january 2016

DIPLOMA IN

HUMAN RESOURCE
MANAGEMENT
PRACTICE QUESTIONS

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Human Resource Management

Practice Questions
1.

Which of the following cost should not be considered within labour cost?
A) overtime
B) training and development
C) fringe benefits
D) overheads

2.

Wastage in HRP means

A) Delayering of employees
B) Retirement of Employees
C) Outsourcing of Services
D) Multiskilling of employees

3.

Supply of Labour should be forecasted by considering

A) Skills and productivity
B) Structure of workforce
C) External labour market
D) All available options

4.

A probable remedy to deficit of HR doesnt include

A) Training and development
B) Outsourcing
C) Adjustment of management pattern
D) Downsizing

5.

Incentives on early retirement can be provided in order to

A) increase satisfaction
B) increase employee loyalty
C) make up for HR surplus
D) maintain corporate culture

6.

What is labour turnover?

A) the number of employees being outsourced
B) the number of employees being promoted
C) the number of employees leaving
D) the number of employees

7.

Labour turnover is the ratio of

A) employees employed and employee promoted in a period
B) employees outsourced and employees employed in a period
C) employees left and employees employed in a period
D) employees fired and employees employed in a period

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Practice Questions

8.

A disadvantage of labour turnover is

A) the ratio has no unit
B) it is hard to measure
C) employee type is not considered
D) employees are never satisfied

9.

The labour Stability ratio considers

A) employees with greater skill
B) employees with a certain service length
C) employees nearing retirement
D) employees with higher salaries

10. Labour Stability doesnt include

A) certain period of service length of the employee
B) total period of service length of the employee
C) comparison to total employees employed
D) service period of employees
11. Which of the followings is NOT a cause of labour turnover
A) Accident
B) Retirement
C) Career shift
D) Family Planning
12. Novelty of situation for a new employee which can lead towards turnover is a phenomenon
known as
A) First come first serve basis
B) First mover advantage
C) First Induction Crisis
D) First Inception Dillemma
13. Job Analysis is carried out at the beginning of recruitment process in order to
A) determine the level of unemployment in the society
B) facilitate creation of HR budget
C) understand required competence level
D) study to retain coveted employees
14. A ___________ consists of a narration of job duties and statuses.
A) job description
B) job narrative
C) job specification
D) job database

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15. A __________ defines the type of person suited for the job.
A) person definition
B) person specification
C) person verification
D) person determination
16. An effective publication of recruitment notice should
A) attract individuals with suitable skills
B) demonstrate equal opportunity
C) comply with corporate goals
D) differentiate company brand
17. Applications from job applicants should go under which of the following action
A) eliminating unsuitable applications
B) cross-checking for repetitive applications
C) subjectively skim through the credentials
D) shredding
18. Modern day trend of a person acquiring multiple skills brings which of the following recruitment
approach
A) attributing various jobs to one person
B) modeling the job to suit the person
C) training the person to fit the job
D) outsourcing services
19. A flexible approach of recruitment undertakes
A) providing employees with flexible timing
B) selecting people looking at their skills
C) communicating job applicants what is required from job
D) recruiting multi-skilled people regardless of job availability
20. Which recruitment approach is the most common?
A) Selecting people according to job requirement
B) Selecting job according to skills of people
C) Selecting payroll according to caliber of employees
D) Selecting people according to credentials
21. Organisations brand image is an important factor in shaping recruitment process because
A) Employees are loyal to the brand of their organisation
B) Job applicants prefer a better brand in choosing future workplace
C) Recruitment process is within the scope of public relation
D) Brand sales.

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22. Job applicants should be dealt with _________ in a recruitment process

A) dignity
B) integrity
C) fairness
D) coercion
23. Direct discrimination refers to
A) preferring all the parties
B) preferring one party over other
C) putting one party in certain disadvantage
D) creating discriminatory policies
24. Indirect discrimination refers to
A) preferring all the parties
B) preferring one party over other
C) putting one party in certain disadvantage
D) creating discriminatory policies
25. A disadvantage of one-to-one interview is
A) it facilitates a rapport between interviewer and interviewee
B) it hinders objective judgment of an interviewee
C) candidate may be able to cover incompetence
D) time is not properly uitilised
26. An interviewer should prepare the interview properly in order to
A) facilitate corporate objectives being achieved
B) control subjective judgment
C) be eloquent enough
D) target suitable employees
27. Interviewer should pose questions in accordance with
A) job description
B) financial information
C) flow of conversation
D) local norms
28. According to Whetton and Cameron, the following skills are required for an interviewer Except
A) devising appropriate questions
B) creating proper ambience
C) giving importance to gut feeling
D) avoiding biased judgment

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29. Creating a proper interviewing ambience necessitate

A) fidgeting a lot
B) having mood swings
C) sensing the nervousness of the interviewee
D) establishing trust with candidate
30. Open question pattern in an interview is a type of questioning which means
A) both interviewer and interviewee can cross question each other
B) anyone in the board can answer the question
C) interviewee is free to elaborate his answer
D) interviewer is open to religious freedom
31. Have you finished your graduate study? is a type of
A) Closed question
B) Open question
C) Multiple question
D) Tag question
32. Multiple questioning refers to
A) repetitive questions
B) array of related questions
C) total set of questions in an interview
D) questions with multiple correct replies
33. Leading questions should be used in an interview where
A) there are too many interviewers
B) interviewee is shy and nervous
C) interviewer wants to lead the way
D) the interview has lost its track
34. Interviewees should be given opportunity of posing their questions. the statement is
A) true
B) false
C) not always true
D) redundant
35. Interview as a selection method is popular because it has negligible limitations the statement
is
A) true
B) false

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C) in need of further research to justify
D) redundant

36. Halo Effect in interview is observed when

A) all job candidates are judged the same
B) one candidate is judged by one particular trait
C) interviewers are subjective in judgment
D) interviewers are posing racist questions
37. The three components of Vrooms expectancy theory are
A) Force, Valence and Extrapolation
B) Faculty, Value and Expectancy
C) Force, Valence and Expectancy
D) Frailty, Valor and Enigma
38. The expectancy theory is a theory belonging to ________ theories
A) Conjugation
B) Convoluted
C) Process
D) Content
39. In Vrooms expectancy theory, the term valence refers to
A) The extent of an individuals yearning for success
B) The extent an individual prefers a specific outcome
C) The extent of success that follows individuals effort
D) The extent one can be satisfied
40. In Vrooms expectancy theory, the term expectancy refers to
A) expectation of a particular outcome from given effort
B) expectation of desired outcome
C) expectation of being properly rewarded
D) expectation of fulfilling ones objectives
41. The concept of instrumentality refers to the fact that
A) people are inherently greedy
B) people are materialistic
C) people work just to earn money
D) people have higher ambitions
42. Proper job evaluation should be conducted in order to
A) fix remuneration
B) facilitate equal opportunity

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C) maintain corporate strategies
D) recruit new employees

43. In recent times, the practice of job evaluation has been revived due to
A) focus on productivity
B) emphasis on equal remuneration
C) vertical integration
D) improve internal control
44. Disadvantages of job evaluation include everything of the followings EXCEPT
A) inflexibility
B) gender inequality
C) subjectivity
D) irrelevance
45. The proper order of job evaluation process would be
A) Remuneration factors > Collection of Job data> Job appraisal > determine pay value
B) Collection of Job data> Job appraisal> determine pay value> Remuneration factors
C) Job appraisal> Collection of Job data> determine pay value> Remuneration factors
D) determine pay value> Remuneration factors> Job appraisal> Collection of Job data
46. Job Classification is a form of ____________ method.
A) analytical
B) non-analytical
C) sub-analytical
D) pseudo-analytical
47. Points Rating is form of _______________ method
A) analytical
B) non-analytical
C) sub-analytical
D) pseudo-analytical
48. The most popular job evaluation method these days is
A) Job Ranking
B) Job Classification
C) Points Ratin
D) Peer Evaluation
49. Performance review in a performance management system should be both
A) motivational and inspirational

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B) individualistic and totalitarian
C) retrospective and futuristic
D) emotional and terse

50. Disciplinary actions are warranted in each of the following situation EXCEPT
A) Employee is not meeting standard
B) Employee is often absent
C) Employees performance is average
D) Employees is keeping deadlines
51. A punitive disciplinary action means
A) warning the offender
B) scolding the offender
C) punishing the offender
D) counseling the offender
52. A deterrent disciplinary action means
A) warning the offender
B) scolding the offender
C) punishing the offender
D) counseling the offender
53. A progressive disciplinary method refers to
A) killing the cat at the first night
B) gradually increasing punishment level
C) applying theory Y in disciplining
D) courteous reformative discussion
54. A disciplinary interview should involve following factor in consideration
A) Ascertain the control axis
B) Ignore of facts of offence
C) Hurting the moral of the employee
D) Consideration of employee importance
55. Grievance occurs in a probable case of
A) Unfair treatment
B) Bad working condition
C) Poor Salary
D) Lack of Motivation
56. Termination of employment can occur via each of the following methods EXCEPT

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Practice Questions
A) By performance
B) Breach of Contract
C) By frustration
D) By coercion

57. Termination of employment terms by notice occurs on which of following dual terms?
A) motivation and resignation
B) resignation and designation
C) resignation and dismissal
D) dismissal and dissent
58. Flexible retirement is devised by setting a minimum age after which retirement is
A) optional
B) mandatory
C) recommended
D) obvious
59. An exit interview should be arranged by the employer in order to
A) bid farewell to resigning employee who has served the organisation so far
B) know the reason of resignation and take consequent action
C) let the employee know that the re-entry door is not closed
D) to make sure other employees are not disheartened
60. During the period after the employee has handed over his resignation notice, the contract of
employment
A) cancels immediately
B) is suspended
C) continues to be in effect
D) is truncated
61. Decision made in the employment tribunals can be appealed only on
A) argued facts of the case
B) matters of law
C) financial statements
D) preliminary hearing
62. Dismissal without any prior notice can be handed to the employee in a case of
A) terminal illness
B) attitude problem
C) significant breach of contract
D) vicious grievances

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63. The scope of remedies offered in a case of unfair dismissal is _________ than that of in a case of
wrongful dismissal.
A) wider
B) narrower
C) equal
D) swifter

64. Decision of reengagement made by the employment tribunal means that

A) the employee can sue again
B) the employee should be reemployed in his former job
C) the employee should employed back in a similar job
D) the employee should reconsider his case
65. Redundancy can occur in case of
A) employer applying going concern
B) employer remains in locality
C) employer requiring more employees for a work
D) employer shifts from a locality
66. Interviewing leaving employees is good way of
A) showing that the organisation care about them
B) understanding the psychology of employees
C) taking turnover seriously
D) devising a way to retain existing workforce
67. Employees perception regarding working condition can be understood by
A) Attitude Survey
B) Perception Survey
C) Satisfaction Survey
D) Cognitive Survey
68. Methodology of Job analysis include all of the following methods EXCEPT
A) By observing of practice of existing employees
B) By interviewing employees regarding job
C) By downsizing specific employees
D) By encouraging employees to keep records
69. A Job Description provides all of the following usages EXCEPT
A) Determine appropriate salary level
B) Determine required skill level
C) Determine level of job satisfaction
D) Determine effective uitilisation of human resource

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Practice Questions

70. UK regulations have demanded organisations to use analytical job evaluation schemes in
order to ensure
A) Objective pay-structure
B) Indiscrimination in pay setup
C) Cost-effective decision making
D) Compliance of UK law

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Practice Questions

71.

Define learning orgnisation.

A) Creating a procedure to establish organisational learning, information gathering and
sharing and so on.
B) Creating a committee to set the process of information gathering, organisational learning,
resource allocating and so on.
C) Creating a culture and systems to support individual and organisational learning,
information gathering and sharing and so on.
D) Creating a culture and systems to support non-profit organisational objectives, effective
leaning methods, information gathering and sharing and so on.

72.

Which ONE of the following is the major concern of Welfare tradition?

A) establishment of wage structure for workers
B) ensuring basic needs of all workers
C) improved working condition for workers
D) appropriate training facilities

73.

What is the definition of psychological contract?

A) the set of values that determines what an organisation expects of its employees, and what
they expect of it, in the employment relationship (i.e. mutual expectations from both)
B) the set of values that determines what an individual expects of its employees
C) the set of values that determines what an organisation expects of its employees
D) the set of values that determines what an employee expects of its employers,

74.

Guest (1989) defined the four key policy goals of HRM, which are all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) High quality
B) Honesty
C) High commitment
D) Flexibility

75.

What does Employee Voice depicts?

A) The right of employee being knowledgeable regarding organisational culture and working
conditions, etcs.
B) The claim of employee to make them knowledgeable regarding organisational culture and
working conditions
C) The claim of employee to make them knowledgeable regarding organisational culture,
working conditions, payment structures, leave policy, etcs.
D) An opportunity for employees through consultation process for making decisions affecting
them and their job related issues.

76.

What is the purpose of human resource audit?

A) The purpose of human resource audit is to provide suitably designed instructions of job
responsibilities.
B) The purpose of human resource audit is to set appropriate criteria for selecting right type
of person for the organisation to recruit for a given position.
C) The purpose of human resource audit is to give a picture of the current structure, size and
productivity of the organisation's labour force.
D) The purpose of human resource audit is to develop user friendly written documents of all
the factors necessary to perform operational responsibilities.

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Practice Questions

77.

What is the principal focus of HRP?

A) identification and elimination of inefficient employment procedures
B) skills and development
C) suitable recruitment policies
D) education for employees

78.

High level of redundancy exists in Olga Ltd. In order to resolve this problem Olga Ltd engage a
consultancy firm. In their initial report, the firm identifies and lists reasons for the increasing level
of redundancy, which are all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) The autocracy of the HR managers
B) The introduction of information and communications (and manufacturing) technology
C) Adverse trading conditions
D) Increased global competition

79.

Define Discipline handling.

A) Continuous performance evaluation within agreed requirements
B) Managing informal and formal processes to address individual employee grievances or
complaints
C) Managing informal and formal processes to confront employee behaviour or performance
which falls below organisational rules and standards
D) Designing frameworks of individuals, unit and organisational objectives to direct and
motivate performance

80.

Which of the following is not a reason for involving HRP?

A) Product differentiation
B) Labour law
C) Technological advancement
D) Cultural shift

81.

Which of the following way does Information technology assists HRP?

A) By increasing employee interest
B) By dealing with people more efficiently
C) by creating relevant technology
D) allowing appropriate supervision of HRP

82.

Define Benefit schemes.

A) Developing and managing salary structures, systems and scales that are equitable, fair and
compliant with equal pay legislation.
B) Developing and managing ways of relating pay progression or bonuses to results,
attainments, effort and other measures of performance.
C) Building non-monetary rewards into job design and management style, as part of a 'total
reward' package.
D) Developing and managing employee entitlements and 'fringe' benefits.

83.

Group selection has several different purposes that includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) They make the participants discuss and ask questions to the selectors
B) They give selectors a longer opportunity to study the candidates
C) They reveal more about how candidates' personalities and attributes will affect the work
team and their own performance
D) They achieve some measure of comparability between candidates
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84.

What does Talent management involves?

A) Ensuring that the organisation attracts, retains, motivates and develops the talented
people it needs: the overall process of recruitment, integration, performance management,
training and development and employee retention.
B) Forecasting the organisation's future requirements for labour, skills and competences, and
planning to meet them through subsidiary plans for recruitment, deployment,
development, retention and so on.
C) Attracting employment applications from the number, type and calibre of people required
by the HR plan.
D) Planning rewards and incentives to control labour turnover and retain high quality staff.

85.

What is the definition of Organisational Design?

A) Planning and implementing interventions in the organisation's social processes to improve
effectiveness through techniques such as structural change, teambuilding, process
consultancy, interpersonal skill development and role negotiation.
B) Structuring the content and size of jobs and defining their component tasks, conditions
and competency requirements.
C) Planning and implementing flexible structures and procedures to maximise the efficiency
and adaptability of the organisation.
D) Structuring the organisation, by grouping activities, assigning accountabilities and
establishing communication and authority relationships.

86.

Which of the following is considered as Service role for an HR manager?

A) Interpreting personnel indices, monitoring performance, carrying out benchmarking
B) Providing administrative services to a range of external customers
C) Offering specialist recommendations and policy frameworks to guide line management
decisions and the consistent and effective implementation of HR procedures
D) Providing administrative services to a range of internal customers

87.

When dismissal is unfair?

A) Legal impediment e.g. loss of driving license or lack of work permit
B) Redundancy, where the selection is deemed unfair
C) Redundancy provided that the selection for redundancy was fair
D) Incapability (including ill health) or lack of qualifications

88.

Which of the following is a formal job evaluation?

A) Team performance
B) Market rate pay
C) Point rating
D) Equal pay

89.

Which ONE of the following guidelines should not include when giving constructive
development feedback?
A) Close with encouragement
B) Focus on the behaviour
C) Gain co-operation
D) Start with questions

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90.

Which of the following turns an appraisal into bureaucracy?

A) When people use appraisals 'as a sort of show down, a good sorting out or a clearing of
the air'
B) When the underlying purpose for improving individual and organisational performance is
forgotten or ignored
C) The appraisal 'is seen as a one-sided process in which the manager acts as judge, jury and
counsel for the prosecution'.
D) When appraisal is made just to formalise the past year's performance issues.

91.

Which of the following is inappropriate with regards to performance management?

A) Without 360 feedback it is not possible to measure performance of an individual or
organisation.
B) Performance management is an old approach which emphasises defining the knowledge,
skills, behaviours and standards required to produce the desired results.
C) The process of performance appraisal is to review an individual's performance against
industrial standards.
D) Trends in appraisal include: the use of behavioural and results-oriented appraisal criteria;
the use of multiple sources of feedback; and a problem solving approach to interviewing.

92.

All of the following is correct but ONE with respect to reward management system. Identify.
A) Wages structures are commonly ungraded
B) Reward management is concerned with the formulation and implementation of strategies
and policies that aim to reward people fairly.
C) Factors that determine pay levels include market rate analysis, organisation strategy and
culture.
D) Need theories of motivation suggest that intrinsic rewards must be included in reward
strategy.

93.

S Tailors has 5 employees at the beginning of its 4th period of successful business operations.
However, increasing demand for S Tailors products at the local market makes the entrepreneur
to employ new 11 employees. However, some 2 of the previous employee were unhappy with
process of recruitment and finally leave S Tailors.
What is the crude labour turnover rate for this S Tailors?
A) 12.5%
B) 25%
C) 40%
D) 45%

94.

Which of the following is not necessarily being a purpose of group selection method?
A) Social skills
B) Intellectual skills
C) Psycho-motor ability
D) Attitudes

95.

The attempts of organisations to maintain or increase workers' effort and commitment by using
rewards and punishments or in other words, forces originating not from mental processes of
workers sources are applied to increase workers effort can be sometimes be called A) external motivation
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B)
C)
D)

extrinsic motivation
exactitude motivation
explained motivation

96.

What is the name of the theory that drives inborn motivation

A) Process theories
B) M&M theories
C) Content theories
D) Constant theories

97.

What is a Process theory?

A) People have motivational capacity that may not presently evident or realised.
B) A psychological process through which outcomes become desirable and are pursued by
individuals.
C) Motivation can always be processed within defined set of procedures.
D) A psychological process through which outcomes become desirable that may or may not be
pursued by individuals.

98.

A general criterion to assess the appraisal scheme are all of the following, but not:
A) Relativity content
B) Review content
C) Serious intent
D) Co-operative

99.

Which of the following was identified by Maslow in this need theory?

A) Self-realisation need
B) Psychoacoustic need
C) Esteem need
D) Contemporary need

100.

What is the name of the process that assesses individuals job performance?
A) Performance appraisal
B) Performance measurement
C) Actualisation review
D) Performance review

101.

Procedures for dismissal should include the following, EXCEPT:

A) Procedures that ensures standards of performance and conduct are set, clearly defined and
communicated to all employees.
B) Procedures that ensures few decisions and actions are made in the light of policy, legislation
and the requirement to 'act suddenly' at all times.
C) Procedures that ensures warns employees where a gap is perceived between standard and
performance, or where other legal impediments or 'substantial reasons' are foreseen to arise.
D) Procedures that Implements fair and transparent procedures for redundancy, particularly in
regard to selection (as discussed below).

102.

Relevant pieces of information should be extracted from job appraisal. Job appraisal could be taskoriented or worker-oriented. Such information may include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) Social factors of the job
B) Environment and conditions of the job
C) Dynamic motivational features of the job
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D)

Initial requirements of the employee

103.

Which of the following should NOT be step in quality appraisal of performance method?
A) Investigation of results from aptitude tests
B) Making a report of appraisal result
C) Monitoring implementation of suggested plan
D) Determining appraisal criteria

104.

What would a manager typically do in informal job monitoring processes?

A) apply ranges of criteria for job relevance
B) try to arrive at a mutual understanding
C) evaluation strategy can be relaxed for its given informal nature
D) job monitoring process should never be informal

105.

How should an organisation be suggested to be prepared to overcome its shortfall in HR ?

A) set retirement policies
B) cancelling approved leaves of senior member of staffs
C) outsourcing appropriate activities to external contractors
D) early planning for tactics to set minimum HR requires and manage workloads accordingly

106.

Which of the following should be the basis of job performance evaluation?

A) Job assessment
B) Job criteria
C) Job description
D) Job narrative

107.

Which of the following is not a major disadvantage of job description?

A) more time taken
B) applicable only where work is largely repetitive
C) possibility of being out of date
D) stifle flexibility and encourage demarcation disputes

108.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of applying the overall assessment?

A) costly
B) hasty
C) garbled up
D) not task oriented

109.

Which of the following should not be included in performance evaluation criteria?

A) decision making
B) delegation
C) communications skill
D) payment structure

110.

Which ONE of the following is the basis of behavioural incident method?

A) Judgement on desired or undesired attitude
B) Evaluation of performance critically
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C)
D)

politeness and loyalty

Evaluation of employees reflection in desegregation

111.

The early concept of Personnel Management faced many criticisms. Which of the following
can be treated as a major criticism?
A) totalitarian
B) authoritative
C) irrelevant
D) reactive

112.

In which discipline equal opportunity concept was first introduced?

A) Performance management
B) Marketing
C) Human resource management
D) Supply chain management

113.

What is the main reason that concerns management in terms of human resource cost?
A) sometimes it is not controllable
B) incur extra tax burden
C) these are high in modern business environment
D) meeting any need of human gives rise to new need

114.

Which ONE of the following is the main attribute of modern HRM policy?
A) self-assessment
B) inspiring employee commitment
C) availability of equal treatment
D) marketability of own brand

115.

Strategic level should formulate HR policy. This should be directly linked with organisations
value-adding objectives. Competitive objectives should also be served this policy.
Which of the following is the probable name of the above concept?
A) vertical integration
B) three dimension integration
C) marginal integration
D) horizontal integration

116.

People recruited in staff recruitment approach involves

A) no or little formal planning
B) this involves conforming with prior set recruitment planning
C) according to company articles
D) conforming company values

117.

When it is best to apply strategy which is short-term by attribute?

A) In time of stable economic environment
B) in time of research and development
C) In time of change and incertitude
D) In time when short quick delivery of quantities demanded
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118.

Which of the following has not recently been an issue of debate in HRM?
A) Does HRM really make a difference to organisational performance?
B) Does outsourcing HR tasks have both advantages & disadvantages?
C) Is HRM a fair and ethical way to manage people?
D) Is HRM really different from 'personnel management'?

119.

If HRM is to be taken seriously at a strategic level as a contributor to bottom line business

performance, it must be subject to evaluation. However, there are considerable difficulties
attached to the evaluation of the HR function.
Which of the following may not be appropriate in this context?
A) Innovation or flexibility are difficult to measure
B) Effective HRM should, over the long period of time, measurably impact on improved
business performance
C) Subjective criteria such as the quality of working life, employee motivation, team spirit,
openness to change, job satisfaction, the quality of employee relations and so on are
easy to measure
D) HRM itself is a wide-ranging activity, and therefore requires a wide range of criteria for
evaluation.

120.

Which of the following areas may be unavailable in terms of statistical indices of the HR
function's activities?
A) employee motivation and team spirit
B) staff turnover
C) absenteeism rates
D) incidences of grievance procedures

121.

External consultants are called in to design effective job schedule, or solve a problem. He
should not be concerned to matters like:
A) A preliminary time schedule and costs for the process
B) A working approach that will suit both parties
C) An agreed definition of the problem
D) Payment and rewards scheme

122.

What is the appropriate definition of career management.

A) identifying potential and planning career development opportunities; succession and
promotion planning; guiding and mentoring individuals in career planning
B) informing employees about matters relevant to their work or of interest or concern to
them
C) identifying present constraints, any dissatisfaction among employees and planning career
development opportunities; succession and promotion planning; guiding and mentoring
individuals in career planning
D) informing employees about matters relevant to their work or of interest or concern of
organisation

123.

What is the correct definition of Industrial Relations?

A) managing informal and formal relationships with board of directors and HR department;
collective bargaining on terms and conditions; resolving collective disputes;
implementing consultative committees and partnership agreements
B) managing informal and formal relationships with employee representatives; collective
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C)

D)

bargaining on terms and conditions; resolving collective disputes; implementing

consultative committees and partnership agreements
managing informal and formal relationships with employee representatives; collective
bargaining bonus schemes; resolving collective disputes;implementing consultative
committees and partnership agreements
managing informal and formal relationships between employee representatives and
management; collective bargaining on terms and conditions; resolving collective
disputes; influence and work towards profit-sharing culture

124.

Modern working environment philosophy emphasise the need for flexibility in working
condition. This in turn raises the issues of new working practices which are all of the following,
but not:
A) Raising the quality and/or quantity of workforce output
B) Increasing managerial ability to adapt the size and deployment of the workforce in line
with changing demand and supply
C) Arrangements for individual employees to exit office at his own discretion
D) Increasing scope for flexible working for individual employees

125.

What does internal recruitment means?

A) Defining hierarchy and assigning job accordingly
B) Reshuffling of new and existing workforce
C) Reshuffling of existing workforce
D) Identify and train unskilled workforce

126.

What is the definition of grievance handling?

A) managing informal and formal processes to address individual employee grievances or
complaints
B) managing informal and formal processes to address management grievances or
complaints
C) identifying and setting informal and formal meetings to address individual employee
grievances or complaints
D) managing informal and formal processes to address staff associations grievances or
complaints

127.

What should be the relative factor to decide on internal or external recruitment?

A) National labour law
B) Capability of existing managers
C) Local labour law
D) Capability of existing staffs

128.

Organisation often chooses which one of the following selection methods?

A) Local news advertisement
B) Reviewing curriculum vitae
C) Interviews
D) Questionnaire sessions

129.

What is the reason for observing handwriting skills?

A) It reveals personality attributes
B) a primary tool to short list worthy candidates
C) clearer the handwriting, more confident candidates
D) This is an indication of higher skills
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Practice Questions

130.

What is the reason for physical testing in a selection process?

A) to employ physically fit employee for the job
B) to conform with Government regulations
C) to maintain statistical data
D) none of the above

131.

Should investigation previous work experience of potential candidate is considered as a

discriminatory act?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Yes, if for a particular group of candidates
D) No, if for a particular group of candidates

132.

Which ONE of the following does not necessarily give rise to any significant issues for the
world-wide technological advancements?
A) Changes in productivity ratios
B) Growth of modern industries
C) Training costs for employees
D) Maintenance costs for equipment

133.

Actual interview model does not necessarily include which ONE of the following?
A) One-to-one interview
B) Panel interview
C) Selective interview
D) Inductive interview

134.

What does self actualisation means?

A) Individuals need to fulfil spiritual duties
B) Individuals need to fulfil individual potential
C) Individuals need to fulfil personal promises
D) Individuals actual need fulfilment

135.

Which ONE of the stated Malows Hierarchy of Needs follows correct sequence?
A) Physiological needs, Safety needs, Social needs, Esteem needs
B) Safety needs, Social needs, Esteem needs, Physiological needs
C) Social needs, Safety needs, Esteem needs, Physiological needs
D) Social needs, Esteem needs, Safety needs, Physiological needs

136.

What is the definition of pay systems?

A) Developing and managing salary structures, systems and scales that are equitable, fair
and compliant with equal pay legislation.
B) Developing and managing salary structures, fair and compliant with equal pay legislation.
C) Developing and managing organisational structures, systems and scales that are
equitable, fair and compliant with equal pay legislation.
D) Developing and managing organisational structures, fair and compliant with equal pay
legislation.

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Practice Questions
137.

How working condition has been named as factor in two factory theory?
A) Hygiene
B) Safety
C) Reliability
D) Motivating

138.

What is the definition of retention?

A) Planning rewards and incentives to control labour efficiency and retain motivated staff.
B) Planning rewards and incentives to control labour turnover and retain high quality staff.
C) Planning rewards and punishment to control labour turnover and retain only quality staff.
D) Planning rewards and punishment to control labour efficinecy and retain high quality
staff.

139.

What is the definition of Organisational Development?

A) Planning and implementing interventions in the organisation's technological processes
to improve effectiveness through techniques such as structural change, teambuilding,
process consultancy, interpersonal skill development and role negotiation.
B) Planning and implementing interventions in the organisation's cultural processes to
improve effectiveness through techniques such as structural change, teambuilding,
process consultancy, interpersonal skill development and role negotiation.
C) Planning and implementing interventions in the organisation's social processes to
improve effectiveness through techniques such as structural change, teambuilding,
process consultancy, interpersonal skill development and role negotiation.
D) Planning and implementing interventions in the organisations management processes to
improve effectiveness through techniques such as structural change, teambuilding,
process consultancy, interpersonal skill development and role negotiation.

140.

What is the purpose of result oriented performance evaluation?

A) Evaluation of employees daily performance
B) Evaluation of employees behaviour
C) This is the other name of peer evaluation
D) Evaluating employees, whether they are meeting their targets

141.

Which ONE of the following correctly relates with Service role?

A) Offering specialist recommendations and policy frameworks to guide line management
decisions
B) Offering specialist information and perspectives to line managers
C) Providing services to a range of internal customers
D) Human resource forecasting and planning, developing flexible working methods

142.

Which ONE of the following is an advantage of self-assessment method?

A) It increases a sense of responsibility
B) It offers the opportunity to build up a rounded picture of an employee's performance
C) Multiple appraisal may reduce or at least balance the element of subjectivity which
inevitably enters appraisal of one individual by another
D) The extensive information-gathering process, and feedback from key performance areas
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Practice Questions
and contacts
143.

What is an upward appraisal?

A) An appraisal method where individuals are assessed based on the feedback from their
boss.
B) An appraisal method where individuals are assessed based on the feedback from their
peers
C) An appraisal method where individuals are assessed based on the feedback from their
subordinates
D) An appraisal method where individuals are assessed based on the feedback from selfassessment questionnaires

144.

Which ONE of the following is the correct formula of crude labour turnover rate?
A)
B)

C)
D)

145.

Which ONE of the following is a reworking of the job description in terms of the kind of
person needed to perform the job?
A) Person specification
B) Job evaluation
C) Person appraisal
D) Job analysis

146.

Which ONE of the following should be an ideal role to play by an interviewer in a problem
solving approach of appraisal interview?
A) the role of a colleague
B) the role of a critic
C) the role of a counsellor
D) the role of a patron

147.

Which ONE of the following combinations is a constructive feedback?

A) motivational and inspirational
B) motivational and developmental
C) intrinsic and emotional
D) intrinsic and extrinsic

148.

Which ONE of the following should be ignored during job analysis?

A) diaries and time-sheet updating
B) surveys and census
C) observation
D) questionnaires and interviews

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Practice Questions
149.

Which ONE of the following is not an ideal practice when assessing an organisations appraisal
system?
A) Fairness
B) Internality
C) Relevance
D) Effectiveness

150.

Which ONE of the following is a concern of performance management?

A) Assessing on-going working environment
B) Management of allocated funds
C) Setting action plans and assessing implementations
D) Evaluation and benchmarking of organisations performance with other organisation

Solution
Question
1

Answer
D

Question
41

Answer
C

Question
81

Answer
D

Question
121

Answer
D

42

82

122

43

83

123

44

84

124

45

85

125

46

86

126

47

87

127

48

88

128

49

89

129

10

50

90

130

11

51

91

131

12

52

92

132

13

53

93

133

14

54

94

134

15

55

95

135

16

56

96

136

17

57

97

137

18

58

98

138

19

59

99

139

20

60

100

140

21

61

101

141

22

62

102

142

23

63

103

143

24

64

104

144

25

65

105

145

26

66

106

146

27

67

107

147

28

68

108

148

29

69

109

149

30

70

110

150

31

71

111

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Practice Questions
32

72

112

33

73

113

34

74

114

35

75

115

36

76

116

37

77

117

38

78

118

39

79

119

40

80

120

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Practice Questions

Chapter 1

67, 71, 72, 73, 74, 75, 78, 79, 82, 84, 85, 86, 105,
111, 112, 113, 114, 115, 117, 118, 119, 120, 121,
122, 123, 124, 126, 131, 132, 139, 141

Chapter 2

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 76, 77, 80, 81, 93,

138, 144, 145, 148

Chapter 3

13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 68, 69,
70, 102, 103, 107, 116, 125, 127, 133,

Chapter 4

25, 26, 27, 28, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 83, 94,
128, 129, 130

Chapter 5

37, 38, 39, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48, 88, 96,
97, 98, 99, 100, 104, 134, 135, 136, 137

Chapter 6

49, 50, 51, 52, 53, 54, 55, 89, 90, 91, 92, 95, 106,
108, 109, 110, 140, 142, 143, 146, 147, 149, 150

Chapter 7

56, 57, 58. 59, 60, 61, 62, 63, 64, 65, 66, 87, 101,

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