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TEST

28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015


INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 28
GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER-I

Time Allowed: 2 Hours

Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING
PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
Write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i)

There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii)

If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for that question.
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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2015

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Page 1

TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


1. Which of the following


benefits/applications may be derived from
the national project, India-based Neutrino
Observatory (INO)?
1. Remote monitoring of nuclear
reactors
2. Detecting mineral and oil deposits
deep in the earth
3. Finding out early geological defects in
earth
4. Understanding dark matter
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
All of the above

2. Consider the following about Neutrinos.


1. They are one of the fundamental
particles.
2. They can be harmful when exposed to
bare human body.
3. They can be weaponised for mass
destruction (WMD).
4. They are the information bearers of
the universe.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only

3. C N R Rao, became the first Indian to


reach the h-index of 100. The h-index is a
measure of

a) level of Scientific productivity


b) level of International presence of a
scientist
c) number of awards won at International
level
d) number of patents in the name of the
scientist

4. Consider the following about GPS Aided


Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN)
system.
1. It is Indias first indigenous
navigational guide system.
2. It is being used only for military
purposes in India.
3. It is supported by Polar satellites.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only

5. The Union Government has recently


launched NOWCAST weather alert
system. It will serve
a) flood and drought sensitive rural areas
in India for mitigation and
rehabilitation purposes
b) farmers giving alerts on extreme
weather conditions
c) Indian shipping industry by providing
details on tides, wave height, tsunami
and cyclones
d) coastal areas in the high risk zones of
tsunamis, cyclones and hailstorms

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TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


6. In view of the farmer suicides in the


country, the government has been running
some insurance schemes. Which of the
following crop insurance schemes are
running till date?
1. Modified National Insurance Scheme
(MNAIS)
2. Farm Income Insurance Scheme
(FIIS)
3. Weather based Crop Insurance
Scheme (WBCIS)
4. Comprehensive Crop Insurance
Scheme (CCIS)
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
1 and 3 only

7. By government support, farmers in India


can be insured against
1. Shortfall in crop yield
2. Crop loss due to adverse events
3. Crop loss due to pest attacks
4. Post-harvest crop losses within a
specified period
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only

8. A state political party can be derecognized by the Election Commission of


India when
1. It fails to submit its poll expenses

2. It does not reveal information under


the RTI Act
3. It fails to win any seat in state
elections.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
1 and 3 only

9. Researchers have recently created the


worlds thinnest light bulb using graphene
as filament. Graphene is
a) a crystalline form of carbon allotrope
b) a condensed form of silicon that is
used in making thin sheets
c) an alloy of tungsten popularly used as
high melting points metals
d) a mixed form of glass and carbon that
has greater agility and durability

10. Charles Correa played a pivotal role in the


creation of architecture for postIndependence India. He was also
1. the first Chairman of the National
Commission on Urbanization
2. known for his use of traditional
methods and materials for
construction
3. Indias first architect to have designed
structures for other sovereign nations.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

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TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


11. The Battle of Waterloo was a pivotal


moment in modern History of Europe. In
this battle
a) Napolean was defeated by Angloallied and Prussian army
b) Prussia was defeated in Belgium by an
army led by Napolean Bonaparte
c) British army took control of several
major provinces of Belgium and ruled
thereafter alongwith Prussia
d) France became divided in several
smaller provinces which then came to
be ruled by imperial powers from
Netherlands and Prussia

12. Haryana Government has recently


launched a Village Mentoring Project
(VMP) in a bid to improve healthcare and
education of the villagers with a special
emphasis on girl child. Under VMP,
villages will be mentored by
1. MLAs
2. Corporate houses
3. Educational institutions
4. Eminent individuals

14. Jharkhand government has recently


banned the sale of thermocol plates in the
state because
a) food consumption in thermocol plates
was found hazardous for human
health
b) thermocol plate producing industries
came under the Red zone industries
c) it will promote leaf plates made by
tribals in the state so as to uplift them
economically
d) All of the above

15. The famous historical Magna Carta had


laid the first steps towards
1. Parliamentary Democracy
2. Rule of Law
3. Liberty and rights
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

Choose the correct answer using the codes


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only

13. Lake Victoria pipeline project was recently


in news because of an agreement between
a) India and Kenya
b) India and Tanzania
c) USA and Russia
d) USA and India

16. Liquidity coverage ratio (LCR) is one of


the criteria in the Basel III regulations. If
it is high for a bank it means that
a) the bank is lending less than its
potential assets
b) the bank has a large amount of liquid
assets
c) the bank has kept a large amount of
deposit with RBI
d) the bank is unable of pay its debts

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TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


17. The Indian Nuclear Insurance Pool


(INIP) as per the mandatory provision
under the Civil Liability for Nuclear
Damage Act (CLND), 2010 setup by the
Union government will insure
a) only operators of nuclear reactors
b) both operators and suppliers related
to nuclear projects
c) people living nearby the nuclear
reactor in case of a nuclear accident
d) operators, suppliers and people who
are affected in case of a nuclear
accident

18. Bibek Debroy Committee has recently


submitted its report on the restructuring
of Indian Railways to the Union
Government. Which of the following
is/are major recommendations suggested
by the committee?
1. Establishing an independent rail
regulator
2. Privatization of Indian railways
3. Scrapping of the Railways Board
4. State governments to have financial
equity in Railways
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1, 2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 only
All of the above

19. One Rank One Pension (OROP) is one of


the widely debated issues in the country
presently. It essentially means that
a) all ex-servicemen with similar lengths
of service will get the same pension
and similar ranks irrespective of their
retirement rank
b) all ex-servicemen who held the same
rank and similar lengths of service will

get the same pension irrespective of


their retirement year
c) all ex-servicemen belonging to a
particular rank will have their
pensions revised upwards irrespective
of their retirement year
d) all ex-servicemen who held the same
rank will get the same pension
irrespective of their retirement year
and length of service

20. Which of the following is/are NOT forms


of Yoga?
1. Laya Yoga
2. Raja Yoga
3. Jnana Yoga
4. Mantra Yoga
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

All are forms of Yoga.


2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 and 4 only

21. Union Government has launched an


Augmented Reality technology based
mobile application. Consider the following
about augmented reality technology.
1. Artificial information about the
environment and its objects can be
overlaid on the real world.
2. It makes information about the
surrounding real world of the user
interactive and digitally manipulable.
Which of the above is true?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

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TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


22. Consider the following about Advertising


Standards Council of India (ASCI).
1. It is a statutory body.
2. It is not under the control of
Government of India.
3. Advertising industries and media are
also included as its members.
4. It submits an annual report to the
Ministry of Information and
Broadcasting.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

2, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
3 only
3 and 4 only

23. The Source of authority of the Indian


Constitution can be found in
a) Directive Principles of State Policy
b) Preamble of the Constitution
c) Fundamental Rights
d) Fundamental Duties

24. In case of a disagreement between the two


Houses regarding a constitutional
amendment bill, which of the following
can be recourse(s) to resolve the
deadlock?
1. A joint sitting of both the houses
2. Vote by majority of state legislatures
3. If the bill is passed again by the Lok
Sabha alone with a higher majority
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

25. The Constitution establishes the


parliamentary system not only at the
Centre but also in the states. This is
evident by
1. Membership of the ministers in the
legislature
2. Collective responsibility of the
executive to the legislature
3. The provision of dissolution of the
lower House
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

26. Consider the following about the


provisions for Citizenship in India.
1. Any person born in India will be
automatically deemed to be a citizen
of India.
2. An illegal migrant cannot be accepted
as Indian citizen only by virtue of him
living in India for long.
3. Acquiring the citizenship of a foreign
nation will terminate Indian
citizenship.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above

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TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


27. Which of these constitutional provisions


under 73rd amendment is/are compulsory
for every Indian state to follow?
1. Organisation of Gram Sabha in a
village or group of villages
2. Direct elections to all seats in
panchayats at the village, intermediate
and district levels
3. Granting financial powers to the
panchayats
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

28. A federal government means a


government in which
a) all the powers are vested in the
national government and the regional
governments derive their authority
from the national government.
b) powers are divided between the
national government and the regional
governments by the Constitution and
both operate in their respective
jurisdictions independently
c) there is division of powers between
the Central and state governments;
and also between the federal and state
judiciaries
d) a large number of powers are vested in
the national government and the
regional governments, with some
independent powers, derive their
authority from the national
government

29. The Indian constitution is a written one


unlike in some of the other democracies.
What does it imply?
1. The form of government in India has
been codified in the constitution to
reduce political and administrative
conflicts.
2. All the laws made by Parliament are to
be written down as a part of the
constitution.
3. Only because of a written constitution,
citizens are able to enjoy fundamental
rights.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only

30. Elections to the Rajya Sabha from the


State legislative assemblies are done on
the basis of proportional representation.
This means
a) every district in the state is given due
representation in Rajya Sabha from
that state
b) all the states are given representation
in Rajya Sabha
c) that all the states irrespective of their
size and population get due
representation in Rajya Sabha
d) None of the above

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TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


31. Consider the following about Speaker Pro


Tem.
1. The President can appoint anyone as
the Speaker Pro Tem of Lok Sabha.
2. The Speaker Pro Tem has all the
powers of the Speaker.
3. Office of the Speaker Pro Tem is
temporary in nature.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

32. Consider the following statements.


1. Tax cannot be levied or collected
except by authority of law.
2. A new tax cannot be imposed unless
asked for by the executive
government.
3. No expenditure can be sanctioned
unless asked for by the executive
government.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

33. The principle of the rule of lapse leads to


rush of expenditure towards the end of a
financial year because
a) unspent money will be accounted as
insufficient and inefficient funding by
the auditor
b) unspent voted expenditure would
lapse by the end of the financial year

c) unspent money will be allocated to the


next years financial budget
d) unspent money will increase the fiscal
burden of the government

34. Which of the following limits the


legislative sphere and authority of the
State Legislatures?
1. A written constitution
2. Division of powers in the Seventh
Schedule
3. Judicial review of State enactments by
the High courts
4. Veto powers of the Governor and
President over state legislations
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

2, 3 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above

35. Without the prior approval of the


President of India, which of the following
can NOT be done?
1. Abolition of a certain tax by the
Parliament
2. Introduction of State reorganization
bill in the Parliament
3. Introduction of money bill in the
Parliament.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

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TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


36. Consider the following about Western


cyclonic disturbances in India.
1. They usually occur in winter months.
2. They are brought by westerly flow
from Central Asian region.
3. They influence the weather of the
north and north-western regions of
India.

Choose the correct statements using the codes


below.

Choose the correct statements using the codes


below.

39. Which of the following factors influence


the evolution of landforms on earth?
1. Stability of sea level
2. Tectonic stability of landmasses
3. Climate
4. Groundwater
5. Volcanism

a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

37. The stars are localised lumps of gas within


a nebula. Which of the following is/are
considered as some of the stages in the
development of a planet from stars?
1. A dust cloud develops around the core
gas particles.
2. Collision of large gas clouds
3. Bursting of condensed gas clouds
Choose the correct statements using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

38. Which of the following correctly show the


significance of weathering in rocks?
1. Helps in enrichment of minerals in
rocks
2. Leads to mass wasting and reduction
of relief
3. Aids the formation of soil and thus
biodiversity

a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

Choose the correct statements using the codes


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 4 only
2, 3 and 5 only
2, 3, 4 and 5 only
All of the above

40. Hari is dependent on a pendulum based


clock for timing kept in a room much
above ordinary summer temperatures. He
is invited for a meeting by his friend (who
stays at a relatively cooler place) at sharp
2o clock. Considering Haris total
dependence on the pendulum clock for
time, it is likely that
a) Hari will be late for the meeting
b) Hari will on time for the meeting
c) Hari will be arrive early for the
meeting
d) The pendulum clock will show a
highly incorrect time and Hari will
never arrive for the meeting

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TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


41. When a TV signal is broadcasted, why is


its range confined to a limited distance?
a) TV signal transmission uses long
waves which cannot be transmitted for
long distances.
b) TV signal transmission uses short
waves which are absorbed by the
atmosphere
c) TV signal waves carry limited energy
waves which get dissipated is short
period of time
d) The spherical shape of earth does not
allow for very long transmissions

42. When the soil is subjected to Mulching a process which of these is done?
1. Some loose material is laid on the
ground to prevent excessive
evaporation or erosion of the soil
2. The field is irrigated at regular
intervals
3. Seedlings are transplanted
4. Big pieces of soil are broken down into
smaller pieces
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only

43. Why do tropical deciduous trees shed


their leaves in summer?
a) Because rainfall is inadequate to cover
up evaporation in summers
b) So that they can prevent excessive loss
of water through evaporation
c) So as to prevent excessive loss of
water through transpiration

d) Because tree leaves generally get dried


up due to the excessive heat

44. Comets orbiting the Sun have glowing


tails because?
1. A comet tail and coma having dust
particles are illuminated by the Sun
2. Gases in the comets tail glow
from ionization.
Which of the above is/are true?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

45. In the practice of out-breeding, which of


the following is/are possible?
1. Different breed of animals can be bred
together
2. Different species of animals can be
bred
3. Superior male of one breed is mated
with superior female from another
breed
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above

46. Bio-fortification leads to increase in the


nutritional value of crops. This can be
done through
1. Conventional breeding of crops
2. Genetic Engineering
3. Injecting crops with nutritive
components

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Page 10

TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


4. Grafting crops with each other

Choose the correct answer using the codes


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only

47. Consider the following about


Chandrayaan 2, Indias second lunar
exploration mission.
1. The missions primary objective is to
find possible sources of water and
useful minerals on moon.
2. Exploration will not be done on the
lunar surface and instead the lunar
orbit will be used.
3. The mission is being undertaken in
collaboration with Germany and
Russia.
Choose the correct statements using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above

48. Which of these is the most appropriate


evidence that shows Harappan civilization
believed in evil forces?
a) They worshipped Pasupati, which was
considered a powerful deity
b) They used metal objects as seals and
in house entrances
c) They used amulets as protection
against evil forces
d) Animals were sacrificed at regular
intervals in Harappa

49. In the Early Vedic period, who was known


as Vishayapati?
a) One who had great knowledge of all
Vedas and was proficient in teaching
them
b) Head of a group of villages
c) local ruler who patronised vedic
worship and sacrifices
d) The one who headed the military unit
in case of major incidents

50. As per Gautam Buddha


1. No entity in the Universe is as
omnipotent as soul.
2. Human suffering is caused because of
past karmas and there is a way to
transcend it.
3. Transmigration of soul is affected by
the consciousness a person carries in
this birth.
4. God can be attained by living a
balanced life.
Choose the correct statements using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
None of the above

51. Which of the following can said to be the


immediate effects of the invasion of
Alexander in India?
1. Stopped political unification of North
India under the Mauryas
2. Direct contact between India and
Greece
3. Annexation of North-western India by
Greece
Choose the correct statements using the codes
below.

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TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only

52. Horizontal distribution of pressure is


studied by drawing isobars which are lines
connecting places having equal pressure.
How is the effect of altitude in a region
eliminated while studying isobars?
a) by reducing the place being studied to
sea level for comparison
b) by ignoring the nearby high grounds
and mountains and considering the
ground level pressures
c) by measuring the sea level
temperature and pressure of the
nearby regions
d) None of the above

53. RBI uses the tool of sterilization to protect


the economy when
1. Foreign funds and investments pump
in large amounts of money in the
economy
2. Domestic investors lose confidence in
the economy due to falling investment
rate
3. There is a shortage of foreign
exchange reserves of India
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only

54. Consider the following examples related to


the opportunity costs between two
options in each of the statements below.
1. An entrepreneur is making zero
profits on both production and nonproduction of goods
2. A labourer earns as much money in a
given time as much he values leisure
In which of the above case(s) is the
opportunity cost between the two options
non-zero?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

55. Which of the following is/are


redistributive tools of the government?
1. Progressive taxation
2. Welfare spending
3. Public employment programmes
4. Subsidies
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above

56. Consider the following statements.


1. High public debt is always bad for an
economy.
2. Inflation can never be good for a
growing economy.
3. Only a nation that has a positive trade
balance can become a developed
country.
Choose the INCORRECT statements using
the codes below.

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TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

57. The issue of Black money has been in


news frequently. Black money can be
generated from which of the following
activities?
1. Tax evasion
2. Tax avoidance
3. Illegal economic activities
4. Foreign investment
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only

58. Consider that a government has been


struggling with high fiscal deficits and
high inflation in the economy. Which of
the following borrowing sources is the
most favourable for it to stabilize the
economy?
a) Borrowing from the public via
treasuries
b) Printing fresh currency by RBI
c) Grants from foreign nations
d) Borrowing from sovereign nations

59. Some of the species below have been in


news. Which of these species is/are
endemic to India?
1. Blue Mormon

2. Yellow-footed green pigeon


3. Indian darter
4. Southern birdwing
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
All of the above

60. The Nathu la pass was recently in news.


Consider the following about it.
1. It is a mountain pass in the Northern
Himalayas.
2. It is one of the open trading border
posts between China and India.
3. It was sealed by India after the
1962 Sino-Indian War.
Choose the correct statements using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only

61. The District and sessions Judge in a state


works directly under the control of which
of the following authorities?
1. District Collector
2. State Governor
3. State Law Minister
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
None of the above

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62. Which of the following is NOT a teaching


in Sufism?
1. Turning away heart from all else but
God
2. Purify ones inner self
3. Practicing asceticism
4. Repeating the name of God

3. Mahayana Buddhism believes in idol


worship.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above

Choose the correct answer using the codes


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
All are teachings in Sufism.

63. Destruction of Ozone layer can be caused


by
1. All greenhouse gases
2. Supersonic jets
3. Missile launches
4. Heating of the stratosphere
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

3 and 4 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
All of the above

64. Consider the following statements about


idols and idol worship in India.
1. Worship of idols in India started
during the Gupta period.
2. The sculpture with the three faces of
Brahma, Vishnu and Mahesh known
as Trimurti is found in Elephanta
caves.

65. You will observe that in cloudy nights less


dew is formed. Why?
a) when there are more clouds there is
less of particulate matter in the
atmosphere
b) clouds allow the heat in the
atmosphere to pass through and
radiation takes place quickly
c) dew is not formed when the
conditions in the environment are that
of precipitation
d) clouds retain the heat in the
atmosphere and radiation takes place
slowly

66. Who among the following is/are the


member(s) of NITI Ayog?
1. Chief Ministers of all States
2. Chief Minister of UTs (with
legislature)
3. Nominated Union Cabinet Ministers
4. Union Secretary of Defence, Finance,
Planning and Home
5. State Finance Ministers
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1, 2 and 5 only
1, 3, 4 and 5 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3 only

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TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


67. Under the Panchayats (Extension to


Scheduled areas) - PESA, 1996 Act, Gram
Sabhas are given the authority to stop land
alienation by
a) State Legislatures
b) District Collector
c) State Forest department
d) Central government

68. It is possible for two different branches of


a plant to yield two different fruits by
1. Hybridization
2. Grafting
3. Tissue Culture
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
None of the above

69. If light is entering through a small hole in


a closed room through a closed door, the
image of the opposite house appears as
inverted on the opposite wall of the hole.
This can be explained on the basis of
a) the rectilinear propagation of light
b) the shortest path of light property
c) the hole acts as a lens and magnifies
the object in front of it
d) the light taking turns at the hole and
splitting in N number of different rays

70. In Indian literature, Mucchangam is


a) Buddhist literature patronized under
Satvahanas that emerged after the
Buddhist councils

b) Three Sangams of Tamil poets in


ancient Tamil Nadu
c) Compilation of all the work of the poet
Kalidasa that describes the character
of man
d) a collection of mantras and rituals
(part of Vedas) that are to be
performed on special occasions

71. Consider the following statements about


the early Medieval period.
1. The first Muslim kingdom in India
was established at Ajmer.
2. The Battles of Tarain and Chandawar
contributed to the establishment of
Turkish rule in India.
3. In the first century of the early
medieval period, Rajputs and Mughals
ruled India together.
Choose the correct statements using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

72. Population III stars were recently in


news because of the discovery of COSMOS
Redshift 7. These Population III stars are
the
a) third generation of stars which are the
youngest and brightest in the Universe
b) first generation of stars which are
born out of the primordial material of
the Big Bang
c) third generation stars which are the
brightest and nearest to the Solar
system
d) stars belonging to the brightest distant
galaxy known to mankind which were

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TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


born right after the formation of the


gaseous universe

73. Tropical wet and dry climates are those


where
1. There is abundance of Monsoon rain
showers
2. Temperature is high throughout the
year
3. Diurnal range of temperature is
almost nil.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
2 and 3 only

Choose the correct statements using the codes


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

76. Prarthana Samaj founded by Keshub


Chandra Sen in Bombay worked on which
of the following socio-religious reforms?
1. Disapproval of the caste system
2. Raising the age of marriage in both
males and females
3. Land reforms for poor landless
peasants
4. Revival of ancient Vedic practices to
educate the India society
Choose the correct statements using the codes
below.

74. The idea of Satyagraha as propounded by


Gandhi includes Satyagraha as
1. A passive resistance
2. Battle with a distance
3. Non-violence which is supreme
Dharma
Choose the correct statements using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only

75. The first Round table conference was


announced by Lord Irwin to discuss
1. Dominion status for India
2. Future constitution of India
3. Rights of Princely states in India

a)
b)
c)
d)

1, 2 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
1 and 2 only

77. The partition of Bengal was annulled in


1911 by the British because
1. They wanted to curb revolutionary
terrorism
2. Muslim leaders had protested sharply
against a division of Bengal.
3. A divided Bengal was becoming
difficult to administer.
Choose the correct statements using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1 only

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78. Which of the following most appropriately


shows the impact of the Russian
revolution in India?
a) Indian masses understood that
Imperials can be challenged with
unity.
b) Indian leaders understood the
exploitative nature of
authoritarianism
c) Indian soldiers grasped how the
British were able to use their vast
military influence to rule India
d) Indian leaders understood that to
start a political revolution, an
economic revolution is a must

79. Consider the following about the Eka


movement that surfaced in the Northern
provinces at the end of 1921.
1. It was centred on tenant security and
high land rents.
2. The grassroot leadership of the
movement came from the middle class
intellectuals also leading the Indian
national movement.
3. Severe repression by British
authorities brought an end to this
movement.
Choose the correct statements using the
codes below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

3. Rate of Humus formation


4. Colour and texture
Choose the correct statements using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above

81. You are on a visit to a mining site. Out of a


small heap of rocks, you can easily identify
those rocks that contain copper because
a) those rocks will be more lustrous than
the other non-copper containing rocks
b) those rocks will appear blue in colour
c) those rocks are very fine in texture
and have a glassy appearance
d) those rocks will be highly reddish in
colour and can be scratched even with
a nail

82. Consider the following geographical


regions.
1. Western Cordilleras
2. Appalachians
3. Guiana Highlands
4. Kanin Peninsula
Which of the above belong to the North
American region?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above

80.The parent rock of soil controls which of


the following properties of soils?
1. Mineral content
2. Permeability
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83. Millets and Maize are high nutrition crops


and can be cultivated on a large scale.
Which of these conditions are common for
their cultivation?
1. Moderate temperature
2. Sandy soils
3. Low rainfall
4. Prolonged periods of sunshine
Choose the correct statements using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above

84. Kumaon Himalayas is that region of


Himalayas that lies between
a) Satlaj and Kali rivers
b) the base of Shiwaliks and bangar
deposits
c) Pir panjal and Zaskar Himalayas
d) Brahmaputra river basin and Garo
mountains

85. Consider the following about Indian


climate.
1. There is decrease in rainfall generally
from east to west in the Northern
Plains.
2. In general, coastal areas experience
less contrasts in temperature
conditions.
3. Seasonal contrasts are more in the
interior of the country.
Choose the correct statements using the codes
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

86. The Union Cabinet has recently approved


the launch of the Housing for All by
2022 programme. It aims at
1. Rehabilitation of slum-dwellers
2. Promotion of affordable housing for
the urban poor
3. Improving existing housing
infrastructure in the country
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

87. Consider the following about regulation in


medical industry.
1. Government presently does not
regulate online sale of medicines.
2. Government regulates the price of all
drugs sold or imported in India.
Which of the above is/are true?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

88. During the 1st millennium BCE,


the Vaisheshika School of atomism was
founded. As per the school of philosophy
1. All objects in the physical universe are
reducible to atoms.
2. Atoms are indivisible and eternal.
3. Each atom possesses its own distinct
individuality.

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TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


4. Knowledge and liberation is


achievable by complete understanding
of the world of experience.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
All of the above

89. Consider the following statements.


Assertion (A): The Coriolis force is maximum
at the poles and is absent at the equator.
Reason (R): Coriolis force is directly
proportional to the angle of latitude.
In the context of the statements above, which
of these is true?
a) A and R both are true, and R is the
correct explanation for A.
b) A and R both are true, and R is the
NOT the correct explanation for A.
c) A is incorrect, R is correct.
d) A and R both are incorrect.

90. If the value of rupee starts depreciating in


International market, it will benefit
1. Indian exporters
2. Foreign Institutional Investors (FII)
3. Domestic borrowers
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 only

91. Indian government has been attempting


to diversify its oil imports portfolio. How
will this benefit India?
1. It is a guard against oil related geopolitical risks.
2. It may reduce shipping time and cost
of crude oil.
3. India will be in a better bargaining
position with oil exporting nations.
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above

92. National Disposable Income includes


which of the following?
1. Net National Product at market prices
2. Current transfers from the rest of the
world
3. Current transfers from government
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All of the above

93. Consider the following statements about


government bonds in the economy.
1. If the interest rates are high, people
would like to keep more money in the
form of government bonds.
2. If there is reduced money supply in
the economy, central bank issues
more government bonds in the
market.
Which of the above is/are correct?

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TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
None

94. Shilpa Shastras is an umbrella term for


numerous Hindu texts that describe arts,
crafts, and their design rules, principles
and standards. They did NOT deal with
1. Painting
2. Metallurgy
3. Architecture
4. Medicine

a) It is a type of monetary policy used by


central banks to stimulate the
economy when standard monetary
policy has become ineffective.
b) It is a type of fiscal stimulus given by
federal/central government when the
economy is going through stagflation
c) It is a type of monetary policy when
government securities are sold
extensively in the market by the
Central bank
d) It is a type of fiscal policy where
growth is diverted from other nations
by providing several sops and
incentives to foreign investors

Choose the correct answer using the codes


below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

2, 3 and 4 only
4 only
1 and 3 only
They dealt with all of the above

95. Take-out finance in India is being used


for
1. Providing funding for long duration
projects
2. Providing bailout funds to sick and
underperforming companies
3. Reducing the Non-performing assets
of banks
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
1 only
2 and 3 only
All of the above

96. Quantitative easing has been in news for


some time. What does it mean?

97. A nation which is rich in natural resources


and skilled labourers is not economically
very poor with a low GDP per capita.
Which of these can be the most
appropriate explanations for the same?
a) the flow of production in the economy
is very weak
b) the nation is not relying on
sustainable growth models
c) the governments intervention in the
economy is hampering the
development of competitive markets
d) the nation has to rely on imports
excessively for production process

98. Capital goods are those goods that are


1. Used for the production of
intermediate goods
2. Used for the production of consumer
goods
3. Used for generation of capital
4. a part of the nations fixed capital
formation
Choose the correct answer using the codes
below.

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TEST 28 QUESTION PAPER (TEST SERIES 2015)


a)
b)
c)
d)

1, 2 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
2 and 4 only
1 only

99. One of the ways of measuring the income


of a nation is to add all the factor
payments made in the economy. Here
factor payments mean
a) payments made to resources used in
the production process
b) payments used for deploying human
capital in the industries

c) payments made to the fixed asset and


capital used in the production process
in the economy
d) the collective income of all the firms in
the economy

100. What is called Directive Principles in


the present Indian constitution is merely
another name for the instrument of
instructions issued in
a) Indian Independence Act, 1947
b) Government of India Act, 1935
c) 1858 Charter Act
d) Morley-Minto reforms Act, 1919

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