BSNL Previous Year Paper

1. In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include
a. TE111 and TM111
b. TE011 and TM011
c. TE022 and TM111
d. TE111 and TM011
2. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the
losses are ignored then it's efficiency will be nearly
a. 0.19
b. 0.81
c. 0.97
d. 1.19
3. If an isolated conducting sphere in air has radius = 1/ 4pqe0 it capacitance will be
a. Zero
b. IF
c. 4pF
d. OF
4. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in it's characteristic impedance is
excited with a 10 GHz signal then if 'd' is the distance between two successive minima of the
standing wave in the guide then
a. d = 1.5 cm
b. d is less then 1.5 cm
c. d is greater than 1.5 cm
d. d = 3cm
5. When a dipole antenna of l/8 length has an equivalent total loss resistance of 1.5 W -then
the efficiency of the antenna is
a. 0.89159 %
b. 8.9159 %
c. 89.159 %
d. 891.59 %
6. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally
a. 5 KHz
b. 15 KHz
c. 75 KHz
d. 200 KHz
7. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is
measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is
a. sinusoidal
b. square

c. rectangular
d. triangular
8. Strain gauge is
a. not a transducer
b. an active transducer
c. not an electronic instrument
d. none
9. A high Q coil has
a. large band width
b. high losses
c. low losses
d. flat response
10. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a
guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is
a. 1.810%
b. 0.181%
c. 18.10%
d. 0.0018%
11. The 'h' parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for
a. High frequency, large signal operation
b. High frequency, small signal operation
c. Low frequency, small signal operation
d. Low frequency, large signal operation
12. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only ona. Values of input in the past and in the future
b. Values of input at that time and in the past
c. Values of input at that tim
e and in the future
d. None
13. A iron cored choke is a
a. Linear and active device
b. Non linear and passive device
c. Active device only
d. Linear device only
14. Pointing vector wattmeter uses
a. Seebeck effect
b. Ferranti effect
c. Induction effect
d. Hall effect

15. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense ?
a. Thermocouple
b. Piezoelectric pick-up
c. Photo voltaic cell
d. LCD
16. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, dc to ac, dc to dc or ac
to ac is
a. Converter system
b. Inverter
c. Chopper
d. Thyristor
17. It is a unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode
a. SCR
b. PCR
c. VCR
d. DCR
18. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage
source. Considering together the combination will be a
a. constant voltage source
b. constant current source
c. constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source
d. resistance
19. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of
a. electrons only
b. electrons or holes
c. electrons and holes
d. holes only
20. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ratio from
primary to secondary are respectively
a. ferrite: 20: 1
b. laminated iron: 1: 1
c. ferrite: 1: 1
d. powdered iron: 1: 1
21. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse modes is a
a. 1 phase full converter
b. 3 phase half wave converter
c. 3 phase semi converter
d. 3 phase full converter

22. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the
voltage across the capacitor is
a. square wave
b. triangular wave
c. step function
d. pulsed wave
23. A single phase full wave midpoint thyristor converter uses a 230/200V transformer with
center tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is
a. 100V
b. 141.4V
c. 200V
d. 282.8V
24. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by
varying
a. T keeping Ton constant
b. Ton keeping T constant
c. Toff keeping T constant
d. None of the above
25. From the hot metal surface electrons escape because
a. of change of state from metal to gas due to heat.
b. of change of stats from gas to metal.
c. the energy supplied is greater than the work function
d. the energy is greater than Fermi level.
26. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is a. amplifier
b. triode
c. diode
d. transistor
27. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is
a. Either cathode
b. Either anode
c. The central tap on the high voltage secondary
d. Either plate
28. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier
will
a. Amplify the noise as much as the signal
b. Reduce the noise
c. Increase the noise
d. Not effect the noise

29. Match the given feedback circuit with it's proper nomenclatures
a. Current series feedback
b. Current shunt feedback
c. Voltage series feedback
d. Voltage shunt feedback
30. Class A amplifier is used when
a. No phase inversion is required
b. Highest voltage gain is required
c. dc voltages are to be amplified
d. Minimum distortion is desired

BSNL JAOS-Solved Sample Placement Papers

General English:

1.Are you attending ----- reception today

A. a
B. an
C. the
D. no article

2.She wants to become ----- engineer

A. a
B. an
C. the
D. no article

(Qn No:3-5)Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If
there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
3. (solve as per the direction given above)
A. We discussed about the problem so thoroughly
B. on the eve of the examination
C. that I found it very easy to work it out.
D. No error.

4.(solve as per the direction given above)

A. An Indian ship
B. laden with merchandise
C. got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.
D. No error.
5.(solve as per the direction given above)
A. I could not put up in a hotel
B. because the boarding and lodging charges
C. were exorbitant.
D. No error.

(Qn No:6-8)Find the correctly spelt words.

6.(solve as per the direction given above)
A. Efficient
B. Treatmeant
C. Beterment
D. Employd

7.(solve as per the direction given above)

A. Foreign
B. Foreine
C. Fariegn
D. Forein

8.(solve as per the direction given above)

A. Ommineous
B. Omineous
C. Ominous
D. Omenous

(Qn No:9-12)In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicised and underlined.
Below are given alternatives to the italicised part which may improve the sentence. Choose
the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, option 'D' is the answer.
9.The workers are hell bent at getting what is due to them.

A. hell bent on getting

B. hell bent for getting
C. hell bent upon getting
D. No improvement

10.When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom,
the protestant leaders joined the princes at crushing them.
A. into crushing
B. in crushing
C. without crushing
D. No improvement

11.If the room had been brighter, I would have been able to read for a while before bed
time.
A. If the room was brighter
B. If the room are brighter
C. Had the room been brighter
D. No improvement

12.his powerful desire brought about his downfall.

A. His intense desire
B. His desire for power
C. His fatal desire
D. No improvement

(Qn No:13-15)In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the
meaning of the given word.
13. CORPULENT
A. Lean
B. Gaunt
C. Emaciated
D. Obese

14. BRIEF
A. Limited

B. Small
C. Little
D. Short

15.EMBEZZLE
A. Misappropriate
B. Balance
C. Remunerate
D. Clear

General Aptitude:

1. A can do a work in 15 days and B in 20 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then
the fraction of the work that is left is :
A. 1/4
B. 1/10
C. 7/15
D. 8/15

2. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days
can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?
A. 12 days
B. 15 days
C. 16 days
D. 18 days

3.The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is
25%, then the value of x is:
A. 15
B. 16
C. 18
D. 25

4.In a certain store, the profit is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 25% but the
selling price remains constant, approximately what percentage of the selling price is the
profit?
A. 30%
B. 70%
C. 100%
D. 250%

5.The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is
the age of the youngest child?
A. 4 years
B. 8 years
C. 10 years
D. None of these

6.A father said to his son, "I was as old as you are at the present at the time of your birth".
If the father's age is 38 years now, the son's age five years back was:
A. 14 years
B. 19 years
C. 33 years
D. 38 years

7. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run
rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
A. 6.25
B. 6.5
C. 6.75
D. 7

8.A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5
consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an
average sale of Rs. 6500?
A. Rs. 4991
B. Rs. 5991
C. Rs. 6001
D. Rs. 6991

9.A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B is the ratio 7 : 5. When 9 litres of mixture
are drawn off and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7 : 9. How many
litres of liquid A was contained by the can initially?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 21
D. 25

10.A milk vendor has 2 cans of milk. The first contains 25% water and the rest milk. The
second contains 50% water. How much milk should he mix from each of the containers so
as to get 12 litres of milk such that the ratio of water to milk is 3 : 5?
A. 4 litres, 8 litres
B. 6 litres, 6 litres
C. 5 litres, 7 litres
D. 7 litres, 5 litres

11.Find the greatest number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the same
remainder in each case.
A. 4
B. 7
C. 9
D. 13

12.The H.C.F. of two numbers is 23 and the other two factors of their L.C.M. are 13 and 14.
The larger of the two numbers is:
A. 276
B. 299
C. 322
D. 345

13. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4
years. The sum is:
A. Rs. 650
B. Rs. 690
C. Rs. 698
D. Rs. 700

14.Mr. Thomas invested an amount of Rs. 13,900 divided in two different schemes A and B
at the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount of
simple interest earned in 2 years be Rs. 3508, what was the amount invested in Scheme B?
A. Rs. 6400
B. Rs. 6500
C. Rs. 7200
D. Rs. 7500
E. None of these

15.How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to yield Rs. 81 as interest at 4.5%
per annum of simple interest?
A. 3.5 years
B. 4 years
C. 4.5 years
D. 5 years

Financial Management/Tax:

Q(1).The appropriate objective of an enterprise is;

A.Maximisation of sale
B. Maximisation of owners wealth.
C.Maximisation of profits.
D. None of these.

Q(2). The job of a finance manager is confined to

A.Raising funds
B. Management of cash
C.Raising of funds and their effective utilization.
D. None of these.

Q(3). Financial decision involve;

A.Investment ,financing and dividend decision
B. Investment ,financing and sales decision
C.Financing , dividend and cash decision
D. None of these.

Q(4). Net Profit Ratio Signifies:

A. Operational Profitability
B. Liquidity Position
C. Solvency
D.Profit

Q(5). Working Capital Turnover measures the relationship of Working Capital with:
A.Fixed Assets
B.Sales
C.Purchases
D.Stock.

Q(6). Dividend Payout Ratio is:

A.PAT Capital
B.DPS/ EPS
C. Pref. Dividend/PAT
D. Pref. Dividend/Equity Dividend

Q(7). Inventory Turnover measures the relationship of inventory with:

A. Average Sales
B.Cost of Goods Sold
C.Total Purchases
D. Total Assets

Q(8). The term 'EVA' is used for:

A.Extra Value Analysis
B.Economic Value Added
C.Expected Value Analysis
D.Engineering Value Analysis

Q(9). Return on Investment may be improved by:

A.Increasing Turnover
B. Reducing Expenses

C.Increasing Capital Utilization

D.All of the above

Q(10). In Current Ratio, Current Assets are compared with:

A.Current Profit
B.Current Liabilities
C.Fixed Assets
D.Equity Share Capital

Q(11). There is deterioration in the management of working capital of XYZ Ltd. What does it
refer to?
A.That the Capital Employed has reduced,
B.That the Profitability has gone up,
C.That debtors collection period has increased
D.That Sales has decreased.

Q(12). Debt to Total Assets Ratio can be improved by:

A.Borrowing More
B.Issue of Debentures
C.Issue of Equity Shares
D.Redemption of Debt.

Q(13). Ratio of Net Income to Number of Equity Shares known as:

A.Price Earnings Ratio
B. Net Profit Ratio,
C.Earnings per Share
D. Dividend per Share.

Q(14). A Current Ratio of Less than One means:

A.Current Liabilities < Current Assets
B.Fixed Assets > Current Assets
C.Current Assets < Current Liabilities
D. Share Capital > Current Assets

Q(15). A firm has Capital of 10,00,000; Sales of 5,00,000; Gross Profit of . 2,00,000 and
Expenses of . 1,00,000. What is the Net Profit Ratio?
A.20%
B. 50%
C.10%
D.40%

Q(16). Suppliers and Creditors of a firm are interested in

A.Profitability Position
B.Liquidity Position
C.Market Share Position
D. Debt Position.

Q(17). Which of the following is a measure of Debt Service capacity of a firm?

A.Current Ratio
B.Acid Test Ratio
C. Interest Coverage Ratio
D. Debtors Turnover

Q(18). Gross Profit Ratio for a firm remains same but the Net Profit Ratio is decreasing. The
reason for such behavior could be:
A. Increase in Costs of Goods Sold
B.If Increase in Expense
C. Increase in Dividend
D.Decrease in Sales.

Q(19). Which of the following statements is correct?

A. A Higher Receivable Turnover is not desirable,
B. Interest Coverage Ratio depends upon Tax Rate,
C.Increase in Net Profit Ratio means increase in Sales,
D. Lower Debt-Equity Ratio means lower Financial Risk.

Q(20). Debt to Total Assets of a firm is .2. The Debt to Equity boo would be:
A. 0.80
B.0.25

C. 1.00
D.0.75

Q(21). Which of the following helps analysing return to equity Shareholders?

A. Return on Assets
B. Earnings Per Share
C. Net Profit Ratio
D.Return on Investment.
Q(22). In Inventory Turnover calculation, what is taken in the numerator?
A. Sales
B.Cost of Goods Sold
C.Opening Stock
D. Closing Stock.

Q(23). Financial Planning deals with:

A. Preparation of Financial Statements
B.Planning for a Capital Issue
C. Preparing Budgets
D.All of the above

Q(24). Financial planning starts with the preparation of:

A. Master Budget
B. Cash Budget
C. Balance Sheet
D.None of the above.

Q(25). Process of Financial Planning ends with:

A. Preparation of Projected Statements
B. Preparation of Actual Statements
C. Comparison of Actual with Projected
D. Ordering the employees that projected figures m come true.