3

GUJ-CET (Medical) Mock Test-1

GUJ-CET
MEDICAL ENTRANCE
MOCK TEST

Physics
1. An electric dipole is placed in a non-uniform

4. An electric kettle has two coils in parallel.

electric field increasing along the +ve direction

of y-axis. In which direction does the dipole (i)
more (ii) rotate ?

When one of these is switched on, the water

boils in 6 min when the other coil is switched
on the water boils in 3 min. If both of them are
switched on simultaneously, how much time
will be taken to boil the water ?
(a) 2 min
(b) 1.5 min
(c) 1 min
(d) 0.5 min
5. Figure shows three parallel wires carrying
currents as shown. The force on the wire b is :

x'

+q

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(i) Along the x-axis (ii) Clockwise

(i) Along ve x-axis (ii) Clockwise
(i) Along + ve x-axis (ii) Anticlockwise
(i) Along ve x-axis (ii) Anticlockwise

2. Force acting on a test charge between the

plates of a parallel plate capacitor is F. If one of

the plates is removed, then the force on the
same test charge will be :
(a) zero
(b) F
(c) 2 F
(d) F/2
3. The V-I graph for a conductor at temperatures
T1 and T2 are as shown in figure (T2 T1 ) is
proportional to :
T2
V

T1

(a) cos 2
(c) cot 2

(b) sin 2
(d) tan 2

2A

4A

2A

(a) towards c
(b) towards a
(c) zero
(d) perpendicular to current
6. A dip circle is placed in a plane perpendicular
to the magnetic meridian. The apparent angle
of dip is :
(a) 0
(b) 90
(c) 45
(d) 60
7. A square wave current switching rapidly
between + 0. 5 A and 0. 5 A is passed through
an AC ammeter. Then the reading shown by it,
is :
(a) 0. 25 A
(b) 0. 5 A
0. 5
(c)
(d) 0. 5 2 A
A
2
8. Which one of the following depicts the output
emf from a single coil DC dynamo ?

GUJ-CET (Medical) Mock Test-1

12. An air bubble inside a glass slab ( = 1.5)

(a)
13.

(b)

14.

(c)
15.

(d)
9. When a polaroid is rotated the intensity of light

varies but never reduces to zero. It shows that

the incident light is :
(a) completely plane polarised
(b) partially plane polarised
(c) unpolarised
(d) none of the above
10. In a thin air film 8 fringes occurs between two

points. The light is incident normally on the

film. The wavelength of light is 500 nm. What
is the difference in thickness of the film
between two points ?
(a) 4 m
(b) 2 mm
(c) 2 cm
(d) none of these
11. The resolution limit of the eye is 1 min. At a

distance x km from the eye, two persons stand

with a lateral separation of 3 m. For the two
persons to be just resolved by the naked eye, x
should be :
(a) 10 km
(b) 15 km
(c) 20 km
(d) 30 km

16.

appears at 6 cm when viewed from one side

and 4 cm when viewed from the opposite side.
The thickness of the slab is :
(a) 10 cm
(b) 6.67 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) none of these
Two plano-convex lenses of radius of curvature
R and refractive index = 1. 5 will have
equivalent focal length equal to R, when, they
are placed :
R
(a) at distance
4
R
(b) at distance
2
(c) at distance R
(d) in contact with each other
The lattice constant of a crystal is 0.4 nm
X-rays are incident on the crystal and first
order reflection is obtained at the grazing angle
30. What is the wavelength of the X-rays?
(a) 0.1 nm
(b) 0.2 nm
(c) 0.4 nm
(d) 0.8 nm
What is the difference in the angular
momentum associated with the electron in the
two successive orbits of the hydrogen atom ?
h
h
(a)
(b)

2
h
(c)
(d) h
2
In stable nuclei, the number of neutrons (N ) is
related to the number of protons (Z ) in neutral
atom in general as :
(a) N < Z
(b) N = Z
(c) N > Z
(d) N Z

17. The nuclear reaction 48 Cd107 47 Ag107 can

occur with the :

(a) electron capture (b) positron capture
(c) proton emission (d) -particle emission
18. A radioactive element X with half-life of 2 h,
decays giving a stable element Y . After how
many hours the ratio of X to Y will be 1 : 7 ?
(a) 6 h
(b) 8 h
(c) 10 h
(d) 12 h
19. In a silicon transistor the base-current is
changed by 20 A and this changes the
emitter-base voltage by 0. 02 V and the
collector current changes by 2 mA. If the
transistor is used as an amplifier with load
resistance 5 k, what is the voltage gain ?
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 250
(d) 500

GUJ-CET (Medical) Mock Test-1

20. What is the nature of net charge on n-type

26. 9 g of silver is deposited in 20 min by a battery

semiconductor ?
(a) Negative
(b) Positive
(c) Neutral
(d) May be negatively or positively charged
depending on amount of impurity
21. Six identical capacitors are joined in parallel,
charged to a potential difference of 10 V,
separated and then connected in series, i . e. , the
positive plate of one is connected to the
negative plate of other. Then, potential
difference between free plates is :
(a) 10 V
(b) 30 V
10
(c) 60 V
(d)
V
6
22. In a region of space having a uniform electric
field E, a hemispherical bowl of radius r is
placed. The electric flux through the bowl is :
(a) 2 rE
(b) 4 r2E
(c) 2 r2E
(d) r2E

of 24 V . How many grams will be deposited in

40 min by a battery of 8 V ?
(a) 18 g
(b) 36 g
(c) 24 g
(d) 6 g
27. An electric motor operates on a 50 V supply
and a current of 12 A. If the efficiency of the
motor is 30%, what is the resistance of the
winding of the motor ?
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 2.9
(d) 3.1
28. When a straight conductor is carrying an
electric current :
(a) there are circular magnetic lines of force
around it
(b) there are magnetic lines of force near it
(c) there are magnetic lines of force parallel to
conductor along the direction of current
(d) there are magnetic lines of force parallel to
conductor opposite to the direction of
current
29. The seave of a galvanometer of resistance
100 contains 25 divisions. It gives a
deflection of 1 division on passing a current of
4 104 A. The resistance in ohm to be added
to it, so that it may become a voltmeter of range
2.5 V is :
(a) 100
(b) 150
(c) 250
(d) 300

23. A thermister is dipped in a bath whose

temperature is to be measured. When the

temperature increases the current also
increases, because of decrease in :
(a) capacitance
(b) reactance
(c) resistance
(d) resistivity
24. In a Wheatstones bridge shown in figure X = Y
and A > B. The direction of the current in a
wire connected between a and b will be from :
a
B

A
c

d
X

Y
b

(a) a to b
(b) b to a
(c) b to a through c
(d) a to b through c
25. Two identical cells send the same current in
3 resistance, whether connected in series or
in parallel. The internal resistance of the cell
should be :
(a) 1
(b) 3
1
(c)
(d) 3.5
2

30. A ball magnet has a magnetic moment 2.5 JT 1

and is suspended in a magnetic field of 0. 2 T.

Work done in turning the magnet from parallel
to antiparallel position relative to the field
direction is :
(a) 0.5 J
(b) 1 J
(c) 2.0 J
(d) zero
31. A coil of wire of certain radius has 100 turns
and a self-inductance of 15 mH. The
self-inductance of a second similar coil of 500
turns will be :
(a) 75 mH
(b) 375 mH
(c) 15 mH
(d) none of these
32. If the coils of a transformer are made up of
thick wire, then :
(a) eddy currents loss will be more
(b) magnetic flux leakage is reduced
(c) Joules heating loss is increased
(d) Joules heating loss is reduced

GUJ-CET (Medical) Mock Test-1

33. In an electromagnetic wave, the direction of

the magnetic induction B is :

(a) parallel to the electric field E

(b) perpendicular to the electric field E

(c) antiparallel to the electric field E

(d) random
34. Diffraction maxima appear in some specific
directions which obey certain conditions
known as :
(a) Braggs conditions
(b) Lanes equations
(c) Davissons conditions
(d) none of the above
35. The thermo emf of a thermocouple is 25 V / C
at room temperature. A galvanometer of 40
resistance capable of detecting current as low
as 105 A, is connected with the thermocouple.
The smallest temperature difference then can
be detected by the system is :
(a) 16 C
(b) 12 C
(c) 8 C
(d) 20 C
36. The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic
substance at 73 C is 0. 0060, then its value at
173 C will be :
(a) 0.0030
(b) 0.0120
(c) 0.0180
(d) 0.0045

37. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with

proton changes by 0. 25%, if its momentum is

changed by p0 . The initial momentum was :
(a) 100 p0
(b) p0 /400
(c) 40/p0
(d) p0 /100
38. With increasing quantum number, the energy
difference between adjacent energy levels in
atoms :
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
(d) decreases for low Z and increases for high Z
39. What is the output Y of the gate circuit shown
in the figure ?
A
Y
B

(a) A B

(b) A B

(c) A B

(d) none of these

40. With reference to ionospheric propagation, an

electromagnetic wave with a critical frequency

of 15 MHz and incident at an angle of 45 will
have MUF of :
(a) 15 MHz
(b) 15/ 2 MHz
(c) 15 2 MHz
(d) none of these

Chemistry
1. If dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion

medium is liquid, the colloidal type will be :

(a) emulsion
(b) gel
(c) aerosol
(d) sol
2. 400 mL of standard gold sol is just prevented

from coagulation by the addition of 0.96 g of

starch before adding 1 mL of 10% NaCl
solution, the gold number will be :
(a) 2.4
(b) 76
(c) 240
(d) 24
3. Among the following sweetener which one has

the lowest sweetness value?

(a) Alitame
(b) Aspartame
(c) Saccharine
(d) Sucralose
4. A reaction is spontaneous if :

(a) G system < 0

(c) Ssystem < 0

(b) G system > 0

(d) Ssystem > 0

5. The efficiency of packing is 68% in :

(a) hcp structure

(b) ccp structure
(c) fcc structure
(d) bcc structure
6. The half-life of a reaction varies linearly with
initial concentration of the reactant. The order
of the reaction is :
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
7. In AgBr there can occur :
(a) only Schottky defect
(b) only Frenkel defect
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
8. Water gas is a mixture of :
(a) CO 2 and H2O
(b) CO and H2O
(c) CO and H2
(d) CO and N 2

GUJ-CET (Medical) Mock Test-1

9. Amides may be converted to amines by the

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

reaction named after :

(a) Perkin
(b) Claisen
(c) Hofmann
(d) Clemmensen
The product of reaction of HBr with propene
is :
(a) 1-bromopropane (b) 2-bromopropane
(c) 3-bromopropane (d) none of these
Acylation of phenols with aromatic acyl
chloride in presence of NaOH is known as :
(a) Schotten-Baumann reaction
(b) Hell-Volhard-Zelenski reaction
(c) Haloform reaction
(d) Cannizaro reaction
Hydrolysis of lactose with dilute acid yields :
(a) equimolar mixture of D-glucose and
D-glucose
(b) equimolar mixture of D-glucocse and
D-galactose
(c) equimolar mixture of D-glucose and
D-fructose
(d) equimolar mixture of D-galactose and
D-galactose
The optical isomer of a compound :
(a) have similar physical and chemical
properties
(b) have identical physical and chemical
properties
(c) are superimposable mirror images
(d) have identical physical but different
chemical properties
Nitrogen forms a variety of compounds in all
oxidation states ranging from :
(a) 3 to +5
(b) 3 to +3
(c) 3 to +4
(d) 3 to +6
Fungicides are organic compounds of :
(a) mercury
(b) fluorine
(c) lead
(d) chlorine
The characteristic colour in the flame test of
strontium is :
(a) orange
(b) brick red
(c) crimson red
(d) blood red
Acyl halides when reduced with LiAlH4 give
rise to :
(a) primary alcohols
(b) aldehydes
(c) secondary alcohols
(d) esters
Reactions of esters with Grignard reagents give
rise to :

(a) primary alcohols

(b) secondary alcohols
(c) tertiary alcohols
(d) ketones
19. Amorphous form of silica is :
(a) tridymite
(b) cristobalite
(c) fumed silica
(d) asbestos
20. For which of the following co-ordination
entities, the geometrical shape is tetrahedral?
(a) [Ni(H2O)6 ]2+
(b) [Ni(CN)4 ]2
(c) [NiCl 4 ]2

(d) [Co(CN)5 F]3

21. Which of the following is an addition polymer?

(a) nylon-6
(b) nylon-66
(c) high density polythene
(d) dacron
22. Which of the following is an ore of tin?
(a) Spodumen
(b) Malachite
(c) Calamine
(d) Cassiterite
+
23. CH3CH+
2 is more stable than CH3 . This is due

24.

25.

26.

27.

to :
(a) inductive effect
(b) electromeric effect
(c) resonance effect
(d) hyperconjugative effect
Which hydrocarbon has the highest octane
number?
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Iso-octane
(d) Triptane
Which of the following statements is correct?
An atomic orbital :
(a) is a single electron wave function
(b) describes trajectory of electron in the atom
(c) defines distribution of electron density in
space
(d) can be represented by boundary surface
diagrams.
The correct set of four quantum numbers for
the valence electron of rubidim [ Z = 37] is :
(a) n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 1 / 2
(b) n = 5, l = 1, m = 0, s = + 1 / 2
(c) n = 5, l = 1, m = 1, s = + 1 / 2
(d) n = 6, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 1 / 2
After the emission of an -particle from the
atom 238
92 X the number of neutrons in the atom
will be :
(a) 138
(c) 144

(b) 140
(d) 150

GUJ-CET (Medical) Mock Test-1

28. The electronegativity follows the order :

(a) F > O > Cl > Br

(b) F > Cl > Br > O
(c) O > F > Cl > Br
(d) Cl > F > O > Br
29. The wavelength associated with a golf ball
weighing 200 g and moving at a speed of
5 m/h is :
(a) 20.5 1010 m
(b) 2.4 1020 m
(c) 2.4 1030 m
(d) 20.5 1040 m
30. The hybridisation of atomic orbitals of nitrogen

in NO 2, NO 3 and NH+
4 are :
(a) sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively
(b) sp2, sp2 and sp3 respectively
(c) sp2, sp and sp3 respectively
(d) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively
31. Find the magnetic moment of a divalent ion in

aqueous solution if its atomic number is 25 :

(a) 3.0 BM
(b) 4.9 BM
(c) 8.9 BM
(d) 5.9 BM
32. The common features among the species
CN , CO and NO+ are :
(a) bond order three and isoelectronic
(b) bond order three and weak field ligands
(c) bond order two and -acceptors
(d) isoelectronic and weak field ligands
33. de-Broglie wavelength is related to applied
voltage as :
2me V
h
(a) =
(b) =
h
2me V
2me V
(d) none of these
h
34. Molecular shapes of SF4 , CF4 and XeF4 are :

(a) the same, with 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of

electrons respectively
(b) the same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of
electrons respectively
(c) different, with 0, 1 and 2 lone pair of
electrons respectively
(d) different, with 1, 0 and 2 lone pair of
electrons respectively
35. The correct order of Ist ionisation potential
among the elements Be, B, C, N, O is :
(a) B < Be < C < O < N
(b) B < Be < C < N < O
(c) Be < B < C < N < O
(d) Be < B < C < O < N
36. 4 g of helium is expanded from 1 atm to one
tenth of its original pressure at 30C. What is
the change in its entropy assuming it to be ideal
gas ?
(a) 19.15 JK 1
(b) 191.5 JK 1
(c) 1.915 JK 1

(d) 0.1915 JK

37. If 1.71 g of sugar (molecular mass = 342) is

dissolved in 500 cm3 of a solution at 300 K.

What will be its osmotic pressure?
(R = 0.083 L bar K 1 mol 1 )
(a) 204 bar
(b) 0.249 bar
(c) 24.9 bar
(d) 20.4 bar
38. Aspirin is :
(a) seconal
(b) barbituric acid
(c) chloroxylenol
(d) acetyl salicylic acid
39. Insulin is a :
(a) steroid hormone (b) peptide hormone
(c) amine hormone (d) vitamin
40. Gun metal is an alloy of :
(a) Cu + Zn
(b) Cu + Ag
(c) Cu + Sn + Zn
(d) Cu + Zn + Ni

(c) =

Biology
1. Hybridoma technology is used to :

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

kill the cancer cells

formation of monoclonal antibodies
formation of somatic hybrids
formation of antibiotics

2. Oxygen is transported by :

(a) blood plasma

(c) erythrocytes

(b) leucocytes
(d) thrombocytes

3. Hydrophytes are characterised by :

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

thick and large leaf

delicate and mucilagenous stem
short spinous stem
all of the above

GUJ-CET (Medical) Mock Test-1

4. Mammalian lungs contain a large number of

minute alveoli (air sacs), this is to allow :

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

(a) more space for increasing the total volume

of inspired air
(b) more surface area for diffusion of gases
(c) more spongy texture for keeping lungs in
proper shape
(d) more nerve supply to keep the organs
working more efficiently
Yeast is used in the production of :
(a) acetic acid
(b) citric acid
(c) ethyl alcohol
(d) curd
Body
tissues
obtain
oxygen
from
oxyhaemoglobin because of its dissociation
caused by :
(a) low oxygen concentration
(b) low oxygen and high carbon dioxide
concentration
(c) low carbon dioxide concentration
(d) high carbon dioxide concentration
The vaccine of hepatitis-B is a :
(a) first generation vaccine
(b) interferon
(c) second generation vaccine
(d) third generation vaccine
Testes in rabbit are :
(a) inside the body
(b) on the sides of the kidneys
(c) in scrotal sacs
(d) on either side of dorsal aorta
The term Ecosystem was coined by :
(a) E. P. Odum
(b) A.G. Tansley
(c) Carl Mobius
(d) W. Clementus
Kidneys in rabbit are :
(a) at the same level
(b) right kidney is at a higher level than left
kidney
(c) left kidney is at a higher level than right
kidney
(d) kidneys are at the level of testes
Streptomycin was isolated first time by :
(a) A. Flemming
(b) Robert Koch
(c) N. Borlaugh
(d) S. Waksman
Which is a common passage in swallowing food
and breathing ?
(a) Larynx
(b) Gullet
(c) Glottis
(d) Pharynx
Which of the following micro-organism is used
for conversion of milk into curd ?

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

(a) Xanthomonas citri

(b) Bacillus megatherium
(c) Acetobacter aceti
(d) None of the above
The hardest substance of vertebrate body is :
(a) keratin
(b) enamel
(c) dentine
(d) chondrin
Cotton belongs to family :
(a) Solanaceae
(b) Cucurbitaceae
(c) Leguminosae
(d) Malvaceae
Pepsin is secreted in :
(a) intestine
(b) liver
(c) gonads
(d) stomach
Terpentine is obtained from :
(a) flowers of angiosperms
(b) wood of gymnosperms
(c) pteridophytes
(d) bacteria
Narrower distal end of stomach is called :
(a) cardiac
(b) duodenum
(c) pharynx
(d) pylorus
Kohler and Milstein developed biotechnology
for :
(a) monoclonal antibodies
(b) steroid synthesis
(c) immobilization of enzymes
(d) myeloma
Secretin hormone is produced in :
(a) stomach
(b) intestine
(c) liver
(d) pancreas
Which of the following is formed by the
reactions of UV-rays of sunlight ?
(a) SO 2
(b) CO
(c) Ozone
(d) Florides
Glycogen is stored in :
(a) liver and muscles (b) liver only
(c) muscles only
(d) pancreas
In India highest amount of coal is present in :
(a) West Bengal
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Assam
Vermiform appendix is a part of :
(a) alimentary canal (b) nervous system
(c) vascular system (d) reproductive system
Genetically engineered human insulin is
called :
(a) humulin
(b) haematin
(c) hybridoma
(d) hybrid
Islets of Langerhans produce :

10

GUJ-CET (Medical) Mock Test-1

(a) insulin
(c) ptyalin

34. The units of the nervous system are :

(b) rennin
(d) HCl

27. The food chain starts from :

35.

(a) consumer
(b) producer
(c) decomposer
(d) nitrogen fixation
28. Trypsin converts :
(a) fats into fatty acids
(b) starch and glycogen into maltose
(c) proteins into peptones
(d) sucrose into glucose and fructose
29. Humulin is a :
(a) form of chitin
(b) human insulin
(c) digestive enzyme (d) antibiotics

36.

37.

30. Smallest bone in rabbits body is :

(a) patella
(c) atlas

(b) stapes
(d) floating rib

38.

31. The substrate for photorespiration is :

(a) glycolate
(b) acetyl Co-A
(c) pyruvic acid
(d) glucose
32. Acromian process found in rabbit is :
(a) pectoral girdle
(b) femur
(c) vertebral column
(d) pelvic girdle
33. Pinus seed is originated in :
(a) capsule
(b) microsporophyll
(c) microsporangia (d) megasporophyll

PHYSICS
1.
9.
17.
25.
33.

(d)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(b)

2.
10.
18.
26.
34.

39.

40.

(a) neurons
(b) dendrites
(c) axon
(d) cyton
The endosperm of Pinus is :
(a) haploid
(b) diploid
(c) triploid
(d) polyploid
Muscular tissue is differentiated into :
(a) unstriped, striped
(b) striped cardiac
(c) cardiac, unstriped
(d) unstriped, striated and cardiac
Which of the following is the product of
glucose fermentation by yeast ?
(a) C 6 H12 O 6
(b) C 2H5 OH
(c) (C 6 H10O 5 )n
(d) CH2 OH
Epithelial tissue serves as :
(a) protective covering
(b) reproductive structures
(c) corpuscles
(d) nerve cells
From which part of Cocos nucifera, coir is
obtained :
(a) endocarp
(b) mesocarp
(c) epicarp
(d) any part of fruit
Among pesticides zinc phosphate is used for :
(a) spraying
(b) fumigation
(c) killing weevils (d) rodents

NSWERS

(d)
(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)

3.
11.
19.
27.
35.

(c)
(a)
(d)
(c)
(a)

4.
12.
20.
28.
36.

(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)
(b)

5.
13.
21.
29.
37.

(b)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(c)

6.
14.
22.
30.
38.

(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)
(a)

7.
15.
23.
31.
39.

(b)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)

8.
16.
24.
32.
40.

(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(c)

2.
10.
18.
26.
34.

(d)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(d)

3.
11.
19.
27.
35.

(b)
(a)
(c)
(c)
(a)

4.
12.
20.
28.
36.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(a)

5.
13.
21.
29.
37.

(d)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(b)

6.
14.
22.
30.
38.

(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)
(d)

7.
15.
23.
31.
39.

(b)
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)

8.
16.
24.
32.
40.

(c)
(c)
(d)
(a)
(c)

2.
10.
18.
26.
34.

(c)
(b)
(d)
(a)
(a)

3.
11.
19.
27.
35.

(b)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(a)

4.
12.
20.
28.
36.

(b)
(d)
(b)
(c)
(d)

5.
13.
21.
29.
37.

(c)
(d)
(c)
(b)
(b)

6.
14.
22.
30.
38.

(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
(a)

7.
15.
23.
31.
39.

(c)
(d)
(c)
(a)
(b)

8.
16.
24.
32.
40.

(c)
(d)
(a)
(a)
(d)

CHEMISTRY
1.
9.
17.
25.
33.

(a)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(b)

BIOLOGY
1.
9.
17.
25.
33.

(b)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(d)