Documenti di Didattica
Documenti di Professioni
Documenti di Cultura
9. Sales orientation is the view that customers will not ordinarily buy enough of the firm's
products unless there is an aggressive sales campaign.
a) True
b) False
10. The marketing mix consists of product, price, place, promotion, people, process and payment.
a) True
b) False
11. Customer centrality means providing everything the customer needs and wants.
a) True
b) False
12. A brand manager is responsible for all the decisions relating to a specific brand.
a) True
b) False
13. Publics are organisations or individuals that have actual or potential influence on the
company's sales.
a) True
b) False
14. A need is essential: a want is a luxury.
a) True
b) False
15. Relationship marketing focuses on the lifetime value of the customer.
a) True
b) False
16. Societal marketing is about the needs of society as a whole.
a) True
b) False
17. The paradigm that leads to more complex products at ever-increasing prices is _______.
a) Product orientation
b) Production orientation
c) Marketing orientation
d) Sales orientation
18. Someone who is responsible for finding out what individual customers need, and explaining
how the firm's products meet those needs, is a _________.
a) Brand manager
b) Salesperson
c) Sales manager
d) Market research manager
19. Someone who controls media purchases and deals with advertising agencies is ___________.
a) An advertising manager
b) A brand manager
4.(b)
9. (a)
14. (b)
19. (a)
5. (d)
10. (b)
15. (a)
20. (c)
Unstructured, strategic
Unstructured, operational
Structured, strategic
Structured, operational
5. One way to decouple the production system and the sales system is:
a) To introduce a feedback loop
b) To treat the systems as black boxes
c) To decrease sales
d) To introduce an inventory
6. Which of the following decision is least likely to be supported by a management information
system?
a) Company reorganisation
b) Analysis of performance
c) Allocating budgets
d) Dealing with customer enquiries
7. Which of the following best describes formal information?
a)
b)
c)
d)
8. Psychologists use the term ______ to describe the way that individuals absorb information.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Cognitive style
Intelligence Quotient
Human Computer Interaction
Data Processing
Environment
Sub-system
Comparator
Effector
11. Two systems are described as ______ if a change in the outputs of one causes a substantial
change in the state of the other.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Highly decoupled
Highly coupled
Black boxes
Sub-systems
12. The decision making carried out by the most senior management is called Operational
Planning and Control.
a) True
b) False
13. The decision making carried out by middle management is called Strategic Planning.
a) True
b) False
14. The decision making carried out by the most junior levels of management is called
Operational Planning and Control.
a) True
b) False
15. Decisions which are governed by clear rules are known as unstructured decisions.
a) True
b) False
16. Information produced for a business has an associated cost.
a) True
b) False
17. It is not possible to measure the benefits of information in monetary terms.
a) True
b) False
18. A system that has little or no links to its environment is called a closed system.
a) True
b) False
19. If all sub-systems are optimised then the total system must be optimised.
a) True
b) False
20. In a business continuity plan which of the following notification directories is the MOST
important?
a) Equipment and supply vendors
b) Insurance company agents
c) Contract personnel services
d) A prioritized contact list
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b)
2. (a)
3. (c)
6. (a)
7. (b)
8. (a)
11. (b)
12. (b)
13. (b)
16. (a)
17. (a)
18. (a)
4.(b)
9. (b)
14. (a)
19. (b)
5. (d)
10. (a)
15. (b)
20. (d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
4.(c)
9. (c)
14. (b)
19. (a)
5. (b)
10. (d)
15. (d)
20. (b)
a)
b)
c)
d)
c) A catastrophe plan
d) A convergence plan
16. Good crisis management involves immediately decentralising control to a number of welltrained teams. They concentrate on speedy resolution of the crisis.
a) True
b) False
17. Demand for a given item is said to be dependent if
a) the item has several children
b) there is a deep bill of materials
c) the finished products are mostly services (rather than goods)
d) there is a clearly identifiable parent
18. Dependent demand and independent demand items differ in that
a) For any product, all components are dependent-demand items
b) The need for independent-demand items is forecasted
c) The need for dependent-demand items is calculated
d) All of the above are true
19. A master production schedule specifies
a) The financial resources required for production
b) What component is to be made, and when
c) What product is to be made, and when
d) The labor hours required for production
20. A master production schedule contains information about
a) Quantities and required delivery dates of all sub-assemblies
b) Quantities and required delivery dates of final products
c) Inventory on hand for each sub-assembly
d) Inventory on hand for each final product
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (c)
2. (b)
3. (b)
6. (d)
7. (b)
8. (c)
11. (d)
12. (c)
13. (a)
16. (b)
17. (d)
18. (d)
4.(a)
9. (b)
14. (c)
19. (c)
5. (a)
10. (c)
15. (a)
20. (b)
Indirect Material
Direct Material
Finished Material
Standard Parts
13. ..are the basic materials which have not undergone any conversion since their
receipt from suppliers.
a) WIP
b) Raw Material
c) Finished Parts
d) Work Made Parts
14. __________ is concerned with the maximization of a firm's earnings after taxes.
a) Shareholder wealth maximization
b) Profit maximization
c) Stakeholder maximization
d) EPS maximization
15. What is the most appropriate goal of the firm?
a) Shareholder wealth maximization.
b) Profit maximization.
c) Stakeholder maximization.
d) EPS maximization.
16. Which of the following statements is correct regarding profit maximization as the primary
goal of the firm?
a) Profit maximization considers the firm's risk level.
b) Profit maximization will not lead to increasing short-term profits at the expense of
lowering expected future profits.
c) Profit maximization does consider the impact on individual shareholder's EPS.
d) Profit maximization is concerned more with maximizing net income than the stock price.
17. __________ is concerned with the branch of economics relating the behavior of principals and
their agents.
a) Financial management
b) Profit maximization
c) Agency theory
d) Social responsibility
18. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding earnings per share (EPS)
maximization as the primary goal of the firm?
a) EPS maximization ignores the firm's risk level.
b) EPS maximization does not specify the timing or duration of expected EPS.
c) EPS maximization naturally requires all earnings to be retained.
d) EPS maximization is concerned with maximizing net income.
19. __________ is concerned with the maximization of a firm's stock price.
a) Shareholder wealth maximization
b) Profit maximization
c) Stakeholder welfare maximization
d) EPS maximization
20. Corporate governance success includes three key groups. Which of the following represents
these three groups?
a) Suppliers, managers, and customers.
b) Board of Directors, executive officers, and common shareholders.
c) Suppliers, employees, and customers.
d) Common shareholders, managers, and employees.
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (b)
2. (b)
3. (b)
6. (d)
7. (b)
8. (c)
11. (a)
12. (b)
13. (b)
16. (d)
17. (c)
18. (d)
4.(b)
9. (b)
14. (b)
19. (a)
5. (b)
10. (c)
15. (a)
20. (b)
8. __________ is the amount of new orders necessary to support production of the required
output in the next higher level in the bill of materials.
a) Scheduled receipts
b) Available to promise
c) Projected ending inventory
d) Planning horizon
9. The master production schedule is the schedule of production for what level product/material?
a) Level 0
b) Level 1
c) Level 2
d) Level 3
10. In a distribution requirements planning environment, forecasted demand at the plant level is
equal to ______ in the distribution center level.
a) Scheduled receipts
b) Planned receipts
c) Planned orders
d) None of the above
11. The list of quantities of components, ingredients, and materials required to produce a
product is the
a) Bill-of-materials.
b) Engineering change notice.
c) Purchase order.
d) Master schedule.
12. ____________ allows a segment of the master schedule to be designated as "not to be
rescheduled."
a) Pegging
b) Regenerative MRP
c) Time fence
d) System nervousness
13. A lot-sizing technique that generates exactly what was required to meet the plan is
a) The Wagner-Whitin algorithm.
b) Economic order quantity.
c) Lot-for-lot.
d) Part period balancing.
14. Breaking up the order and running part of it ahead of schedule is known as
a) Operations splitting.
b) Lot splitting.
c) Pegging.
d) Overlapping.
15. The difference between a gross material requirements plan (gross MRP) and a net material
requirements plan (net MRP) is
a) The net MRP includes consideration of the inventory on hand, whereas the gross MRP
does not.
b) The gross MRP doesn't take taxes into account, whereas the net MRP includes the tax
considerations.
c) The gross MRP may not be computerized, but the net MRP must be computerized.
d) The gross MRP includes consideration of the inventory on hand, whereas the net MRP
does not.
16. A phantom bill-of-materials is a bill-of-materials developed for
a) A subassembly that exists only temporarily.
b) A final product for which production is to be discontinued.
c) The purpose of grouping subassemblies when we wish to issue "kits" for later use.
d) A module that is a major component of a final product.
17. Which of the following lot-sizing techniques is likely to prove the most complex to use?
a) Part period balancing (PPB)
b) The Wagner-Whitin algorithm
c) Economic order quantity (EOQ)
d) Lot-for-lot
18. When a bill-of-materials is used in order to assign an artificial parent to a bill-of-materials, it
is usually called a
a) Phantom bill-of-materials.
b) Planning bill-of-materials.
c) Modular bill-of-materials.
d) Pick list.
19. The operations manager has several tools available to deal with MRP system nervousness.
Those tools are
a) Pseudo bills and kits.
b) Time fences and pegging.
c) Buckets with back flush.
d) Net and gross requirements.
20. An MRP system that provides feedback to the capacity plan, master production schedule, and
production plans is called
a) System nervousness.
b) Closed-loop mrp.
c) Lot-sizing.
d) Load report.
Answers for Self Assessment Questions
1. (d)
2. (d)
3. (c)
6. (d)
7. (d)
8. (a)
11. (a)
12. (c)
13. (c)
16. (a)
17. (b)
18. (b)
4.(b)
9. (a)
14. (b)
19. (b)
5. (d)
10. (c)
15. (a)
20. (b)
8. The work measurement method that is not usually used for setting standards for repetitive,
well-defined jobs is:
a) The elemental standard data approach
b) The predetermined data approach
c) The time study method
d) The work sampling method
9. Which of the following is not a trend in job design?
a) Quality control
b) Cross training
c) Jobs for life
d) Team approaches
10. Which of the following is not a trend in job design?
a) Temporary Workers
b) 9 to 5 scheduling
c) Alternative workplaces (telecommuting, shared offices, etc)
d) Automation of manual work
11. Which is not an advantage of specialization?
a) Upstream and downstream quality control
b) Rapid training
c) Ease of recruiting
d) No education required
12. Which is not a disadvantage of specialization?
a) Boredom
b) Little opportunity to progress
c) Low cost to replace a worker
d) Limited flexibility to change the process
13. Job enrichment includes all of the following except:
a) Horizontal enrichment
b) Vertical enrichment
c) Diagonal enrichment
d) Both A and B
14. Looking at socio-technical systems, which job design principle is not important?
a) Skill variety
b) Feedback
c) Task autonomy
d) None of the above (all are important)
15. Work measurement sets time standards that are necessary for all of the following reasons
except:
a) To schedule work and allocate capacity
b) To scare employees
c) To provide an objective basis for motivation
d) To bid for new contracts
4.(a)
9. (c)
14. (d)
19. (d)
5. (d)
10. (b)
15. (b)
20. (c)
4.(c)
9. (a)
14. (d)
19. (c)
5. (d)
10. (c)
15. (d)
20. (b)
8. Through _____ marketing statisticians can extract useful information about individuals,
trends, and segments from the mass of data.
a) CRM
b) Prospecting
c) Datamining
d) Calculus
9. Companies can build interest and enthusiasm by using databases to remember customer
preferences. This strategy helps to _____.
a) Deepen customer loyalty
b) Reactivate dormant customers
c) Avoid serious customer mistakes
d) Identify prospects
10. One problem that can deter a firm from effectively using CRM is _____.
a) Having the resources to manage and train employees effectively
b) Not all customers want a relationship with the company
c) The expense of building and maintaining a customer database
d) All of the above
11. ____________ is the difference between the prospective customer's evaluation of all the
benefits and all the costs of an offering and the perceived alternatives.
a) Customer cost
b) Value delivery system
c) Value proposition
d) Customer perceived value
12. "Quality is defined by the customer" is
a) An unrealistic definition of quality
b) A user-based definition of quality
c) A manufacturing-based definition of quality
d) A product-based definition of quality
e) The definition proposed by the American Society for Quality Control
13. Which of the following is not one of the major categories of costs associated with quality?
a) Appraisal costs
b) Internal failures
c) External failures
d) None of the above, they are all major categories of costs associated with quality
14. According to the manufacturing-based definition of quality,
a) Quality is the degree of excellence at an acceptable price and the control of variability at
an
b) Acceptable cost
c) Quality depends on how well the product fits patterns of consumer preferences
d) Even though quality cannot be defined, you know what it is
e) Quality is the degree to which a specific product conforms to standards
15. All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a result of better quality except
a) Customer dissatisfaction costs
b) Inspection costs
4.(a)
9. (a)
14. (d)
19. (b)
5. (d)
10. (d)
15. (d)
20. (d)
b) Reintermediation
c) Disintermediation
d) Countermediation
9. IS can be used to reduce cycle time by:
a) Improved data integration between elements of the supply chain.
b) Increased efficiency of individual processes.
c) Reduced cost through outsourcing.
d) Reduced complexity of the supply chain.
10. The typical aim of the push approach to supply chain management is:
a) To reduce costs of distribution.
b) To enhance product and service quality.
c) To reduce costs of new product development.
d) Both the first and third answer above.
11. Supply chain management is essentially the optimisation of material flows and associated
information flows involved with an organisation's operations. To manage these flows, e-business
applications are essential to bring such benefits as noted in 'Internet retailing' in 2010 which
reported that the average rates of return to a high street retailer could be as high as 10%. What
did the same source report as the average rate of return for UK e-commerce sites?
a) 15%
b) 22%
c) 18%
d) 12%
12. Supply chain (SC) management involves the coordination of all supply activities of an
organisation from its suppliers to the delivery of products to its customers. There are various
features associated with this area of e-commerce and which refers to what is known as efficient
consumer response (ECR):
a) Transactions between an organisation and its customers and intermediaries
b) The links between an organisation and all partners involved
c) Creating and satisfying customer demand by optimizing strategies, promotions and
product introductions
d) None of the above
13. An organisation's supply chain can be viewed from a system's perspective that starts with the
acquisition of resources which are then transformed into products or services. Simply, put the
sequence is represented:
a) Inputs - process - outputs
b) Sourcing - input - process - outputs
c) Process - inputs - outputs
d) Inputs - outputs - process
14. Logistics is an integral part of supply chain management. Which explanation best represents
outbound logistics?
a) A supply chain that emphasises distribution of a product to passive customers
b) The management of resources supplied from an organisation to its customers and
intermediaries
c) An emphasis on using the supply chain to deliver value to customers who are actively
involved in product and service specification
d) The management of material resources entering an organisation from its suppliers and
other partners
15. The 'value chain' idea is a concept that has been well established for the past three decades
and it refers to considering key activities that an organization can conduct to add value for the
customer. It traditionally distinguished between primary activities and support activities. Why is
this concept regarded as outdated with the development of e-business?
a) There is a clear distinction between primary and support activities
b) The support activities offer far more than just support
c) Support activities have been subsumed under primary activities
d) The concept still holds and does not need revision
16. A value chain analysis provides an analytical framework for an organisation to examine
individual activities and determine value added at each stage. The principles can also be applied
to an organisation's external value stream analysis which considers how the whole production
and delivery process can be made more efficient. The activities can be categorized into those:
a) All of the below
b) Those required for product development or production systems
c) Those that do not add value
d) That create value as perceived by the customer
17. Improvements in the value chain can be implemented by following Kjellsdotter and Jonsson's
iterative planning cycle. Which of the following does not form part of the cycle?
a) Creating a preliminary delivery plan
b) Creating a preliminary production plan
c) Creating a consensus forecast
d) Creating a quality control plan
18. What does the following definition refer to: an organisation which uses communications
technology to allow it to operate without clearly define physical boundaries between different
functions?
a) Cloud organisation
b) Base-free organisation
c) E-organisation
d) Virtual organisation
19. Using digital communication to improve supply chain efficiency is dependent on effective
exchange and sharing of information. The challenges of achieving standardized data formats and
data exchange have given rise to the study of the optimisation of the:
a) Information supply chain
b) Virtual integration
c) Vertical integration
d) Information asymmetry
20. The typical benefits of e-supply chain management gained by a B2B company are quite
comprehensive. Which of the following is false though?
a) Increased efficiency of individual processes
4.(b)
9. (b)
14. (b)
19. (a)
5. (b)
10. (d)
15. (b)
20. (b)