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c. 2:2
d. 2:3
Ans- d
Explanation:
Let the principal be P and rate be R
then
Ratio = [(PR6100):(PR9100)]
=6PR:9PR
=2:3
.............................................
At what rate percent per annum will the simple interest on a sum of money be 2/5
of the amount in 10 years?
a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 3%
d. 4%
Ans - d
Explanation:
Let sum = x
Time = 10 years.
S.I = 2x /5, [as per question]
Rate =( (100 * 2x) / (x*5*10))%
Rate = 4%
.............................................
Which of the following are the advantages of NPV and IRR method? (i) They gives
exact results, (ii) They take into account time value of money, (iii) They focus on
cash flows rather than on accounting profits
a. Only (i) and (ii)
b. Only (i) and (iii)
c. Only (ii) and (iii)
d. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans - c
.............................................
Even when two projects are mutually exclusive, capital rationing ...... (i) Results in
accurate ranking by NPV method, (ii) Results in accurate ranking by IRR method
a. Only (i)
b. Only (ii)
c. Either (i) or (ii)
d. Both (i) and (ii)
Ans - d
.............................................
For a project, the difference between the sum of the present value of cash flows of
the project and cash outlays for financing the project is not its ...... (i) Future value,
(ii) Internal rate Is return , (iii) Net present value
a. Only (i) and (ii)
b. Only (i) and (iii)
c. Only (ii) and (iii)
d. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans - a
.............................................
Coupon rate is not the ...... (i) Specific rate of interest at which a bond is issued,
(ii) Market rate of return of debenture, (iii) The rate at which a bond is purchased
a. Only (i) and (ii)
b. Only (i) and (iii)
c. Only (ii) and (iii)
d. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans - c
.............................................
A person invested Rs. 500000 in a bank FDR @ 8% p.a. for 1 year. If interest is
compounded on yearly basis, the amount payable shall be ......
a. 520000
b. 540000
c. 560000
d. 580000
Ans - b
Solution:
P = 500000
R = 8% yearly
T = 1 yr
Since compounding is annualy and its only 1-time investment, the formula to be
used:
----------------------FV = P * (1+R)^T
----------------------So,
FV = 500000 * (1+0.08)^1
= 540000 Ans.
.............................................
The intrinsic value of bond is not the ...... (i) Face value, (ii) Present value of cash
flows in future, (iii) Market value
a. Only (i) and (ii)
b. Only (i) and (iii)
c. Only (ii) and (iii)
d. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans - b
.............................................
An asset cost Rs. 16,00,000/- has residual value of Rs. 1,00,000/-, and is expected
to last 5 years. Calculate the depreciation for 4th year using sum of the digits
Method.
a. Rs. 100000
b. Rs. 200000
c. Rs. 300000
d. Rs. 400000
Ans - b
Let me explain :
D = (nth/E(sigma)n)(cost-Residual Value)
E(sigma)n = 1+2+3+4+5 = 15
Cost-Residual Value = 1600000 - 100000 = 1500000
1st year = 5/15(1500000) = 500000
2nd year = 4/15(1500000) = 400000
3rd year = 3/15(1500000) = 300000
4th year = 2/15(1500000) = 200000
5th year = 1/15(1500000) = 100000
.............................................
A sum of Rs 12,500 amounts to Rs. 15,500 in the 4 years at the rate of simple
interest. Find the rate percent
A. 6 %
B. 7 %
C. 8 %
D. 9 %
Ans - A
Explanation:
S.I.=P*R*T/100
=>R=S.I.*100/P/T
So, S.I = 15500 - 12500 = 3000.
=>R = 3000*100/12500/4
= 6%
.............................................
The holding period for which interest rate risk disappears is not known as ...... (i)
Safety of bond, (ii) Duration of the bond, (iii) Maturity of the bond
a. Only (i) and (ii)
b. Only (i) and (iii)
c. Only (ii) and (iii)
d. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans - b
.............................................
A person invested Rs. 800000 in a bank FDR @ 10% p.a. for 1 year. If interest is
compounded on half-yearly basis, the amount payable shall be ......
a. 872000
b. 880000
c. 882000
d. 884000
Ans - c
Solution:
P = 800000
R = 10% / 2 = 5% (since compounding is semi-annually, rate is divided by 2
T = 1*2 = 2 (since compounding is semi-annually, time is multiplied by 2)
Since compounding is semi-annually and its only 1-time investment, the formula
to be used:
----------------------FV = P * (1+R)^T
----------------------So,
FV = 800000 * (1+0.05)^2
= 882000
.............................................
In perpetual bonds, only ...... paid. (i) Interest, (ii) Maturity
a. Only (i)
b. Only (ii)
c. Either (i) or (ii)
d. Both (i) and (ii)
Ans - a
.............................................
Coupon rate is not the ...... (i) Specific rate of interest at which a bond is issued,
(ii) Market rate of return of debenture, (iii) The rate at which a bond is purchased
a. Only (i) and (ii)
b. Only (i) and (iii)
c. Only (ii) and (iii)
d. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans - c
.............................................
Time value of money is irrelevant in ...... (i) Accounting rate of return method, (ii)
Pay back period method, (iii) Internal rate of return method
a. Only (i) and (ii)
b. Only (i) and (iii)
c. Only (ii) and (iii)
d. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans - a
.............................................
What is the present worth of Rs. 132 due in 2 years at 5% simple interest per
annum
A. 110
B. 120
C. 130
D. 140
Ans - B
Explanation:
Let the present worth be Rs.x
Then,S.I.= Rs.(132 - x)
= (x*5*2/100) = 132 - x
= 10x = 13200 - 100x
= 110x = 13200
x= 120
.............................................
If the rates in Mumbai are US $1=Rs.42.850. In London market are US $1=Euros
0.7580 Therefore for one Euro we will get
a. Rs.56.45
b. Rs.56.53
c. Rs.56.38
d. Rs.56.50
Ans - b
.............................................
A = P(1+r/100)^n
= 10000 (1+4/100)^2
= 10000 (1.04)^2
= 10000 (1.0816)
= 10816
So, Total Amount on Rs. 10000 at 4% p.a for 2 years is : Rs. 10816
.............................................
A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 2,800 in 2 years and to Rs.
3,250 in 5 years. Find the sum and the rate of interest.
a. Rs. 2,500; 5%
b. Rs. 2,500; 6%
c. Rs. 3,000; 5%
d. Rs. 3,000; 6%
Ans - b
.............................................
An asset cost Rs. 3,30,000/- has residual value of Rs. 30,000/-, and is expected to
last 4 years. Calculate the depreciation for 2nd year using sum of the digits
Method.
a. Rs. 1,20,000/b. Rs. 90,000/c. Rs. 60,000/d. Rs. 30,000/Ans - b
Let me explain :
D = (nth/E(sigma)n)(cost-Residual Value)
E(sigma)n = 1+2+3+4 = 10
1st year = 4/10(300000) = 120000
2nd year = 3/10(300000) = 90000
3rd year = 2/10(300000) = 60000
4th year = 1/10(300000) = 30000
.............................................
In SPOT, the exchange of currencies take place on
a. Same Day
b. Next Day
Ans - a
.............................................
In TOM, the exchange of currencies take place on
a. Same Day
b. Next Day
c. Second Working Day
c. Third Working Day
Ans - b
.............................................
Operation of borrowing in one centre and lending in another at higher rate, is
called as
a. Spot
b. Forward
c. Arbitrage
d. None of these
Ans - c
............................................
A capital equipment costing Rs. 200,000 today has Rs. 50,000 salvage value at
the end of 5 years. If the straight line depreciation method is used, what is the
book value of the equipment at the end of 2 years?
a. Rs. 200,000
b. Rs. 170,000
c. Rs. 140,000
d. Rs. 50,000
Ans - c
Explanation :
200000-50000=150000/5=30000
So, per year depreciation is Rs.30000/So, at the end of 2 years, book value will be
200000-60000=140000/.............................................
Depreciation arises not because of...... (i) Fall in the market value of an asset, (ii)
Physical wear and tear, (iii) Fall in the value of money.
C. 130
D. 140
Ans - B
Explanation:
Let the present worth be Rs.x
Then,S.I.= Rs.(132 - x)
= (x*5*2/100) = 132 - x
= 10x = 13200 - 100x
= 110x = 13200
x= 120
.............................................
Under the diminishing balance method depreciation, depreciation amount will
not ...... (i) Increase every year, (ii) Remain constant every year, (iii) Decreases
every year
a. Only (i) and (ii)
b. Only (i) and (iii)
c. Only (ii) and (iii)
d. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans - a
.............................................
Under the straight line method of providing depreciation, depreciation amount will
not ...... (i) Increase every year, (ii) Remain constant every year, (iii) Decreases
every year
a. Only (i) and (ii)
b. Only (i) and (iii)
c. Only (ii) and (iii)
d. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans - b
.............................................
S.I. = PRT100
So, by putting the values in the above formula, we get
S.I. = 700050/3*9/12/100
= 875
[Please note that we have divided by 12 as we converted 9 months in a year
format]
.............................................
Cost of asset = 1,00,000
Estimated residual value = 10,000
Estimated useful life of asset = 5 years
Find the depreciation amount for 3rd year using double declining balance
method.
a. 14400
b. 14600
c. 14800
d. 16400
Ans - a
Explanation
Depreciation rate = (1/useful life) x 200%
= 1/5 x 200% = 20% x 2 = 40%
[Year 1]
Depreciation amount for year 1
= beginning book value x depreciation rate
= 1,00,000 x 40% = 40,000
Accumulated depreciation at the end of year 1 = 40,000
Book value at the end of year 1
= 1,00,000 - 40,000 = 60,000
[Year 2]
Depreciation amount for year 2
= beginning book value x depreciation rate
= 60,000 x 40% = 24,000
Accumulated depreciation at the end of year 2
= 40,000 + 24,000 = 64,000
Book value at the end of year 2
= 1,00,000 - 64,000 = 36,000
[Year 3]
Depreciation amount for year 3
= beginning book value x depreciation rate
= 36,000 x 40% = 14,400
.............................................
When the expected rate of interest is lower than the coupon rate a bond may
be issued ......
a. At par
b. At discount
c. At premium
d. At any rate
Ans - c
.............................................
The risk adjusted discount rate approach for NPV determination makes a
balance between ...... (i) Degree of risk, (ii) Degree of profitability, (iii) Rate of
return
a. Only (i) and (ii)
b. Only (i) and (iii)
c. Only (ii) and (iii)
d. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans - b
.............................................
Find the simple interest on the Rs. 2000 at 25/4% per annum for the period
from 4th Feb 2015 to 18th April 2015
A. Rs 25
B. Rs 30
C. Rs 35
D. Rs 40
Ans - a
Explanation:
One thing which is tricky in this question is to calculate the number of days.
Always remember that the day on which money is deposited is not counted
while the day on which money is withdrawn is counted.
So lets calculate the number of days now,
Time = (24+31+18) days
= 73/365 years
= 1/5 years
P = 2000
R = 25/4%
S.I. = 2000*25/4/5/100
= 25
.............................................
A project should not be undertaken if its IRR is ...... (i) Less than the cost of
capital, (ii) More than the cost of capital, (iii) Equal to the cost of capital
a. Only (i) and (ii)
b. Only (i) and (iii)
c. Only (ii) and (iii)
d. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans - b
.............................................
If a bond is purchased at its current market price and if the coupon interest is
received, the rate of return on it is measured by ......
a. Yield to maturity of bond
b. Current yield of bond
c. Current present value of bond
d. Future yield of bond.
Ans - b
.............................................
S.I.=P*R*T/100
=>P=S.I.*100/R/T
By applying above formula we can easily solve this question, as we are
already having the simple interest.
P = 1230*100/6/5
= 4100
.............................................
Effective annual rate of interest corresponding to nominal rate of 6% per
annum compounded half yearly will be
A. 6.09%
B. 6.10%
C. 6.12%
D. 6.14%
Ans - A
Explanation:
Let the amount Rs 100 for 1 year when compounded half yearly, n = 2, Rate
= 6/2 = 3%
Amount=100(1+3/100)^2=106.09
Effective rate = (106.09 - 100)% = 6.09%
.............................................
Cost of asset = 1,00,000
Estimated residual value = 10,000
Estimated useful life of asset = 5 years
Find the depreciation amount for 3rd year using double declining balance
method.
a. 14400
b. 14600
c. 14800
d. 16400
Ans - a
Explanation
Depreciation rate = (1/useful life) x 200%
= 1/5 x 200% = 20% x 2 = 40%
(*) depreciation stops when book value = residual value
[Year 1]
Depreciation amount for year 1
= beginning book value x depreciation rate
= 1,00,000 x 40% = 40,000
Accumulated depreciation at the end of year 1 = 40,000
Book value at the end of year 1
= 1,00,000 - 40,000 = 60,000
[Year 2]
Depreciation amount for year 2
= beginning book value x depreciation rate
= 60,000 x 40% = 24,000
Accumulated depreciation at the end of year 2
= 40,000 + 24,000 = 64,000
Book value at the end of year 2
= 1,00,000 - 64,000 = 36,000
[Year 3]
Depreciation amount for year 3
= beginning book value x depreciation rate
= 36,000 x 40% = 14,400
Accumulated depreciation at the end of year 3
= 40,000 + 24,000 + 14,400 = 78,400
Book value at the end of year 3
= 1,00,000 - 78,400 = 21,600
[Year 4]
Depreciation amount for year 4
= beginning book value x depreciation rate
= 21,600 x 40% = 8,640
Accumulated depreciation at the end of year 4
A. 750
B. 700
C. 650
D. 600
Ans - D
Explanation:
We need to calculate the total amount to be paid by him after 4 years, So it
will be Principal + simple interest. So,
=>500+500*5*4/100
=>Rs.600
.............................................
The yield to maturity is a rate of return which
a. gives the current yield
b. Is the discount rate at which the present value, of the coupons and the
final payment at face value, equals the current price
c. gives the return at maturity on the bond for the original holder
d. b or c
Ans - d
.............................................
The relationship between the bond prices and interest rates is one of the
Following
a. direct & linear
b. inverse & linear
c. direct and curvilinear
d. no relationship
Ans - b
.............................................
Cost of asset = 8,00,000
Estimated residual value = 10% of the cost
Estimated useful life of asset = 5 years
Find the accumulated depreciation for the 2nd year using double declining
balance method.
a. 312000
b. 424000
c. 512000
d. 604000
Ans - c
Explanation
Depreciation rate = (1/useful life) x 200%
= 1/5 x 200% = 20% x 2 = 40%
[Year 1]
Depreciation amount for year 1
= beginning book value x depreciation rate
8,00,000 x 40% = 3,20,000
Accumulated depreciation at the end of year 1 = 3,20,000
Book value at the end of year 1
8,00,000 - 3,20,000 = 4,80,000
[Year 2]
Depreciation amount for year 2
= beginning book value x depreciation rate
4,80,000 x 40% = 1,92,000
Accumulated depreciation at the end of year 2
3,20,000 + 1,92,000 = 5,12,000
.............................................