Q.1.

In a specimen of kidney, fibrinoid necrosis is seen and onion peel

appearance is also present. Most probable pathology is:(A). Hyaline degeneration
(B). Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
(C). Glomerulosclerosis
(D). Fibrillary glomerulonephritis

Ans. (B). Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis..

Q.2. Cavernous sinus thrombosis is due to infection of:(A). Pterygoid plexus

(B). Submental space
(C). Maxillary sinus
(D). Submandibular space

Ans. (A). Pterygoid plexus..

Q.3. Muscle responsible for opening of mandible:(A). Lateral pterygoid

(B). Medial pterygoid
(C). Temporalis
(D). Buccinator

Ans. (A). Lateral pterygoid

Q.4. Which is the Dangerous area of scalp?

(A). Skin
(B). Connective tissue
(C). Aponeurosis

(D). Loose areolar tissue

Ans. (D). Loose areolar tissue

Q.5. Facial nerve supply,all are true except..

(A). Anterior belly of digastric
(B). Posterior belly of digastric
(C). Buccinator
(D). Stapedius

Ans. (A). Anterior belly of digastrics.

Q.6. In an experiment, a scientist injected myeloid stem cells in an abalated

animal. At the end of incubation period he found colonies of:(A). Erythrocytes
(B). T lymphocytes
(C). Fibroblasts
(D). Hematopoetic stem cells

Ans. (A). Erythrocytes.

Q.7. A 78 yr old male presents with headache, visual disturbances and

tenderness over his right temporal region. Biopsy taken from right temporal
artery likely shows:
(A). Acute abscess
(B). Granulomatos inflammation with giant cell
(C). Luminal thrombosis
(D). Aneurysmal dilatation with sub acute inflammation

Ans. (B). Granulomatos inflammation with giant cell

Q.8. In a specimen of kidney, fibrinoid necrosis is seen and onion peel

appearance is also present. Most probable pathology is:(E). Hyaline degeneration
(F). Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
(G). Glomerulosclerosis
(H). Fibrillary glomerulonephritis

Ans. (B). Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis

Q.9. (a) Which of the following is not true about fixative

(A). Kills microorganism
(B). Prevent autolysis
(C). Used as fixative
(D). 2% Formalin is used

Ans. (D). 2% Formalin is used

Q.10. Diameter of bristles used in soft tooth brushes is:

(A). 0.007 inch
(B). 0.012 inch
(C). 0.014 inch
(D). 0.009 inch

Ans. (A). 0.007 inch

Q.11. Halo effect on X-ray is a definite indication of:

(A). Horizontal root #

(B). Widening of PDL

(C). Root caries
(D). Periapical periostitis

Ans. (D). Periapical periostitis

Q.12. Young individual reported with fluctuant swelling infection of left lateral
incisor. On clinical examination, entire left side of face is swollen and tooth is
tender on percussion. The patient is unable to chew and as well as he has a fever
of 102 degree. What should be the treatment plan:(A). Incision and drainage
(B). Antibiotic,heat and fluid
(C). Extraction
(D). Antibiotics and heat production

Ans. (A). Incision and drainage

Q.13. A 10 year old child with avulsed incisor 20 min back come to your office, its
a sound tooth with no #, covered with dirt u will
(A). Clean the dirt with saline and replant
(B). Sterilize the to0th and replant
(C). Scrub and curette the root surface and replant
(D). Clean with hypotonic solution and replant

Ans. (A). Clean the dirt with saline and replant

Q.14. Metallic taste after application of stannous fluoride varnish is due to:
(A). Stannous trifluorophosphate
(B). Stannic trifluorophosphate
(C). Calcium trifluorostannate

(D). Tin hydroxyl phosphate

Ans. (D). Tin hydroxyl phosphate

Q.15. A pregnant lady uses fluoridated drinking water. All of the following are
true regarding exposure of the fetus to fluoride except:(A). Placenta acts as a regulator and reduces the concentration of fluoride
reaching the fetus
(B). Placenta acts as a regulator and increases the concentration of fluoride
reaching the fetus
(C). Placenta has no role in fluoride regulation to fetus
(D). Placenta acts as a barrier to fluoride ions.

Ans. (B). Placenta acts as a regulator and increases the concentration of fluoride
reaching the fetus

Q.16. A 14 year old boy with Class II Div I malocclusion. Which model analysis
method is used to decide, whether to do extraction or not?
(A). Boltons
(B). Peck and peck
(C). Ashley Howes
(D). Ponts

Ans. (C). Ashley Howes

Q.17. In case of Orthodontically treated midline diastemma which retainer should

be used?
(A). Hawley appliance for 6 months
(B). Hawley appliance for 12 months
(C). No need of retainer as it is self corrected
(D). Lingual bonded retainer

Ans. (D). Lingual bonded retainer

Q.18. Increased interincisal angle is seen in:(A). Bimaxillary protrusion

(B). Class II div I
(C). Class II div II
(D). Mandibular retrusion

Ans. (C). Class II div II

Q.19. Oral and dermal manifestations are seen in which type of leukemia?
(A). Aleukemic leukemia
(B). Monocytic leukemia
(C). Lymphocytic leukemia
(D). Myelocytic leukemia

Ans. (B). Monocytic leukemia

Q.20.Which is not a theory of TMJ ankylosis?

(A). Condylar burst
(B). Fracture with deviation causing increased distance between condyle causing
it to fuse with zygomatic arch
(C). Synovial fluid leakage attracting calcium ions
(D). Calcification around the joint

Ans. (C). Synovial fluid leakage attracting calcium ions

Q.21.After surgical correction of cleft palate which of the following is seen?

(A). Anterior open bite

(B). Anterior deep bite
(C). Unilateral/Bilateral posterior cross bite
(D). Rotated anteriors

Ans. (C). unilateral/bilateral posterior cross bite

Q.22. Haemophilia B patient posted for surgery will require?

(A). 80-100 U/Kg every 6 hours
(B). 80-100 U/Kg every 12 hours
(C). 80-100 U/Kg every 24 hours
(D). 60-100 U/Kg every 6 hours

Ans. (C). 80-100 U/Kg every 24 hours

Q.23. Metal oxides used in porcelain

(A). To improve strength
(B). To improve bonding with porcelain
(C). Impart colour
(D). All of these

Ans. (C). Impart colour

Q.24.Osteosarcoma can arise from?

(A). Paget and cherubism
(B). Cherubism and osteopetrosis
(C). Paget and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
(D). Polyostotic fibrous dyplasia and cherubism

Ans. (C). Paget and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

Q.25. Burning sensation in mouth is caused by all except?

(A). Pernicious anemia.
(B). Some def
(C). Diabetes mellitus
(D). Ranula

Ans. (D). Ranula

Q.26. During a routine examination of the urine of a patient it is seen that the
proteins that precipitates onheating to 45 degree C and redissolves on boiling
are indicative of ?
(a) Bences Jones Protein
(b) Gamma globulin
(c) Ketosis
(d) Nephrotic Syndrome

Ans. (a) Bences Jones Protein

Q.27. All are mediators of inflammation except? (AIIMS-05)

(a) Myeloperoxidase
(b) Cytokines
(c) Interferon
(d) Prostaglandin

Ans. (a) Myeloperoxidase

Q.28. Which of the following enzymes initiates the event of oxygen dependent
phagocytosis by neutrophil? (AIPG-06,KAR-10)
(a) NADPH oxidase
(b) Superoxidase dismutase
(c) Catalase
(d) Myeloperoxidase

Ans. (a) NADPH oxidase

Q.29. Loading dose depends upon? (AIIMS 08)

(a) Volume of distribution
(b) Clearance
(c) Rate of administration
(d) Half life

Ans. (a) Volume of Distribution

Q.30. A patient comes with history of oral injury, metallic sound on percussion of
the affected tooth. Based on examination, What would be the most likely
diagnosis after oral examination?
(a) Lateral luxation
(b) Subluxation
(c) Concussion
(d) Extrusive luxation

Ans. (a) Lateral Luxation

Q.31. The mesurement of Hba1c level can be used for?

(a) Asymptomatic diabetic screening

(b) Symptomatic diabetic screening

(c) Monitering diabetic case
(d) Diagnosis of diabetes

Ans. (c) Monitering diabetic case

Q. 32. Infection spreading via lymphatics from lower lips first enter the blood
stream at?
(a) Branchiocephalic vein
(b) Inferior labial vein
(c) Inferior labial artery
(d) Pterygoid venous plexus

Ans. (a). Branchiocephalic vein

Q.33. Occurence of malocclusion in a given population termed as

(A) Incidence
(B) Prevelance
(C) Mortality
(D) Probability

Ans (B) Prevelance

Q.34. Minimum number of lobes to form a tooth is?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

Ans. (C) 4

Q.35. Most common cause of TMJ ankylosis?

(A) Infection
(B) Trauma
(C) Hereditary
(D) Idiopathic

Ans. (B) Trauma

Q.36. Lip thickness of males is maximum at which age?

(a) 21 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 25 years

Ans. (c) 16yrs

Q.37. The most important criteria in children using irrigation solution is?
(A). Volume of irrigant
(B). Thickness of syringe used
(C). Concentration of irrigant
(D). None of above

Ans. (A).Volume of irrigant

Q38. Lymph from tongue not drained by following vessels

(a) Posterior vessels

(b) Central vessels(c) Marginal vessels

(d) Ventral vessels

Ans. (d). Ventral vessels

39. The commonly available most potent topical anaesthetic is:

(a) Benzocaine
(b) Tetracaine
(c) Mepivacaine
(d) Prilocaine

Ans. (b). Tetracaine

40. Maximum permissible dose of Articaine in a healthy patient is:

(a) 1.3 mg/kg
(b) 5mg/Kg
(c) 2mg/kg
(d) 7mg/kg

Ans. (d). 7mg/kg

Q.41. Immunisation of 5 year old by NIS

(a) Pentavalent vaccine Vitamin A
(b) Booster DT
(c) DT, OPV, vitamin A
(d) DPT, vitamin A

Ans. (c) DT, OPV, vitamin A

Q.42. Regarding ESI ACT WHICH IS CORRECT

(a) Funeral benefit is Rs. 50,000
(b) The state Governments share of expenditure on medical care is 1/8; the ESI
Coorporations share of expenditure on medical care is 7/8 of total cost
(c) Person with daily wages of Rs 70 has to contribute Rs300 towards ESI
(d) Employee has to contribute 4.75% and employer contributes 8.75%

Ans. (b) The State Governments share of expenditure on medical care is 1/8; the
ESI Coorperations share of expenditure on medical are is 7/8 of total cost

Q.43. Iodine requirement in a pregnant women -/microg/l

(a) 150
(b) 250
(c) 350
(d) 450

Ans. (b) 250

Q.44. Peripheral resistance is best given by

(a) Mean arterial pressure as it remains constant
(b) Diastolic pressure as it decreases at mid thoracic aorta
(c) Systolic pressure as it increases in descending aorta
(d) Pulse pressure as it relates to stroke volume and aortic compliance

Ans. (a) Mean arterial pressure as it remains constant

Q.45. Enzymes found in CSF :

(a) GGT +ALP

(b) ALP+CK-MB
(c) CK+LDH
(d) Deaminase and peroxidase

Ans. (c) CK+LDH

Q.46. About lidocaine all are true, except :

(a) It acts on sodium channels in both active and inactive state
(b) It is most cardiotoxic local anesthetic
(c) It is given I.V. in cardiac arrhythmias

Ans. (b) It is most cardiotoxic local anesthetic

Q.47. Test to differentiate in the chromosome of normal and cancer cells

(a) PCR
(b) Comparative genomic hybridization
(c) Western blotting
(d) Southern blotting

Ans. (b) Comparative genomic hybridization

Q.48. Paralysis of cranial root of accessory nerve affects all except(A). Cricopharyngeus
(B). Salpingopharyngeus
(C). Palatopharyngeus
(D). Stylopharyngeus.

Ans. (D). Stylopharyngeus...

Q.49. Most preferred drug in hypertensive emergency case:

(A). Na nitroprusside
(B). Hydralazine
(C). Dopamine
(D). Diazoxide
(E). Nitroglycerin

Ans. (A). Na nitroprusside...

Q.50. Anti-Diabetic drug to be stopped prior to surgery under GA:

(A). Metformin
(B). Pioglitazone
(C). Glibenclamide
(D). Glicazide

Ans. (A). Metformin...

Q.51.Not true about Metformin:

(A). Excreted unchanged in urine
(B). Decreases hepatic glucose formation
(C). Inhibits cellular respiration
(D). Can be given in decompensated heart disease

Ans. (D). Can be given in decompensated heart disease...

Q.52.Which disease involves bone and intervertebral disc space radiographically:

(A). Multiple myeloma

(B). TB
(C). Lymphoma
(D). Metastases
Ans. (B). TUBERCULOSIS...

Q.53. Which of the following is not an antiflux:

(A). Graphite
(B). Boric acid
(C). Iron oxide
(D). Calcium carbonate in alcohol

Ans. (B). Boric acid...

Q.54 Which of these is the best method to check perfusion of free flap:
(A). Prick test
(B). Pulse oxymetry
(C). Laser Doppler flowmetry
(D). Fluroscopy

Ans. (A). Prick Test.......

Q.55.To diagnose CSF rhinorrhea which of the following cannot be used as a

criteria ?
(A). High glucose content
(B). High protein content
(C). Tram line pattern
(D). BETA-2 Transferrin

Ans. (B). High protein content....

Q.56.Patient with chronically infected tooth on steroid came for extraction, pre
medication required?
(A). Antibiotics
(B). Antihistamines to counter the allergic reaction
(C). Atropine
(D). Antihypertensive

Ans. (A). Antibiotics.....

Q.57. Patient with prosthetic valve is under surgery to avoid sub-acute

endocarditis which regimen should be given
(A). 2 mg amoxicillin 1hour before surgery
(B). 2 gm amoxicillin 1hour before surgery
(C). 500 gm penicillin 1 hour before surgery
(D). 1 gm amoxicillin 2 hour before surgery

Ans. (B). 2gm amoxicillin 1hour before surgery......

Q.58. In TMJ ankylosis, the most common cause is:

(A). Infection
(B). Trauma
(C). Hereditary
(D). Unknown

Ans. (B). Trauma......

Q.59. Emergency treatment of ludwigs:

(A). Induction of GA for tracheostomy

(B). Fibreoptic intubation or tracheostomy under LA
(C). Incision & drainage under LA
(D). Antibiotics

Ans. (B). Fibreoptic intubation or tracheostomy under LA.....

Q.60.Which nerve may be blocked along with mandibular division of 5th cranial
nerve?
(A). IX Nerve
(B). VII Nerve
(C). IX Nerve
(D). VII Nerve

Ans. (B). VII Nerve.....

Q.61. A child aged 5 years and 4 months is referred to orthodontist for unusually
small chin. Distal step molar relation, SNA normal, SNB lowered & FMA
DECREASED.What is the treatment of choice?
(A). Wait & observe till 6 yrs age
(B). Headgear
(C). Twin block
(D). Functional Regulator-2

Ans. (A). Wait & observe till 6 yrs age.....

Q.62.Baker's anchorage is also known as

(A). Intramaxillary anchorage
(B). Intraoral anchorage

(C). Extraoral anchorage

(D). Intermaxillary anchorage

Ans. (D). Intermaxillary anchorage.....

Q.63.The undesirable side effect most commonly associated with use of finger
spring to tip the crown of the tooth is
(A). Pain
(B). Gingival inflammation
(C). Tendency for the tooth to intrude
(D). Tendency of the root apex to move in the direction opposite to the crown

Ans. (D). Tendency of the root apex to move in the direction opposite to the
crown......

Q.64.Gingival lesions not found in

(A). Herpes
(B). Recurrent apthae
(C). Erythema Multiforme
(D). Pyogenic granuloma

Ans. (B). Recurrent Apthae.....

Q.65.Bilateral mandibular involment seen in:

(A). Cherubism
(B). Osteoma
(C). Central giant cell granuloma
(D). Lichen planus

Ans. (A). Cherubism.........

Q.66.Bacteria which adhere to tooth and cause caries is due to

(A). They produce extracellular polysaccharides or dextrans
(B). Ferment carbohydrates and release proteolytic enzymes
(C). Produce acids
(D). Increase pH of saliva

Ans. (A). They produce extracellular polysaccharides or dextrans......

Q.67.Which of the following technique is NOT used in cleft lip repair:

(A). Tennison-Randall flap
(B). Le-Mesurier flap
(C). Millard's technique
(D). Von Langenback flap technique

Ans. (D). Von-Langenback flap technique......

Q.68. Denture cleansers - main component is?

(A) H2O2
(B) Sodium perborate
(C) Alkali agents
(D) Detergents

Ans. (B). Sodium perborate.....

Q.69.. Which of the following not used as an abrasive in dentrifices?

(A) CaCO3
(B) NaCl
(C) Silicate
(D) Amylose

Ans. (D). Amylose.....

Q.70. Maximum amount of neural growth is almost completed by?

(A) 6-7years
(B) 10-12 years
(C) 14-16 years
(D) 18 years

Ans. (A) 6-7years.......

Q.71. Orthodontic problem associated with proximal caries?

(A) Loss of arch length
(B) Loss of tooth
(C) Gaining of arch length
(D) Loss of transverse arch width

Ans (A) Loss of arch length.....

Q72. Shade selection is done within ..... to avoid fatigue of eye:

a) 5 sec
20 secc)
10 sec

Q.73. Within the RBC, hypoxia stimulates glycolysis by which of the following
regulating pathways:
(A). Hypoxia stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase by increased 2.3-DPG
(B). Hypoxia inhibits hexokinase
(C). Hypoxia stimulates release of all glycolytic enzymes from BAND-3 on RBC
(D). Activation of the regulatory enzymes by high pHAns.

(C). Hypoxia stimulates release of all glycolytic enzymes from BAND-3 on RBC

Q.74. Nasal length /width ratio

(a) 62.5
(b) 66
(c) 70
(d) 65Ans.

(c) 70

75. In immature teeth, WL determination is best done through

A. IOPA
B. Paper point
C. Tactile method
D. Apex locator

Ans B. Paper point

76. Dimension of inner bow of face bow are

A. 0.90 and 1.62

B. 0.45 and 0.125

Ans A. 0.45 and 0.125

77. Best storage media for avulsed tooth is>>

Answer is Viaspanans

78. Irrigant used during Acute apical abscess is>

>Answer is Normal saline

79. Which of the following drugs is most frequently used in treating refractory
periodontitis, including localized juvenile periodontitis:
i. Metronidazole + Amoxicillinii.
Tetracycline
iii. Ciprofloxacin
iv. Pencillin

Ans A. Metronidazole + Amoxicillin

80. The changes in color, size and texture of gingiva are seen in:
A. Stage I gingivitis
B. Stage 11 gingivitis
C. Stage III gingivitis
D. Stage IV gingivitis

Ans C. Stage III gingivitis

81. The most common oral lesion in HIV infected patients is:A. Oral hairy leukoplakia
B. Oral candidiasis
C. Oral kaposis sarcoma
D. Oral hyperpigmentation

Ans B. Oral candidiasis

82. Recommended dose of prednisone for the treatment of desquamative

gingivitis is:
A. Daily dose of 40 mg to 50 mg reduced to daily maintenance dose of 5 to 10
mg
B. Daily dose of 30 to 40 mg reduced to daily maintenance dose of 5 to 10 mg
C. Daily dose of 30 to 40 mg reduced to daily maintenance dose of 10 to 20 mg
D. Daily dose of 50 to 60 mg reduced to daily maintenance dose of 10 to 20 mg

Ans B. Daily dose of 30 to 40 mg reduced to daily maintenance dose of 5 to 10

mg

83.The Blood-brain barrier is present in except:

(A). Postrema area
(B). Subformicular area
(C). Neurohypophysis
(D). Habernacular trigone
Ans. (D). Habernacular Trigone-

84.All of the following are SECOND generation antihistamines except:

(A). Cyclizine
(B). Loratidine

(C). Fexofenadine
(D). Atorvalastine

Ans. (A). Cyclizine

85.Christmas disease is due to deficiency of factor

:a) Plasma Thromboplstin Antecedant
b) Plasma Thromboplastin ComponentAns. (B). Plasma thromboplastin component.

86.Which stage 0f.gingiva size shape texture change

(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 4

Ans. (A). Stage 3-