Documenti di Didattica
Documenti di Professioni
Documenti di Cultura
com
Set No. 1
Max. Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE questions
All questions carry equal marks
******
1. a) What are the various secondary air pollutants and how they are formed? 8 m
b) What are the Ozone depleting substances? What is their contribution in the
formation of Ozone holes?
8m
2. a) Explain the principle of working of an Electrostatic Precipitators?
b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of wet collection devices?
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3. a) What are the various adsorbents that are generally used water treatment? What
is their utility?
8m
b) What are the various applications of Ion Exchange in water and waste water
treatment?
8m
4.
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Set No. 2
Max. Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE questions
All questions carry equal marks
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3. a) Explain the Ion Exchange Process with the help of chemical reactions.
8m
b) What are major differences between Reverse Osmosis and Ultra-filtration
processes?
8m
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6. a) What is Sanitary Land Filling? What are the precautions to be taken for Land
Filling?
8m
b) What are problems in land filling of wastes?
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Set No. 3
Max. Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE questions
All questions carry equal marks
******
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Set No. 4
Max. Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE questions
All questions carry equal marks
******
8m
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3. a) Explain the Ion Exchange Process with the help of chemical reactions.
8m
b) What are major differences between Reverse Osmosis and Ultra-filtration
processes?
8m
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a) What are the various collection equipment of solid wastes? What is suitability?
8m
b) What is the general composition of Indian Urban Solid Wastes?
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6. a) What is Sanitary Land Filling? What are the precautions to be taken for Land
Filling?
8m
b) What are the problems of incineration? When is it suitable?
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Set No. 1
Max Marks: 80
Answer any Five Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
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Rs/hr
The real power generations of the units PG1 and PG 2 are in MW. Find (i) the most
economical load sharing between the generators. (ii) The saving in Rs./ day there by
obtained, compared to equal load sharing between two generators.
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2. (a) Obtain the condition for optimum operation of a power system with n plants when
losses considered
(b) On a system consisting of two generating plants the incremental costs in Rs/ MWh
with PG1 and PG 2 in MW are
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dC1
dC 2
= 0.007 PG1 + 7.5 and
= 0.0011PG 2 + 9.0
dPG1
dPG 2
The system is operating on economic dispatch with PG1 = PG2 = 500 MW and
PL
= 0.2 . Find the penalty factor of plant 1.
PG 2
3. A two-plant system having a steam plant near the load centre and a hydro plant at a
remote location. The load is 500MW for 16 hrs a day and 350 MW, for 8 hrs a day.
The characteristics of the units are
2
C1 = 120 + 45 PGT + 0.075 PGT
Rs./hr
2
w2 = 0.6 PGH + 0.00283 PGH
m3/sec
Loss co-efficient, B22 = 0.002 MW-1
Find the generation schedule, daily water used by hydro plant and daily operating
cost of thermal plant for j =80 Rs./ m3-hr
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Set No. 1
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8. (a) Explain the effects on uncompensated line under no load and load conditions
(b) A 3-Phase, 50 Hz, 3000 V motor develops 700 HP, the p.f being 0.8 lagging and the
efficiency 0.9. A bank of capacitors is connected in delta across the supply terminals
and the p.f raised to 0.95 lagging. Each of the capacitance units is built of five similar
600 V capacitors. Determine capacitance of each capacitor.
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Set No. 2
Max Marks: 80
Answer any Five Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
1. (a)Obtain the condition for optimum operation of a power system with n plants
(b) Determine the saving in fuel cost in Rs/hr for the economic distributes of a total load
of 200MW between the two units with incremental fuel costs
dC1
= 0.0075 PG1 + 15 and
dPG1
dC 2
= 0.085 PG 2 + 12
dPG 2
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2. (a) Derive the transmission loss formula and state any assumptions made.
(b) The incremental fuel cost for two plants are
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dC1
dC 2
= 0.0075 PG1 + 17 Rs./MWh and
= 0.08 PG 2 + 15 Rs./MWh
dPG1
dPG 2
The loss coefficients are given as
B11=0.0015 /MW, B12= - 0.0004/MW and B22 =0.0032/ MW for =25 Rs./MWh.
Find the real power generations, total load demand and the transmission power loss.
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3. A two plant system having a thermal station near the load center and a hydro power
station at remote location.
The characteristics of both stations are
C1 = (26 + 0.045 PGT)PGT Rs/hr
w2 = (7 + 0.004 PGH) PGH m3/sec
and
2= Rs. 4 10-4 / m3
The transmission loss co-efficient, B22 = 0.0025 MW-1
Determine the power generation at each station and the power received by the load when
= 65 Rs / MWhr
4. (a) Explain the simplified model of a synchronous machine.
(b) Derive the transfer function of an overall excitation system.
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Set No. 2
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7. Explain clearly about proportional plus integral load frequency control system with neat
block diagram.
8. (a) What are the merits and demerits of different types of compensation
(b) A 35 kW induction motor has power factor 0.85 and efficiency 0.9 at full load, power
factor 0.6 and efficiency 0.7 at half-load. At no-load, the current is 25% of the
full-load current and power factor 0.1. Capacitors are supplied to make the line power
factor 0.8 at half-load. With these capacitors in circuit, find the line power factor at
(i) full load, and (ii) no-load.
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Set No. 3
Max Marks: 80
Answer any Five Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
1. (a)Describe the significance of equality and inequality constrains in the economic
allocation of generation among different plants in a system
(b) Three power plants of total capacity 500 MW are scheduled for operation to supply
total system load of 350 MW. Find the optimum load scheduling if the plants have
the following incremental cost characteristics and the generator constraints.
dC1
= 40 + 0.25PG1 , 30 PG1 150
dPG1
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dC2
= 50 + 0.3PG 2 , 40 PG 2 125
dPG 2
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dC3
= 20 + 0.2 PG 3 , 50 PG 3 225
dPG 3
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Set No. 3
5. (a) Draw the schematic diagram of a speed governing system and explain its components
on the dynamic response of an uncontrolled system with necessary equations.
Hence obtain the transfer function of a speed governing system
(b) A 250MVA synchronous generator is operating at 1500 rpm, 50Hz. A load of 50MW
is suddenly applied to the machine and the station valve to the turbine opens only
after 0.35 sec due to the time lag in the generator action. Calculate the frequency to
which the generated voltage drops before the steam flow commences to increase to
meet the new load. Given that the valve of H of the generator is 3.5 kW-sec per kVA
of the generator energy.
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7. For a single area system show that the static error in frequency can be reduced to zero
using frequency control and comment on the dynamic response of an controlled system
with necessary equations
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8. (a) Compare the different types of compensating equipment for transmission systems
(b) What are the specifications of load compensation?
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Set No. 4
Max Marks: 80
Answer any Five Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
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2. (a) Describe exact coordination equation and derive the penalty factor
(b) A system consisting of two generating plants. The incremental costs in Rs/ MWh with
PG21 and PG22 in MW are
dC1
= 0.006 PG1 + 7.2 and
dPG1
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dC 2
= 0.01PG 2 + 5
dPG 2
The system is operating on economic dispatch with PG1 = PG2 = 350 MW and
PL
= 0.25 . Find the penalty factor of plant 1.
PG 2
3. In a two plant operation system, the hydro plant is operate for 8 hrs during each day and
the steam plant is operate all over the day. The characteristics of the steam and hydro
plants are
CT = 0.025 PGT2+14 PGT + 12 Rs/hr
wH =0.002 PGH2+28 PGH m3/ sec
When both plants are running, the power flow from steam plant to load is 200 MW
and the total quantity of water is used for the hydro plant operation during 8 hrs is
220106 m3. Determine the generation of hydro plant and cost of water used. Neglect the
transmission losses.
4. (a) Derive state space second order mathematical model of synchronous machine.
(b) Draw the block diagram of IEEE type-I excitation model and explain its functioning.
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Set No. 4
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7. Draw the block diagram of single area LFC system with integral control and prove that
the steady state change in frequency is zero.
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Set No. 1
Max Marks: 80
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2. (a) Define the term Transducer and explain why the output of a transducer should be
in electrical form?
(b) Explain the Thermo Couple laws and also their practical significance.
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3. Explain, with neat sketches the construction and working principle of Mc Leod
and Ionization gauges.
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5. (a) Explain the principle of operation of AC Tachometer generator with a neat sketch.
(b) Describe the basic concept of Seismic instrument and explain how it can be used
for Acceleration measurement.
6. (a) Differentiate between Strain Gauge and Strain gauge rosette.
(b) Derive an Equation for un- balanced voltage of Wheatstone bridge and explain how
the sensitivity varies with number of arms made active.
7. (a) How do you measure the moisture content of gases? Explain with a neat sketch.
(b) How do you classify dynamometers? Explain any one type of dynamometers.
8. (a) Differentiate between Closed loop and Open loop Control systems with examples.
(b) What is a servomechanism? Explain.
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Set No. 2
Max Marks: 80
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2. (a) What do you mean by Piezo electric effect? What are the applications of Piezo
electric effect?
(b) Explain the principle of operation of the following devices for displacement
measurement with neat sketches:
(i) LVDT and (ii) Capacitive type
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3. Explain with neat sketches the construction and working principle of Mc Leod
and Ionization gauges for low (vacuum) Pressure measurement.
4. (a) What is hot wire Anemometer? Explain its working with neat sketch.
(b) Describe the working of electrical resistance and bubbler purge type level indicators.
5. (a) Derive an expression for the output of a seismic instrument. Indicate when the
output measures the
(i)
acceleration and
(ii)
amplitude of the input quantity.
(b) Compare AC and DC Tachometers with neat sketches.
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Set No. 2
6. (a) How do you classify Strain gauges? What do you mean by Gauge Factor?
(b) Explain the method of measuring force using Strain gauges.
7. (a) Define the various terms related to humidity and explain the working of any one
absorption hygrometer.
(b) Explain the principle of working of Load Cells using Strain gauges.
8. Write short notes on the following:
(a)
Closed loop Control System.
(b)
Transfer Function and
(c)
Position control system.
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Set No. 3
Max Marks: 80
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2. (a) What are the various ways in which variation in Capacitance principle can be
used to construct displacement transducers? Explain with neat sketches.
(b) With the help of a neat sketch explain the working of an optical Pyrometer.
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3. (a) Describe the measurement of absolute and differential pressure using bellows gauges.
(b) Explain the principle of working of Pirani gauge for low pressure measurement.
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5. (a) With the help of neat sketches explain the working of any Two non contact type
Tachometers.
(b) What is the basic difference in design and application between Vibrometer and
Accelerometer.
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Set No. 4
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******`
1. (a) What is a Transducer? Explain why the output of a transducer should be in electrical
form?
(b) Explain briefly:
i)
Static Sensitivity,
ii)
Threshold and Resolution.
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3. (a) Explain the working of a very high pressure measuring device (Bridgeman gauge).
(b) Enumerate the various manometers that exist and explain the working of any one
manometer with neat sketch.
4. (a) Describe the principle of operation of Ultrasonic and electrical resistance type level
indicators.
(b) With the help of a neat sketch explain the principle of operation of Turbine flow
meter.
5. (a) Describe the working of Dc tachometer generators and Stroboscopes.
(b) Why and how vibrations are measured?
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Set No. 4
6. (a) What do you mean by bonded and unbounded Strain gauges? Explain.
(b) Explain how bending compressive and tensile strains can be measured by strain
gauges.
7. (a) Explain the working of Hydraulic and Pneumatic Load Cells.
(b) Explain one method of measurement of moisture content of gases.
8. (a) With suitable examples, bring out the advantages of closed loop systems over
open loop systems
(b) Explain why negative feedback is invariably preferred in closed loop systems?
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Set No. 1
1.
2.
Max Marks: 80
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[8]
[8]
[8]
[8]
3.
(a) What is Doppler Effect? Explain it with an example? What are its Radar applications? [8]
(b) Distinguish between CW Radar and Pulsed Radar.
[8]
4.
(a) With a neat block diagram, explain how CW Radar is used for determination of relative
velocity of target.
[8]
(b) Determine the acceleration of a target if the received signal bandwidth is 40Hz and the
operating wave length is 9cms.
[8]
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5.
(a) Draw the block diagram of non coherent MTI Radar and explain the function of each block.
(b) What are the advantages of non-coherent MTI Radar?
[10+6]
6.
(a) Give the basic reasons for poor tracking at low angle.
(b) Compare the tracking techniques.
7.
Explain the principle and characteristics of a matched filter. Hence derive the expression for its
frequency response function.
[16]
8.
(a) Explain the different types of feeds and their radiation characteristics suitable to radar dish
antennas.
[8]
(b) List out the merits and demerits of phased array antennas.
[8]
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Set No. 2
1.
Max Marks: 80
2.
(a) Explain the significance of probability of false alarm and probability of miss. [8]
(b) Explain about the integration of radar pulses.
[8]
3.
(a) Explain with necessary block schematics and analysis, how Doppler direction is
Identified with CW Radar.
[8]
(b) Explain the Non zero IF receivers with a neat diagram compare it with zero IF
Receiver
[8]
4.
(a) Draw the block diagram of FM CW Radar and explain its operation with triangular
modulation.
[8]
(b) Differentiate CW and FMCW Radars.
[8]
5.
6.
7.
[8]
[8]
8.
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[8]
[8]
[8]
[8]
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Set No. 3
1.
Max Marks: 80
2.
(a) Define and explain transmitter power in Radar equation and express the Radar
equation in terms of the energy contained in the transmitted wave form.
[8]
(b) What do you mean by false alarm? What are the design precautions to be taken to
minimize it?
[8]
3.
(a) Draw the block diagram of CW Doppler radar with non zero IF receiver and explain
its principle of operation.
[10]
(b) With a transmit frequency of 5GHz.Calculate the Doppler frequency seen by a
stationary Radar when the target radial velocity is 100 Km/hr (62.5mph)
[6]
4.
5.
(a) Draw and explain the frequency response characteristics of an MTI using range gates
and filters.
[8]
(b) Distinguish between the MTI Radar using range gates and an MTI with a single delay
line canceller.
[8]
6.
[10]
[6]
7.
[ 8]
[8]
8.
[16]
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Set No. 4
1.
Max Marks: 80
2.
(a) Obtain the basic radar equation in terms of minimum detectable power gains of
transmitting and receiving antennas.
[8]
(b) Discuss the factors governing the relationship between the radar cross section of a target
and its true cross section.
[8]
3.
(a) Draw the block diagram and explain the operation of CW Radar with side band super
heterodyne receiver.
[8]
(b) Discuss the limitations of simple CW Radar with zero IF.
[8]
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4.
5.
6.
(a) Explain the block diagram of amplitude comparison mono pulse for extracting error
signals in both elevation and azimuth.
[10]
(b) What are the advantages of mono pulse radar over conical scan radar?
[6]
7.
8.
Write notes on
(a)
Duplexers
(b)
Phased Array Antenna
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[6]
[6]
[ 4]
[16]
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Set No. 1
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
1. (a) Describe in detail about the steps and buffers when an application writes to TCP
socket.
(b) Explain about UDP in detail.
[8+8]
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2. (a) Give in detail about socket and different socket address structures.
(b) Discuss different elementary TCP sockets in detail.
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[8+8]
[8+8]
[8+8]
[8+8]
6. (a) Discuss in detail about domain name server and entries in DNS.
(b) Describe in detail about obsolete IPV6 address lookup functions.
[8+8]
[8+8]
8. (a) Discuss in detail about pseudo terminals and about recording process with pseudo
terminals and about recording process with pseudo terminals.
(b) Explain about control terminals in detail.
[8+8]
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Set No. 2
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
[8+8]
[8+8]
[8+8]
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[8+8]
[8+8]
[8+8]
[8+8]
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Set No. 3
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
[8+8]
[8+8]
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[8+8]
[8+8]
[8+8]
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Set No. 4
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
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[8+8]
[8+8]
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[8+8]
[8+8]
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Set No. 1
Max Marks: 80
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4. What are iterative convergence methods? Discuss the method of False position for solving
the algebraic equation. What are the relative merits of this method over other methods?
7. Write the equation for binary distillation column. Assumptions such as equimolal over flow,
constant relative volatility and theoretical plates can be made. Discuss the simulation logic.
8. Write model equations for counter current heat exchanger and explain the application of the
simulation methods to solve these equations.
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Set No. 2
1.
Max Marks: 80
B
The concentration of component A in the inflowing feed stream be CAO and in the reactor CA.
Assuming a simple first order reaction, the rate of consumption of reactant A per unit volume
will be directly proportional to the instantaneous concentration of A in the tank. Write the
component continuity equations (component balances) and the total continuity equation (mass
balance) for the above system.
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2.
A fluid of constant density is pumped at a flow rate Fo into a cone shaped tank of total
volume HR2/3 where H and R are height and radius of the conical tank respectively. The
flow out of the bottom of the tank F is proportional to the square root of the height h of the
liquid in the tank. Derive the equations describing the system.
3.
Develop a mathematical model for an ideal binary distillation column, stating the assumptions
involved. What are the degrees of freedom?
4.
What are the iterative methods for the solution of simultaneous linear equations. Explain the
Gauss-Seidels method and its merits.
5.
Indicate the different numerical integration methods. Discuss in detail Runge Kutta method.
6.
7.
Write model equation for batch reactor and explain the application of the simulation methods
to solve these equations.
8.
Discuss the general Newton-Raphson algorithm to determine the bubble point temperature
for a binary system of components 1 and 2. Assume the system is ideal, Raoults and Daltons
laws are applicable.
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Set No. 3
Max Marks: 80
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3. Develop liquid phase dynamic model for single component vaporizer. State the
assumptions clearly.
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5. The height h of a liquid in a gravity flow tank and the liquid velocity v leaving
through the outlet of the tank are given by the following equations.
dv/dt = ph qv2
dh/dt = r sv
where p,q,r and s are constants. Explain the procedure to solve these equations for
v and h by fourth order Runge Kutta method.
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Set No. 3
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Set No. 4
Max Marks: 80
Answer any FIVE Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
1. Consider a plug-flow tubular reactor and keep track of temperature changes as the fluid
flows down the pipe. Assume no radial gradients in velocity, concentration, or temperature
(a very poor assumption in some strongly exothermic systems if the pipe diameter is not
kept small). Suppose that the reactor has a cooling jacket around it as shown in the figure
below. Heat can be transferred from the process fluid reactants and products at
temperature T to the metal wall of the reactor at temperature TM. The heat is subsequently
transferred to the cooling water. Write the process energy equation. State all assumptions
made and explain the notation scheme used in the below figure..
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Set No. 4
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6. Use the method of least squares to fit the best equation of the type Nu = a Prn to the
following data.
Pr
0.46 0.53 0.63 0.74 4.2
5.6
3.0
5.0
Nu
24.8 26.5 28.5 30.0 60.3 69.0 58.4 70.7
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7. Discuss the simulation method of the gravity flow tank system for which the velocity of
the fluid passing through an outlet pipe (V) and the liquid head (h) in the tank are
described by the following differential equations:
dV
dh
= c1h c2V 2 ;
= c3 c4V , where c1, c2, c3 and c4 are constants obtained from the
dt
dt
physical dimensions of the tank and the fluid properties.
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8. Write model equations for non isothermal CSTR and explain the application of the
simulation methods to solve these equations.
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Set No. 1
[8+4+4]
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3. Design a stick diagram and layout for two input CMOS NAND gate indicating all
the regions & layers
[16]
4. Describe three sources of wiring capacitances. Explain the effect of wiring capacitance on the performance of a VLSI circuit.
[16]
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5. (a) Draw the schematic for tiny XOR gate and explain its operation.
(b) Draw the circuit diagram for 4-by-4 barrel shifter using complementary transmission gates and explain its shifting operation.
[8+8]
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6. (a) Draw and explain the Vialink Structure for programming the PAL device.
(b) What is CLB? Draw and explain the structure of it and also explain how these
are used in FPGA.
[8+8]
7. (a) Write a architecture for a 4- bit Counter in both behavioral and structural
styles.
(b) Explain with example how mixed mode simulator are more for CMOS circuits
testing.
[8+8]
8. (a) Explain different fault models in detail.
(b) Draw the general view of the TAP data register and explain how a boundary
scan register is used for testing.
[8+8]
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Set No. 2
[8+8]
2. (a) Discuss the latch up in CMOS circuits with p- well and n well structure.
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(b) Why BiCMOS circuits are less likely to be suffering from latch up problem?
Justify.
[8+8]
3. Draw the CMOS representation, stick diagram for the following Expression
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(a) A (B + C)
(b) AB + C.
[8+8]
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4. Describe three sources of wiring capacitances. Explain the effect of wiring capacitance on the performance of a VLSI circuit.
[16]
5. (a) Design a comparator using XNOR and AND gate and draw its schematic.
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(b) Design a zero/one detector and draw its schematic and also calculate its delay.
[8+8]
6. (a) Draw a self timed dynamic PLA and what are the advantages of it compared
to footed dynamic PLA.
(b) Explain the tradeoffs between using a transmission gate or a tristate buffer to
implement an FPGA routing block.
[8+8]
7. (a) What are the different bitwise operators that available in VHDL and write its
syntax with suitable examples?
(b) Explain the method of Circuit simulation for CMOS circuits and name such
simulators.
[8+8]
8. (a) Explain how an improved layout can be reduced faults in CMOS circuits.
(b) Explain how a pseudo random sequence generator may be used to test a 16-bit
data path. How would the outputs be collected and checked.
[6+10]
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Set No. 3
[16]
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[8+8]
[8+8]
[8+8]
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(b) Draw and explain the structure of multiplier which computes the partial products in a radix-2 manner.
[8+8]
6. (a) How are AND ? OR gates used to construct the Programmable CMOS devices?
(b) What are the advantages of Standard-cell designs compared to gate arrays?
What are the fundamental components of Standard-cell?
[8+8]
7. (a) What are the advantages of Hardware Description Languages and give some
examples?
(b) Explain the different types of simulators used to predict and verify the performance of given circuit.
[8+8]
8. (a) Explain the gate level and function level of testing.
(b) A sequential circuit with ?n? inputs and m storage devices. To test this
circuit how many test vectors are required.
(c) What is sequential fault grading? Explain how it is analyzed.
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Set No. 4
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(b) Show that the pull up to pull down ratio of an nMOS inverter driven through
one or more pass transistors is 8:1.
[8+8]
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3. What is a stick diagram and explain about different symbols used for components
in stick diagram. With a suitable example.
[16]
4. Explain all the propagation delays of pass transistors. Suggest remedies to reduce
the problems due to propagation delays in MOS circuits.
[16]
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5. (a) Design a synchronous up/down counter using D register and an adders. Draw
the schematic for D register.
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(b) How many Full adders, Half adders and AND gates are required for n x n
multiplier and What is the worst-case delay?
[10+6]
6. (a) Compare the Antifuse and Vialink programmable interconnections for PAL
devices.
(b) What are different typically available SSI Standard-cell types and compare
them.
[8+8]
7. (a) Compare the Concurrent signal assignments, sequential signal assignments
and process statements.
(b) Why resettable registers are preferable and what is the difference between
Synchronous and Asynchronous resets?
[8+8]
8. (a) Why stuck-at faults occur in CMOS circuits? Explain with suitable logical
diagram and layout.
(b) Draw a schematic for a CMOS edge-sensitive scan-register and also draw some
circuit level diagrams of its implementation.
[8+8]
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Set No. 1
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2. (a) What is the relation between error probability of 1-NN rule and Bayes probability of error.
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(b) Explain the stylized character recognition system with the help of flow chart.
[8+8]
3. (a) Distinguish between consistent and inconsistent inequalities.
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[8+8]
4. (a) Explain how the speed of convergence in the Robbin Monro algorithm is increased.
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(b) Explain how Robbin Monro algorithm can be directly extended to multidimensional case.
[8+8]
5. (a) Give the transformation matrix used to rotate an image by 450 clockwise. How
would this transformation is used to achieve the desired image rotation
(b) Write short notes on sampling & quantization of an image.
[8+8]
6. (a) Name and explain different methods available for image enhancement in spatial domain and frequency domain.
(b) Explain the concept of enhancement by point processing using suitable example.
[8+8]
7. (a) How do you measure information?
(b) Describe the compression of image by eliminating coding redundancy [4+12]
8. (a) What is meant by image segmentation? Mention the applications of image
segmentation.
[4+4]
(b) Explain about detection of discontinuities.
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Set No. 2
[8+8]
2. Assume that the following pattern classes have normal probability density functions:
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w1 : {(0, 0)0 , (2, 0)0 , (2, 2)0 , (0, 2)0 }andW2 : {(4, 4)0 , (6, 4)0 , (6, 6)0 , (4, 6)0 }
(a) Assuming P(W1 ) = P(W2 ) = 12 , obtain the equation of the Bayes decision
boundary between these two classes.
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[12+4]
3. Apply the perceptron algorithm to find the solution vector for the following pattern classes: 1 : {(0, 0)1 , (1, 0)1 }and2 : {(0, 1)1 , (1, 1)1 }. Sketch the decision surface
obtained, and indicate the positive side of the separating surface.
[10+6]
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4. Discuss Robbins-monro algorithm for pattern classification and extend the algorithm to multi - dimensional case.
[16]
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5. (a) Define baud rate. Generally, transmission is accomplished in packets consisting of a start bit, a byte of information and a stop bit. Using this approach,
i. what is the amount of time required to transmit 512 x 512 image with
256 gray level at 300 bauds.
ii. what would the time be at 9600 bauds
(b) Consider the image segment shown below.
3 1 2 1 (q)
2 2 0 2
1 2 1 1
(p) 1 0 1 2
obtain D4 , D8 , and Dm distances between p and q. Let V = {0,1}
[8+8]
6. (a) Explain the meaning of histogram equalization. Give an example where the
histogram equalization technique compresses the discrete gray level range of
an image.
(b) Show that crispened image can be obtained by convolving it with the mask
0 -1 0
-1 5 -1
[8+8]
0 -1 0
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Set No. 2
[8]
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Set No. 3
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2. (a) Explain how minimum distance classification is useful for classifying different
pattern classes.
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[8+8]
(b) Explain how the statistical considerations incorporated into the syntactic approach to account for measurement of random noise.
[8+8]
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5. (a) With the help of a block diagram explain the different stages of image processing and analysis schemes along with the information flow from each block.
(b) Differentiate the spatial image enhancement and image enhancement in frequency domain?
[8+8]
6. (a) Explain in detail image averaging.
[4]
(b) What is the use of smoothing the image? What are the different methods to
smoothen the image?
[5+7]
7. Briefly write about the lossless predictive coding and lossy predictive coding. Compare their applications.
[10+6]
8. (a) A binary image contains straight lines oriented horizontally, vertically diagonally at 450 and - 450 . Give a set of 3 x 3 masks that can be used to detect
one -pixel-long breaks in these lines. Assume that the gray level of the lines
is 1 and that the gray level of the background is 0.
(b) Prove that the average value of the Laplacian operator
2
2 2
r
r
2
h =
exp 2
is zero.
2
4
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[8+8]
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Set No. 4
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[8+8]
2. (a) Explain how minimum distance classification is useful for classifying different
pattern classes.
(b) Explain the maximin distance algorithm for pattern classification.
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[8+8]
[6+10]
4. (a) Can you construct context free grammar for even palinrome? If so, write the
grammar? If not give the reasons.
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(b) Can you construct a regular grammar for odd palinrome? If so write the
grammar? If not give the reasons.
[8+8]
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5. (a) With the help of a block diagram explain the different stages of image processing and analysis schemes along with the information flow from each block.
(b) Differentiate the spatial image enhancement and image enhancement in frequency domain?
[8+8]
6. Explain in detail the different derivative operators used for image sharpening.[16]
7. Briefly write about the lossless predictive coding and lossy predictive coding. Compare their applications.
[10+6]
8. (a) What is meant by high pass filter? Explain the role of it in image segmentation?
(b) How do you choose the masks for isolating the image pixels which are part of
the boundary?
[8+8]
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Set No. 1
Max Marks: 80
[16]
2. Give brief summary of air craft wing loads and explain variable swept wing of air craft.
[16]
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[16]
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4. (a) How do you calculate the effective width of skin per side of stringer for
[12+4]
(i)
Bending
(ii)
Hydrostatic pressure
(iii) Torsion
(b) Explain transverse shear general instability in combined torsion and bending
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5. (a) How the structural idealization is help full for analysis of structures.
[4+12]
(b) Part of a wing section is in the form of the two-cell box shown in Fig. 1 in
which the vertical spars are connected to the wing skin through angle sections all
having a cross-sectional area of 300mm2. Idealize the section into an arrangement of
direct stress carrying booms and shear stress only carrying panels suitable for
resisting bending moments in a vertical plane. Position the booms at the spar/skin
junctions.
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6.
Set No. 1
Tricycle of landing gear shown in Fig.2. Find the forces Gv, Fv, Hd, Fd, Hv of brace
struts. Assume the data if necessary.
[16]
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7. Write a procedure for setting up the reliability block diagram (RBD) for a system with
Four levels.
[16]
8. The load on a landing gear bolt consists of an axial pull of 8kN together with a
transverse shear force of 4kN.Estimate the diameter of the bolt required according to
(i) maximum shear stress theory(ii) shear energy theory and (iii) shear strain energy
theory. Assume elastic limit in tension as 240 N/mm2, Poissons ratio=0.3 and a factor
of safety of 3.
[16]
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Set No. 2
Max Marks: 80
Answer any Five Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
1. Explain in detail what are the design considerations while design the aircrafts?
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3. Write the Design procedure of landing gear wheels and tires with the help of
Sketches.
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[16]
[16]
[16]
4. A 762 mm radius circular cross-section fuselage having 0.8mm skin thickness and 16
number of stringers are equally placed around the circumference. The stringers
number 1 and 9 are placed on y-axis, number 5 and 13 are placed on x-axis. The crosssectional area of each stringer is 100mm2 and the vertical distances from mid line of
the section wall to stringer number (1) is 381.0mm, (2) and (16) is 352.0mm, (3) and
(15) is 269.5mm, (4) and (14) is 145.8mm. If the fuselage is subjected to a vertical
shear load of 150KN applied at a distance of 100mm from vertical axis of symmetry.
Calculate the distribution of shear flow in the section.
[16]
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5. Find the shear centre for the wing section shown in figure. Web 3 has a thickness
1.6mm, and the other webs have thickness of 1mm. Assume G is constant for all crosssections. The cross section is symmetrical about a horizontal.
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6.
Set No. 2
(a) Explain the working procedure of oleo strut? Explain construction detail with neat
sketch.
(b) Explain design procedure for landing gear.
[8+8]
[16]
8. A thin cylindrical shell 2.5 m in diameter is composed of plates 12.5 mm thick .The
Yield stress of for the material is 300 N/mm2.Calculate the internal pressure which
would cause yielding according to the following theories of failure.
(a)
Maximum shear stress,
(b)
Maximum strain energy,
[16]
(c)
Maximum shear strain energy. Poissons ratio=0.25.
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Set No. 3
Max Marks:80
Answer any Five Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
1. Explain about discussion of optimum design which leads the engineer in the right
direction in pursing light weight structures?
[16]
2. (a) Explain fail safe design of air craft wing with the help of figures.
(b) Explain ribs and bulk heads of air craft wing.
[8+8]
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3. Explain the terms Ground Handling and take-off in order to understand the varied
design considerations of landing gear.
4. Explain
(a) Skin instability
(b) Panel instability
(c) General instability
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[16]
[4+6+6]
5. The thin-walled single cell beam has been idealized into a combination of direct
stress carrying booms and shear stress only carrying walls. If the section supports a
vertical shear load of 10KN acting vertical plane through booms 3 and 6. Calculate
the distribution of shear flow around the section. Boom areas: B1 = B8 = 200mm2,B2
= B7 = 250mm2, B3=B6=400mm2, B4 = B5=100mm2
(Fig. 1)
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Set No. 3
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[16]
8. The load on a bolt consists of an axial pull of 10kN together with a transverse shear
force of 5kN. Find the diameter of bolt required according to
(i) Maximum shear stress theory
(ii) Maximum strain energy theory and
(iii)Maximum distortion energy theory.
[16]
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Set No. 4
Max Marks: 80
Answer any Five Questions
All Questions carry equal marks
*******
[16]
2. (a) Explain what is Monocoque and semi- Monocoque cylinders with the help of figures.
(b) Explain the need of Monocoque cylinders in Aero Space Industry and also write
applications.
[8+8]
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(c)
(d)
Boeing B747
Lock head C-5
C-141
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5. The thin-walled single cell beam has been idealized into a combination of direct stress
carrying booms and shear stress only carrying walls. If the section supports a vertical
shear load of 10KN acting vertical plane through booms 2 and 7. Calculate the
distribution of shear flow around the section. Each Boom area = 200mm2 (Fig.1) [16]
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Set No. 4
6. Calculate the forces (TE, CG, CGv, CGD, BI, BIv, BIS, ES, ED, EV) on the oleo strut
shown in Fig.2. Assume the data if necessary.
[ 16 ]
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7. Show that for a three parameter weibull distribution, also the time scale parameter
can be determined (Graphically) on a weibull probability chart.
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[16]
8. In a steel member, at a point the major principal stress is 180MN/mm2, and the minor
Principal stress is compressive. If the tensile yield point of the steel is 225MN/m2,
find the value of the minor principal stress at which yielding will commence,
according to each of the following
(i) Maximum shear stress
(ii) Maximum strain theory and
(iii) Maximum shear strain energy. Take Poissons ratio=0.26
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Set No. 1
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(b) What is action potential? Where it is originated in the heart? What is the
importance of action potential in heart function.
[8+8]
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6. (a) Explain the clinical value of the EEG and also describe the various characteristics of an abnormal EEG.
(b) Discuss about the type of electrodes used in the measurement of EEG and
also different locations of these electrodes on the skull in order to take the
EEG.
[8+8]
7. (a) What is fibrillation? With a schematic diagram, explain the working of a DC
fibrillator.
(b) Write brief note on the following:
i. Defibrillator electrodes
ii. Implantable defibrillators.
[8+8]
8. (a) With a neat block diagram explain the different elements involved in the biotelemetry.
(b) What are the problems associated with the implant telemetry circuits. [8+8]
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Set No. 2
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[8+8]
[8+8]
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(b) Give the six positions of the chest electrodes used in the precordial lead system.
[10+6]
6. (a) List out typical EEG recording artifacts.
(b) With a neat block diagram explain the principle of operation of an EEG
telemetry system.
[6+10]
7. (a) Explain in detail the defibrillation with necessary circuit and waveform.
(b) With a neat diagram describe the working of shortwave diathermy.
[8+8]
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Set No. 3
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2. (a) With the help of a neat sketch explain about the physiology of the heart.
(b) What are the different parts and how bioelectrical potentials are generated
within it?
[8+8]
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(b) With neat sketches explain the sources of noise while recording low level signals?
[6+10]
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[8+8]
(b) Explain in detail the different waves, segments and intervals associated with
the ECG waveform. Also give their normal values.
[6+10]
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Set No. 4
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2. (a) Give the classification of heart sounds based on their origin and explain briefly
about each.
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[10+6]
3. (a) Explain any one type of amplifier used for biomedical amplification?
(b) What are the different elements of electrostatic recorder. Explain briefly with
a neat diagram?
[6+10]
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[8+8]
5. (a) Derive the relationship between the standard limb leads and the augmented
limb leads.
(b) Discuss the interpretation of any four abnormalities diagnosed using ECG,
giving the waveforms in each case.
[8+8]
6. (a) List out typical EEG recording artifacts.
(b) With a neat block diagram explain the principle of operation of an EEG
telemetry system.
[6+10]
7. (a) With the help of a neat block diagram explain the working of an external
pacemaker.
(b) Write short notes on short wave diathermy.
[8+8]
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Set No. 1
[16]
2. Detail then various methods available for estimating the precision, accuracy and
stability of enzyme sensors.
[16]
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3. Explain in detail the principle and construction and operation of optical fiber
biosensors.
[16]
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3. Write the principle involved and various biological recognition elements utilized in
resistometric transducers system.
[16]
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4. Give details about the fabrication and working of surface transverse wave (STW)
transducers.
[16]
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5. Give details about neurotoxic pesticides in plants, explain the monitoring and detection pesticide content by amperometric biosensors.
[16]
6. Is flow injection analysis (FIA) system can be consider as potent tool of measuring
byproducts on line.
[16]
7. What are molecular arrays? Explain how molecular arrays are used as memory
stores.
[16]
8. What are biomolecular photonic computers? Explain the advantages over conventional computers.
[16]
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Set No. 3
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[8+8]
4. Give details about the fabrication and working of surface transverse wave (STW)
transducers.
[16]
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[4+12]
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4. Write in detail about the construction and operation of surface acoustic wave (SAW)
transducers.
[16]
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