1 Biomedical Sciences Q&A

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Canadian Pharmacy Review
Pharmacy Prep
Biomedical Sciences
Review and Guide
Misbah Biabani, Ph.D
Director
Toronto Institute of Pharmaceutical Sciences (TIPS) Inc.
Toronto, ON M2N K7
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Foreword by
Misbah Biabani, Ph.D
Coordinator, Pharmacy Prep
Toronto Institute of Pharmaceutical Sciences (TIPS) Inc
5460 Yonge St. Suites 209 and 303
Toronto ON M2N 6K7, Canada
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Content
Abbreviations
Part I: Biomedical sciences

1. Cell Physiology and human skeleton
2. Gastrointestinal anatomy, physiology and Pathophysiology
3. Neurophysiology, and Pathophysiology
4. Cardiovascular anatomy, physiology and Pathophysiology
5. Endocrine physiology and Pathophysiology
6. Renal physiology and electrolyte disorders
7. Liver Function and Pathophysiology
8. Blood composition and anemia
9. Biochemistry
10. Clinical Biochemistry
11. Nutrition
12. Microbiology
13. Genetics and Molecular Biology
14. Pharmacogenomics
15. Immunology
16. Immunizations (vaccines)
17. Biotechnology
18. Toxicology
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Cell Physiology and Human anatomy
PHARMACY PREP
CELL PHYSIOLOGY AND HUMAN SKELETON
1-Phenobarbital (acidic) pH is 3.4 and pKa is 3.4, what percent drug will ionized in the body.
A-90%
B-99%
C-100%
D-50%
E-10%
Ans-D
Comments: pH pKa = 0 is 50% ionized and 50% unionized. If PH = pKa is 50% drug is
ionized and 50% unionized.
2- If the pKa of weak base drug is 4.4 and you have an ambient temperature with pH 7.4
I-The drug will be almost completely ionized
II-The drug will be rapidly excreted
III-The drug will not be ionized neither excreted
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
Ans-B
Comments: 99.9% drug is unionized and do not excrete. 0.09% drug is ionized excrete but
slow.
3- Absorption of water-soluble drug:
a) Well absorbed all over the body
b) Cross BBB very fast
c) Poor absorption through BBB
d) Poor absorption through placenta
e) C and D are right
Ans- E
Comments: The drug cannot be too acid or too base or too water-soluble or too lipid soluble
because these interfere with the absorption. Complectly water-soluble drug will have poorly
absorption through blood brain barrier and through placenta because these tissues are lipid
constituted and water-soluble drugs tends to cross these barrier very slow due to have no
affinity with these barriers.
4- Ficks law is a theory very used in pharmacokinetic that describes:
a) The movement of the molecules across barriers
b) The stability of a drug molecule in room temperature
c) The rate of drug absorption versus the rate of drug elimination
d) The process of bioavailability of drugs
e) The drugs mechanism of action at its receptor site
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Ans- A
Comments: Ficks law is a theory very used in pharmacokinetic that describes the movement of
the molecules across barriers
5. According to the Noyes-Whitney equation, which of the following statements is not true?
a) The greater the difference in concentration across the diffusion layers the faster the
dissolution rate.
b) Decreasing surface area increases dissolution rate.
c) The greater the solubility, the greater the dissolution rate.
d) Agitation will generally increase dissolution rate.
Ans: B
6. Etiology is concerned primarily with
a) Symptomology
b) Racial origin
c) Causation
d) Language facility
Ans-C
7. Movement of limb or body part closer to or towards the mid line of the body is
a) Abduction
b) Adduction
c) Extension
d) Flexion
e) Eversion
Ans: B
8- Planes and Sections of the body: separates the body into unequal right and left portions is referred
as:
A-Sagittal plane
B-Midsagittal plane
C-Coronal plane
D-Parasagittal plane
E-Oblique
Ans-D
Tips:
Sagittal plane Separates the body into right and left portions
Midsagittal plane (Median plane) separates the body/body part into equal right/left portions
Parasagittal plane separates the body into unequal right and left portions.
Coronal plane separates the body/body-part into anterior and posterior portions.
Transverse plane divides the body/body-part into superior and inferior portions.
Oblique plane passes through the body/body-part at an angle
9-Hip joints are?
A-Pubis, illium, ischium
B-Scapula, illium and Ischium
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C- Humerus, Illium, and Ischium

D- Ligament, Humerous, scapula
Ans-A
10-What is the other name of blind spot?
A-Optic disc
B-Retina
C-Cornea
D-Optic nerve
E-None of the above
Ans-A
11-What is the rate-limiting step in ophthalmic drops?
A-Optic disc
B-Retina
C-Cornea
D-Optic nerve
E-None of the above
Ans-C
12-At night dark, what is the active part in retina?
A-Cones
B-Rods
C-Cones and rods
D-Optic nerve
E-Cornea
Ans-B
13-All of the following hormones are released from anterior pituitary gland, except?
A-Leutinizing hormone
B-Follicular stimulating hormones
C-Antidiuretic hormone
D-Prolactin hormone
E-Thyroid stimulating hormone
Ans-C
14-Dyspnea means:
A-Pain in muscles
B-Difficulty breathing (laboured breathing)
C-Painful heart
D-Painful breathing
E-Shortness breathe
Ans-B
15-Pernicious anemia
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A-Due to deficiency intrinsic factor thus no oral vitamin B12 absorption

B-Due to deficiency of vitamin B12, administer oral vitamin B12
C-Due to deficiency of folic acid supplements, administer folic acid supplements
D-Due to deficiency of iron supplements, administer iron supplements
E-Due to deficiency of vitamin B12 and folic acid supplements
Ans-A
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Gastrointestinal anatomy, physiology and Pathophysiology
PHARMACY PREP
GASTROINTESTINAL ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
1-Steatorrhea is results due to?
A-Fat absorption impaired
B-Indigestion of carbohydrate
C-Secretion of vitamin A, D, E and K
D-Excessive absorption of lipids
E-None of the above
Ans-A
2-Cystic fibrosis is?
A-Disorder of pancreatic secretion
B-Disorder lung function
C-Disorder of bones
D-Disorder of electrolyte imbalance
E-disorder of bladder
Ans-A
3-The lower part of gut contain the following microorganisms
A-10-50% anaerobic
B-90-95% anaerobic
C-10-50% aerobic
D-90-95% aerobic
E-lower part of gut does not have any microbes
Ans-B
4-What is most basic in gastrointestinal tract?
A-Esophegus
B-Stomach
C-Small intestine
D-Colon
E-Mouth
Ans-D
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Neurophysiology and Pathophysiology
PHARMACY PREP
NEUROPHYSIOLOGY AND PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
1-The pharmacological actions of the following drug and action combinations are not suitable:
A-Physostigmineconvulsions
B-Pilocarpinereduces intraocular pressure
C-Acetylcholinereduce HR and CO
D-Bethanechol stimulates atonic bladder
E-Carbachol decreases epinephrine production
Ans-E
Comment: carbachol stimulates the production of epinephrine
2-A 45-year-old male patient with high blood pressure and prostatic hyperplasia should not
take?
A-Terazosin
B-Propranolol
C-Benztropine
D-Captopril
E-Losartan
Ans-C
3-Which one of the following drug does not resemble in side effect of the other drugs and may
cause diarrhea:
A-Atropine
B-Scopolamine
C-Benztropine
D-Edrophonium
E-Ipratropium
AnsTips: All of the above are anticholinergic, except edrophonium which is a cholinergic agonist.
4-All of the following can be used in urinary incontinence, EXCEPT:
A-Atropine
B-Amitriptyline
C-Nortriptyline
D-Ipratropium bromide
E-Doxazocin
Ans-E
5-All of the following drugs have miosis side effect EXCEPT:
A-Atropine
B-Carbachol
C-Isoflurophate
D-Neostigmine
E-Pilocarpine
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Ans-A
Tips: Atropine cause mydriasis
6-All of the following are correct combinations except:
A-Succinyl cholinedepolarizes neuromuscular end plates
B-Ipratropium adjunctive treatment in asthma with albuterol
C-Neostigmine reverse the effect of non depolarizing tubocurarine
D-Atropinemay act on peripheral and central cholinergic receptors
E-Atracurarium induce histamine release (side effect).
Ans-C
7-Sumatriptan is widely used in migraine treatment by acting as:
a) 5HT1D/1B Agonist
b) GABA-A
c) BZ-1
d) Enkephalin
e) Dopamine
Ans-A
8-Enkephalins are:
A-Benzodiazepine receptors
B-Peptide type of opioid neurotransmitter
C-Opioid receptors
D-Peptides in cell cycle
E-Regulates pain function
E-Enzymes that metabolize opioids
Ans-B
9-Which of the following is the precursor of norepinephrine
A-Epinephrin
B-Dopamine
C-Dopa
D-Tyrosin
E-Histamine
Ans-B
Tips: Tyrosine dopa dopamine norepinephrine epinephrine
10-Which of the following is the precursor of epinephrine
A-nor epinephrine
B-Dopamine
C-Dopa
D-Tyrosin
E-Histamine
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Ans-A
11-The following amino acid is the precursor of serotonin
A-Tyrosine
B-Histamine
C-Tryptophan
D-Indole acetic acid
E-Glycine
Ans-C
Tips: Tryptophan hydroxytryptophan Serotonin
12-The following drug completely blocks the sodium ion channels, and abolishes action
potential.
A-Bungarotoxin
B-Tetradotoxin
C-Digoxin
D-Carbamazepine
E-Phenytoin
Ans-B
13-Malathion (a organophosphate) is a pesticide, classified as:
I-Cholinergic antagonist
II-Cholinergic indirect irreversible antagonist
III-Organophosphates
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
Ans-B
14-The organophosphates used as insecticides, act by which of the following mechanism:
A-Increasing acetylcholine by combination
B-Increasing acetylcholinesterase action
C-By forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase
D-Reacting at the cholinergic receptor
E-All of the above
Ans-C
15-Pancuronium classified as:
A-Cholinergic agonist
B-NMJ depolarizing blocker
C-Adrenergic agonist
D-Comparative non-depolarizing blocker
E-Adrenergic antagonist
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Ans-D
Tips: comparative non depolarizing blockers
16-The following drug can be used in open angle glaucoma;
I-Timolol
II-Pilocarpine
III-Latanoprost
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
Ans-E
17-Mechanism of action of pilocarpine in glaucoma treatment:
A-Inhibits the secretion of ophthalmic fluid
B-Lowers the intraocular pressure (IOP) by opening the trabecular meshwork around
Schlemms canal by activating ciliary muscle of eye
C-Stimulates the secretion of saliva, results in reduction of IOP
D-It bind mainly nicotinic receptors and causes lower IOP
E-Less effective in lowering the IOP.
Ans-B
18-All of the following are side effects of neostigmine, EXCEPT:
A-Salivation
B-Flushing
C-Convulsions
D-Diarrhea
E-Abdominal motility
Ans-C
Tips: Neostigmine contain quaternary amine salt structure and cannot cross blood brain barrier,
therefore have no CNS side effects. Physostigmine can cross blood brain barrier and have
convulsion side effects, and indicated in glaucoma.
19-All of the following can be used in smoking cessation, EXCEPT:
A-Wellbutrin (bupropion)
B-Zyban (bupropion)
C-Nicotine transdermal patch
D-Nicotine inhaler
E-Nicotine gum
Ans-A
Tips: Wellbutrin is indicated as antidepressants
20-Atropine overdose can be treated by:
A-Methyldopa
B-Scopolamine
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C-Physostigmine
D-Neostigmine
E-organophosphates
Ans-D
21-All of the following drugs have diarrhea as side effect EXCEPT:
A-Neostigmine
B-Bethanechol
C-Atropine
D-Physostigmine
E-Acetylcholine
Ans-C
Tips: atropine is anticholinergic and the other drugs are cholinergic agonist.
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Cardiovascular anatomy, Physiology and pathophysiology
PHARMACY PREP
CARDIOVASCULAR ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
1-Absolute refractory period (ARP) reflects the time during which no action potential can be
initiated regardless of how much inward current are supplies. The ARP begins and ends at/
A-Phase I to Phase 2
B-Phase 0 to phase 1
C-Phase 1 to phase 2
D-Phase 1 to phase 3
E-Phase 2 only
Ans-D
2-Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) catalyzes the conversion of Angiotensin I to
Angiotensin II, primarily in?
A-Kidney
B-Blood
C-Lungs
D-Liver
E-Heart
Ans-C
3-Which of the following statement is incorrect about vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone
ADH)?
A-It is potent vasoconstrictor that increase TPR in arterioles
B-Increase water resorption by renal distal tubule and collecting ducts.
C-ADH released when atrial receptors detect the decrease in blood volume
D-All of the above
E-None of the above
Ans-D
4-Which of the vasoactive hormone causes arterial constriction?
A-histamine
B-Bradykinin
C-Prostaglandin
D-Thromboxane A2
E-Prostacyclin
Ans-D
5-Myocardial contractility is best correlated with the intracellular concentration of
A-Ca2+
B-Na+
C-K+
D-ClE-Mg2+
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Cardiovascular anatomy, Physiology and pathophysiology
Ans-A
Tips: Myocardial cell contractions depends on the intracellular Ca2+. Which regulated by
calcium ion entry across the cell membrane during the plateau of the action potential.
6-Aldosterone is secreted by adrenal cortex. What is incorrect about aldosterone?
A-Increases sodium chloride (NaCl) reabsorption by the renal distal tubules thereby increase
blood volume and arterial pressure
B-It causes vasoconstriction of the arterioles, thus increase TPR and mean arterial pressure
C-Angiotensin II stimulates the synthesis and secretion of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex
D-all of he above
E-none of the above
Ans-D
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Endocrine Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology
PHARMACY PREP
ENDOCRINE ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
1-Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) secretes from?
A-Anterior pituitary gland
B-Posterior pituitary gland
C-Thyroid gland
D-Parathyroid gland
E-None of the above
Ans-A
2-Aromatized ring A is present in?
A-Progesterone
B-Etrogen
C-Testosterone
D-Androgen
E-aldosterone
Ans-B
3-Primary adrenocorticcal insufficiency can lead to:
A-Cushing syndrome
B-Myxidema
C-Addison disease
D-Graves disease
E-Hashimoto disease
Ans-C
4-What is incorrect about comparison of insulin and glucogon
A-Insulin blood glucose levels and glucogon blood glucose levels
B- blood glucose levels stimulates production of insulin
C- blood glucose levels stimulates production of glucagons
D-Insulin increase glucose uptake and glycogen formation
E-Insulin causes hyperkalemia
Ans-e
5-In pregnancy progesterone is produced by?
I-Corpus luteum
II-Placenta
III- Pituitary gland
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
Ans-C
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6-Intracellular enzyme that generate free radicals include:

A-Cisteine
B-Superoxide desmutase
C-Hydrogen peroxide
D-Hydroxyl ion
E-None of the above
Ans-B
7-Free radicals include:
I-Hydrogen peroxide
II-Benzoyl peroxide
III-Superoxide desmutase
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
Ans-C
8-Calcium ion is:
A-Intracellular ion
B-Extracelluar ion
C-Extracelluar anion
D-Intracellular anion
E-None of the above
Ans-B
9-Amenorrhea may be described as:
A-Impotence
B-Premenstrual symptoms
C-Menopause
D-Painful menstruation
E-Missing menstruation
Ans-E
Tips: Amenorrhea is absence of menstruation
Dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation
10-Primary dysmenorrhea is caused by:
A-Decreased levels of prostaglandin
B-Increased levels of prostaglandin
c-Endometriosis
D-Improper posture
E-None of the above
Ans-B
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11-A wasting due to lack of nutrition to a body part is?

A-Hypertrophy
B-Atrophy
C-Aplasia
D-Hyperplasia
E-Gernotopia
Ans-B
Tips: wasting is loss of function and tissue death.
12-Dyspnea means:
A-Pain in muscles
B-Painful breathing
C-Painful heart
D-Painful lung
E-Pain in bone joints
Ans-B
13-Hyperthyroidism causes?
A-slow speech
B-impaired memory
C-hyperexcitability
D-decreased mental capacity
E-somnolence
Ans-C
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PHARMACY PREP
RENAL DISORDERS
1-Factors that my increase the risk of renal failure may include:
a) Hemorrhage
b) Heart diseases
c) Oliguria
d) Pulmonary edema
e) All are correct
Ans-E
2-The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis may be best treated by administration of
which of the following agents?
a) Salbutamol
b) Diphenhydramine
c) Adrenaline
d) Acetazolamine
e) Aminiphyline
Ans-C
3-Characteristics of nephrotic syndrome may include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) Protein urea
b) Hypoalbuminemia
c) Edema
d) Hyperalbuminemia
e) Hyperlipidemia
Ans-D
4-Cholecystitis, normally characterized by edema and congestion to severe infection with
gangrene and perforation is an inflammation of:
I- Gallbladder
II- Liver
III- Heart
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
Ans-A
Tips: Cholecystitis is an inflammation of gallbladder. Its acute form is normally
characterized by edema and congestion to severe infection with gangrene and perforation.
5. All of the following statements about renal failure are correct EXCEPT:
a) Increased total body clearance
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b) Increase drug half life
c) Decrease body clearance
d) Affect drugs that excrete via kidneys
e) Drugs metabolized via liver are the least to be affected
Ans: A
6. Secretion of potassium ions by the distal tubule will be decreased by
a) Metabolic alkalosis
b) A high potassium diet
c) Hyperaldosteronism
d) Spironolactone administration
e) Thiazide administration
Ans: D
Tips: Spironolactone diuretics act at distal tubules and prevents K+ secretion, thus it
causes hyperkalemia.
7-Azotemia means?
A-Increase in nitrogen waste in body
B-Increase in nitrogen waste in urine
C-Decrease in nitrogen waste in body
D-Decrease in nitrogen waste in urine
E-No change in nitrogen
Ans-A
Tips: renal disease (glomerular filtration), decrease excretion of urea into urine, that leads
to urea retention in blood, it is referred as azotemia or uremia.
8-A man with history of severe diarrhea, the loss of HCO3- from GI tract causes a
decrease in blood [HCO3-], his values is: Thus this man has?
PH = 7.25
Pco2 = 24 mmHg
[HCO3-] = 10 mEq/L
A-Metabolic alkalosis
B-Metabolic acidosis
C-Respiratory acidosis
D-Respiratory alkalosis
E-Normal acid base status
Ans-B
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Liver Function and Diseases
PHARMACY PREP
LIVER PHYSIOLOGY AND PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
1-Hepatitis A mainly cause by:
A-Sexual contact
B-Blood transfusion
C-Food and drink contamination
D-Traveling abroad
E-Oro-fecal
Ans-C
2-Which of the following is NOT a chronic hepatitis infections?
A-Hepatitis A
B-Hepatitis B
C-Hepatitis C
D-Hepatitis B and C
E-None of the above
Ans-A
3-Travelers should receive, the following vaccinations, except?
A-Hepatitis A
B-Hepatitis B
C-Dukoral
D-Gerdasil
E-None of the above
Ans-D
4-Acetominophen hepatotoxicity can be reduced by:
A-Glucuronidation
B-Glutathione conjugation
C-Acetylation
D-Sulfate conjugation
E-Methylation
Ans5-Which of the following non-toxic product of glutathione conjugation?
A-Acetylcysteine
B-cysteine
C-Mercapturic acid
D-Glutathione conjugation
E-Glutathione only
Ans-C
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Liver Function and Diseases
Tips: Hepatitis vaccination is recommended for travelers. Dukoral is oral vaccine for
travelers diarrhea. Gerdasil is vaccine human papilloma virus (HPV), which is
administered in teenagers to prevent cervical cancer.
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Blood and Anemia
PHARMACY PREP
BLOOD AND ANEMIA
1-Microcytic anemia is characterized as?
A-Iron deficient anemia
B-Vitamin B12 deficient anemia
C-Folate deficient anemia
D-Sickle cell anemia
E-Pernicious anemia
Ans-A
2-A 75 year old elderly person have deficiency of cyanocobalamine, this can lead to:
I-Megalobastic anemia
II-Mycrocytic anemia
III-Intrinsic factor
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II Only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
Ans-A
3-Megaloblastic anemia may be caused due to a result of:
I-Folic acid deficiency
II-Vitamin B12 deficiency
III-Iron deficiency
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
Ans- C
Comments: Iron deficiency is called mycrocystic anemia while megaloblastic anemia is a
deficiency of cyanocobalamin and folic acid.
4-Filgrastin is:
A-Interleukin
B-Colony stimulating factor
C-Tumor necrosis factor
D-Oprelvekin
E-Erythropoietins
Ans-B
5-The MOST common cause for megaloblastic anemia is
a) Gastric bleeding
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Blood and Anemia
b) Lack of dietary iron

c) Lack of dietary folic acid
d) Lack of dietary pyridoxine
e) Lack of absorption of vitamin B12
Ans-C
6-Hematocrit is?
A-Circulating iron storage
B-Measures the total iron binding capacity
C-Measures the total free iron
D-Mean volumen of iron
E-It is transferrins
Ans-A
7-Which of the following blood cells cannot be distinguished from basophils?
A-Neutrophils
B-White blood cells
C-Eosinophils
D-Red blood cells (RBC)
E-Mast cells
Ans-e
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Biochemistry Test
PHARMACY PREP
BIOCHEMISTRY
1-Glycine reaction is normally mediated by:

a) Acetyl Coenzyme A
b) UDP Glucoronyl tranferase
c) PAPS- Phosphoadenosine-5-Phosphosulfate
d) Sulfotranferase
e) GST-Glutathione S-Transferase
2- Abundant element in the interstitial fluid may include:
a) Potassium
b) Sodium
c) Magnesium
d) Calcium
e) Chloro
3- Which is responsible for NO in vivo?
a) Argenine
b) Tryptophan
c) Guanine
d) Thiamine
e) Leucine
4- Enzyme that enables DNA fragments from different sources to be joined:
a) DNA polymerase
b) DNA gyrase
c) DNA ligase
d) RNA transferase
e) None of the above
5- Which of the followings are types of RNA?
I- RNAt - RNA transferase
II- RNAm RNA mensager
III-RNAr RNA ribossome
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
6- Which vitamin is/are fat-soluble?
I- Vitamin E
II- Vitamin K
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Biochemistry Test
III- Vitamin B
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
7-Which of the following vitamin is not water-soluble?
a) Vitamin B
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Folic acid
e) Riboflavin
8- The most abundant metal ion in human body
a) Iron
b) Magnesium
c) Aluminum
d) Phosphorous
e) Potassium
9- Which of the following is considered the normal potassium serum in human body?
a) 2.0 to 3.5mEq/L
b) 3.5 to 5.0mEq/L
c) 5.0 to 7.5mEq/L
d) 3.5 to 7.5mEq/L
e) 3.0 to 6.0mEq/L
10- Which of the following is considered normal sodium serum in human body?
a) 35 to 47 mEq/L
b) 147 to 150 mEq/L
c) 135 to 147mEq/L
d) 75 to 135 mEq/L
e) 125 to 145 mEq/L
11- Which of the following is considered as essential vitamin for breast-feed babies?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
e) Vitamim E
12- Which of the following hormone acts on cell wall?
a) Insulin
b) Prolactin
c) Cortisol
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PharmacyPREP.COM
Biochemistry Test
d) Estrogen
e) Alanine
13- Which of the following vitamins has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity based on its
pteridine ring?
a) Thiamine
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin K
d) Folic acid
e) Pyridoxine
14- What is correct regarding the formation of proteins?
a) Formed by condensation of peptic bond
b) Geometric sequence of amino acids
c) The formation occurs by complexation of amino acids
d) Proteins are formed from carbohydrates
e) None of the above is right
15- Which is the strongest endogenous analgesic-pain producer in human body?
a) Leukotriene
b) Enkephalin
c) Bradykinin
d) Cytokine
e) Angiotensin
16- Which of the following is considered the FIRST precursor of vitamin A formation?
a) Retinoic acid
b) Carotene
c) Cobalt
d) Calciferol
e) Pantothenic acid
17- Biological catalysts responsible for supporting almost all of the chemical reactions
that maintain human life process:
a) Nucleic acid
b) Amino acids
c) Carbohydrates
d) Oligopeptides
e) Enzymes
18- Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding enzymes?
I-Enzymes are proteins
II- Enzymes are catalyst because they are never altered during a reaction
III- Michaelis-Menten theory describe the enzymatic reactions
a) I only
22
PharmacyPREP.COM
Biochemistry Test
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
19- Zwintter ion reacts with a substrate as:
a) Neutral ion
b) Proton acceptor ion
c) Proton donor ion
d) Anionic
e) Cationic
20- Correct statements regarding mutation may include:
I- Cell division
II- Change in genotype
III- Change in DNA replication altering the gene
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
21- Which pyrimidine base is not present in DNA?
a) Thiamine
b) Adenine
c) Uracil
d) Cytosine
e) Guanine
22- The codon sequence Adenine-Guanine-Cytosine-Uracil is seen in
I- RNAs
II- DNAs
III- Both DNAs and RNAs
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
23- Shaped network present in the cell between nucleus and cell wall:
a) Ribossomes
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Mitocondria
d) Cell membrane
e) Nucleotide
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PharmacyPREP.COM
Biochemistry Test
24- The Michaelis-Menten equation-Enzymatic reactions will appears ZERO order when:
a) The substrate concentration is much smaller than Km
b) When Km is much smaller than the substrate concentration
c) When Vmax is much smaller than Km
d) When Vmax is much larger than Km
e) When Km approaches Vmax
25- Which vitamin can be classified as hormone?
a) Vitamin D
b) Vitamin D3
c) Vitamin E
d) Vitamin K
e) Vitamin B12
26- False statement regarding vitamin D3 metabolism include:
a) Vitamin C facilitates absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver
b) Hydroxylation of D3 is in kidney
c) Hydroxylation of is D3 in the liver
d) Parathyroid hormone activate metabolism of vitamin D3 in the kidney
e) Skin activates synthesis of vitamin D3 by sunlight
27- Hydrolysis of fixed oils may yields:
a) Saturated + Unsaturated acids
b) Glycerol + Fatty acids
c) Glucose + Fatty acids
d) Fatty acids + Triglycerideos
e) None of the above
28- Example of compound that is phospholipid include:
a) Glycogen
b) Leucine
c) Lecithin
d) Hyaluronic acid
e) Phenylalanine
29- In an enzymatic reaction, addition of competitive inhibitor leads to:
a) Increase the rate of reaction
b) Decrease the rate of reaction
c) Same rate of reaction
d) Decrease rate and increase substrate concentration
e) Decrease both rate and substrate concentration
30- Which of the following is the end products of ANAEROBIC reactions?
a) Pyruvic acid
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PharmacyPREP.COM
Biochemistry Test
b) CO2
c) CO2 + H2O
d) Lactic acid
e) Proteins
CORRECT ANSWERS
BIOCHEMESTRY
1- A
Comments: Glycine reaction is a reaction mediated by acetyl Coenzyme A.
2- B
Comments: Interstitial fluid is situated between parts or in the interspaces of a tissue
therefore outside the cells. Sodium is the most abundant element outside the cells
therefore in the interstitial fluid.
3- A
Comments: Argenine is an essential amino acid responsible for N.
4- C
Comments: DNA ligase is an enzyme that enables DNA fragments from different sources
to be joined.
5- E
Comments: All, RNA transferase, RNA mensager and RNA ribosome are types of RNAs.
6- C
Comments: All vitamins B and vitamin C are water-soluble.
7- C
Comments: Vitamin A, D, E and K are fat-soluble vitamins.
8- A
Comments: Iron is the most abundant metal ion in human body.
9- B
Comments: Normal potassium serum in human body range between 3.5 to 5.0mEq/L.
10- C
Comments: Normal sodium serum in human body range between 135 to 147mEq/L
11- D
Comments: The most essential vitamin for breast-feed babies is vitamin D.
12- A
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PharmacyPREP.COM
Biochemistry Test
Comments: Insulin is a hormone that acts on cell wall

13- D
Comments: Folic acid is a vitamin B9 that has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity based
on its pteridine ring.
14- A
Comments: Proteins are formed by a reaction between amino acids called condensation
between peptid bonds.
15- C
Comments: Bradykinin is the strongest endogenous analgesic-pain producer in human
body.
16- B
Comments: Vitamin A is formed from retinoic acid that is formed from beta-caroteno.
17- E
Comments: Enzymes are biological catalysts responsible for supporting almost all of the
chemical reactions that maintain human life process, and accelerate reactions by lowering
the energy of the transition state.
18- E
Comments: Enzymes are proteins or biological catalysts responsible for supporting
almost all of the chemical reactions. They are called catalyst because are never altered
during a reaction. Michaelis-Menten theory describes the enzymatic reactions.
19- A
Comments: Zwintter ion is a neutral ion with two charges, positive and negative, that
reacts neutrally with a substrate.
20- D
Comments: Mutation is a permanent transmissible change in the genetic material, usually
in a single gene.
21- C
Comments: Uracil is only present in RNAs.
22- A
Comments: The codon sequence Adenine-Guanine-Cytosine-Uracil is seen in RNAs
only. DNAs differ only in the presence of Thiamine instead of uracil.
23- B
Comments: Endoplasmic reticulum is a shaped network present in the cell between
nucleus and cell wall.
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PharmacyPREP.COM
Biochemistry Test
24- E
Comments: The Michaelis-Menten equation-Enzymatic reactions will appears ZERO
order when Km approaches Vmax and FIRST order when the substrate concentration is
smaller than Km.
25- B
Comments: Vitamin D3 man be classified as hormone
26- A
Comments: Vitamin C does not interfere with absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver.
27- B
Comments: Glycerol and fatty acids are the end products of hydrolysis of fixed oils.
28- C
Comments: Lecithin is a phospholipid
29- C
Comments: Addition of competitive inhibitor in an enzymatic reaction does not alter the
rate of reaction.
30- D
Comments: Pyruvic acid is the end product of anaerobic reactions
31- C
Comments: CO2 and H2O are the end products of aerobic reactions.
32- C
Comments: Histadiol, cysteine, aspartame and glutamine are examples of non-essential
amino acids
33- E
Comments: Glycine is not an essential amino acid.
34- B
Comments: Urea is the end product of proteins.
35- C
Comments: Purine is the end product of uric acid.
36- E
Comments: Enzymes of Krebs cycle, enzymes of respiratory pathway as well
cytochrome oxidase and enzymes of fatty acid cycle are present in the mitochondria
structure of the cell.
27
PharmacyPREP.COM
Biochemistry Test
37- D
Comments: Glucase is the main carbohydrate present in the human blood.
38- B
Comments: Jenus green is a laboratory test that detects the presence of mitochondria in
the living cell
39- A
Comments: Maltase and cellulose are both carbohydrates not synthesized during human
metabolism, however maltase is disaccharide and cellulose is a polysaccharide
carbohydrate.
40- C
Comments: -carotene is the precursor of vitamin A. The transformation reaction happens
in the liver by oxidation.
28
www.Pharmacyprep.com
Clinical Biochemistry
PHARMACY PREP
CLINICAL BIOCHEMISTRY
1-Thyroid Replacement therapy for hypothyroidism should be monitored by:
A-Free T4
B-Sensitive TSH assay
C-Free thyroxine assay
D-Total thyroxin
E-None of the above
Ans2-Serum TSH are elevated in?
A-Hyperthyroidism
B-Hypothyroidism
C-Hyperparathyroidism
D-Hypoparathyroidism
Ans-B
2-What are the normal chloride levels in body?
A-95-105mEq/L
B-100-125mEq/L
C-100-200mEq/L
D-125-150mEq/L
E-200-250mEq/L
Ans-A
3. Which of the following plasma proteins has the GREATEST ability to bind drugs
a) Albumin
b) Fibrinogen
c) Hemoglobin
d) Gamma globulin
e) Beta lipoprotein
Ans: A
4. Which of the following is not the correct match:
A-Hypoparathyroidism hypocalcimia
B-Hypoparathyroidism hyperphosphetemia
C-Hyperparathyroidism hypercalcemia
D-Hyperparathyroidism causes deficiency phosphates
E-Hyperparathyroidism causes deficiency of calcium
Ans-E
29
Clinical Biochemistry
5. All of the following are tests are used in monitoring hypothyroidism EXCEPT;
A-Sensitive TSH assay
B-Thyrotropic (TSH) stimulation test
C-Free thryoixine index (FTI)
D-Total thyroxine (TT4)
E-Resin triiodothyronine uptake (RT3U )
Ans-B
6-Which of the following is NOT decreased in elderly?
A-Creatinin clearance
B-Serum creatinin
C-Blood urea nitrogen
D-Albumin
E-Adipose tissue
Ans-E
30
Nutrition
PHARMACY PREP
NUTRITION
1-Vitamin A is:
I-Retinol
II-Retinal
III-Retinoic acid
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
Ans-E
Tips: Vitamin A is mixture of retinol (alcohol), retinal (aldehyde) and retinoic acid (acid).
2-Precursor of vitamin A:
I-Carotinoids
II-Retinol
III-Retinal
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
Ans-A
3-Source of vitamin A
I-Fish
II-Green vegetables
III-Carrots
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
Ans-E
4-Forms of vitamin A found in rods of retina:
A-Cis-retinal
B-Trans retinal
C-Rhodopsin
D-Retinoic acid
Ans5-Topical acne treatment tretinoin (Retin A) is:
31
Nutrition
I-13-cis retinoic acid

II-12-isomer of retinoic acid
III-13-trans retinoic acid
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
Ans- B
Tips: Topical Tretinoin is 13-Trans retinoic acid (RetinA) TTT; Oral isotretinoin is 13cis retinoic acid (accutane)
6-Which of the following drugs that cause vitamin B6 deficiency:
I-Isoniazid
II- Penicillamine
III- Resins
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
Ans-C
Tips: Penicillamine and Isoniazid may cause vitamin B6 deficiency.
7-Which of the following should be avoided with vitamin B6?
A-Isoniazid
B-Penicillamine
C-Levodopa
D-Dopamine
E-Carbidopa
Ans-C
8-Which of the following vitamin decreases in chronic alcoholics?
A-Vitamin A
B-Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
C-Vitamin C
D-Vitamin B12
E-Vitamin E
Ans-B
9-Which of the following vitamin decreases in smokers?
A-Vitamin A
B-Vitamin B
C-Vitamin C
D-Vitamin D
E-Vitamin E
32
Nutrition
Ans-C
10-Which vitamin structure is related to steroidal hormone structures?
A-vitamin A
B-vitamin B
C-Vitamin C
D-Vitamin D
E-Vitamin E
Ans11-Ergocalceferol is:
A-Vitamin C
B-Vitamin D2
C-Vitamin D3
D-Vitamin E
E-Vitamin K
Ans-B
12-Cholecalciferol:
A-Vitamin C
B-Vitamin D2
C-Vitamin D3
D-Vitamin E
E-Vitamin K
Ans-C
13-Vitamin:
A-It is cofactor
B-It is inorganic substance
C-It is catalyst
D-It is organic substance
E-It is enzyme
Ans-D
14-Chemical ring structure in folic acid that binds to para aminobenzoic acid is;
A-PABA ring
B-pteridine ring
C-Glutamate
D-Quinolone ring
E-Epoxide ring
Ans-B
15- Elderly have deficiency of vitamins?
A-Vitamin A
B- Vitamin B
C- Vitamin C
33
Nutrition
D- Vitamin D
E- Vitamin E
16-Smokers have deficiency of vitamins?
A-Vitamin A
B- Vitamin B
C- Vitamin C
D- Vitamin D
E- Vitamin E
Ans-C
17-What vitamin could cause toxicity?
A-Vitamin A
B- Vitamin B
C- Vitamin C
D- Vitamin D
E- Vitamin E
Ans-A
18-Vegetarians have deficiency of vitamins?
A-Vitamin A
B- Vitamin B12
C- Vitamin C
D- Vitamin D
E- Vitamin E
Ans-B
19-A breast fed infant should recieved which of the following vitamin drops?
A-Vitamin A
B- Vitamin B12
C- Vitamin C
D- Vitamin D
E- Vitamin E
Ans-D
20-Age over 50 years and elderly have deficiency of vitamin?
A-Vitamin A
B- Vitamin B12
C- Vitamin C
D- Vitamin D
E- Vitamin E
Ans-B
21-Chronic renal disease can cause deficiency of?
A-Vitamin A
B- Vitamin B12
34
Nutrition
C- Vitamin C
D- Vitamin D
E- Vitamin E
Ans-D
Tips: Chronic renal deficiency can cause deficiency of vitamin D3 i.e 1, 25 dihydroxy
ergocalceferol which is activ vitamin D.
22-Which of the following condition have deficiency of vitamin B1(thiamine)
A-smoking
B-old age
C-chronic alcoholism
D-Infants
E-Pregnancy
Ans-c
23-Vitamin B12 deficiency are more common in?
A-smoking
B-old age
C-chronic alcoholism
D-Infants
E-Pregnancy
Ans-B
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PharmacyPrep.Com
Infectious Diseases
PHARMACY PREP
MICROBIOLOGY
1-Which of the following are the correct statement about Staphylococcus aureus
I-It contains techoic acid
II-Gram stain test is positive
III-It contains lipopolysaccharide layer
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All are correct
Ans-C
2-Obligate anaerobic bacteria:
I-Generate oxygen
II-Generate superoxide dismutase
III-Do not generate carbohydrates
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All are correct
Ans-B
3-Colon is large intestine which contains, which of the following type of bacteria:
A-95% to100% anaerobic
B-95 to 100% aerobic
C-30 to 50% anaerobic
D-30-50% aerobic
E-There is no bacteria in lower gut.
Ans-A
4-Which of the following clinical condition is the prophylactic use of anti bacterial is
NOT required?
A-Preoperative treatment for GI conditions
B-Frequent respiratory diseases
C-Preoperative treatment of hip surgeries
D-Prevention of meningitis among individuals in close contact with infected patients
E-Patient with tooth surgeries or tooth removed.
Ans-B
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PharmacyPrep.Com
Infectious Diseases
Tips: Certain clinical situation require the use of antibiotics for prevention rather than
treatment of infections, such as:
Prevention of strep infections in patient with rheumatic heart disease
Patient under going dental extraction, who have prosthetic devices such as heart valve
etc.
Prevention of Tuberculosis, meningitis (close contacts) Prior to certain surgical
procedures.
HIV infected pregnant woman
5-Drugs used in the treatment of meningitis are all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) Penicillins
b) Cephalosporins
c) Gentamicin
d) Streptomycin
e) Sulfonamides
Ans- D
tips: Streptomycin is not used in the treatment of meningitis. The main treatment of
bacterial meningitis may include penicillins, cephalosporins and vancomycin while viral
meningitis is mainly treated by acyclovir IV.
6-Most common causative organism of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is:
A-S. pneumonia
B-M. pneumonia
C-H. influenza
D-S. aureus
E-E .coli
Ans-A
7-The following organism least likely causes pneumonia:
A-S. pneumonia
B-M. pneumonia
C-H. influenza
D-M.catharhalis
E-E. coli
Ans-E
8-Bacteria that cause community acquired pneumonia infections include:
I-S.pneumonia
II-H.influenza
III-M.catarrhalis
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All are correct
38
PharmacyPrep.Com
Infectious Diseases
Ans-E
9-The most common cause of Urinary tract infections include:
A-N. gonnorhea
B-E. coli
C-Chlamydea
D-S. pneumonia
E-M. catarhalis
Ans-B
10-The most common cause of travellers diarrhea is:
A-Protozoa
B-E.coli
C-Salmonella sp.
D-Shigella
E-Corynebacterium
Ans-B
11-Lyme disease a tick born infections commonly occur in the months of July-August
and in the area of Mississippi river valley, is caused by:
A-Treponema pallidum
B-B. burgdorferi
C-Dermatophyte
D-Giardia lamblia
Ans-B
12-Which of the following is the most common cause of nosocomial infections:
I-S. aureus
II-P. aeruginosa
III-E. coli
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All are correct
Ans-C
Tips: nosocomial infections = hospital acquired infections.
13-Drug of choice for nosocomial infection that caused by P. aeruginosa.
A-Ciprofloxacin
B-Aminoglycosides
C-Amoxicillin
D-Erythromycin
E-Cephalosporins
Ans-B
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PharmacyPrep.Com
Infectious Diseases
14-Clindamycin, may cause severe diarrhea, this condition can be treated by:
A-Pepto-Bismol
B-Loperamide
C-OTC antidiarrheal
D-Metronidazole
E-Oral rehydration salts
Ans-D
15-Which of the following is mycolic acid synthesize inhibitor?
A-Rifampin
B-Ethambutol
C-Isoniazid
D-Cotrimazole
E-Ketoconazole
Ans-C
16-Syphilis infections can occur with;
A-E. coli
B-Salmonella
C-T. pallidum
D-Spirochete
E-Diphtheria
Ans-C
17-The fungal infection that commonly occurs on skin between foot toes is:
A-Jack itch
B-Onychomycosis
C-Athletes foot
D-Thrush
E-Ringworm
Ans-C
Tips: Jack itch is fungal infections commonly occurs on foot toe Onchomycosis is fungal
nail infections. Thrush is fungal infections mainly caused by Candida albicans .
Ringworm is a fungal infections, it caused by dermatophytes (it is not a worm)
18-Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is caused by:
A-E. coli
B-It is type of UTI
C-S. aureus
D-It is type of STD
E-It is not a infection
Ans-C
19-Pseudomembranous colitis is a condition that occurs as result of antibiotics use, is
caused by:
A-C. tetani
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PharmacyPrep.Com
Infectious Diseases
B-C. difficile
C-C. botulinum
D-C. perfringes
E-All of the above
Ans-B
20-All of the following cause food poisoning EXCEPT:
A-E. coli
B-Solmonella sp
C-Shigella sp
D-Nisseria
E-C. botulinum
Ans-D
21-Seasonal flu is caused by:
I-Influenza A
II-Influenza B
III-H. Influenza type B only
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All are correct
Ans-C
Tips: Influenza A and B are virus that cause seasonal flu and H. influenza is gram ve
bacteria commonly cause pneumonia and otitis media
22-Hepatitis A viral infections may spread by:
I-Sexual contact
II-Blood transfusion
III-Food contamination
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All are correct
Ans-B
23-The common cold (runny nose) is caused by:
A-Influenza A
B-Influenza B
C-Rhinovirus
D-Pox virus
E-Papilloma virus
Ans-C
Tips: Rhino has runny nose
41
PharmacyPrep.Com
Infectious Diseases
24-Hepatitis B and C are viral infections may spread by?

I-Sexual contact
II-Blood transfusion
III-Food contamination
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All are correct
Ans-C
25-Which of the following not associated with Toxic shock syndrome?
A-Tampons
B-Condoms
C-Contraceptive sponges
D-intra uterine devices (IUD)
E-None of the above
Ans-B
42
Pharmacy Prep Review Questions
PHARMACY PREP
GENETICS AND MOLECULAR BIOLOGY
1-What base is not found in deoxyribose nucleic acid (DNA):
A-Thymine
B-Adenine
C-Guanine
D-Cytosine
E-Uracil
Ans-E
Tips: Uracil is not found in DNA. Uracil is present in RNA.
2-Translation occurs:
A-Before transcription
B-After transcription
C-Same time as transcription
D-None of the above
Ans-B
3-Glycoproteins are linked to:
A-DNA
B-RNA
C-mRNA
D-Carbohydrates
E-Lipids
Ans-D
Comments: glycoproteins are linked to carbohydrates
4-An enzyme that cleaves deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) at a specific site is called:
I-Trypsin
II-Restrictive ribonuclease
III-Restrictive endonuclease
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
Ans-B
Tips: Restrictive endonuclease cleaves the DNA at a specific site.
5-Coupling of two DNA helicals is:
A-Lyase
B-Ligase
C-Endonuclease
42
D-Ribonuclease
E-Reverse Transcriptase
Ans-B
Tips: ligase is coupling of DNA helicals where as lyase is splitting of helicles.
6-Separating two DNA helicals is:
A-Lyase
B-Ligase
C-Endonuclease
D-Ribonuclease
Ans-A
7-Which of the following is NOT a type of RNA;
A-mRNA
B-tRNA
C-cRNA
D-rRNA
E-None of the above
Ans-C
Tips: RNA classified as rRNA, tRNA and mRNA. However, there is no cRNA.
8-Which of the following is the highest percent of RNA type:
A-mRNA
B-tRNA
C-cRNA
D-rRNA
E-dRNA
Ans-D
Tips: rRNA80%, tRNA15%, mRNA5%
9-Which of the following is recombinant DNA
A-rDNA
B-R-DNA
C-cDNA
D-mDNA
E-tDNA
Ans-A
Tips: rDNA is recombinant DNA
10- A woman carrying hemophilia and has a child from a man with hemophilia. Which of
the following is NOT her child?
a) A girl with hemophilia
b) A boy with hemophilia
c) A girl having no gene of hemophilia
d) A girl having the gene of hemophilia
43
e) A boy having no hemophilia
Ans-C
X
X
XX
X
XX
Y
XY
XY
XX = Women with hemophilia

XY = Man with hemophilia
XY = Man with NO hemophilia
XX = Women with hemophilia carrier
11. Bases found in DNA is/are
I-Uracil
II-Cytosine
III-Thymine
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All of the above
Ans: D
12-Hemophilia A results from deficiency of factor?
A-V
B-X
C-VIII
D-II
E-XI
Ans-C
44
PHARMACY PREP
GENETICS AND MOLECULAR BIOLOGY
1-What base is not found in deoxyribose nucleic acid (DNA):
A-Thymine
B-Adenine
C-Guanine
D-Cytosine
E-Uracil
Ans-E
Tips: Uracil is not found in DNA. Uracil is present in RNA.
2-Translation occurs:
A-Before transcription
B-After transcription
C-Same time as transcription
D-None of the above
Ans-B
3-Glycoproteins are linked to:
A-DNA
B-RNA
C-mRNA
D-Carbohydrates
E-Lipids
Ans-D
Comments: glycoproteins are linked to carbohydrates
4-An enzyme that cleaves deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) at a specific site is called:
I-Trypsin
II-Restrictive ribonuclease
III-Restrictive endonuclease
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
Ans-B
Tips: Restrictive endonuclease cleaves the DNA at a specific site.
5-Coupling of two DNA helicals is:
A-Lyase
B-Ligase
C-Endonuclease
42
D-Ribonuclease
Ans-B
Tips: ligase is coupling of DNA helicals where as lyase is splitting of helicles.
6-Separating two DNA helicals is:
A-Lyase
B-Ligase
C-Endonuclease
D-Ribonuclease
Ans-A
7-Which of the following is NOT a type of RNA;
A-mRNA
B-tRNA
C-cRNA
D-rRNA
E-None of the above
Ans-C
Tips: RNA classified as rRNA, tRNA and mRNA. However, there is no cRNA.
8-Which of the following is the highest percent of RNA type:
A-mRNA
B-tRNA
C-cRNA
D-rRNA
E-dRNA
Ans-D
Tips: rRNA80%, tRNA15%, mRNA5%
9-Which of the following is recombinant DNA
A-rDNA
B-R-DNA
C-cDNA
D-mDNA
E-tDNA
Ans-A
Tips: rDNA is recombinant DNA
43
Ans-C
X
X
XX
X
XX
Y
XY
XY
XX = Women with hemophilia

XY = Man with hemophilia
XY = Man with NO hemophilia
XX = Women with hemophilia carrier
11. Bases found in DNA is/are
I-Uracil
II-Cytosine
III-Thymine
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All of the above
Ans: D
12-Hemophilia A results from deficiency of factor?
A-V
B-X
C-VIII
D-II
E-XI
Ans-C
44
PHARMACY PREP
PHARMACOGENETICS
1-What is definition of Pharmacogenetics?
A-The pharmacogenomics is integration of pharmacology and genetics.
B-The study of pharmacogenomics allows to design and develop drugs that are customized to
each persons genetic mark up.
C-The pharmacogenomics also utilized to study cytochrome enzymes that are responsible for
drug interactions.
D-All of the above
E-None of the above
Ans-D
2. Bases found in both DNA and RNA is/are
I.
Cytosine
II.
Adenine
III.
Guanine
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All of the above
Ans: E
3. Enzymes that catalyze coupling of two molecules are classified as
a) Hydralases
b) Ligases
c) Oxidoreductases
d) Transferases
e) Isomerases
Ans: B
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Immunology and Toxicology
PHARMACY PREP.
IMMUNOLOGY AND TOXICOLOGY
1- The FALSE statement about vaccines is/are:
I- It is given only after the person suffer exposition to the virus
II- Passive vaccines promote immunization for short period of time
III- Active vaccines promote long-term immunization
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
2- Differences between passive and active immunization:
I- Passive enhance and active stimulate the patients immune response.
II- In passive antibody injection are given and in active antigen injections are given
III- Passive is effective for some months while active is longer lasting
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
3- Correct statement regarding -Fetoprotein-AFP include
I- Produced by the fetal liver
II- May cause hepatocellular carcinoma
III Cause death of fetus
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
5- All of the following can be differentiated from a mast cell, EXCEPT
a) Eosinophil
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PharmacyPREP.Com
b) Basophile
c) Neutrophil
d) Platelet
e) Erythrocytes
6- Basophiles, neutrophils and eosinophils are originated from
a) Myeloblasts
b) Lymphoblasts
c) Monoblasts
d) Proerythroblasts
e) Megakarioblasts
7- Which of the following is/are considered autoimmune disorders?
I- Graves disease
II- Systemic Lupus Erythromatosus
III- Osteoporosis
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
8- True statements regarding the use of monoclonal antibodies include which of the
following?
I- Flu-like symptoms commonly occurs at the start of therapy
II- T-cells are blocked from initiating the rejection process
III- Orthoclone is a human immunoglobulin product
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
9- Which of the following is not related to lymphocytes?
a) Lymph nodes
b) Thymus gland
c) Thoracic duct
d) Spleen
e) Thyroid gland
10- Attenuated viruses used for vaccination:
I- Poliomyelitis virus
II- MMR-Mumps, measles and rubella virus
III- Influenza
a) I only
b) III only
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c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
11- Drugs that stabilize mast cells are used in the treatment of:
a) Organ implants rejection
b) Cancer therapy
c) Allergic rhinitis
d) Asthma
e) Myocardial infaction
12- All of the following biological are used for active immunization, EXCEPT:
a) Bacterial vaccine
b) Bacterial antigen
c) Multiple antigen preparations
d) Toxoids
e) Toxins
13- Correct statements regarding Technetium 99m may include?
I- Is the most used radionuclide in nuclear pharmacy
II- It is produced by the radioactive decay of molybdenum-99
III- It has a half-life of 6hours
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
14- Correct statements regarding Klein filter syndrome include:
I- Male with enlarge breast, small testis and infertility
II- The male has 3 chromosomes
III- Chromosomes forming XXY, presence of one extra female chromosome.
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
15- Correct statements regarding infantile genetic agranulocytosis include?
I- Type I hypersensitivity
II- Caused by a decrease in bone marrow activity
III- Treatment can be done by transfer of WBCs or large doses of antibodies
(immunoglobulins)
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
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d) II and III only

e) All are correct
16- Which of the following is the organ responsible for the immune system?
a) Thymus
b) Lymphoid organ
c) Megakaryocyte
d) Lynphocyte
e) Spleen
17- The key operative of immune system is known as:
a) Megakaryocytic
b) Monocyte
c) Lymphocyte
d) Proerythrocyte
e) Myelocyte
18- Which of the following is/are types of lymphocytes?
I- B cells
II- T cells
III- Natural killer cell
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
19- The stem cell of immune system are developed in:
a) Bone marrow
b) Lymphoid organ
c) Liver
d) Spleen
e) Lymph nodes
20- Which of the following is a pro-inflammatory cell responsible for initiation of an
acute inflammation?
a) Eosinophils
b) Platelets
c) Macrophages
d) Basophiles
e) Neutrophils
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21- Antidote of mercury may include:

a) Dimercaprol
b) EDTA
c) Deferoximine
d) Succimer
e) Naloxone
22- Which of the following is a benzodiazepinics antagonist:
a) Naloxone
b) Physostigmine
c) Flumazenil
d) Naltrexone
e) Penicillamine
23- What would be the best treatment for cyanide poisoning?
a) Antivenin
b) Sodium thiosulfite
c) Acetylcystein
d) Oxygen therapy
e) Sodium bicarbonate
24- Carbon monoxide can be highly toxic because it easily binds to:
I- Hemoglobin
II- Myoglobin
III- Cytochrome oxidase
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
25- Acetaminophen toxicity most well know complication is:
a) Cardiovascular failure
b) Pulmonary edema
c) CNS lethargy
d) Liver necrosis
e) Sedation
26- Salicylate toxicity treatment include which of the following?
I- Alkalinization of urine with sodium bicarbonate
II- Decontamination with syrup of IPECAC until 30 minutes of overdose
III- CHARCOAL every 6 hours
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
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d) II and III only

e) All are correct
27- Hyperphosphatemia is best treated by:
a) Magnesium hydroxide
b) Calcium carbonate
c) Aluminium hydroxide
d) Sodium Bicarbonate
e) Sodium phosphate
28- Correct statements regarding IPECAC may include:
I- It has an emetic effect when large doses are administrated
II- It has a expectorant effect when small doses (1 to 2mls) is administrated
III- Used in decontamination procedures during toxic treatments
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
29- The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by witch of
the following mechanisms?
a) Combining with acetylcholine
b) Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase
c) Forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase
d) Reacting at the cholinergic receptor
e) Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending
30- all of the following can be recognized as atropine poisoning, EXCEPT:
a) Dry skin
b) Mydriasis
c) Flushed appearance
d) Diarrhea
e) Delirium
31-Poison ivy is what type of hypersensitive reactions?
A-Type I
B-Type II
C-Type III
D-Type IV
E-Hypersensitive reaction caused by poison ivy plant
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PharmacyPREP.Com
CORRECT ANSWERS
IMMUNOLOGY AND TOXICOLOGY
1- A
Comments: Vaccines can be given as prophylaxis before the person suffers exposition to
the microorganisms.
2- E
Comments: Passive vaccines: Normally IV and IM injections of antibodies to enhance
patients immune competence; protection depends on serum half-life of the injected
antibody that may be effective for days or months. Active vaccinations: Normally IV, IM,
SC and oral administration of antigen to stimulate the immune response. Immunity is
long lasting.
3- C
Comments: -Fetoprotein-AFP is produced by the fetal liver and may cause
hepatocellular carcinoma of fetus, however it does not cause the death of fetus.
4- C
Comments: If the mother and father have hemophilia their child may not have the disease
hemophilia but the child will have the gene of the disease.
5- B
Comments: Basophile is a pro-inflammatory cell that initiates acute inflammation and
cannot be differentiated from mast cells.
6- A
Comments: Basophiles, neutrophilis and eosinophiles are leukocytes-White Blood CellsWBC originated from myeloblasts.
7- C
Comments: Osteoporosis is not an autoimmune disorder. It is a disease characterized by
the loss of bone mass.
8- C
Comments: Monoclonal antibodies can deliver toxins specifically to cancer cells and
destroy them. They are also used with radioisotopes to diagnose and visualize cancer
cells and may cause flu-like symptoms in the beginning of the treatment.
9- E
Comments: Thyroid gland is not part of lymphocytes. Lymphocytes include: Tonsils and
adenoid gland, thymus, lymphonodes, spleen, bone marrow and lymphatic vessels.
10- C
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PharmacyPREP.Com
Comments: Attenuated vaccines are made from whole microbes that have been killed by
heat or chemical. MMR-Mumps, Measles, Rubella virus and TB-Mycobacterium are live
vaccines.
11- C
Comments: Drugs that stabilize mast cells are normally used in the treatment of allergic
rhinitis as per example cromoglycanate.
12- E
Comments: Toxins are used to refer specifically to a protein produced by some higher
plants, certain animals, and pathogenic bacteria, which is highly toxic for other living
organisms therefore cannot be used for vaccination.
13- E
Comments: Is the most used radionuclide in nuclear pharmacy. This radionuclide is
produced by the radioactive decay of molybdenum-99. A generator is a devise used to
separate a short half-life radionuclide from the longer-lived parent nuclide, while
retaining the parent to produce more of the daughter nuclide. In this way, short half-life
nuclides can be made available continuously at great distances from the sites of generator
production. Technetium-99m has a half-life of 6hours
14- E
Comments: Klein filter syndrome is a condition where the male have enlarged breast,
small testis and infertility. The male chromosome is constituted of 3 chromosomes
forming XXY, presence of one extra female chromosome.
15- D
Comments: It is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by the early onset of
recurrent, severe pyogenic infections, especially of the skin and lung, total absence of
neutrophilis in the blood or presence in reduced numbers, absolute monocytosis and
eosinophilia, markedly decreased numbers of mature neutrophilic precursors in the bone
marrow.
16- B
Comments: Lymphoid organ is the organ responsible for the immune system concerned
with growth, development and deployment of lymphocytes.
17- C
Comments: Lymphocytes are WBC-White Blood Cells, the key operative of immune
system.
18- E
Comments: Lymphocytes are WBC-White Blood Cells found in the blood and in many
other part of body and may include B and T cells, and natural killer cells.
19- A
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PharmacyPREP.Com
Comments: Steam cells are blood cells progenitor, or mother cell, having the capacity for
both replication and differentiation originated from bone marrow.
20- D
Comments: Basophilis are white blood cells and pro-inflammatory cell responsible for
initiation of an acute inflammation. It also stimulated the release of heparin and histamine
21- A
Comments: Antidote of elemental mercury inhalation is dimercaprol and inorganic salt
mercury gastrointestinal absorption the antidote may be dimercaprol and penicillamine as
well.
22- C
Comments: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepinic antagonist therefore used as antidote in
benzodiazepinic overdoses.
23- B
Comments: Treatment for cyanide poisoning may be done by sodium thiosulfite, amyl
and sodium nitrile as well.
24- E
Comments: Carbon monoxide can be highly toxic due to its ability to rapidly bind to
hemoglobin, myoglobin and cytochrome oxidase. Essential components for the vital
functions in human body.
25- D
Comments: The main and more serious implication concerning acetaminophen toxicity is
liver necrosis
26- E
Comments: Salicylate toxicity treatment can first be done by control of the vital functions
following administration of sodium bicarbonate to alkalinize the urine and correct the
acidosis, decontamination with syrup of IPECAC until 30 minutes of overdose and
CHARCOAL every 6 hours may be considered. In case of failure of these methods,
hemodialysis should be considered.
27- C
Comments: Aluminum hydroxide causes hypophosphatemia as side effect therefore may
be used in the treatment of hyperphosphatemia.
28- E
Comments: IPECAC is a gastric decontaminant agent used in the treatment of overdoses
and poisonings of many different agents. It acts by inducing vomiting and is best used
within 60 minutes of agent ingestion. It also has an expectorant effect when used in very
low doses.
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29- C
Comments: Organophosphates are substances commonly found in insecticides in very
toxic to humans due to formation of a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase
30- D
Comments: Constipation is a common side effect of atropine poisoning, therefore we
should not consider diarrhea as atropine symptoms of overdose.
31-D
55
PHARMACY PREP
IMMUNIZATION
1-Which of the following populations is NOT considered high risk for influenza so that
vaccination with influenza vaccine is not necessary?
A-Patients with more than six colds per year
B-Residents of long-term care facilities (e.g., nursing homes)
C-Patients with diabetes mellitus
D-Patients over the age of 65
E-Patients with COPD or Asthma
F-A 30-year-old nurse working in health care facility
G-A 22 year-old young patients in long term care facility
Ans-A
2-Flu season in Canada?
A-March to December
B-October to April
C-November to December
D-October to Mid November
E-October through November
Ans-B
3-Flu immunization season in Canada?
A-November to April
B-October to Mid November
C-October to April
D-October through December
E-October through April
Ans-B
4-Flu vaccine active against, which of the following virus.
I-Influenza A
II-Influenza B
III-H.influenza type A
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
Ans-C
Tips: Flu vaccine is effective against influenza A and B. H.influenza is a gram ve
bacterial infections, flu vaccine is ineffective against bacterial infections.
5-What is incorrect statement about Oseltamavir (Tamiflu)?
55
A-Oseltamavir is effective against A and B

B-Oseltamavir is neuramidase inhibitor
C-Oseltamavir is used in treatment of influenza A and B
D-Oseltamavir therapeutic antiviral spectrum is limited to influenza A only
E-Treatment is particularly useful high risk patient who have not been vaccinated.
Ans-D
6-Who should not receive flu shot?
I-Allergies to eggs
II-Child under 6 months age
III-Pregnant women
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
Ans-C
7-Which of the following population least likely to receive flu shots:
A-Elderly over 65 years
B-A 23-year-old worker in long term care facility
C-A 44 year with asthma condition
D-A 25 year old nurse working in elderly home
E-A 45 year old worker in hotel
Ans-E
8-Hepatitis B vaccine provides immunity against:
I-Hepatitis A
II-Hepatitis D
III-Hepatitis B
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
Ans-D
Tips: Hepatitis B patient is susceptible to hepatitis D.
9-Poison ivy causes contact dermatitis, which of the following type of hypersensitive
reaction:
A-Type 1
B-Type 2
C-Type 3
D-Type 4
E-Type 5
Ans-D
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10-Dukoral vaccine is indicated for travelers to prevent?

I-Travelers diarrhea
II-Cholera
III-Hepatitis A and B
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
Ans-C
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PharmacyPrep.Com
Biotechnology
PHARMACY PREP
BIOTECHNOLOGY
1-Interferons are good examples of:
I-Cytokines
II-Biotechnological products
III- Colony stimulating factors (CSF)
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
Ans2-Erythropoeitins are?
A-Colony stimulating factors
B-Circulating iron storage
C-Interleukin
D-immunosuppressant
E-biotechnological products
Ans-A
3-Hematocrit is?
A-Circulating iron storage
B-Measures the total iron binding capacity
C-Measures the total free iron
D-Mean volumen of iron
E-It is transferrins
Ans4-What is correct about erythropoeitins?
I- Epoeitin alpha are used for anemia associated chronic kidney diseases.
II-Helps in to production of RBCs
III-Produced in bone marrow
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only
E-All of the above
Ans-C
5-Erythropoeitins are produced from?
A-kidney
B-Liver
C-Bone marrow
D-Muscles
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Biotechnology
E-Thymus gland
Ans-A
6-Filgrastin is a CSF indicated in the treatment of?
A-renal, cardiac and hepatic graft rejection
B-neutropenia associated with cancer chemotherapy
C-thrombocytopenia associated with cancer chemotherapy
D-anemia associated with chronic renal diseases
E- chemotherapy induced neutropenia
Ans-E
7-Filgrastin is?
A-Colony stimulating factor
B-Erytropoeitins
C-Interferons
D-Human growth hormones
E-Monoclonal antibodies
Ans-A
8-operlaveukin is?
A-Interleukin 11
B-CSF
C-interleukin 3
D-interleukin 2
E-epoeitin
Ans-A
9-Operlaveukin is indicated for?
A-thrombocytopenia
B-Bone marrow suppression
C-acute graft rejection
D-neutropenia
E-growth factor
Ans-A
10- Muromonab (OKT3) is monoclonal antibody indicated?
A-renal, cardiac and hepatic graft rejection
B-neutropenia associated with cancer chemotherapy
C-thrombocytopenia associated with cancer chemotherapy
D-anemia associated with chronic renal diseases
E-None of the above
Ans-A
11-CD4 cells represents?
A-helper T cells
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Biotechnology
B-suppresor T cells
C-cytotoxic T cells
D-immunoglobulins
E-None of the above
Ans-A
12-A HIV patient how long life span is?
A-1 to 2 years
B-2 to 3 years
C-3 to 4 years
D-4 to 5 years
E-Can live longer than 10 years
Ans-B
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PHARMACY PREP
TOXYCOLOGY
1- Antidote of mercury may include:
a) Dimercaprol
b) EDTA
c) Deferoximine
d) Succimer
e) Naloxone
2- Which of the following is a benzodiazepinics antagonist:
a) Naloxone
b) Physostigmine
c) Flumazenil
d) Naltrexone
e) Penicillamine
3- What would be the best treatment for cyanide poisoning?
a) Antivenin
b) Sodium thiosulfite
c) Acetylcystein
d) Oxygen therapy
e) Sodium bicarbonate
4- Carbon monoxide can be highly toxic because it easily binds to:
I- Hemoglobin
II- Myoglobin
III- Cytochrome oxidase
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
5- Acetaminophen toxicity most well know complication is:
a) Cardiovascular failure
b) Pulmonary edema
c) CNS lethargy
d) Liver necrosis
e) Sedation
6- Salicylate toxicity treatment include which of the following?
I- Decontamination with syrup of IPECAC until 30 minutes of overdose
II- CHARCOAL every 6 hours
III- Alkalinization of urine with sodium bicarbonate
62
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
7- Hyperphosphatemia is best treated by:
a) Magnesium hydroxide
b) Calcium carbonate
c) Aluminium hydroxide
d) Sodium Bicarbonate
e) Sodium phosphate
8- Correct statements regarding IPECAC may include:
I- It has an emetic effect when large doses are administrated
II- It has a expectorant effect when small doses (1 to 2mls) is administrated
III- Used in decontamination procedures during toxic treatments
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
9- The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by witch of
the following mechanisms?
a) Combining with acetylcholine
b) Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase
c) Forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase
d) Reacting at the cholinergic receptor
e) Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending
10- All of the following can be recognized as atropine poisoning, EXCEPT:
a) Dry skin
b) Mydriasis
c) Flushed appearance
d) Diarrhea
e) Delirium
11- Antidote for atropine poisoning may include:
a) Physostigmine
b) Aminophillim
c) Pralidoxine
d) Flumazenil
e) Dimercaprol
12- Poison Ivy can be treated by which of the following agents?
63
I- Topical antipruritic
II- Antihistaminics
III- Systemic antibiotics
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
13- A patient is stabilized on heparin as anticoagulant. After one hour of administration
of the drug, he exercised bleeding from his gums, while he was brushing his teeth. The
pharmacist can advise him to take:
a) Ascorbic acid
b) Vitamin K
c) Protamine sulfate
d) Warfarin
e) Quinolone
14- N-acetylcysteine may be the antidote of choice for which of the following agents?
a) Aspirin
b) Warfarin
c) Digoxin
d) Lead
e) Acetaminophen
15- Dimercaprol (BAL) + mercury (Hg) combination characteristics include:
I- Dimercaprol is the best antidote for elemental mercury inhalation poisoning
II- They form a stable complex excreted renally
III- Penicillamine is an alternative when mercury suffer GIT absorption
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
16- Naloxone is the best antidote for which of the following overdose agents?
a) Opioid overdose
b) Heavy metal overdose
c) Benzodiazepinics overdose
d) Organophosphate overdose
e) Digitalis overdose
17- Management and characteristics of Digoxin toxicity may include:
I- May cause heart failure, cardiac dysrrhythmias, nausea, anorexia, vomiting, and
confusion
II- Treated by decontamination and supportive therapy
64
III- Treated with a digoxin specific antidote known as FAB antibodies

a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
18- Death due to cyanide poisoning is due to:
a) Cyanide-RBCs complex formation
b) Cyanide-hemoglobin complex formation
c) Cyanide inhibiting of cytochrome oxidase
d) Cyanide increasing hemoglobin levels
e) Coronary vessel oclusion
19- The toxicity of methyl alcohol is due to formation of:
a) Ketones
b) Formic acid
c) Free alcohol radicals
d) Ethylene
e) Aldehyde
20- Acetaminophen toxicity is due to:
a) Oxidation stress
b) Active metabolite
c) Free radical chain
d) Reactive metabolite
e) Reduction of metabolite
21- Salicylate toxicity excessive respiration is due to:
I- Excess production of CO2
II- Pulmonary irritation
III- Central stimulation in the brain
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
22- Grayish mouth and loose of teeth are toxic symptoms of:
I- Fe salts poisoning
II- Cu poisoning
III- Lead poisoning
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
65
e) All are correct

23- Vomiting (emesis) is contra indicated if poisoning is due to:
I- Bleaching
II- Gasoline
III- Light petroleum
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
24- Universal antidote is a mixture of:
I- Activated charcoal
II- Magnesium oxide
III- Tannic acid
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
25- Amphetamines overdose is best treated with administration of:
a) Salicylates
b) Benzodiazepinics
c) Barbiturates
d) Naloxone
e) B and C are right.
26- True statements regarding the treatment of hyperkalemia:
I- If change in ECG is detected give Ca to counteract the excess of K on the heart
II- Bicarbonate and insulin administration can shift K from extra to intracellular
III- Enema of kafexolate (exchange resin) or dialysis helps to remove excess of K from
the body
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
27- Cardiovascular drug that overdose can cause cyanide intoxication include:
a) Nitrates
b) Nitroglycerin
c) Nitroprusside
d) Isosorbide
e) Isosorbide dinitrate
66
28- Lead poisoning can be treated by:

I- BAL-Dimercaprol
II- EDTA-Edentate
III- Penicillamine
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
29- Specific antidote for iron preparations overdose include:
a) Dimercaprol
b) Deferoxamine
c) Penicillamine
d) Naloxone
e) Sucimmer
30- Atropine, an anticholinergic drug is used as antidote in the poisoning treatment of:
a) Organophosphates
b) Heavy metal
c) Salicylates
d) Tricyclic antidepressants
e) Iron
31- Treatment of tricyclic antidepressants overdose is done by all the following
procedures, EXCEPT:
a) Control the seizures and cardiotoxicity
b) Administration of benzodiazepinics or phenytoin to control seizures
c) Activated charcoal can be used
d) MAO antidepressants can helps to overcome the patients seizure
e) Control acidosis with administration of sodium bicarbonate
32- Specific antidote used for poisoning caused by snake and black spider bits
a) Deferoxamine
b) Ancrod
c) Antivenin
d) Psysostigmine
e) Naloxone
33- Best treatment for carbon monoxide intoxication:
a) Alkalinization of urine
b) Oxygen therapy
c) Supportive therapy
d) Acidification of urine
e) Gastric lavage
67
34- Which of the following is the isoniazide antidote?

a) Vitamin A
b) Bitamin B6
c) Vitamin B12
d) Folic acid
e) Vitamin E
35- Which of the following is considered the warfarin antidote?
a) Vitamin K
b) Heparin
c) Protamine
d) Filgrastin
e) Vitamin E
36- The major first step in the initial management of ANY intoxication and poisoning is
the supportive care treatment that involve:
a) Detoxification
b) Decontamination
c) Hydration
d) Evaluation and support of vital function (Airway, Breath and Circulation-ABC)
e) Toxicology laboratory tests
37- General management in treating patients with depressed mental status include:
I- Treat hypoglycemia with 50mls of dextrose 50%
II- Administration of thiamine 100mg IV push
III- Administration of naloxone
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
38- Decontamination procedures may include:
a) Gastric lavage
b) Emesis
c) Administration of activated charcoal
d) Administration of adsorbent agents
e) All are correct
39- Intravenous calcium administration is used in which of the following situations?
a) Verapamil overdoses
b) Cocaine overdose
c) Verapamil overdose and hyperkalemia
d) Hyperkalemia
e) Nifedipeno overdose
68
40-What metabolic reaction saturation can lead to acetaminophen toxicity?

A-Glucuronidation
B-Sulfonation
C-Oxidation
E-Reduction
Ans-A
41-Ethanol metabolizes to acetic acid by the enzyme called?
A-Alcohol dehydrogenase
B-Alcohol reductase
C-Glucorunidation
D-Alcohol decarboxylation
Ans-A
42-Glutathione conjugation produce the product called?
A-Mercapturic acid
B-Sulfonation
C-Oxidation
E-Reduction
Ans-a
43-Which of the following is antidote of ASA?
A-N-acetyl cysteine
B-Flumazenil
C-Pentoxifilin
D-Nalaxone
E-None of the above
44-Heparin antidote is?
a) Vitamin K
b) Heparin
c) Protamine sulphate
d) Filgrastin
e) Vitamin E
CORRECT ANSWERS
TOXICOLOGY
1- A
well.
69
2- C
Comments: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepinic antagonist therefore used as antidote in
benzodiazepinic overdoses.
3- B
Comments: Treatment for cyanide poisoning may be done by sodium thiosulfite, amyl
and sodium nitrile as well.
4- E
Comments: Carbon monoxide can be highly toxic due to its ability to rapidly bind to
hemoglobin, myoglobin and cytochrome oxidase. Essential components for the vital
functions in human body.
5- D
Comments: The main and more serious implication concerning acetaminophen toxicity is
liver necrosis
6- E
Comments: Salicylate toxicity treatment can first be done by control of the vital functions
following administration of sodium bicarbonate to alkalinize the urine and correct the
acidosis, decontamination with syrup of IPECAC until 30 minutes of overdose and
CHARCOAL every 6 hours may be considered. In case of failure of these methods,
hemodialysis should be considered.
7- C
Comments: Aluminum hydroxide causes hypophosphatemia as side effect therefore may
be used in the treatment of hyperphosphatemia.
8- E
Comments: IPECAC is a gastric decontaminant agent used in the treatment of overdoses
and poisonings of many different agents. It acts by inducing vomiting and is best used
within 60 minutes of agent ingestion. It also has an expectorant effect when used in very
low doses.
9- C
Comments: Organophosphates are substances commonly found in insecticides in very
toxic to humans due to formation of a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase
10- D
Comments: Constipation is a common side effect of atropine poisoning, therefore we
should not consider diarrhea as atropine symptoms of overdose.
11- A
Comments: Physostigmine is considered as the best antidote for atropine poisoning and
for antihistaminic overdose as well.
70
12- E
Comments: Poison Ivy can be treated by topical antipruritic, oral antihistaminic and
systemic corticosteroids in case of severe poisoning.
13- C
Comments: Protamine sulfate is the recommended antidote for heparin
14- E
Comments: N-acetyl-cysteine is the specific antidote for acetaminophen overdose or
poisoning.
15- E
well.
16- A
Comments: Naloxone is a pure opioid antagonist used in opioids overdose.
17- E
Comments: Digoxin toxicity may cause heart failure, cardiac dysrrhythmias, nausea,
anorexia, vomiting, and confusion. The first step in the treatment of overdoses should
include decontamination and supportive therapy. Digoxin has a specific antidote known
as FAB antibodies (Digibind).
18- B
Comments: Death due to cyanide poisoning is primarily due to cyanide-hemoglobin
complex formation.
19- B
Comments: The toxicity of methyl alcohol is mainly due to formation of formaldehyde.
20- D
Comments: Acetaminophen toxicity is mainly due to reactive metabolite.
21- A
Comments: 21- Salicylate toxicity excessive respiration is due to excess production of
CO2.
22- B
Comments: Lead poisoning is mainly characterized by grayish mouth and loose of teeth.
The best antidote for lead poisoning includes dimercaprol, edentate, penicillamine and
succimer.
23- E
71
Comments: Vomiting induction normally done by administration of IPECA is contra

indicated if poisoning is due to bleaching, gasoline, light petroleum and/or any other
corrosive substance.
24- E
Comments: Universal antidote is a mixture of activated charcoal, magnesium oxide and
tannic acid.
25- E
Comments: The main concerning in amphetamines overdose is the control of the seizures
that can be done by either benzodiazepinic or barbiturate agents.
26- E
Comments: Hyperkalemia should be immediately treated if change in ECG is detected;
give Ca to counteract the excess of K on the heart and other treatments may be
considered such as bicarbonate and insulin administration that can shift K from extra to
intracellular. Alternative treatment of hyperkalemia include enema of kafexolate
(exchange resin) or dialysis that helps to remove excess of K from the body.
27- C
Comments: Nitroprusside is a direct vasodilator agent widely used in cardiovascular
complications. It over dosage may lead to cyanide intoxication because its end
metabolism product is cyanide.
28- E
Comments: The best antidote for lead poisoning includes dimercaprol, edentate,
penicillamine and succimer.
29- B
Comments: Deferoxamine is the only specific antidote used as antidote for iron
preparations overdose or poisoning.
30- A
Comments: Atropine is considered to be the best antidote in the treatment of
organophosphates poisoning
31- D
Comments: MAO antidepressants administration in tricyclic antidepressant overdoses
would intensify the overdose of the patient and would increase the chances of the patients
in develop a syndrome called serotoninergic syndrome.
32- C
Comments: Antivenin is the antidote of choice in poisoning due to bits of snake and black
spider.
33- B
72
Comments: Oxygen therapy is the most appropriate method to treat carbon monoxide
intoxication avoiding it to bind to hemoglobin.
34- B
Comments: Vitamin B6 also known as pyridoxine is considered the best antidote in
isoniazide overdoses.
35- A
Comments: Vitamin K is considered the specific antidote for warfarin overdose.
36- D
Comments: Evaluation and support of vital function such as airway, breath and
circulation should be considered as the major first step in the initial management of any
intoxication and poisoning.
37- E
Comments: Patient with depressed mental status and unknown drug overdose should be
general treated by control of hypoglycemia with 50mls of dextrose 50%, administration
of thiamine 100mg IV push and administration of naloxone
38- E
Comments: Decontamination procedures involve removal of the ingesting agent with
gastric lavage, emesis by IPECA administration, and adsorbent agents administrationcharcoal.
39- C
Comments: Verapamil overdose associated with hyperkalemia may be treated by
intravenous calcium administration
43-E
Tips: there is no antidote for ASA, as overdose have to treat by alkaline diuresis using
NaHCO3.
44-C
BIBLIOGRAPHIC REFERENCE
1- COMPREHENSIVE PHARMACY REVIEW Lippincott William & Wilkins
Fourth edition
2- CPS-COMPENDIUM OF PHARMACEUTICALS AND SPECIALITIES - Canadian
Pharmacist Association 2001 edition.
73
3- MEDICAL DICTIONARY Dorlands illustrated 27th edition.

4- PHARMACY PREP Lectures series & study guide for Evaluating ExaminationTIPS - 2003/2004
5- THERAPUTIC CHOICES Canadian Pharmacist Association -Third edition
6- USP DI Drug Information for the Health Care Professional15th edition Volume I.
74
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Cell Physiology and Human anatomy

Cell Physiology and Human anatomy

Cell Physiology and Human anatomy

C- Humerus, Illium, and Ischium

Cell Physiology and Human anatomy

A-Due to deficiency intrinsic factor thus no oral vitamin B12 absorption

Gastrointestinal anatomy, physiology and Pathophysiology

Neurophysiology and Pathophysiology

Neurophysiology and Pathophysiology

Neurophysiology and Pathophysiology

Neurophysiology and Pathophysiology

Neurophysiology and Pathophysiology

Cardiovascular anatomy, Physiology and pathophysiology

Cardiovascular anatomy, Physiology and pathophysiology

Endocrine Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

Endocrine Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

6-Intracellular enzyme that generate free radicals include:

Endocrine Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

11-A wasting due to lack of nutrition to a body part is?

Liver Function and Diseases

Liver Function and Diseases

Blood and Anemia

Blood and Anemia

b) Lack of dietary iron

1-Glycine reaction is normally mediated by:

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Comments: Insulin is a hormone that acts on cell wall

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I-13-cis retinoic acid

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24-Hepatitis B and C are viral infections may spread by?

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Pharmacy Prep Review Questions

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Pharmacy Prep Review Questions

XX = Women with hemophilia

Pharmacy Prep Review Questions

Pharmacy Prep Review Questions

Pharmacy Prep Review Questions

XX = Women with hemophilia

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