MCQS for SR

1. Which is the ideal solution for skin antisepsis for central line insertion?
(B)
A. 10% povidone iodine in alcohol
B. 2% w/v alcoholic chlorhexidine
C. 10% w/v alcoholic chlorhexidine
D. 5% aqueous povidone iodine
2. Which of the following is most effective in reducing the spread of
tuberculosis in health care settings?
(C )
A. Provision of N 95 masks to all HCW looking after TB patients
B. Provision of enough negative pressure rooms in the hospital to
isolate infectious patients
C. Administrative controls to quickly recognize, triage and isolate
patients with infectious TB
D. Having a strict policy of not admitting any TB patient in the health
care facility
3. Which of the following chemical disinfectants cannot achieve sterilization?
A. Orthopthalaldehyde
(A )
B. Hydrogen peroxide gas (plasma)
C. Peracetic acid
D. Ethylene oxide gas
4. All the following are true except
(B )
A. N95 masks are indicated in disseminated zoster
B. The first step in outbreak investigation is confirming that the
outbreak exists
C. Food service worker should not enter room with airborne
precautions.
D. Masks are to worn by mumps patient during transportation.
5. All the following are true about malaria except:
(A)
A. RBC size does not increase in P. vivax infection.
B. Multiple ring forms inside RBC are seen in P. falciparum infection.
C. Gametocyte form of P. falciparum is crescent shaped
D. Hypnozoites are responsible for relapse of P. vivax infection.
6. All the following statements are true except:
(D)
A. TPHA test is more specific than VDRL test for the diagnosis of
syphilis

B. Blood culture is more sensitive than the Widal test in the 1 st week of
fever
C. Tzanck smear is used to diagnose chicken pox.
D. MDR TB is defined as one which shows in vitro resistance to all
known anti- TB drugs.
7. The following fungi are usually resistant to Amphotericin B except
A.
B.
C.
D.

(B)

Aspergillus terreus
Candida parapsilosis
Aspergillus nidulans
Scedosporium apiospermum

8. Regarding ESBLs, all are true except

(C )
A. Ambler classification scheme is based upon amino acid sequence
similarity, whereas Bush-Jacoby-Medeiros classification system is
based on phenotypic characteristics.
B. All CTX-M enzymes are ESBLs.
C. ESBL enzymes confer resistance to cephalosporins, cefamycins and
monobactams
D. CTX-M enzymes originated from the chromosomal AmpC lactamases of Klyuvera ascorbata
9. Regarding Enterococcal infections which one is false?
( D)
A. TMP-SXT is not useful in enterococcal UTIs.
B. While reporting Gentamicin against enterococcus, G120 mg should
be tested instead of G10 mg.
C. Ampicillin susceptibility can be used to predict imipenem
susceptibility in E. faecalis infections.
D. Clindamycin is a useful drug for enterococcal wound infections.
10.Regarding Staphylococcal AST, all are true except
(B )
A. Penicillin disk is used to test the susceptibility of all staphylococci to
ampicillin, amoxicillin, azlocillin, carbenicillin, mezlocillin,
piperacillin, and ticarcillin.
B. Vancomycin 30mcg disk reliably predicts vancomycin resistance in
case of staphylococci.
C. The D zone test is used to detect inducible clindamycin resistance in
case of staphylococcus.
D. Imipenem is clinically ineffective against cefoxitin R staphylococcal
isolates
11.All the following have limited or no activity against Fusarium except
A. Voriconazole
B. Itraconazole

(A)

C. Anidulafungin
D. 5-flucytosine
12.Regarding anti- anaerobes, all are true except
(C )
A. Amoxy clav has good anti anaerobic activity.
B. Metronidazole is useful in Clostridium difficile colitis.
C. Vancomycin has useful broad-spectrum activity against anaerobes
D. Carbapenems have excellent activity against B. fragilis group of
organisms.

13.
A.
B.
C.
D.

All are true except

(B)
Aerosolized pentamidine is an alternative to cotrimoxazole in
Pneumocystis pneumonia in AIDS
Drug of choice for cryptosporidiosis is tinidazole
Praziquantel is an effective treatment for S. hematobium
Albendazole is used for Rx of neurocysticercosis

14. All the following are true except:

(A- persistent
neutrophilic)
A. Nocardial meningitis may present with persistent lymphocytic
reaction in CSF.
B. Eosinophilic pleocytosis in CSF may be seen with fungal
meningitis
C. Lymphocytic reaction may be seen in Listeria meningitis
D. Mixed cellular reaction ( neutrophils, lymphocytes, plasma
cells ) may be seen in leptospiral meningitis

15.
(A)

Which of the Following malignancies is associated with a virus

A. Pediatric Leiomyosarcoma
B. Extra-renal Rhabdoid Tumor
C. Desmoplastic Small Round Cell Tumor
D. Epitheloid sarcoma

16.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Reverse transcriptase PCR uses

mRNA as a template to form CDNA
cDNA as a template to form mRNA
DNA as a template to form ssDNA
None of the above

(A)

17. Which of the following extracellular enzymes produced by Group A

streptococci is called "spreading factor," an enzyme important in skin and

soft tissue infection?

A. Streptokinase
B. Hyaluronidase
C. M Protein
D. Deoxyribonuclease C

(D)

18.What is the O antigen of Enterobacteriaceae?

(D)
A. Cell surface polysaccharide
B. A flagellar protein
C. A peptidoglycan matrix important for cellular rigidity
D. Cell wall lipopolysaccharide
19.Which of the following is not one of Koch's postulates?
(D)
A. The organism is regularly found in lesions of the disease.
B. The organism can be isolated from diseased tissues in pure culture on
artificial media
C. Inoculation of this pure culture produces a similar disease in
experimental animals
D. Treatment of the disease with antimicrobial eradicates the organism
and cures the disease

20.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The causative agent of echthyma gangrenosum is:

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Burkholderia cepacia
Chryseobacterium indologenes
Clostritium septicum

(A)

21.A 22 year old female graduate student who works in a day-care center
comes to the emergency room with fever, sore throat, headache, nausea
vomiting. On examination, the BP is 90/65 and respiratory rate is 30/min.
The neck is supple but there are tiny red spots distal to the BP cuff. The
likely organism causing this infection is
(C )
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Neisseria meningitides
D. Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae
22.Which of the following diseases are not transmitted by ticks:
A. Ulceroglandular tularaemia
B. Bubonic plague
C. Relapsing fever
D. Lyme disease

(B)

23.A person who has a normal healthy immune system acquires a new strain
of E. coli that now lives in his gastrointestinal tract. This individual is not
ill. A second person with an acute leukemia and no white blood cells

acquires the same organism, develops diarrhea followed by hypotension,

bacteremia, sepsis, and death. This organism is:
(D)
A. Normal flora for both individuals
B. A pathogen for both individuals
C. An opportunistic pathogen for both individuals
D. One with a low degree of virulence
24. A 3 year old baby becomes lethargic, has a high temperature and
vomits. A lumbar puncture shows that the infant has bacterial meningitis.
A gram stain of spinal fluid shows some gram positive rods. This organism
is: (A)
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Corynebacterium jeikeium
C. Nocardia
D. Bacillus cereus
25.

Infections caused by anaerobes are:

(C )
A. Usually confined to the abdomen
B. Never seen in the lung because of its excellent blood supply
C. Mixed
D. Poorly responsive to Piperacillin-tazobactam

26.
(B
A.
B.
C.
D.

The most common cause of malignant otitis media is

)
Staphylococcus aureus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Klebsiella pneumonaie
Fusarium spp.

27.The normal habitats of nonfermentative Gram negative bacteria include

the following except:
(D)
A. Contact lens solutions
B. Hospital water sources
C. House plants
D. Reptiles
28.All
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.

the following are true about Q fever except

(A)
Acute Q fever presents with a characteristic rash.
It is transmitted mainly by tick bite.
Sheep and cattle are in important reservoir
It is caused by Coxiella burnetii

A 22 year old diabetic with poor control of blood glucoses comes

into clinic with a 2 month history of nasal congestion and low grade fever.
Over the past 3 days he has also had a painful right eye-it hurts to look

from side to side. In addition he feels that his vision is impaired now in
that eye. On exam his right eye appears red and swollen and seems to be
pushed forward. His nasal mucosa on that side appears dark and almost
necrotic. You should be worried about:
(A)
A. A zygomycete infection
B. Orbital cellulitis
C. Trachoma
D. Pseudomonas infection

30.Which of the following is true about dimorphic fungi?

(B)
A. The yeast form appears in the environment, the mold form in tissue
B. The mold form appears in the environment, the yeast form in tissue
C. Both forms appear in tissue
D. Neither form appears in tissue.

31.Enteroviruses are most closely related to which of the following viruses.

(C )
A. Herpes simplex
B. Hepatitis C
C. Hepatitis A
D. Rotavirus

32. The likelihood of HIV being transmitted from a pregnant woman to her
infant in the absence of antiretroviral therapy is about:
(C)
A. 1 in 500
B. 1 to 5 %
C. 20 to 25%
D. 50 to 75%
33. Which of the following is false regarding Ascaris lumbricoides? (C)
A. Most infected humans are asymptomatic
B. Large numbers of larvae passing through the lung can cause asthma type
symptoms
C. Heavy infection has been associated with rectal prolapsed
D. The fertilized unembryonated egg passed in the stool requires a period of time
to embryonate before it becomes infectious

34.Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of septicemia

in patients with sickle cell disease?
(B)
A. Salmonella enteritidis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus agalactiae

D. Shigella sonnei

35. Which of the following viruses is closely associated with exanthem

subitum (roseola infantum)?
(B)
A. Parvovirus B19
B. Human Herpesvirus 6
C. Rubella virus
D. Rubeola virus
36. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Infection
Control Guidelines, routine microbiologic sampling is indicated for which of
the following?
(D)
A. Respiratory therapy equipment
B. Operating room surfaces
C. Sterile disposable equipment
D. Dialysis fluid

37. A previously healthy, 24-year-old man is brought to an emergency room

in because of seizures. A computerized axial tomography (CAT) scan reveals
a solitary calcified lesion, 2 cm in diameter, in the right cerebral hemisphere.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
(B)
A. Central nervous system (CNS) coccidioidomycosis
B. Cerebral cysticercosis
C. Cerebral echinococcosis
D. Extraintestinal amebiasis

38. A previously normal, full-term infant developed bilateral conjunctivitis at

2 weeks of age. The conjunctivitis was followed by severe coughing, but the
infant remained afebrile. When the infant was 4 weeks old, a chest X ray
showed bilateral symmetrical interstitial infiltrates. The white blood cell
(WBC) count was 14,000/mm3 (32% neutrophils, 58% lymphocytes, 2%
monocytes, and 4% eosinophils). Serum immunoglobulin G (IgG), IgA, and
IgM levels were elevated. Which of the following is the most probable
infectious agent?
(A)
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Adenovirus

39. An individual who has received all three doses of hepatitis B vaccine
and who has never had hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection would be expected
to have which of the following serologic marker(s)?
(B)
A. HBcAb
B. HBsAb
C. HBeAb
D. HBcAb and HBsAb

40. Which of the following respiratory viruses is a nonenveloped virion?

A. Rhinovirus
B. Parainfluenza virus
C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
D. Coronavirus
41. You are asked to review the case of a 23 year old male student recently
admitted with invasive meningococcal disease. He has made a good
recovery but gives a history of a previous episode of meningococcal
septicaemia when he was 15 years old. There is no history of other
recurrent infections. Select the most likely immunodeficiency state.
(B)
A) Selective IgM deficiency
B) C7 deficiency
C) Jobs syndrome (hyperimmunoglobulinaemia E, defective chemotaxis)
D) Myeloperoxidase deficiency
42. Parasites in which all the stages are infectious to man is:
(A)
A. Toxoplasma
B. Cryptosporidium
C. Sarcosystis
D. Plasmodium
43. The definitive host in Echinococcus granulosus is:
(D)
A. Sheep
B. Pig
C. Cattle
D. Dog
44. Ground itch, a pruritic papule is associated with:
(D)
A. Ascaris
B. Trichuris

C. Trichinella
D. Ankylostoma
45. Which hypersensitivity reaction involves blood incompatibility:
(C)
A. Type I
B. Type IV
C. Type II
D. Type III

46. Prausnitz-Kustner reaction is mediated by:

(B)
A. IgG
B. IgE
C. IgM
D. IgD

47. Patients with Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) have defective :

(A)
A. Phagocytes
B. Complement
C. T cells
D. B cells
48. MHC- II is expressed on the surface of all the cells EXCEPT:
(B)
A. B cells
B. RBCs
C. Macrophages
D. Monocytes
49. The classical pathway of Complement is fixed by immunoglobulins:
(B)
A. IgG and IgA
B. IgG and IgM
C. IgD and IgG
D. IgD and IgE

50. Direct Coombs test detects:

(D)
A. Cryoglobulins

B. Monoclonal antibodies
C. Incomplete antibodies present in serum
D. Incomplete antibodies absorbed on the RBC surface
51. The fungus which spreads from animal to man is:
(B)
A. Trichophyton rubrum
B. Trichophyton verrucosum
C. Trichophyton tonsurans
D. Epidemophyton floccosum
52. Fungus species most infectious for laboratory workers is:
(B)
A. Candida albicans
B. Coccidioides immitis
C. Trichophytons rubrum
D. Histoplasma capsulatum

53. A dimorphic fungus that appears as a small Cigar shaped yeast in

tissue is: (C)
A. Blastomyces dermatitidis
B. Coccidioides immitis
C. Sporothrix schenckii
D. Histoplasma capsulatum