Chap 10

Chapter 10
Genetic Engineering and Recombinant DNA
Multiple Choice Questions

1. The use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is referred to as
A. genetic engineering.
B. biotechnology.
C. recombinant DNA.
D. gel electrophoresis.
E. gene probes.
ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection.
ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function.
ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products.
ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow
ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms
Blooms Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 10.01 Provide examples of practical applications of modern genetic technologies.
Learning Outcome: 10.14 Define proteome, and how it differs from the genome.
Section Number: 10.01
Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering
2. The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are termed
B. biotechnology.
C. recombinant DNA.
E. gene probes.
3. A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is

B. biotechnology.
C. recombinant DNA.
E. gene probes.
Learning Outcome: 10.03 Describe how gel electrophoresis is used to analyze DNA.
Topic: Genetic Analyses
4. DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called
A. palindromes.
B. reverse transcriptases.
C. restriction endonucleases.
D. ligases.
E. DNA polymerases.
Blooms Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 10.02 Explain the role of restriction endonucleases in the process of genetic engineering.
5. Geneticists can create sequences of DNA from RNA using enzymes called
A. palindromes.
D. ligases.
E. DNA polymerases.
Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology
6. EcoRI and HindIII are

A. palindromes.
D. ligases.
E. DNA polymerases.
7. Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and
the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are
A. palindromes.
D. ligases.
E. DNA polymerases.
8. Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis is based on

A. larger fragments moving slowly and remaining closer to the wells.
B. DNA having an overall negative charge and moving to the positive pole.
C. DNA fragments being stained so that they can be seen.
D. application of an electric current through the gel causing DNA fragments to migrate.
E. All of the choices are correct.
9. This process is often used in forensic science in order to distinguish one sequence of DNA
from another by comparing the sequence of the strands at specific loci:
A. cloning
B. gene therapy
C. antisense therapeutic
D. DNA fingerprinting
10. DNA strands can begin to separate at the temperature of:

A. 37oC.
B. 42oC.
C. 60oC.
D. 90oC.
E. 100oC.
Learning Outcome: 10.04 List the steps in the polymerase chain reaction; discuss one disadvantage to this technique.
11. DNA fragments can be separated in gel electrophoresis because

A. nitrogenous bases have a net positive charge.
B. nitrogenous bases have a net negative charge.
C. phosphate groups have a net positive charge.
D. phosphate groups have a net negative charge.
12. Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip DNA base sequences called
A. codons.
B. palindromes.
C. introns.
D. exons.
E. genes.
13. In the formation of recombinant DNA, what enzyme is needed to seal the sticky ends of
genes into plasmids or chromosomes?
A. DNA polymerase I
B. DNA polymerase II
C. DNA helicase
D. DNA ligase
E. primase
14. Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides
in a mixture are known as
B. biotechnology.
C. recombinant DNA.
E. gene probes.
15. Gene probes can be labeled for detection with reporter molecules such as
A. enzymes.
B. fluorescent dyes.
C. radioisotopes.
D. All of the choices above can be used.
16. Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed
microscopically for the presence and location of
A. DNA.
B. RNA.
C. proteins.
D. recombinant DNA.
E. specific genetic marker sequence on genes.
17. Two different nucleic acids can _____ by uniting at their complementary sites.
A. hybridize
B. covalently bond
C. form a peptide bond
D. ligate
18. Which of the following is not true of fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)?
A. applied to intact cells
B. can locate genes on chromosomes
C. can identify unknown bacteria without culturing
D. uses electrophoresis to separate the DNA
E. can detect RNA in cells
Learning Outcome: 10.07 List examples of genetically modified bacteria, plants, and animals and a purpose for each.
19. The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains.
A. genes
B. codons
C. base pairs
D. proteins
E. triplets
20. Amplification of DNA is accomplished by

A. polymerase chain reaction.
B. DNA sequencing.
C. gene probes.
D. Southern blot.
E. Western blot.
21. DNA polymerases used in PCR

A. use an RNA template to make complementary DNA.
B. must remain active at very cold temperatures.
C. include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase.
D. are labeled with fluorescent dyes.
22. Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?

A. add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72 C
B. cool DNA to between 50 C and 65 C
C. add primers
D. heat target DNA to 94 C
E. repeat the cycle of heating and cooling
23. Which PCR step synthesizes complimentary DNA strands?

A. add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72 C
B. cool DNA to between 50 C and 65 C
C. add primers
D. heat target DNA to 94 C
E. repeat the cycle of heating and cooling
24. Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are
A. used as cloning vectors.
B. sources of heat-stable DNA polymerases.
C. genetically engineered bacteria.
D. principal sources of restriction endonucleases.
25. The primers in PCR are

A. synthetic DNA oligonucleotides.
B. bacterial enzymes.
C. short RNA strands.
D. DNA polymerases.
E. reverse transcriptases.
26. If you start with 3 double-stranded DNA fragments, after 4 cycles of PCR you will have
____ fragments.
A. 12
B. 24
C. 27
D. 48
E. 81
Blooms Level: 3. Apply
27. Which of the following it a list of the materials required for PCR?
A. reverse transcriptase, Taq RNA polymerase, nucleotides
B. reverse transcriptase, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides
C. primers, Taq DNA polymerase, nucleotides
D. primers, Taq RNA polymerase, nucleotides
28. The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and its subsequent transfer
into the genome of another organism is a specific technique called
B. biotechnology.
C. recombinant DNA technology.
E. gene probe technology.
29. Each of the following are features of a cloning host except

A. quick generation time.
B. minimal growth requirements.
C. mapped genome.
D. pathogenic.
E. transformable.
Learning Outcome: 10.05 Describe how recombinant DNA is created; discuss its role in gene cloning.
30. Each of the following are features of a vector except

A. origin of replication.
C. genetic markers used to screen for recombinants
D. capacity for large inserts.
E. multiple cloning sites.
31. Common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are
A. plasmids.
B. viruses.
C. bacteriophages.
D. artificial chromosomes.
32. Genomic _____ are collections of isolated genes maintained in a cloning host.
A. DNA
B. libraries
C. clones
D. digests
E. books
33. Which of the following is not true of vectors?

A. an origin of replication (ORI) is present.
B. must accept DNA of desired size
C. contain a gene for drug resistance
D. easy to manipulate
E. can detect RNA in cells
ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills
34. This is the second step in gene mapping

A. target DNA removed from cells and isolated.
B. cloning host treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid.
C. separate DNA fragments with gel electrophoresis.
D. desired protein is produced by cloning host.
E. gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host.
Learning Outcome: 10.10 Outline in general terms the process of DNA sequencing.
35. Which step involves transformation?

A. target DNA removed from cells and isolated
B. cloning host receives plasmid
C. target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease
D. desired protein is produced by cloning host
E. gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host
36. Which step can occur even more rapidly by PCR?

A. target DNA removed from cells and isolated
B. cloning host treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid
C. target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease
D. desired protein is produced by cloning host
E. gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host
37. Making new genomes is called

A. bioengineering.
B. synthetic biology.
C. genetic engineering.
D. cloning.
E. recombinant DNA.
ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking
Learning Outcome: 10.06 Provide several examples of recombinant products that have contributed to human health.
38. The commercial product Frostban consists of a genetically altered bacterium which
prevents ice crystals from forming on plants, thereby reducing freezing of plants and financial
distress to the farmers as a result of freezing weather. This product contains a strain of
A. Escherichia coli.
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
C. Thermus aquaticus.
D. Pseudomonas syringae.
E. Pseudomonas fluorescens.
39. Recombinant strains of this organism are released to colonize plant roots to produce an
insecticide to destroy invading insects:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C. Thermus aquaticus
D. Pseudomonas syringae
E. Pseudomonas fluorescens
40. Transgenic animals

A. can be engineered to become factories for manufacturing proteins.
B. are often obtained from germline engineering.
C. will pass the genes on to their offspring.
D. commonly include mice.
41. Transgenic organisms are

A. created in nature.
B. only microorganisms.
C. copyrighted.
D. patented.
42. Transgenic animals are referred to as _____ modified organisms.

A. genetically
B. naturally
C. chemically
D. physically
43. Genetically modified organisms include:

A. bacteria.
B. viruses.
C. plants.
D. nonhuman animals.
E. All of the above have been genetically modified
44. When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene,
the technique is called
A. cloning.
B. gene therapy.
C. antisense therapy.
D. DNA fingerprinting.
Learning Outcome: 10.08 Differentiate between somatic and germline gene therapy.
Learning Outcome: 10.11 Outline the general steps in DNA profiling.
Topic: Genetic Medicine
45. This is a promising treatment for stopping the expression of an unwanted gene:
A. cloning
B. gene therapy
C. antisense therapy
D. DNA fingerprinting
Learning Outcome: 10.09 Describe miRNAs and ways in which their discovery can impact human disease.
46. The first genetically engineered protein approved for human use was
A. human growth hormone.
B. hemophilia factor VIII.
C. human testosterone.
D. human insulin.
E. human adrenaline.
47. Humans display how much DNA similarity with mice?

A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
E. 90%
ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ
in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes.
48. What type of DNA map is most detailed?

A. linkage
B. sequence
C. physical
D. geographical
E. chromosomal
49. What type of DNA map gives locations and sizes of DNA sections?
A. linkage
B. sequence
C. physical
D. geographical
E. chromosomal
50. The study of genomes of a particular community is called

A. metagenomics.
B. genomics.
C. proteomics.
D. genomology.
E. metabolomics.
ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems.
ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems
51. Which of the following techniques is mismatched with its use in DNA fingerprinting?
A. restriction endonucleases to cut DNA
B. PCR amplification to get more copies of DNA
C. electrophoresis to separate DNA fragments
D. hybridization probes to digest the DNA sample
E. Southern blot for a visual record of DNA fragments
52. Of the following choices, which could be used in the treatment of a patient in order to
determine the patient's cancer subtype?
A. transformation
B. PCR
C. microarray analysis
D. Oryza sativa
E. Western Blot analysis
True / False Questions

53. Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria.
TRUE
54. When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate.

TRUE
55. Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.

TRUE
56. After three replication cycles in PCR, there will be a total of three double-stranded DNA
molecules.
FALSE
57. Viruses are often used as cloning hosts in recombinant DNA methods.
FALSE
58. Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to
detect cells harboring the plasmid.
TRUE
59. E. coli is an excellent host for cloning because it possesses the mechanisms for processing
and modifying proteins.
FALSE
60. An example of gene therapy is the insertion of the gene for human growth hormone into E.
coli cells.
FALSE
61. Transformation and transduction are methods used to introduce DNA into host cells.
TRUE
62. The process of introducing a needed, normal gene, into human cells is called DNA
mapping.
FALSE
63. It is now possible to very quickly map the genome of an organism or virus.
TRUE
64. It is possible to identify mRNA molecules using fluorescently labeled cDNA.

TRUE
Learning Outcome: 10.13 Describe the utility of DNA microarray technology.
65. Identification of unique DNA fingerprints relies on the presence of single nucleotide
polymorphisms among samples.
TRUE
Learning Outcome: 10.12 Discuss the significance of single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) in DNA analysis.
Multiple Choice Questions
66. What is the evolutionary advantage of bacteria producing restriction endonucleases?

A. They make these enzymes for humans to use in manipulating DNA.
B. Bacteria use these enzymes to repair their own mistakes made during DNA replication.
C. Bacteria use these enzymes to attack other bacteria and destroy their DNA.
D. These enzymes are a defensive measure of bacteria to defend themselves against invading
DNA of bacteriophages.
Blooms Level: 4. Analyze
67. You want to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis in a patient sputum sample. Which
procedure would be most useful in this case?
A. polymerase chain reaction
B. whole genome sequencing
C. DNA probe analysis
D. microarray analysis
68. Why is an enzyme from a thermophilic bacterium used in PCR?

A. The enzyme makes DNA that is more similar to human DNA.
B. It is cheaper to obtain from live microorganisms than producing the enzyme in a lab.
C. This thermohile's enzyme will synthesize DNA.
D. DNA is replicated at a high temperature that denatures most proteins.
69. In choosing the vector used to carry human genes into a host cell, which of the following
should be the important consideration?
A. whether the vector contains RNA or DNA
B. what kind of plasmid it is
C. whether the vector comes from a bacterium or a virus
D. how much donor DNA can be carried on the vector
70. Your infant has been diagnosed with severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID).
Your doctor suggests which treatment as a possible cure for the disease
A. gene therapy
B. genome mapping
C. reverse transcription
D. microarrays
71. You have made a specific DNA probe that will bind to a key sequence on the DNA of
Neisseria gonorrhoeae, allowing your company to market a gonorrhea test kit that can be
used to identify the bacterium in genital tract specimens. However, upon testing it out against
a known Neisseria gonorrhoeae culture, you find that it does not work. Which of the
following is a possible explanation for this negative result?
A. You forgot to label the probe sequence with a reporter molecule.
B. You forgot to digest the probe with restriction endonucleases.
C. You forgot to add the mRNA to the DNA probe sample.
D. You forgot to incubate the test at the 75C temperature required for hybridization.
72. The enzyme required to attach the sticky ends of DNA and used when splicing DNA
fragments into other DNA is:
A. helicase.
B. ligase.
C. reverse transcriptase.
D. endonuclease.

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Chapter 10

Genetic Engineering and Recombinant DNA

Multiple Choice Questions

3. A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is

6. EcoRI and HindIII are

8. Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis is based on

10. DNA strands can begin to separate at the temperature of:

11. DNA fragments can be separated in gel electrophoresis because

20. Amplification of DNA is accomplished by

21. DNA polymerases used in PCR

22. Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?

23. Which PCR step synthesizes complimentary DNA strands?

25. The primers in PCR are

29. Each of the following are features of a cloning host except

30. Each of the following are features of a vector except

33. Which of the following is not true of vectors?

34. This is the second step in gene mapping

35. Which step involves transformation?

36. Which step can occur even more rapidly by PCR?

37. Making new genomes is called

40. Transgenic animals

41. Transgenic organisms are

42. Transgenic animals are referred to as _____ modified organisms.

43. Genetically modified organisms include:

47. Humans display how much DNA similarity with mice?

48. What type of DNA map is most detailed?

50. The study of genomes of a particular community is called

True / False Questions

54. When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate.

55. Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.

64. It is possible to identify mRNA molecules using fluorescently labeled cDNA.

Multiple Choice Questions

66. What is the evolutionary advantage of bacteria producing restriction endonucleases?

68. Why is an enzyme from a thermophilic bacterium used in PCR?

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