease
364.
A lady with endometrial hyperplasia and an ovarian tumor. What is the

most likely diagnosis of the ovarian lesion:
a. Granulosa cell tumor
b. Yolk sac tumor
61
Pathology Questions
365.
MCQs
All of the following are causes for chronic pancreatitis, except:

a. Alcohol
b. Trauma
c. Stones
d. Biliary diseases
366.
What is the underlying cause of erythema nodosum:

a. Autoimmune
b. Virus
367.
What is the most common mutation seen in osteosarcoma:

a. P53 gene
368.
What are the common features in extrinsic allergic alveolitis:

a. Esinophils in the bronchial walls
b. Fibrosis and non-caseating granulomas
369.
What is the most common pancreatic tumor in females:

a. Mucinous cystaderenoma
370.
What do you see in NF1:

a. Plexiform schwannomas
b. Plexiform neurofibromas
371.
Which pleural tumor has a nodular or diffuse architecture and a positivity

for CD34, Bcl2 and CK:
a. Malignant mesothelioma
b. Solitary fibrous tumor
c. Synovial sarcoma
372.
Ulcerative colitis is associated with:

a. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
62
Pathology Questions
373.
MCQs
What is the immunoflouresence pattern of IgG in post-streptococcal

glomerulonephritis:
a. Linear
b. Course granular
c. Fine granular
374.
What is the causative organism for bacillary angiomatosis:

a. Bartonella species
375.
Which part of the kidney is affected in minimal change disease:

a. Mesangium
b. Epithelium
c. Blood vessels
d. Interstitium
376.
What is the most common glomerular disease associated with HCV:

a. Memberenoproliferative glomerulonephritis
377.
In which cardiac disease do you see Aschoff bodies:

a. Rheumatic heart disease
378.
Long-standing lymphatic stasis after mastectomy is a risk factor to

develop which of the following conditions:
a. Angiosarcoma
379.
What tumor has the following genetic abnormality t(X:17):

a. Alveolar soft part sarcoma
380.
What is the natural course for intraosseous ameloblastoma:

a. Recurrence
b. Transformation
c. Local invasion/local aggressiveness
63
Pathology Questions
381.
MCQs
Which tumor shows rhombdoid crystals on EM:

382.
Which of the following is considered a pancreatic tumor marker:

a. CA19-9
b. CEA
c. CA15-3
d. AFP
383.
B2 nephthalamine is a carcinogenic of which of the following tumors:

a. Urothelial carcinoma of the urinary bladder
b. Squamous cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder
384.
What is the most common cause of infections in patients with sickle cell
anemia:
a. Salmonella
b. Staph. Aureus
385.
What is the pathogenesis of osteoarthritis:

a. Articular degeneration of the cartilage
b. Decreased amounts of the synovial fluid
386.
Koilocytosis in a Pap smear indicates the following:

a. CIN II
b. HPV infection
387.
All of the followings are risk factors for cervical cancer, except:
a. Early marriage
b. Multiple partners
c. IUCD
64
Pathology Questions
388.
MCQs
What is the most likely underlying cause of a female presenting with

infertility and galactorrhea:
a. Pituitary adenoma
389.
All of the following are true about papillary thyroid carcinoma, except:
a. It can be multifocal
b. Radiation is a risk factor
c. A hematogenous spread is more common than a lymphatic spread
390.
A patient presented with tremors and exophthalamous. A thyroid nuclear

scans showed an increased diffuse uptake. What is the most likely
diagosis:
a. Graves disease
b. Multinodular goiter
391.
Formation of fistulas is part of which of the following entities:

a. Ulcerative colitis
b. Diverticulosis
c. Crohns disease
392.
Linitis plastica refers to which of the following:

a. An infiltrating tumor within the gastric wall
393.
Which of the following is true regarding HAV:

a. It is a ds-DNA virus
b. Spreads parenterally
c. Spreads via a fecal-oral route
394.
What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with a

mediastinal mass, granulomas and calcinuria:
a. Sarcoidosis
b. Tuberculosis
65
Pathology Questions
395.
MCQs
What does empyema characterize with:

a. High levels of sugar
b. High levels of protein
396.
What characterizes emphysema:

a. Valve destruction
397.
What characterizes liver cirrhosis:

a. Degenerative nodules
b. Fibrosis
c. Piecemeal necrosis
398.
What is the most common of pyogenic osteomyelitis:

a. Staph. Aureus
399.
Which of the following is a common complication of TB osteoarthritis:

a. Malignancy
b. Amyloidosis
400.
What is the most common site for prostatic adenocarcinoma:

a. Peripheral prostate
b. Central zone prostate
c. Transitional zone prostate
401.
What is the most common site for endometriosis:

a. Ovary
b. Ligaments
c. Cervix
402.
In regards to lobular carcinoma in situ of the breast, the following is

correct:
a. Other sites are likely to be involved
b. Estrogen receptor is usually negative
66
Pathology Questions
403.
MCQs
Cell death in hepatitis A is due to:

a. DNA damage
b. Stimulation of Bcl2
c. Stimulation of Bcl-x
d. An ATP-dependent process
e. Free radicals
404.
Which of the following features is seen in necrosis:

a. Inflammation in the surrounding tissue
405.
Which of the following findings can be seen in a renal biopsy from a

patient with diabetes and hypertension:
a. Fibrinoid necrosis
b. Glomeriolosclerosis/arteriosclerosis
406.
What is the cause of edema around brain tumors:

a. Lymphatic obstruction
b. Increased hydrostatic pressure
c. Decreased osmotic pressure
d. Mass effect
407.
Snap freezing can be used for all of the following tests, except:
a. EM
b. H&E
c. Muscle/nerve biopsy
d. Frozen section
e. Flow cytometry
408.
The optimal freezing temperature for breast tissue is:

a. -20c
409.
Anti-centromere antibodies are seen in which of the following conditions:
67
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. CREST syndrome
b. Hashimotos thyroiditis
c. Reiter disease
410.
Anti-Smith antibodies are seen in which of the following conditions:

a. SLE
b. Ascending cholangitis
c. Sjogerns syndrome
411.
A smoking woman is on oral contraceptive pills, which of the following

risks is the greatest in this patient:
a. Cardiovascular disease/ischemic heart disease
b. Thromboembolism/thrombophlebitis
c. Breast carcinoma
d. Ovarian carcinoma
e. Endometrial carcinoma
412.
Working in the industry of batteries increases the risk of which of the

a. Renal toxicity
b. Lung cancer
c. Mesothelioma
413.
A tumor with spindle cell morphology, high N:C ratio, marked

pleomorphism, negativity for keratin and positivity for vimentin. What is
the most likely diagnosis:
a. 15-yr male with a lower limb tumor and lung metastasis
b. 5-yr old boy with a renal mass
c. 25-yr old boy with an enlarged left testis
d. An old lady with multiple ovarian tumors and massive ascitis
e. 35-yr old woman with left breast mass and enlarged lymph nodes
68
Pathology Questions
414.
MCQs
A 6-yr old by developed facial rash that has the appearance of a slap. The
rash, which is composed of small red spots, extended to the upper and
lower limbs. The boy had also arthralgia and he suddenly developed a lifethreatening aplastic crisis. The most likely cause of this presentation is:
a. Rhinovirus
b. Parvovirus
c. Parainfluenza virus
d. Measels
e. Rubella virus
415.
Which of the following statements is true:

a. Prostaglandins and cytokines are cell-derived mediators
b. Prostaglandins and cytokines are long-lived
416.
All of the following are para-neoplastic syndromes, except:

a. Cancer cachexia
b. Fever
c. Clubber
d. Cushings disease
e. Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis
417.
What is the most common brain location for CMV infection in a patient
with AIDS:
a. Periventricular/Intraventricular
418.
What is the most common complication of colon amebiasis:

a. Ulceration and perforation of the colon
419.
A baby of a diabetic mother is complaining of a bloody diarrhea. What is

the most probable diagnosis:
a. Abdominal radiograph showing submucosal gas bubbles
420.
When is the maximum wound strength reached:
69
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. 3 months
b. 7 months
c. 1 year
421.
Which of the following is an autosomal recessiv disorder:

a. Spinal muscle atrophy
422.
What is the definition of genomics:

a. The study of genes and their interactions
b. The study of a single gene
c. The study of proteins and their interactions
423.
Which of the following is an example of a stop codon:

a. -thalassemia
424.
Which of the following is an example of a granulomatous disease:

a. Leprosy
425.
Which of the following may reduce the effect of toxic metabolites:

a. Glutathione
426.
Which of the following vitamins has an anti-toxic effect:

a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin C
427.
Which of the following is an inherited mutant gene in FAP:

a. APC gene
428.
What is the definition of grading:

a. The amount of differentiation
429.
Where is the amyloidosis of aging deposited:
70
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Liver
b. Lung
c. Heart
d. Brain
430.
Which of the following cell types is unable to proliferate:

a. Neuronal cells
431.
One of the following is an effect of an oncovirus:

a. T-cell leukemia
432.
What is the reason behind a negative immunostain in the centre of the

section:
a. Fixation problem
b. Antigen retrieval method
433.
What is the reason for the black pigment on a slide:

a. Formalin artifact
434.
What is the reason for bubbles on the slide:

a. Cover slip
435.
The following is a feature of autosomal recessive diseases:

a. They tend to be more uniform than autosomal dominant diseases
436.
The following is a feature of autosomal dominant diseases:

a. Some patients do not show the disease
b. It has reduced penetrance
c. Patients should have affected parents
d. The onset of the clinical features are early
437.
What are the advantages of a synaptic report:

a. Leads to an independent thinking
71
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Delay the turn-around time

c. It includes the diagnosis, prognostic factors, grade and stage
438.
What is the cause of thrombo-embolic vegetations over an area of a

myocardial infarction:
a. Endothelial injury
b. A change in the blood flow
c. Hypercoagulability
d. Statis of blood
e. Heart failure
439.
What are the changes seen in the breast during lactation:

a. Lobular hyperplasia
440.
What are the changes seen in the lower esophygus in a case of reflux:
a. Goblet cell metaplasia
441.
What is the common feature seen in a case of vasculitis:

a. Neutrophilic infiltration
442.
All of the following are features of acute inflammation, except:

a. Mononuclear inflammatory cell infiltrate
443.
Cytokines are mainly released from which of the following types of cells:
a. Monocytes and lymphocytes
b. Neutrophils
444.
What is the cause of hepatic fatty change in a case of alcoholism:

a. Impaired lipoprotein secretion from the liver
b. Increase trasport of lipid from the periphery
445.
What is the most common feature seen after a blood transfusion:

a. Accumulation of iron in the liver
72
Pathology Questions
446.
MCQs
Which mediator functions as an opsonin:

a. C3b
b. C5a
447.
Which type of inflammation is characterized by the presence of

esinophilic fiber or esinophilic meshwork thread:
a. Serous inflmmation
b. Fibrinous inflammation
c. Suppurative inflammation
448.
Which of the following mediators can cause acute phase reactants:

a. IL-1 and TNF
449.
Which of the following may prevent the process of wound healing:

a. Inflammation
b. Abnormal immune system
c. Infection
450.
What is the EM finding in a case of renal oncocytoma:

a. Mitochondria
451.
What are the most common causes of death in children between 1 4

years old:
a. Accidents, congenital malformations, chromosomal anomalies and
malignancies
452.
All is true regarding measles, except:

a. Recurrence is common
b. Multinucleated giant cells
c. Kopliks spots
73
Pathology Questions
453.
MCQs
The most common type of cancer to develop in a child with a previous

history of neck radiation is:
a. Thyroid cancer
454.
What does triple repeat mutation mean:

a. An amplification of a trinucleotide sequence
455.
Which one of the following is part of class MHC II:

a. It includes HLA-DP
456.
What do you the occurrence of a flat face, hypoplastic lung and deformed
feet:
a. Sequence
b. Syndrome
c. Malformation
d. Disruption
457.
A patient with acute myocardial infarction received anti-thrombotic

agents. After a while the levels of creatinine kinase increased. What is the
most common complication that has possibly occurred:
a. Reperfusion injury
458.
During inflammation, killing of viral elements occur in the:

a. Phagolysosome
459.
What is the pathogenesis of cystic fibrosis:

a. Abnormally folded protein with subsequent loss or degradation of
protein
460.
Which of the following is expected to be seen on an old rheumatic heart

valve:
a. Dystrophic calcification
b. Amyloidosis
74
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Metastatic calcification
461.
What is the definition of chemotaxis:

a. Migration of leukocytes to the site of inflammation
462.
Which of the following conditions can be seen after a burn injury and
consisted of elevated nodules containing fibroblasts:
a. Keloid
463.
What is the definition of a granuloma:

a. An aggregate of activated macrophages
464.
Which of the following is an example of a granulomatous disease:

a. Sarcoidosis
465.
All of the following are features of chronic inflammation, except:

a. Purulent exudate
466.
Which of the following is a feature of chronic inflammation:

a. Destruction to tissue and stroma
467.
What is the most probable cause of death in an obese lady during her
post-op hospital course:
a. Pulmonary embolism
468.
What do you call the blue lesions seen in alkaptonuria:

a. Ochronosis
469.
Phenylketunuria is an example of:

a. Autosomal recessive disease
b. X-link recessive
c. Autosomal dominant disease
75
Pathology Questions
470.
MCQs
Which of the following is an example of lysosomal storage disease:

a. Niemann pick disease
471.
A male patient with mental retardation, motor dysfunction and cherry red
spot in the retina. What would the most probable diagnosis be:
a. Tay-sachs disease
472.
Which of the following factors delay wound healing:

a. Steroids
473.
A newborn presented with clinical hypocalcemia and opportunistic

infections. What is the pathogenesis of this condition:
a. Defects in the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches
474.
What is the mechanism of radiotherapy in eliminating cancer cells:

a. The release of free radicals
475.
A patient with SLE and renal disease would show what type of immune
complexes:
a. Subendothelial immune complex
476.
What is the pathogenesis behind a disease that presents with frequent

eyelid drops and muscle weakness:
a. Antibodies against the neuromuscular junction
477.
What is the mechanism of developing rash after a bee sting:

a. IgE production
478.
A reaction to helminthes is due to the production of:

a. Histamine
479.
A patient presented with a 4 cm breast carcinoma mass and metastases to

lymph nodes and distant organs. What is the correct stage of this patient:
76
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. T2N1M1
480.
What is the site of action of histamine?

a. Arterioles
b. Precapillary venules
c. Venules
d. Postcapillaery venules
e. Capillaries
481.
Where is histamine released from?

a. Lymphocytes
b. Mast cells
c. Machrophages
482.
Where do cytotoxic T-cells act?

a. MHC Class I
b. MHC Class II
483.
How do cytotoxic Tcells kill organisms?

a. Granzyme b
484.
What is the meaning of a tumor with grade 1, stage 1:

a. A well differentiated and a localized tumor
485.
What is the most likely diagnosis of a slowly growing uterine mass of a 4yr duration:
a. Leiomyoma
b. Leiomyosarcoma
486.
A woman presented with vaginal discharge. A smear showed

multinucleated cells with a ground-glass appearance. What is the most
probable causative organism:
a. CMV
77
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. HSV
c. Fungi
d. Dysplasia
487.
The target antibodies used for the diagnosis of HIV:

a. Gp120
b. Gp41
c. P24
d. Reverse transcriptase
488.
Which of the following compounds is deposited in the pancreas in a case

of hemochromatosis:
a. Iron
b. Copper
c. Lead
489.
Which of the following is an acute phase reactant:

a. Amyloid associated protein
490.
What do you call a leukocyte-induced injury:

a. Sarcoidosis
b. Interstitial fibrosis
c. Vasculitis
d. Tuberculosis
491.
How do macrophages destroy the extracellular matrix:

a. IL-2
b. Proteases
c. Catalases
492.
What is the most common cause of mental retardation:

a. Downs syndrome
78
Pathology Questions
493.
MCQs
What does RT-PCR mean:

a. Reverese transcriptase polymerase chain reaction
494.
The deficiency of which of the following enzymes can cause neuropathy,

glossitis, dermatitis and cheliosis:
a. Riboflavin (Vitamin B2)
495.
The deficiency of which of the following enzymes can cause contusions

and bleeding tendencies:
a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin E
496.
A patient with Prader-Willi syndrome and an abnormal chromosome 15.

What is the most common complication of this disease:
a. Hypogonadism
b. Tall stature
c. Mental retardation
d. Ataxia
497.
Which of the following specimens can be diagnosed by only gross

examination:
a. Spleen in a case of sickle cell anemia
b. Non-union bone fracture
498.
Where do you see the following karyotype 46Xr(X):

a. Turners syndrome
499.
The single most important criterion to differentiate between benign and

malignant tumors is:
a. Invasion
b. Metastasis
79
Pathology Questions
500.
MCQs
Which of the following terminologies can not be used in a gross

description:
a. Lymphatic invasion
501.
Which of the following organs do not need to be inked:

a. The surface of the ovary
b. The radial margin of the colon
c. The capsule of the kidney
502.
What is the most common cause of systemic emboli:

a. Left ventricular heart failure
b. Left atrial emboli
c. Right ventricular heart failure
503.
Which of the following conditions is associated with pancreatic cancer:

a. Recurrent venous thrombi
504.
A patient with a history of small cell carcinoma of the lung has presented
with face puffiness and high blood pressure. His symptoms are caused by
the release of which of the following compounds:
a. ACTH
b. TSH
c. PTH
505.
Which of the following statements is incorrectly paired:

a. Anti ds-DNA polyarteritis nodosa
b. SS-B Sjogerens disease
c. Anti Smith antibodies SLE
d. Scl70 Scleroderma
506.
A patient in the FNA clinic has refused the procedure. What will you do
next:
a. Leave the room and give her time to think
80
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Try to convince her

507.
Which of the following compounds is a risk for squamous cell carcinoma:

a. Radon
b. Asbestos
c. Silica
d. Exposure to birds
e. Inorganic substances
508.
What is the most common cause of premature labor:

a. Premature rupture of membranes
509.
What is the cause of atopic dermatitis:

a. A local immediate hypersensitivity reaction
510.
What is the pathogenesis of a renal disease showing subendothelial

deposits on a renal biopsy:
a. Immune complex deposition
511.
Which of the following is a mutant gene in colon cancer:

a. RAS oncogene
512.
Which of the following is a stain for lipids:

a. Sudan Black
513.
A baby with trisomy 18 had microcephaly, abnormal kidneys, rocky feet

and overlapping fingers. What is this syndrome called:
a. Edwards syndrome
514.
What is the best prognostic factor in breast carcinoma:

a. Negative lymph node metastasis
b. Positive ER immunostain
81
Pathology Questions
515.
MCQs
What is the most common complication of anti-tuberculosis medication:

a. Vitamin B6 deficiency
516.
What is the pathogenesis of systemic lupus erythromatosus:

a. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
517.
All of the following is a differential diagnosis of Ewings sarcoma, except:

a. Rhabdomyosarcoma
b. Leiomyosarcoma
c. Neuroblastoma
518.
What is the most common site of cardiac myxoma:

a. Left atrium
519.
What is the most important feature in diabetic mastopathy:

a. Lymphocytic infiltrate and dense fibrosis
520.
Which of the following conditions has the immunostain profile: CD45+ve,

CD30+ve, CD20-ve:
a. Anaplastic T-cell lymphoma
b. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
c. Peripheral T-cell lymphoma
521.
Lacunar cells, caused by formalin artifact, in Hodgkin lymphoma are:

a. CD30 +ve
b. CD30 ve
c. Seen mainly in mixed cellularity variant
522.
What is the most common likely diagnosis of a mass in an old lady

between the scapula and the chest wall:
a. Elastofibroma
523.
All of the following are features of DM type I, except:
82
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Amyloid deposition
524.
Which of the following tumors is positive to CD20 and CDX2:

a. Colon cancer
525.
What is the most common paratesticular tumor in children:

a. Spindle cell variant of rhabdomyosarcoma
526.
Linear deposition of anti-GBM antibodies is seen in which of the following

conditions:
a. Goodpastures syndrome
527.
A positive stain for CD10 and Bcl6 is seen in:

a. Grade II follicular lymphoma
b. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
528.
How do neutrophils kill streptococci organims:

a. Hydrogen peroxide
529.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Reed-Sternberg

cells:
a. The clearing of the lacunar variant is an artifact
530.
Which of the following is considered a prognostic factor in pancreatic

cancer:
a. Invasion to the peripancreatic tissue
b. Vimentin
c. Synaptophysin
d. GFAP
531.
In post lymphoproliferative disorders, all of the following are true, except:

a. It depends on the type of transplant
b. It regresses after stopping the immunosuppression
83
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. EBV is negative in the early stages

d. It is associated with EBV infection
532.
Which of the following tumors has PTEN mutation:

a. Endometrial adenocarcinoma
533.
Which of the following tumors is TTF1 ve & CDX2 ve:

a. Primary lung adenocarcinoma
b. Mucinous bronchoalveolar carcinoma
c. Non-mucinous bronchoalveolar carcinoma
d. Metastatic colon adenocarcinoma
534.
How would you know that a burn patient was alive at the time of fire:
a. The presence of carbon/suet in his/her lungs
535.
Which of the following tumors has a tubulovillous architecture and ER/PR

positive immunostains:
a. Endometroid adenocarcinoma
536.
Which of the following is a consequence of long-standing lymphedema

post mastectomy:
a. Angiosarcoma
537.
What is the most characteristic ultrastructural finding in the myocardium:

a. Intercalating discs
538.
What is the most common skin tumor in HIV patients:

a. Kaposi sarcoma
539.
Which of the following conditions can be diagnosed with a peripheral

blood smear?
a. Chronic myeloid leukemia
84
Pathology Questions
540.
MCQs
All of the following are features of glioblastoma multiforme, except:

a. Proliferating blood vessels
b. Palisading necrosis
c. Rosenthal fibers
541.
The most common somatic tumor arising from a teratoma is which of the
following:
542.
Which of the following interstitial lung diseases is characterized by a

variegated appearance on low power:
a. Desquamative interstitial pneumonia
b. Usual interstitial pneumonia
c. Organizing pneumonia
543.
Which of the following immunostain panels is characteristic to a primary

lung adenocarcinoma:
a. CK7 +ve, TTF1 +ve, CDX2 ve, P63 ve
544.
Which of the following conditions occurs exclusively in women during

their reproductive age:
a. Lymphangioleomatosis
545.
A patient with a 12 years history of dyspnea and bilateral pulmonary

infiltrate on X-ray. What is the most possible cause:
a. Inorganic dust
b. Organic particles
c. Bird dust
d. Radon
546.
A patient with a peripheral lung mass was found to have atypical cells in
a sputum smear. A diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma was made.
Which of the following is considered a risk factor:
85
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Radon gas
b. Immunodeficiency
547.
What would you see in a patient with myasthenia graves:

a. Thymic follicular hyperplasia
b. Thymoma
c. Thymolipoma
d. Thymic carcinoma
548.
What is the most common site for laryngeal carcinoma:

a. Epiglottis
b. Glottis
c. Supraglottis
549.
Which of the following salivary gland tumors has no myoepithelial cell

layer:
a. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
b. Canalicular adenoma
c. Polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma
d. Basal cell adenoma
e. Pleomorphic adenoma
550.
What is the most common salivary gland malignancy in children:

a. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
551.
Which of the following tumors has the translocation t(2:5):

a. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
552.
Which of the following tumors is least likely to metastasize to lymph

nodes:
a. Leiomyosarcoma
b. Synovial sarcoma
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma
86
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Osteosarcoma
e. Epithelioid sarcoma
553.
Which cardiac disease can be diagnosed by a biopsy from another less

invasive body site:
a. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
b. Dilated cardiomyopathy
c. Leoffler carditis
d. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
554.
What will constrictive pericarditis cause in the liver:

a. Bile duct proliferation
b. Sinosidal dilatation
555.
What stain can be used to differentiate lipofuscin and hemosideren:

a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Lipid
556.
Which of the following carcinomas is associated with EBV:

a. Lymphoepithelial carcinoma
557.
The morphology of post infectious glomerulonephritis includes:

a. Hypercellular acute inflammatory cells infiltrate
b. Double contour
558.
The following ultrastructural features (pinocytic vacules, lipid bodies and

cytoplasmic filaments) are found in which of the following tumors:
a. Leiomyosarcoma
b. Fibrosarcoma
c. SCC
d. Adenocarcinoma
e. Synovial sarcoma
87
Pathology Questions
559.
MCQs
Where do you see premelanosomes under EM examination:

a. Angiomyolipoma
560.
A pap smear showed hyperchromatic columnar cells with intact cilia and
central nuclei. What is the probable diagnosis:
a. Tubal metaplasia
b. Adenocarcinoma in situ
c. SCC
561.
A pap smear showed a cluster of multinucleation cells with centrally

located nuclei. What is the probable diagnosis:
a. Syncitiotrophoblasts
b. SCC
c. Cytotrophoblasts
562.
All of the following features are seen in cytology specimen of a carcinoid,

except:
a. Nucleoli
563.
Which tumor shows cytoplasmic glycogen on EM examination:

a. Ewing sarcoma
564.
Which combination of the following cause episomal replication:

a. HPV 6 & 11
b. HPV 30 & 33
c. HPV 16 & 18
565.
The least common site of bone metastais is:

a. Skull
b. Ribs
c. Pelvis
d. Femur
e. Hand
88
Pathology Questions
566.
MCQs
A 60-year old male with a lytic lesion in the right iliac bone with spotty
calcifications and extentions to the surrounding soft tissue. What is the
probable diagnosis:
a. Chondrosarcoma
b. Pagets disease
567.
The least tumor metastesing to the bone is:

a. Squamous cell carcinoma of skin
b. Renal cell carcinoma
c. Breast carcinoma
d. Prostate carcinoma
e. Thyroid carcinoma
568.
In vaginal normal pH, what type of organisms can be seen?

a. Actinomyces
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Lactobacilli acidophilic
569.
In acute inflammation, the interstitial edema is due to:

a. Neutrophils
b. Lymphatic obstruction
c. Endothelial retraction
d. Arteriolar contriction
e. Adhesion molecules
570.
Spongiform encephalitis is seen in:

a. Prion protein
571.
What would you seen in the brain of a patient with Alzehiemer disease:
a. Hypertrophy
b. Hyperplasia
c. Dysplasia
89
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Atrophy
572.
An elderly woman, with no known medical illnesses, was visited by her

son. Four hours later she was found dead in her bathtub with frontal
bruises and subarachnoid hemorrhage. What is the cause of death?
a. Fall
b. Strangulation
c. Drowning
573.
A 70-year old patient with a history of GBM for 1 year. Ten days after an
unremarkable check up with his family physician, he was found dead. The
autopsy report should state the following:
a. The cause of death is cardiac arrest
b. Smoking should be written under associated conditions
c. GBM is the underlying cause of death
574.
The least tumor positive to CD34 is:

a. Synovial sarcoma
575.
A patient with clinically apparent cutaneous crops which regress

spontaneously has probably the following diagnosis:
a. Sezary syndrome
b. Lymphomatoid papulosis
c. MALT lymphoma
576.
Which of the following is a risk factor for diabetes type II:

a. Loss of B-cells
b. Increase insulin resistance
c. Chronic renal failure
d. Amyloid deposition
577.
What is the most common site for osteochondroma:

a. Metaphysis
90
Pathology Questions
578.
MCQs
What is the most common glomerular disease world-wide?

a. IgA nephropathy
579.
ATPase pattern of staining would show the following in neuronal atrophy:

a. Group atrophy
b. Type two fibers
c. Internalization of nuclei
580.
A rupture of a berry aneurysm in a circle of wills will cause the following:

a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
581.
Which of the following is an active process that augments blood to the

arterioles?
a. Hyperemia
b. Cyanosis
c. Congestion
d. Edema
582.
What is the site of action of p53?

a. G1-S
b. G2-M
c. G0-S
583.
Which of the following describes a familial disease due to a structural

protein defect appearing in adulthood?
a. Autosomal dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. X-linked recessive
d. X-linked dominant
e. Sporadic
584.
What is the cause of blackening of the joints and urine?
91
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Homogentesic acid deficeincy

b. Hexaminase deficeincy
c. Protein c defect
d. Glucose 6 phosphatase
e. Fibrillin defect
585.
Which of the following factors inhibit cell growth in repair?

a. Heparin sulfate
b. Interferon gama
c. TGF-
d. Cyclic AMP
586.
A pateint with a history of multiple myeloma presented with multiple lytic

bone lesions. What is the most common cause of the lytic lesions?
a. TGF
b. TNF
c. PDGF
d. IL-2
e. IL-6
587.
Which of the following is the most important action to reduce error in

pathology?
a. Vigorous cleaning of all instrument after each case
b. Changing the blade of the microtome every day
c. Clean the water bath by the end of each day
588.
Which of the following parameters is not important to be mentioned in a

breast pathology report?
a. Number of lymph node mets
b. Perineural invasion
c. Size
d. Tumor cell type
92
Pathology Questions
589.
MCQs
What should a report of an osteosarcoma include?

a. Percentage of tumor necrosis
590.
Which of the following variants of basal cell carcinoma has the highiest
rate of recurrence?
a. Macronodular BCC
b. Morphia-like BCC
c. Pigmented BCC
d. Glandular BCC
591.
18-skin, the lichened reaction around skin adnexa:

a. Lichen planus
b. Lichen nitidus
c. Lichen striatus
d. Lichen planus pigmentosus
e. Lichenoid drug eruption
592.
In lung, the grade of neuroendocrine tumor depends on:

a. Size
b. Pleomrphoism
c. Mitoses
593.
A patenit with diarrhea, fever, flushing and a plaque on the tricuspid

valve. What is the most probable cause?
a. RHD
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Amyloidosis
d. Carcinoid heart disease
594.
Which of the following is not normal in urine cytology?

a. Umbrella cells
b. Squamous cells
c. Sperms
d. Multinucleated giant cells
93
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Renal tubular epithelium

595.
A bronchial lavage shows groups of monotonous plasmacytoid small

hyperchromatic cells in tubules with inconspicuous nucleoli. No cilia are
seen. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. Reserve cell hyperplasia
b. Small cell carcinoma
c. Carcinoid
d. Poorly differentiated squamous carcinoma
596.
Which of the following variants of papillary thyroid carcinoma occurs

more commonly in children?
a. Solid
b. Microfollicular
c. Nodular fasciitis-like
d. Macrofllicular
e. Encapsulated
597.
What is the most likely breast tumor to stain with estrogen receptor?
a. Mucinous
b. Lobular
c. Ductal
d. Medullary
598.
Which of the following solutions dissolve fat?

a. Bouins
b. Carnoys
c. B5
d. Formaline
599.
Which type of hemangiomas is reactive with GLUT1?

a. Infantile hemangioma
b. Lobular capillary hemangioma
94
Pathology Questions
600.
MCQs
What is Whipple triad?

a. Hypoglycemia, signs of hypoglycemia, response to sugar intake
b. Hypocalcaemia, signs of hypocalcaemia, response to calcium intake
c. Steatorrhea, diarrhea, DM
601.
Where do you see Raccoon eye sign?

a. Basal skull fracture
602.
What would be the effect of a lesion occupying the ventromedial aspect of

the hypothalamus?
a. Increase appetite
b. Decrease appetite
c. Tunnel vision
d. Increase urination
e. Paralysis of extraocular muscle
603.
A pateint presented with a history of smoking (20 packs/yr),

hyponaterima, weight gain and hyperosmolar urine. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
a. SIADH
604.
A lady has presented with a whitish patch in vulva which was diagnosed
as lichened sclerosis. What would the histology show?
a. Atrophic epidermis and sclerosed dermis
b. SCC
c. Hyperplasia with atypia
605.
What is the most common site for glomus tumor?

a. Finger and toe
606.
Which of the following tumors is characterized by a local aggressive

behavior and late metastasis?
95
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Epitholod hemangioendothlioma
b. GCT
c. Fibromatosis
607.
Where do acral lentigenous melanomas occur?

a. Palm and sole
608.
What is the underlying cause of a pateint with SLE and and presenting
with a cardiac valve disease?
a. Anticardiolipin antibodies
b. Bacteria
c. Turbulent blood flow
d. Increased blood viscosity
609.
What is the microscopic picuture of BOOP?

a. Proliferation of fibroblasts within the alveolar walls
610.
Which of the following malignanies increased in children after the the war
of 1968?
a. Thyroid carcinoma
b. Breast carcinoma
611.
A 20-year old young adult came to the ER with respiratory distress and a
medistinal mass. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. T-cell lymphoma
b. B-cell lymphoma
c. Thymoma
612.
Which of the following tissues is able to regenerate?

a. Liver
b. Dermis
c. Skeletal muscles
d. Cardiac muscles
96
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Cornea
613.
Which of the following factors favors a diagnosis of hepatoblastoma over

a hepatoceller adenoma:
a. Age <10 years
b. A large mass of mature liver cell
c. Increased -fetoprotein levels
614.
Which of the following is a common feature of membranous

glomerulonephritis and post-strepotococcal glomeonephritis?
a. Both occur in the young age group
b. Both have subepithelial deposits
c. Both resolve spontaneously
d. Both present with nephrotic syndrome
615.
Which of the following diseases show acid fast bacilli around peripheral
nerves?
a. Leprosy
b. TB
616.
Which of the following cells is responsibale for liver cirrhosis?

a. Sinusoidal endothelial cells
b. Ita cells
617.
What is the hyaline cytoplasmic material seen in alcoholic hepatitis?

a. Mallory bodies
618.
A 30-year old male presented with a mediastinal mass showing hyalinized

lymphoid follicles & abundant plasma cells. What is the probable
diagnosis?
a. Castleman disease
b. Hodgkins diseasee
c. Plasmacytoma of lymph node
97
Pathology Questions
619.
MCQs
Progressive transformation of germinal centers is associated with which

of the following lymphomas?
a. NLPHL
b. Classic HL, nodular sclerosis
c. Follicular lymphoma
620.
What is the most common lymphoma in HIV patients?

a. Burkitt lymphoma
b. DLBCL
621.
A 30-year old HIV patient presented with cough & dyspnea. A lung biopsy
showed frothy alveolar material. Which stain is best used to identify the
causative organism?
a. Modified methelamin silver stain
622.
Which of the following ovarian tumors is most often associated with

pseuoprecocious puberty?
a. Juvenile granulosa cell tumor
623.
Which of the following ovarian tumors has the following profile: PLAP+,
OCT4+, CD30+, CK+, CD117- ?
a. Embryonal carcinoma
624.
Which of the following uterine tumors have a tubuloalveolar appearance

& PTEN mutation?
a. Endometrioid endometrial adenocarcinoma
625.
A 6-year old boy presented with an abdominal mass which showed:

CD20+, CD10+, BCL-6+, CD19+, CD43+, BCL-2-, and >90% proliferation
index. What is the genetic mutation underlying this tumor?
a. t(8:14)
98
Pathology Questions
626.
MCQs
A 50-year old female with history of prolonged diarrhea, nausea,

vomiting, gastric hyperacidity and multiple duodenal ulcers will probably
have which of the following conditions?
a. Gastrin secreting tumor of pancreas
b. Insulinoma
627.
A female patient is known to have a prolactin-secreting anterior pituitary

tumor; what will be her clinical manifestation?
a. 30 years old, with amenorrhea, galactorrhea & -ve pregnancy test
628.
What is the appropriate follow up of a patient with ASC-H on PAP smear?

a. Colposcopy
629.
A patient presented with hemoptysis, rapidly progressive renal failure

and cresent formation in a renal biopsy with linear immune complex
deposit. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. Goodpasture syndrome
630.
What is the most common causative organism of acute pyelonephritis?

a. E coli
b. Strep. group A
c. Staph aureus
631.
What is the most common genetic abnormality in clear cell RCC?

a. Deletion of chromosome 3
b. Abnormality in chromosome 12
c. Loss of Y chromosome
d. Loss of 1 chromosome
632.
What is the cause of renal papillary necrosis?

a. DM
b. Interstesial nephritis
99
Pathology Questions
633.
MCQs
What is the most likely diagnosis of a destructive metaphysical cortical

lesion in the distal femur with soft tissue extention in a 15 years old boy?
a. Osteosarcoma
634.
What is the first antibody that appears in acute inflammation and can not
cross the placenta?
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
635.
Which of the following stains is positive in adrenocortical tumors?

a. Melan A
b. Cytokeratin
636.
Which of the following uterine tumors is associated with unaopposed

estrogen effect and preceeded by endometrial hyperplasia?
a. Endometroid adenocarcinoma
b. Papillary serrous carcinoma
637.
Which of the following conditions is characterized by: hypoalbunimia,

hyperlipidemia, hypertension, fat casts and lipid vacuoles?
a. Nephritic syndrome
b. Nephrotic syndrome
638.
Which of the following is the most sensitive testicular tumor to

radiotherapy?
a. Seminoma
639.
Which of the following liver disease show ducropenia?

a. HBV
b. HCV
c. PBC
d. HCC
100
Pathology Questions
640.
MCQs
For each of the following questions choose the most likely diagnosis from
the following diagnostic set (an answer may be used once, more than
once, or not at all) (PIP 2000 A)
Diagnostic set:
a. Infiltrating duct carcinoma.
b. Infiltrating lobular carcinoma.
c. Langerhan's cell histiocytosis.
d. Malignant non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, small cell diffuse type.
e. Metastatic gastric carcinoma to the breast.
f. Sclerosing adenosis.
Which most often demonstrates a sinus catarrh pattern of metastasis to
axillary lymph nodes?
b. Infiltrating lobular carcinoma.
Which lesion typically shows negative reactions for cytokeratin and S100
immunostains?
d. Malignant non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, small cell diffuse type.
Which lesion often demonstrates Her2/neu overexpression?
a. Infiltrating duct carcinoma.
641.
Diagnostic set:
a. Burkitt's lymphoma.
b. Extramedullary myeloid tumor.
c. Large cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.
d. Lymphoblastic lymphoma.
e. MALT lymphoma.
f. Mantle cell lymphoma.
g. Small cell carcinoma.
101
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which tumor is associated with eosinophilic myelocytes?

Which tumor typically expresses CD3 and TdT?
Which tumor cells demonstrate a clonal t(11;14) translocation?
The gastrointestinal presentation of which tumor often resembles
multiple polyps:
642.
Classic Wilm's tumor has which of the following characteristics? (PIP

2000 A)
a. Triphasic histology with epithelial, blastemal, and mesenchymal
components.
b. Prognosis favorable, with greater than 80 percent cure rate.
c. Stage is based on extent of tumor, extent of resection, and
presence of metastasis.
d. Association with dysmorphic syndromes.
e. All of the above.
643.
Malignant rhabdoid tumor of kidney has which of the following

characteristics?(PIP 2000 A)
a. Favorable prognosis, with greater than 50 percent cure rate.
b. Immunohistochemichal profile identical to rhabdomyosarcoma.
c. Association with primary or metastatic central nervous system
neoplasms.
d. Association with Von Hipple-Lindau syndrome.
e. Tendency for metastasis to bone.
102
Pathology Questions
644.
MCQs
Clear cell sarcoma of kidney has which of the following characteristics?

(PIP 2000 A)
a. Deceptively bland histologic appearance.
b. Arcading vascular pattern.
c. Tendency for metastasis to bone.
d. Peak incidence between 6 months and 2 years of age.
645.
Which of the following ovarian neoplasms would be least likely to exhibit

immunoreactivity for inhibin? (PIP 2000 A)
a. Adult granulosa cell tumor.
b. Endometrioid adenocarcinoma.
c. Fibrothecoma.
d. Juvenile granulosa cell tumor.
e. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor.
646.
Which of the following ovarian neoplasms is most frequently associated

with virilism? (PIP 2000 A)
a. Strumal carcinoid.
b. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor.
c. Adult granulosa cell tumor.
d. Immature teratoma.
647.
Which of the following is the most common ovarian sex cord-stromal

tumor? (PIP 2000 A)
a. Endometrioid carcinoma.
b. Gynadroblastoma.
c. Granulosa cell tumor.
d. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor.
e. Teratoma.
103
Pathology Questions
648.
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Acinar cell carcinoma.
b. Ductal adenocarcinoma.
c. Microcytic adenoma.
d. Pancreatic endocrine tumor.
e. Pancreatoblastoma.
f. Solid and pseudopapillary carcinoma.
Which is characterized histologically by a mixture of glandular, acinar,
endocrine and squamoid elements?
Which is characterized histologically by PAS positive diastase-resistant
cytoplasmic granules?
Which occurs primarily in young women?
f. Solid and pseudopapillary carcinoma.
649.
Diagnostic set:
a. Adrenal cortical carcinoma.
b. Angiomyolipoma.
c. Angiomyolipoma.
d. Atypical lipoma.
e. Leiomyosarcoma
f. Lipoma.
g. Liposarcoma.
104
Pathology Questions
MCQs
h. Oncocytoma.
i.
Renal cell carcinoma.
Which lesion exhibits HMB45-positive, keratin-negative perivascular

epithelioid cells?
c. Angiomyolipoma
Which lesion is the most common malignant stomal tumor of the kidney?
e. Leiomyosarcoma
Which lesion is most commonly associated with tuberous sclerosis
complex?
c. Angiomyolipoma
650.
Which of the following features is associated with recurrence of desmoid

tumor (abdominal fibromatosis)? (PIP 2000 A)
a. Positive resection margins.
b. Abundant centrally located slit-like vessels in the mass.
c. Familial adenomatous polyposis.
d. Younger age.
651.
Familial adenomatous polyposis coli is associated with which of the

following tumors? (PIP 2000 A)
a. Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor.
b. Nodular fasciitis.
c. Desmoid tumor.
d. Fibrosarcoma.
e. Neurofibroma.
652.
Which of the following features distinguish reactive fibrosis from desmoid

tumor? (PIP 2000 A)
a. Recent and/or old hemorrhage.
105
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Abundant collagen.
c. Circumscription.
d. Cellular atypia.
e. Abundant fibroblasts.
653.
For each of the following questions choose the most likely diagnosisfrom
Diagnostic set:
a. Adenosarcoma.
b. Malignant mixed mllerian tumor crcinosarcoma, heterologous
type.
c. Poorly differentiated endometrial carcinoma with spindle cell
metaplasia.
d. Primary uterine osteogenic sarcoma(heterologous sarcoma of
uterus).
e. Teratoma with malignant transformation.
A large malignant uterine neoplasm typically containing cartilage:
b. Malignant mixed mllerian tumor crcinosarcoma, heterologous
type.
Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common histologic component in
this neoplasm:
e. Teratoma with malignant transformation.
This neoplasm is characterized by sarcomatous collarettes compressing
tubular glands:
a. Adenosarcoma.
654.
106
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Choristoma.
b. Dermoid cyst.
c. Immature teratoma.
d. Mature teratoma.
e. Polyembryoma.
f. Teratoma with malignant transformation.
g. Teratocarcinoma.
Which testicular tumor is much more likely to occur in prepubertal
children than adults?
d. Mature teratoma.
Adenocarcinoma occuring in a teratoma is designated:
f. Teratoma with malignant transformation
A primitive neuroendocrine tumor (PNET) is most likely to occur in:
c. Immature teratoma.
655.
Diagnostic set:
a. Adenovirus.
b. Behet's syndrome.
c. Candida albicans.
d. Chemichal esophagitis.
e. Cytomegalovirus.
f. Herpes simplex.
g. Reflux esophagitis.
h. Squamous cell carcinoma.
107
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Granular, eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions are useful in the

identification of which agent?
e. Cytomegalovirus.
Esophagitis associated with inflammation of the oral cavity and ocular
and genital areas is characteristic of which entity?
b. Behet's syndrome.
Which infectious agent commonly involves epithelial cells, endothelial
cells, smooth muscle and ganglion cells of the gastrointestinal tract?
e. Cytomegalovirus.
656.
once, or not at all) (PIP 2000 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Glioblastoma multiforme.
b. Gliomatosis cerebri.
c. Muultiple sclerosis.
d. Post-encephalitic gliosis.
e. Viral encephalitis.
Multiple lobes of the brain are diffusely involved by neoplastic astrocytes
in which condition?
b.Gliomatosis cerebri.
Relative axonal preservation is a characteristic feature of which
condition?
c. Muultiple sclerosis.
Pseudopalisading with central necrosis is the classic histological finding
in which lesion?
a. Glioblastoma multiforme.
108
Pathology Questions
657.
MCQs
The most important fact predicting survival in patients with mucinous

tumor of borderline malignancy (mucinous tumor of low malignant
potential of the ovary)is: (PIP 2000 B)
a. Architectural complexity.
b. Tumor size.
c. Tumor stage.
d. Patient age.
e. Nuclear grade.
658.
Which of the following staetments about mucinous tumor of borderline

malignancy (mucinous tumor of low malignant potential of the ovary) is
true: (PIP 2000 B)
a. Bilateral ovarian involvement is seen in the majority of patients.
b. It accounts for the majority of ovarian mucinous tumors.
c. The tumor cells resemble endometrial cells.
d. Destructive stromal invasion can be present.
e. None of the above is true.
659.
Which of the following is most likely in carcinoid tumor consistent with

thymic origin: (PIP 2000 B)
a. Immunoreactivity
for
chromogranin
and
cytokeratin,
and
identification of neurosecretory granules by electron microscopy.

b. Immunoreactivity for leukocyte common antigen CD45 and CD20
(L26).
c. Immunoreactivity for placental alkaline phosphatase and Leu-7,
and negative cytokeratin stains.
d. Immunoreactivity for chromogranin, negative cytokeratin stains,
and identification of neurosecretory granules by electron
microscopy.
e. Immunoreactivity for CD15 (LeuM1) and CD30 (BerH2),
andnegative leukocyte common antigen.
109
Pathology Questions
660.
MCQs
Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) syndromes are most likely

associated with which of the following mediastinal tumors? (PIP 2000 B)
a. Thymoma.
b. Teratoma, mature.
c. Carcinoid tumor.
d. Malignant lymphoma.
e. Seminoma.
661.
All of are true about sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma except: (PIP 2000
B)
a. Survival rate usually less than one year.
b. High-rate extrarenal spread and metastasis at time of surgery.
c. HMB-45 is usually positive.
d. Usually arises in the renal cortex.
e. May have foci of osteosarcoma or chondrosarcoma.
662.
All of the following are true about angiomyolipma except: (PIP 2000 B)
a. HMB-45 is usually positive.
b. Strong association with tuberous sclerosis.
c. Clinical findings (flank pain and hematuria) similar to renal cell
carcinoma.
d. Most common renal tumor of early infancy.
e. May be multifocal and bilateral, but rarely malignant.
663.
the following diagnostic set (an answer may be used once, morethan once,
or not at all). (PIP 2000 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Acute necrotizing eosinophilic myocarditis.
b. Chagas disease.
c. Giant cell myocarditis.
d. Hypereosinphillic syndrome.
e. Hypersensitivity/eosinophilic myocarditis.
110
Pathology Questions
MCQs
f. Lymphocytic myocarditis.
g. Large cell lymphoma.
h. Toxoplasmosis.
Which disease is characterized by seroiginous areas of necrosis with
numerous multinucleated histiocytes?
c. Giant cell myocarditis.
Which disease is characterized by an infiltrate of histiocytes and
eosinophils around vessels and in cardiac connective tissue planes?
e. Hypersensitivity/eosinophilic myocarditis.
Which disease is characterized by the presence of cardiac mural
thrombi?
d. Hypereosinphillic syndrome.
664.
Which of the following pulmonary infections is characterized by a

necrotizing vasculitis? (PIP 2000 B)
a. Legionella pneumonia.
b. Thoracic actinomycosis.
c. Psuedomonas pneumonia.
d. Cryptococosis.
e. Cytomegalovirus.
665.
Granulomatous inflammation is commonly associated with which of the

following? (PIP 2000 B)
a. Legionella pneumonia.
b. Cryptococosis.
c. Pulmonary tularemia.
d. Cytomegalovirus infecton.
e. Thoracic actinomycosis.
666.
Which of the following statements is true? (PIP 2000 B)
111
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Viral culture is more sensitive than histologic examination of

tissue in diagnosing CMV pneumonia.
b. Legionella pneumonia is caused only by legionella pnemophilia
species.
c. Pulmonary tularemia is characteristically associated with acute
necrotizing vasculitis.
d. Legionella bacteria are easily identified in tissue sections stained
with Gram's stain.
e. Actinomycosis commonly stains with an acid fast stain.
667.
once, or not at all). (PIP 2000 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Hairy cell leukemia.
b. Hepatosplenic T-cell leukemia.
c. Mantle cell lymphoma.
d. Marginal zone lymphoma.
e. Prolymphocytic leukemia.
f. Small lymphocytic lymphoma/ chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
g. Systemic mastocytosis.
Which lymphoproliferative disorder typically co-expresses CD5 and CD23
in addition to pan B-cell markers?
f. Small lymphocytic lymphoma/ chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
Which B-cell neoplasm shows predominantly red pulp infiltration in the
spleen.
a. Hairy cell leukemia.
Which neoplasm is cytologically and immunophenotypically similar to
hairy cell leukemia but shows a different pattern of involvement in the
spleen?
112
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Marginal zone lymphoma.

668.
Diagnostic set:
c. Nesidioblastosis.
f. Serous (microcytic) adenoma.
g. Solid and pseudopapillary epithelial neoplasm.
h. Undifferentiated (anaplastic) carcinoma.
Which lesion is most commonly seen in young children and characterized
by squamoid corpuscles?
Which lesion is most commonly associated with subcutaneous fat
necrosis?
a. Acinar cell carcinoma
Which lesion is seen most often in patients with Zollinger-Ellison
syndrome?
669.
Diagnostic set:
a. Adenomatoid tumor.
b. Adenomyoma.
113
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Adenosarcoma.
d. Carcinosarcoma (malignant mixed mllerian tumor.
e. Endometrial stromal nodule.
f. Endometrial stromal sarcoma.
g. Leiomyoma.
h. Leiomyosarcoma.
i.
Stromomyoma.
Which lesion is characterized by an admixture of benign glandular

epithelium and malignant stroma?
c. Adenosarcoma.
Which lesion is the most frequent benign tumor of the fallopian tube?
Which lesion consists of a circumscribed, nodular mass of benign smooth
muscle with interspersed islands of benign endometrial glands and
stroma?
b. Adenomyoma.
670.
Diagnostic set:
a. Discoid lupus erythematosus.
b. Discoid (nummular) eczema.
c. Erythema annulare centrifigum.
d. Granuloma annulare.
e. Lichen palnus.
f. Lichen sclerosus et atrophicus.
g. Psoriasis.
h. Tinea.
114
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which lesion typically presesnts as violaceous flat topped papules with

saw-tooth epidermal hyperpalsia, hypergranulosis, and prominent
Civatte bodies?
e. Lichen palnus.
Which lesion is associated with localized scleroderma (morphea)?
f. Lichen sclerosus et atrophicus.
Which lesion typically shows granular deposits of immunoglobulin and
complement along the dermal-epidermal hunction in sun-exposed,
clinically affected skin?
a. Discoid lupus erythromatosus.
671.
once, or not at all). (PIP 2000 C)
Diagnostic set:
a. Adrenal cortical adenoma.
b. Angiomyolipoma
c. Extramedullary hematopoiesis.
d. Granulocytic sarcoma (chloroma).
e. Lipoma.
f. Liposarcoma.
g. Myelolipoma.
h. Pheochromocytoma.
Which
adrenal
lesion
is
almost
always
associated
with
hepatosplenomegaly and abnormal bone marrow findings?

c. Extramedullary hematopoiesis.
Which lesion is most commonly located in the adrenal gland, shows an
admixture of mature adipose tissue and hematopoietic elements and is
most often an incidental, asymptomatic lesion?
115
Pathology Questions
MCQs
g. Myelolipoma.
Which lesion may be associated with tuberous sclerosis complex?
b. Angiomyolipoma.
672.
Diagnostic set:
a. Atypical ductal hyperplasia.
b. Atypical lobular hyperplasia.
c. Ductal carcinoma in-situ.
d. Ductal hyperplasia.
e. Lobular carcinoma in-situ.
Which lesion is typically non-palpable, may be bilateral and multicentric,
and characteristically is composed of cells that are noncohesive,
monotonus with round cytologically bland nuclei, absent nucleoli and
scant cytoplasm, that fill and expand acinar spaces?
e. Lobular carcinoma in-situ.
Which lesion is nonpalpable and shows an increase in the cellularity of
the duct epithelium that is characterized by a mixed cell population with a
streaming appearance in which the nuclei are oriented parallel to the long
axis of the cells with nuclear crowding?
d. Ductal hyperplasia.
Which lesion is frequently nonpalpable and characterized by an epithelial
proliferation that fills the duct with neoplastic cells a single cell type with
well defined cell borders, and may show bridges and punched out spaces?
c. Ductal carcinoma in-situ.
116
Pathology Questions
673.
MCQs
All the following are characteristic of low-grade MALT lymphoma except:

(PIP 2000 C)
a. May have prominent reactive-appearing lymphoid follicles.
b. Neoplastic cells have large lobulated nuclei that may mimic ReedSternberg cells.
c. May have groups of palsma cells below the surface epithelium.
d. Lymphoepithelial lesions are characteristic.
e. Neoplastic cells have the phenotype of marginal zone B cells.
674.
The most common site for extranodal lymphoma is: (PIP 2000 C)
a. Skin.
b. Liver.
c. Brain.
d. Gastrointestinal tract.
e. Bone.
675.
The most common primary site for a Krkenberg tumor is: (PIP 2000 C)
a. Breast.
b. Colon.
c. Lung.
d. Pancreas.
e. Stomach.
676.
Which of the following statements about clear cell adenocarcinoma of the

ovary is/are true? (PIP 2000 C)
a. Cytoplasm is glycogen rich.
b. Mucin is present in tubules and cysts.
c. It may contain hyaline bodies.
d. Immunoreactivity for alpha fetoprotein may be present.
e. All of the above are true.
117
Pathology Questions
677.
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma.
b. Granulosa cell tumor.
c. Malignant lymphoma.
d. Serous adenocarcinoma.
e. Small cell carcinoma of ovary.
Immunoreactivity for and desmin and smooth muscle actin:
Associated with estrogenic effects:
b. Granulosa cell tumor.
Immunoprofile of keratin positive, parathyroid hormone-related protein
(PTH-rP) positive, LCA negative:
e. Small cell carcinoma of ovary.
678.
Diagnostic set:
a. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma.
b. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma.
c. Inflammatory pseudotumor.
d. Metastatic carcinoma.
e. Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin's disease.
f. Seminoma.
g. Thymoma.
118
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which lesion characteristically has a CD45-, CD15+, CD30+ and EMAimmunophenotype?

Which lesion is found to have a t(2:5) translocation?
Lacunar cells are characteristic of which lesion?
679.
Diagnostic set:
a. Cholangiocarcinoma.
b. Combined hepatocellular-cholangiocarcinoma.
c. Fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma.
d. Focal nodular hyperplasia.
e. Hepatocellular carcinoma, NOS.
f. Liver cell (hepatocellular adenoma).
Which malignant liver tumor has the most favorable prognosis?
c. Fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma.
Which hepatic lesion is most strongly associated with cirrhosis?
In which hepatic lesion is elevation of serum alpha-fetoprotein most
common?
119
Pathology Questions
680.
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
b. Blastomyces dermatiditis.
c. Halogenoderma.
d. Loboa lobi.
e. Sporothrix schenckii.
f. Squamous carcinoma.
Fungal organism which to date has not been cultured to synthetic media?
d. Loboa lobi.
Cutaneous lesion resulting from ingestion of bromides or iodines?
c. Halogenoderma.
Fungus whose cigar-shaped yeast form is thought to be diagnostic in
tissue sections:
e. Sporothrix schenckii.
681.
Diagnostic set:
a. Adult granulosa tumor.
b. Endometrioid stromal sarcoma.
c. Primary ovarian lymphoma.
d. Sertoli leydig cell tumor.
e. Small cell carcinoma.
f. Undifferentiated carcinoma.
Which is most likely to simultaneous involve both uterus and ovary?
120
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Endometrioid stromal sarcoma.

Which is most often associated with virilizing symptoms?
d. Sertoli leydig cell tumor.
Which is associated with hypercalcemia?
682.
Diagnostic set:
a. Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans.
b. Diffuse neurofibroma.
c. Elephantiasis neuromatosa.
d. Localized neurofibroma.
e. Plexiform neurofibroma.
f. Spindle cell liposarcoma.
Which is the most common tumor found in neurofibromatosis, type I?
d. Localized neurofibroma.
Which lesion arises as a plaque-like leison of the dermis and
subcutaneous tissue, and has abundant Meissner-like bodies?
b. Diffuse neurofibroma.
Which typically occurs in the arms and shoulders of middle aged to older
adults?
f. Spindle cell liposarcoma.
683.
Which of the following is not characteristic of pilocytic astrocytoma? (PIP

2000 D)
a. Cerebellar location.
121
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Childhood presentation.
c. Circumcription.
d. Cyst formation.
e. Tendency for malignant transformation.
684.
Histologic features of pilocytic astrocytoma include: (PIP 2000 D)

a. Homer Wright rosettes.
b. Perivascular pseudorosettes.
c. Psammoma bodies.
d. Rosenthal fibers.
e. Verocay bodies.
685.
An immunostain that may be most helpful in differentiating pilocytic

astrocytoma from other astrocytic neoplasm is: (PIP 2000 D)
a. Epithelial membrane antigen(EMA).
b. Glial fibrillary astrocytic protein (GFAP).
c. Neurofilament protein (NFP).
d. S-100 protein.
e. Synaptophysin.
686.
once, or not at all). (PIP 2000 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Acute interstitial pneumonia.
b. Adenovirus pneumonia.
c. Giant cell interstitial pneumonia.
d. Hantavirus pneumonia.
e. Measles pneumonia.
f. Mycoplasma pneumonia.
g. Respiratory syncytial virus pneumonia.
Intracytoplasmic inclusions only:
122
Pathology Questions
MCQs
g. Respiratory syncytial virus pneumonia.

Intracytoplasmic inclusions and intranuclear inclusions:
e. Measles pneumonia.
Intrabronchiolar neutrophilic exudate with plasma cell rich chronic
inflammation in bronchiolar wall:
f. Mycoplasma pneumonia.
687.
Diagnostic set:
a. Chorangiosis.
b. Chronic intervillositis.
c. Generalized villous dysmaturity.
d. Lymphoplasmacytic villitis.
e. Partial hydatidiform mole.
f. Recurrent bacterial villitis.
Histologic pattern associated with treponemal infection:
d. Lymphoplasmacytic villitis.
Lesion associated with triploid karyotype:
e. Partial hydatidiform mole.
Lesion characterized by villous hypervascularity and clinical diabetes and
preeclampsia:
a. Chorangiosis.
688.
123
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Celiac disease.
b. Crohn's disease.
c. Eosinophilic gastoenteritis.
d. Giardia enteritis.
e. Mast cell disease.
f. Peripheral T-cell lymphoma.
g. Scleroderma.
Which may feature eosinophilia and atypical lymphoid cells?
f. Peripheral T-cell lymphoma.
Which may feature edema and relatively pure population of eosinophils
with minimal tissue damage?
c. Eosinophilic gastoenteritis.
Which will feature moderate eosinophilia admixed with tryptase-positive
mononuclear cell population by immunoperoxidase staining?
e. Mast cell disease.
689.
All of the following have proven clinical utility as prognostic factors,

except: (PIP 2000 D)
a. Tumor size.
b. Tumor grade.
c. Tumor necrosis.
d. Lymph node status.
e. Hormone receptor status.
690.
All of the following are classified as special type carcinomas with regard
to prognosis: (PIP 2000 D)
a. Classic infiltrating lobular carcinoma.
b. Apocrine carcinoma.
c. Mucinous carcinoma.
124
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Tubular carcinoma.
e. Cribriform carcinoma.
691.
Which predictive factor has been endorsed by the Tumor Panel of the
American Society of Clinical Oncology for routine clinical use inbreast
cancer? (PIP 2000 D)
a. Her2/neu.
b. p53.
c. bcl-2.
d. Estrogen receptor.
e. Epidermal growth factor receptor.
692.
Diagnostic set:
a. Ectopic deciduosis.
b. Fibroma.
c. Granulosa cell tumor, adult.
d. Hyperreactio luteinalis.
e. Leydig cell tumor.
f. Pregnancy luteoma.
g. Steroid cell tumor, not otherwise specified.
h. Stromal luetoma.
i.
Thecoma.
Which lesion characteristically contains crystalloids of Reinke?

e. Leydig cell tumor.
Which lesion is most commonly bilateral and multicystic, associated with
gestational trophoblastic tumors, and frequently involutes following
treatment?
d. Hyperreactio luteinalis.
125
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which lesion is typically solid, white and fibrous on gross examination?

b. Fibroma.
693.
Diagnostic set:
a. Calcifying aponeurotic fibroma.
b. Congenital (infantile) fibrosarcoma.
c. Elastofibroma.
d. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma.
e. Fibrolipoma.
f. Fibrous hamartoma of infancy.
g. Infantile digital fibromatosis.
h. Infantile (desmoid type) fibromatosis.
Which
lesion
may
display
t(12;15)(13;q52)
chromosome
rearrangement with fusion of the ETV6 and NTRK3 (ETV6-NTRK3)

genes?
b. Congenital (infantile) fibrosarcoma.
Which lesion characteristically presents as slow-growing mass of the
connective tissue of the lower scapula and chest wall in elderly adults?
c. Elastofibroma.
Which lesion is a fibrous proliferation of infants that characteristically
involves the fingers and toes and demonstrates fibroblasts that contain
intracytoplasmic, eosinophilic inclusions on H&E stain?
g. Infantile digital fibromatosis.
694.
126
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Inverted papilloma.
b. Papillary urothelail carcinoma, high grade.
c. Papillary urothelail carcinoma,low grade.
d. Papillary urothelail hyperplasia.
e. Papillary urothelail neoplasm of low malignant potential.
f. Urothelial carcinoma with inverted papilloma-like pattern
g. Urothelial papilloma.
A putative benign precursor lesion of low-grade papillary urothelial
neoplasm:
d. Papillary urothelail hyperplasia.
A papillary lesion that can be diagnosed cytologically in urine specimens
by the presence of 3-dimensional clusters of dysplastic urothelail cells
with altered polarity:
c. Papillary urothelial carcinoma, low grade.
A lesion which is not biologically aggressive but is associated with
recurrences in 40-50 percent of cases and carries a risk for progression
with each recurrence having a 10-20 percent change of being invasive:
e. Papillary urothelial neoplasm of low malignant potential.
695.
Diagnostic set:
a. Extraosseous Ewing's sarcoma.
b. Merkle cell carcinoma.
c. Metastatic small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma.
d. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.
e. Small cell malignant melanoma.
f. Small cell sweat gland carcinoma.
127
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which tumor is typically positive for Cytokeartin 20(CK20)?

b. Merkle cell carcinoma.
Which tumor is typically shows strong membrane staining for CD99?
a. Extraosseous Ewing's sarcoma.
Which tumor may show positive staining for neuroendocrine markersand
be negative for Cytokeartin 20 (CK20)?
c. Metastatic small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma.
696.
Which of the following is true? (PIP 2000 D)

a. In Crohn's disease, biopsies of endoscopically normal mucosa may
display colitis.
b. Collagenous colitis occurs more often in men than women.
c. Approximately 50 percent of patients with chronic diarrhea and
normal endoscopic findings have either lymphocytic colitis or
collageneous colitis.
d. Diffuse mucosal lymphocytosis or lymphoplasmacytosis is
common in graft-versus-host disease.
e. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are associated
with diffuse neutrophilic cryptitis.
697.
Intraepithelial lymphocytosis is a prominent feature of colon biopsies in

all of the following except: (PIP 2000 D)
a. Collagenous colitis.
b. Chronic ulcerative colitis.
c. Lymphocytic colitis.
d. Refractory spure.
e. Brainerd diarrhea.
698.
In individuals with chronic diarrhea and no HIV infection, the most

common biopsy finding is: (PIP 2000 D)
128
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Melanosis coli.
b. Diffuse neutrophilic cryptitis.
c. Intraepithelial lymphocytosis.
d. Histologically normal mucosa.
e. Apoptosis of crypt epithelial cells.
699.
Which of the following tumors has the poorest diagnosis? (PIP 2001 A)
a. Alveolar adenoma.
b. Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma, Type 1(mucinous subtype).
c. Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma, Type 2(hobnail subtype).
d. Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma, mixed types 1 and 2
e. Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma, Type 3 (with central sclerosis).
700.
Which of the following immunohistochemichal staining is characteristic of

primary pulmonary adenocarcinoma? (PIP 2001 A)
a. CK20(+), CK7(-), CEA(+).
b. CK20(+), CK7(+), CA 19.9(+).
c.
CK20(-), CK7(+), TTF-1(+).
d. CK20(-), CK7(-), EMA(+).

e. Pancytokeratin(+), calretinin(+), TTF-1(-).
701.
Which of the following is considered most important in assessing the

prognosis of bronchioloalveolar carcinoma? (PIP 2001 A)
a. Degree of histologic atypia.
b. Extent of intrapulmonary spread.
c. Lymph node status.
d. Pulmonary function status.
e. Histology subtype 2 bronchioloalveolar carcinoma.
702.
once, or not at all). (PIP 2001 A)
Diagnostic set:
129
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Caroli's disease.
b. Cholangiocarcinoma.
c. Primary biliary cirrhosis.
d. Primary sclerosing cholangitis.
e. Recurrent pyogenic cholangitis (oriental cholangiohepatitis).
Which is a congenital liver abnormality that involves both lobes and is
associated with bile duct stones, cholangitis and renal cysts?
a. Caroli's disease.
Which liver abnormality shows preferential involvement of the left lobe,
intrahepatic bile duct stones, and cholangitis?
e. Recurrent pyogenic cholangitisoriental cholangiohepatitis.
Which liver abnormality most often arises in patients with inflammatory
bowel diseasae?
d. Primary sclerosing cholangitis.
703.
A balance translocation involving the EWS gene on chromosome 22 is

seen in: (PIP 2001 A)
a.
Neuroblastoma.
b. Acute lymphoblastic lymphomas and leukemias.

c.
Wilm's tumor.
d. Primitive neuroectodermal tumor.

e.
704.
Medulloblastoma.
Antbodies to MIC-2 gene product are seen in all except: (PIP 2001 A)
a. Ewing's sarcoma.
b. Neuroblastoma.
c. Acute lymphoblastic lymphomas and leukemias.
d. Wilm's tumor.
e. Primitive neuroectodermal tumor.
130
Pathology Questions
705.
feature
MCQs
distinguishing
Ewing's
sarcoma
from
primitive
neuroectodermal tumor is: (PIP 2001 A)

a. Electron microscopic findings.
b. EWS-FL1 gene translocation.
c. More favorable prognosis.
d. -microglobulin staining.
e. Elevated choline acetyltransferase activity.
706.
Oxyphil (oncocytic) adenomas of the parathyroid glands differ from chief

cell adenoma in which of the following: (PIP 2001 A)
a. Larger size.
b. More follicular pattern.
c. Lower serum calcium.
d. Decreased intracellular fat.
707.
Parathyroid carcinoma differs from parathyroid adenoma by: (PIP 2001

A)
a. Smaller size.
b. Invasion of neighboring structures.
c. Occurrence more frequently in women.
d. Occurrence in older patients.
e. Lower serum calcium levels.
708.
The frequency of hyperparathyroidism in MEN syndromes:

a. MEN I > MEN II.
b. MEN IIB > MEN II.
c. MEN II > MEN I.
d. MEN IIB > MEN I.
e. MEN I = MEN IIB.
131
Pathology Questions
709.
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
b. Erdheim-Chester disease.
c. Histoplasmosis.
d. Hodgkin's disease.
e. Inflammatory malignant fibrous histiocytoma.
f. Langerhans' cell histiocytosis.
g. Malacoplakia.
h. Malignant melanoma.
i.
Which
Rosai-Dorfman disease.
lesion
is
characterized
by
S-100
protein
and
CD
immunoreactivity and the ultrastuctural presence of Birbeck'sgranules?

f. Langerhans' cell histiocytosis.
Which lesion is thought to represent an unusual host response to
bacterial infection that is characterized by the presence of PAS-positive,
diastase-resistant intracytoplasmic calcospherities?
g. Malacoplakia.
Which is a malignant neoplasm that is characterized by an intense,
neutrophil-rich inflammatory infiltrate with intracytoplasmic neutrophils
often present within neoplastic or xanthoma cells?
e. Inflammatory malignant fibrous histiocytoma.
710.
Diagnostic set:
a. Beta hemolytic streptococcus.
132
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Coccidiodes immitus.
c. Cytomegalovirus(CMV).
d. Herpes simplex virus(HSV).
e. Parvovirus.
f. Toxoplasma gondii.
g. Varicella virus.
Which characteristically produces lymphoplasmacytic villitis, with villous
fibrosis, karyorrhexis, and hemosiderin deposition?
c. Cytomegalovirus CMV.
Infection with which organism shows characteristic intranuclear viral
inclusions in fetal red blood cells?
e. Parvovirus.
This agent characteristically infects the extraplacental membranes
without eliciting an inflammatory or desmoplastic reaction?
f. Toxoplasma gondii.
711.
Diagnostic set:
a. Follicle center cell lymphoma.
b. Hairy cell leukemia.
c. Hodgkin's lymphoma.
d. Langerhans' cell histiocytosis.
e. Malignant melanoma.
f. Mycobacterium avium intracellulare infection.
g. Splenic lymphoma with villous lymphocytes.
h. Systemic mastocytosis.
Which lesion exhibits dilated pseudosinuses within the red pulp?
133
Pathology Questions
MCQs

Which leison expresses CD 1a, S-100, vimentin, HLA-Dr and CD 68?
Which lesion contains toluidine blue positive cytoplasmic granules?
h. Systemic mastocytosis.
712.
Diagnostic set:
a. Congenital lobar emphysema.
b. Cystic adenomatoid malformation type II.
c. Micronodular pneumocyte hyperplasia.
d. Normal lung, 24 weeks of gestational age.
e. Perinatal pneumonia.
f. Pulmonary hyperplasia.
g. Pulmonary hypoplasia.
This lesion is associated with an abnormal reduction in weight and/or
volume of the lung:
g. Pulmonary hypoplasia.
This lesion is an orderly increase in size and/or number in the structural
components of the pulmonary lobules:
f. Pulmonary hyperplasia.
This lesion is a hamartoma associated with the tuberous sclerosis
complex:
c. Micronodular pneumocyte hyperplasia.
134
Pathology Questions
713.
MCQs
One of the factors associated with a good prognosis for solitary fibrous
tumor is: (PIP 2001 A)
a. Epithelioid histology.
b. Size greater than 10 cm in diameter.
c. Lack of keratin reactivity.
d. Complete surgical excision.
e. Age at presentation.
714.
Which of the following neoplasms is characteristically CD 34 positive?

(PIP 2001 A)
a. Calcifying fibrous pseudotumor.
b. Desmoid tumor.
c. Leiomyoma.
d. Sarcomatoid carcinoma.
e. Sarcomatous mesothelioma.
f. Solitary fibrous tumor.
g. Synovial sarcoma.
715.
Which is the most common location for extra-abdominal desmoids

tumors? (PIP 2001 A)
a. Shoulder.
b. Forearm.
c. Buttock.
d. Mesentry.
e. Neck.
716.
The most common malignant tumor of the gallbladder is:

a. Adenocarcinoma, intestinal type.
b. Adenocarcinoma, low grade (well to moderately differentiated).
c. Adenocarcinoma,
high
grade
(poorly
differentiated
to
undifferentiated).
d. Adenosquamous carcinoma.
e. Clear cell adenocarcinoma.
135
Pathology Questions
717.
MCQs
All of the following are associated with an increased risk of gallbladder

carcinoma except: (PIP 2001 A)
a. Cholelithiasis.
b. Anomalous pancreaticobiliary duct union.
c. Gastroesophegeal reflux disease.
d. Sclerosing cholangitis.
e. Native American heritage.
718.
Which of the following is true about TNM staging of gallbladder

carcinoma?
a. Most gallbladder carcinomas are pT1N0 or pT2N0 at diagnosis.
b. The peripancreatic (head of pancreas) and periduodenal lymph
nodes are the ones most commonly involved by metastasis.
c. When carcinoma in situ extensively involves Rokitansky-Aschoff
sinuses, it is classified as pT1.
d. Tumor invasion through the muscularis into perimuscular
connective tissue but not perforating serosa and not invading
liver is classified as pT2.
e. Metastasis to peripancreatic lymph nodes is categorized as pN1.
719.
Which of the following procedures would be most helpful for the

diagnosis of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy? (PIP 2001 B)
a. GFAP.
b. HAM-56.
c. In situ hybridization for JC virus.
d. Myelin stain (Luxol fast blue).
e. S-100 protien.
720.
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is most frequently associated

with: (PIP 2001 B)
a. Autoimmune reaction.
b. Chromosome 1p deletion.
c. Fibrinoid necrosis of blood vessels.
136
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Hypertension.
e. Immunosuppression.
721.
The typical clinical course of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

seen in this case is: (PIP 2001 B)
a. Monophasic (single episode) with complete recovery.
b. Monophasic (single episode) wit significant sequelae.
c. Relapsing and remitting over many years.
d. Relentlessly progressive over several months.
e. Slowly progressive over several years.
722.
Diagnostic set:
a. Chromophil renal cell carcinoma.
b. Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma, eosinophilic variant.
c. Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma, typical type.
d. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma.
e. Metanephric adenoma.
f. Metanephric (nephrogenic) adenofibroma.
g. Renal adenoma.
h. Renal oncocytoma.
A cellular tumor focally hyalinized stroma composed of tightl packed,
small, round tubules lined by cells with small, uniform cytologically bland
nuclei and scant pale staining cytoplasm:
e. Metanephric adenoma.
A tumor having a nested and archipelaginous pattern and containing a
uniform population of cells with low grade nuclear features, granular
eosinophilic cytoplasm and patchy, weak peri-membranous staining with
Hale's colloidal iron:
137
Pathology Questions
MCQs
h. Renal oncocytoma.
A tumor having a sheet-like and trabecular architecture and containing
cells with grade 2 nuclear features, granular eosinophilic cytoplasm, and
uniformly strong diffuse reticular cytoplasmic staining with Hale's
colloidal iron:
b. Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma, eosinophilic variant.
723.
All of the following are accepted criteria for classic medullary carcinom of
the breast except: (PIP 2001 B)
a. Prominent syncytial growth pattern.
b. Intense lymphoblastic infiltrate.
c. High grade nuclei.
d. Tumor necrosis.
e. Circumscribed margins.
724.
For each of the following questions choose the most likely diagnosis
from the following diagnostic set (an answer may be used once, more
than once, or not at all). (PIP 2001 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis.
b. Follicular adenoma, Hrthle cell type.
c. Follicular carcinoma, Hrthle cell type.
d. Graves' disease.
e. Marginal zone lymphoma of MALT type.
f. Medullary thyroid carcinoma.
g. Papillary thyroid carcinoma.
Which thyroid lesion is characterized histologically by a lymphocytic
infiltrate in the thyroid gland with germinal center formation, oxyphilic
metaphasia of thyroid follicular colonization, absence of extension
outside the thyroid gland, and immunoreactivity with both B-cell and Tcell markers?
138
Pathology Questions
MCQs

Which thyroid lesion is characterized by a lymphocytic infiltrate in the
thyroid gland coupled with a laboratory evidence of hyperthyroidism,
immunoglobulin deposition within the thyroid, thymic enlargement, and
almost invariable presence of thyroid stimulating antibodies?
d. Graves' disease.
Which thyroid lesion is characterized by a lymphocytic infiltration with
follicular colonization, extension of the infiltrate beyond the thyroid
capsule into perithyroidal soft tissues, immunoreactivity withCD 20 but
not CD 45RO , and light chain restriction? (PIP 2001 B)
e. Marginal zone lymphoma of MALT type.
725.
Diagnostic set:
a. Acute myelogenous leukemia.
b. Angiosarcoma.
c. Cholangiocarcinoma.
d. EBV infection(mononucleosis).
e. Hairy cell leukemia.
f. Hepatocellular carcinoma.
g. Hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma.
h. Large cell lymphoma, B-cell phenotype.
The majority of cases from angiomatous pseudosinuses in the liver and
spleen:
Displays
the
following
phenotype:
positive
for
CD43
and
myeloperoxidase; negative for CD 20 and CD3:

139
Pathology Questions
MCQs

Aggressive malignancy that most commonly expresses gamma-delta Tcell receptor:
g. Hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma.
726.
All the following are true about mantle cell lymphoma except: (PIP 2001
B)
a. Moderately aggressive with a survival rate of approximately five
years.
b. May involve multiple sites including lymph nodes, spleen,
peripheral blood, bone marrow and gastrointestinal tract.
c. May present as intestinal polyps.
d. Characterized
by
clusters
of
prolymphocytes
and
paraimmunoblasts.
e. Blastoid transformation denotes a more aggressive course.
727.
The most common non-Hodgkin's lymphoproliferative disorder involving

the spleen:
a. Mantle cell lymphoma.
b. Diffuse large cell lymphoma.
c. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma.
d. Splenic marginal cell lymphoma.
728.
Diagnostic set:
a. Adult rhabdomyoma.
b. Alveolar rhabomyosarcoma.
c. Alveolar soft part sarcoma.
d. Chordoma, metastatic.
140
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Clear cell sarcoma.

f. Epithelioid sarcoma.
g. Granular cell tumor.
h. Melanoma, metastatic.
i.
Paraganglioma, metastatic.
j.
Pheochromocytoma, metastatic.
k. Renal cell carcinoma, metastatic.

Which lesion contains characteristic ultrastuctural rhomboid crystalline
material with a lattice pattern?
Which lesion often occurs in the hand or forearm and may simulate
granulomatous inflammation?
f. Epithelioid sarcoma.
Which lesion often involves tendons or aponeuroses of the foot or ankle
and may contain melanin pigment?
e. Clear cell sarcoma.
729.
Diagnostic set:
a. Fibroma.
b. Fibromatosis.
c. Massive edema.
d. Myxoma.
e. Sclerosing stromal tumor.
f. Stromal hyperthecosis.
g. Thecoma.
141
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which lesion is best characterized by the following features:Child or

young adult, large size, right side predominance, acute abdomen,
preserved ovarian architecture:
c. Massive edema.
Reproductive age patient, asymptomatic mass, low cellularity, colloidal
iron-rich stroma, effaced ovarian architecture:
d. Myxoma.
Young adult, menstrual irregularity, large size, pseudolobar histology,
hemangiopericytoma-like vasculature:
730.
Diagnostic set:
a. Aggressive angiomyxoma.
b. Angimyolipoma.
c. Atypical lipoma.
d. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor.
e. Myxoid chondrosarcoma.
f. Myxoid liposarcoma.
g. Myxoid malignant fibrous histiocytoma.
h. Myxoma.
i.
Sarcinatiud renal cell carcinoma.
j.
Schwannoma.
k. Sclerosing lipogranuloma
Which entity is closely related to round cell liposarcoma?
142
Pathology Questions
Which
lesion
MCQs
often
demonstrates
the
reciprocal
translocation
t(12;16)(q13;p11)?
Which lesion shows an alcian blue-positive but hyaluronidase-resistant
mucopolysaccharide stroma?
731.
Diagnostic set:
a. Capillary hemangioma.
b. Congenital nevus.
c. Deep penetrataing nevus.
d. Lentigo malignant melanoma.
e. Pigmented spindle cell nevus.
f. Spindle cell hemanioendothelioma.
g. Spitz nevus.
h. Superficial spreading melanoma.
Which lesion typically presents as a very dark, small (3 to 6mm), uniform
macule on the extremity of a young patient?
e. Pigmented spindle cell nevus.
Kamino bodies are a characteristic feature of which lesion?
g. Spitz nevus.
Which lesion is wedge shaped with fascicles of spindeled melanocytes and
admixed melanophages that infiltrate pilar muscle?
c. Deep penetrataing nevus.
143
Pathology Questions
732.
MCQs
than once, or not at all). (PIP 2001 C)
Diagnostic set:
a. Brenner tumor.
b. Carcinoid tumor, insular/strumal.
c. Endometrioid adenocarcinoma, trabecular pattern.
d. Granulosa cell tumor.
e. Mature cystic teratoma.
f. Mucinous cystadenoma.
g. Sertoli-leydig cell tumor.
h. Sex-cord tumor with annular tubules.
Which lesion is characterized by Call-Exner bodies?
Which lesion is composed of transitional cells with pale, grooved nuclei
and may contain scattered benign mucinous glands?
a. Brenner tumor.
Which lesion may have sarcoma-like mural nodules?
f. Mucinous cystadenoma.
733.
Important elements of the final pathology report for rhabdomyosarcoma

resected following treatment include: (PIP 2001 C)
a. Presence and extent of cytodifferentiation.
b. Assessment of resecetion margins.
c. Measurement of tumor size in three dimensions.
d. Comparison of pre- and post- treatment histologic features.
734.
Which of the following types of rhabdomyosarcoma is considered an

unfavorable histologic type? (PIP 2001 C)
144
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Botryoid rhabdomyosarcoma.
b. Spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma.
c. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, not otherwise specified.
d. Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.
e. None of the above.
735.
Which of the following immunohistochemichal markers sre used for the

diagnosis of rhabdomyosarcoma? (PIP 2001 C)
a. Myogenin.
b. Myo-D1.
c. Muscle specific actin.
d. Desmin.
736.
Diagnostic set:
a. Adenocarcinoma.
b. Adenoid cystic carcinoma.
c. Basaloid squamous cell carcinoma.
d. Carcinoid tumor.
f. Spindle cell carcinoma.
A polypoid esophegeal neoplasm composed of cytokeratin positive
spindle cells with or without a light microscopically identifiable
squamous component:
f. Spindle cell carcinoma.
A neoplasm in the esophegus that most often arises in the setting of
Barret's esophegus:
a. Adenocarcinoma.
145
Pathology Questions
MCQs
A tumor that exhibits strong immunoreactivity for chromogranin and

many neurosecretory granules by electron microscopy:
d. Carcinoid tumor.
737.
Diagnostic set:
b. Diffuse toxic goiter.
c. Dyshormonogenetic goiter.
d. Papillary hyperplastic nodule.
e. Papillary thyroid carcinoma.
Match the following patients with the most likely condition from the
diagnostic set:
An 11- year old girl with a 2.5cm, circumscribed centrally cystic thyroid
nodule. Histology showed an encapsulated nodule composed of papillae
and follicles with stromal edema and round, polarized nuclei:
d. Papillary hyperplastic nodule.
A 28- year old man with a 2.0 cm firm, poorly circumscribed,
intrathyroidal mass. Histology showed a mixed papillary and follicular
nodule with multifocal areas of nuclear enlargement and clearing:
e. Papillary thyroid carcinoma.
An 8 year-old deaf girl with a large goiter. Her developmental milestones,
which were similar to two older siblings, indicated she was slow. The
goiter was composed of encapsulated and nonencapsulated, variabely
sized nodules. Both nodular and non-nodular thyroid areas contained
atypical nuclei:
146
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Dyshormonogenetic goiter.
738.
Which of the following statements regarding amyloidosis is false? (PIP

2001 C)
a. Primary and secondary forms exist.
b. Metachromatic stains are useful in making the diagnosis.
c. Intracytoplasmic hyaline globules are characteristic.
d. Electron microscopy typically demonstrates 7.5-10 nm nonbranching filaments.
e. Nodular and diffuse forms of liver involvement have been
described.
739.
Which of the following hereditary diseases affecting the liver may present
in adulthood?
a. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency.
b. Wilson's disease.
c. Hemochromatosis.
d. Hereditary amyloidosis.
740.
Diagnostic set:
a. B-cell
chronic
lymphocytic
leukemia/small
lymphocytic
lymphoma.
c. Follicular lymphoma.
d. Hairy cell leukemia.
e. Mantle cell lymphoma.
f. Nodualr lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin's disease.
g. Splenic marginal zone B-cell lymphoma.
147
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which lymphoma/ leukemia expresses CD 19, CD 20, CD 5, and FMC-7 but

not CD 23?
Which lymphoma/ leukemia is associated with t:(14;18)?
Which lymphoma/ leukemia most commonly presents with red pulp
involvement?
Which lymphoma/ leukemia is typically bcl-1 positive?
e. Mantle cell lymphoma
741.
Diagnostic set:
c. Pancreatic endocrine neoplasm.
d. Pancreatoblastoma.
e. Serous (microcystic)cystadenoma.
f. Solid-pseudopapillary tumor.
Which tumor is a gland-forming malignancy that usually exhibits a
desmoplastic stroma?
Which tumor is associated with both clinical and immunohistochemichal
features of pancreatic enzyme secretion?
148
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which tumor is a low grade malignant neoplasm most likely to be

mistaken for a pancreatic pseudocyst?
742.
Calcification in this ovarian tumor characteristically occurs in the form of

stromal plaques? (PIP 2001 C)
a. Brenner tumor.
b. Carcinoid tumor, insular type.
c. Mucinous adenofibroma.
d. Sex cord tumor with annular tubules.
e. Serous adenofibroma.
743.
Which of the following statements about ovarian transitional cell tumor is

correct? (PIP 2001 C)
a. The epithelial cells are ultrastructurally identical to urothelial cells
of the urinary tract.
b. Squamous differentiation may be extensive in the tumor.
c. The epithelial cells are typically CK7(+) and CK20(+).
d. Malignant Brenner tumor contains a component of benign Brenner
tumor or Brenner tumor of low malignant potential.
e. Up to 20 percent of the epithelial cells in the transitional tumor
may demonstrate columnar mucinous differentiation.
744.
Which of the following statements about ovarian tumors is correct?

a. Insular granulosa cell tumor is commonly admixed with other
histologic patterns, such as microfollicular or gyriform.
b. The presence of neuroendocrine granules in the cytoplasm of
tumor cells excludes the diagnosis of an ovarian surface epithelial
cell tumor.
c. Mucinous adenofibroma often produces an estrogenic clinical
syndrome.
d. Priamary squamous cell carcinoma most commonly arises in a
Brenner tumor.
149
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Stromal leutinization is common in ovarian adenofibromas.

745.
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiolipoma.
b. Atypical lipomatous tumor(well differentiated liposarcoma).
c. Cellular angiofibroma.
d. Lipoma.
e. Shwannoma.
f. Spindle cell lipoma.
Which tumor characteristically occurs in the genital region of both men
and women?
Which tumor is characterized cytogenetically by ring chromosomes?
b. Atypical lipomatous tumor(well differentiated liposarcoma.
Which tumor shows a prediliction for the neck and shoulder of older
men?
746.
Which immunostain would be most helpful in the diagnosis of central

neurocytoma? (PIP 2001 D)
a. Cytokeratins.
b. Epithelial membrane antigen.
c. Glial fibrilary acidic protien GFAP.
d. S-100 protien.
e. Synaptophysin.
150
Pathology Questions
747.
MCQs
The most helpful ultrastructural feature in the diagnosis of central

neurocytoma is the presence of: (PIP 2001 D)
a. Desmosomes.
b. Intercellular junctional complexes.
c. Intermediate filaments.
d. Microvilli and/or cilia.
e. Neurosecretory granules.
748.
The most appropriate treatment for the lesion diagnosed in central

neurocytoma is: (PIP 2001 D)
a. Biopsy for diagnosis followed by whole brain radiation.
b. Combination chemotherapy with PCV (procarbazine, lomustine,
vincristine).
c. Gross total resection alone.
d. Gross total resection followed by local field radiation therapy.
e. Stereotactic radiosurgery.
749.
Which of the following immunohistochemichal markers is most specific

for mesothelial origin? (PIP 2001 D)
a. Cytokeratin.
c. Calretinin.
d. MART-1 (Melan A).
e. CD15(Leu M1).
750.
Which ultrastructural finding most strongly supports an interpretation of

epithelial mesothelioma? (PIP 2001 D)
a. Tonofilaments.
b. Desmosomes.
c. Lysozomes.
d. Long thin microvilli.
e. Viral particles.
151
Pathology Questions
751.
MCQs
Which type of mesothelioma has the best prognosis? (PIP 2001 D)

a. Desmoplastic.
b. Multicystic.
c. Diffuse epithelial.
d. Lymphohistiocystoid.
e. sarcomatoid.
752.
Diagnostic set:
a. Clear cell sarcoma.
b. Mesoblastic nephroma, cellular type.
c. Mesoblastic nephroma, classic type.
d. Metanephric adenofibroma.
e. Metanephric stromal tumor.
f. Primitive neuroectodermal tumor.
g. Rhabdoid tumor.
h. Sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma.
i.
Wilm's tumor.
Which tumor has a characteristic diffuse, linear membranous staining

pattern for CD99 (MIC2)?
f. Primitive neuroectodermal tumor.
Which tumor predominates in males, has a propensity for bone
metastasis, and rarely arises at external sites?
Which
tumor
is
composed
entirely
of
CD34(+)
spindle
cells
anddemonstrates intratumoral angiodysplasia, onion-skinning around

entrapped tubules and heterologous differentaition?
e. Metanephric stromal tumor.
152
Pathology Questions
753.
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Gaucher's Disease.
b. Granular cell tumor.
c. Hibernoma.
e. Schwannoma.
g. Xanthogranuloma.
Which lesion characteristically shows immunopositivity for S-100 protein
and CD 1a?
Which lesion characteristically demonstrates Touton-type iant cells?
g. Xanthogranuloma.
Which of the above lesions shows S-100 positivity, positive stainingfor
lysosomal granules, and is ultrastructurally characterized by intracellular
septation into membrane limited compartments?
754.
Chronic rejection of the liver of the liver typically manifests as: (PIP 2001
D)
a. An overwhelming necro-inflammatory lesion of liver paranchyma.
b. Loss of small bile ducts wit an obliterative arteriopathy.
c. Extensive hepatic fibrosis.
d. None of the above.
153
Pathology Questions
755.
MCQs
Acute rejection of the liver may be distinguished from chronic hepatitis

by: (PIP 2001 D)
a. The presence of endotheliitis.
b. The presence of mixed portal inflammation (lymphocytes, plasma
cells, eosinophils) as opposed to a purely lymphocytic infiltrate.
c. The lack of piecemeal necrosis.
d. Extensive duct damage.
756.
How long after liver transplantation does chronic rejection typically

occur? (PIP 2001 D)
a. Within two months.
b. Within one year.
c. Three to four years.
d. After the fourth year.
757.
or not at all). (PIP 2001 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Cracinoma.
b. Carcinoid tumor.
c. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor.
d. Granular cell tumor.
e. Metastatic melanoma.
f. Paraganglioma.
g. Schwannoma.
h. Solitary fibrous tumor.
Immunoreactive panel includes positive staining for vimentin, CD34, and
CD117, but absence of neuron specific enolase, S-100 and PGP9.5 :
c. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor.
154
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Immunoreactive panel includes positive staining for vimentin, CD34, but

absence of CD117, neuron specific enolase, S-100 and PGP9.5 :
Immunoreactive panel includes diffuse positive staining for cytokeratin
and synaptophysin, but absence of CD34, and CD117:
b. Carcinoid tumor.
758.
Diagnostic set:
a. Adenoid cystic carcinoma.
b. Basal cell adenoma.
c. Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma.
d. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma.
e. Myoepithelioma.
f. Pleomorphic adenoma.
g. Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma.
Which tumor is most prone to early recurrence and poor long-term
survival?
c. Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma.
Which is the most common tumor arising within the parapharyngeal
space?
f. Pleomorphic adenoma.
Which is the most common malignant tumor of the minor salivary glands?
d.Mucoepidermoid carcinoma.
155
Pathology Questions
759.
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Acute cholecystitis with secondary vasculitis.
b. Collagen vascular disease associated vasculitis.
c. Granulomatous
cholecystitis
associated
with
Churg-Strauss
syndrome.
d. Isolated gallbladder vasculitis.
e. Polyarteritis nodosa.
f. Wegener's granulomatosis.
Which vasculitic disease is commonly associated with a history of
asthma?
b. Granulomatous cholecystitis associated with Churg-Strauss
syndrome.)
A histologic picture of acute and healing arteritis with adjacent segments
of normal arteries and sparing viens and capillaries is considered
characteristic of which disease?
e. Polyarteritis nodosa.
The triad of necrotizing granulomatous lesions of the upper and lower
respiratory tract, focal segmental glomerulonephritis and necrotizing
vasculitis of small arteries and veins is characteristic of which entity?
f. Wegener's granulomatosis.
760.
Which ovarian tumor, which is seen more often in women under age
thirty, than in women older than fifty years? (PIP 2001 D)
a. Malignant mixed Mullerian tumor.
b. Yolk sac tumor.
c. Papillary serous carcinoma.
d. Endometrioid adenocarcinoma.
156
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Clear cell carcinoma.

761.
Which of the following features favors primary ovarian carcinomaover

metastatic colonic adenocarcinoma? (PIP 2001 D)
a. Cytokeratin 20 positivity, cytokeratin 7 negativity.
b. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) positivity.
c. Normal serum CA-125.
d. Cribriform architecture with dirty necrosis.
e. Presence of squamous differentiation.
762.
Endometrioid carcinoma of the ovary may show all of the following

characteristics except: (PIP 2001 D)
a. Squamous differentiation.
b. Extracellular mucin.
c. High-grade micropapillae and numerous psammoma bodies.
d. Associated with endometriosis.
e. Associated with a synchronous endometrial primary.
763.
Diagnostic set:
a. Atypical endosalpingiosis.
b. Ectopic breast tissue.
c. Endometriosis.
d. Endosalpingiosis.
e. Hidradenoma papilliferum.
f. Metastatic adenocarcinoma.
g. Multilocular peritoneal inclusion cyst.
h. Urachal cyst.
Which lesion is congenital in origin and can present as an enlargingmass
in the labia?
157
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Ectopic breast tissue.

Which lesion is located in the lower midline abdomen and regarded as a
developmental malformation?
h. Urachal cyst.
Which lesion can manifest stromal decidual change?
c. Endometriosis
764.
Surgical excision is almost always indicated for: (PIP 2002 A)

a. Focal nodular hyperplasia.
b. Liver cell adenoma.
c. Both.
d. Neither.
765.
Oral contraceptive use has an etiologic association with: (PIP 2002 A)

c. Both.
d. Neither.
766.
Chronic viral hepatitis B or C is often associated with: (PIP 2002 A)

c. Both.
d. Neither.
767.
Typical features of aggressive angiomyxoma include all of the following

EXCEPT: (PIP 2002 A)
a. Infiltrative growth pattern.
b. High rate of local recurrence.
c. High rate of metastasis.
d. Origin in pelvis and peritonium.
158
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Predilection for females.

768.
A sharply circumscribed mass with a predilection for the peritonium, no

propensity for recurrence, and plump epithelioid tumor cells with a
predominantly perivascular arrangement are a feature of: (PIP 2002 A)
a. Superficial angiomyxoma.
b. Fibroepithelial polyp qith atypia.
c. Agressive angiomyxoma.
d. Nerve sheath myxoma.
e. Angiomyofibroblastoma.
769.
Helpful microscopic features in the differential diagnosis of pelvic myxoid

masses include all of the following EXCEPT: (PIP 2002 A)
a. An arborizing vascular pattern.
b. A nodular growth pattern.
c. Mature adipose tissue within the mass.
d. Multinucleated cells within the tumor.
e. Cytologic atypia and pleomorphism.
770.
The most common tumor of the heart in an adult is: (PIP 2002 A)
a. Cardiac fibroma.
b. Cardiac myxoma.
c. Cardiac rhabdomyoma.
d. Angiosarcoma.
e. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma.
771.
The most common tumor of the heart in a child is: (PIP 2002 A)
a. Cardiac fibroma.
b. Cardiac myxoma.
c. Cardiac rhabdomyoma.
e. Synovial sarcoma.
159
Pathology Questions
772.
MCQs
The most likely diagnosis in a young woman with spotty skin

pigmentation, a cardiac tumor, adrenal hyperplasia, and similar signs and
symptoms in family member: (PIP 2002 A)
a. Familial myxoma syndrome.
b. Tuberous sclerosis.
c. Metastatic adenocarcinoma.
e. Myxoid liposarcoma.
773.
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of atypical polypoid adenoma

(of Mazur)? (PIP 2002 A)
a. Proliferative or hyperplastic endometrial glands with metaplastic
changes.
b. May be misinterpreted as adenocarcinoma with myometrial
invasion on curettage specimen.
c. Multiple dilated cysts with intracystic, polypoid projections and
periglandular stromal consideration.
d. Stromal smooth muscle component may be quite prominent.
e. Stroma may contain occasional mitosis.
774.
Which of the following features is NOT found in low grade endometrial

stromal sarcoma: (PIP 2002 A)
a. Lymphovascular space invasion.
b. Typically contains less than 3 mitoses per 10 high power fields.
c. Viable glands adjacent to necrotic debris.
d. Nodular or diffuse premeation of myometrium.
e. Minimal nuclear pleomorphism.
775.
Adenosarcoma may show all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: (PIP

2002 A)
a. Cystic spaces with intraluminal projections.
b. Biphasic tumor with glandular and stromal componenets.
c. Cratilagenous and rhabdomyoblastic stromal differentiation.
160
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Periglandular stromal condensation.

e. Syncytiotrophoblastic stromal cells.
776.
For each of the following, select the most likely diagnosis from the
diagnostic set( an answer may be used once, more than once, or not at
all): (PIP 2002 A)
Diagnostic set:
a. Benign metastasizing leiomyoma.
b. Centrilobular emphysema.
c. Congenital pulmonary lymphangiectasis.
d. Endometrial stromal sarcoma, metastatic.
e. Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis.
f. Langerhans cell histiocytosis.
g. Leiomyosarcoma, metastatic.
h. Lymphangioleiomyomatosis.
i.
Lymphangiomatosis.
j.
Multifocal micronodular pneumocyte hyperpalsia.
k. Panacinar emphysema.
Which lesion is associated with tuberous sclerosis complex and is
typically negative for HMB-45?
j. Multifocal micronodular pneumocyte hyperpalsia.
Which lesion is cystic and occurs almost exclusively in women of
reproductive age?
h. Lymphangioleiomyomatosis.
Which lesion is associated with cigarette smoking and contains S100
positive cells?
f. Langerhans cell histiocytosis.
777.
All of the following afftect the pathalogic staging of an invasive breast

tumor EXCEPT: (PIP 2002 A)
161
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Tumor size.
b. Lymph node status.
c. Extranodal extension.
d. Dermal invasion.
e. Chest wall extension.
778.
Which invasive breast tumor has the worst prognosis? (PIP 2002 A)
a. Classic lobular carcinoma.
b. Metapalstic carcinoma.
c. Ductal carcinoma of no special type.
d. Tubular carcinoma.
e. Mucinous carcinoma.
779.
All of the following have been clinically validated as predictive and/or

prognostic factors in breast cancer EXCEPT: (PIP 2002 A)
a. HER2/neu.
b. Bcl-2.
c. PR.
d. ER.
e. Tumor size.
780.
diagnostic set(an answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all):
(PIP 2002 A)
Diagnostic set:
a. Anaplastic carcinoma.
b. Hurthle cell neoplasm.
c. Hyalinizing trabecular adenoma.
d. Medullary thyroid carcinoma.
e. Metastatic neuroendocrine carcinoma.
f. Paraganglioma.
g. Plasmocytoma.
h. Poorly differentiated (insular) thyroid carcinoma.
162
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Monoclonal CEA immunoposistivity with a positive familial history is

supportive of this diagnosis:
d. Medullary thyroid carcinoma.
Is characterized by a multifocal growth pattern with subepithelial cell
balls protruding into thyroid follicles:
e. Metastatic neuroendocrine carcinoma.
Displays the following immunoreactivity: pan-neuroendocrine positive
tumor cells and S-100 protein positive sustentacular cells, and cytokeratin
negative tumor cells:
f. Paraganglioma.
781.
Tumor cells containing abundant mitochondria are most characteristic of:

(PIP 2002 A)
a. Granular cell tumor.
b. Pheochromocytoma.
c. Adrenocortical carcinoma.
d. Adrenocortical oncocytoma.
e. Alveolar soft part sarcoma.
782.
Pheochromocytomaa are part of the spectrum of neoplasms in each of the

following syndromes EXCEPT: (PIP 2002 A)
a. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1.
b. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A.
c. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B.
d. Von Hipple-Lindau disease.
e. Neurofibromatosis.
783.
In the absence of metastatic disease, malignancy in pheochromocytoma

can be predicted by: (PIP 2002 A)
a. Vascular invasion.
163
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Abnormal mitotic figures and necrosis.

c. Nuclear pleomorphism.
d. Pigmentation.
784.
Which of the following statements about thymic carcinoid tumor is TRUE?

(PIP 2002 A)
a. It
may
be
associated
with
symptomatic
neuromascular
abnormalities.
b. It is usually encapsulated and exhibits fibrous trabeculae.
c. It is associated with paraneoplastic phenomena in 90 percent of
cases.
d. It is commonly associated with the complete (classic) carcinoid
syndrome.
785.
The lymphocytes involved in thymic follicular hyperpalsia: (PIP 2002 A)

a. Are CD1a, CD2, CD3, and TdT positive.
b. Show rearrangement of the T-cell receptor gene.
c. Exhibit rearrangements of the immunoglobulin heavy chain gene.
d. Are CD20 and CD21 positive and TdT negative.
786.
The most important prognostic indicator for thymoma is: (PIP 2002 A)
a. Histologic subtype.
b. Clinicopathologic stage.
c. Ploidy status.
d. Presence of associated paraneoplastic phenomena.
787.
Which single feature accurately predicts the behavior of a uterine smooth

muscle tumor? (PIP 2002 A)
a. Intravenous growth.
b. Mitotic activity.
c. Tumor size.
d. Tumor necrosis.
164
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Cellular atypia.
f. None of the above.
788.
Which special stain accurately distinguishes endometrial stromal cells

from myometrial cells? (PIP 2002 A)
a. Cytokeratin.
b. Desmin.
c. Smooth muscle actin.
d. Vimentin.
e. Reticulin.
f. None of the above.
789.
Which feature is of least importance in evaluating an epithelioid smooth

muscle tumor? (PIP 2002 A)
a. Cellular atypia.
b. Necrosis.
c. Size.
d. Mitotic activity.
790.
Metastatic carcinoma, glioblastoma, cerebral abcess, primary central

nervous system lymphoma and demyelinating pseudotumor all may share
which
of
the
following
appearances
on
magnetic
resonance
imaging(MRI)? (PIP 2002 B)

a. Non-enhancing diffuse abnormality.
b. Non-enhancing circumscribed mass.
c. Solitary contrast-enhancing ring lesion.
d. T2-wheighted
abnormality
indicated
periventricular
demyelination.
e. T2-wheighted abnormality showing only cerebral white matter
edema.
791.
An important pathophysiologic mechanism in cerebral abscess is: (PIP

2002 B)
165
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Autoimmune attack against an endogenous myelin epitope.

b. Hematogenous dissemination.
c. Immunosuppression.
d. Loss of integrity of a normal physical barrier against infection.
e. Loss of mutation of a tumor suppressor gene.
792.
Granular mitoses and Creutzfeldt astrocytes are characteristic histologic

features that are most closely associated with: (PIP 2002 B)
a. Cerebral abcess.
b. Demyelinating disease.
c. Glioblastoma.
d. Metastatic brain tumors.
e. Toxoplasmosis.
793.
diagnostic set (an answer may be used once, more than once, or not at
all): (PIP 2002 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Adenocarcinoma.
b. Basaloid carcinoma.
c. Biphasic pulmonary blastoma.
d. Carcinoid tumor.
e. Malignant mesothelioma.
Which pulmonary lesion is characterized by solid cell nests, fusiform
tumor cells with peripheral palisading, and a CD56 (NCAM) negative, CK
5/6 positive phenotype? (PIP 2002 B)
166
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which tumor typically shows prominent necrosis and increased mitotic

activity with strong membranous immunoposistivity for CD56 (NCAM)
and dot-like cytoplasmic staining for low molecular weight cytokeratin?
Which tumor is combined with keratinizing squamous carcinoma in a
high percentage of cases?
794.
all): (PIP 2002 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Immature teratoma.
b. Malignant mesodermal mixed tumor.
c. Mature cystic teratoma.
d. Mature solid teratoma.
e. Primitive neuroectodermal tumor.
Lacks neuroectodermal tissue and is composed of mullerian type
carcinoma and mesenchymal componenets:
b. Malignant mesodermal mixed tumor.
Predominantly composed of primitive neuroectodermal tissue with
interstitial type glands and immature cartilage:
a. Immature teratoma.
A cystic lesion lined entirely or partly by epithelium resembling the
epidermis with its appendages, and containing mesodermal, endodermal
and ectodermal elements:
167
Pathology Questions
795.
MCQs
all): (PIP 2002 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma, T-cell and null-cell type.
b. Angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma.
c. Follicular lymphoma (follicle center lymphoma),grade 3.
d. Hodgkin lymphoma, mixed cellularity type.
e. Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular sclerosing type.
f. Large B-cell lymphoma, T-cell/histiocyte rich.
g. Metastatic lymphoepithelial-like carcinoma.
h. Metastatic melanoma.
i.
Seminoma.
Most of the large neoplastic cells are in sinuses, have abundant cytoplasm,
reniform to U-shapef nuclei, and small nucleoli, and are CD15(-), CD20(-),
CD30(+), CD45(+) and EMA(+):
a.Anaplastic large cell lymphoma, T-cell and null-cell type.
Most of the large neoplastic cells have amphophilic to basophilic
cytoplasm, round to ovoid nuclei, and large nucleoli, and are CD15(-),
CD20(+), CD30(-), CD45(+) and EMA(+):
f.Large B-cell lymphoma, T-cell/histiocyte rich.
Most of the large neoplastic cells have abundant clear cytoplasm, b-or
multilobulated nuclei, easily identified nucleoli, and are CD15(+),
CD30(+), CD45(-) and EMA(-). Architecture is nodular with dense
collagen bands:
e.Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular sclerosing type.)
796.
all): (PIP 2002 B)
168
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Adenosarcoma.
b. Endometioid stromal sarcoma with sex-cord like differentiation.
c. Fibrosarcoma.
e. Immature teratoma.
f. Malignant mesodermal mixed tumor.
g. Sclerosing stromal tumor.
Which lesion characteristically shows hypercellular cuffing of atypical
stromal cells around benign glandular componenets?
a. Adenosarcoma.
Which lesion commonly shows immunohistochemical expression of
epithelial markers in malignant stromal cells?
f. Malignant mesodermal mixed tumor.
Which of the above is characterized by the presence of numerous small
arteries resembling those of late secretory type endometrium?
b.
Endometioid
stromal
sarcoma
with
sex-cord
like
differentiation.)
797.
all): (PIP 2002 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Bronchogenic cyst.
b. Immature teratoma.
d. Nonteratomatous mixed germ cell tumor.
e. Seminoma.
f. Teratoma with malignant components.
g. Thymic cyst.
169
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which entity is the most common primary mediastinal germ cell tumor?
Which entity includes a sarcomatous or carcinomatous componenet
associated with disorganized mature tissues?
f. Teratoma with malignant components.
Which
entity
includes
primitive
neuroepithelial
tubules
among
disorganized mature tissues?

b. Immature teratoma.
798.
diagnostic set (an answer may be used once, more than once, or not atall):
(PIP 2002 B)
Diagnostic set:
b. Chronic pancreatitis.
c. Ductal adenocarcinoma.
d. Intraductal papillary mucinous tumor.
e. Islet cell tumor.
f. Metastatic renal cell carcinoma.
g. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma.
h. Pancreatoblastoma.
i.
Solid-pseudopapillary tumor.
The tumor shows proliferation of dysplastic epithelium with excess mucin

production involving the main pancreatic duct, associated with chronic
pancreatitis:
d. Intraductal papillary mucinous tumor.
170
Pathology Questions
MCQs
This aggressive tumor typically consists of infiltrating glands embedded

in dense desmoplastic stroma forming an ill-defined mass in the
pancreatic head:
c. Ductal adenocarcinoma.
This indolent tumor almost exclusively occurs in the pancreas of
adolescent or young adult women:
i. Solid-pseudopapillary tumor.
799.
all): (PIP 2002 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Extraskeletal osteosarcoma.
b. Fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva.
c. Heterotopic ossification.
d. Myositis ossificans.
e. Nodular fascitis.
f. Osteoblastic carcinoma.
g. Posttraumatic periositis.
Which condition typically presents in childhood and is hereditary
progressive debilitating disorder:
b. Fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva.
Which condition is a self-limiting ossifying process that follows trauma
and morphologically demonstrates a zonal phenomenon with immature
tissues in the center of the lesion and mature bone at theperiphery?
d. Myositis ossificans.
Which condition typically presents in the 6th -7th decades of life and is a
primary malignancy of the soft tissue?
a. Extraskeletal osteosarcoma.
171
Pathology Questions
800.
MCQs
Ring chromosomes, characteristic of well differentiated liposarcoma, are

also commonly seen in: (PIP 2002 B)
a. Lipoma.
b. Rhabdomyosarcoma.
c. Round cell liposarcoma.
d. Dedifferentiated liposarcoma.
e. Uterine adenofibroma.
801.
all): (PIP 2002 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Eosinophilic gastroenteritis.
b. Fundic gland polyp.
c. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST).
d. Inflammatory fibroid polyp.
e. Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor.
Which lesion is a benign neoplastic mucosal excrescene characterized by
cystically dilated glands?
b. Fundic gland polyp.
Which lesion is consistently CD117 (c-kit) positive?
c. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST).
Which lesion is most strongly associated with peripheral eosinophilia?
a. Eosinophilic gastroenteritis.
802.
The four most common solitary circumscribed tumors of the lumbar

cistern are: (PIP 2002 D)
a. Hemangioblastoma, meningioma, schwannoma, subependymoma.
b. Meningioma, schwannoma, neurothekoma, paraganglioma.
172
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Meningioma, paraganglioma, ganglioneuroma, paciniomyolipoma.

d. Schwannoma,
meningioma,
myxopapillary
ependymoma,
meningioma,
myxopapillary
ependymoma,
paraganglioma.
e. Schwannoma,
subependymoma.
803.
Which of the following immunostains is most often positive in

myxopapillary ependymoma of the filum terminale: (PIP 2002 D)
a. Chromogranin.
b. Cytokeratins.
c. Epithelial membrane antigen.
d. S-100 protein.
e. Synaptophysin.
804.
The most helpful ultrastructural feature in the diagnosis of myxopapillary

ependymoma of the filum terminal would be the presence of: (PIP 2002
D)
a. Dense-core neurosecretory-type granules.
b. Desmosomes.
c. Intercellular lumens with microvilli and/or cilia.
d. Luse bodies (long-spacing collagen).
e. Neurotubule bundles.
805.
all): (PIP 2002 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Choriocarcinoma.
b. Epithelioid leiomyosarcoma.
c. Epithelioid trophoblastic tumor.
d. Perivascular epithelioid cell tumor.
e. Placental site nodule.
f. Placental site trophoblastic tumor.
173
Pathology Questions
MCQs
g. Squamous cell carcinoma.

Immunopositive for pankeratin (AE1/AE3) with high Ki-67 index(>50%);
negative for inhibin- and CK-18; negative serum -hCG:
g. Squamous cell carcinoma.
Microscopic lesion with low cellularity, hyalinized stroma, and Ki-67
index less than 10 percent; immunoposistive for inhibin-, CK-18; focally
positive for hPL and CD146 (Mel-CAM):
e. Placental site nodule.
Immunopositive for inhibin-, AE1/AE3,CK-18; diffusely positive for hPL;
Ki-67 index less than 5 percent; low elevation of serum -hCG:
f. Placental site trophoblastic tumor.
806.
Which tumor typically presents as a painful subcutaneous mass? (PIP

2002 D)
b. Angiolipoma.
c. Chondroid lipoma.
d. Granular cell tumor.
e. Hibernoma.
807.
Supernumerary
ring
chromosomes
of
chromosome
12
are
commonfeature of: (PIP 2002 D)

b. Angiolipoma.
c. Hibernoma.
d. Lipoma.
e. Well differentiated liposarcoma (atypical lipomatous tumor).
808.
The most common site of which tumor is the head and neck region: (PIP
2002 D)
174
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Angiolipoma.
c. Hibernoma.
d. Lipoma.
e. Well differentiated liposarcoma (atypical lipomatous tumor).
809.
all): (PIP 2002 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Carcinoid tumor.
b. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor(GIST).
c. Invasive poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma.
d. Invasive well differentiated adenocarcinoma.
e. Lymphoepithelioma-like carcinoma.
f. Small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma.
Which lesion can arise in the setting of pernicious anemia as a response to
hypergastrnemia:
a. Carcinoid tumor.
Which lesion is consistently CD117 (c-kit) positive?
b. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST).
810.
Which lesion may be associated with Epstein-Barr infection?

e. Lymphoepithelioma-like carcinoma.
811.
all): (PIP 2002 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Autoimmune hepatitis.
b. Chronic hepatitis B.
175
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Chronic hepatitis C.
d. Primary biliary cirrhosis.
e. Primary sclerosing cholangitis.
f. Sarcoidosis.
Which entity usually shows negative viral serology with positive
antinuclear
antibodies
(ANA)
and
moderately
elevated
alanine
aminotransferase (ALT) without evidence of significant biliary damage?

a. Autoimmune hepatitis.
Which entity usually shows negative viral serology with positive
antimitrochondrial
antibodies
(AMA),
mildly
elevated
alanine
aminotransferase (ALT) significant damage of biliary damage? (PIP 2002

D)
Which entity is usually diagnosed by the radiographic demonstration of
beaded bile ducts in the absence of other disease?
e. Primary sclerosing cholangitis.
812.
all): (PIP 2002 D)
Diagnostic set:
b. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
c. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma.
e. Hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma.
f. Hodgkin lymphoma, classic type.
g. Malignant melanoma.
h. Metastatic adenocarcinoma.
176
Pathology Questions
MCQs
The neoplastic cells are typically positive for CD15 and CD30 and are
negative for CD45:
f. Hodgkin lymphoma, classic type.
Lymphoma which usually forms a mass when involving the spleen and
whose cells strongly express CD30, CD45:
b. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
Agressive lymphoma with diffuse pattern of splenic involvement and
cytoplasmic TIA-1 expression:
813.
diagnostic set (an answer may be used once, more than once, or not atall):
(PIP 2002 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Choriocarcinoma.
b. Dysgerminoma.
c. Embryonal carcinoma.
e. Juvenile granulosa cell tumor.
f. Metastatic hepatocellular adenocarcinoma.
g. Mixed malignant germ cell tumors.
h. Polyemberyoma.
i.
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor.
j.
Yolk sac tumor (endodermal sinus tumor).
Composed of primordial germ cells with clear cytoplasm and distinct cell
membranes arranged in diffuse, insular trabecular and cord- like patterns.
The stroma consists of broad fibrous bands rich in lymphocytes, and
sarcoid-like granulomas can be seen. Tumor cells are immunoreactive for
placental like alkaline phosphatase.:
b. Dysgerminoma.
177
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Characterized by a wide variety of microscopic patterns that at least

focally includes a reticular pattern, shows Schiller-Duval bodies and
scattered intracellular hyaline bodies, and is immunoreactive for alphafetoprotein:
j.Yolk sac tumor (endodermal sinus tumor).
Occurs in younger patients and is composed of large, pleomorphic cells
that line glands and papillae and grow as solid sheets. Tumor cells are
occasionally immunoreactive for alpha-fetoprotein and may show human
chorionic gonadotropin and associated syncytiotrophoblastic cells:
814.
all): (PIP 2002 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. B-cell
chronic
lymphocytic
leukemia/small
lymphocytic
lymphoma.
b. Follicular lymphoma.
c. Hairy-cell leukemia.
d. Lymphoid hyperplasia.
f. Splenic marginal zone lymphoma.
Which tumor is characterized by immunophenotypic profile of CD19(+),
CD5(+) and CD23(+):
a.
B-cell
chronic
lymphocytic
leukemia/small
lymphocyticlymphoma)
Which tumor has a characteristic chromosomal translocation of
t(11;14)(q13;q32), with resultant overexpression of cyclin D1:
178
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which tumor is characterized by immunop profile of CD19(+), CD5(-),

CD23(-), CD10(-), is tartrate resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) negative,
and does not express cyclin D1:
815.
What is the commonly used diagnostic label to describe the infant

accompanied by Listeria monocytogenes infection of the placenta: (PIP
2002 D)
a. Hepato-adrenal necrosis.
b. Granulomatosis infantisepticum.
c. Group B streptococci species.
d. Congenital TORCH infection.
e. Perinatal herpes simplex infection.
816.
An expected maternal history in Listeria monocytogenes infection of the

placenta would be:(PIP 2002 D)
a. Genital herpes simplex infection.
b. Recent ingestion of packaged meat or cheese.
c. Recent immigration to the united states from a tropical country.
d. The presence of multiple household cats.
e. Sexual promiscuity.
817.
Which is the most appropriate comment? (PIP 2002 D)

a. The causative organism in Listeria monocytogenes infection of the
placenta is the most common cause of neonatal species.
b. The placental changes suggest that the infant should have been
treated with Acyclovir.
c. The
mother's
second
untoward
pregnancy
outcome
is
characteristic of the diagnosis of Listeria monocytogenes infection

of the placenta.
d. Successful detection of Listeria monocytogenes infection of the
placenta by placental exam may direct therapy.
179
Pathology Questions
818.
MCQs
all): (PIP 2002 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Active chronic gastitis helicobacter pylori associated (Type B
gastritis, chronic antral gastritis).
b. Chronic atrophic gastritis (Type A gastritis, diffuse corporal
gastritis, autoimmune gastritis).
c. Eosinophilic gastroenteritis.
d. Extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma(MALT lymphoma).
e. Gastric candidiasis.
f. Lmphocytic gastritis (Varioliform gastritis).
g. Reactive gastropathy (Chemical gastritis).
Which entity is most commonly associated with duodenal ulcers?
a. Active chronic gastitis helicobacter pylori associated (Type B
gastritis, chronic antral gastritis).
Which entity is associated with anti-intrinsic factor antibodies?
b. Chronic atrophic gastritis (Type A gastritis, diffuse corporal
gastritis, autoimmune gastritis).
Which entity is associated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents?
g. Reactive gastropathy (Chemical gastritis).
819.
Diagnostic set:
a. Clear cell epedymoma.
b. Demyelinating disease.
c. Diffuse astrocytoma.
d. Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor.
180
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Extraventicular neurocytoma.
f. Ganglioglioma.
g. Oligodendroglioma.
h. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy.
In which lesion is allelic loss of chromosomal arms 1p and 19q strongly
associated with chemosensitivity?
g. Oligodendroglioma.
Which lesion features a columnar arrangement of small round cells,
delicate fibrillary processes, and fine capillaries surrounded by pools of
mucin with floating neurons?
d. Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor.
Which lesion is associated with JC virus infection?
h. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy.
820.
This condition is more common in the elderly, is typically acute and

segmental, and features superficial mucosal necrosis as the hallmark
histologic finding: (PIP 2003 B)
a. Ischemic colitis.
b. Crohn's colitic.
c. Acute self-limited bacterial colitis.
d. Fulminant phase of chronic ulcerative colitis.
e. Amebic colitis.
821.
The fulminant phase of chronic ulcerative colitis may be associated with

which one of the following? (PIP 2003 B)
a. Epithelioid granulomas bordering the muscularis propria.
b. Fissuring ulceration of the colon.
c. Segmental involvement of the jejunum.
d. Intervening segments of microscopically normal colonic mucosa.
e. Dense lymphoid aggregates of the deep submucosa and serosa.
181
Pathology Questions
822.
MCQs
The major short term implication of distinguishing Crohn's colitis from

chronic ulcerative colitis at the time of colectomy for fulminant phase of
colitis is: (PIP 2003 B)
a. Assessment of malignant potential.
b. Selection of appropriate medication.
c. Selection of appropriate dietary restriction.
d. Selection of appropriate surgical reconstruction.
e. Determining how stringently to search for cytomegalovirus
inclusions.
823.
Diagnostic set:
b. Carcinoid tumor.
c. Endometrioid carcinoma.
d. Leydig cell tumor.
e. Malignant mixed Mllerian tumor.
f. Metastatic carcinoma.
g. Sclerosing stromal tumor.
h. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor.
Which is the most common inhibin-positive tumor?
Squamous differentiation would be most commonly encountered in
which tumor?
c. Endometrioid carcinoma.
Which tumor is most likely to show bilateral ovarian involvement?
182
Pathology Questions
824.
MCQs
Which of the following is most likely to be associated with development of

the hemolytic-uremic syndrome? (PIP 2003 B)
a. Fulminant ulcerative colitis.
b. Clostridium difficile colitis.
c. Cytomegalovirus colitis.
d. Necrotizing herpes simplex colitis.
e. Hemorrhagic colitis due to E.coli 0157:H7.
825.
In a patient who is suspected to have CMV colitis, which of the following

assays performed on biopsy tissue or stool is least likely to confirm the
diagnosis? (PIP 2003 B)
a. Viral culture of fresh biopsy tissue.
b. Stool viral culture.
c. Identification of CMV in H&E sections.
d. Immunoperoxidase staining.
e. In-situ hybridization.
826.
A colorectal biopsy performed on an immunosuppressed patient with

colitis demonstrates intranuclear inclusions pedominantly affecting the
surface epithelium including goblet cells; the inclusions are amphophilic,
of crescent or targetoid shape and completely fill the affected nuclei.
Which of the following are they most likely to present? (PIP 2003 B)
a. Varicella-zoster virus.
b. Herpes simplex virus.
c. Adenovirus.
d. Cytomegalovirus.
e. Epsein-Barr virus.
827.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of serous

borderline cystadenofibroma? (PIP 2003 B)
a. A 5mm or greater confluent area of micropapillary growth.
b. Extensive epithelial stratification.
c. Detachment of epithelial cell clusters.
183
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Epithelial cell atypia.

e. Mitoses usually less than 4 per 10 HPF.
828.
The most common surface epithelial tumor of the ovary is: (PIP 2003 B)
a. Serous borderline tumor.
b. Benign mucinous cystadenoma.
c. Benign serous cystadenoma.
d. Borderline serous tumor.
e. Serous carcinoma.
829.
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Endovascular papillary angioendothelioma (Dabska tumor).
c. Inflammatory carcinoma.
d. Kaposi sarcoma.
f. Metaplastic carcinoma.
g. Spindle cell hemangioma.
h. Stewart-Treves syndrome.
Associated with chronic lymphedema in post mastectomy patients:
h. Stewart-Treves syndrome.
Associated with human herpesvirus 8 (HHV8):
d. Kaposi sarcoma.
A low-grade malignant cutaneous neoplasm typically presenting in
children as diffuse swelling or intradermal tumor:
b. Endovascular papillary angioendothelioma (Dabska tumor).
184
Pathology Questions
830.
MCQs
or not at all). (PIP 2003 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Angimyolipoma, extra renal.
b. Abdominal desmoplastic small round cell tumor.
c. Clear cell myomelanocytic tumor.
d. Clear cell sarcoma of tendons and aponeuroses.
e. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor.
f. Leiomyosarcoma.
Which tumor is antigenically poly-phenotypic but does not express
HMB-45?
b. Abdominal desmoplastic small round cell tumor.
Which tumor is also known as malignant melanoma af soft parts?
d. Clear cell sarcoma of tendons and aponeuroses.
Which tumor typically expresses both CD117 and CD34?
e. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor.
831.
Diagnostic set:
a. Angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma.
b. Castleman disease.
d. HIV-related lymphadenopathy.
e. Hodgkin's lymphoma.
185
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Vascular proliferation and an interfollicular or diffuse proliferation of

intermediate size atypical T-lymphocytes with clear cytoplasm and
prominent mitotic activity:
a. Angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma
Effacement of the nodal architecture by mixed cell proliferation with
scattered atypical large cells with polylobated nuclei:
e. Hodgkin's lymphoma.
Prominent interfollicular proliferation of blood vessels and small
lymphocytes, obliteration of lymph node sinuses, and abnormal follicles
with regressive germinal centers and onion-scaling lymphocytes:
b. Castleman disease.
Which of the following is true regarding diffuse parenchymal amyloidosis
in the lung? (PIP 2003 B)
a. It is never associated with underlying systemic amyloidosis.
b. It almost always causes severe respiratory imparement.
c. The histologic appearance is essentially indistinguishable from
pulmonary involvement by systemic light chain disease.
d. Most cases are familial or associated with hemodialysis.
e. In most cases the type of amyloid deposits is AA.
832.
Which disease is characterized by diffuse pulmonary fibrosis without

temporal heterogeneity or hyaline membrane formation?
a. Diffuse parenchymal amyloidosis.
b. Non-specific interstitial pneumonia (NSIP), fibrosing type.
c. Usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP).
d. Diffuse alveolar damage (DAD), acute phase.
833.
Whcih disease is characterized by patchy interstitial fibrosis, which shows

temporal heterogeneity in the form of fibroblastic foci? (PIP 2003 B)
186
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Diffuse parenchymal amyloidosis.

b. Non-specific interstitial pneumonia (NSIP), fibrosing type.
c. Usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP).
d. Diffuse alveolar damage (DAD), acute phase.
834.
The
distinct
histologic
features
of
invasive
micropapillary
carcinomainclude all of the following except: (PIP 2003 B)

a. Spaces surrounding micropapillary structures.
b. Vascular papillary fonds.
c. Intermediate or high nuclear grade.
d. Frequent tumor emboli.
e. Numerous mitoses.
835.
The most common immunopheotype associated with micropapillary

carcinoma is: (PIP 2003 B)
a. ER(-) PR(-) HER2(-).
b. ER(+) PR(-) HER2(-).
c. ER(+) PR(+) HER2(-).
d. ER(+) PR(+) HER2(+).
e. ER(-) PR(-) HER2(+).
836.
all): (PIP 2003 C)
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Endometrial stromal sarcoma.
c. Intravenous leiomyomatosis.
d. Leiomyosarcoma.
e. Renal cell carcinoma, sarcomatoid type.
187
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which tumor is typically composed of round cells with indistinct borders,

contains prominent arterioles, is typically negative for actin,desmin and
h-Caldesmon and is strongly positive for CD10?
b. Endometrial stromal sarcoma.
Which tumor is the most common primary tumor of the vena cava?
d. Leiomyosarcoma.
Which tumor is composed of spindled cells with moderately abundant
eosinophilic cytoplasm and centrally placed elongated nuclei with blunt
ends, shows a mitotic count greater than 5 per HPFs, is positive for actin,
desmin and h-Caldesmon and is negative for CD10?
d. Leiomyosarcoma.
837.
all): (PIP 2003 C)
Diagnostic set:
a. Giant fibrovascular polyp.
b. Inflammatory fibroid polyp.
c. Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperpalsia.
d. Squamous cell carcinoma.
e. Squamous papilloma.
The most common neoplasm of the middle esophagus, typically
associated with long-standing chronic esophagitis:
d. Squamous cell carcinoma.
Pedunculated esophegeal lesion that most commonly arises in the upper
third of the esophagus, predominantly occurs in men and is lined by
squamous epithelium:
a. Giant fibrovascular polyp.
188
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Typically a solitary exophytic esophegeal lesion that occurs in middle

aged men with the majority located in the lower esophagus:
e. Squamous papilloma.
838.
all): (PIP 2003 C)
Diagnostic set:
b. Carcinoid tumor.
c. Cellular fibroma.
d. Endometrioid carcinoma.
e. Juvenile granulosa cell tumor.
f. Metastatic breast carcinoma.
g. Small cell carcinoma(hypercalcemic type).
h. Thecoma.
Which neoplasm is most commonly associated with the formation of
microfollicles termed Call-Exner bodies?
Which primary ovarian neoplasm is highly aggressive, but usually occurs
in a younger age group?
g. Small cell carcinoma (hypercalcemic type).
Which entity is a low-grade malignancy showing indolent behavior with
potential for very late recurrences?
839.
Which is the most frequent benign uterine tumor in women? (PIP 2003 C)
a. Atypical polypoid adenomyoma.
b. Leiomyoma.
c. Adenomatoid tumor.
189
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Phyllodes tumor.
840.
Which uterine lesion is typically found in the clinical setting of diabetes,

hypertension and obesity? (PIP 2003 C)
a. Atypical polypoid adenomyoma.
b. Endometrial hyperpalsia.
c. Leiomyoma.
d. Adenomatoid tumor.
841.
all): (PIP 2003 C)
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiosarcoma
b. Embryonal(undifferentiated) sarcoma.
c. Embroynal rhabdomyosarcoma.
d. Hepatocellular carcinoma.
e. Mesenchymal hamartoma.
Which is the most common liver tumor in the 5-20 year old group?
Which hepatic neoplasm most commonly arises within large bileducts?
c. Embroynal rhabdomyosarcoma.
Which liver tumor occurs in the 5-20 year old age group, contains
pleomorphic spindle cells, displays eosinophilic inclusions, and has a
characteristic myxoid background?
b. Embryonal (undifferentiated) sarcoma.
842.
all): (PIP 2003 C)
190
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Bacillary angiomatosis.
c. Littoral cell angioma.
d. Lymphangioma.
e. Peliosis.
f. Splenic hamartoma.
g. Splenic hemangioma.
Which tumor is highly aggressive and commonly metastasizes?
a. Angiosarcoma.
An unusual coexpression of endothelial (CD31) and histiocytic (CD68)
antigens characterizes this splenic lesion:
Which splenic lesion exhibits a haphazard arrangement of blood-filled
spaces, but does not form a discrete mass?
e. Peliosis.
843.
Which neoplasm is characterized by t(x;18)(p11.2,q11.2)? (PIP 2003 C)

a. Cellular schwannoma.
b. Fibrosarcoma.
c. Hemangiopericytoma.
d. Leiomyosarcoma.
844.
Cellular schwannomas are characterized by all of the following except:

(PIP 2003 C)
a. Lack of geographic necrosis.
b. Metastatic potential.
c. Predominance of Antoni A tissue.
d. Strong S-100 protein immunoreactivity.
191
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Well-defined capsule.
845.
Features of hemangiopericytoma include all of the following except: (PIP

2003 C)
a. CD34 positivity.
b. EMA positivity.
c. Pericellular reticulin.
d. Staghorn vascular pattern.
846.
all): (PIP 2003 C)
Diagnostic set:
a. Adrenal cortical carcinoma.
b. Angiolipoma.
c. Extramedullary hematopoietic tumor associated with essential
thrombocythemia.
d. Extramedullary plasmacytoma.
e. Liposarcoma.
f. Myeloid sarcoma (granulocytic sarcoma).
g. Myelolipoma.
Which lesion is typically seen in a subcutaneous location and often
associated with pain?
b. Angiolipoma.
Which neoplasm is most commonly seen in the upper respiratory tract?
d. Extramedullary plasmacytoma.
Which
benign
tumor
commonly
presents
as
an
incidental
adrenal/periadrenal mass?
g. Myelolipoma.
192
Pathology Questions
847.
MCQs
all): (PIP 2003 C)
Diagnostic set:
a. Inflammatory pseudotumor.
b. Invasive urothelial carcinoma with pseudosarcomatous stromal
reaction.
c. Leiomyosarcoma.
d. Postoperative spindle cell nodule.
e. Sarcomatoid urothelial carcinoma.
An exophytic lesion characterized by compact, haphazard fascicles of
mitotically active, cytologically bland spindle cells that are cytokeratin,
vimentin, muscle specific actin and desmin(+), but EMA (-):
d. Postoperative spindle cell nodule.
A polypoid,myxoid tumor composed of mitotically active, atypical spindle
cells that are cytokeratin(+),EMA(+) and vimentin(+):
A myxoid mural mass with granulation tissue-type vascularity, a
polymorphous chronic inflammatory infiltrate, and widely spaced,
cytologically bland spindle cells that are muscle specific actin(+),
vimentin(+), and cytokeratin(-):
a. Inflammatory pseudotumor.
848.
Biphasic malignant melanoma may have all the below characteristics

except: (PIP 2003 C)
a. S-100 positivity.
b. HMB-45 positivity.
c. Intracytoplasmic mucin
d. Vimentin positivity.
e. Intracytoplasmic brown granules.
193
Pathology Questions
849.
MCQs
For the following list the best single criterion for separating biphasic
pulmonary blastoma from biphasic synovial sarcoma is: (PIP 2003 C)
a. Spindle cell keratin positivity.
b. Spindle cell vimentin positivity.
c. Epithelial/epithelioid cell keratin positivity.
d. Epithelial/epithelioid cell vimentin positivity.
e. Supranuclear and subnuclear vacuoles in the epithelial component.
850.
Which of the following is true regarding biphasic pulmonary blastoma?

(PIP 2003 C)
a. Tumor cells grow along preexisting alveoli without destruction of
the underlying architecture.
b. Found almost exclusively in the first and second decade of life.
c. May have areas of chondrosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma or
osteosarcoma.
d. Not associated with a smoking history.
e. Tumors are typically very small at the time of presentation.
851.
all): (PIP 2004 A)
Diagnostic set:
a. Adenomyoepithelioma.
b. Fibroadenoma.
c. Fibromatosis.
d. Hamartoma.
e. Leiomyoma.
f. Myofibroblastoma.
g. Nodular fascitis.
A poorly circumscribed spindle cell lesion that infiltrates breast
paranchyma:
194
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Fibromatosis.
A well circumscribed breast lesion with S-100 positive spindle cells:
A well circumscribed breast lesion that contains breast lobules and a
stromal component of fat, fibrous tissue or smooth muscle:
d. Hamartoma.
852.
Which tumor is most likely to demonstrate defective DNA mismatch

repair? (PIP 2004 A)
a. Colonic adenocarcinoma.
b. Breast carcinoma.
c. Carcinoid.
d. Small cell carcinoma.
e. Squamous carcinoma.
853.
Which tumor is a typical component of Heridetary Nonpolyposis

Colorectal Cancer (Lynch) Syndrome in women?
a. Endometrial carcinoma.
b. Transitional cell carcinoma of bladder.
c. Breast cancer.
d. Carcinoid.
e. Bronchogenic carcinoma.
854.
Which of the following typically occurs following vesical trauma?

a. Myxoid leiomyosarcoma
b. Postoperative spindle cell nodule
c. Pseudosarcomatous reactive myofibroblastic proliferation
d. Sarcomatoid urothelial carcinoma
e. Spindle cell sarcoma
195
Pathology Questions
855.
MCQs
Pseudosarcomatous reactive myofibroblastic proliferation may be

histologically indistinguishable from:
a. Postoperative spindle cell nodule
b. Pseudosarcomatous desmoplastic reaction to urothelial carcinoma
c. Both of the above
d. Neither of the above
856.
all): (PIP 2004 A)
Diagnostic set:
a. Chronic (nonspecific) lymphocytic thyroiditis.
b. Diffuse toxic goiter (Graves disease).
d. Fibrous atrophy.
e. Hashimoto thyroiditis, fibrous variant.
f. Marginal zone B-cell lymphoma (Maltoma).
g. Multifocal fibrosin thyroiditis.
h. Nodular goiter.
i.
Radiation thyroiditis.
j.
Riedel thyroiditis.
k. Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain thyroiditis).

A thyroid lesion thought to have a viral causation:
k. Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain thyroiditis).
A fibrous lesion characterized by keloid-like bands that may extend into
cervical soft tissue:
j. Riedel thyroiditis.
A fibrous lesion purportedly associated with an unusual variant of
mucoepidermoid carcinoma:
e. Hashimoto thyroiditis, fibrous variant.
196
Pathology Questions
857.
MCQs
all): (PIP 2004 A)
Diagnostic set:
b. Angiomyofibroblastoma.
d. Fibroepithelial stromal polyp.
e. Superficial angiomyxoma.
Which tumor is well circumscribed, nonrecurring and characterized by
epithelioid stromal cells clustered around blood vessels?
Which myxoid neoplasm is a nonmetastasizing locally infiltrative tumor of
the genital, perineal, and pelvic regions with potential for local
destructive recurrence?
Which lesion is characterized by the finding of stellate and multinucleated
stromal cells near the epithelial-stromal interface?
d. Fibroepithelial stromal polyp.
858.
all): (PIP 2004 A)
Diagnostic set:
a. Follicular hyperplasia.
d. Marginal zone B-cell lymphoma.
e. Toxoplasmic lymphadenopathy.
197
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which entity is characterized by follicular hyperplasia with an associated

proliferation of monocytoid B-cells and epithelioid histiocytes?
e. Toxoplasmic lymphadenopathy.
Which entity is often associated with the t(14;18) (q32;q21) cytogenetic
abnormality?
Immunophenotyping of which entity typically exhibits suface light chain
clonality without expression of CD5 or CD10:
d. Marginal zone B-cell lymphoma.
859.
Spindle-cell lipoma is characterized by all of the following except: (PIP

2004 A)
a. High frequency of recurrence.
b. Male predominance.
c. Median age over 55 years.
d. Predominant location in back, neck and shoulders.
e. S-100 protein-negative spindle cells.
860.
Schwannoma is characterized by all of the following except: (PIP 2004 A)

a. Alternating Antoni A and Antoni B areas.
b. Encapsulating.
c. Frequent axons within the tumor.
d. S-100 positivity in tumor cells.
e. Verocay bodies.
861.
Low-grade fibromyxoid sarcoma most often: (PIP 2004 A)

a. Contains a large number of CD34(+) cells.
b. Has a high mitotic rate.
c. Has a mixture of myxoid and collagenous areas.
d. Occurs in the pelvis.
e. Occurs over 65 years of age.
198
Pathology Questions
862.
MCQs
all): (PIP 2004 A)
Diagnostic set:
a. Fibrosarcoma.
b. Hemangiopericytoma.
c. Leiomyosarcoma.
e. Monophasic synovial sarcoma.
f. Sarcomatoid carcinoma.
Aggregates of ovoid tumor cells surrounding prominent endothelial-lined
sinusoidal blood vessels, keratin(-), CD34(+), phenotype:
Long sweeping fascicles of spindled cells with a herring-bone pattern and
conspicuous mitotic activity, vimentin(+) only phenotype:
a. Fibrosarcoma.
Short fascicles of plump, spindled cells, prominent mast cell infiltrate,
calcification, keratin(+), CD99(+), bcl2(+) phenotype:
e. Monophasic synovial sarcoma.
863.
all): (PIP 2004 A)
Diagnostic set:
a. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma.
b. Embryonal carcinoma.
c. Metastaic carcinoma.
d. Seminoma.
e. Seminoma, spermatocytic type.
199
Pathology Questions
MCQs
f. Sertoli cell tumor.

g. Yolk sac tumor.
Which is the most comon testicular neoplasm in patients over 60 years of
age?
Which is the most common pure testicular germ cell neoplasm?
d. Seminoma
Which germ cell tumor is most consistently immunohistochemically
positive for CD30?
864.
diagnostic set (an answer may be used once, more than once, or notat all):
(PIP 2004 A)
Diagnostic set:
a. Chondroblastic osteosarcoma.
b. Chondroblastoma.
c. Chondroid chondroma.
d. Chondrosarcoma.
e. Enchondroma.
f. Osteochondroma.
Which tumor occurs almost exclusively in the spheno-occipital region?
c. Chondroid chondroma.
Which tumor is characterized by a cartilage-capped bony prohection
arising on the external surface of bone, with a marrow cavity continuous
with that of the underlying bone?
f. Osteochondroma.
200
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which tumor usually arises in the epiphysis of young patients and

frequently shows a fine network of pericellular calcification (chicken
wire calcification)?
b. Chondroblastoma.
865.
all): (PIP 2004 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Abscess resulting from oppotunistic infection.
b. Glioblastoma.
c. Meningeoma.
d. Metastatic poorly differentiated carcinoma.
e. Myeloid sarcoma (chloroma).
f. Oligodendroglioma.
g. Primary CNS lymphoma.
Which is the most likely neoplasm when a patient with AML develops a
(non-hemorrhagic) mass lesion in the brain?
e. Myeloid sarcoma (chloroma)
Specific immunohistochemical conformation of which neoplasm is not
currently feasible?
f. Oligodendroglioma.
Which brain neoplasm is most commonly encountered in patients with
HIV-1 infection?
g. Primary CNS lymphoma.
866.
all): (PIP 2004 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Cystic nephroma.
201
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Cystic partially differentiated nephroblastoma.

c. Mesoblastic nephroma.
d. Metanephric adenofibroma.
e. Mixed epithelial and stromal tumor.
f. Sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma.
Which tumor lacks solid, expansile nodules and is composed entirely of
multiloculated cysts lined by hobnail cells and thin-walled septa
containing fibrous connective tissue?
a. Cystic nephroma.
Which tumor has solid areas as well as clustering of cysts into
multilocular mass and contains estrogen receptor positive spindle cells?
e. Mixed epithelial and stromal tumor.
Which tumor contains vascularized nests of clear cells and an
atypicalmitotically active spindle cell components?
f. Sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma.
867.
Which is the most common sex cord-stromal tumor of the ovary? (PIP
2004 B)
b. Fibroma.
c. Leiomyoma.
d. Sclerosing stromal tumor.
e. Thecoma.
868.
Which ovarian sex cord-stromal tumor is most likely to metastasize? (PIP

2004 B)
b. Juvenile granulosa cell tumor.
c. Sclerosing stromal tumor.
d. Sertoli-leydig cell tumor.
202
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Thecoma.
869.
Which primary ovarian neoplasm occurs in young adult women? (PIP

2004 B)
a. Thecoma.
b. Sclerosing stromal tumor.
c. Fibroma.
d. Fibromatosis.
e. Krukenberg tumor.
870.
all): (PIP 2004 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Caroli disease.
b. Ciliated foregut cyst.
c. Hepatobiliary cystadenoma.
d. Metastatic mucinous cystadenocarcinoma.
e. Solitary bile duct cyst.
Which of these lesions is benign, demonstrates ovarian-like stroma and
occurs almost exclusively in females?
Which of these lesions is thought to arise from the embryonic foregut and
shows differntiation towards brinchial structures?
b. Ciliated foregut cyst.
Which of these lesions is commonly associated with inflmmation and
biliary calculi?
a. Caroli disease.
203
Pathology Questions
871.
MCQs
all): (PIP 2004 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Dysgerminoma.
b. Fibrothecoma.
c. Juvenile granulosa cell tumor.
d. Mature cystic teratoma (dermoid cyst).
f. Yolk sac tumor (endodermal sinus tumor).
Which entity occuring in older women is characterized by predominantly
solid, white to yellow firm mass with dense fibrous bands and occasional
calcification?
b. Fibrothecoma.
Which entity typically exhibits a solid and cystic cut surface, eosiniphilic,
intracellular and extracellular hyaline bodies, Schiller-Duval bodies, and
alpha fetoprotein (AFP) expression?
f. Yolk sac tumor (endodermal sinus tumor)
Which entity is typically solid and cystic with variably-sized follicles lined
by cells with non-grooved, euchromatic nuclei and eosiniphilic
cystoplasm, may have luminal eosiniphilic, mucicarminophilic fluid within
follicles, and is inhibin positive and negative for alpha fetoprotein and
human chorionic gonadotropin?
872.
Which splenic lesion presents grossly as a solitary or multiple nodules,

frequently has PAS positive cytoplasmic globules and is commonly
positive for CD68 and endothelial markers?
a. Hodgkin disease.
b. Littoral cell angioma.
204
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Granulomatous splenitis.
d. Systemic mastocytosis.
873.
An association with multicentric form of Castleman disease has been

described in all of the following except:
a. Follicular dendritic cell sarcoma.
b. Primary effusion lymphoma.
c. Epstein-Barr virus.
d. Poems
syndrome
(polyneuropathy,
organomegaly,
endocrinopathy, monoclonal gammopathy and skin changes).

874.
Which of the following is true regarding systemic mastocytosis?

a. Skin lesions are common in the aggressive forms of the disease.
b. Indolent systemic mastocytosis usually does not have bone
marrow involvement.
c. A normal serum tryptase level in a pediatric patient with urticaria
pigmentosa essentially rules out the diagnosis of systemic
mastocytosis.
d. Malabsorption in patients with systemic mastocytosis is usually
attributed to mediator release from the mast cells.
e. There is no corelation between the percentage of mast cells inbone
marrow and survival.
875.
all): (PIP 2004 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Bile duct adenoma.
b. Fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma.
c. Focal nodular hyperplasia.
d. Hepatocellular adenoma.
e. Hepatocellular carcinoma, well differentiated.
205
Pathology Questions
876.
MCQs
In which tumor are pale bodies frequently identified within the cytoplasm
of the hepatocytes?
b. Fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma.
877.
Which lesion is most likely to be associated with cavernous hemangiomas

of the liver?
878.
In which lesion does a solitary central artery with high flow and absent
portal vein account for its characteristic radiologic and pathologic
appearance?
879.
all): (PIP 2004 B)
Diagnostic set:
b. Angiosarcoma.
c. Fibroadenoma.
d. Fibromatosis.
e. Hamartoma.
g. Phyllodes tumor.
Which fibroepithelial tumor has a small but a definite potential to
metastasize?
g. Phyllodes tumor.
Which entity is a malformation, not a neoplasm?
e. Hamartoma.
206
Pathology Questions
MCQs
The spindle cell component of this biphasic tumor commonly expresses

one or more cytokeratins, a useful diagnostic feature?
880.
all): (PIP 2004 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Fibrosarcoma.
c. Leiomyosarcoma.
d. Malignant peripheral nerve sheathh tumor.
e. Solitary fibrous tumor.
f. Spindle cell squamous carcinoma.
g. Synovial sarcoma, monophasic.
Which tumor is usually characterized by the presence of uniform spindleshaped cells, absent mitotic activity, prominent stromal hyalinization
diffuse CD34 immunoreactivity and absence of epithelial markers or S100 protein?
Which tumor is usually characterized by the presence of uniform cells
with low mitotic rate, inconspicuous to dilated and ramifying vascular
spaces, cytokeratin or epithelial membrane antigen immunoreactivity,
demonstration of (X;18) and CD34 negativity?
g. Synovial sarcoma, monophasic.
Which tumor is usually characterized by fascicular growth with fascicles
intersecting at right angles, blunt ended nuclei often with paranuclear
vacuoles, immunoreactivity for smooth muscle actin or desmin and
absence of CD34, bcl-2 and epithelial markers?
c. Leiomyosarcoma.
207
Pathology Questions
881.
MCQs
all): (PIP 2004 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Brain (cerebral) abscess.
b. Herpes simplex encephalitis.
c. Meningitis, suppurative/purulent.
d. Primary angitis of the CNS.
e. Primary CNS (B-cell) lymphoma.
f. Subacute encephalitis of AIDS/HIV-1 infection.
g. West nile virus encephalitis.
Which disorder is characterized by the perivascular accumulation of
multinucleated macrophages in the brain?
f. Subacute encephalitis of AIDS/HIV-1 infection.
Which disorder may cause myelitis with associated flaccid paraparesis?
g. West nile virus encephalitis.
Which disorder is characterized by angiocentric inflammation with
fibrinoid necrosis of vessel walls and thrombi?
d. Primary angitis of the CNS.
882.
all): (PIP 2004 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma.
b. Conventional (clear cell) renal cell carcinoma.
c. Papillary renal cell carcinoma.
d. Renal cell carcinoma, unclassified.
e. Renal oncocytoma.
f. Xp 11 translocation renal cell carcinoma.
208
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which entity has trisomies 7, 17 and 16, as well as loss of the Y

chromosome?
c. Papillary renal cell carcinoma.
Deletions of the VHL gene on chromosome 3p25 are seen in which
entity?
Loss of chromosomes 1, 2, 10, 13, 6, 21 and 17 are characteristic of which
entity?
883.
Which is the most important factor predicting survival in patients with

mucinous borderline tumor of the ovary? (PIP 2004 D)
a. Tumor size.
b. Tumor stage.
c. Architectural complexity.
d. Nuclear grade.
e. Patient age.
884.
Which one of the following statements about primary mucinous tumors in

the ovary is true? (PIP 2004 D)
a. At the time of diagnosis, they are bilateral in 30-40% of cases.
b. Malignant mucinous tumors are more common than borderline
mucinous tumors.
c. Mucinous tumors of the ovary are the most common cause of
pseudomyxoma peritonei.
d. In the ovary, primary mucinous carcinoma is less common than
metastatic mucinous carcinoma
e. Most borderline mucinous tumors are composed of endocervicallike cells.
209
Pathology Questions
885.
MCQs
In pathologic staging of borderline and malignant ovarian epithelial

tumors by the TNM/FIGO classification, which of the following is true?
(PIP 2004 D)
a. pT1 tumors involve only one ovary.
b. The presence of malignant cells in ascites or peritonial washings
means that a tumor is at least pT2.
c. The presence of pelvic extension or implants, without more distant
disease, places a tumor in the pT2 category.
d. The presence of plural effusion indicates that the tumor is pM1.
e. Regional lymph node metastasis (pN1) is required to classify a
tumor as Stage III.
886.
all): (PIP 2004 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Acute cellular rejection.
b. Acute cyclosporine toxicity.
c. Acute renal vein thrombosis.
d. Chronic transplant glomerulopathy.
e. Polyoma (BK virus) nephropathy.
f. Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder.
Which entity is characterized by interstitial nephritis, often patchy, with
tubular epithelial cell nuclear inclusions?
e. Polyoma (BK virus) nephropathy.
Which entity can have interstitial nephritis with tubilitis, glomerular
endothelial injury and/or vascular endarteritis or fibrinoid necrosis?
a. Acute cellular rejection.
Which entity has an expansile atypical lymphoplasmacytic proliferation
and is associated with EBV infection?
210
Pathology Questions
MCQs
f. Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder.

887.
all): (PIP 2004 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Dysgerminoma.
b. Fibroma.
c. Goblet cell carcinoid tumor.
e. Metastatic gastric carcinoma.
f. Sclerosing stromal tumor.
g. Yolk sac tumor (endodermal sinus tumor).
Which entity occuring in the middle-aged women may be associated with
ascites and pleural effusion (Meig's syndrome)?
b. fibroma
Which typically occurs in children, teens and young adults, is commonly
composed of sheets of cells having rounded, hyperchromatic nuclei,
occasional variably-sized follicles containing eosiniphilic or basophilic
material, numerous luteinized cells, is inhibin(+), alpha-fetoprotein(-),
and human chorionic gonadotropin(-)?
d. Juvenile granulosa cell tumor
Which entity is typically yellow, solid and lobulated, composed of uniform
uninucleate tumor cells with a central, large, round nucleus, containing
one or more prominent nucleoli, brisk mitotic activity, occasionally has
granulomatous inflammation and, rarely, syncytiotrophoblastic cells?
a. Dysgerminoma.
888.
A CK7(-), CK20(+) keratin immunoprofile in a gland-forming cancer

involving the liver favors which of the following diagnoses? (PIP 2004 D)
211
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Cholangiocarcinoma.
b. Colorectal adenocarcinoma, metastastic.
d. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma, metastatic.
e. Gallbladder adenocarcinoma.
889.
Which of the following is considered to be a risk factor for gallbladder

carcinoma? (PIP 2004 D)
a. Hepatitis C.
b. Hepatitis B.
c. Opisthorchis viverrini infestation.
d. Clonorchis sinesis infestation.
e. Salmonella typhi carrier state.
890.
Which of the following conditions is most strongly associated with

gallbladder adenocarcinoma? (PIP 2004 D)
a. Sclerosing cholangitis.
b. Ulcerative colitis.
c. Porcelain gallbladder.
d. Diabetes mellitus.
e. Aquired immundeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
891.
all): (PIP 2004 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Differentiating neuroblastoma.
b. Ewing sarcoma-PNET.
c. Lymphoblastic lymphoma.
d. Pleuropulmonary blastoma.
e. Rhabdomyosracoma.
f. Undifferentiated neuroblastoma.
212
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Whcih tumor is characterized by mixed blastomatous and sarcomatous

features?
d. Pleuropulmonary blastoma.
Which tumor is likely to express CD99 and demonstrate an EWS type 1
fusion transcription?
b. Ewing sarcoma-PNET.
Which tumor strongly expresses CD99 and TdT?
all): (PIP 2004 D)
Diagnostic set:
g. Chondrosarcoma.
h. Fibromatosis.
i.
Inflammatory breast cancer.
j.
Malignant melanoma.
k. Metapalstic carcinoma.
l.
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
m. Phyllodes tumor.
A costellation of rapidly evolving clinical manifestations to include
reddened indurated skin and swelling is the sine qua non of which
mammary neoplasm?
c. Inflammatory breast cancer.
The spindle cell component of which tumor commonly expresses one or
more cytokeratins, a useful diagnostic feature?
e. Metapalstic carcinoma.
Which neoplasm frequently has the pathologic finding of dermal
lymphatic tumor emboli?
213
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Inflammatory breast cancer.

892.
all): (PIP 2004 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Adenovirus pneumonia.
b. Cytomegalovirus pneumonia.
c. Hard metal lung disease.
d. Herpes simplex pneumonia.
e. Respiratory syncytial virus pneumonia.
Which entity is characterized by enlarged cells with eosiniphilic
intracytoplasmic inclusions, which may be arranged in a paranuclear
distribution and no intranuclear inclusions?
e. Respiratory syncytial virus pneumonia.
Which entity is characterized by cells without significant enlargement
containing basophilic nuclear inclusions which obscure the nuclear
membrane (smudge cells) and no cytoplasmic inclusions?
Which entity is characterized by enlarged, frequently multinucleated cells
with eosiniphilic nuclear inclusions and no cytoplasmic inclusions?
d. Herpes simplex pneumonia.
893.
Diagnostic set:
a. Adenomatoid nodule.
b. Dysmorphogenetic goiter.
c. Follicular adenoma.
214
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Follicular carcinoma.
e. Graves disease (diffuse toxic goiter).
f. Lymphocytic thyroiditis.
g. Papillary carcinoma.
Which entity is histologically characterized by diffuse follicular
hyperplasia with prominent papillary architecture, absence of residual
normal thyroid parenchyma, follicular epithelial cells with round and
uniform nuclei, minimal to absent colloid production and the absence of
an associated lymphocytic cell infiltrate?
e. Graves disease (diffuse toxic goiter).
Which entity is histologically characterized by the presence of a discrete
mass showing prominent papillary architecture and a constellation of
cytologic alterations that include enlaged nuclei with irregularities in size
and shapes, disperesed to ground glass appearing nuclear chromatin,
nuclear crowding, nuclear grooves and intranuclear inclusions?
g. Papillary carcinoma.
Which entity is histologically characterized by the presence of an
encapsulated mass with capsular invasion and angioinvasion, and cells
with hyperchromatic round and regular nuclei?
d. Follicular carcinoma.
894.
Diagnostic set:
a. Choriocarcinoma.
b. Dysgerminoma.
c. Endometrioid carcinoma, secretory pattern.
d. Juvenile granullosa cell tumor.
e. Serous tumor of borderline malignancy (low malignant potential).
215
Pathology Questions
MCQs
f. Yolk sac tumor (endodermal sinus tumor).

Which entity typically occurs in middle-aged women, comprises
approximately one-third of ovarian neoplasms, and is characterized by
papillary fronds covered by stratified epithelial cells with scant
cytoplasm, mild to moderate nuclear atypia, inconspicuous cytoplasmic
mucin or mucin localized only to the lips of the cells, and abundant
psammoma bodies?
e. Serous tumor of borderline malignancy (low malignant
potential).
Which entity typically occurs in combination with an ovarian germ cell
tumor, exhibits a hemorrhagic cut surface, is biphasic, and has the
following immunoprofile: cytokeratin(+) and hCG(+)?
a. Choriocarcinoma.
Which entity accounts for approximately 50% of malignant ovarian germ
cell tumors arising in young women?
b. Dysgerminoma.
895.
Which lesion is encapsulated, usually cystic, and contains papillae

oriented toward the center of the lesion and includes follicles in some of
the papillae? (PIP 2005 A)
a. Adenomatous nodule/nodular hyperplasia.
b. Follicular nodule with papillary hyperplasia.
c. Follicular carcinoma, minimally invasive.
d. Papillary carcinoma, follicular variant.
e. Papillary carcinoma, (NOS, usual type.)
896.
Which of the following is not true of papillary carcinoma?

a. Cervical lymph node metastatsis is present in less that 5% at
diagnosis.
b. Relative 10-year survival is 95% or more.
216
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Most common thyroid cancer.

d. Associated with familial colon polyposis syndromes.
897.
Which of the following is required for the diagnosis of papillary?

a. Psammoma bodies.
b. Sclerotic stroma in at least part of the tumor.
c. Papillae architecture.
d. Typical nuclear features.
898.
Diagnostic set:
a. Adenocarcinoma, metastatic.
b. Carcinoid, metastatic.
e. Strumal carcinoid.
f. Teratoma, mature.
g. Thyroid follicular carcinoma, metastatic.
Which tumor is characterized by a microfollicular pattern and Call-Exner
bodies?
Which tumor is composed predominantly of mature gastrointestinal
epithelium, glial tissue and respiratory epithelium with a microscopic
focus of thyroid tissue?
f. Teratoma, mature.
Which tumor is characterized by a predominantly follicular pattern
containing intraluminal eosinophilic material, a secondary intermixed
trabecular
and
insular
component,
and
immunoreactivity
for
thyroglobulin and synaptophysin?

217
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Strumal carcinoid.
899.
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiomyolipoma.
b. Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor.
c. Leiomyoma.
d. Leiomyosarcoma.
e. Sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma.
f. Sarcomatoid urothelial carcinoma.
g. Solitary fibrous tumor.
In which tumor can ALK-1 expression be of potential diagnostic value?
Which malignant-appearing spindle cell neoplasm has histologic and
immunophenotypic smooth muscle feature is negative for cytokeratin and
HMB-45?
d. Leiomyosarcoma.
For which tumor is the presence in regional lymph nodes, renal vein/vena
cava extension or involvement of perirenal tissue not indicative of
malignant progression?
a. Angiomyolipoma.
900.
Which of the following molecular events has been most specifically

associated with decreased cellular adhesion and diffuse infiltration,
characteristic of signet-ring carcinoma? (PIP 2005 A)
a. hMLH1 inactivation.
b. K-ras mutation.
c. E-cadherin inactivation.
218
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Microsatellite instability.
e. APC mutation.
901.
Which primary site is favored by the following immunohistochemical

profile exhibited by a metastatic signet ring carcinoma: CDX2(+), MUC1(-)
MUC2(+), MUC5AC(+), CK7(-), CK20(+), TTF(-), PSA(-)?(PIP 2005 A)
a. Lung.
b. Breast.
c. Prostate.
d. Colon.
e. Stomach.
902.
Which of the following statements is true of colorectal signet-ring

carcinoma? (PIP 2005 A)
a. The most common histologic variant of carcinoma involving the
cecum.
b. Occurs in older age group than other histologic variants of
colorectal carcinoma.
c. In advanced disease is more often associated with peritoneal
dissemination than with liver metastasis.
d. Has a better prognosis, adjusted for stage, than non-mucinous
carcinoma of the colorectum.
e. Is typically associated with a diffuse infiltrating scirrhous
appearance.
903.
Diagnostic set:
b. Collecting duct carcinoma.
c. Conventional (clear cell) renal cell carcinoma.
d. Papillary renal cell carcinoma.
219
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Sarcomatoid carcinoma arising in renal cell carcinoma.

f. Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma.
g. Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis.
Which of the above is composed of neoplastic cells with granular
cytoplasm, papillary and tubular architecture, and may exhibit trisomies
of chromosome 3q, 7 or 17?
Which of the above represents less than 2% of kidney malignancies and
shows a distinctive desmoplastic stromal reaction?
Which of the above shows tumor cell differentiation toward interlaced
duct phenotype, and ultrastructurally contains numerous cytoplasmic
microvesicles?
904.
Diagnostic set:
a. Adenocarcinoma, goblet cell type.
b. Adenocarcinoma, signet ring type.
c. Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma, mucinous type.
d. Mucinous (colloid) carcinoma.
e. Mucinous cystadenoma.
Which tumor is composed of cytologically bland, tall columnar cells with
apical mucin growing in a purely lepidic pattern without areas of stromal,
pleural or vascular invasion?
c. Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma, mucinous type.
220
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which tumor is a recently described variant of mucinous pulmonary

adenocarcinoma that shows positive staining with CK20 and CDX2 in the
majority of cases?
a. Adenocarcinoma, goblet cell type.
Which tumor is characterized by a fibrous-walled cyst lined by
cytologically bland mucinous epithelium?
e. Mucinous cystadenoma.
905.
Diagnostic set:
a. Desmoplastic small round cell tumor.
b. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma.
d. Neuroblastoma.
e. Peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor/Ewing sarcoma.
Which
tumor
is
characterized
by
unique
phenotypic
immunohistochemical profile?
Which neoplasm is typically and uniformly CD99 (MIC2 gene product)
negative?
d. Neuroblastoma.
Which is the most common malignant soft tissue tumor in the first two
decades of life?
b. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma.
906.
221
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Atopic dermatitis.
b. Bullous pemphigoid of childhood.
c. Erythema toxicum neonatorum.
d. Herpes gestationis.
e. Hypomelanosis of Ito.
f. Incontinentia pigmenti.
g. Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus.
h. Pemphigus vulgaris.
Which vesiculobullous disease characterized by intercellular deposition of
IgG and CD3?
h. Pemphigus vulgaris.
Which disease usually results in death in utero in males?
f. Incontinentia pigmenti.
Which entity is associated with CHILD syndrome?
g. Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus.
907.
Strong diffuse immunostaining with which one of the following antibodies

is most useful in separating choroid plexus carcinoma from atypical
teratoid/rhabddoid tumor? (PIP 2005 B)
a. Cytokeratin.
c. Glial fibrillary acidic protein.
d. Synaptophysin.
e. Vimentin.
908.
The BAF-47 antibody recognizes the protein encoded by which one of the
following genes? (PIP 2005 B)
a. INI 1
b. NF 1
222
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. NF 2
d. P53
e. PTEN
909.
CNS atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumors occur predominantly in which of

the following locations? (PIP 2005 B)
a. Cerebrum.
b. Lateral ventricle.
c. Third ventricle.
d. Posterior fossa.
e. Spinal cord.
910.
Diagnostic set:
b. Endometrial stromal tumor with sex-cord like elements.
c. Epithelioid leiomyoma.
d. Leiomyosarcoma.
e. Malignant mixed mullerian tumor.
g. Metastatic granulosa cell tumor.
h. Perivascular epithelioid cell tumor (PEComa).
Which tumor is usually strongly and uniformly immunopositive for
HMB45?
h. Perivascular epithelioid cell tumor (PEComa).
Which tumor most commonly occurs in postmenopausal women, has a
poor
prognosis
and
demonstrates
epithelial
and
mesenchymal
differentiation?
223
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which uterine tumor is typically located subserosally, most frequently is

circumscribed, usually occurs in women of reproductive age and is
calretinin and thrombomodulin positive?
911.
Diagnostic set:
a. Anaplastic large cell tumor.
b. Burkitt lymphoma.
c. Carcinoid tumor.
d. Endometrial stromal sarcoma.
e. Follicular lymphoma.
f. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST).
g. Large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma.
h. Myeloid sarcoma (Extramedullary myeloid tumor).
i.
Precursor of B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma.
Which tumor typically involves distal ileum, occurs with equal frequency
in both sexes, with a peak in the sixth and seventh decades, and classically
has an insular pattern of growth?
c. Carcinoid tumor.
Which tumor characteristically has a translocation involving the
immunoglobulin heavy chain (IgH) and BCL-2 genes?
e. Follicular lymphoma.
Which tumor can present in children and adults and when it exhibits
t(9;22) translocation (philladelphia chromosome) portends a poor
prognosis?
i. Precursor of B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma.
224
Pathology Questions
912.
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
b. Adrenal medullary hyperplasia.
c. Adrenal pseudocyst.
e. Pheochromocytoma.
Which condition may be accompaned by signs of hypercoricalism?
Which neoplasm shows positive immunohistochemical positivity for
chromogranin and synaptophysin?
Which is the most common malignant neoplasm occuring in the adrenal
gland?
913.
For each of the following questions choose the most likely diagnosisfrom
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiomyolipoma.
b. Metastatic melanoma.
c. Sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma.
d. Solitary fibrous tumor.
e. Well-differentiated liposarcoma.
Which tumor is characterized by perivascular epithelioid and spindle cells
immunoreactive for muscle specific actin and HMB-45?
225
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Angiomyolipoma.
Which tumor is composed of fat cells with hyperchromatic nuclei anD
spindle cells within broad fibrous bands, and is immunoreactive forS100
protein and negative for HMB-45?
Which tumor characteristically contains pleomorphic epithelioid cells and
spindle cells immunoreactive for keratin and epithelial membrane
antigen?
c. Sarcomatoid renal cell carcinoma.
914.
Diagnostic set:
a. Embryonal undifferentiated hepatic sarcoma.
b. Hepatoblastoma.
c. Mesenchymal hamartoma.
d. Rhabdomyosarcoma.
e. Teratoma.
In which primary malignant hepatic tumor may mitoses and histology be
prognostic determinants?
b. Hepatoblastoma.
Which hepatic mass may be the cause of heart failure?
c. Mesenchymal hamartoma.
Which hepatic tumor arising in the biliary tree most typically causes
obstruction of bile?
d. Rhabdomyosarcoma.
226
Pathology Questions
915.
MCQs
Which of the following has the most striking female predisposition? (PIP
2005 B)
a. Collagenous colitis.
b. Lymphocytic colitis.
c. Ischemic colitis.
d. Ulcerative colitis.
e. Neutrophilic enterocolitis.
916.
Pseudomembrane formation may be evident in which of the following

diseases? (PIP 2005 B)
a. Ischemic colitis.
b. Clostredium difficile associated colitis.
c. Amebic colitis.
d. All of the above.
917.
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiolipoma.
b. Atypical lipomatous tumor.
c. Desmoid type fibromatosis.
d. Elastofibroma.
e. Low grade fibromyxoid sarcoma.
f. Myolipoma.
g. Neurofibroma.
i.
Spindle cell lipoma.
Which benign tumor exhibits a marked predilection for the neck and
shoulders in men over 50 years of age?
i. Spindle cell lipoma.
227
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which benign tumor exhibits a marked predilection for the soft tissue
between the scapula and the chest wall in elderly women?
d. Elastofibroma.
Which tumor is characterized by a mixture of heavily collagenized and
myxoid zones, bland spindle cells and arcades of blood vessels?
e. Low grade fibromyxoid sarcoma.
918.
Diagnostic set:
b. Classical Hodgkin lymohoma.
d. Extramedullary hematopoiesis.
Which entity is a CD45 negative B-cell malignancy?
b. Classical Hodgkin lymohoma.
Which tumor is immunohistochemically positive for CD30 and CD45, and
negative for CD20?
Which entity is most commonly associated with the t(2;5) translocation?
919.
Diagnostic set:
a. Castleman disease.
228
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Epithelioid hemangioma.
c. Hodgkin lymphoma.
d. Kimura disease.
e. Langerhans cell histiocytosis.
Which entity is characterized by a recurrent chronic inflammatory
process in Oriental patients with peripheral eosinophilia and raised seum
IgE?
d. Kimura disease.
Which lesion typically has proliferating blood vessels lined by endothelial
cells that have been described as histiocytoid in appearance?
b. Epithelioid hemangioma.
Which disorder harbors large cells that have elongated, twisted, grooved
nuclei and are CD1a(+) and S-100(+)?
e. Langerhans cell histiocytosis.
920.
Diagnostic set:
a. Papillary urothelial carcinoma, high grade.
b. Papillary urothelial carcinoma, low grade.
c. Papillary urothelial hyperplasia.
d. Papillary urothelial neoplasm of low malignant potential.
e. Urothelial carcinoma with inverted papilloma-like pattern.
f. Urothelial carcinoma with micropapillary component.
g. Urothelial papilloma.
Which papillary lesion can be diagnosed cytologically in urine specimens
by the presence of 3-dimensional clusters of dysplastic urothelial cells
with altered polarity?
229
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Papillary urothelial carcinoma, low grade.

Which lesion is not biologically aggressive but is associated with
recurrences and carries a risk for progression i.e. invasion?
d. Papillary urothelial neoplasm of low malignant potential.
Which neoplasm is characterized by slender delicate filiform process on
the mucosal surface and tight cell clusters in the subepithelial connective
tissue with prominent retraction artifact resembling angiolymphatic
invasion?
f. Urothelial carcinoma with micropapillary component.
921.
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Dendritic/reticulum cell tumor.
c. Hemangioma.
d. Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor.
e. Littoral cell angioma.
f. Metastatic melanoma.
g. Mycobacterial spindle cell pseudotumor.
Which is the most common primary tumor of the spleen?
c. Hemangioma.
Which tumor is characterized by a CD21(+), CD31(+), CD68(+)
phenotype?
e. Littoral cell angioma.
Which tumor is characterized by a zonal histologic pattern?
d. Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor.
230
Pathology Questions
922.
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
b. Caroli disease.
c. Congenital cystic (polycystic) disease of the liver.
d. Congenital hepatic fibrosis.
e. Cystic fibrosis involving the liver.
f. Focal nodular hyperplasia.
g. Von Meyenburg complexes.
Which condition is most stongly associated with the development of
cholangiocarcinoma?
b. Caroli disease.
Which condition is most likely to present as bleeding from esophegeal
varices?
Which condition may be associated with small scars that resemble
corpora albicantia?
c. Congenital cystic (polycystic) disease of the liver.
923.
once, or not at all)
Diagnostic set:
a. Deep benign histiocytoma.
b. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma.
c. Neurilemmoma.
d. Nodular fasciitis.
231
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Pleomorphic hyalinizing angiectatic tumor.

f. Psammomatous melanotic schwannoma.
g. Spindle cell lipoma.
Which tumor is frequently associated with Carney syndrome?
f. Psammomatous melanotic schwannoma.
Which tumor exhibits a local recurrence rate of up to 50%, lacks a high
mitotic rate, and shows perivascular hyalinization?
e. Pleomorphic hyalinizing angiectatic tumor.
Which tumor has a strong predilection for men?
g. Spindle cell lipoma.
924.
Diagnostic set:
b. Metastatic carcinoma of the breast.
c. Papillary urothelial carcinoma, metastatic.
d. Serous carcinoma, high grade.
e. Serous carcinoma, low grade.
f. Transitional cell carcinoma of the ovary.
Which tumor is thought to arise from surface epithelial inclusions of the
ovary by mutations of the p53 tumor suppressor gene and functional
alterations in BRCA 1 and BRCA 2?
d. Serous carcinoma, high grade.
Which tumor is characterized by a predominantly tubuloglandular
architecture, strong expression of estrogen and progesterone receptors,
232
Pathology Questions
MCQs
and mutations of the PTEN tumor suppressor gene, with loss of PTEN
protein expression?
Which tumor is thought to arise by progression from a benign neoplasm
by mutations in KRAS and BRAF?
e. Serous carcinoma, low grade.
925.
Diagnostic set:
c. Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm.
Which tumor is most likely to be negative for cytokeratin?
f. Solid pseudopapillary tumor.
Which tumor is considered primarily a tumor of childhood?
Which cystic tumor commonly extends along ductal structures within the
pancreas?
c. Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm.
926.
Diagnostic set:
233
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Chondrosarcoma.
c. Enchondroma.
d. Juxta-articular chondroma.
e. Osteocartilaginous loose bodies.
f. Pigmented villondular synovitis.
g. Rice bodies.
h. Synovial chondromatosis.
Which of the above may be polyarticular, and represents a secondary
metaplasia of synovium, often due to chronic osteoarthritis?
e. Osteocartilaginous loose bodies.
Which of the above is most often monoarticular, and represents a primary
de novo metaplasia or possible neoplasia of synovium?
h. Synovial chondromatosis.
Which intraarticular process listed above is composed of fibrin?
g. Rice bodies.
927.
Diagnostic set:
a. Intrathoracic desmoid tumor.
b. Malignant mesothelioma, sarcomatoid type.
c. Sarcomatoid carcinoma.
Which tumor may present either as a localized mass or diffuse pleural
thickening and is composed of spindled cells which show strong positive
234
Pathology Questions
MCQs
staining with bcl-2, variable/patchy staining for cytokeratin and

calretinin, and negative staining for CD34?
Which tumor presents as a large pleural-based mass and is composed of
spindled cells in a collagenous background which show positive staining
for CD34 nad bcl-2 and lack staining with cytokeratin and calretinin?
Which tumor presents as multiple pleural nodules or diffuse pleural
thickening and is composed of spindled cells which are diffusely and
strongly positive with cytokeratin, variably positive for calretinin, and
negative for bcl-2 and CD34?
b. Malignant mesothelioma, sarcomatoid type.
928.
Which diagnosis implies the most aggressive natural history: (PIP 2005 C)
a. Carcinoid.
b. Goblet cell carcinoid.
c. Mixed carcinoid-adenocarcinoma.
d. Tubular carcinoid.
929.
Which is most reliable feature for the light microscopic distinction

between tubular carcinoid and mixed endocrine-adenocarcinoma? (PIP
2005 C)
a. Chromogranin expression.
b. Cytologic, especially nuclear, atypia.
c. Cytoplasmic.
d. Desmoplastic response.
930.
Which anatomic location is associated with the most favorable prognosis

for carcinoid and related tumors? (PIP 2005 C)
a. Appendix.
b. Colon.
c. Small bowel.
235
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. There is no difference.
931.
Diagnostic set:
a. Acute chorioamnionitis.
b. Acute villitis.
c. Chorangiosis.
d. Hemorrhagic endovasculitis.
e. Meconium staining.
f. Villitis of unkown etiology.
Which entity is characterized by chronic inflammation, including plasma
cells in the villi, and may recur in subsequent pregnancies?
Cytomegalovirus, Rubella, Herpes simplex virus, Parvovirus B19,
Treponema pallidum, Listeria monocytogenes, and Escherichia coli may
be responsible for which entity?
b. Acute villitis.
Which entity is the most common form of villitis?
932.
Patients with intravascular lymphoma present clinically with neurological

signs due to which of the following? (PIP 2005 D)
a. Hemorrhages.
b. Infarcts.
c. Intraparenchymal infiltration.
d. Secondary (opportunistic) infection.
e. Vasculitis.
236
Pathology Questions
933.
MCQs
Which of the following is the most important histologic finding in

intravascular lymphoma? (PIP 2005 D)
a. Distended vessels.
b. Fibrin and platelet thrombi.
c. Immunoreactivity of neoplastic cells to factor VIII.
d. Intravascular proliferation of large B-cells.
e. Perivascular inflammation.
934.
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of intravascular

lymphoma? (PIP 2005 D)
a. Association with HIV positivity.
b. Peak occurrence in childhood.
c. Predominantly cerebral and cutaneous involvement.
d. Presentation with mass effect and enhancement on imaging.
e. Relatively favorable prognosis.
935.
Diagnostic set:
a. Alveolar soft part sarcoma.
c. Hemangiopericytoma/Solitary fibrous tumor of soft tissue.
d. Leiomyosarcoma.
e. Perivascular epithelioid cell tumor (PEComa).
Which tumor is has the characteristic cytogenetic abnormality
der(17)t(X;17)?
a. Alveolar soft part sarcoma.
Which tumor is typically positive for CD34 and CD117 (c-kit)?
237
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which tumor expresses smooth muscle actin and melanocytic markers

including HMB-45?
e. Perivascular epithelioid cell tumor (PEComa).
936.
Diagnostic set:
a. Carcinoma with thymic-like elements (CASTLE).
b. Germ cell tumor.
e. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
g. Thymic carcinoma.
h. Thymoma.
Which entity often arises from pleura and is richly collagenized?
Which entity occurs in multiple microscopic variants and may be
associated with autoimmune disorders?
h. Thymoma.
Which lesion is usually anatomically associated with thyroid disease?
a. Carcinoma with thymic-like elements (CASTLE).
937.
the following diagnostic set (an answer may be used once more than once,
Diagnostic set:
a. Desmoplastic small round cell tumor (DSRCT).
b. Dysgerminoma.
238
Pathology Questions
MCQs

d. Malignant melanoma.
e. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
f. Ovarian small cell carcinoma, hypercalcemic type (OSCCHT).
g. Ovarian small cell carcinoma, pulmonary type.
Which neoplasm is typically OCT3/4 positive?
b. Dysgerminoma.
Which neoplasm occurs in teens and 20s and is immunopositive for
inhibin?
Which neoplasm is commonly bilateral, occurs in postmenopausal women
and may be associated with a paraneoplastic endocrine hormone
syndrome?
g. Ovarian small cell carcinoma, pulmonary type.
938.
Diagnostic set:
b. Focal nodular hyperplasia.
c. Hepatic adenoma.
d. Hepatocellular carcinoma, fibrolammelar type.
e. Nodular regenerative hyperplasia.
f. Primary biliart cirrhosis.
Which lesion is a diffuse nodular transformation of the entire liver due to
heterogenous blood flow?
239
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which lesion most commonly consists of a solitary tumor due to aberrant

blood flow?
Which hepatocellular neoplasm shows no gender bias?
d. Hepatocellular carcinoma, fibrolammelar type.
939.
Diagnostic set:
b. Extranodular marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of mucosaassociated lymphoid tissue (MALT lymphoma).
c. Follicular lymphoma, grade 2.
d. Mantle cell lymphoma.
e. Small lymphocytic lymphoma.
Which typically CD5 negative lymphoma may have reactivemlymphoid
follicles, plasmacytic differentiation and lymphoepithelial lesions?
b. Extranodular marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of mucosaassociated lymphoid tissue (MALT lymphoma).
Which lymphoma typically demonstrates CD5 and cyclin-D1 positivity?
Which lymphoma would be expected to express both CD10 and Bcl-6?
c. Follicular lymphoma, grade 2.
940.
Which of the following favors the diagnosis of meningioma over

meningeal hemangiopericytoma? (PIP 2005 D)
a. Young age at presentation.
b. Lytic bony involvement.
240
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Lack of nuclear pseudoinclusions.

d. Expression of CD34 and absence of epithelial membrane antigen
by immunohistochemistry.
e. Allelic losses on 22q in the region of NF2 gene.
941.
Which of the following favors a diagnosis of angiosarcoma over

epithelioid hemangioendothelioma of the liver? (PIP 2005 D)
a. Grossly appears as a hemorrhagic tumor with solid and cystic
areas.
b. Tumor calcification.
c. Central area of the tumor is often fibrotic and paucicellular.
d. Marked predilection for invading vascular structures such as
portal and central veins, often mimicking vascular thrombosis.
e. Immunohistochemical expression of endothelial markers like
CD31 and factor VIII.
942.
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of solitary fibrous

tumor? (PIP 2005 D)
a. Pleural location.
b. Alternating hypercellular and paucicellular areas.
c. Bland spindle cells with broad zones of hyalinized collagen.
d. CD34 expression by immunohistochemistry.
e. Aggressive clinical behavior.
943.
Diagnostic set:
a. Hydrops placentalis.
b. Mesenchymal dysplasia.
c. Metabolic storage disorder.
d. Partial hydatidiform mole.
241
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which entity is characterized by massive enlargement of the placenta,

diffuse villous edema and fetal hydrops?
944.
Which entity is characterized by marked placental enlargement, chorionic

vascular abnormalities and cystic villous edema with approximately 50%
of cases also having associated findings suggestive of BeckwithWiedermann syndrome?
b. Mesenchymal dysplasia.
945.
Which entity may be caused by Parvovirus B19 infection?

946.
Diagnostic set:
a. Infantile fibromatosis, cellular type.
b. Infantile fibrosarcoma.
c. Infantile hemangiopericytoma.
d. Infantile myofibromatosis.
f. Spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma (embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma,
spindle cell type).
Which tumor in a 6-month-old child has a pattern of uniform spindle cells
in tightly packed fascicles with focal areas of a complex network of thin
walled sinusoidal blood vessels and shows a t(12;15)(p13;q25) and/or
fusion gene ETV6-NTRK3 by RT-PCR?
242
Pathology Questions
947.
MCQs
Which spindle cell tumor in an 18-month-old child may have a prominent

background of mostly lymphocytes and plasma cells and is positive for
ALK1 and/or p80?
948.
Which tumor has uniform spindle cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm,

variable amounts of collagen and is vimentin (+), cytokeratin(-), EMA(-),
desmin(+) and myogenin(+)?
f.Spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma (embryonal
rhabdomyosarcoma,spindle cell type).
949.
Diagnostic set:
a. Acute myeloid leukemia.
b. Acute septic splenitis.
c. Chronic myelogenous leukemia.
d. Extramedullary hematopoiesis.
e. Extramedullary myeloid tumor/ granulocytic sarcoma.
f. Hairy cell leukemia.
g. Hodgkin lymphoma.
h. Splenic marginal zone B-cell lymphoma.
Which of the above is a cause of massive splenomegaly and is associated
with t(9;22)?
c. Chronic myelogenous leukemia.
Which of the above is a cause of massive splenomegaly and shows marked
red pulp expansion by a CD11c(+), CD20(+), CD25(+) population?
f. Hairy cell leukemia.
243
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which of the above involves the spleen in a nodular fashion and shows
rare CD30(+), CD15(+) cells in a polymorhic inflammatory background?
g. Hodgkin lymphoma.
950.
Which of the following is considered noninvasive? (PIP 2006 B)

a. Adenocarcinoma, primary pulmonary.
b. Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma, nonmucinous type.
c. Metastatic renal cell carcinoma.
d. Mucinous (colloid) adenocarcinoma, primary pulmonary.
e. All of the above are invasive.
951.
Which of the following is typically negative for BOTH TTF-1 and CDX2?
(PIP 2006 B)
b. Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma, mucinous type.
c. Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma, nonmucinous type.
e. Metastatic colonic adenocarcinoma.
952.
Which entity is most likely to be TTF-1 negative, cytokeratin 7 negative

and CDX2 positive? (PIP 2006 B)
b. Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma,mucinous type.
c. Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma, nonmucinous type.
e. Metastatic colon adenocarcinoma.
953.
Which of the following meningioma subtype is considered to be WHO

Grade I? (PIP 2006 B)
a. Chordoid meningioma.
b. Clear cell meningioma.
c. Microcytic meningioma.
d. Papillary meningioma.
244
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Rhabdoid meningioma.
954.
The estimated 5-year recurrence rate for totally resected WHO Grade II
(atypical) meningioma is: (PIP 2006 B)
a. 20%.
b. 40%.
c. 60%.
d. 80%.
e. 100%.
955.
Multiple meningiomas commonly accompany which of the following

syndromes? (PIP 2006 B)
a. Li-Fraumeni.
b. Neurofibromatosis, type 1.
c. Neurofibromatosis, type 2.
d. Tuberous sclerosis.
e. Von-Hippel Lindau.
956.
Which are the most important prognostic features of Wilms tumor? (PIP
2006 B)
a. Stage.
b. Histology.
c. Age and MYC-N expression.
d. A & B.
e. A, B and C.
957.
Which of the following antigens may react in Wilms tumor? (PIP 2006 B)
a. Vimentin and perhaps cytokeratin.
b. Vimentin, cytokeratin and EMA.
c. NSE and synaptophysin.
d. CD99.
245
Pathology Questions
958.
MCQs
Which of the following tumors are likely to be considered in the

differential diagnosis of blatesmal-rich Wilms tumor? (PIP 2006 B)
a. Primary
renal
neuroblastoma
and
peripheral
primitive
neuroectodermal tumor (PNET).

b. Malignant rhabdoid tumor of kidney.
c. Clear cell sarcoma of kidney.
d. Congenital mesoblastic nephroma.
e. B, C and D.
959.
all): (PIP 2006 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Elastofibroma.
b. Fibrolipoma.
c. Neurofibroma.
d. Nuchal-type fibroma.
e. Scar.
Which lesion is occasionally associated with Gardner syndrome?
d. Nuchal-type fibroma.
Which lesion favors the shoulder and posterior neck of middle-aged men?
Which lesion contains increased and abnormal elastic fibers?
a. Elastofibroma.
960.
all): (PIP 2006 B)
Diagnostic set:
246
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Adrenal medullary hyperplasia.

b. Adrenal pseudocyst.
c. Ganglioneuroma.
e. Neuroblastoma.
f. Pheochromocytoma.
Which condition may arise as a consequence of maturation or
differentiation of another entity in the diagnostic set?
c.Ganglioneuroma.
Which entity is among the most common neoplasms?
e.Neuroblastoma.
Which is the most common malignant neoplasm occuring in the adult
adrenal gland?
961.
all): (PIP 2006 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Adenosarcoma.
b. Carcinosarcoma (malignant mixed mllerian tumor).
c. Endometrial stromal sarcoma, low grade.
e. Leiomyosarcoma.
f. Serous carcinoma.
Which tumor most commonly contains heterologous elements?
b. Carcinosarcoma (malignant mixed mllerian tumor).
247
Pathology Questions
MCQs
In which tumor is benign appearing squamous metaplasia most

commonly obsereved?
Which tumor characteristically exhibits a histological growth pattern
similar to that of phyllodes tumor of the breast?
a.Adenosarcoma.
962.
all): (PIP 2006 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Hibernoma.
b. Lipoblastoma.
c. Lipofibromatosis (Infantile Fibromatosis).
d. Lipoma.
The cytogenetic finding of t(12;16) is associated with which entity?
Which entity may show progressive maturation with each recurrence?
b. Lipoblastoma.
Which entity is subclassified based on the tissue or site involved by the
tumor?
b. Lipoblastoma.
963.
Xanthogranulomatous
pyelonephritis
is
probably
caused
by
combination of urinary tract obstruction and infection. Which

organism(s) are isolated most frequently? (PIP 2006 B)
a. E.coli or Proteus mirabilis.
b. Staphylococcus aureus.
248
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Klebsiella species.
d. Pseudomonas species.
964.
Features that will favor a diagnosis of XPN over clear cell RCC include:
(PIP 2006 B)
a. Numerous
macrophages
with
target-like
intracytoplasmic
inclusions or Michaelis-Gutmann bodies.

b. A C.T Scan that shows an 8 cm. renal mass.
c. A zonal pattern of inflammation with central acute inflammation,
clusters of foamy histiocytes, fibrosis and giant cells.
d. Positive immunohistochemichal stains for cytokeratin and EMA.
965.
all):
Diagnostic set:
c. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor.
Which entity most commonly occurs in menopausal and postmenopausal
women and is the most likely tumor to be associated with estrogenic
manifestations?
Which entity most commonly occurs in younger women and may be
associated with virilization?
c. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor.
Which entity typically positive for epithelial membrane antigen?
249
Pathology Questions
966.
MCQs
all): (PIP 2006 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Caroli disease.
b. Caroli syndrome.
c. Choledochal cyst.
e. Polycystic liver disease.
Which of the above is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner and is
not associated with grossly visible hepatic cysts?
Which of the above is almost invariably associated with autosomal
dominant polycystic kidney disease?
e. Polycystic liver disease.
Which of the above shows cystic dilation of interlobular and segmental
bile ducts, often presents with recurrent colangitis, and microscopically
does not show evidence of congenital hepaticfibrosis?
a. Caroli disease.
967.
all): (PIP 2006 B)
Diagnostic set:
a. Gaucher disease.
b. Histiocytic sarcoma.
d. Interdigitating dindritic cell sarcoma.
e. Langerhans cell histiocytes.
f. Sinus histiotitis with massive lymphadenopathy (Rosai Dorfman
disease).
250
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which tumor shows birbeck granules by electron microscopy?

e. Langerhans cell histiocytes.
Which tumor is characterized by an S-100 positive, fascin positive,
vimentin positive, CD68 positive phenotype:
d. Interdigitating dindritic cell sarcoma.
Which tumor is characterized by cells that have fibrillary cytoplasm and
stain faintly with PAS?
a. Gaucher disease.
968.
all): (PIP 2006 C)
Diagnostic set:
a. Cirrhosis due to alpha1 antitrypsin deficiency.
b. Cirrhosis due to amiodarone toxicity.
c. Cirrhosis due to autoimmune hepatitis.
d. Cirrhosis due to steatohepatitis.
e. Cirrhosis due to Wilson disease.
Which is least likely to be associated with mallory hyaline?
c. Cirrhosis due to autoimmune hepatitis.
Which can be regarded as a model of protein conformational disease?
Which is related to mutations of the SERPINA gene on chromosome 15?
251
Pathology Questions
969.
MCQs
all): (PIP 2006 C)
Diagnostic set:
a. Paraganglioma.
b. Small cell carcinoma.
c. Thymic carcinoid.
d. Thymic carcinoma.
e. Thymoma.
Which tumor occurs more commonly in the middle or posterior
mediastinal, is positive for neuroendocrine markers but is typically
negative for cytokeratin?
a.Paraganglioma.
Which tumor occurs in the anterior mediatinum, is positive for
neuroendocrine markers and cytokeratin, has a low mitotic rate and may
be associated with cushing's syndrome?
c. Thymic carcinoid.
970.
Which tumor occurs as an anterior mediastinal mass, shows lobular

growth with admixed lymphocyles, and is positive for keratin while being
negative for chromogranin and synaptophysin?
e. Thymoma.
971.
all):
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiomyolipoma.
b. Collecting duct cracinoma.
c. Juxtaglomerular cell tumor.
d. Metanephric adenoma.
252
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Mucinous tubular and spindle cell carcinoma of kidney(MTSCC).

f. Renal cell carcinoma with sarcomatoid differentiation.
Which
tumor
possesses
rhamboid-shaped
renin
granules
ultrastructurally?
c. Juxtaglomerular cell tumor.
Which tumor typically expresses HMB-45 in neoplastic cells?
a.Angiomyolipoma.
Which tumor frequently has psammoma bodies in the stroma?
d. Metanephric adenoma.
972.
all): (PIP 2006 C)
Diagnostic set:
a. Amyloidosis.
b. Cirrhosis due to steatohepatitis.
c. Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma.
d. Venous outflow obstruction with extensive fibrosis (cardiac
cirrhosis).
Which condition does not feature perisinusoidal connective tissue
deposition?
Which non-neoplastic entity typically involves the entire hepatic acinus
(i.e: nonzonal)?
a. Amyloidosis.
Which entity is not associated with portal hypertension?
253
Pathology Questions
973.
MCQs
all): (PIP 2006 C)
Diagnostic set:
b. Fibrosarcoma.
c. Hemangiopericytoma.
d. Leiomyosarcoma.
e. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor.
f. Poorly differentiated synovial sarcoma.
Which tumor is most commonly associated with NF 1 deletions?
Which tumor is an (X;18) fusion protein characteristic?
f. Poorly differentiated synovial sarcoma.
Which malignant tumor often arises in the retroperitoneum in adults?
d. Leiomyosarcoma.
974.
Which of the following is not true about herpes simplex virus hepatitis?
a. Can affect immunocompetent adults.
b. Often follows a rapidly progressive course.
c. Histological findings are often indistinguishable from adenoviral
hepatitis.
d. Marked lymphoplasmacytic inflammation is common.
e. Necrosis is often extensive and non-zonal.
975.
Which of the following statements about acetaminophen toxicity is not

correct?
a. It is the most common cause of fulminant hepatic failure in the US.
b. Chronic alcohol use can enhance hepatotoxicity of acetaminophen.
254
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Necrosis most often occurs in a non-zonal distribution.

d. Histological distinction from ischemic necrosis can be difficult.
e. Sinusoidal dilatation and congestion can be seen in the centrizonal
areas.
976.
All the following are true about Wilson disease except:

a. Presentation after 50 years of age is uncommon.
b. 24-hour urinary copper is markedly elevated in fulminant disease.
c. Normal ceruloplasmin levels can be seen in around 10% of cases.
d. Absence of copper on histochemical stains rules out Wilson
disease.
e. Quantitative copper levels from the paraffin block is the most
accurate method of assessing hepatic copper.
977.
all): (PIP 2006 C)
Diagnostic set:
a. Brenner tumor.
b. Endometrioid adenofibroma.
d. Mucinous cystadenoma.
e. Metastatic carcinoma.
Which entity is characterized by bland, stratified, typically non-mucin
containing glands in a fibromatous stroma that may be associated with
squamous morules?
b. Endometrioid adenofibroma.
Which entity may have solid nests of epithelial cells that stain positively
for uroplakin III, cystic cavities containing eosinophilic secretions and a
fibromatous stroma?
a. Brenner tumor.
255
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which entity is frequently found in association with a Brenner tumor?

d. Mucinous cystadenoma.
978.
all): (PIP 2006 C)
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiosarcoma.
c. Epithelioid hemangioma.
d. Granulation tissue.
e. Kaposi sarcoma.
f. Lobular capillary hemangioma.
Which lesion contains hyaline globules and extravasated red cells?
e. Kaposi sarcoma.
Which lesion is non-neoplastic, caused by Bartonella species, and
responsive to antibiotics?
Which lesion is malignant and not associated with HIV/AIDS?
a. Angiosarcoma.
979.
Which of the following is not significant in the diagnosis of glioblastoma?

(PIP 2006 D)
a. High cell density.
b. Mitotic activity.
c. Necrosis.
d. Vascular proliferation.
256
Pathology Questions
980.
MCQs
Which molecular marker would most likely show an abnormality in

recurrent high-grade astrocytoma with gemistocytic features? (PIP 2006
D)
a. EWS-Fli 1 gene fusion PCR.
b. Loss of heterozygosity of PTEN locus (10q.23).
c. MYCC amplification analysis.
d. OTX2 amolification.
981.
What is the patient's expected 5-year survival in recurrent high-grade

astrocytoma with gemistocytic features (WHO grade III-IV)? (PIP 2006 D)
a. 2%.
b. 25%.
c. 50%.
d. 75%.
982.
all): (PIP 2006 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Acute fibrinous and organizing pneumonia.
b. Acute lobar pneumonia.
c. Diffuse alveolar damage.
d. Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage with capillaritis.
e. Eosiniphilic pneumonia.
Which entity is characterized by prominent eosiniphils, intra-alveolar
fibrin and macrophages?
e. Eosiniphilic pneumonia.
Which entity is characterized by intra-alveolar hemosiderin-laden
macrophages and neutrophilic infiltrates located predominantly in the
alveolar septa?
d. Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage with capillaritis.
257
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which entity is characterized by hyaline membrane formation and

sparse/absent inflammatory cell infiltrates?
c. Diffuse alveolar damage.
983.
Which of the following is true regarding spermatocytic seminoma? (PIP

2006 D)
a. One of the most common germ cell tumors in adolescence.
b. Commonly associated with IGCNU.
c. One of the most common germ cell tumors in cryptorchid testes.
d. Generally has an excellent prognosis except in the rare
circumstance when it is associated with a sarcomatous component.
984.
Seminoma, classic type may be differentiated from spermatocytic

seminoma by all of the following criteria except: (PIP 2006 D)
a. Seminoma, classic type is commonly associated with IGCNU and
other germ cell types.
b. The neoplastic cells in seminoma, classic type, commonly have
abundant cytoplasmic glycogen and are usually diffusely positive
for OCT .
c. The neoplastic cells of seminoma, classic type are characteristically
a polymorphous population of small, medium and large cells.
d. Seminoma, classic type commonly has a prominent lymphocytic
infiltrate and occasional granulomatous stromal reaction.
985.
Which of the following tumors shows an alveolar growth pattern with

strong nuclear staining for Myo-D1 and cytoplasmic staining for desmin?
(PIP 2006 D)
b. Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.
d. Leiomyosarcoma.
258
Pathology Questions
986.
MCQs
Which of the following tumors shows rhomboid crystal formation on

electron microscopy? (PIP 2006 D)
b. Alveolar soft part sarcoma.
c. Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.
d. Paraganglioma.
987.
Which of the following immunohistochemical stains is most specific for

alveolar soft part sarcoma?
a. S-100 protein.
b. Smooth muscle actin.
c. Cytokeratin AE1/3.
d. TFE-3.
988.
all): (PIP 2006 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma.
b. Intramuscular myxoma.
c. Low-grade fibromyxoid sarcoma.
d. Myxofibrosarcoma.
f. Myxoid neurothekeoma (nerve sheath myxoma).
Which tumor is characterized by myxoid stroma that is chonroitin
sulfate-rich instead of hyaluronic acid-rich and shows chromosomal
rearrangements involving 9q22 resulting in NR4A3 fusion gene?
a. Extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma.
Which lesion prefers the cervicofascial areas of young women and is A100 protein immunoreactive?
f. Myxoid neurothekeoma (nerve sheath myxoma).
259
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which lesion may be associated with precocious puberty and fibrous

dysplasia?
b. Intramuscular myxoma. (often as part of McCune-Albright
syndrome).
989.
all): (PIP 2006 D)
Diagnostic set:
c. Sex-cord stromal tumor with annular tubules.
d. Small cell carcinoma, hypercalcemic type.
Which
tumor
is
most
commonly
associated
with
estrogenic
manifestations?
Which entity most often has spread beyond the ovary at the time of
presentation and typically occurs in young women?
Which entity may be associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?
c. Sex-cord stromal tumor with annular tubules.
990.
all): (PIP 2006 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Eighth nerve (acoustic) schwannoma.
b. Neurothekeoma (nervev sheath myxoma).
c. Plexiform fibrohistiocytic tumor.
260
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Plexiform neurofibroma.
e. Plexiform schwannoma.
Which lesion demonstrates expression of CD68 and smooth muscle actin?
c. Plexiform fibrohistiocytic tumor.
Which lesion is the most likely to occur in association with a genetic
disorder involving chromosome 22?
a. Eighth nerve (acoustic) schwannoma.
Which lesion is most strongly associated with neurofibromatosis type 1
(NF1)?
d. Plexiform neurofibroma.
991.
diagnostic set(an answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all):
(PIP 2006 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Atypical leiomyoma.
b. Leiomyosarcoma.
c. Lipoleiomyoma.
d. Lipoma.
Which tumor is characterized by the admixture of adipocytes and smooth
muscle?
c. Lipoleiomyoma.
Which tumor is characterized by cytologically atypical cells but
infrequent mitoses?
Which tumor typically exhibits the presence of coagulative necrosis of
neoplastic cells and mitotic figures?
261
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Leiomyosarcoma.
992.
All of the following are true of paraganglioma of the cauda equina, except:
(PIP 2007 B)
a. Cytoplasm of tumor cells is GFAP positive.
b. May be cytokeratin positive.
c. May show ganglionic differentiation.
d. Sustentacular cells are S100 positive.
e. Ultrastructural features show neurosecretory granules.
993.
Which of the following characteristics are unique to paragangliomas of

the cauda equina? (PIP 2007 B)
a. EM shows filament skeins, intercellular microvilli, and numerous
zonula adherens junctional complexes.
b. May show ganglionic differentiation and cytokeratin positivity.
c. NSE is positive in a cytoplasmic distribution.
d. May secrete neuropeptides.
994.
Which of the following is true in distinguishing paraganglioma from

myxopapillary ependymoma? (PIP 2007 B)
a. Although both tumors may express GFAP, the stain shows
predominance in the sustentacular cells of paragangliomas and the
tumor cells of ependymomas.
b. Electron microscopy of myxopapillary ependymoma shows
neurosecretory granules.
c. Ependymomas show a characteristic zellballen configuration.
d. Myxopapillary
ependymomas
characteristically
express
synaptophysin and chromogranin.

995.
Diagnostic set:
262
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Myxoid liposarcoma.
c. Neurofibroma.
e. Spindle cell lipoma.
Which entity is typically a rapidly growing process characterized by cells
with a tissue culture appearance and extravasated red blood cells?
Which entity is a slowly growing well circumscribed tumor that is
composed of a mixture of mature adipocytes and spindle cells and is
typically positive for CD34?
e. Spindle cell lipoma.
Which tumor is characterized by mitotically active CD34 positive spindle
cells arranged in a storiform pattern with an infiltrative border?
996.
Diagnostic set:
a. Adenosarcoma.
b. Cellular leiomyoma.
d. Intravenous leiomyomatosis.
e. Leiomyosarcoma.
f. Undifferentiated uterine sarcoma.
g. Uterine tumor resembling ovarian sex cord tumor.
Which tumor exhibits periglandular cuffing by malignant stromal cells?
a. Adenosarcoma.
263
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which tumor is composed of monotonus cells with round-to-oval nuclei,

contains blood vessels resembling spiral arterioles and typically exhibits a
CD10(+), h-caldesmon (-), desmin(-) immunophenotype?
Which tumor is most likely to exhibit prominent staining for alphainhibin, CD99, and or calretinin?
g. Uterine tumor resembling ovarian sex cord tumor.
997.
Diagnostic set:
a. Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.
b. Desmoplastic small round cell tumor.
c. Ewing's sarcoma/primitive neuroectodermal tumor.
e. Metastatic small cell carcinoma.
f. Neuroblastoma.
Which tumor is typically characterized by an immunohistochemical
profile of CD99(+), CD43(+), CD34(+), CD10(+), CD79a(+)?
Which tumor frequently shows the translocation t(2'13)(q35;q14)?
Which tumor typically arises within the peritoneal cavity of adolescent
males?
264
Pathology Questions
998.
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Choriocarcinoma.
c. Seminoma.
d. Sertoli cell tumor.
e. Yolk sac tumor.
Which adult testicular germ cell tumor characteristically has the following
immunohistochemical profile: PLAP(+), CD117(+), CD30(-), AFP(-) and
inhibin(-)?
c. Seminoma.
immunohistochemical
profile:
AFP(+),
AE1/AE3(+),
CD30(-)
and
OCT3/4(-)?
e. Yolk sac tumor.
immunohistochemical
profile:
PLAP(+),
OCT3/4(+),
CD30(+),
AE1/AE3(+), inhibin(-)?
999.
Diagnostic set:
b. Endometrial stromal nodule.
d. Epithelioid leiomyosarcoma.
265
Pathology Questions
MCQs
An epithelioid, desmin(+), caldesmon(+), 3.0 cm well-circumscribed

uterine tumor with no necrosis, no cytologic atypia and a mitotic count<3
mitoses per 10 high power fields is best classified as what type of tumor?
An epithelioid, desmin(+), caldesmon(+), 10.0cm well-circumscribe
uterine tumor with multifocal cytologic atypia duscernible at low power
and mitotic count of 5 mitoses per 10 high power fields is best classified
as what type of tumor?
An epithelioid, desmin(+), caldesmon(+), infiltrative uterine tumor with
bland cytomorphology and mitotic count of 5 mitoses per 10 high power
fields is best classified as what type of tumor?
1000. For each of the following questions choose the most likely diagnosis from
Diagnostic set:
a. Acute cellular allograft rejection.
b. Acute tubular necrosis.
c. Chronic allograft nephropathy.
d. Cyclosporine/tacrolimus toxicity.
e. Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder.
Which condition shows non-specific changes of interstitial fibrosis and
tubular atrophy?
c. Chronic allograft nephropathy.
Which condition is graded according to severity of tubulitis or arteritis?
a. Acute cellular allograft rejection.
266
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which condition shows a predominantly B-cell infiltrate?

e. Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder.
Diagnostic set:
a. Cardiac myxoma.
b. Hemangioma.
c. Organizing mural thrombus.
d. Papillary fibroelastoma.
The findings of benign mucin-producing cytokeratin 6 positive glands and
extramedullary hematopoiesis have been described in this entity:
a. Cardiac myxoma.
Which entity most often involves the cardiac valves?
d. Papillary fibroelastoma.
Which entity may present as an intracavitary mass which usually involves
the ventricles?
b. Hemangioma.
Diagnostic set:
a. Fibrous dysplasia.
b. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma of bone.
c. Mesenchymal chondrosarcoma.
d. Osteoid osteoma.
e. Osteosarcoma.
267
Pathology Questions
MCQs
f. Reactive changes secondary to infection.

Which entity is a well circumscribed lesion composed of various
proportions of fibrous and osseous elements. The osseous component is
represented by irregular, curvilinear, discontinuous trabeculae of woven
(or rarely lamellar) bone with no osteoblastic rimming?
a. Fibrous dysplasia.
Which entity frequently complicates preexisting osseous lesions (i.e:
radiation damage, Paget disease, cartilaginous neoplasms, and rarely
bone infarcts) and is microscopically composed of pleomorphicspindle
cells arranged in a storiform pattern and not associated with tumoral
osteoid formation?
b. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma of bone.
Which entity is most often associated in later life with an underlying
primary pathologic cindition of bone such as fibrous dysplasia or Paget
disease?
e. Osteosarcoma.
1003. For each of the following questions choose the most likely diagnosis
than once, or not at all). (PIP 2007 C)
Diagnostic set:
b. Angimyofibroblastoma.
c. Myxoid leiomyoma.
d. Myxoid neurofibroma.
Which myxoid tumor may be locally aggressive and is characterized by
bland
stellate-shaped,
muscle
specific
actin
immunoreactive
mesenchymal cells in an abundant myxoid stroma containing thick-walled

blood vessels?
268
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which tumor is well circumscribed, usually does not recur after excision,
and is characterized by epithelioid cells clustered around capillary sized
blood cells?
b. Angimyofibroblastoma.
Which tumor shows interlacing fascicles of wavy buckled elongated
cells in asoociation with strands of collagen (shredded carrots) within a
myxomatous background with no mitoses and can be associated with
mutations involving the long arm of chromosome 17?
c. Myxoid leiomyoma.
1004. Which of the following is true of immunophenotype of renal cell
carcinoma? (PIP 2007 C)
a. Both CK7 and CK20 are usually positive in clear cell renal cell
carcinoma.
b. RCC antigen I is expressed in nearly 100% of clear cell renal cell
carcinoma.
c. Vimentin is negative in most cases of chromophobe renal cell
carcinoma.
d. CD10 is negative in most cases of papillary renal cell carcinoma.
1005. Which of the following tumors typically lacks expression of the
transcription factor CDX-2 by immunohistochemistry? (PIP 2007 C)
a. Preampullary adenocarcinoma.
b. Colorectal adenocarcinoma.
c. Cholangiocarcinoma.
d. Gastric adenocarcinoma.
1006. Which of the following is true about immunohistochemical distinction of
clear cell renal cell carcinoma and adrenocortical carcinoma?
a. Expression of vimentin favors clear cell renal cell carcinoma.
269
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Chromogranin and synaptophysin are generally positive in

adrenocortical carcinoma.
c. Cytokeratin is expressed in clear cell renal cell carcinoma but is
usually not expressed in adrenocortical carcinoma.
d. Expression of melan A and inhibin is often seen in both tumors.
Diagnostic set:
a. Clear cell tumor of the lung.
c. Malakoplakia.
d. Metastatic renal cell carcinoma.
e. Mycobacterial pseudotumor.
f. Pulmonary cryptococcosis.
Which entity is typically encountered in immunocompromised individuals
and is associated with Rhodococcus equii infection?
c. Malakoplakia.
Which entity is composed of clear cells which are positive for HMB-45?
a. Clear cell tumor of the lung.
Which entity may produce a wide spectrum of histologic change including
granulomas, fibrohistiocytic masses, histiocytic infiltrates and mucoid
pneumonia?
e. Mycobacterial pseudotumor.
Diagnostic set:
270
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Cystic islet cell neoplasm.

b. Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm.
c. Mucinous cystic neoplasm (mucinous cystadenoma).
d. Pancreatic pseudocyst.
e. Serous cystadenoma.
f. Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm of the pancreas.
Which of the above entities is not a neoplasm?
d. Pancreatic pseudocyst.
Which entity features ovarian-type spindle cell stroma, which is often
positive for estrogen and progesterone receptors?
c. Mucinous cystic neoplasm (mucinous cystadenoma).
Frozen section analysis of the pancreatic duct margin is most important
for which entity?
b. Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm.
Diagnostic set:
a. Adenosarcoma.
b. Endometrial stromal sarcoma with sex cord-like elements.
c. Endometrioid adenocarcinoma with prominent spindle cell
component.
f. Mucinous tumor of ovary with mural nodule.
g. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor with heterologous elements.
Which tumor can have an epithelial component, but also experesses
alpha-inhibin and calretinin?
g. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor with heterologous elements.
271
Pathology Questions
Which
of
the
MCQs
above
periglandularstromal
is
cuffs
biphasic
and
polypoid
tumor
that
may
intraglandular
have
stromal
projections?
a. Adenosarcoma.
Which tumor occurs predominantly in young patients and is
characterized by tubule-like structures that stain positively for GFAP, NSE
and neurofilament protein?
Diagnostic set:
a. Carcinoid tumor.
b. Metanephric adenofibroma.
c. Metanephric adenoma.
e. Wilm's tumor.
Which tumor most likely demonstrates gains of chromosomes 7 and 17?
Which tumor is most likely to show abnormalities of chromosome 1?
e. Wilm's tumor.
Which tumor would typically show an immunophenotype of EMA(+),
cytokeratin 7(+), AMACR(+) and WTI(-)?
c. Metanephric adenoma.
272
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
c. Granular cell tumor.
d. Metastatic melanoma.
e. Metastatic renal cell carcinoma.
f. Paraganglioma.
Which entity is characterized by strong immunoreactivity for epithelial
membrane antigen and cytokeratins?
Which entity is characterized by membrane-bound, rhomboid crystals
that are periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) positive-diastase resistant?
Which entity is associated with a t(2;13)(q35;q14) translocation involving
the PAX3 gene?
Diagnostic set:
a. Clear cell carcinoma of the ovary.
b. Dysgerminoma.
c. Endometrioid carcinoma, secretory variant.
d. Metastatic renal cell carcinoma.
e. Yolk sac tumor.
Which of the above entities is most frequently associated with
endometriosis?
273
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Elevated alpha-fetoprotein levels and positive stainingfor AFP within

tumor cells characterize which of the above tumors?
e. Yolk sac tumor.
Which tumor is characterized by a papillary growth pattern with
prominent hyalinized stromal cores?
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Malignant phyllodes tumor.
c. Melanoma.
d. Metaplastic carcinoma.
e. Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma.
The presence of small foci of convevtional infiltrating ductal carcinoma of
ductal carcinoma in situ best supports which diagnosis?
d. Metaplastic carcinoma.
Which tumor displays a leaf-like architecture and a biphasic growth
pattern?
b. Malignant phyllodes tumor.
Which tumor occurs in a chronically lymhadematous arm, following
axillary node dissection?
a. Angiosarcoma.
1014. Which of the following features is required for the diagnosis of anplastic
meningioma? (PIP 2007 D)
274
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Brain invasion.
b. Geographic necrosis.
c. Greater than or equal to 20 mitotic figures per 10 high-power
fields.
d. Prominent nucleoli.
1015. Which of these meningioma varients is a WHO grade III tumor? (PIP 2007
D)
a. Clear cell.
b. Choroid.
c. Papillary.
d. Secretary.
1016. Which of the following is typically seen in meningiomas? (PIP 2007 D)
a. CD34 positivity.
b. EMA positivity.
c. Pericellular reticulin.
d. Strong GFAP reactivity.
than once, or not at all).
Diagnostic set:
a. Fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma.
c. Hepatocellular carcinoma, well differentiated.
d. Oncocytic carcinoid tumor.
e. Scirrhous hepatocellular carcinoma.
Hepatocellular lesion in which cytoplasmic pale bodies are most
frequently identified?
a. Fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma.
275
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Hepatocellular lesion that is most frequently associated with a central

scar containing large vessels?
Hepatocellular lesion that lacks a fibrous stromal component?
c. Hepatocellular carcinoma, well differentiated.
Diagnostic set:
a. Follicular dendritic cell tumor/sarcoma.
b. Interdigitating dendritic cell sarcoma.
c. Large B cell lymphoma.
d. Large cell neurodendritic carcinoma.
f. Thymoma.
Which neoplasm exhibits a paracortical pattern of growth in lymph nodes,
frank
cytologic
atypia,
keratin(-),
S100(+),
HMB-45(-)
immunophenotype, and ultrastrucutrally prominent cell processes

lacking chromosomes?
b. Interdigitating dendritic cell sarcoma.
Which tumor exhibts syncitial aggregates of benign appearingepithelioid
cells admixed with lymphocytes, prominent perivascular spaces, and a
keratin(+), S100(-), synaptophysin(-) immunophenotype?
f. Thymoma.
Which neoplasm typically shows tumor cells in whorls and fascicles
admixed with lymphocytes, expresses CD21, CD35 and clustering (keratin
and
HMB-45
negative)
and
ultrastrucutrally
shows
prominent
desmosome-rich cell processes?

276
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Follicular dendritic cell tumor/sarcoma.

Diagnostic set:
a. Follicular lymphoma.
d. Small lymphocytic lymphoma.
e. Splenic marginal zone lymphoma.
Which entity typically is CD20(+), CD5(+), CD23(-) and cyclin D1(+)?
Which entity typically forms splenic lakes, is CD103(+) and DBA44(+) and
often results in a dry tap bone marrow?
Which entity is typically CD5(-), CD10(-), CD23(-), CD43(-), CD103(-) and
DBA44(-), Bcl2(+) and cyclin D1(-)?
than once, or not at all). (PIP 2007 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Desmoplastic fibroma.
b. Fibromatosis.
c. Fibrosarcoma.
d. Post-radiation osteosarcoma, fibroblastic type.
e. Reactive/radiation changes.
277
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which vanishingly rare primary tumor of bone or soft tissue classically

displays a herringbone pattern?
c. Fibrosarcoma.
Which tumor is known for its infiltrative borders and high rate of local
reccurence but is without metastatic potential?
b. Fibromatosis.
Which tumor can occur years after radiation therapy and produces
osteoid by its malignant cells?
d. Post-radiation osteosarcoma, fibroblastic type.
Diagnostic set:
a. Clear cell carcinoma, oxyphilic variant.
b. Hepatoid carcinoma.
c. Hepatoid yolk sac tumor.
d. Steroid cell tumor.
Which ovarian neoplasm may show histologic evidence of bile production
and is immunohistochemically positive for AFP?
b. Hepatoid carcinoma.
Which ovarian neoplasm typically occurs in young women and is
immunohistochemically positive for AFP?
c. Hepatoid yolk sac tumor.
Which ovarian neoplasm is typically positive for inhibin and negative for
AFP?
d. Steroid cell tumor.
278
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
b. Leiomyosarcoma.
c. Malignant mixed cell Mllerian tumor.
e. Pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma.
Which tumor is the most common subtype of rhabdomyosarcoma in
children and in audlts?
Which variant of rhabdomyosarcoma occurs essentially only in adults?
e. Pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma.
Which tumor most commn presents in older women as a polypoid intrauterine mass?
c. Malignant mixed cell Mllerian tumor.
Diagnostic set:
a. Lymphoma, diffuse large B-cell.
b. Malignant melanoma, metastatic.
c. Multiple myeloma.
d. Plasmacytoma.
e. Rhabdomyosarcoma.
279
Pathology Questions
MCQs
This malignant neoplasm can display complex karyotypes but is best

known for translocations involving chromosomes 1, 2, and 13 (t(1;13)
or t(2;13)):
Patients with this malignant neoplasm can develop additional disorders
due to deposition of abnormal immunoglobulin chain (amyloid) in various
tissues:
c. Multiple myeloma.
Which tumor is the most common neoplasm of bone?
d. Plasmacytoma.
1024. Which lesion is thought to arise from the pancreatic duct system and is
often multifocal? (PIP 2007 D)
a. Intraductal papillary mucinous tumor.
b. Mucinous cystadenoma.
c. Pancreatic acinar cell carcinoma.
d. Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma.
e. Pancreatic endocrine carcinoma.
f. Pancreatoblastoma.
g. Solid-pseudopapillary tumor.
1025. Which lesion occurs in young women and may have a pseudo cystic
appearance on gross examination? (PIP 2007 D)
a. Intraductal papillary mucinous tumor.
b. Mucinous cystadenoma.
c. Pancreatic acinar cell carcinoma.
d. Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma.
e. Pancreatic endocrine carcinoma.
f. Pancreatoblastoma.
g. Solid-pseudopapillary tumor.
280
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
c. Cytomegalovirus pneumonia and Pnemocystis pneumonia.
d. Pnemocystis pneumonia.
e. Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis.
f. Pulmonary edema.
Which entity is characterized by coarse granular intra-alveolar exudates
which are typically PAS positive and may contain observable cholesterol
clefts?
e. Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis.
Which entity has a classic histologic pattern of frothy, vacuolated intraalveolar exudates but may also be associated with diffusealveolar damage
(DAD), interstitial exudates or minimal histologic changes?
d. Pnemocystis pneumonia.
Which entity is characterized by enlarged cells with intranuclear
eosinophilic inclusions and smaller intracytoplasmic inclusions?
1027. Which of the following is most likely to to show false negative staining for
mast cells? (PIP 2008 A)
a. Alcain Blue staining, performed on an air-dried touch prep.
b. Giemsa staining, performed on formalin-fixed paraffin embedded
tissue.
c. Immunohistochemical staining for human tryptase, performed on
anair-dried touch prep.
d. Toluidine Blue staining, performed on an alcohol-fixed touch prep.
281
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1028. Which of the following is not considered a diagnostic criterion of systemic

mastocytosis? (PIP 2008 A)
a. Anatomical distribution of mast cell aggregates.
b. Immunohistochemical staining of mast cells.
c. Morphologic features of mast cells.
d. Presence of additional clonal hematopoietic disorder/malignancy.
e. Serum total tryptase level.
1029. Which is the cause of non-cirrhotic portal hypertension?
a. Hepatic veno-occlusive disease.
b. Hereditary hemochromatosis.
c. Sarcoidosis.
d. Schistosomiasis.
e. Systemic mastocytosis.
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiofollicular hyperplasia (Castleman disease).
c. Lymphocyte-predominant thymoma.
d. Plasmacytoma.
e. Reactive follicular hyperplasia.
f. Regressing follicular hyperplasia.
Which entity is characterized by positive staining for CD20 and bcl?
Which entity has a preponderance of CD5 positive lymphoid cells
suggesting an abnormal proliferation of CD5 positive lymphocytes
stimulated by specific lymphokines as its possible histiogenesis?
a. Angiofollicular hyperplasia (Castleman disease).
282
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which entity may have Hassall's corpuscles and large cells positive for
cytokeratins?
c. Lymphocyte-predominant thymoma.
Diagnostic set:
a. Epithelioid sarcoma.
b. Hodgkin lymphoma.
c. Lymphoma, diffuse large B-cell type.
d. Melanoma.
Which
tumor
characteristically
shows
the
following
immunohistochemical profile: cytokeratin(+), vimentin(+), CD34(+), S100(-), CD45(-)?

a. Epithelioid sarcoma.
Which
tumor
characteristically
shows
the
following
immunohistochemical profile: cytokeratin(+), vimentin(+), S-100(-),

CD45(-), EMA(+), CD34(-)?
Which
tumor
characteristically
shows
the
following
immunohistochemical profile: cytokeratin(-), vimentin(+), S-100(-),

CD45(-), CD15(+), CD30(+)?
283
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Atypical carcinoid.
b. Large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma.
c. Small cell carcinoma.
d. Squamous cell carcinoma, poorly differentiated.
e. Typical carcinoid.
Which tumor consistently shows nuclear expression of p63 and is
negative for TTF-1?
d. Squamous cell carcinoma, poorly differentiated.
Which neuroendocrine tumor is defined in the WHO classification as
having 2-10 mitoses/10HPF or necrosis?
a. Atypical carcinoid.
Which tumor is characterized by large cells with prominent nucleoli,
extensive
infarct-like
necrosis,
chromogranin
expression
and
mitoticcounts exceeding 10 per 10 high power fields?

b. Large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma.
Diagnostic set:
a. Lymphangioma.
b. Metastatic renal cell carcinoma.
c. Microcystic serous cystadenoma.
d. Mucinous cystic neoplasm.
e. Serous cystadenocarcinoma.
Which multicystic tumor is positive for CD31?
a. Lymphangioma.
284
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which tumor is associated with von Hipple-Lindau syndrome, can have

VHL gene mutations, and is a primary pancreatic neoplasm?
c. Microcystic serous cystadenoma.
Which multicystic tumor contains ovarian-type stroma in the cyst walls?
d. Mucinous cystic neoplasm.
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Malignant lymphoma.
c. Papillary carcinoma.
d. Riedel thyroiditis.
e. Undifferentiated (anaplastic) carcinoma.
The finding of a sclerotic process involving the thyroid with bland nuclear
features and lacking vascular occlusion by spindle cells is most
compatible with this entity?
d. Riedel thyroiditis.
Which entity shares overlap of immunohistochemical markers and clinical
course with undifferentiated carcinoma and frequently is composed of
epithelioid cells?
a. Angiosarcoma.
Which of the above tumors is characterized by extensive vascular
plugging with malignant spindled cells that shows the majority of which
70% positive staining with p53?
e. Undifferentiated (anaplastic) carcinoma.
285
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Atypical adenomatous hyperplasia.
b. Metastatic adenocarcinoma.
c. Pulmonary adenocarcinoma, bronchioalveolar type.
d. Pulmonary adenocarcinoma, fetal type.
e. Pulmonary adenocarcinoma, mixed subtype.
f. Pulmonary adenocarcinoma, mucinous type.
Which malignant lesion is, by definition, non-invasive?
c. Pulmonary adenocarcinoma, bronchioalveolar type.
Which lesion above typically shows glycogen rich glands with
supranuclear and subnuclear vacuoles imparting an endometrioid
appearance?
d. Pulmonary adenocarcinoma, fetal type.
Which histologic pattern of primary adenocarcinoma of the lung is most
common?
e. Pulmonary adenocarcinoma, mixed subtype.
1036. Which of the following is true regarding radiation-induced colitis? (PIP
2008 A)
a. Granulomas may be present.
b. Perivascular hyalinization helps distinguish it from crohn's
disease.
c. Radiation-induced colitis is usally an acute event following
radiation.
d. Stricture formation and fistulae are not characteristic.
286
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1037. Which of the following statements regarding Crohn disease is FALSE? (PIP
2008 A)
a. Deep fissuring ulcers and fistula formation are seen in crohn
disease and are not seen in ulcerative colitis.
b. Non-caseating granulomas are seen in 60-90% of mucosal biopsy
samples.
c. The presence of small bowel involvement typically helps
distinguish crohn disease from ulcerative colitis.
d. Transmural lymphoid inflammation is typical of this entity.
1038. Which site represents the commonest location of luminal gastrointestinal
involvement by sarcoidosis? (PIP 2008 A)
a. Esophagus.
b. Large bowel.
c. Small bowel.
d. Stomach.
1039. Which is most typical for null cell adenomas of the pituitary gland? (PIP
2008 B)
a. Brisk mitotic activity.
b. Frequent recurrence.
c. Markedly elevated MIB-1 labeling.
d. Patchy immunoreactivity for leutenizing and follicle stimulating
hormones.
e. Strong diffuse immunostaining for TP53.
1040. The diagnosis of pituitary cracinoma requires: (PIP 2008 B)
a. Cavernous sinus invasion.
b. Elevated MB-1 cell cycle labeling index.
c. Elevated mitotic rate.
d. Metastasis.
e. Microscopic dural invasion.
287
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Extranodal marginal zone lymphoma, MALT type.
b. Lymphoid interstitial pneumonia.
d. Nodular lymphoid hyperplasia.
e. Small lymphocytic lmphoma.
Which entity is characterized by a nodular lymphoid infiltrate centered on
bronchioles and sharply demarcated from normal lung, showing a
predominance of interfollicular T cells, polytypic B cells and bcl-2
negative germinal centers?
d. Nodular lymphoid hyperplasia.
Which lymphoid proliferation typically involves the interstitium of the
lung preferentially, and is composed of T lymphocytes withrelatively few
B cells and polytypic plasma cells?
b. Lymphoid interstitial pneumonia.
Which lesion exhibits spread along bronchovascular bundles with
lymphoepithelial lesions, infiltrates interlobular septa and pleura and is
characterized by cytologically by an admixture of small lymphocytes with
few admixed large cells, monocytoid and plasma cells with monotypic
light chain expression, and plasmacytoid cells with Dutcher bodies?
a. Extranodal marginal zone lymphoma, MALT type.
Diagnostic set:
a. Choroid glioma.
b. Choroid meningioma.
288
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Chordoma.
d. Mucinous adenocarcinoma, metastatic.
Which entity is characterized by a GFAP(-), EMA(+), vimentin(+),
keratin(-), S-100(-) phenotype?
b. Choroid meningioma.
Which entity is characterized by a GFAP(+), EMA(-), keratin(-), S-100(-)
phenotype?
a. Choroid glioma.
Which entity is characterized by abundant mucoid matrix with variable
cellularity and scattered cells showing abundant vacuolated cytoplasm
(physaliferous cells)?
c. Chordoma.
1043. For each of the following questions choose the most likely diagnosisfrom
Diagnostic set:
b. Clear cell carcinoma.
e. Yolk sac tumor.
Which entity typically occurs in women >30 years of age and is the most
common ovarian tumor associated with estrogenic manifstations?
289
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which entity typically occurs in young women, and is characterized

histologically by follicle-like spaces and cells with scanty cytoplasm and
has often spread beyond the ovary at the time of presentation?
Which entity commonly occurs in women <30 years of age, may be
associated with estrogenic manifstations and is positive for inhibin?
Diagnostic set:
b. Angiomyofibroblastoma-like tumor of the genital tract (cellular
angiofibroma).
c. Solitary fibrous tumor.
d. Spindle cell lipoma.
Which tumor typically shows a proliferation of bland spindle-shaped cells
with a noticable amount of adipose tissue and thick bundles of brightly
eosinophilic collagen?
Which tumor shows a proliferation of bland spindle-shaped cells and
numerous small and medium sized vessels within anedematous to fibrous
stroma?
b. Angiomyofibroblastoma-like tumor of the genital tract (cellular
angiofibroma).
1045. Which tumor shows a proliferation of bland spindle-shaped cells
dispersed
among
keloid-type
collagen
bundles
and
hemangiopericytoma-like vascular pattern?

290
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Solitary fibrous tumor.

Diagnostic set:
a. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor.
b. Malignant mesothelioma.
c. Mesothelial hyperplasia.
d. Metastatic colorectal adenocarcinoma.
e. Metastatic pulmonary adenocarcinoma.
Which tumor exhibits CD-117 and CD-34 immunoreactivity and can have
an epithelioid morphology?
Which is a common incidental finding in the peritoneum of women with
chronic salpingitis and endometriosis?
c. Mesothelial hyperplasia.
Nuclear staining for TIF-1 is a common pattern of immunoreactivity for
which tumor?
e. Metastatic pulmonary adenocarcinoma.
1047. Which of the following lesins is LEAST likely encountered in the anterior
mediastinum? (PIP 2008 B)
a. Germ cell tumor.
b. Mediastinal(thymic) large B-cell lymphoma.
c. Schwannoma.
d. Thymic cyst.
e. Thymoma.
1048. Which of the following associations is most correct?
291
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Myasthenia gravis and thymic follicular hyperplasia.

b. Nodular sclerosis variant of Hodgkin's lymphoma and CD45
expression.
c. Seminomas and elevated serum AFP.
d. Spindle cell thymoma and cytologic atypia.
e. Thymomas and immunophenotypically aberrant T-cells.
Diagnostic set:
b. Hepatic adenoma.
c. Hepatocellular carcinoma, fibrolamellar type.
d. Macroregenerative nodule.
Which
non-cirrhotic
condition
may
be
associated
with
portal
hypertension and is often seen in patients with hematologic and

immunologic disorders?
Which tumor is usually seen in young non-cirrhotic patients, contains
cytoplasmic pale bodies and has aggressive behavior but carries a more
favorable prognosis than its related variants occurring in cirrhotic lives?
c. Hepatocellular carcinoma, fibrolamellar type.
Which lesion most often occurs in young women taking oral contraceptive
agents,
and
when
large,
carries
risk
of
life-threatening
hemoperitoneum?
b. Hepatic adenoma.
292
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Dermoid-type fibromatosis.
b. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor.
c. Sclerosing mesenteritis.
d. Sclerosing well-differentiated liposarcoma.
Which tumor typically shows nuclear accumulation of -catenin protein
as the result of either APC or -catenin gene mutations?
a. Dermoid-type fibromatosis.
The presence of extensive fat necrosis is most characteristic ofwhich
entity?
c. Sclerosing mesenteritis.
Which tumor contains enlarged hyperchromatic cells within fibroblastic
septa and abnormally configured thich walled blood vessels containing
similar cells?
d. Sclerosing well-differentiated liposarcoma.
1051. Which splenic tumor is found in a subcapsular location and consists of
vascular-type spaces filled with lymphocytes, proteinaceous material, and
sometimes erytherocytes, and generally stains positively for CD31, CD34
and VEGFR3? (PIP 2008 C)
a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Hemangioendothelioma.
c. Hemangioma.
d. Littoral cell angioma.
e. Littoral cell angiosarcoma.
f. Lymphangioma.
293
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1052. Which splenic tumor is grossly deep red-purple with random distribution
throughout the spleen, and microscopically reveals small to large spaces
filled largely with erytherocytes, seperated by delicate fibrous septae or
splenic pulp, and lined by bland endothelial cells which generally stain
negatively for VEGFR3 and D2-40? (PIP 2008 C)
a. Angiosarcoma.
c. Hemangioma.
f. Lymphangioma.
1053. Which splenic tumor is sponge-like, partially solid mass microscopically
cosisting of complex anastomotic spaces filled with red blood cells and
lined by plump, bizzare endothelial cells with hyaline globules? (PIP 2008
C)
a. Angiosarcoma.
c. Hemangioma.
f. Lymphangioma.
1054. Which of the following tumors occurs almost exclusively in women and
is notable for a peri-cystic stromal proliferation termed ovarian-type
stroma? (PIP 2008 C)
a. Intraductal papillary mucinous carcinoma, non-invasive.
b. Mucinous carcinoma arising in an intraductal papillary mucinous
neoplasm.
c. Mucinous cystic neoplasm.
d. Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma, usual type.
e. Serous microcystic adenoma.
294
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1055. This tumor is associated with mutations in KRAS, p16, TP53 and loss of
DCP4? (PIP 2008 C)
a. Intraductal papillary mucinous carcinoma, non-invasive.
b. Mucinous carcinoma arising in an intraductal papillary mucinous
neoplasm.
c. Mucinous cystic neoplasm.
d. Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma, usual type.
e. Serous microcystic adenoma.
1056. Which of the following lesions show nuclear expression of -catenin,
negative staining for S100 and variable positivity for KIT, smooth muscle
actin and desmmin? (PIP 2008 C)
b. Leiomyoma.
c. Mesenteric fibromatosis.
d. Schwannoma.
1057. All of the following typically show KIT positive staining on
immunohistochemistry EXCEPT: (PIP 2008 C)
a. Malignant melanoma.
b. Mastocytosis.
c. Schwannoma.
d. Seminoma.
1058. Which of the following is correct about GISTs? (PIP 2008 C)
a. Epithelioid GIST are more common in the small intestine.
b. Imatinib (Gleevec)therapy is not effective in tumors that are KIT
negative by immunohistochemistry.
c. Immunohistochemical expession of desmin is common.
d. Small intestinal GISTs are more likely to be malignant than gastric
GISTs.
295
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1059. Which tumor, after mucoepidermoid carcinoma, is the second most

common malignant salivary gland tumor in children? (PIP 2008 C)
a. Acinic cell carcinoma.
b. Adenocarcinoma, not otherwise specified (NOS).
c. Glandular cell tumor.
d. Metastatic thyroid carcinoma.
e. Normal salivary gland.
1060. Which which tumor will show strong, diffuse S-100 and CD68 reactivity?
(PIP 2008 C)
a. Acinic cell carcinoma.
b. Adenocarcinoma, not otherwise specified (NOS).
c. Grandular cell tumor.
d. Metastatic thyroid carcinoma.
e. Normal salivary gland.
1061. Which of the following structures accounts for the granularity of the
cytoplasm in renal oncocytoma? (PIP 2008 C)
a. Abundant microvilli.
b. Iron pigment.
c. Lysosomes.
d. Mitochondria.
e. Rhomboid crystals.
1062. Which of the following features of chromophobe renal cell carcinoma is
most useful in distinguishing it from oncocytoma? (PIP 2008 C)
a. Absence of vimentin expression.
b. Collecting duct immunophenotype.
c. Diffuse strong cytoplasmic staining pattern with Hale's colloidal
iron.
d. Finely granular cytoplasm.
e. Presence of mitochondrial DNA abnormalities.
296
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1063. Which of the following is a recurrent cytogenetic abnormality in

oncocytoma? (PIP 2008 C)
a. Loss of chromosome 3p.
b. Rearrangement of chromosome 11q12-13.
c. Trisomy 12.
d. Trisomy 16.
e. Trisomy 20.
1064. Which immunostains would be most helpful in the differential diagnosis
of lymphoepithelial cysts of the pancreas and pancreatic lymphangioma?
(PIP 2008 C)
a. CD3, CD20, and factor VIII.
b. CD45, CD68, and factor VIII.
c. Factor VIII and HMB-45.
d. Factor VIII and CD3.
e. Factor VIII, CD31 and cytokeratins.
1065. Which of the following statements regarding pancreatic cysts is correct?
(PIP 2008 C)
a. The epithelium in dermoid cysts of the pancreas never shows
evidence of mucinous or sebaceous differentiation.
b. The epithelium in mucinous cystic neoplsm and intraductal
pancreatic mucinous tumor are typically of the transitional type.
c. Like lymphoepithelial cysts of the slivary gland, lymphoepithelial
cyst of the pancreas is associated with HIV disease.
d. Pancreatic pseudocyst is devoid of an epithelial lining.
1066. In lymphoepithelial cyst of the pancreas, all of the following may be seen
EXCEPT: (PIP 2008 C)
a. Clusters of foamy macrophages.
b. Extensive sebaceous differentiation.
c. Foci of aft necrosis.
d. Keratin granulomas.
297
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Lymphoepithelial nests in the lymphoid tissue.

1067. Which of the following statements regarding paragangliomas is incorrect?
(PIP 2008 C)
a. Mitotic activity, nuclear pleomorphism, and the presence of
necrosis are poorly correlated with clinical behavior.
b. Paragangliomas can be differentiated from most epithelial tumors
based upon their negativity for cytokeratin and EMA, and
positivity for neuroendocrine markers.
c. Paraverteberal paragangliomas are more likely to be functional
than aortic body paragangliomas.
d. The presence of multiple tumors along the vertebrae in the thorax
and abdomen is indicative of metastasis.
1068. Which of the following associations with paraganglioma is incorrect? (PIP
2008 C)
a. Carney syndrome.
b. Carney triad.
c. MEN II.
d. Neurofibromatosis type I (Von Recklinghausen disease.)
e. Von-Hipple Lindau syndrome.
1069. Which primary tumor is characterized by production of both high-grade
neoplastic crtilage and osteoid?
a. Chondroblastic osteosracoma.
b. Chondrosarcoma.
c. Differentiated chondrosarcoma.
d. Echondroma.
e. Synovial chondromatosis.
1070. Which neoplasm is characterized by production of extraosseous lobules of
bland hyaline cartilage with mildly increased cellularity, clonal
298
Pathology Questions
MCQs
arrangements of chondrocytes and nesting within a thin connective tissue

membrane? (PIP 2008 C)
b. Chondrosarcoma.
d. Echondroma.
1071. Which bone neoplasm is characterized by juxtaposition of low-grade
neoplastic hyaline cartilage and high-grade pleomorphic sarcoma? (PIP
2008 C)
b. Chondrosarcoma.
d. Echondroma.
1072. Which are the most common systemic, extracranial sites of metastasis in
central nervous system hemangiopericytoma? (PIP 2008 D)
a. Bones, lungs, liver.
b. Heart, lungs.
c. Kidney, lungs.
d. Skin, lungs, adrenals.
e. Spleen, lungs, adrenals.
Which marker shows immunoreactivity in tumor cells in both solitary
fibrous tumor and hemangiopericytoma? (PIP 2008 D)
a. CD31.
b. CD34.
c. Glial fibrillary acidic protein.
d. Keratin 7 (CK7).
e. Inhibin.
Which is true regarding recurrence for this tumor?
299
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Tumor almost never recurs locally after surgical excision.

b. Recurrences tend to occur within months after surgery.
c. Recurrent tumor(s) are associated with hyperostotic bone lesions.
d. Greater than 80% of tumors occur on long long-term followup.
e. Recurrent tumor(s) are typically heavily calcified.
Diagnostic set:
a. Chronic myeloid leukemia.
c. Large B-cell lymphoma.
e. Small lymphocytic lmphoma/chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
Which of these lymphoma/leukemias characteristically shows a CD20(+),
CD11c(+), CD25(+), CD103(+) immunophenotype?
Which hematolymphoid proliferation most commonly shows strong
nuclear expression of cyclin D1?
Which
of
these
lymphoma/leukemias
most
commonly
preferentiallyinvolves the red pulp of the spleen with relative sparing of

the white pulp?
300
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiomyofibroblastoma.
b. Cellular angiofibroma.
c. Deep (aggressive) angiomyxoma.
d. Mammary-type myofibroblastoma.
e. Spindle cell lipoma/pleomorphic lipoma.
f. Well differentiated liposarcoma.
Which lesion is circumscribed, most often occurs in vulva, is highlighted
by perivascular cuffs of epithelioid desmin-positive cells and is normally
cured with simple excision?
a. Angiomyofibroblastoma.
Which lesion is probably related to spindle cell lipoma includingsharing of
13q and 16q chromosomal abnormalities?
d. Mammary-type myofibroblastoma.
Which poorly circumscribed myxoid lesion is typically large and apt to
recur with incomplete excision?
c. Deep (aggressive) angiomyxoma.
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Epithelioid sarcoma.
c. Kaposi sarcoma.
d. Pseudovascular squamous cell carcinoma.
e. Spindle cell hemangioma.
Which tumor is associated with both prior irradiation and long-standing
lymphedema?
a. Angiosarcoma.
301
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Loss of INI-1 expression is most characteristic of which lesion?

b. Epithelioid sarcoma.
Which tumor contains an admixture of thick-walled vessels, cavernous
hemangioma-like zones, and spindled zones containing vacuolated
endothelial cells?
e. Spindle cell hemangioma.
Diagnostic set:
c. Epithelioid angiomyolipoma.
d. Metastatic hepatocellular carcinoma.
Which entity is characterized by HMB-45(+), MiTF(+), Keratin(-), EMA(-)
phenotype?
c. Epithelioid angiomyolipoma.
Which entity is characterized ultrastructurally by cytoplasmic membrane
bound vesicles and show diffuse granular cytoplasmic staining with Hale's
colloidal iron stain?
Which entity is characterized by a central scar with a nested growth
pattern and round nuclear contours?
302
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Chronic villitis of unkown etiology.
b. Chronic villitis secondary to cytomegalovirus infection.
c. Chronic villitis secondary to herpes simplex infection.
d. Chronic villitis secondary to syphillis.
e. Chronic villitis secondary to Toxoplasma gondii infection.
Which entity reprsents the most common type of chronic villitis and is
associated with a recurrence risk of up to 20%?
Which entity is characterized by a triad of hypercellular villi, proliferative
fetal vascular changes with vascular oblitreration and onion skinning of
vessels and chronic villitis?
d. Chronic villitis secondary to syphillis.
The prsence of chronic villitis is associated with plasma cells, villous
necrosis and calcifications is most commonly associated with which
entity?
than once, or not at all). (PIP 2008 D)
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Hemangioma.
d. Splenic hamartoma.
303
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which tumor has nuclear atypia, increased mitotic activity and necrosis?
a. Angiosarcoma.
Which tumor is characterized by positivity for CD68, von Willbrand
factor, CD31 and CD21?
Which tumor is composed of disorganized stroma and vascular channels
of varying width lined by CD8 positive cells?
d. Splenic hamartoma.
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Cavernous hemangioma.
e. Peliosis hepatis.
Which lesion is the most common benign tumor of the liver?
b. Cavernous hemangioma.
Which lesion is characterized by tumor cells with an epithelioid
appearance and cytoplasmic vacuoles that may contain red blood cells?
Which lesion is characterized by the presence of a central scar in which
malformed arteries are found?
304
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Extramedullary hematopoiesis.
c. Lipoma.
d. Liposarcoma.
e. Myelolipoma.
f. Neuroblastoma.
In which tumor is numerous blasts and myeloid precursors identified?
Which tumor is composed of mature adipose tissue admixed with benign
hematopoietic elelments?
e. Myelolipoma.
Which tumor is most often associated with N-myc amplification?
f. Neuroblastoma.
991.
Diagnostic set:
a. Atypical fibroxanthoma.
b. Merkel cell carcinoma.
c. Metastatic breast carcinoma.
d. Nodular melanoma.
Which tumor is typically composed of highly pleomorphic spindle cells
and large, sometimes multinucleated lipid-laden histocytic cells that
305
Pathology Questions
exhibit
MCQs
viment(+),
HMB-45(-),
and
MART-1/Melan-A(-)
immunophenotype?
a. Atypical fibroxanthoma.
992.
Which tumor shows peri-nuclear dot-like positivity for CK20 and is CD56
positive?
Which tumor occasionally occurs in association with basal cell carcinoma
and squamous cell carcinoma of the skin?
993.
Which of the following is not true about acute liver failure due to herpex
simplex virus hepatitis?
a. Can occur in immunocompetent adults.
b. Rapidly progressive course.
c. Marked lymphoplasmacytic inflammation.
d. Extensive necrosis.
994.
Which of the following statements about acetaminophen toxicity is not

correct?
a. It is the most common cause of fulminant hepatic failure in the US.
b. Chronic alcohol use can enhance hepatotoxicity of acetaminophen.
c. Necrosis most often occurs in non-zonal distribution.
d. Histological distinction from ischemic necrosis can be difficult.
995.
All the following are true about Wilson disease except: (PIP 2009 A)
a. Presentation after 50 years of age is uncommon.
b. 24-hour urinary copper is markedly elevated in fulminant disease.
c. Normal ceruloplasmin level rules out the diagnosis.
d. Quantitative copper level from the paraffin block is the most
accurate method of assessing hepatic copper.
306
Pathology Questions
996.
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. High grade serous carcinoma.
b. Low grade serous cracinoma.
c. Retiform Sertoli-leydig cell tumor.
d. Serous neoplasm of low malignant proliferation.
Which entity has uniform nuclei with mild to moderate atypia, up to 12
mitoses per 10 high power fields, and destructive stromal invasion?
b. Low-grade serous cracinoma.
Which entity expresses WT-1 and inhibin?
c. Retiform Sertoli-leydig cell tumor.
The prognosis of which entity depends upon the stage and type of
implant?
d. Serous neoplasm of low malignant proliferation.
997.
Diagnostic set:
a. Clear cell carcinoma.
b. High grade endometrioid carcinoma.
c. Low grade endometrioid carcinoma.
d. Serous carcinoma.
e. Type 2 endometrial carcinoma.
f. Type 1 endometrial carcinoma.
Which endometrial carcinoma is frequently associated with PTEN
suppressor gene mutation and histologically is characterized by a
307
Pathology Questions
MCQs
predominance of glandular architecture resembling nomal proliferative

endometrium?
c. Low grade endometrioid carcinoma.
Although type 1 carcinoma is infrequent in patients with HNPCC, which
type 1 tumor has been noted to occur in this subset of patients?
b. High grade endometrioid carcinoma.
Which type of endometrial carcinoma is frequently associated with
HNPCC?
e. Type 2 endometrial carcinoma.
998.
Neuroblastic tumors are most likely to arise from which of the following
anatomic sites? (PIP 2009 A)
a. Adrenal gland.
b. Anterior mediastinum.
c. Optic nerve.
d. Organ of Zuckerkandi.
e. Spinal cord.
999.
Neuroblastic tumors are most often associated with which of the

following genetic abnormalities or syndromes? (PIP 2009 A)
a. Multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome.
b. MYCN gene amplification.
c. Neurofibromatosis type I.
d. Neurofibromatosis type II.
e. RET oncogene mutation.
1000. Which
morphologic
feature
distinguishes
intermixed
ganglioneuroblastoma from ganglioneuroma? (PIP 2009 A)

a. High mitotic-karyorrhetic index (MKI).
b. Nodular gross morphology.
c. Presesnce of islands of neuropil and differentiating cells.
308
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Presence of mature ganglion cells.

e. Schwannian stroma >50% of tumor area.
1001. Which of the following lesions is MOST commonly encountered in the
anterior mediastinum? (PIP 2009 A)
a. Neurofibroma.
b. Paraganglioma.
c. Thymoma.
d. Schwannoma.
e. Liposracoma.
1002. Which of the following lesions is not immunoreactive to epithelial
antigens? (PIP 2009 A)
a. Fibrosarcoma.
b. Leiomyosarcoma.
c. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor.
d. Synovial sarcoma.
1003. Which
of
the
following
is
most
typically
c-kit
positive
on
immunohistochemistry? (PIP 2009 A)

a. GIST.
b. Leiomyosracoma.
1004. The translocation t(X;18) is specific for which tumor?
a. Fibrosarcoma.
b. GIST.
c. Leiomyosarcoma.
309
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
c. Convential (clear cell) renal cell carcinoma.
e. Papillary urothelial carcinoma.
Which entity is peanut lectin(+), Ulex europaeus (+), RCC(-) and CD10(-)?
1006. Which entity characteristically shows karyotype abnormalities trisomy 7,
trisomy 17 and loss of chromosome Y?
1007. The most commonly involved anatomic location for gliomatosis cerebri is:
(PIP 2009 B)
a. Basal ganglia.
b. Cerebellar vermis.
c. Cerebral white matter.
d. Hippocampus.
e. Optic nerves.
1008. How is gliomatosis currntly classified?
a. Extensively infiltrative glial neoplasm.
b. Highly reactive inflammatory condition.
c. Low-grade glioma.
d. Neurodegenerative disorder.
e. Uniformly fatal infectious condition.
310
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1009. The single key histologic feature that allows accurate diagnosis is which of
the following? (PIP 2009 B)
a. Cytologic atypia.
b. Demyelination.
c. Microglial clusters.
d. Spongiform change.
e. Viral inclusions.
1010. All of the following have been correlated with adverse outcome in myxoid
liposarcomas except: (PIP 2009 B)
a. FUS-CHOP fusion type.
b. Large size.
c. Necrosis.
d. Proliferation index.
e. Round cell differentiation.
1011. Which of the following classic syndromes may be associated with multiple
myxomas? (PIP 2009 B)
a. Angelman syndrome.
b. Cotard's syndrome.
c. Dandy-Walker syndrome.
d. Ellis van-Creveld syndrome.
e. McCune-Albright syndrome.
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiomyolipoma.
c. Metanephric adenofibroma.
d. Mixed epithelial and stromal tumor.
e. Multilocular cystic renal cell carcinoma.
311
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which tumor shows significant clinical and histologic overlap with cystic
nephroma?
Which tumor is seen predominantly in children under the age of 2?
Which tumor is characterized by cysts lined by flattened, cuboidal or
hobnail epithelium and septa containing ovarian-like stroma?
Diagnostic set:
c. Liposarcoma.
d. Mesenteric fibromatosis.
e. Sclerosing mesenteritis.
The tumor that would consistentlay demonstrate CD117 expression is:
The entity characterized by inflammation and fat necrosis in early phases,
and a predominance of fibrosis as the process matures is:
e. Sclerosing mesenteritis.
A bland fibroblastic proliferation in the mesentery with involvement of
the intestinal muscularis propria would be typical of:
d. Mesenteric fibromatosis.
312
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Metastatic mucinous adenocarcinoma (mucinous carcinoma
peritonei), high grade.
b. Metastatic
mucinous
adenocarcinoma
(mucinous
carcinomaperitonei), low grade.

c. Peritoneal mesothelioma.
d. Primary peritoneal serous carcinoma.
Which entity is characterized by diffuse peritoneal involvement by a
tumor comprised of abundant pools of extracellular mucincontaining
identfiable neoplastic epithelium with prominent solid or cribriform
growth with obvious cytologic atypia or the presence of signet ring cells?
a.Metastatic mucinous adenocarcinoma (mucinous carcinoma
peritonei), high grade.
Which tumor may rarely produce abundant hyaluronic acid mimicking
extracellular mucin, but the tumor cells are positive for calretinin, WT-1
and CK5/6?
c. Peritoneal mesothelioma.
Which entity is characterized by diffuse peritoneal involvement by tumor
comprised of abundant pools of extracellular mucincontaining identfiable
neoplastic epithelium with bland cytologicfeatures and cells arranged in
strips or simple glands without a signet ring cell component?
b.Metastatic mucinous adenocarcinoma (mucinous carcinoma
peritonei), low grade.
313
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiomyolipoma.
b. Benign multicystic peritoneal mesothelioma.
c. Lymphangioma (Lymphatic malformation).
d. Mesenteric cyst.
e. Solid pseudopapillary tumor of pancreas.
Which entity is characterized by a HMB45 (+), EMA (-), keratin (-), S-100
(-) phenotype?
a. Angiomyolipoma.
Whcih potentially malignant tumor is characterized by a grossly cystic
and solid appearance, and positivity for CD10 and beta-catenin?
e. Solid pseudopapillary tumor of pancreas.
Which entity is characterized by collagenous stroma and cyst lined by
keratin (+), calretinin (+) cells?
b. Benign multicystic peritoneal mesothelioma.
1016. Which one of the following is not a helpful feature in distinguishing
benign phyllodes tumor from malignant phyllodes tumor? (PIP 2009 B)
a. High mitotic index.
b. Infiltrative margins.
c. Sarcomatous growth.
d. Squamous differentiation.
e. Stromal overgrowth.
1017. Metaplastic carcinoma can be reliably distinguished from phyllodes
tumor by which one of the following features? (PIP 2009 B)
a. Atypical spindled cells.
b. Cytokeratin positive spindled cells.
c. Epithelial ducts interspersed within spindled cells.
d. High mitotic index.
314
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Infiltrative margins.
1018. Cartilaginous elements are present within a vulvar mass, with prominent
stromal elements and a leaf-like architecture. Which of the following is
correct?
a. Phyllodes tumors can be present anywhere in the milk-line and
can have heterologous elements such as cartilage.
b. This cannot be phyllodes tumor since these tumors are restricted
to mammary/breast paranchyma only.
c. This is a vulvar teratoma.
d. This may represent a chondroma or chondrosarcoma.
Diagnostic set:
a. Endometrial stromal nodule.
b. Endometrial stromal sarcoma, low grade.
c. Leiomyosracoma.
d. Undifferentiated uterine sarcoma.
Which tumor is composed of cells which morphologically resemble
proliferative phase endometrial stroma and shows proliferative
infiltration of the myometrium?
b. Endometrial stromal sarcoma, low grade.
Which tumor is composed of cells with marked cellular atypia and
numerous mitoses (including atypical forms) without evidence of
differentiation towards a recognizable uterine component?
Which tumor is well circumscribed and composed of cells which
morphologically resemble proliferative phase endometrial stroma?
315
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Endometrial stromal nodule.

Diagnostic set:
a. Clear cell papillary renal cell carcinoma.
b. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma.
c. Multilocular renal cell carcinoma.
e. Renal carcinoma associated with Xp11.2 translocations.
Which tumor is characterized by positive AMACR and cytokeratin 7
immunostainings and trisomy 7 and 17?
Which tumor is positive for nuclear TFE3 immunostaining?
e. Renal carcinoma associated with Xp11.2 translocations.
Which tumor is most often associated with VHL gene alteration?
b. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma.
1021. Which of the following is true about the use of HEP PAR 1 in the diagnosis
of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)? (PIP 2009 C)
a. Not useful in distinction from renal cell carcinoma.
b. Sensitivity is high (>80%) in poorly differentiated HCC.
c. Sensitivity is low (<50%) in clear cell HCC.
d. Strong expression can occur in metastatic adenocarcinomas from
lung and stomach.
1022. Which of the following immunohistochemical results favors renal cell
carcinoma metastatic to liver over hepatocellular carcinoma? (PIP 2009
C)
316
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Cytokeratin 7 and 20 negative.

b. Hep par 1 positive.
c. MOC-31 negative.
d. PAX-2 positive.
1023. Which of the following is TRUE about making an immunohistochemical
diagniosis of HCC? (PIP 2009 C)
a. AFP has high sensitivity, but low specifity.
b. Cytoplasmic reactivity with polyclonal CEA is specific for
hepatocellular differentiation.
c. Glypican-3 has lower sensitivity for poorly differentiated HCC than
Hep Par 1.
d. MOC-31 expression is seen in a small minority of HCC.
or not at all). (PIP 2009 C)
Diagnostic set:
b. Pancreatic endocrine tumor.
c. Pancreatoblastoma.
d. Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm of the pancreas.
e. Well-differentiated ductal adenocarcinoma.
Which of the above entities is most commonly seen in children?
Which entity is more common in women?
d. Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm of the pancreas.
Which adult tumor is immunohistochemically positive for pancreatic
enzymes trypsin and chymotrypsin?
317
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
a. Endometrioid adenocarcinoma.
b. Endometrioid borderline tumor.
c. Metastatic colorectal adenocarcinoma.
The median age of patients with this tumor is less than 50 years.
Which of the tumors is often associated with endometriosis or an
adenofibroma and has either a confluent pattern af at least 5 mm or
infiltration?
a. Endometrioid adenocarcinoma.
Which of the tumors is generally negative for EMA?
Diagnostic set:
a. Follicular adenoma.
b. Follicular carcinoma.
c. Papillary thyroid carcinoma, classical type.
d. Papillary thyroid carcinoma, columnar cell type.
e. Papillary thyroid carcinoma, cribriform-morula type.
Which entity has a propensity for hematogenous spread?
b. Follicular carcinoma.
318
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which entity is associated with familial adenomatous polyposis?

e. Papillary thyroid carcinoma, cribriform-morula type.
The most aggressive clinical course is seen with which variant of papillary
thyroid carcinoma?
d. Papillary thyroid carcinoma, columnar cell type.
1027. Which of the following is the most common form of hereditary liver
disease in adults? (PIP 2009 C)
a. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency.
b. Glycogen storage disease type IV.
c. Hereditary hemochromatosis.
d. Hereditary hyperfibroginemia.
e. Wilson disease.
1028. Which of the following ultrastructural abnormalities is characteristic of
alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency? (PIP 2009 C)
a. Dilated endoplasmic reticulum containing amorphous material.
b. Electron-dense cytoplasmic material with a starburst pattern.
c. Excess cytoplasmic glycogen.
d. Filamentous viral particles.
e. Lysosomal storage material.
1029. Which of the following therapeutic options is most commonly used for
treating liver disease associated with alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency? (PIP
2009 C)
a. Anti-viral medication.
b. Copper supplementation.
c. Enzyme repalcement therapy.
d. Iron chelation.
e. Liver transplantation.
319
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1030. Which of the following B cell lymphomas most commonly involves

predominantly the red pulp of the spleen? (PIP 2009 C)
a. CLL/SLL.
b. DLBCL.
c. Hairy cell leukemia.
d. Hodgkin lymphoma.
f. SMZL.
1031. Which of the following associations is most correct?
a. CD5 expression and SMZL.
b. CLL and nuclear irregularities.
c. CLL/SLL and cyclin D1 overexpression.
d. DLBCL and red blood cell lakes.
e. Mantle cell lymphoma and t(11;14).
Diagnostic set:
b. Pancreatic endocrine neoplasm.
d. Poorly differentiated pancreatic adenocarcinoma.
e. Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm.
This asymptomatic tumor frequently occurs as a pancreatic tail mass in
young women:
CD56 is often considered a neuroendocrine marker. In addition to
pancreatic endocrine tumor, this tumor frequently shows strong CD56
immunoreactivity:
320
Pathology Questions
MCQs

The squamoid corpuscle is a characteristic feature of this tumor:
Which
of
the
following
is
true
regarding
the
diagnosis
of
angiomyolipoma? (PIP 2009 C)

a. A non-infiltrative pattern of growth helps distinguish AML from
renal cell carcinoma.
b. Splenic and lymph node deposits of AML should always be
considered metastasis from either renal or hepatic primary
tumors.
c. The polygonal-shaped smooth muscle cells in hepatic AML can be
mistaken for hepatocellular carcinoma.
d. The presence of cells resembling lipoblasts help distinguish AML
from liposarcoma.
1033. Which of the following statements regarding angiomyolipoma is FALSE?
(PIP 2009 C)
a. Approximately half of all cases aof AML are associated with
tuberous sclerosis.
b. Atypia in epithelioid variants of AML is often confused with
leiomyosarcoma.
c. Most cases of AML in the liver are associated with tuberous
sclerosis.
d. The presence of bilateral AMLs is highly suggestive of tuberous
sclerosis.
1034. Which pair of immunostains is MOST likely to help differentiate a fatpredominant
angiomyolipoma
from
lipoma
or
well-
differentiatedliposracoma? (PIP 2009 C)

a. C-kit and Melan-A.
b. Desmin and S-100.
321
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. EMA and MITF.

d. S-100 and HMB-45.
1035. Which of the following features favors radiation colitis over ulcerative
colitis? (PIP 2009 C)
a. Cryptitis.
b. Crypt architectural distortion.
c. Lamina propria fibrosis.
d. Perivascular hyalinization.
1036. Which of the following is a feature common to both active ulcerative
colitis and crohn disease? (PIP 2009 C)
a. Cryptitis and crypt abscess.
b. Discontinuous involvement of the colon.
c. Transmural inflammation.
d. Well-formed epithelioid granulomas.
1037. Creeping fat is a feature of which of the following? (PIP 2009 C)
a. Crohn disease.
b. Infectious colitis.
c. Radiation colitis.
d. Ulcerative colitis.
Diagnostic set:
a. Desmoid tumor.
b. Low grade fibromyxoid sarcoma.
d. Myxofibrosarcoma.
f. Schwannoma.
322
Pathology Questions
MCQs

Whcih tumor exhibits consistent nuclear positivity for beta catenin?
a. Desmoid tumor.
Which tumor lacks the alternating areas of myxoid and fibrous areas but
is consistently positive for CD34?
Which tumor is characterized by alternating areas of fibrous and myxoid
zones, curvilinear blood vessels, alterations in FUS gene and absence of
lipoblasts?
Diagnostic set:
a. Kaposi sarcoma.
b. Leiomyosarcoma.
c. Lymphangioleiomyomatosis.
d. Peritoneal leiomyomatosis.
e. Vascular transformation of sinuses (lymph node).
Which lesion is characterized by positive staining with smooth muscle
markers and HMB-45?
Which lesion is characterized by mutations of the tuberous sclerosis
genes TSC-1 or TSC-2?
323
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which lesion may involve the lymph nodes or viscera, is associated with
HHV-8, is positive for endothelial markers and is negative for HMB-45?
a. Kaposi sarcoma.
Diagnostic set:
a. Crohn disease.
b. Enteritis cystica profunda.
c. Intestinal lymphangiectasia.
d. Pneumatosis (cystoides) intestinalis related to ischemic bowel
disease.
e. Pneumatosis (cystoides) intestinalis related to progressive
systemic sclerosis.
Which entity is characterized by multiple cysts in the bowel wall that are
often lined by histiocytes and giant cells with associated acute mucosal
necrosis?
d.Pneumatosis (cystoides) intestinalis related to ischemic bowel
disease.
Which entity is characterized by cyst-like spaces that contain foamy
macrophages and are lined by endothelial cells?
c. Intestinal lymphangiectasia.
Which entity is associated with mucosal polyps and submucosal cysts that
are lined by benign intestinal epithelium?
b. Enteritis cystica profunda.
1041. Which of the following is true regarding myxoid round cell liposarcoma?
(PIP 2010 A)
a. It is associated with mutations in the KIT gene on chromosome 4.
324
Pathology Questions
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b. It shares the same chromosomal translocation as Ewing

sarcoma,t(11;22).
c. The gastrointestinal tract is a typical site for this tumor.
d. The proportion of round cell component has prognostic
significance.
e. It has a typical curvilinear vascular pattern with pericystic
investment.
1042. Which of the following is/are typical histologic features of myxoid/round
cell liposarcoma? (PIP 2010 A)
a. Branching thin blood vessels ('chicken wire' pattern).
b. Primitive non-lipogenic mesenchymal cells.
c. Prominent myxoid sarcoma.
d. Signet ring lipoblasts.
1043. Which of the following is NOT a typical site for metastasis from
myxoid/round cell liposarcoma?
a. Brain.
b. Liver.
c. Lung.
d. Lymph nodes.
e. Soft tissue.
1044. Which of the following features strongly favors crohn's colitis over
ulcerative colitis?
a. Chronic inflammation in biopsies from upper gastrointestinal
tract.
b. Diffuse colonic involvement.
c. Perianal disease.
d. Presence of primary sclerosing colangitis.
325
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1045. Which of the following infections can closely mimic crohn's disease by
showing ileocolonic involvement, fissuring ulcers, granulomas and
transmural inflammation?
a. Campylobacter.
b. Cytomegalovirus.
c. Entamoeba.
d. Spirochetosis.
e. Yersinia.
1046. Which
of
the
following
features
favors
crohn's
disease
over
Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection?

a. Granulomas in draining lymph nodes.
b. Ileocolonic involvement.
c. Large andd confluent granulomas.
d. Longitudinal ulcers and cobblestoning.
e. Prominent necrosis.
Diagnostic set:
a. Aquired cystic disease-associated renal cell carcinoma.
b. Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma.
c. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma.
d. Oncocytoma.
e. Renal carcinoma associated with Xp 11.2 translocation.
Which tumor is characterized by diffuse positivity for cytokeratin 7 and
Hale's colloidal iron stain?
b. Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma.
Which tumor is positive for nuclear TEF3 immunostaining?
e. Renal carcinoma associated with Xp 11.2 translocation.
326
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which tumor is characterized by the presence of calcium oxalate crystal

deposition?
a. Aquired cystic disease-associated renal cell carcinoma.
1048. Which of the following is correct about well-differentiated pancreatic
endocrine tumors? (PIP 2010 A)
a. Most insulinomas are malignant.
b. The distiction between low- and high-grade neuroendocrine
carcinoma is based on vascular and perinueral invasion.
c. Tumors lacking nuclear atypia can show lymph node metastasis.
d. Tumors larger than 2.0 cm are cosidered malignant.
1049. Which of the following immunohistochemichal staining results is
characteristic of solid pseudopapillary tumor? (PIP 2010 A)
a. Cytoplasmic staining with chromogranin.
b. Membrane staining with beta-ctenin.
c. Membrane staining with E-cadherin.
d. Nuclear staining with progesterone receptor.
1050. Which of the following immunohistochemichal staining results is correct
about the diagnosis of pancreatic tumor? (PIP 2010 A)
a. Chromogranin expression is characteristic of solid pseudopapillary
tumors.
b. Loss of membrane E-cadherin staining is characteristic of acinar
cell carcinoma.
c. Nuclear accumulation of beta-catenin is characteristic of
neuroendocrine tumors.
d. Trypsin expression is characteristic of pancreatoblastoma.
327
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Diagnostic set:
b. Leydig cell tumor.
e. Steroid cell tumor, not otherwise specified.
Which ovarian neoplasm characteristically contains Reinke crystals?
b. Leydig cell tumor.
Which ovarian neoplasm is typically composed of well formed hollow or
solid tubules lined by cuboidal to columnar cells with moderate to
abundant eosinophilic or vacuolated cytoplasmic and round to oval
regular nuclei with nuclear grooves?
Which ovarian neoplasm is typically positive for cytokeratin 7 but
negative for inhibin?
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiomyolipoma.
b. Leiomyosarcoma.
c. Renal cell carcinoma with sarcomatoid component.
d. Renal cell carcinoma, unclassified.
A malignant spindle cell tumor of the kidney that contains an in situ
epithelial component in the renal pelvis is best classified as?
328
Pathology Questions
MCQs
Which of the above is associated wiyh malformed vascular channels and is

positive for HMB-45?
a. Angiomyolipoma.
1053. A malignant spindle cell neoplasm with no associated epithelial
component and a CD10-/ smooth muscle actin + immunoprofile most
likely represents which entity in the diagnostic set?
b. Leiomyosarcoma.
Diagnostic set:
a. Acute emphyseatous cholecystitis.
b. Cholesterelosis.
c. Gaucher disease.
d. Signet ring cell carcinoma.
e. Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis.
f. Xanthoma.
Which entity is characterized by isolated increased lipid uptake/storage
in macrophages in the lamina propria of the gallbladder?
b. Cholesterelosis.
Which entity is characterized by the accumulation of glucocerebroside in
cells including tissue macrophages, secondary to deficiency of beta
glucosidase?
c. Gaucher disease.
Which condition is characterized by accumulation of lipofuscin (ceroid)
granules within macrophages?
e. Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis.
329
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1055. Which of the following features is required for the diagnosis of anaplasia
in Wilm's tumor? (PIP 2010 B)
a. Abnormal multipolar mitotic figures.
b. Marked nuclear enlargement (nuclear size 3x that of surrounding
tumor cells).
c. Nuclear hyperchromasia.
d. Any one of the above features.
1056. Which of the following renal tumor predisposition syndromes
ischaracterized by gonadal dysgenesis and nephropathy due to mesangial
sclerosis? (PIP 2010 B)
a. Beckwith-Widermann syndrome.
b. Hippel-Lindau syndrome.
c. Denys-Drash syndrome.
d. Simpson-Golabi-Behmel syndrome.
e. WAGR syndrome.
1057. This pediatric renal tumor showed pre-operative rupture of the renal
capsule and extension of tumor into perirenal fat. Imaging studies showed
no evidence of the tumor in the contralateral kidney and no evidence of
metastatic tumor outside of the abdomen and pelvis. What is the
pathologic stage of this tumor?
a. Stage I.
b. Stage II.
c. Stage III.
d. Stage IV.
e. Stage V.
1058. Which tumor is typically characterized by comedo-type necrosis?
b. Adenosquamous carcinoma.
330
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Neuroendocrine carcinoma.
1059. Which tumor is characterized by the presence of myoepithelial
component?
b. Adenosquamous carcinoma.
d. Neuroendocrine carcinoma.
1060. For each of the following questions choose the most likelydiagnosis from
once, or not at all)
Diagnostic set:
a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Fibroma.
c. Metastatic neoplasm.
d. Myxoma.
e. Papillary fibroelastoma.
The most common cardiac tumor is:
c. Metastatic neoplasm.
The most common benign primary cardiac tumor is:
d. Myxoma.
A primary malignant cardiac tumor that usually occurs on the right side of
the heart is:
a. Angiosarcoma.
Diagnostic set:
331
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Gaucher disease.
d. Large B-cell lymphoma.
Which of the above coditions characteristically involves the red pulp?
Which of these disorders will show tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase
(TRAP) positivity within peripheral blood cells?
Which of these disorders characteristically shows bi-polar prohections in
peripheral blood?
1062. Which of the following is true regarding the diagnosis of AGCT? (PIP 2010
B)
a. Nuclear grooves are a specific feature limited to AGCT and never
found in cellular fibromas.
b. Reticulin staining demonstrating distinct fibers surrounding large
groups of cells helps distinguish AGCT from cellular fibroma.
c. There is often a fibromtous background in AGCT, and at times the
granulosa cell can be a minor component, making up less then
10% of the tumor.
d. A positive pankeratin immunohistochemichal stain always
distinguishes undefferintiated carcinoma from adult granulosa cell
tumor.
1063. Which immunohistochemichal staining problem is compatible with an
AGCT? (PIP 2010 B)
a. Calretinin(+), WT1(-), Cytokeratin 7(+), CD99 (+).
332
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Calretinin(+), WT1(+), Cytokeratin 7(+), CD99 (+).

c. Pankeratin(+), EMA(-), Calretinin(+), WT1(+).
d. Pankeratin(+), EMA(+), Calretinin(+), WT1(+).
1064. Which of the following features is an important prognostic factor for
AGCT? (PIP 2010 B)
a. Absence of Call-Exner bodies.
b. Bizzare nuclei.
c. Luetinized cells.
d. Stage.
1065. Pathologic stage of mammary carcinoma is based upon: (PIP 2010 B)
a. Intensity of estrogen receptor expression.
b. Maximum dimension of the entire tumor including the in-situ and
invasive components.
c. Maximum dimension of the invasive component only.
d. Presence or absence of lymphvascular invasion.
e. Presence or absence of 'positive' linked margins.
1066. In staging multifocal invasive mammary carcinoma: (PIP 2010 B)
a. Multifocal carcinomas are not pathologically staged by convention.
b. Multifocal carcinomas are not staged if DCIS is more than 50% of
the tumor.
c. Only ER positive portions of multifocal carcinomas are measured.
d. Stage is based upon the largest linear dimension of the largest
discrete focus of carcinoma.
e. The largest linear dimensions of each focus are added.
1067. A poorly differentiated breast mass is CK7(-), AE/AE3(-), S-100(+),
HMB45(+), and Melan A (+). A likely diagnosis is: (PIP 2010 B)
a. Duct carcinoma in situ.
b. Infiltrating duct carcinoma.
c. Melanoma.
333
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Metastatic ovarian carcinoma.

e. Microglandular hyperplasia of the breast.
1068. Which of the following immunohistochemichal stains is most specificfor
Kaposi sarcoma?
a. CD31.
b. Factor VII-related antigen.
c. FLI-1.
d. LANA-1.
e. VEGFR-3.
1069. Which one of the following markers is expressed by cystic tumor of the
arterioventricular region?
a. B72.3 (tumor-associated glycoprotein 72).
b. Calretinin.
c. factor VIII-related antigen.
d. LANA-1.
e. Thrombodulin.
1070. Which of the following antigens is most specific for lymphatic endothelial
cells? (PIP 2010 B)
a. CD31.
b. D2-40.
c. FLI-1.
d. LANA-1.
e. Ulex-lectin.
1071. Which tumor occurs most commonly in the long bones of children or
young adults, and is characterized by a spindle cell sarcomatous
component with osteoid formaation intimately admixed with a
cartiliginous component of equivelant grade? (PIP 2010 C)
a. Chondromyxoid fibroma.
b. Differentiated chondrosarcoma.
334
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Meningioma.
d. Mesenchymal chondrosarcoma.
e. Osteosarcoma, chondroblastic type.
1072. Which tumor occurs most commonly in the pelvis or femur of older
individuals and consists of a low grade cartiliginous component which
abruptly transitions to a high-grade spindle cell sarcoma that may contain
osteoid? (PIP 2010 C)
c. Meningioma.
1073. Which tumor occurs primarily in the second or third decade, most
commonly involves the jaw but may arise in the soft tissue or meninges,
and consists of lobules of well-differentiated cartilage in a background of
undifferentiated small blue cells? (PIP 2010 C)
c. Meningioma.
1074. The invasive lobular carcinoma variant with poor prognosis: (PIP 2010 C)
a. Alveolar.
b. Classical.
c. Histiocytoid.
d. Pleomorphic.
e. Solid.
1075. The most typical immunohistochemichal profile for classicalinvasive
lobular carcinoma is: (PIP 2010 C)
335
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. ER(+), PR(+), HER2(+), E-cadherin(-).

b. ER(+), PR(+), HER2(-), E-cadherin(-).
c. ER(+), PR(+), HER2(+), E-cadherin(-), GCDF-15(+).
d. ER(+), PR(-), HER2(+), E-cadherin(+).
e. ER(-), PR(-), HER2(-), E-cadherin(-), GCDF-15(-).
1076. Which of the following statements about the prognosis of invasive lobular
carcinoma is true? (PIP 2010 C)
a. All of the invasive lobular variants have essentially the same
prognosis.
b. E-cadherin-negative lobular variants have a worse prognosis than
E-cadherin-positive tumors.
c. In lobular tumors, only the nuclear grade has prognostic
significance.
d. The Nottingham combined histologic grade has prognostic
significance in invasive lobular tumors.
e. With long-term follow-up (10 years or more), invasive lobular
tumors show a better overall survival than invasive ductal tumors.
1077. Which adenocarcinoma within an ovary is most commonly composed of
confluent necrosis and has an immunoprofile of CK7(-), CK20(+), ER(-),
PR(-)? (PIP 2010 C)
a. Carcinoid tumor.
c. Endometrioid adenofibroma.
1078. Which tumor generally stains positive for calretinin? (PIP 2010 C)
a. Carcinoid tumor.
336
Pathology Questions
MCQs

1079. Which tumor exhibits similar molecular abnormalities as those seen in
the endometrial cavity (ie: PTEN, beta ctaerin and KRAS mutations, and
microsatellite instability)? (PIP 2010 C)
a. Carcinoid tumor.
1080. Which entity represents the most common type of chronic villitis
encountered in daily practice? (PIP 2010 C)
d. Chronic villitis secondary to syphilis.
1081. Chronic villitis associated with plama cells, villous necrosis and
calcifications is most commonly associated with which entity? (PIP 2010
C)
1082. Which type of chronic villitis includes hypercellular villi, proliferative
fetal vascular changes with vascular obliteration and onion skinning' of
vessels? (PIP 2010 C)
337
Pathology Questions
MCQs

1083. Germline mutations in the STK11/LKB1 gene have been recognized as a
cause of: (PIP 2010 C)
a. Bannayan-Riley-Ruvalcaba syndrome.
b. Cowden syndrome.
c. Familial adenomatous polyposis.
d. Juvenile polyposis.
e. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.
1084. The association of adenomatous polyposis with osteomas and soft tissue
fibromas is called: (PIP 2010 C)
a. Cowden syndrome.
b. Gardner syndrome.
c. Maffucci syndrome.
d. Ollier syndrome.
e. Turcot syndrome.
1085. Classically, the lifetime risk of colorectal carcinoma in patients with APC
gene mutation-associated polyposis is: (PIP 2010 C)
a. 15%.
b. 30%.
c. 50%.
d. 85%.
e. 100%.
1086. Which of the following features is more characteristic of fibrolamellar
carcinoma compared to conventional hepatocellular carcinoma? (PIP
2010 C)
a. Prominent nucleoli.
b. Mallory hyaline.
c. Pale bodies.
338
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Cytoplasmic fat.
1087. Which of the following correctly describes the clinical impact of
distinguishing fibrolamellar carcinoma and conventionalhepatocellular
a. Less aggressive surgical approach in fibrolamellar carcinoma.
b. More aggressive approach in lymph node dissection in
fibrolamellar cracinoma.
c. Highly effective radiation therapy in fibrolamellar carcinoma.
d. Highly effective chemotherapy in fibrolamellar carcinoma.
1088. Which of the following argues against a diagnosis of fibrolamellar
a. Presence of mucin.
b. Diffuse CK7 expression.
c. Diffuse glypican-3 expression.
d. Diffuse chromogranin expression.
1089. Which gene is most often hypermethylated in colonic medullary
carcinomas? (PIP 2010 C)
a. MLH1.
b. MSH2.
c. MSH6.
d. PMS2.
1090. Which of the following is required for a diagnosis of colonic high-grade
large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma? (PIP 2010 C)
a. Demonstration
of
cytokeratin
expression
by
differentiation
by
immunohistochemistry.
b. Demonstration
of
neuroendocrine
c. Focal gland formation.
d. Organoid, insular, trabecular, or sheet-like growth pattern.
339
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1091. Which is not a characteristic feature of colon cancers that are

microsatellite unstable? (PIP 2010 C)
a. Crohn-like reaction.
b. Intratumoral lymphocytes.
c. Luminal or dirty necrosis.
d. Mucinous phenotype.
1092. Which tumor is characterized by diffuse cytokeratin positivity, positive
CD10 and negative HepPar 1 staining? (PIP 2010 C)
b. Adrinal cortical carcinoma.
1093. Which tumor is characterized by sustentacular pattern of S-100 protein
immunostaining? (PIP 2010 C)
1094. Which
malignant
neoplasm
is
characterized
by
the
following
immunoprofile: Melan A(+), vimentin(+), inhibin(+), and Calretinin(+)?

(PIP 2010 C)
340
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1095. Ductal plate malformation is a bile duct abnormality which is afeature of:
(PIP 2010 D)
a. Alagille syndrome.
b. Congenital hepatic fibrosis.
c. Cystic fibrosis.
d. Extrahepatic biliary atresia.
1096. Hepatorenal fibrocystic diseases include all of the following except: (PIP
2010 D)
a. Alagille syndrome.
b. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease.
c. Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease.
d. Meckel syndrome.
e. Nephrolithiasis.
1097. A typical feature of extrahepatic biliary atresia which is helpful in
distinguishing it from congenital hepatic fibrosis is: (PIP 2010 D)
a. Association with ciliopathies.
b. Reactive ductal proliferation.
c. Ductal plate malformation.
d. Hepatocellular swelling and giant cell transformation.
e. PKHD1 gene mutation.
1098. Which entity is characterized by hepatosplenomagaly, neurological
dysfunction, skeletal disorders, and enlarged macrophages infiltrating the
liver, spleen brain and bone marrow which have a fibrillary tissue-paper
appearance to the cytoplasm? (PIP 2010 D)
a. Gaucher disease.
b. Malakoplakia.
c. Niemann-pick disease.
d. Rosai-Dorfman disease.
e. Tay-Sachs disease.
341
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1099. Which entity is characterized by extensive accumulation of S-100 proteinpositive histiocytes within lymph nodes? (PIP 2010 D)
a. Gaucher disease.
b. Malakoplakia.
1100. Which entity is diagnosed using a biochemichal test for sphingomyelinase
activity? (PIP 2010 D)
a. Gaucher disease.
b. Malakoplakia.
1101. Which of the following is true regarding tumoral calcinosis? (PIP 2010 D)
a. Associated with abnormalities in calcium metabolism.
b. Lesions with identical histologic features may be seen in patients
with chronic renal disease and secondary hyperparathyroidism.
c. Patients most often present with a solitary lesion.
d. Radiographs
typically
demonstrate
associated
osteoporotic
changes or other bony abnormalities.

e. The disease usually has its onset in the sixth to seventh decade of
life.
1102. Which lesion is characterized by multiple tumor nodules (usuallyon the
arm or hand) composed histologically of bland mononuclear cells, short
spindle cells, and osteoblastic giant cells? (PIP 2010 D)
a. Aneurysmal bone cyst.
b. Dystrophic calcifications secondary to gluteal ischemic necrosis.
c. Giant cell reparative granuloma.
342
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Giant cell tumor of soft tissue.

e. Tumoral calcinosis.
1103. Which of the following typically shows reactivity with antibodies directed
against smooth muscle actin, desmin, CD34 and Bcl-2? (PIP 2010 D)
a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Fibroadenoma.
c. Pseudoangimoatous stromal hyperplasia (PASH).
d. Sclerosing adenosis.
1104. Which of the following is more typical of PASH than low-grade
angiosarcoma? (PIP 2010 D)
a. A positive reaction to CD31 and anti-factor VIII antibodies.
b. A tendency to infiltrate individual adipocytes.
c. Marked nuclear pleomorphism.
d. Slit-like lumina devoid of erytherocytes.
1105. If PASH is diagnosed on a core biopsy, the lesion: (PIP 2010 D)
a. May be followed clinically if the patient so desires.
b. Should be treated with lumpectomy and a sentinel lymph node
biopsy.
c. Should be treated with neoadjuvant chemotherapy before excision.
d. The lesion should be questioned as PASH, cannot be reliably
diagnosed on core biopsy.
1106. Which tumor is characterized by a small to medium sized blood vessels
with mural hyalinization? (PIP 2010 D)
b. Angimyofibroblastoma-like tumor of male genital tract.
c. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma (pleomorphic sarcoma).
343
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1107. Which tumor can show areas of differentiation to high grade sarcoma?
(PIP 2010 D)
1108. Which tumor is most often characterized by MDM2 gene amplification?
(PIP 2010 D)
1109. Classical
Hodgkin
lymphoma
differs
from
nodular
lymphocyte
predominant Hodgkin lymphoma by which of the followingfeature(s)?

(PIP 2010 D)
a. Multilobulated neoplastic cells.
b. Neoplastic cells stain positive for CD30 and CD15.
c. Nodular growth pattern.
d. Sparse neoplastic cells in a background of mixed inflammatory
cells.
1110. Nodular sclerosis classical Hodgkin lymphoma (NSCHL) can be
distinguished from mediastinal large B-cell lymphoma by which of the
following features? (PIP 2010 D)
a. NSCHL is CD30 immunostain positive.
b. NSCHL is seldom seen in young patients, whereas PMBL is seen in
younger patients.
c. Only PMBL arises in a mediastinal location.
344
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Sclerotic bands in NSCHL separate nodules, while in PMBL they

tend to encircle individual large cells.
1111. Immunoglobulin Heavy Chain (IgH) gene rearrangement studies in
NSCHL are frequently negative. This is because: (PIP 2010 D)
a. NSCHL is not a B-cell malignancy and only B-cell lymphomas are
positive for IgH gene rearrangement studies.
b. NSCHL is not a clonal disorder, it is an inflammatory disease.
c. Neoplastic cells typically make up less than 1% of the sampled
specimen.
d. The IGH gene locus is lost in NSCHL.
1112. Translocation t(12;22)(q13;q12) AFT1 and EWS- is usually seen in
which neoplasm? (PIP 2010 D)
d. Monophasic synovial sarcoma.
e. Neuroblastoma.
f. Primary renal Ewing sarcoma/PNET.
g. Rhabdoid tumor.
h. Rhabdomyosarcoma.
i.
Small cell carcinoma.
j.
Wilm's tumor, blastema predominant.
1113. This tumor is usually positive for FLI-1: (PIP 2010 D)

e. Neuroblastoma.
g. Rhabdoid tumor.
345
Pathology Questions
MCQs
i.
j.
1114. This tumor typically displays loss of INI 1 immunoexpression: (PIP 2010
D)
e. Neuroblastoma.
g. Rhabdoid tumor.
i.
j.
1115. Which entity is characterized by a mutation in the ATP78 protein encoded

for on chromosome 13? (PIP 2010 D)
a. Acetaminophen toxicity.
b. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency.
c. Nodular regenerative hyperplasia.
e. Viral hepatitis.
f. Wilson disease.
1116. Which entity is primarily seen in middle age women and is characterized
by a positive antimitochondrial antibody, elevated alkaline phosphatase
and elevated IgM? (PIP 2010 D)
346
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Viral hepatitis.
f. Wilson disease.
1117. Which entity is associated with endoplasmic reticulum stress secondary
to accumulation of abnormally folded protein? (PIP 2010 D)
e. Viral hepatitis.
f. Wilson disease.
1118. Which entity has the highest genetic predisposition of allhematologic
neoplasms? (PIP 2010 D)
a. Bacillary angiomatosis.
b. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia/Small lymphocytic lymphoma.
c. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified.
d. Extra-nodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosal-associated
lymphoid tissue.
f. Nodular sclerosing classical Hodgkin lymphoma,
g. Splenic marginal zone lymphoma.
1119. Based on gene expression profiling, which entity has two prognostic
subtypes- germinal center B-cell like (GCB) and activated B-cell like
(ABC)? (PIP 2010 D)
lymphoid tissue.
347
Pathology Questions
MCQs

1120. Which entity is associated with t(11;18) translocation? (PIP 2010 D)
lymphoid tissue.
1121. Loss of INI 1 (hsNF5/Baf47) is seen in which other tumor besides renal
medullary carcinoma? (PIP 2011 A)
a. Collecting duct carcinoma.
c. Renal cell carcinoma, unclassified.
d. Renal medullary carcinoma.
e. Rhabdoid tumor.
f. Urothelial carcinoma with glandular features involving the renal
pelvis.
1122. Patients with this type of tumor typically have sickle trait (Hb-AS or HbSC) or rarely, sickle cell anemia (Hb-SS): (PIP 2011 A)
e. Rhabdoid tumor.
pelvis.
348
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1123. This tumor is usually positive for HMCK, EMA, CK7, ULEX-1 and INI 1:
(PIP 2011 A)
e. Rhabdoid tumor.
pelvis.
1124. CASTLE can be distinguished from primary metastatic squamous cell
carcinoma of the thyroid by: (PIP 2011 A)
a. Membranous CD5 and CD117 positivity.
b. Epstein-Barr virus positivity.
c. Close
resemblance
of
CASTLE
to
lymphoepithelioma-like
carcinoma of the thymus.

d. p63 positivity.
e. Lymph node involvement.
1125. The immunohistochemical profile of CASTLE includes: (PIP 2011 A)
a. Keratin and p63 positivity.
b. CD5 and CD117 (C-kit) positivity.
c. Chromogranin and synaptophysin positivity.
d. Absence of CD20/CD45+ lymphocytes.
e. Presence of CD1a/TdT+ small lymphocytes in stroma.
1126. CASTLE
shares
with
lymphoepithelioma-like
carcinoma
of
the
nasopharynx all of the following EXCEPT: (PIP 2011 A)

a. Dense lymphoplasmacytic stromal infiltrates.
b. Propensity for lymph node metastasis.
c. Good response to treatment.
d. Uniform population of keratin-positive cells with prominent
nucleoli.
e. Association with Epstein-Barr virus.
349
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1127. Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with HPS? (PIP 2011
A)
a. Herpes virus.
b. Antiviral therapy.
c. Lymphoma.
d. Lupus erythematosis.
e. Mutations of the perforin gene.
f. Immunodeficiency disorders.
g. None of the above.
1128. How
does
one
differentiate
sinus
histiocytosis
with
massive
lymphadenopathy (SHML) from HPS? (PIP 2011 A)

a. SHML cells have much more cytologic atypia.
b. SHML cells typically contain more intact lymphocytes and plasma
cells.
c. HPS histiocytes are S100 positive.
d. SHML is associated with a dense eosinophilic infiltration.
1129. Which lesion can secondarily complicate benign and malignant tumors?
(PIP 2011 A)
b. Desmoplastic fibroma.
c. Fibrous dysplasia.
d. Fibrosarcoma of bone, low-grade.
e. Intraosseous osteosarcoma, low-grade.
f. Parosteal osteosarcoma.
1130. Which condition involves an activating mutation of the G protein signaling
pathway? (PIP 2011 A)
350
Pathology Questions
MCQs

1131. Which entity is characterized by fairly uniform spindle cells arrangedin a
herringbone pattern and aggressive growth pattern radiologically? (PIP
2011 A)
1132. Which lesion is characterized by round, epithelioid cells with duct-like
structures and stains with CAM5.2? (PIP 2011 A)
a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Glomus tumor.
c. Hemangiopericytoma/solitary fibrous tumor.
d. Hidradenoma.
e. Myopericytoma.
1133. Which lesion is characterized by round cells surrounding vessels, with
those cells showing a round, centrally placed nucleus? (PIP 2011 A)
a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Glomus tumor.
d. Hidradenoma.
e. Myopericytoma.
1134. Which lesion may be immunoreactive for CD99? (PIP 2011 A)
a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Glomus tumor.
351
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Hidradenoma.
e. Myopericytoma.
1135. Of the small lymphocytic processes that can involve the white pulp ofthe
spleen, which of the lesions characteristically has the highest proliferation
index (Ki-67) within the small lymphocytes? (PIP 2011 A)
a. Classical Hodgkin lymphoma.
e. Small lymphocytic lymphoma/chronic lymphocytic leukemmia.
f. Splenic diffuse red pulp small B-cell lymphoma.
1136. Tumor cells of this entity are usually characteristically sparse within the
nodules and are usually positive for CD30? (PIP 2011 A)
1137. The tumor cells of this B-cell leukemia/lymphoma are CD103 positive and
DBA.44 positive: (PIP 2011 A)
352
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1138. Which entity is characterized by a collection of endothelial-linedcysts

surrounded by a fibrous stroma containing smooth muscle fibers? (PIP
2011 A)
a. Florid cystic endosalpingiosis.
b. Lymphangioma.
c. Malignant peritoneal mesothelioma.
d. Multicystic peritoneal mesothelioma.
e. Pseudomyxoma peritonei.
1139. In addition to lymphangioma, in which other cystic lesion do D2-40
positive cells line the cystic structures? (PIP 2011 A)
b. Lymphangioma.
1140. Which entity typically occurs in women of reproductive age and may
contain cilia in the cyst lining? (PIP 2011 A)
b. Lymphangioma.
1141. Pseudomembranes may form in this disease process but will have a
paucity of neutrophils: (PIP 2011 A)
a. Amoebic colitis.
b. Clostidium dificille pseudomembranous colitis.
c. Graft versus host disease.
d. Inflammatory bowel disease with pseudomembrane formation.
e. Ischemic colitis with pseudomembrane formation.
353
Pathology Questions
MCQs
f. Radiation colitis.
g. Typhilitis.
1142. In which disease does examination of the colon reveal pseudomembranes
with siderophages and fibrosis of lamina propria? (PIP 2011 A)
a. Amoebic colitis.
g. Typhilitis.
1143. In which disease does examination of the colon reveal pseudomembranes
with flask-shaped ulceration containing histiocystoid structures that
exhibit erythrophagocytosis and strong cytoplasmic PAS reaction? (PIP
2011 A)
a. Amoebic colitis.
g. Typhilitis.
1144. Which entity is characterized by diffusely enlarged, often cavitated villi
with concentric trophoblastic proliferation and is associatedwith the
greatest risk for persistent trophoblastic disease? (PIP 2011 A)
a. Choriocarcinoma.
b. Complete hydatidiform mole.
c. Hydropic abortus.
354
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1145. Which entity is associated with a lack of immunostaining for the

paternally imprinted, maternally expressed gene product, p57kip2 in
villous mesenchymal cells and villous cytotrophoblast?
a. Choriocarcinoma.
1146. Which entity can be associated with modestly increased beta-HCG levels,
a normal uterine ultrasound, an admixture of normal and hydropic villi,
concentric syncytiotrophoblastic hyperplasia and fetal syndactyly? (PIP
2011 A)
a. Choriocarcinoma.
1147. Which tumor is characteriz by positive staining for CD5 and CD117? (PIP
2011 B)
b. Nodular sclerosis classical Hodgkin lymphoma.
c. Primary mediastinal large B-cell lymphoma.
d. Spindle cell thymoma.
e. Thymic carcinoma.
1148. Which tumor is typically defined by positive staining for CD21 and
CD35/23? (PIP 2011 B)
355
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1149. Which tumor is characterized by CD30 and CD20 positive cells with clear
cytoplasm in a background of delicate interstitial fibrosis? (PIP 2011 B)
1150. Mucinous and signet ring cell carcinomas together account for
approximately what percentage of colorectal adenocarcinoma? (PIP 2011
B)
a. 1%.
b. 10%.
c. 20%.
d. 25%.
1151. Mucinous colorectal adenocarcinoma is associated with which ONE of the
following? (PIP 2011 B)
a. A near 100% likelihood of hereditary non-polyposis colorectal
cancer (HNPCC).
b. A near 100% likelihood of high microsatellite instability (MSI-H).
c. An excellent response to chemotherapy.
d. A better prognosis compared to signet ring cell carcinoma.
1152. Which of the following is/are required for classification of a tumor as a
signet ring cell carcinoma? (PIP 2011 B)
a. More than 50% of the tumor is comprised of mucin.
b. More than 50% of the tumor cells are signet ring cells.
c. High microsatellite instability (MSI-H).
d. A family pedigree consistent with HNPCC.
356
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1153. While the capsule of C. neoformans typically stains fuchsia with

mucicarmine stain, capsule-deficient variants may be stained by: (PIP
2011 B)
a. Alcian blue.
b. Fontana-Masson.
c. Verhoeff-Van Gieson.
d. Masson trichrome.
1154. Malakoplakia is: (PIP 2011 B)
a. A granulomatous-type inflammatory response usually seen in the
urinary tract association with Gram-negative coliform bacilli.
b. Is typically associated with the formation of Michaelis-Gutmann
bodies.
c. Seen in the lungs associated with R. equi infection.
d. All of the above.
1155. C. neoformans: (PIP 2011 B)
a. Is a common soil contaminant spread through aerosolized dust.
b. Is spread through pigeon droppings.
c. Is usually a pathogen in immunocompromised patients but may
also afflict immunocompetent patients.
d. Has a world-wide distribution.
f. Non of the above.
1156. Which human papillomavirus type is the most common cause of recurrent
respiratory papillomatosis? (PIP 2011 B)
a. HPV 16.
b. HPV 18.
c. HPV 31.
d. HPV 33.
e. HPV 11.
357
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1157. Which is not typically a feature of recurrent respiratory papillomatosis?

(PIP 2011 B)
a. Fibrovascular cores covered in an orderly squamous epithelium.
b. A pushing, non-infiltrative border.
c. Increased mitotic figures and a desmoplastic stroma.
d. Presence of mild to moderate squamous dysplasia.
e. Multiple exophytic lesions.
1158. What is the most common clinical presentation for recurrent respiratory
papillomatosis? (PIP 2011 B)
a. Cavitary lung lesions seen on imaging.
b. Hoarseness or changes in voice.
c. Respiratory distress.
d. Presence of enlarged cervical lymph nodes.
e. Post-obstructive pneumonia.
1159. Which is the most common renal neoplasm in children 2 months of age?
(PIP 2011 B)
b. Congenital mesoblastic nephroma.
c. Rhabdoid tumor.
d. Wilms tumor.
e. Leiomyoma.
1160. Cellular mesoblastic nephromas often exhibit trisomy 11. Which other
tumor harbors a chromosomal abnormality of chromosome11? (PIP 2011
B)
c. Rhabdoid tumor.
d. Wilms tumor.
e. Leiomyoma.
358
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1161. Loss of INI 1 nuclear staining is associated with which pediatric tumor?
(PIP 2011 B)
c. Rhabdoid tumor.
d. Wilms tumor.
e. Leiomyoma.
1162. Which one of the following features can be helpful in distinguishing
cytoplasmic inclusions in GSD IV and Lafora disease? (PIP 2011 B)
a. Inclusions of Lafora disease are pale staining or basophilic.
b. Inclusions of Lafora disease are digested with diastase.
c. Inclusions of GSD IV are coarsely stained with colloidal iron.
d. Inclusions of GSD IV resist digestion with pectinase.
1163. Which
of
the
following
conditions
is
NOT
associated
with
swollenlymphocytes loaded with glycogen? (PIP 2011 B)

a. Urea cycle enzyme defects.
b. Fibrinogen storage diseases.
c. Glycogenic hepatopathy.
d. High dose steroids.
1164. Which of the following statements is correct about glycogen storage
diseases? (PIP 2011 B)
a. Swollen hepatocytes are common in GSD, type 0.
b. Adenomas occur in GSD, type I.
c. Lysosomal glycogen is seen in GSD, type III.
d. Ground glass inclusions are seen in GSD, type IX.
1165. Which lesion is most often associated with severe thrombocytopenia,
purpura,
and
consumptive
coagulopathy
(Kasabach-Merritt
phenomenon)?
359
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Infantile hemangioma.
b. Kaposiform hemangioendothelioma.
c. Angiosarcoma.
d. Venous malformation.
e. Neonatal hemangimatosis.
1166. Which of the following immunohistochemical markers is expected to be
positive in Kaposiform hemangioendothelioma? (PIP 2011 B)
a. HHV8.
b. Glut-1.
c. D2-40.
d. HMB45.
e. Myogenin.
1167. The biologic behavior of Kaposiform hemangioendothelioma istypically
characterized by: (PIP 2011 B)
a. Proliferative phase of growth over a period of months, followed by
slow involution during the first year of life.
b. Rapid near-complete involution in the first weeks of life.
c. Partial involution in the first weeks of life, followed by a prolonged
period of stability.
d. Progressive growth.
e. Distant metastasis.
1168. Which of the following spindle cell tumors of soft tissue is LEAST likely to
show a prominent hemangiopericytic pattern of growth? (PIP 2011 C)
a. Fibrosarcoma.
b. Synovial sarcoma.
c. Leiomyosarcoma.
360
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1169. Which of the following combinations of immunohistochemical stains are

most consistent with a diagnosis of synovial sarcoma? (PIP 2011 C)
a. Strong and diffuse pan-keratin positivity, CEA+, MOC31+ and
CK19+.
b. Focal keratin positivity, bcl-2+, calponin+, CD99+, EMA+, TLE-1+.
c. Focal keratin positivity, bcl-2+, S-100+, CD56+, CD10+, TLE-1
negative.
d. Negative keratin, bcl-2+, CD99+, CD34+, SMA negative, TLE-1
negative.
e. CK8/18+, SMA+, desmin+, calponin+, CD99 negative, bcl-2
negative.
1170. Which of the following molecular genetics results using fluorescence insitu hybridization (FISH) would be consistent with a diagnosis of synovial
sarcoma? (PIP 2011 C)
a. Demonstration of SS18-SSX1 or SS18-SSX2 fusion gene.
b. Demonstration of EWSR1-FLI 1 fusion gene.
c. Demonstration of FUS-DDIT3 fusion gene.
d. Demonstration of COL1A1-PDGFB fusion gene.
e. Demonstration of EWSR1-NR4A3 fusion gene.
1171. Which neoplasm frequently lacks evidence of urothelial differentiation on
immunohistochemical study for markers such as uroplakin III,
thrombomodulin or CK20? (PIP 2011 C)
a. Benign Brenner tumor.
b. Borderline (proliferative) Brenner tumor.
c. Malignant Brenner tumor.
d. Metastatic urothelial (bladder) carcinoma.
e. Transitional cell carcinoma of the ovary.
1172. Which is the correct classification for a primary ovarian tumor with areas
of urothelial, squamous or undifferentiated carcinoma found in
association with nests of benign urothelial cells?
361
Pathology Questions
MCQs

1173. Which neoplasm should be suspected when the tumor is composed of
high grade urothelial cells that stain positive for uroplakin III,
thrombomodulin, and CK20, but does not have an adjacent benign or
borderline component of Brenner tumor? (PIP 2011 C)
1174. Which entity is characterized by a poorly lobulated architecture, an
increased cell population per unit area with hyperchromatic nuclei,
increased binucleated cells, lack of osteoid formation and irregular
margins on imaging? (PIP 2011 C)
b. Chondrosarcoma, well-differentiated.
d. Enchondroma.
e. Extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma.
f. Fracture callus.
1175. Which cartilage producing tumor, can be identified by the characteristic
separation of hyaline cartilage lobules by hematopoietic elements? (PIP
2011 C)
362
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Enchondroma.
f. Fracture callus.
1176. Which
solid
tumor
demonstrates
reproducible
chromosomal
rearrangements involving 9q22, which results in the production of a

NR4A3 fusion gene? (PIP 2011 C)
d. Enchondroma.
f. Fracture callus.
1177. Which entity is characterized by a reciprocal translocation, t(12;22)
(q13;q12), resulting in EWS/ATF1 gene fusion? (PIP 2011 C)
b. Clear cell sarcoma of soft tissue.
c. Fibrosarcoma.
d. Leiomyosarcoma.
f. Synovial sarcoma.
1178. Which tumor is characterized by sweeping fascicles of irregularly shaped
spindle cells with lightly-stained indistinct cytoplasm and hyalinized
cords that resemble giant rosettes? (PIP 2011 C)
c. Fibrosarcoma.
d. Leiomyosarcoma.
363
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1179. Which tumor shows positive staining for cytokeratins, vimentin, EMA,
CD99 and Bcl-2? (PIP 2011 C)
c. Fibrosarcoma.
d. Leiomyosarcoma.
1180. A lymph node from an upper cervical biopsy in a young Asian male shows
increased eosinophils, some in large clusters along with plasma cells,
nodules separated by fibrocollagenous sclerosis and frequent binucleated
giant cells that are reactive for CD30 and CD15? (PIP 2011 C)
a. Angiolymphoid hyperplasia with eosinophilia.
b. Classical Hodgkin lymphoma.
c. Histiocytosis.
d. Kimura lymphadenopathy.
1181. A 3-year old child presents with bony lesions involving predominantly flat
bones (skull). Biopsy shows increased eosinophils, along with a spindle
cell infiltrate which is positive for CD117: (PIP 2011 C)
c. Histiocytosis.
1182. Which of the above conditions present as a papular rash in a young
Cucasian female, with histopathology revealing soft tissue and dermal
eosinophilic infiltrate, proliferation of small capillaries with prominent
endothelial hypertrophy and no nodal involvement? (PIP 2011 C)
364
Pathology Questions
MCQs

c. Histiocytosis.
1183. Which entity is characterized by multiple cysts lined by low-cuboidal
epithelial cells with clear cytoplasm and can be seen in association with
the von Hipple-Lindau syndrome? (PIP 2011 C)
a. Intraductal papillary mucinous neooplasm.
b. Lymphoepithelial cyst.
d. Microcystic serous cystadenoma.
e. Mucinous cystic neoplasm.
f. Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma.
1184. Which entity is almost entirely seen in women and is characterized by
cystic spaces lined by mucinous cells with a surrounding ovarian-type
stroma? (PIP 2011 C)
1185. Which cystic entity is often filled with keratinaceous debris? (PIP 2011 C)
365
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1186. A small dural lesion is resected and is composed of epithelioid cells with
prominent eosinophilic cytoplasm. Some cells have single vacuoles
resembling signet ring forms while other cells have bubbly, multivacuolated cytoplasm. These cells are present in a mucoid matrix. The
lesional cells express brachyury, EMA, cytokeratin and S-100 but do not
express D2-40 or GFAP. Which of the following is the best diagnosis? (PIP
2011 C)
a. Choroid glioma, WHO grade II.
b. Choroid meningioma, WHO grade II.
c. Choroid sarcoma.
d. Intradural chondroma.
e. Metastatic mucinous adenocarcinoma.
1187. A 45-year-old man presents with a radiographic circumscribed, noninfiltrating third ventricle tumor that is resected. It is composed of
epithelioid cells forming cords and nests within a mucinous stroma that
has a prominent lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate. Surrounding non-tumoral
tissue exhibits piloid gliosis. There is no mitotic activity and tumoral cells
express CD34 (membranous) and GFAP. Tumor cells do not express EMA,
cytokeratin, CD18 or brachyury. Which of the following is the best
diagnosis? (PIP 2011 C)
a. Choroid glioma, WHO grade II.
b. Choroid meningioma, WHO grade II.
c. Choroid sarcoma.
d. Intradural chondroma.
e. Metastatic mucinous adenocarcinoma.
1188. A 9-year-old girl presents with a dura-based 2.4 cm lesion that is resected.
It is composed of epithelioid cells some containing cytoplasmic vacuoles
forming loose nests and cords in a faintbasophilic mucoid background.
There is no mitotic activity or necrosis present. Tumor cells express D240, EMA and weakly express S-100 and cytokeratin. Tumor cells do not
express GFAP or brachyury. Thereis a mononuclear lymphoid infiltrate
366
Pathology Questions
MCQs
present that expresses CD79a and CD138. What additional clinical feature
might be expected to present in this patient pre-operatively? (PIP 2011 C)
a. Hypercalcemia.
b. Hypercoagulable state.
c. Hypoglycemia.
d. Microcytic hypochromic anemia.
e. Polycythemia.
1189. Which tumor is characterized by the presence of a malignant epithelial
component and a malignant mesenchymal component? (PIP 2011 C)
a. Carcinosarcoma.
b. Mllerian adenosarcoma.
c. Rhabdomyosarcoma.
1190. Which tumor is characterized by the presence of a benign epithelial
component and a malignant mesenchymal component? (PIP 2011 C)
a. Carcinosarcoma.
1191. Which tumor does not show any particular line of differentiation both by
morphology and immunophenotype? (PIP 2011 C)
a. Carcinosarcoma.
1192. Which of the following best describes lymphocytic and collagenous
colitis? (PIP 2011 C)
a. Distorted mucosal architecture with variability in size, shape and
spacing of glands.
367
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Preserved mucosal architecture, inflamed lamina propria and

increased intraepithelial lymhocytes.
c. Fringed, fuzzy coating at the luminal side of the mucosa, with no
associated inflammation or architectural dissaray.
d. Superfisial mucosal necrosis with atrophic crypts, hyalinization of
the lamina propria and features of regeneration.
1193. Which special stain can be used to distinguish lymhocytic colitis from
collagenous colitis in equivocal cases? (PIP 2011 C)
a. Trichrome.
b. Warthin-starry.
c. GMS.
d. Gram.
1194. Which entity is typically associated with chronic watery diarrheaand
normal
or
near-normal
endoscopic
mucosal
appearnce
during
colonoscopy? (PIP 2011 C)

a. Ulcerative colitis.
b. Ischemic colitis.
c. Intestinal spirochetosis.
d. Collagenous colitis.
1195. Which tumor is characteristically poorly demarcated? (PIP 2011 D)
1196. Which tumor is typically positive for desmin but not muscle-specific actin
or CD34? (PIP 2011 D)
368
Pathology Questions
MCQs

1197. Which tumor is characterized by hemangiopericytoma-like vascular
pattern and CD34 positivity? (PIP 2011 D)
1198. Which of the following choices best allows one to discriminate between
juvenile fibroadenoma and low-grade phyllodes tumor? (PIP 2011 D)
a. The rate of growth and assessment of a peri- versus intracanalicular growth pattern.
b. Type of margin.
c. Degree of mitotic activity.
d. Gross size.
e. Sex of the patient.
1199. High-grade phyllodes tumors have been linked to mutations in which of
the following? (PIP 2011 D)
a. p53.
b. BRAF.
c. N-myc.
d. p16 INK4A
e. BRCA-1.
1200. The most common clinical problem associated with low grade phyllodes
tumor is: (PIP 2011 D)
a. High risk of distant metastasis.
b. Chest wall invasion.
c. Local recurrence after excision.
d. Incidence of hypercalcemia (paraneoplastic syndrome).
e. Differentiation to high grade phyllodes tumor.
369
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1201. Which of the following pathologic processes is inherited in an autosomal

recessive manner? (PIP 2011 D)
a. Chronic myelogenous leukemia.
b. Gaucher disease.
e. Splenic lymphoma.
1202. What histochemical stain is used to differentiate Gaucher cells
fromPseudo-Gaucher cells? (PIP 2011 D)
a. Prussian blue.
b. Ziehl-Neelsen.
c. PAS.
d. Sudan black B.
1203. Which is a positive immunohistochemical marker for Gaucher cells? (PIP
2011 D)
a. S100.
b. CD68.
c. CD1a.
d. CD11b.
1204. Which is characteristic of ovarian sclerosing stromal tumors? (PIP 2011
D)
a. They are typically bilateral.
b. They typically occur in the fifth decade or later.
c. They typically occur in patients thirty years or younger.
d. They typically are hormonally active.
e. They typically co-exist with ovarian mucinous tumors.
1205. Which immunomarker is most typically positive in an ovarian sclerosing
tumor? (PIP 2011 D)
370
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. AE1/AE3.
b. Inhibin.
c. Calretenin.
d. Desmin.
e. Cytokeratin 7.
1206. What is the most characteristic of the signet ring cells seen in some
sclerosing stromal tumors? (PIP 2011 D)
a. They contain mucin.
b. They contain lipid.
c. They contain glycogen.
d. They will express AE1/AE3 and cytokeratin 20.
e. They are strongly inhibin and desmin positive.
1207. A 45 year old otherwise healthy woman presents with a progressively
enlarging mass in her lower neck. Physical examination and ultrasound
show nodules within the thyroid and adjacent soft tissue. The patient
denies a family history of thyroiddisease. An FNA is performed on a neck
nodule, which is diagnosedas scanty cellularity, suspicious for
neuroendocrine neoplasm. At surgery, a 2.0 cm nodule located in the
middle one-third of the left lobe of the thyroid is excised.Given the age
and clinical history in this case, to which clinical group would our patient
most likely belong? (PIP 2011 D)
a. A sporadic case of medullary carcinoma lacking C-cell hyperplasia.
b. A familial case of medullary carcinoma without an associated
endocrinopathy.
c. Multiple neuroendocrine neoplasia 2A.
d. Multiple neuroendocrine neoplasia 2B.
1208. The majority of medullary thyroid carcinomas associated with MEN2A
and MEN2B contain mutations in which proto-oncogene? (PIP 2011 D)
a. RAS.
b. PTEN.
371
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. RET.
d. P53.
e. Beta-catenin.
1209. Which staining pattern is most consistent with medullary thyroid
a. TTF-1(-), Calcitonin(-), Low Molecular weight cytokeratin(+),
CEA(+).
b. TTF-1(+), Calcitonin(+), Low Molecular weight cytokeratin(-),
CEA(-).
c. TTF-1(-), Calcitonin(+), Low Molecular weight cytokeratin(-),
CEA(+).
d. TTF-1(+), Calcitonin(-), Low Molecular weight cytokeratin(+),
CEA(-).
e. TTF-1(+), Calcitonin(-), Low Molecular weight cytokeratin(+),
CEA(-).
1210. Which tumor is characterized morphologically by malignant glandular
and mesenchymal elements, and is frequently associatedwith metastases
and poor prognosis? (PIP 2011 D)
b. Leiomyosarcoma.
d. Stromal sarcoma.
e. Stromal tumor of uncertain malignant potential.
1211. Which tumor is characterized by diffuse immunoreactivity for
CD117/KIT? (PIP 2011 D)
b. Leiomyosarcoma.
d. Stromal sarcoma.
372
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1212. Which tumor is characterized by the following histologic features and

immunophenotype: hypercellular, hyperchromatic spindle cell lesion with
mild to moderate cytologic atypia, no mitoses, no necrosis, and
vimentin(+), CD34(+), progesterone receptor(+)?(PIP 2011 D)
b. Leiomyosarcoma.
d. Stromal sarcoma.
1213. Which of the following neonatal lung diseases is characterized by nearcomplete lack of airspace development and its universally fatal in the first
hour of life? (PIP 2011 D)
a. Acinar dysplasia.
b. Alveolar capillary dysplasia.
c. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
d. Congenital alveolar dysplasia.
e. Pulmonary interstitial glycogenosis.
1214. Chronic congestive vasculopathy (pulmonary venous hypertension) may
result from all of the following cardiopulmonary lesions, EXCEPT: (PIP
2011 D)
a. Congenital cardiomyopathy.
b. Mitral valve stenosis.
c. Pulmonary vein stenosis.
d. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection.
e. Ventricular septic defect.
1215. Alveolar capillary dysplasia is caused by mutations or deletions in which
of the following genes? (PIP 2011 D)
a. ABCA3.
b. FOXF1.
373
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. SFTPB.
d. SHH.
e. TTF1.
1216. Which of the following statements is correct about hepatoblastoma? (PIP
2011 D)
a. Crowded fetal pattern typically shows mitoses > or = 20/hpf.
b. Macrotrabecular pattern typically shows 3-5 cells thick trabeculae.
c. Immature fibrous tissue, cartilage and osteoid are the most
common
mesenchymal
elements
in
the
mixed
epithelial
mesenchymal subtype.
d. Diffuse
glutamine
synthetase
on
immunohistochemistrydistinguishes it from HCC.

e. Absence of glypican-3 on immunohistochemistry distinguishes it
from HCC.
1217. Which of the following argues against the diagnosis of undifferentiated
enbryonal sarcoma? (PIP 2011 D)
a. Occurrence in 6-10 age group.
b. Marked nuclear pleomorphism with rhabdomyoblast-like cells.
c. Entrapped hepatocytes and bile ductules at periphery.
d. PAS-diastase positive globules in cytoplasm and stroma.
e. Diffuse expression of myogenin by immunohistochemistry.
1218. Which of the following favors hepatoblastoma over hepatocellular
a. Age above 10 years.
b. Glycogen storage disease.
c. Elevated serum AFP.
d. Androgen therapy for Fanconi anemia.
e. Large tumor cells resembling mature histiocytes.
374
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1219. How should most tumors with primarily non-mucinous lepidic growth
and a focus of invasive carcinoma measuring < or = 5mm be classified in
the IASLC/ATS/ERS classification scheme: (PIP 2011 D)
a. Adenocarcinoma, predominantly lepidic type.
b. Adenocarcinoma, mixed type.
c. Brochioloalveolar carcinoma.
d. Minimally invasive adenocarcinoma.
1220. In
case
otherwise
meeting
criteria
for
minimally
invasive
adenocarcinoma (MIA), the diagnosis of MIA is excluded if which of the

following is/are present? (PIP 2011 D)
a. The invasive component consists of a papillary or micropapillary
pattern.
b. Multiple foci of invasion less than 5 mm are present, but the total
amount of invasive tumor adds up to more than 5mm.
c. Pleural and/or lymphovascular invasion is present.
d. Multiple primary tumors are present.
1221. The vast majority of tumors previously classified as mucinous
bronchioloalveolar carcinoma will be classifed as which of the following
in the IASLC/ATS/ERS classification? (PIP 2011 D)
a. Adenocarcinoma in situ.
b. Minimally invasive carcinoma.
c. Invasive mucinous carcinoma.
d. Colloid carcinoma.
1222. Which ovarian tumor is most often associated with pseudoprecocious
puberty? (PIP 2011 D)
a. Choriocarcinoma.
b. Dysgerminoma.
e. Yolk sac tumor.
375
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1223. Which ovarian tumor is associated with tunor-infiltratinglymphocytes

and epithelioid granulomas? (PIP 2011 D)
a. Choriocarcinoma.
b. Dysgerminoma.
e. Yolk sac tumor.
1224. An ovarian tumor has the following immunohistochemical profile;
PLAP(+), OCT4(+), CD30(+), cytokeratin(+) and CD117(-). What is the
most likely diagnosis? (PIP 2011 D)
a. Choriocarcinoma.
b. Dysgerminoma.
e. Yolk sac tumor.
1225. This lesion consists of cytologically bland spindle cells loosely arranged in
an edematous, myxoid stroma that contains numerous eosinophils. The
spindle cells concentically whorl around thin-walled vessels: (PIP 2012 A)
c. Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor.
d. Leiomyoma.
e. Leiomyosarcoma.
1226. This lesion is typically composed of long, well-oriented fascicles of
elongate spindle cells that exhibit monotonus, mitotically inactive, cigarshaped nuclei and may exhibit extensive intratumoral hyalinization: (PIP
2012 A)
376
Pathology Questions
MCQs

d. Leiomyoma.
e. Leiomyosarcoma.
1227. A 61-year old man presents with iron deficiency, and a 6.5 cm gastric
mass. Histologically, the mass exhibits foci of coagulative necrosis and is
composed of spindle and epithelioid cells, some exhibiting signet-ring
type morphology. The proliferative index is approximately 20% and
tumor cells express CD34 and DOG1. Tumor cells do not express muscle
actin, CD117 (KIT), or pan-cytokeratin and they are mucicarmine
negative. What is the best diagnosis? (PIP 2012 A)
d. Leiomyoma.
e. Leiomyosarcoma.
1228. Which mesenteric lesion tends to have histologic variability from patient
to patient but typically contains areas of fibrosis, fat necrosis and/or
chronic inflammation? (PIP 2012 A)
d. Sclerosing mesenteritis.
1229. Which bland-appearing lesion is locally aggressive and can develop late
metastases? (PIP 2012 A)
b. Low-grade fibromyxoid sarcoma.
377
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1230. Which mesenteric lesion often involves the bowel wall and shows nuclear
positivity for -catenin by immunohistochemistry? (PIP 2012 A)
b. Low-grade fibromyxoid sarcoma.
1231. Which tumor is typically positive for demin and myogenin? (PIP 2012 A)
a. Infantile fibromatosis.
c. Infantile myofibromatosis.
e. Spindle cell rhabdomyosarcoma.
1232. Which tumor is typically characterized by a biphasic pattern on histology
and cytokeratin positivity? (PIP 2012 A)
1233. Which tumor shares a cytogenetic abnormality with cellular mesoblastic
nephroma? (PIP 2012 A)
378
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1234. Whcih of the following histologic findings are characteristic of sclerosing
mesenteritis? (PIP 2012 A)
a. Atypical stromal cells with hyperchromatic, enlarged, irregular
nuclei.
b. Fibrosis, chronic inflammation and fat necrosis.
c. Infiltration into the adjacent bowel wall.
d. Storiform or fascicular growth pattern of spindle cells.
e. Myxoid change and keloid-type collagen.
1235. Which of the following is CORRECT about sclerosing mesenteritis? (PIP
2012 A)
a. Usually presents in childhood or young adulthood.
b. Most cases present with intestinal obstruction.
c. Smooth muscle actin immunohistochemistry is often positive.
d. Association with systemic IgG4 disease is well established.
e. Surgery is the treatment of choice in most cases.
1236. Which of the following features favors mesenteric fibromatosis over
sclerosing mesenteritis? (PIP 2012 A)
a. Fat necrosis.
b. Infiltration into the adjacent bowel wall.
c. Intralesional lymphoid aggregates.
d. Membranous staining with -catenin.
e. Dystrophic calcification.
1237. Translocation (t(X;18)(p11;q11))-SYT-SXX1 is usually seen in which
tumor? (PIP 2012 A)
b. Ewing sarcoma/primitive neuroectodermal tumor.
c. Lymphoma.
d. Neuroblastoma.
379
Pathology Questions
MCQs
f. Small cell carcinoma.
1238. FLI-1 and CD99 are expressed in which one of these tumors? (PIP 2012 A)
b. Ewing sarcoma/primitive neuroectodermal tumor.
c. Lymphoma.
d. Neuroblastoma.
f. Small cell carcinoma.
1239. Which of the following markers is useful in identifying Mallory-Denk
hyaline? (PIP 2012 A)
a. Cytokeratin 8/18.
b. Congo red.
c. Inhibin.
d. Mucicarmine.
e. P53.
f. Trichrome.
1240. Which of the following drugs is most likely to be a cause of
phospholipidosis? (PIP 2012 A)
a. Acetaminophen.
b. Amiodarone.
c. Metronidazole.
d. Nicotine.
e. NSAIDS.
1241. Which of the following can be seen in alcoholic liver disease but not in
non-alcoholic fatty liver disease? (PIP 2012 A)
a. Central vein obliteration.
380
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Cirrhosis.
c. Mallory-Denk hyaline.
d. Pan-lobular macrovesicular steatosis.
e. Periportal fibrosis.
1242. Which of the following is most correct regarding primary amyloidosis?
(PIP 2012 A)
a. T(11;14) is very specific for patients with primary amyloidosis.
b. Most patients with plasma cell myeloma or MGUS will showsome
manifestation of amyloidosis.
c. Most cases of AL amyloidosis occur in patients with a plasma cell
dyscrasia.
d. The amyloidogenic protein is usually an intact immunoglobulin
with both light and heavy chains.
1243. Which of the following is most correct regarding splenic amyloidosis?
(PIP 2012 A)
a. Splenic amyloidosis is usually a manifestation of generalized
disease.
b. Red pulp involvement is commonly seen in systemic amyloidosis.
c. Splenic involvement is more common in systemic than primary
amyloidosis.
d. When rupture occurs, it is usually secondary to a traumatic event.
1244. Atypical features of PEComas include all of the following EXCEPT: (PIP
2012 A)
a. Size >5.0 cm.
b. Mitotic activity >1/50 HPF.
c. Pushing border.
d. High cellularity.
1245. Immunoreactivity to which type of antibody can aid indifferentiating
angiomyolipoma from leiomyosarcoma? (PIP 2012 A)
381
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Cytokeratin AE1/AE3.
b. Desmin.
c. EMA.
d. HMB-45.
e. Smooth muscle actin.
1246. Which of the following statements regarding renal angiomyolipomas in
tuberous sclerosis patients versus the general population is not true? (PIP
2012 A)
a. The incidence is much higher in tuberous sclerosis patients.
b. The mean age at diagnosis is lower in tuberous sclerosis patients.
c. The tumor is most often bilateral in tuberous sclerosis patients.
d. Renal failure due to angiomyolipoma is common in tuberous
sclerosis patients.
e. Renal angiomyolipoma metastasis is more common in tuberous
sclerosis patients.
1247. Which histologic feature has been shown to correlate with more
aggressive behavior? (PIP 2012 A)
a. Clear cell change of the smooth muscle cells.
b. Epithelioid cytology of the smooth muscle cells.
c. Presence of multinucleated giant cells.
d. Prominent vascular component.
e. Vascular thrombosis.
1248. Which of ther following entities is most commonly seen in youngchildren?
(PIP 2012 A)
d. Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm.
e. Well-differentiated ductal adenocarcioma.
382
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1249. Which entity is rare in men? (PIP 2012 A)

1250. Which adult tumor is immunohistochemically positive for pancreatic
enzymes trypsin and chemotrypsin? (PIP 2012 A)
1251. Which neoplasm expresses smooth muscle & muscle-specific actin and it
is associated with mutations to the ALK gene on chromosome 2: (PIP
2012 B)
a. Dysgerminoma
1252. Which tumor is associated with a reciprocal translocation of EWSR-WT1
with gene fusion t(11:22)(p13;q12): (PIP 2012 B)
a. Dysgerminoma
383
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1253. An infant has a suprarenal mass. The mass is confined to the adrenal
gland and does not cross the midline. The surgeon describes a gross total
excision, although microscopic margins are positive. There is no evidence
of metastasis in sampled lymph nodes. Bilateral bone marrow biopsies
and aspirates are negative for tumor and MIBG scan shows no distant
metastasis. What is the INSS stage: (PIP 2012 B)
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2A
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
e. Stage 4S
1254. Which of the following would be a poor prognostic feature for
neuroblastoma: (PIP 2012 B)
a. Duplication of 1p
b. FISH for N-Myc 2 copies
c. FISH for N-Myc 16 copies
d. Patient age less than 6 months
e. Stage 4S
1255. According to the International Neuroblastoma Pathology Classification
system, which of the following scenarios would be classified as
unfavorable histology: (PIP 2012 B)
a. 4-month old boy neuroblastoma, poorly differentiated, low MKI
b. 8-month old girl neuroblastoma, differentiating, intermediate
MKI
c. 12-month old girl neuroblastoma, poorly differentiated, high MKI
d. 2-year old boy neuroblastoma, differentiating, low MKI
e. 7-year old boy ganglioneuroblastoma, intermixed type
1256. Which lesion can be found in Mazabraud syndrome: (PIP 2012 B)
a. Deep aggressive angiomyxoma
b. Intramuscular myxoma
384
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Low grade fibromyxoid sarcoma

d. Myxofibrosarcoma
e. Myxoid liposarcoma
f. Myxoid neurofibroma
1257. A translocation involving t(12:16)(q13;p11) is characteristic of which
lesion: (PIP 2012 B)
d. Myxofibrosarcoma
1258. In which lesion would you expect to see giant collagen rosettes: (PIP 2012
B)
d. Myxofibrosarcoma
1259. Using the AJCC 7th edition guidelines, what is the correct classification of
an urothelial carcinoma with deep muscularis propria invasion with
extension into the prostatic urethral without prostatic stromal invasion:
(PIP 2012 B)
a. T2a
b. T2b
c. T3a
d. T4a
e. T4b
385
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1260. Which prostate specific immunohistochemical stain has a finely dotted

perinuclear cytoplasmic staining pattern: (PIP 2012 B)
a. PSA
b. Prostein (p501S)
c. P63
d. PSMA
e. HMWCK
1261. Which of the following lesions is histologically characterized by
concentric arrangement of fibrocartilage around hyaline cartilage or
bone: (PIP 2012 B)
a. Synovial chondromatosis
b. Loose bodies
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Periosteal chondroma
1262. Which of the following histologic characteristics can be seen in
chondrosarcoma, but is usually not observed in synovial chondromatosis:
(PIP 2012 B)
a. Hypercellular hyaline cartilage
b. Ossification
c. Necrosis, increased cellularity and tumor liquefaction, invasion
into or from bone
d. Mild nuclear atypia
1263. Which of the following joints are most commonly affected by synovial
chondromatosis: (PIP 2012 B)
a. Elbow & knee
b. Temperomandibular joint
c. Ankle and sital interphalangeal joints
d. Proximal & distal interphalangeal joints
386
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1264. Which ovarian tumor is characterized by spindle cells with moderate to

severe nuclear atypia and >4 mitosis per 10 HPFs: (PIP 2012 B)
a. Cellular fibrothecoma
b. Cellular leiomyoma
c. Endometrial stromal sarcoma
d. Fibrosarcoma
e. GIST
1265. Which ovarian tumor is unlikely to recur unless associated with
adhesions or rupture: (PIP 2012 B)
d. Fibrosarcoma
e. GIST
1266. Which ovarian tumor is most likely to display tongue-like projections at
its peripheral borders and CD10 immunoreactivity: (PIP 2012 B)
d. Fibrosarcoma
e. GIST
1267. Which tumor is poorly circumscribed, comprised of bland spindle cells
and expresses -catenin: (PIP 2012 B)
a. Desmoid tumor
b. Malignant mesothelioma, desmoplastic type
c. Schwannoma
d. Solitary fibrous tumor
e. Synovial sarcoma
387
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1268. Which tumor may be associated with hypoglycemia or hypertrophic

pulmonary osteoarthropathy: (PIP 2012 B)
a. Desmoid tumor
c. Schwannoma
e. Synovial sarcoma
1269. Which tumor may express CK & bcl-2 but is usually negative for CD34,
and is additionally characterized by t(X:18): (PIP 2012 B)
a. Desmoid tumor
c. Schwannoma
e. Synovial sarcoma
1270. The presence of periportal PAS positive intracytoplasmic globules with
PiZZ present on isoelectric focusing is diagnostic for: (PIP 2012 B)
a. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
b. Wilsons disease
c. Hepatitis C
d. Primary biliary cirrhosis
1271. The most common cause of PAS positive intracytoplasmic globules
adjacent to the central vein is: (PIP 2012 B)
a. Hepatocellular carcinoma
b. Centrilobular congestion
c. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
d. Hepatitis C
1272. There is a high prevalence of what viral infection associated with alpha-1
antitrypsin deficiency: (PIP 2012 B)
a. EBV
388
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis E
d. Hepatitis A
1273. Which entity is characterized by splenic red pulp involvement and is
positive for flowcytometry markers CD103, CD11c and CD25: (PIP 2012
B)
a. Hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma
b. Sickle cell crisis
c. Hairy cell leukemia
d. Splenic marginal zone lymphoma
e. Gaucher disease
f. Classical Hodgkin lymphoma
g. Aggressive NK-cell lymphoma/leukemia
1274. Which entity is a hematopoietic malignancy of predominantly activated
cytotoxic cells, positive for perforin and granzyme: (PIP 2012 B)
e. Gaucher disease
1275. A patient with type B symptoms has nodular abnormalities in the spleen
grossly. A well-sampled (representative) flow cytometry analysis did not
reveal T-cell or B-cell abnormalities. Histology reveals scattered large binucleated and mononuclear cells with a prominent nucleolus. What is the
best possible diagnosis from the above list: (PIP 2012 B)
389
Pathology Questions
MCQs

e. Gaucher disease
1276. Which of the following best describes focal nodular hyperplasia of the
liver: (PIP 2012 B)
a. Multiple hepatic nodules ranging from 1 to 2 mm in size
b. Large nodule (1 to 30 cm) composed of clonal hepatocytes without
associated portal tracts
c. Well-demarcated nodule near the liver capsule, with a central
fibrosed region
d. Well-circumscribed nodule measuring up to 3 cm in a background
of cirrhosis
1277. Which entity has been associated with a risk of malignant transformation:
(PIP 2012 B)
a. Focal nodular hyperplasia
b. Hepatic adenoma
c. Nodular regenerative hyperplasia
d. Large benign regenerative nodule
1278. Which entity is typically associated with oral contraceptive use: (PIP 2012
B)
a. Focal nodular hyperplasia
b. Hepatic adenoma
c. Nodular regenerative hyperplasia
d. Large benign regenerative nodule
1279. Which of the following lesions is characterized by sclerotic germinal
centres, lollipop lesions and onion-skinning of mantle zones: (PIP 2012 C)
a. Follicular hyperplasia
390
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Hyaline vascular variant of Castleman disease

d. Manle cell lymphoma
e. Plasma cell variant of Castleman disease
f. Thymoma
1280. Which of the following lesions is characterized by an interfollicular
expansion of large sheets of mature-appearing plsams cells: (PIP 2012 C)
f. Thymoma
1281. Which of the following is characterizd by an atypical lymphoid infiltrate
that effaces lymph node architecture and is comprised of monomorphic
small to intermediate sized CD5 ositive B-cells with irregular nuclear
contours and has a balanced translocation involving the CCND1 (cyclin
D1) gene: (PIP 2012 C)
f. Thymoma
1282. Which entity is characterized by mutations in KIT or PDGFRA and is
usually positive for DOG1 by immunohistochemistry? (PIP 2012 C)
a. Epithelioid gastrointestinal stromal tumor
b. Mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma
c. Neuroendocrine carcinoma
d. Neuroendocrine tumor
391
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1283. A tumor with monotonous neuroendocrine morphology shows strong

synaptophysin positivity by immunohistochemistry, no mitotic activity
and a Ki-67 index of 4%. What is the best diagnosis? (PIP 2012 C)
b. Mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma
c. Neuroendocrine carcinoma, WHO grade 3
d. Neuroendocrine tumor, WHO grade 1
e. Neuroendocrine tumor, WHO grade 2
1284. In which entity should the pathologist count mitotic figures in 50 hihg
power fields as part of risk stratification? (PIP 2012 C)
b. Neuroendocrine tumor, WHO grade 1
c. Neuroendocrine tumor, WHO grade 2
d. All of the above
1285. Which tumor tumor is characterized by the presence of intracytoplasmic
PAS positive diastase resistant rhomboid cyrstals: (PIP 2012 C)
b. Granular cell tumor
c. Malignant rhabdoid tumor
d. Paraganglioma
e. Rhabdomyosarcoma
1286. Which tumor is characterized by loss of INI1 gene product? (PIP 2012 C)
c. Malignant rhabdoid tumor
d. Paraganglioma
e. Rhabdomyosarcoma
1287. Which tumor is differentiated from alveolar soft part sarcoma on the basis
of positivity for chromogranin and synaptophysin: (PIP 2012 C)
392
Pathology Questions
MCQs

c. Malignatn rhabdoid tumor
d. Paraganglioma
e. Rhabdomyosarcoma
1288. Which of the following features favors mesenchymal hamartoma over
infantile hemangioma: (PIP 2012 C)
a. Branching bile duct structures
b. Cavernous vascular channels
c. Entrapped hepatocytes and bile ducts
d. Fibromyxoid stroma
e. Immunoreactivity for CD31
1289. Which of the following is correct about undifferentiated embryonal
sarcoma: (PIP 2012 C)
a. Cytogenetic changes similar to mesenchymal hamartoma.
b. Diffuse
expression
of
desmin
and
myogenin
on
c. Mild nuclear pleomorphism.
d. PAS-positive diastase sensitive globules in cytoplasm and stroma.
e. Peak incidence in 0 3 year age group
1290. Which of the following features favors mesenchymal hamartoma over
mixed epithelial-mesenchymal subtype of hepatoblastoma: (PIP 2012 C)
a. Absence of bile duct elements.
b. Glandular elements with mucinous epithelium.
c. Markedly elevated AFP
d. Normal appearing hepatocytes
e. Osteoid formation in stroma.
1291. Which immunohistochemical panel below is likely to be positive in
oncocytoma: (PIP 2012 C)
a. CD10, RCC, racemase
393
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. CK7, Ksp-cadherin
c. KIT, S100A1, PAX2
d. Vimentin, CD10, racemase
1292. Which of the following is not typical of chromophobe renal cell
carcinoma?(PIP 2012 C)
a. Abundant mitochondria
b. Binucleation
c. Colloidal iron positivity
d. Perinuclear halos
e. Solid growth of neoplastic cells.
1293. A renal tumor composed of cells with abundant granular cytoplasm
demonstrates immunoreactivity with antibodies against HMB45 while
shows no reactivity with antibodies against S100A1 or PAX2. The likely
diagnosis is: (PIP 2012 C)
a. Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma
b. Epithelioid aniomyolipoma
c. Oncocytoma
d. Papillary renal cell carcinoma
1294. Which of the following is least likely to be associated with villous synovial
hypertrophy: (PIP 2012 C)
a. Articular prosthesis
b. Hemosiderotic synovitis
c. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
d. Rheumatoid synovitis
1295. Which of the following is most indicative of a malignant pigmented
villonoduar synovitis: (PIP 2012 C)
a. Bone infiltration and destruction of large segments of bone.
b. Increased mitoses by itself.
394
Pathology Questions
MCQs
c. Marked nuclear atypia, zonal necrosis, sarcomatoid growth pattrn

and > 20 mitoses per 10 high power fields.
d. Osteoclast-like giant cell reaction.
1296. Which of the following findings are consistent with a pigmented
villonodular synovitis. (PIP 2012 C)
a. Lobulated architecture with osteoclast-like giant cells.
b. Villous architecture with foreign body macrophages.
c. Villous architecture with osteoclast-type giant cells and xanthoma
cells.
d. Villous architecture with pigment limited to the surface of the
synovium.
1297. Which of the following immunophenotypes is most compatible with a
diagnosis of Burkitt lymphoma. (PIP 2012 C)
a. CD20+ve, Bcl-2+ve, CD10-ve, Bcl-6-ve, CD43+ve
b. CD20+ve, Bcl-2-ve, CD10+ve, Bcl-6+ve, CD43+ve
c. CD20+ve, Bcl-2+ve, CD10+ve, Bcl-6-ve, CD43-ve
d. CD20+ve, Bcl-2-ve, CD10-ve, Bcl-6-ve, CD43+ve
1298. Which statement is ost correct concerning Burkitt lymphoma? (PIP 2012
C)
a. Burkitt lymphoma commonly presents as acute leukemia.
b. Burkitt lymphoma consists of large transformed cells with nuclear
pleomorphism.
c. Cases that do not morphologically resemble classic Burkitt
lymphoma can share the genetic signature of Burkitt lymphoma.
d. The most common genetic abnormality seen in t(14:18).
1299. Which entity is charachterized by the translocation t(X:17): (PIP 2012 C)
b. Metastatic malignant melanoma
c. Metastatic renal cell carcinoma
d. Paraganglioma
395
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Well-differentiated neuroendocrine carcinoma

1300. Which entity may exhibit mutations in mitochondrial succinate
dehydrogenase subunit genes: (PIP 2012 C)
b. Metastatic malignant melanoma
c. Metastatic renal cell carcinoma
d. Paraganglioma
e. Well-differentiated neuroendocrine carcinoma
1301. Which of the following is correct about PanNET? (PIP 2012 C)
a. Cytologically bland tumors may show lymph node metastasis.
b. Low grade and high-grade neuroendocrive carcinomas are
distinguished by size.
c. Most insulinomas are metastatic at presentation
d. Most tumors larger than 2 cm are malignant.
1302. Which immunostain panel is useful in diagnosing solid pseudopapillary
tumor? (PIP 2012 C)
a. Amylase, lipase, trypsin
b. -catenin, E-cadherin, progesterone receptor
c. Estrogen receptor, somatostatin, CD10
d. Keratin, chromogranin, Mib-1
1303. Which tumor is commonly associated with mutations in exon 3 of the
beta-catenin gene? (PIP 2012 D)
a. Pancreatic acinar cell carcinoma
b. Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma
c. Pancreatic pseudocyst
d. Pancreatoblastoma
e. Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm
f. Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor
396
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1304. Which tumor typically occurs in patients under 10 years of age and
displays squamoid corpuscles on microscopy? (PIP 2012 D)
1305. Which tumor stains strongly for chromogranin and displays a
membranous staining pattern with CD99? (PIP 2012 D)
1306. Which of the following tumors arising has the greatest potential for
malignant transformation? (PIP 2012 D)
a. Cutaneous neurofibroma
b. Optic pathway glioma
c. Palisaded encapsulated neuroma
d. Plexiform neurofibroma
e. Plexiform schwannoma
1307. All of the following are true of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
except? (PIP 2012 D)
a. Compared to the spindle cell variant, the epithelioid variant shows
more focal and less intense S100 positivity.
b. Elongated wavy nuclei help identify neural differentiation.
c. The sciatic nerve is commonly involved.
d. They typically have uniform cellularity throught the tumor.
397
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. When associated with NF1 these lesions occur at young ages.

1308. Which of the following is true regarding peineuromas? (PIP 2012 D)
a. Lesional cells show EMA positivity.
b. Recent evidence suggests they may be a reactive process.
c. They
are
homogeneous
in
their
histologic
and
clinical
presentation.
d. They commonly undergo malignant transformation.
e. They represent a neoplastic expansion of the most inner portion of
the peripheral nerve.
1309. Which of the following statements about molar pregnancy is true? (PIP
2012 D)
a. By immunohistochemistry, p57 is typically positive in partial
moles and negative in complete moles.
b. Complete hydatidiform mole is typically associated with a
complete well-formed fetus.
c. Partial hydatidiform mole typically shows no associated fetal
parts.
d. The placental karyotype of complete hydatidiform mole is typically
triploid.
e. The placental karyotype of partial hydatidiform mole is typically
diploid.
1310. Which of the following lesions is a consequence of fetal thrombotic
vasculopathy? (PIP 2012 D)
a. Complete hydatidiform mole.
b. Hemorrhagic endovasculitis.
c. Mesenchymal dysplasia.
e. Villitis of unknown etiology.
1311. Which of the following genetic syndromes is associated with placental
mesenchymal dysplasia? (PIP 2012 D)
398
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.
b. Down syndrome.
c. Gonadal dysgenesis.
d. Trisomy 18.
e. Turner syndrome mosaic.
1312. Which of the following immunophenotypic findings is most typical of
mantle cell lymphoma? (PIP 2012 D)
a. CD5+ CD19+ CD20+ CD23- IgM+
b. CD5+ CD19+ CD20+ CD23+ CD38+
c. CD5- CD19- CD20+ CD23- IgM+
d. CD5- CD19- CD20+ CD23+ IgD+
1313. Which of the following chromosomal translocations leading to
overexpression of cyclin D1 is associated with mantle cell lymphoma?
(PIP 2012 D)
a. t(8:14)
b. t(11:14)
c. t(14:18)
d. t(3:14)
e. t(2:5)
1314. Which of the following statements concerning splenic involvement by Bcell lymphomas is true? (PIP 2012 D)
a. All B-cell lymphomas involving the spleen are characteristically
positive for CD23.
b. Hairy cell leukemia/lymphoma of the spleen is an aggressive B cell
lymphoma
c. Mantle cell lymphomas are typically distinguished from chronic
lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma by the
absence of CD23 immunoreactivity.
d. Splenic marginal zone lymphoma are characterized by a recurring
t(8:14) translocation.
399
Pathology Questions
MCQs
e. Splenic marginal zone lymphoma may be discriminated from hairy

cell leukemia/lymphoma involvement of the spleen by the
presence of CD123 and CD11c in SMZL tumor cells.
1315. All of the following histologic features may be seen in hibernoma except?
(PIP 2012 D)
a. Cytoplasmic cross striations.
b. Granular eosinophilic cells.
c. Myxoid stroma.
d. Numerous univacuolated white fat cells.
e. Spindle cells.
1316. Which of the following is most characteristic of the vacuolated cells of
hibernoma? (PIP 2012 D)
a. They contain glycogen.
b. They contain lipid.
c. They contain mucin.
d. They express CD34.
e. They express desmin.
1317. Hyperchromatic, scalloped nuclei are most characteristic of which of the
following soft tissue tumors? (PIP 2012 D)
c. Hibernoma.
d. Lipoma.
e. Liposarcoma.
1318. Which tumor typically expresses CD117 (KIT) and Oct4 and is associated
with abnormalities of chromosome 12? (PIP 2012 D)
c. Dysgerminoma.
400
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Metastatic renal clear cell carcinoma.

1319. Which neoplasm is most commonly associated with endometriosis? (PIP
2012 D)
c. Dysgerminoma.
1320. Which tumor is more commonly associated with gonodal dysgenesis
syndromes such as testicular feminization (46XY)? (PIP 2012 D)
c. Dysgerminoma.
1321. Which disorder is a diffuse interstitial process characterized by a
polyclonal population of B-cells and T-cells and is most often seen in the
setting of collagen vascular disease or immunodeficiency syndromes?
(PIP 2012 D)
a. Extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma.
b. Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia.
c. Lymphomatoid granulomatosis.
e. Nodular lymphoid hyperplasia.
1322. Which disorder forms a mass lesion with architectural effacement and is
morphologically well circumscribed, lacks lympho-epithelial lesions or
pleural invasion, has prominent germinal centre formation and
interfollicular plasma cells? (PIP 2012 D)
401
Pathology Questions
MCQs

1323. Which disorder is EBV driven and characterized by a mixture of atypical
B-cells and non-neoplastic T-cells arragned in angiocentric pattern? (PIP
2012 D)
1324. The three characteristic features of fibrolamellar hepatocellular
carcinoma are: (PIP 2012 D)
a. Eosinophilic granular hepatocytes, prominent hepatocyte nucleoli
and lamellar fiborsis.
b. Eosinophilic granular hepatocytes, lamellar fibrosis and abundant
mitoses.
c. Lamellar fibrosis, pseudoglandular formation and eosinophilic
granular hepatocytes.
d. Mucin
production,
lamellar
fibrosis
and
pseudoglandular
formation.
e. Tumor necrosis, prominent hepatocyte nucleoli and lamellar
fibrosis.
1325. The presence of a central scar in fibrolamellar carcinoma seen by
computer tomography abdominal imaging will raise the possibility of
which other entity? (PIP 2012 D)
c. Metastatic melanoma.
d. Scirrhous variant of conventional hepatocellular carcinoma.
402
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1326. A tumor mass attached to the adrenal gland was excised and
histologically it showed mature adipocytes. There was a single focus of
neutrophils, restricted to a congested blood vessel. What is the most
compatible diagnosis? (PIP 2012 D)
b. Lipoma.
c. Liposarcoma.
d. Myeloid sarcoma.
e. Myelolipoma.
1327. A 56-year-old patient presents with a recent onset of bluish swelling in
the fat pad of her chin; she has fever, petechiae and malaise. Biopsy of the
swelling reveals immature atypical cells with Aur rods and rare granules,
which stain positive for CD34. What is the likely diagnosis? (PIP 2012 D)
b. Lipoma.
c. Liposarcoma.
d. Myeloid sarcoma.
e. Myelolipoma.
1328. Which entity is composed of adipocytes and myeloid cells that, according
to recent evidence, belong to the same clone? (PIP 2012 D)
b. Lipoma.
c. Liposarcoma.
d. Myeloid sarcoma.
e. Myelolipoma.
1329. Which of the following best describes angiosarcoma of the liver? (PIP
2012 D)
a. Multiple tumor nodules alternating with blood filled cavities.
b. Spindle cell tumor cells with intracytoplasmic capillary lumens.
c. Trabecular arrangements of malignant endothelial cells.
403
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Tumor nodules composed of malignant spindled cells associated

with a fibrotic stroma.
1330. Which entity has been associated with arsenic exposure? (PIP 2012 D)
a. Angiosarcoma.
b. Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma.
c. Metastatic sarcoma.
d. Poorly differentiated hepatocellular carcinoma.
1331. All of the following statements are associated with epithelioid
hemangioendothelioma (EHE) of the liver except? (PIP 2012 D)
a. EHE is typically associated with bilateral hepatic lobe involvement.
b. EHE may express both CD31 and keratin.
c. Females are more frequently affected by EHE as compared to
males.
d. Surgical resection is not effective treatment for EHE.
1332. Which of the following DNA abnormalities would support a diagnosis of
melanoma over melanocytic nevus? (PIP 2013 A)
a. Gains of 11p
b. GNAQ gene mutation
c. Multiple DNA gains and losses
d. t(12:22)(q13:q12)
e. V600E BRAF gene mutation
1333. Which of the following parameters is used for pathologic tumor staging in
melanoma? (PIP 2013 A)
a. Clarks level of invasion
b. Mitotic count per mm2
c. Presence of regression
d. Tumor infiltrating lymphocytes
e. Tumor largest diameter
404
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1334. What is the main reason for evaluating BRAF gene status in melanoma?
a. Presence of V600E BRAF mutation is associated with resistance to
Vemurafenib treatment.
b. Presence of V600E BRAF mutation is associated with resistance to
Ipilimumab treatment.
c. Presence of V600E BRAF mutation is associated with tumor
response to Vemurafenib treatment.
d. Presence of V600E BRAF mutation is associated with tumor
response to Ipilimumab treatment.
e. Serves as a diagnostic test for melanoma
1335. Which tumor is characterized by an immature mesenchymal component
and -catenin mutations? (PIP 2013 A)
a. Carcinosarcoma
b. Pleomorphic carcinoma
c. Pulmonary blastoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma
1336. Which tumor is defined in the current WHO classification as a biphasic
tumor with heterologous differentiation such as bone, cartilage or skeletal
muscle? (PIP 2013 A)
a. Carcinosarcoma
b. Pleomorphic carcinoma
c. Pulmonary blastoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma
1337. Chordoma can typically be distinguished from chondrosarcoma by which
of the following immunohistochemical stains? (PIP 2013 A)
a. Brachyury, D2-40 and pancytokeratin
b. Galectin-3, pancytokeratin and S100
c. GFAP, pancytokeratin and CD99
d. S100, chromogranin and CK7
e. S100, pancytokeratin and GFAP
405
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1338. Which of the following statements concerning chordoma is false? (PIP

2013 A)
a. Chordomas classically demonstrate physaliphorous cells on
histologic examination.
b. Chordomas typically affect younger adults and have no risk for
recurrence.
c. Chordomas
may
be
distinguished
from
myxopapillary
ependymoma by immunohistochemical staining characteristics.

d. The candidate gene locus for chordoma has been mapped to
chromosome 1p.
e. The primary treatment approach for chordoma is en bloc excision
with negative margins.
1339. Which of the following entities is characterized by splenic white pulp
involvement and by flow cytometry shows a population that is positive
for markders CD19 and CD20 with light chain restriction? (PIP 2013 A)
a. Classical Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Primary myelofibrosis
c. Splenic extramedullary hematopoiesis secondary to primary
myelofibrosis
1340. A patient with HIV infection shows symptoms suggestive of bone marrow
failure and pancytopenia. Large binucleate cells with prominent
eosinophilic nucleoli are seen in the bone marrow biopsy and within
spleen. The large atypical cells are CD30 positive and CD15 negative.
What is the diagnosis? (PIP 2013 A)
a. Classical Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Hairy cell leukemia
c. Primary myelofibrosis
406
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1341. A characteristic morphology seen in primary myelofibrosis which is less

common in essential thrombocytosis or chronic myeloid leukemia is the
following: (PIP 2013 A)
a. Megakaryocytes showing compact cloud like nucleus with
condensed chromatin.
b. Enlarged megakaryocytes with branched nuclear lobes.
c. Mononuclear megakaryocytes in tight clusters.
d. Megakaryocytes with crinkledtissue paper cytoplasm.
1342. Which of the following best describes undifferentiated embryonal
sarcoma of liver? (PIP 2013 A)
a. Multiple tumor nodules formed by small undifferentiated cells.
b. Primitive small tumor cells, resembling fetal liver.
c. Polymorphous spindle, ovoid and anaplastic tumor cells with
intracytoplasmic globules.
d. Tumor nodules composed of malignant spindled cells associated
with cytoplasmic vacuoles.
1343. Which entity shares 19q abnormalities with some cases of embryonal
sarcoma, suggesting a possible shared pathway? (PIP 2013 A)
a. Bile duct hamartoma
b. Hepatobiliary rhabdomyosarcoma
c. Hepatoblastoma
d. Mesenchymal hamartoma
1344. Positive staining for which immunohistochemical marker(s) can be seen
in undifferentiated embryonal sarcoma of the liver? (PIP 2013 A)
a. Cytokeratin
b. Desmin
c. Vimentin
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
407
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1345. Which of the following is false of goblet cell carcinoids? (PIP 2013 A)
Immunohistochemical stains are positive for CEA.
a. Metastasis to the ovary can resemble poorly differentiated
adenocarcinoma.
b. The growth pattern in the appendix is submucosal.
c. They are more common in males.
d. They have both glandular and endocrine components.
1346. Which of the following findings is more suggestive of an ovarian primary
than a metastasis? (PIP 2013 A)
a. Bilaterality
b. Expansile pattern of growth
c. Nodular pattern of growth
d. Tumor on ovarian surface
e. Young age at presentation
1347. The organism responsible for causing Chagas disease is: (PIP 2013 A)
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Epstein Barr virus
c. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Tinea cruris
e. Trypanosoma cruzi
1348. The chronic phase of T. cruzi infection is characterized by all of the
following except: (PIP 2013 A)
a. Cardiac aneurysm
b. Dilated colon
c. Few intracellular amastigote forms
d. Parasitemia
e. Spans many years duration
1349. Immunosuppression is a risk factor for systemic infection by which of the
following: (PIP 2013 A)
408
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Candida
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Toxoplasma gondii
d. Trypanosoma cruzi
e. All of the above
1350. Regarding myogenin immunohistochemial staining, which of the
following
patterns
correlates
with
embryonal
and
alveolar
rhabdomyosarcoma staining, respectively? (PIP 2013 A)

a. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma shows cytoplasmic staining and
alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma shows strong diffuse nuclear staining.
b. Embryonal
rhabdomyosarcoma
is
positive
and
alveolar
rhabdomyosarcoma is negative for myogenin.

c. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma shows membranous staining and
alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma shows cytoplasmic staining.
d. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma shows variable nuclear staining
and alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma shows strong diffuse nuclear
staining.
1351. Which of the following genetic changes is most commonly found in
alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma? (PIP 2013 A)
a. N-MYC
b. t(1:13)
c. t(2:13)
d. t(11:22)
1352. Which of the following is not a favorable prognostic factor in
rhabdomyosarcoma? (PIP 2013 A)
a. Age less than 10 years
b. Orbital location
c. Parameningeal location
d. Size less than 5.0 cm
409
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1353. Which staining pattern is most consistent with chromophobe RCC? (PIP
2013 A)
a. Vimentin - , Hales colloidal iron + (diffuse), CK7 + (diffuse), CD10 ,
CD117 +
b. Vimentin -, Hales colloidal iron + (focal), CK7 + (focal), CD10 +,
CD117 +
c. Vimentin -, Hales colloidal iron -, CK7 -, CD10 -, CD117
d. Vimentin +, Hales colloidal iron -, CK7 -, CD10 +, CD117
1354. Which histologic feature has been associated with metastases and local
recurrence?
a. Abundant microvesicles on ultrastructural examination.
b. Binucleation
c. Fuhrman nuclear grade
d. Sarcomatoid transformation
1355. Which of the following statements regarding hereditary chromophobe
RCC is not true?
a. Aggressive behavior has been associated with the hereditary form
of this tumor.
b. Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome is linked to FLCN gene mutation
mapped to chromosome 17p11.2
c. Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition
characterized y bening cutaneous tumors, pulmonary cysts and
multifocal and bilateral renal cancer.
d. The most common renal tumor seen in Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome
is the oncocytic hybrid tumor.
1356. Which finding gross or microscopic finding is least suggestive of extraovarian origin for an ovarian mucinous tumor? (PIP 2013 B)
a. Bilateral masses
b. Foci of necrosis
c. Signet ring cells
410
Pathology Questions
MCQs
d. Unilateral mass
1357. Which antibody or molecular finding is not typical of primary ovarian
mucinous carcinoma? (PIP 2013 B)
a. Expression of CDX2
b. Expression of Cytokeratin 7
c. Presence of BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutations
d. Presence of KRAS mutations
1358. Which of the following neoplasms is commonly found in association with
an ovarian mucinous tumor? (PIP 2013 B)
a. Brenner tumor
b. Leiomyoma
c. Mesonephric duct remnant
d. Serous cystadenoma
1359. All of these features are compatible with sclerosing extramedullary
hematopoietic tumor except: (PIP 2013 B)
a. Association with myeloproliferative neoplasms
b. Favorable clinical course
c. Multiple tumors
d. Splenomegaly
1360. All of these features help differentiate sclerosing extramedullary
hematopoietic tumor from myelolipoma except: (PIP 2013 B)
a. Atypical megakaryocytes
b. Non-adrenal location
c. Presence of anemia
d. Thick collagen bands
1361. Which tumor typically displays peri-nuclear dot-like cytokeratin 20
positivity? (PIP 2013 B)
a. Melanoma
411
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Merkel cell carcinoma

c. Mesothelioma
d. Prostate adenocarcinoma
e. Small cell carcinoma of the lung
1362. What is the definition of nodal micrometastasis of Merkel cell carcinoma?
(PIP 2013 B)
a. Clinically identifiable lymph node metastasis confirmed by
histological examination.
b. Clinically negative lymph node with histological evidence of
Merkel cell carcinoma.
c. Focus of metastatic carcinoma that can be identified only by
immunohistochemical studies.
d. Presence of fewer than 300 neoplastic cells in a lymph node.
e. Small than 2.0 cm focus of metastatic carcinoma.
1363. Which feature is typically not found in pseudomembranous colitis? (PIP
2013 B)
a. Hyalinization of the lamina propria
b. Inflammatory luminal debris
c. Neutrophilic inflammation
d. Signet ring cells
1364. Which is the most common predisposing factor leading to Clostridium
difficile colitis? (PIP 2013 B)
a. Advanced age
b. Feeding tube placement
c. Gastrointestinal surgery
d. Intravenous antibiotics
e. Oral antibiotics
1365. Which combination of findings meets WHO diagnostic criteria for PeutzJeghers syndrome? (PIP 2013 B)
412
Pathology Questions
MCQs
a. Three or more histologically confirmed Peutz-Jeghers polyps

b. Any
number
of
Peutz-Jeghers
polyps
and
characteristic
mucocutaneous pigmentation
c. Any number of Peutz-Jeghers polyps with a family history of
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
d. Characteristic mucocutaneous pigmentation with a family history
of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
e. All of the above
1366. What is the lifetime cancer risk in Peutz-Jeghers syndrome? (PIP 2013 B)
a. 5%
b. 18%
c. 53%
d. 93%
1367. Plasma cell villitis is most characteristic of: (PIP 2013 B)
a. Cytomegalovirus infection
b. Herpes simplex virus infection
c. Listeriosis
d. Toxoplasmosis
e. Varicella zoster virus infection
1368. Chronic intervillositis, organisms in the maternal red blood cells and
pigment deposition are typical features of: (PIP 2013 B)
a. Cytomegalovirus infection
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection
c. Parvovirus B19 infection
d. Plasmodium falciparum infection
e. Treponema pallidum infection
1369. The pattern of placentitis typically associated with varicella zoster virus
infection is: (PIP 2013 B)
a. Acute chorioamnionitis
413
Pathology Questions
MCQs
b. Acute necrotizing funisitis

c. Acute villitis
d. Chronic intervillositis
e. Chronic villitis with multinucleate giant cells
1370. Which tumors can have staghorn vasculature?
a. Melanoma, carcinoma, lymphoma
b. Merkel cell carcinoma, Ewing, rhabdomyosarcoma
c. Mesothelioma
d. Prostate adenocarcinoma
e. Synovial sarcoma, mesenchymal chondrosarcoma, solitary fibrous
tumor
1371. What are the criteria for low-grade malignancy in solitary fibrous tumor?
a. Clinically identifiable lymph node metastasis confirmed by
imaging
b. Cytologically bland monotonous uniformity
c. Focus of lymph node metastasis that can be identified only by
CD34 stain
d. Large size (>5 cm), mitoses >4/10 hpf, necrosis
e. Peripheral location
1372. Which of the following statements about angiosarcoma of the breast
secondary to radiation therapy is false? (PIP 2013 B)
a. At presentation, tumors are often large and locally aggressive
b. It is more common in premenopausal women than in
postmenopausal women
c. It typically has a shorter latency period for development after
radiation therapy than other sites
d. Prognosis is related to the degree of differentiation of the tumor
e. Tumors may present with cutaneous changes similar to primary
angiosarcoma
414
Pathology Questions
MCQs
1373. Which of the following statements about angiosarcoma is false? (PIP 2013
B)
a. Angiosarcoma
may
show
well
differentiated
and
poorly
differentiated areas within the same tumor

b. Angiosarcoma should show positive staining for CD31, CD34 and
factor VIII, regardless of degree of differentiation
c. Classic angiosarcoma is characterized by infiltrative anastomosing
vascular channels with varying degrees of nuclear size and
pleomorphism
1374. Which of the following statements about epithelioid angiosarcoma is
false? (PIP 2013 B)
a. Carcinoma should be considered in the differential diagnosis for
epithelioid angiosarcoma due to the presence of sheets of
eipithelioid
cells
and
signet
ring
cells
that
can
mimic
intracytoplasmic lumina
b. Cytokeratin staining can be used to rule out epithelioid
angiosarcoma
c. Epithelioid angiosarcoma may be predominantly vascular or
predominantly epithelioid in morphology
d. Staining for CD34 can be used to rule out other cellular neoplasms
in the differential, including melanoma, mesothelioma, and
anaplastic lymphoma
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Pathology Questions

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30. A most characteristic feature of inclusion body myositis is:

b. TTF-1 +ve, CK20 +ve, p63 ve, CDX2 +ve

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53. Which tumor is positive to SMA, Desmin, CD34 and bcl-2:

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60. Which skin tumor is positive to CAM5.2:

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68. The immunohistochemical profile of synovial sarcoma is:

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91. A patient is complaining of multiple skin nodules which was composed of

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96. Which skin lesion is characterized by granulomas with central basophilic

Multinucleaion, nuclear molding and chromatin margination are seen in:

Drying artifact in cytology causes:

What does the abbreviation MOSD stand for:

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Which lesion is characterized by the presence of blood vessels lined by

Which lymphoma as 2 cell populations, germinal centres & activated Bcells:

Which lymphoma is characterized by t(11:14):

Transolocation t(11:18) is seen in:

Which tumor is associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome:

Which tumor totally lacks any differentiation:

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Which stain is used to differentiate atypical teratoid/rhaboid tumor from

The major difference between classic Hodgins lymphoma and nodular

Which tumor is positive to CD5 & CD117

Which tumor is characteristically located in the neck of males:

What is the typical immunochemical profile of Hodgkin lymphoma:

Which entity is characterized by a positive staining for CD20 and Bcl2:

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What is the most common clinical presentation of respiratory

The most common cause for respiratory papillomatosis:

Which renal tumor is characterized by the presence of a central scar and

Which of the following tumors has a villoglandular architecture and it

Birbeck granules are seen in which of the following entities:

Which tumor shows neurosecretory granules and synaptic vesicles under

Which of the following tumors has the genetic abnormality t(7:17):

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Which of the following cystic renal diseases is characterized by cysts at

Which disease is characterized by hepatomegally, neurological symptoms

Which cells are responsible for the production of IgE in type 1

How does the infection reach the brain in a case of HIV:

What does the window period mean in a case of HIV:

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What is a large area of a subcutaneous blood collection called:

Why is there no light-chain restriction in Hodgkins lymphoma:

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a. The neoplastic cells represent < 1% of the tumor cells

Which organism characteristically causes suppurative inflammation and

Which tumor is -catenin +ve and focally +ve to CD117:

The most common clinical presentation of Digeorge syndrome is:

Fragile X syndrome is characterized by all of the following, except:

What is the mechanism of neutrophilic killing of bacteria:

The most important cells to be present in the diagnosis of temporal

The indication of performing frozen section in breast specimens is to:

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