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1.
Concerning fertilization
fertilization normally occurs shortly after the ovum enters the uterus
sperm are able to fertilize a mature ovum immediately after they are deposited in the vagina
immediately after release from the ovary, the ovum is surrounded by a zona pellucida that must
be shed before a sperm can reach the ovum
the mean time of birth is 38 weeks following fertilization
none of the above
2.
Concerning fertilization
the mean time of birth is 40 weeks following fertilization
fertilization normally occurs in the ampullary region of the uterine tube
immediately after release from the ovary, the ovum is surrounded by a zona pellucida and a
corona radiata, which is composed of cytotrophoblast
if mixed with an ovum in vitro, the sperm in fresh ejaculate are competent to fertilize it
the viability of an ovum is 4 hours or less
3.
The average duration of gestation measured from the first day of the last normal menstrual period
(LNMP) is
34 weeks
38 weeks
40 weeks
42 weeks
Determined by adding nine months to the first day of the LNMP (i.e., if first day of LNMP was
Oct.31, the baby is due on July 31)
4.
5.
Concerning fertilization
fertilization normally occurs shortly after the ovum enters the uterus
on average, fertilization occurs 14 - 15 days after the onset of the preceding menstrual period
the mean duration of a pregnancy is 40 weeks from the day of fertilization
immediately after release from the ovary, the ovum is surrounded by a zona pellucida that must
be shed before a sperm can reach the ovum
sperm are not able to fertilize an ovum until the ovum has been capacitated
Page 1
6.
7.
Concerning fertilization
immediately after release from the ovary, the ovum is surrounded by a zona pellucida and a
corona radiata, which is composed of ovarian cells
fertilization normally occurs in the ampullary region of the uterine tube
the viability of an ovum is 24 hours or less
if mixed with an ovum in vitro, the sperm in fresh ejaculate could not fertilize it
all of the above
8.
Implantation
requires contact of embryoblast with uterine epithelium
usually occurs on the 3rd day after fertilization
cannot occur outside the uterus
usually occurs when the embryo is in the 32-cell stage
none of the above
9.
11. Implantation
is preceded by an increase in ovarian hCG secretion
usually occurs near the end of the first week following fertilization
requires contact of the zona pellucida with uterine epithelium
cannot occur outside the uterus and uterine tubes
leads to the development of the inner cell mass
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12. Syncytiotrophoblast
secretes chorionic gonadotropin
gives rise to the decidua basalis
begins to develop on the 4th day postfertilization
is derived from the zona pellucida
degenerates once cytotrophoblast takes over its function
15. Somites
are the source of cells in the nucleus pulposus
give rise to cardiac muscle
give rise to the cartilages of the branchial arches
are derived from the paraxial mesoderm
none of the above
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25. Which of the following events is most closely associated with the fourth week of development
(postfertilization)
commencement of blood circulation
mesoderm formation
obliteration of uterine cavity by the expanding chorion
commencement of hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) secretion
neural tube closure
Page 5
29. The primitive node (Hensen's node) is the chief source of cells for
somites
sclerotomes
paraxial mesoderm
lateral plate mesoderm
none of the above
32. The outer layer of the umbilical cord is continuous with, and similar in structure to the
chorionic membrane
amniotic membrane
syncytiotrophoblast
cytotrophoblast
allantoic diverticulum
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50. In which kind of twin is twin-twin transfusion syndrome the greatest threat to proper development
Monochorionic monoamnionic
Dichorionic monoamnionic
Dichorionic diamnionic monozygotic
Dichorionic diamnionic dizygotic
Monochorionic diamnionic
Page 9
56. Complete failure of the pleuroperitoneal membrane to form on the left side
is caused by failure of cell migration from the left C3-C5 hypaxial dermomyotomes
results in a omphalocele
is of little immediate threat to survival of the newborn
all of the above
none of the above
Page 10
58. From the structures listed below, pick the one whose absence will most likely lead to birth of a full
term neonate with pulmonary hypoplasia
interatrial septum
pleuropericardial membrane
interventricular septum
amniochorionic membrane
pleuroperitoneal membrane
59. Failure of the pleuroperitoneal membrane to form on the left side is most likely to result in the
newborn facing the following problem
obstructed small intestine
paralysis and anesthesia below the C5 spinal segment
difficulty oxygenating its blood
left ventricular hypoplasia
none of the above
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63. Failure of the pleuroperitoneal membrane to form on the left side is most likely to result in the
newborn having
respiratory problems
pericarditis
an umbilical hernia
a lumbocostal trigone
an inflamed small intestine
67. Which of the following may be associated with polyhydramnios (i.e., may cause polyhydramnios or
may result from it)
duodenal atresia
anencephaly
proximal jejunal atresia
esophageal atresia
all of the above
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70. Amniotic fluid volume can be expected to rise above normal if the fetus
has esophageal atresia
has a Bochdalek hernia
has renal agenesis
has Hirschsprung's disease
has open myelomeningocele
72. Which of the following may be associated with oligohydramnios (i.e., may cause oligohydramnios or
may result from it)
fused femur and tibia
pulmonary hypoplasia
renal agenesis
umbilical artery occlusion
all of the above
Page 13
76. Which of the following structures are derived from the neural crest
somatic motor neurons
sclerotomes
preganglionic sympathetic neurons
cells of the adrenal cortex
none of the above
Page 14
83. The most common type of neural tube defect arises from an abnormality most likely occurring during
days 10 - 19, measured from time of fertilization
days 1- 9, measured from time of fertilization
weeks 22 - 26, measured from first day of last normal menstrual period
weeks 7 - 10, measured from first day of last normal menstrual period
days 22 - 29, measured from time of fertilization
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94. Which one of the follow statements concerning development of the heart is FALSE
cardiac development begins in the intraembryonic mesoderm anterior to the prochordal plate
during the 3rd week of development
the bulboventricular loop bends toward the left producing the leftward position of the ventricles
in adult heart anatomy
failure of the truncal ridges to spiral results in transposition of the great vessels
the sinus venarum is the smooth walled part of the right atrium derived from the sinus venosus
the foramen primum is normally obliterated during embryonic development
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100.
101.
the embryonic bulboventricular loop normally bends to the left explaining why the heart is on the
left side of the body
the embryonic bulbus cordis contributes to both the right and left adult ventricles
the primitive ventricle is the last embryonic heart chamber to form
the wall between the right and left ventricles is derived from the septum secundum
none of the above
102.
while the adult right atrium is derived from the embryonic atrium, the adult left atrium is mostly
derived from the sinus venosus
the foramen secundum is normally obliterated by fusion of the septum secundum to the
endocardial cushions
closure of the foramen ovale after birth is accomplished by fusion of the septum secundum to the
septum primum
the embryonic atrium is separated into two chambers by the development of an interatrial
septum derived from the endocardial cushions
the smooth walled portions of the adult right and left atria represent the main adult remnants of
the embryonic atrium
103.
the foramen primum is normally obliterated by fusion of the septum primum to the endocardial
cushions
the embryonic atrium becomes the adult right atrium, and the sinus venosus is the principle
source for the adult left atrium
the inferior margin of the septum secundum forms an opening between the right and left fetal
atria called the foramen secundum
the auricles of the adult right and left atria represent the main adult remnants of the bulbus cordis
the embryonic atrium is separated into two chambers by the development of an interatrial
septum derived from the endocardial cushions
104.
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105.
since cardiac function is so critical to survival, cardiac malformations are rarely seen in live births
probe patent foramen ovale is the most common cause of blue babies (i.e., poor oxygenation of
circulating arterial blood)
ventricular septal defects most commonly occur in the membranous portion of the septum
atrial septal defects are usually the result of the failure of the truncal ridges to develop in a spiral
fashion
none of the above
106.
transposition of the great vessels, atrial septal defect, right ventricular hypertrophy, and mitral
valve defects
pulmonary stenosis, atrial septal defect, persistent truncus arteriosus, and left ventricular
hypertrophy
mitral valve defects, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and overriding aorta
ventricular septal defect, left ventricular hypertrophy, overriding aorta, and persistent ductus
arteriosus
pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy
107.
ventricular septal defects most commonly occur in the membranous portion of the septum
Tetralogy of Fallot includes aortic stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, interventricular septal
defect, and patent ductus arteriosus
since cardiac function is so critical to survival, cardiac malformations are rarely seen in live births
all of the above
none of the above
108.
109.
ventricular septal defects most commonly occur in the membranous portion of the septum
since cardiac function is so critical to survival, cardiac malformations are rarely seen in live births
atrial septal defects are usually the result of the failure of the truncal ridges to develop in a spiral
fashion
probe patent foramen ovale is the most common cause of blue babies (i.e., poor oxygenation of
circulating arterial blood)
Tetralogy of Fallot is failure to develop of the septum primum, septum secundum, foramen
primum and foramen secundum
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110.
ventricular septal defects usually occur in the muscular portion of the septum
postductal coarctation of the aorta can lead to a weak femoral pulse and hypertrophied
intercostal arteries
even very small atrial septal defects are typically fatal in newborns
because the heart is so critical to survival, live births with cardiac malformations are very rare
Tetralogy of Fallot refers to disruption in the development of the atrioventricular septum
111.
transposition of the great arteries is usually the result of the failure of the truncal ridges to
develop in a spiral fashion
ventricular septal defects are the most frequently occurring cardiac malformations
ventricular septal defects most commonly occur in the membranous portion of the
interventricular septum
Tetralogy of Fallot includes pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and
hypertrophy of the right ventricle
all of the above
112.
Tetralogy of Fallot is failure to develop of the septum primum, septum secundum, foramen
primum and foramen secundum
ventricular septal defects most commonly occur in the muscular portion of the septum
atrioventricularis communis is frequently associated with Downs syndrome
probe patent foramen ovale is the most common cause of blue babies (i.e., poor oxygenation of
circulating arterial blood)
none of the above
113.
Tetralogy of Fallot is a set of cardiac defects stemming from an unequal division of the truncus
arteriosus. The set of defects are:
pulmonary stenosis, left ventricular hypertrophy, interatrial septal defect, and overriding aorta
aortic stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, interventricular septal defect, and patent ductus
arteriosus
pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, interventricular septal defect, and overriding
aorta
aortic stenosis, left ventricular hypertrophy, interventricular septal defect, overriding aorta
pulmonary stenosis, interatrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus, and overriding pulmonary
trunk
114.
a combination of portions of the truncus arteriosus, aortic sac and embryonic left fourth aortic
arch
a combination of portions of the left dorsal aorta and left seventh intersegmental artery
a combination of portions of the first, second and third embryonic aortic arches on the left side
a combination of portions of the truncus arteriosus, aortic sac and embryonic left sixth aortic arch
the embryonic left third aortic arch
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115.
a combination of portions of the left dorsal aorta and left seventh intersegmental artery
a combination of portions of the first, second and third embryonic aortic arches on the left side
a combination of portions of the embryonic fifth and sixth aortic arches on the left side
a combination of portions of the truncus arteriosus, aortic sac and embryonic left fourth aortic
arch
the embryonic left dorsal aorta
116.
117.
118.
119.
The embryonic aortic arches connect the developing heart to the developing circulatory system.
the fourth pair of embryonic aortic arches disappear during the course of development
the first pair of embryonic aortic arches will become the adult common carotids
the sixth pair of embryonic aortic arches will contribute to the formation of the pulmonary arteries
the left third embryonic aortic arch forms the ascending and horizontal portion of the adult aortic
arch
the subclavian arteries are largely derived from the fifth pair of embryonic aortic arches
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120.
The embryonic aortic arches connect the developing heart to the developing circulatory system.
the left third embryonic aortic arch forms the ascending and horizontal portion of the adult aortic
arch
the subclavian arteries are largely derived from the fifth pair of embryonic aortic arches
the sixth pair of embryonic aortic arches will contribute to the formation of the pulmonary arteries
the first pair of embryonic aortic arches will become the adult common carotids
the fourth pair of embryonic aortic arches disappear during the course of development
121.
122.
123.
124.
oxygenation of blood in the right ventricle is higher than that in the left ventricle
oxygenation of blood in the ascending aorta is higher than that in the descending aorta
oxygenation of blood in the ductus arteriosus is equal to that in the ductus venosus
oxygenation of blood in the right atrium is higher than that in the left atrium
oxygenation of blood entering the heart from the superior vena cava is higher than that of blood
entering from the inferior vena cava
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125.
the blood in the right ventricle has a higher oxygen content than that in the left ventricle
the umbilical arteries carry oxygenated blood from the placenta back to the heart
the ductus arteriosus allows most of the blood from the placenta to bypass the celiac and
superior mesenteric arteries
the ductus venosus allows most of the blood from the right ventricle to bypass the lungs
most of the blood entering the left atrium comes through the foramen ovale
126.
oxygenation of blood entering the heart from the inferior vena cava is higher than that of blood
entering from the superior vena cava
oxygenation of blood in the ascending aorta is higher than that in the descending aorta
oxygenation of blood in the left ventricle is higher than that in the right ventricle
oxygenation of blood in the left atrium is higher than that in the right atrium
all of the above
127.
the direction of blood flow through the fetal heart is the opposite of that of the adult heart
the blood from the superior vena cava mostly passes through the foramen ovale into the left
atrium
the ductus arteriosus allows most of the blood from the placenta to bypass the celiac and
superior mesenteric arteries
the umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta back to the heart
the ductus venosus allows most of the blood from the right ventricle to bypass the lungs
128.
the ductus venosus allows most of the blood from the right ventricle to bypass the lungs
the umbilical arteries carry oxygenated blood from the placenta back to the heart
the direction of blood flow through the fetal heart is the opposite of that of the adult heart
the ductus arteriosus allows most of the blood from the placenta to bypass the celiac and
superior mesenteric arteries
the blood from the inferior vena cava mostly passes through the foramen ovale into the left
atrium
129.
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130.
One of the reasons most of the pancreatic secretory volume normally enters the duodenum at the
same site as does bile is
the uncinate process of the pancreas is derived from the ventral pancreas
the dorsal pancreas and liver arise from a common diverticulum
the final stage of normal pancreatic development results in migration of the common bile duct
opening onto the dorsal surface of the duodenum
the duct of the ventral pancreas establishes a connection with the duct of the dorsal pancreas
the entire second part of the duodenum is derived from the foregut
131.
the greater omentum is a derived from a fusion of the dorsal mesenteries of the midgut and
hindgut
the dorsal mesogastrium is largely lost when the pancreas becomes secondarily retroperitoneal
the mesentery of the small intestine is the only portion of the dorsal mesentery to retain its
embryonic midline attachment
the ventral mesentery of the stomach persists as the hepatogastric and hepatoduodenal
ligaments
none of the above
132.
133.
the accessory pancreatic duct is a vestige of the duct of the ventral pancreas
the dorsal pancreatic diverticulum is an outgrowth of the same structure that will give rise to the
liver and gall bladder
its secretory cells are derived from the endoderm of the foregut
annular pancreas is the symptomatic version of pancreatic divisum
its body is primarily retroperitoneal whereas its head is secondarily retroperitoneal
134.
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135.
136.
137.
138.
the visceral peritoneum on the cranial surface of the developing liver fuses to the parietal
peritoneum on the caudal surface of the diaphragm to create the coronary ligament.
the liver arises from the same diverticulum as the body and tail of the pancreas
the hepatic diverticulum is of mesoderm origin
the hepatic diverticulum grows into the septum transversum
all of the above
139.
The root of the transverse mesocolon runs from side to side because
it is associated with the transversely oriented pronephros
the ascending and descending colons become secondarily retroperitoneal
it is derived from the septum transversum
the transverse colon is the first part of the gut to reenter the abdominal cavity
this path is primitive for the hindgut dorsal mesentery
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140.
Which of the following developmental events causes the entrance to the lesser sac of the
peritoneal cavity to be restricted to the epiploic foramen
development of the spleen within the upper mesogastrium with formation of the lienorenal
ligament
attachment of the falciform ligament to the anterior abdominal wall and coronary ligament
fusion of the dorsal and ventral pancreatic diverticula
fusion of the anterior and posterior sheets of the lower mesogastrium inferior to the transverse
colon
fusion of visceral peritoneum on the liver to parietal peritoneum on the inferior vena cava
141.
No doubt there is some slight variation in the precise site on the gut from which the
hepatopancreatic diverticulum arises. This accounts for
the occurrence of an hepatic artery arising from the SMA
the location of Cantlie's line dividing the physiological right and left lobes of the liver
the size of the inferior recess of the lesser sac
the persistence of a duct of Santorini independent of the duct of Wirsung
whether or not there occurs a Meckel's diverticulum
142.
143.
144.
The developmental reason that the superior mesenteric artery is the source of the right hepatic
artery in ~25% of adults is
the right lobe of the liver may be derived from the segment of the midgut caudal to the vitelline
duct
the liver grows into the septum transversum, which is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery
the arterial supply to the liver is established after the duodenum becomes retroperitoneal
the liver arises from a diverticulum adjacent to the cranial border of the midgut
the superior mesenteric artery is the main supply of the caudal one-quarter of the abdominal
foregut
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145.
146.
147.
Hirschsprung's disease
is accompanied by perinatal (i.e., within a few days of birth) diarrhea
results in meconium entering amniotic fluid
is associated with abdominal distension
leads to pancreatic divisum
is caused by failure of the descending colon to become retroperitoneal
148.
149.
Failure of the vitelline duct (yolk stalk) to completely regress may lead to
umbilical vein occlusion
gastroschisis
duodenal stenosis
Meckel's diverticulum
subhepatic cecum
150.
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151.
Omphalocele
is associated with increased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
is associated with temporary inflammation of the ileum
is usually not diagnosed until infant feeding problems arise
is associated with polyhydramnios
has a better prognosis than umbilico-ileal fistula
152.
153.
gastroschisis is the name given to a condition in which failure of the stomach to recanalize
causes its lumen to open into the peritoneal cavity
umbilico-ileal fistula arises from persisting patency of the vitelline duct and is asymptomatic
in 80 - 90% of cases, duodenal atresia presents no signs or symptoms until shortly (~1 week)
after birth
failure of the midgut to enter the umbilical cord during the fifth week of embryonic life leads to the
condition known as omphalocele
none of the above
154.
Omphalocele
is associated with an abnormal protein in the amniotic fluid
is usually not diagnosed until infant feeding problems arise
has a better prognosis than gastroschisis
is the result of an error in hindgut development
is associated with temporary inflammation of the ileum
155.
156.
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157.
With respect to the normal development of the kidney and urinary bladder:
the ureters are derived from the urogenital sinus
the ureteric bud grows into the pronephros to initiate kidney formation
the Rathke and Tourneux folds partition the cloaca into the bladder and anal canal
the kidney and suprarenal gland form together via process of mutual induction
all of the above
158.
159.
With respect to the normal development of the kidney and urinary bladder:
an outgrowth from the mesonephric duct becomes the collecting system of the kidney
the urinary bladder is derived from the allantois
the kidney and gonads are derived from the lateral plate mesoderm
the true (hind)kidney begins to function at birth
none of the above
160.
161.
162.
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163.
164.
the gubernaculum of the testes and the round ligament of the uterus are developmental
homologues
mesonephric excretory tubules develop into seminiferous tubules in males
the vestibule of the vagina and most of the penile urethra both derive from urogenital sinus
the vagina is derived from both urogenital sinus and the uterovaginal primordium
all of the above
165.
166.
167.
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168.
169.
170.
Gartner's duct cysts develop from persisting remnants of the mesonephric ducts in females
epispadias can be associated with exstrophy of the urinary bladder
a persisting urogenital sinus is one possible symptom of congenital adrenal hyperplasia
(adrenogenital syndrome) in females
partial and complete duplication of the uterus can occur if the paired paramesonephric ducts fail
to fuse and canalize properly
all of the above
171.
hypospadias of the penis can occur anywhere along the dorsal surface of the penis
if the primordial germ cells fail to migrate into the indifferent gonads, the default phenotype is
superficially male
vaginal agenesis results if the paired mesonephric ducts fail to fuse in the midline
penile agenesis (Stern's Syndrome) occurs when the urogenital sinus fails to develop
clitoral enlargement and fusion of the labia majora can result due to excessive production of
androgens by the adrenal cortex in female
172.
The middle ear ossicles are derived form the ectomesenchyme of:
the first and second somitomeres
the first branchial arch only
the opercular process
the second branchial arch only
none of the above
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173.
the mesenchyme filling all arches is derived predominantly from Hensen's node (the primitive
node)
the striated muscles of the first arch are innervated by the facial nerve
the endoderm of the 2nd arch becomes the epidermis of the external auditory meatus
the ectoderm on the external surfaces of the 3rd-6th arches becomes the epidermis of the lateral
neck
the cartilage of the first arch gives rise to the malleus and incus
174.
175.
the external surfaces of the 3rd-6th arches become buried beneath the skin of the neck
the cartilage of the first arch gives rise to the malleus and incus
the striated muscles derived from somitomere cells entering the second arch become muscles
innervated by C.N. VII
the mesenchyme filling all arches is derived predominantly from neural crest
all of the above
176.
177.
the cartilage of the second arch gives rise to the three middle ear ossicles
the ectoderm of the third arch forms the epidermis innervated by the transverse cervical nerve
they are filled with mesoderm derived chiefly from the primitive node
because the branchial arches are primarily concerned with development of the neck, defects in
their development do not result in major facial malformations
none of the above
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178.
the cartilage of the second arch gives rise to the body of the mandible but not its ramus
the ectoderm of the third and fourth arches forms the epidermis over the skin innervated by the
transverse cervical nerve
even though branchial arches are primarily concerned with development of the neck, defects in
their development are often associated with malrotations of the gut
the cartilage of the first arch gives rise to incus and malleus, but not the stapes
all of the above
179.
the opercular process of the 2nd branchial arch fuses with the external surface of the 3rd
branchial arch instead of the epipericardial ridge
the fourth pharyngeal pouch on one side breaks loose of the pharynx and fills with fluid
the laryngotracheal diverticulum detaches from the pharyngeal floor and its proximal opening
seals off
the openings of the cervical sinus seal but the sinus space remains fluid-filled
none of the above
180.
they may be associated with abnormalities of septation of the truncus arteriosus due the role of
ectomesenchyme in both branchial and truncal development
they may be associated with extraocular muscle absence due to origin of these muscles from the
ectomesenchyme of the first and second branchial arches
branchial fistulas usually connect the middle ear cavity to the pharyngeal recess as a result of
cervical sinus persistence
a bifid tongue results if the copula fails to migrate cranially, contact, and fuse with the median
tongue bud
none of the above
181.
With which of the following structures do the inferior parathyroid glands have their closest
development relationship
the epiglottic swelling
the thymus
the fourth pharyngeal pouches
the laryngotracheal diverticulum
the superior parathyroid glands
182.
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183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
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189.
190.
Which of the following is a recognizable anomaly of structures arising from the dorsal portions of
the 3rd pharyngeal pouches
location of the superior parathyroids in the posterior mediastinum
location of the inferior parathyroids deep to the manubrium
location of the inferior parathyroids superficial to the thyroid gland
location of the thymus in the posterior mediastinum
location of the superior parathyroids deep to the cricothyroid membrane
191.
A major structure arises as an outpocketing of the floor of the pharynx between the copula
caudally and the median tongue bud cranially. rs in its development is likely to cause
a midline mass just below the hyoid bone
I123 uptake in masses on either side of the cricoid cartilage
hypocalcemic tetany
an external branchial sinus
an internal branchial sinus
192.
193.
A major structure arises as an outpocketing of the floor of the pharynx between the copula
caudally and the median tongue bud cranially. An error in its development is likely to cause
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194.
Which of the following is the most common anomaly arising from a defect in development of the
thyroid diverticulum
195.
196.
197.
the nasolacrimal groove lies between the lateral nasal prominence and the maxillary prominence
the nasal cavities originate as evaginations of the endoderm cranial to the first pharyngeal pouch
the intermaxillary segment is formed by fusion of the two frontonasal prominences
the secondary palate derives from the fused palatine processes of the medial nasal prominences
the mandible is derived from ectomesenchyme of the second branchial arch whereas the maxilla
is derived from ectomesenchyme of the first branchial arch
198.
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199.
200.
Concerning clefts of the face and palate, the following statement is FALSE
clefts of the primary palate result from failure of the intermaxillary segment to unite with the
maxillary segment(s)
clefts of the secondary palate are more common in males than in females, whereas clefts of the
lip are equally distributed among sexes
clefts of the primary palate always occur between the lateral incisors and the canines
clefts of the soft palate result from failure of the lateral palatine processes to unite posteriorly
clefts of the secondary palate result from failure of the lateral palatine processes to unite with
one another and the nasal septum
201.
unilateral cleft lip is due to failure of the medial nasal prominences to merge with one another
the most common facial anomaly is cleft palate
cleft palate results from failure of the primary palate to fuse with the nasal septum
oblique facial cleft results from failure of the lateral nasal prominence to merge with the medial
nasal prominence
none of the above
202.
a failure of the maxillary prominence to merge with the medial nasal prominence of the affected
side
a failure of the two medial nasal prominences to merge into the intermaxillary segment
a failure of the frontonasal prominence to merge with the mandibular prominence on the affected
side
a failure of the maxillary prominence to merge with the lateral nasal prominence of the affected
side
none of the above
203.
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204.
although median cleft lip is more common than median cleft palate, it is less often associated
with other developmental anomalies
it is very unusual for the two conditions to occur together in the same neonate
cleft lip is more common in females, while cleft palate is more common in males
cleft lip occurs more frequently than cleft palate
none of the above
205.
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