INTERNAL MEDICINE BOARD REVIEW FLASHCARDS

Oncology
Includes 50 Flashcards for Board Exam prep

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KNOWMEDGE

INTERNAL MEDICINE BOARD REVIEW FLASHCARDS

Oncology

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Question 1
____________ is a cancerous tumor of
the connective tissue associated with
HIV and is generally characterized by
pink or purple tumors on the skin,
especially in the lower extremities.

Answer 1

Kaposi Sarcoma

Question 2

Any patient with HIV developing Kaposi

sarcoma should be started on _________
and may undergo localized radiation.

Answer 2
Any patient with HIV developing Kaposi
sarcoma should be started on highly
active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) and
may undergo localized radiation.

Question 3

What condition is associated with ReedSternberg cell and positive CD15 and
CD30 cell markers?

Answer 3

Hodgkin Lymphoma

Question 4

What lymphoma is associated with

chromosomal translocation t(14,18)?

Answer 4

Follicular lymphoma

Question 5

What is the best step in the initial

treatment of ovarian cancer?

Answer 5

Laparotomy for surgical staging and

surgical cytoreduction

Question 6

In what age group is ovarian cancer most

frequently noted?

Answer 6

Age greater than 60 years

Question 7

How do Tamoxifen and Aromatase

Inhibitors differ in terms of their
mechanism of action?

Answer 7
Tamoxifen blocks estrogen receptors
directly whereas Aromatase Inhibitors
affect the enzyme responsible for the
conversion of androgens to estrogen

Question 8

Thromboembolic events are more

prevalent in patients on Tamoxifen or
Aromatase Inhibitors?

Answer 8

Tamoxifen

Question 9

Vaginal bleeding is more prevalent in

patients on Tamoxifen or Aromatase
Inhibitors?

Answer 9

Tamoxifen

Question 10

Tamoxifen and Raloxifene belong to

which class of medication?

Answer 10

Selective estrogen receptor modulators

(SERMs)

Question 11

What type of biopsy is performed to see

if axillary lymph node dissection is
required in patients with breast cancer?

Answer 11

Sentinel lymph node biopsy

Question 12

If a patient has a 2cm infiltrating ductal

carcinoma of the breast, what is the best
next step?

Answer 12

Breast conserving therapy and radiation

therapy

Question 13

For metastatic bone lesions in patients

with breast cancer, what intravenous
agent is typically administered?

Answer 13

Bisphosphonate zoledronic acid

Question 14

Where do hormonal therapies like

tamoxifen exert anti-estrogen activity?

Answer 14

Breast tissue

Question 15

Where do hormonal therapies like

tamoxifen exert partial estrogen agonist
activity?

Answer 15

Uterus, Lipids and Bone

Question 16

What treatment should be offered to

patients with breast cancer that is
HER2/neu positive?

Answer 16

Trastuzumab (a monoclonal antibody

directed against the HER2/neu protein)

Question 17

Gynecomastia is most likely to be seen in

which lung cancer?

Answer 17

Large cell lung cancer

Question 18
What paraneoplastic syndrome features
Ptosis, Miosis, Anhydrosis and with
which underlying lung cancer is it most
likely associated?

Answer 18

Horner's syndrome, associated with

Squamous Cell carcinoma of the Lung

Question 19

In what age group are osteosarcomas

typically found?

Answer 19

Age 50 to 70 years

Question 20

What are benign tumors of the adipose

tissue?

Answer 20

Lipoma and Hibernoma

Question 21

What chromosomal translocation is

associated with Burkitt's lymphoma?

Answer 21

t(8,14) chromosomal translocation

Question 22

What chromosomal translocation is

associated with acute promyelocytic
leukemia (APML)?

Answer 22

t(15,17) chromosomal translocation

Question 23

What is the most aggressive primary CNS

tumor?

Answer 23

Glioblastoma multiforme

Question 24

Where do pleomorphic
xanthoastrocytomas originate?

Answer 24

Star-shaped glial cells, known as

astrocytes

Question 25

What are 2 options for obtaining the

definitive diagnosis of CNS lymphoma?

Answer 25

Stereotactic brain biopsy or

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis

Question 26

CSF analysis in CNS lymphoma shows

what type of cell population?

Answer 26

Monoclonal B cell population

Question 27

High pro-insulin, high C peptide, and low

blood glucose levels are associated with
what condition?

Answer 27

Insulinoma

Question 28

What rash is associated with

glucagonoma?

Answer 28

Necrolytic migratory erythema (NME)

Question 29

The diagnosis of glucagonoma is

suggested with glucagon levels above
what value?

Answer 29

Greater than 1000pg/mL

Question 30

What is the chemotherapeutic agent of

choice for patients with metastatic
hepatocellular carcinoma?

Answer 30

Sorefenib

Question 31

What are 3 possible interventions for

localized hepatocellular carcinoma?

Answer 31

- Surgical resection
- Liver transplantation
- Radiation therapy

Question 32

What is the AFP level in the context of

cirrhosis that indicates a high likelihood
of developing hepatocellular carcinoma?

Answer 32

Greater than or equal to 500ng/mL

Question 33

What is the main most active

chemotherapeutic regimen used for
colon cancer?

Answer 33

FOLFOX [5-fluorouracil, Folinic acid,

Oxaliplatin]

Question 34
Patients with adenomatous polyposis
coli (APC) gene mutation are at an
increased risk of develpoing which
heritable disease?

Answer 34

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

Question 35

When is the first colonoscopy

recommended in a patient with familial
adenomatous polyposis (FAP)?

Answer 35

Age 16

Question 36
What syndrome is associated with
hamartomas of the small intestine and
pigmented lesions on the skin, lip, and
mouth?

Answer 36

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

Question 37
After an EGD with biopsy confirms
gastric adenocarcinoma, what test
should be performed next to rule out
metastases?

Answer 37

CT of the chest and abdomen

Question 38
After EGD with biopsy confirms gastric
adenocarcinoma, what test should be
performed to determine the depth of the
invasion?

Answer 38

Endoscopic ultrasound

Question 39

After a patient has been treated for

colon cancer, what lab test is ordered to
detect recurrence of disease?

Answer 39

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

Question 40

When the RET proto-oncogene is

present, approximately 95% of patients
develop what malignancy?

Answer 40

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

Question 41

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is

associated with which types of multiple
endocrine neoplasia (MEN)?

Answer 41

MEN 2A and 2B

Question 42

Which thyroid cancer is associated with

psammoma bodies?

Answer 42

Papillary thyroid cancer

Question 43

What are the 4 main myeloproliferative

disorders?

Answer 43
- Polycythemia vera
- Essential thrombocythemia
- Primary myelofibrosis
- Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

Question 44

What vitamin is often elevated with

myeloproliferative disorders?

Answer 44

Vitamin B12

Question 45

What vitamin should be given with

isoniazid (INH) treatment for latent
tuberculosis?

Answer 45

Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)

Question 46

In which of the 4 myeloproliferative

disorders is excess collagen or fibrous
tissue produced?

Answer 46

Primary myelofibrosis

Question 47

What is the best treatment of acute

promyelocytic leukemia (APML)?

Answer 47

All-trans retinoic acid (APML)

Question 48

What are the 3 agents that may be

indicated for the treatment of Chronic
Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)?

Answer 48

Fludarabine, Rituximab or Chlorambucil

Question 49
What is an unfavorable prognostic factor
for acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
based on the patient's white blood cell
(WBC) count?

Answer 49

>30,000/uL

Question 50

What life-threatening condition can

result from the combination of tramadol
and sertraline?

Answer 50

Serotonin syndrome

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