Documenti di Didattica
Documenti di Professioni
Documenti di Cultura
in
ANATOMY
SAQs
in
ANATOMY
Third Edition
VG Sawant MS (Anatomy)
Professor and Head
Department of Anatomy
Padmashree Dr DY Patil Medical College
Nerul, Navi Mumbai, Maharashtra, India
Former Professor of Anatomy
Terna Medical College
Navi Mumbai, Maharashtra, India
Grant Medical College, Mumbai, Maharashtra, India
Overseas Offices
J.P. Medical Ltd.
83, Victoria Street, London
SW1H 0HW (UK)
Phone: +44-2031708910
Fax: +02-03-0086180
Email: info@jpmedpub.com
Website: www.jaypeebrothers.com
Website: www.jaypeedigital.com
2013, Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers
All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced in any form or
by any means without the prior permission of the publisher.
Inquiries for bulk sales may be solicited at: jaypee@jaypeebrothers.com
This book has been published in good faith that the contents provided by
the author contained herein are original, and is intended for educational
purposes only. While every effort is made to ensure accuracy of
information, the publisher and the author specifically disclaim any damage,
liability, or loss incurred, directly or indirectly, from the use or application
of any of the contents of this work. If not specifically stated, all figures
and tables are courtesy of the author. Where appropriate, the readers
should consult with a specialist or contact the manufacturer of the drug or
device.
SAQs in Anatomy
First Edition: 2003
Second Edition: 2005
Reprint: 2009
Third Edition: 2013
ISBN 978-93-5025-180-5
Dedicated to
My Parents
Wife Rekha
Daughter Kshittja
Son Viresh
x SAQs in Anatomy
Contents
1. General Anatomy ...................................... 1
2. Superior Extremity ................................ 17
3. Inferior Extremity .................................. 37
4. Thorax ........................................................ 53
5. Abdomen ................................................... 67
6. Head, Face and Neck ............................... 97
7. Brain ........................................................ 134
8. Histology ................................................. 157
9. Embryology ............................................ 184
10. Genetics ................................................... 210
11. Radiology ................................................ 222
GENERAL ANATOMY
D
F
2 SAQs in Anatomy
Functions:
1. It facilitates movement of the skin.
2. Conserves body heat.
Q. 4. What is deep fascia? Mention its two
functions.
Ans. Deep fascia is a fibrous sheet which invests
the body beneath the superficial fascia and is
devoid of fat.
Functions:
1. Keeps the underlying structures in position.
2. Provides extra surface for attachment of
muscles.
Q. 5. Give any four modifications of deep fascia.
Ans. 1. Aponeurosis.
2. Retinaculum.
3. Bursa.
4. Capsules of joint.
5. Sheaths around arteriescarotid sheath.
Q. 6. Give functions of articular capsule.
Ans. 1. It binds the articular bones together.
2. It supports the synovial membrane on the
inner surface.
3. Due to numerous sensory nerves supplying
capsule, it acts as a watch dog by producing
reflex contraction of muscles thus protecting the joint.
Q.7. Give functions of synovial membrane.
Ans. 1. The synovial fluid secrected by the synovial membrane provides nutrition to the
articular cartilage.
2. It liberates hyaluronic acid which maintains viscosity of the fluid.
3. It removes particulate matters and worn
out cartilage cells by the phagocytic activity.
Q. 8. Define terms origin and insertion of a
muscle.
Ans. 1. Origin of a muscleIt is the proximal
attachment of a muscle, which is relatively
fixed during its contraction.
2. Insertion of a muscleit is the distal
attachment of a muscle, which is relatively
movable during its contraction.
General Anatomy 3
Q. 9. What is isotonic or concentric action of a
muscle? Give one example.
Ans. IsotonicIso-means same. Tone of the muscle
remains same. Length of the muscle is reduced
by 1/3 or more during contraction and tone
remains same.
Examplelifting a load by contraction of
biceps and brachialis at the elbow joint.
Q. 10. What is isometric contraction of a muscle?
Give one example.
Ans. IsometricIso-means same, metric-means
length. Length of the muscle remains same.
During isometric contraction, the tension is
same as load and length of the muscle does
not change.
Exampleholding the arm outstretched.
Q. 11. What is excentric action or paying out of a
muscle? Give one example.
Ans. In excentric action the tension is less than the
load and the muscle lengthens while active
thus paying out gradually to control the speed
and force of a movement in the direction
opposite to that normally produced by the
muscle when it is shortening.
Examplelowering the arm to the side.
Q. 12. Give peculiarities of sesamoid bones.
Ans. 1. Develop in the tendon of a muscle
2. Ossify after birth
3. Devoid of periosteum
4. Absence of Haversian system.
Q. 13. Give classification of cartilaginous joints
mention one example of each.
Ans. 1. Primary cartilaginous jointthe bones are connected by hyaline cartilage and the joint is temporary.
ExampleSpheno-occipital joint.
2. Secondary cartilaginous jointunited by a disc of fibrocartilage
ExampleSymphysis pubis.
Q. 14. What are the swing and the shunt components of a muscle?
Ans. A swing component of a muscle produces
angular movement of the joint.
A shunt component of a muscle tends to draw
the bones along the shaft towards the joint
and compress the articular surface.
4 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 15. What is bursa? Give its function.
Ans. A bursa is a closed sac of synovial membrane
containing a capillary film of synovial fluid
lying between two mobiles but tightly opposed
surfaces.
A bursa reduces friction between two mobiles
but tightly opposing surfaces permit complete
freedom of movement within limited range.
Q. 16. Name any four types of normal bursae.
Ans. 1. Subcutaneous 2. Submuscular
3. Subfascial
4. Subtendinous
5. Communicating 6. Noncommunicating.
Q. 17. Name any four adventitious bursae.
Ans. 1. Students elbow
2. Porters shoulder
3. Housemaids knee
4. Clergymans knee
5. Weavers bottom
6. Bunion
Q. 18. Give examples of sesamoid bones.
Ans. 1. Patella
2. Pisiform
3. Two segamoid bones beneath the head of
Ist metatarsal in flexor hallucis brevis
4. Fabella in the lateral head of gastrocnemius
5. Riders bone in the Adductor longus.
Q. 19. What is active insufficiency of a muscle?
Give one example.
Ans. When a tendon of muscle crosses several joints
it cannot work with efficiency at all joints
simultaneously. This is called as active insufficiency of a muscle. As Flexor digitorum, profoundus crosses wrist metacorpophalangeal
interphalangeal joints, the fingers cannot be
fully flexed when the wrist is also flexed.
Q. 20. What is closed-packed and loose-packed
position of a joint? Give one example.
Ans. A. Closed-packed positionwhen the joint
surfaces become completely congruent, their
area of contact is maximal and they are
tightly compressed, no further movement
is possible, e.g. knee-full extension,
shoulder-abduction and lateral rotation.
General Anatomy 5
B. Loose-packed positionwhen the joint
surfaces are not congruent, i.e. least packed
position.
For example, knee-semiflexion, shouldersemiabduction.
Q. 21. Define posture. Name any two postural
muscles.
Ans. Posture is defined as the relation of the segments of the body, i.e. head, trunk and limbs
to each other.
Postural muscles-soleus, gastrocnemius
quadriceps femoris, gluteus maximus erector
spinac.
Q. 22. Specify the line of gravity and centre of
gravity in standing position.
Ans. The line of gravity passes anterior to the ankle
and knee joints, posterior to the hip joints,
behind the lumbar vertebrae, anterior to the
thoracic and lower cervical vertebrae and
through dens of the axis vertebra.
The centre of gravity in standing position lies
2-3 cm in front of the first sacral vertebra.
Q. 23. Name the synovial joints in which articular
surfaces are covered by white fibrocartilage.
Ans. 1. Sternoclavicular joint
2. Acromioclavicular joint
3. Temporomandibular joint.
Q. 24. Name intra-articular structures.
Ans. Tendons
1. Long head of biceps brachii
2. Popliteus
CartilagesIntra-articular disc of TM and
sternoclavicular joints, menisci, labrum
glenoidule labrum acetabulum.
LigamentsCruciate ligaments of knee joint
FatHaversion pad of fat.
Q. 25. Enumerate membranocartilaginous
bones.
Ans. 1. Clavicle
2. Occipital
3. Temporal
4. Mandible
5. Sphenoid.
6 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 26. Give functions of bones.
Ans. 1. They give shape and support to the body
2. They provide surfaces for the attachment
of muscles, tendons and ligaments
3. They form joints where movements take
place
4. Protection of viscera like lungs, heart brain
spinal cord
5. Bone marrow manufactures blood cells
6. Bones store body calcium and phosphorus.
Q. 27. Enumerate the factors which limit the
movements of a joint.
Ans. 1. Reflex contraction of antagonistic muscles.
2. Approximation of soft parts
3. Tension of the ligaments
4. Stimulation of mechanoreceptors in articular tissue.
Q. 28. Name different types of sutural joints.
Ans. 1. Serrate
2. Denticulate
3. Squamous
4. Limbous
5. Plane
6. Schindylesis
Q. 29. Name different types of epiphysis giving
one example of each.
Ans. 1. Pressure epiphysishead of femur
2. Traction epiphysistrochanter of femur
3. Compound epiphysis (Pressure + traction)ischial tuberosity
4. Composite epiphysisupper end of
humerus
5. Atavistic epiphysiscoracoid process of
scapula
6. Aberrant epiphysisat the bases of
metacarpal bones.
Q. 30. Name uniaxial synovial joints giving one
example of each.
Ans. 1. Hinge jointelbow joint
2. Pivot jointsuperior radioulnar joint.
Q. 31. Name biaxial synovial joints giving one
example of each.
Ans. 1. Condylar jointtemporomandibular joint
2. Ellipsoid jointwrist joint.
Q. 32. Name multiaxial synovial joints giving one
example of each.
Ans. 1. Saddle jointfirst carpometacarpal joint
2. Ball and socket jointshoulder joint.
General Anatomy 7
Q. 33. Give any four examples of skeletal muscles with parallel fasciculi.
Ans. 1. Quadrilateralthyrohyoid
2. Straplikesartorius
3. Straplike with tendinous intersections
Rectus abdominis
4. Fusiformbiceps brachii.
Q. 34. Give any four examples of skeletal muscles with oblique fasciculi.
Ans. 1. TriangularTemporalis.
2. Unipennateflexor pollicis longus
3. Bipennaterectus femoris
4. Multipennatedeltoid
5. CircumpennateTibialis anterior.
Q. 35. Give any four characteristics of synovial
joint.
Ans. 1. The articular ends are covered by articular
hyaline cartilage.
2. The joint is covered by joint capsule
3. The inner aspect of joint capsule and intracapsular non-articular parts of the bone are
covered by synovial membrane
4. The joint cavity contains synovial fluid
secreted by synovial membrane
5. The joint is strengthened by ligaments
6. Some degree of movement is always possible.
Q. 36. Name the arteries supplying a long bone.
Ans. 1. Nutrient artery
2. Epiphyseal artery
3. Metaphyseal arteries
4. Periosteal arteries.
Q. 37. Give morphological classification of
bones.
Ans. 1. Long bones
2. Short bones
3. Flat bones
4. Irregular bones
5. Pneumatic bones
6. Sesamoid bones
7. Accessory bones.
8 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 38. Give developmental classification of
bones mentioning one example each.
Ans. 1. Membranous bonesparietal
2. Cartilaginous boneshumerus
3. Membranocartilaginous bones-clavicle,
mandible.
Q. 39. Define a bone. Give its two functions.
Ans. A bone is highly vascular, constantly changing,
mineralized living connective tissue.
Functions:
1. Gives shape and support to the body
2. Provides surface for the attachment of
muscles and tendons.
Q. 40. Give medicolegal importance of bones.
Ans. 1. Estimation of age
2. Estimation of sex
3. Estimation of height
4. Cause of death.
Q. 41. Enumerate the areas of the body where
lymph capillaries are absent.
Ans. Epidermis, cornea, articular hyaline cartilage,
splenic pulp, bone marrow, liver lobule, brain,
spinal cord.
Q. 42. Name the areas of the body where sebaceous glands do not open into hair follicle but open directly on the skin surface.
Ans. Lips, nipple and areola of breast, tarsal glands
of the eyelids, glans penis, inner surface of prepuce, labia minora.
Q. 43. Name the areas of the body where sweat
glands are absent.
Ans. Nipple, inner surface of prepuce, labia minora,
glans penis, glans clitoris, margins of lips, nail
bed.
Q. 44. Name the areas of the body where apocrine sweat glands are present.
Ans. Axilla, prepuce, scrotum, monspubis, labia
minora, areola of the breast and perianal
regions.
Q. 45. Enumerate the areas of the body where
fat is absent in the superficial fascia.
Ans. Eyelids, external ear, penis, scrotum.
General Anatomy 9
Q. 46. Name the structures present in the
superficial fascia.
Ans. Cutaneous nerves and vessels, lymph nodes,
deeply situated sweat glands, mammary
glands, subcutaneous muscles in the face, neck
and scrotum.
Q. 47. Name any of the four end arteries in the
body.
Ans. 1. Central artery of retina
2. Arteries of spleen, kidney, lung
3. Central branches cerebral arteries
4. Vasa recti of small intestine.
Q. 48. Give examples of actual anterial anastomosis.
Ans. 1. Palmar arches
2. Plantar arches
3. Circle of willis
4. Labial branches of facial arteries
5. Intestinal arcades
6. Uterine and ovarian arteries.
Q. 49. Name the organs where portal systems of
vessels are found.
Ans. 1. Liver
2. Pituitary
3. Kidney
4. Suprarenal.
Q. 50. Name the areas where capillaries are
absent.
Ans. 1. Epidermis
2. Hair
3. Nails
4. Articular hyaline cartilage
5. Cornea.
Q. 51. Classify nerve cells according to polarity
giving example of each.
Ans. 1. Unipolarmesencephalic nucleus of
trigeminal nerve.
2. Bipolarolfactory cells of nasal mucosa
3. PsuedounipolarDorsal root ganglia
4. Multipolarmost of the neurones in the
body.
Q. 52. Enumerate the sites where smooth
muscles are present.
Ans. 1. Iris
2. All blood vessels
3. Pulmonary tree
10 SAQs in Anatomy
4. Walls of gastrointestinal tract from the
lower portion of the esophagus to the
internal anal sphincter
5. Walls and tubes of genitourinary tract
6. Piloerector muscles.
Q. 53. What is a dermatome? Give its clinical
importance.
Ans. The area of skin supplied by one spinal nerve
is called a dermatome. The area of sensory
loss of the skin following injuries of the spinal
cord or of the nerve roots can be determined by
examining the dermatomes for touch, pain, and
temperature.
Q. 54. Enumerate the curvatures of the vertebral column and mention the age at which
they develop.
Ans. A. Primary curvatures-concave anteriorly
thoracic and sacral appear before birth.
B. Secondary curvatures-convex anteriorly
1. Cervical-3 to 4 months when the child
starts holding its neck
2. Lumbar-6 to 9 months when the child
starts sitting (according to some authors
about 1 year i.e. when the child starts
standing).
Q. 55. Enumerate the abnormal curvatures of
the vertebral column.
Ans. A. Kyphosis-exaggerated thoracic curvature
B. Scoliosis-lateral bending
C. Kyphoscoliosis-Kyphosis + scoliosis
D. Lordosis-exaggerated lumbar curvature.
Q. 56. Define a joint. Enumerate three main
varieties of joints.
Ans. A joint is a junction between two or more bones
or cartilage with or without movement.
Structural classification
a. Fibrous joints
b. Cartilaginous joints
c. Synovial joints.
Q. 57. Mention the dermatomes at the following
levels.
1. Sternal angle 2. Xiphoid process
3. Umbilicus
4. Pubis.
Ans. 1. Sternal angle-T2
2. Xiphoid process-T7
General Anatomy 11
3. Umbilicus-T10
4. Pubis-L1
Q. 58. Draw and label a typical synovial joint.
12 SAQs in Anatomy
Q.61. Give functional classification of blood
vessels. Mention one example of each.
Ans. 1. Conducting vessel Aorta (Elastic Artery)
2. Distributing vessel Brachial (Muscular
Artery)
3. Resistance vessel Arteriole
4. Exchange vessel Capillary
5. Capacitance vessel Vein
Q.62. What are venae comitants? What are their
functions?
Ans. Below the knee and the elbow joints most of
the deep veins are arranged in pairs along the
sides of the arteries, which are called as venae
comitants.
Functions
1. Venae comitants help in the return of blood
towards the heart by the transmitted
pulsations of the arteries.
2. They help in countercurrent heat exchange
between arteries and veins.
Q.63. Enumerate the valve less veins.
Ans. 1. Venae Cavae
2. Hepatic
3. Ovarian
4. Renal
5. Spinal
6. Cerebral
7. Umbilical
8. Pulmonary
9. Emissary
10. Veins having less than 2 mm diameter.
Q.64. What are cavernous tissues? Name any
three cavernous tissues.
Ans. Cavernous tissues are blood filled spaces lined
by endothelium and surrounded by trabeculae
containing smooth muscle fibres. Arterioles
and venules open directly into these spaces.
Cavernous tissues
1. Erectile tissue of penis
2. Erectile tissue of clitoris
3. Nasal mucous membrane
4. Cavernous sinus
General Anatomy 13
Q.65. Give differences between red and white
muscles fibres.
Ans.
Red Muscles
White Muscles
1. They are red in
1. They are paler
colour due to more
in colour due to
myoglobin and
less myoglobin
rich capillary
and poor capillary
plexus around
plexus around
each muscles
each muscle
fiber.
fiber.
2. They show slow 2. They show fast
tonic contraction.
phasic contraction.
3. They are rich in 3. They are poor in
mitochondria and
mitochondria but
oxidative enzymes. rich in glycolytic
enzymes.
4. They have less
4. They have more
cross striations
cross striations and
more sarcoplasm.
less sarcoplasm.
5. As they show
5. As they show
well developed
anaerobic
aerobic metabometabolism,
lism, they are
they are quite
highly resistant
easily fatigued.
to fatigue.
Q.66. Enumerate tortuous arteries in the body
Ans. 1. Facial
2. Occipital
3. Splenic
4. Uterine
5. Nutrient
Q.67. Enumerate the surfaces of the body
without hair.
Ans. 1. Palms
2. Soles
3. Glans penis
4. Labia minora
5. Umbilicus
6. Inner surface of labia majora
Q.68. Name the arteries formed by fusion of
other arteries.
Ans. 1. Basilar artery vertebral arteries
2. Anterior spinal artery anterior spinal
branches of vertebral arteries.
3. Azygous arteries of vagina branches of
uterine and vaginal arteries.
14 SAQs in Anatomy
Q.69. Enumerate hyaline cartilages.
Ans. 1. Articular
2. Thyroid
3. Cricoid
4. Tracheal rings
5. Costal
6. Nasal
7. Bronchial
8. Lower part of arytenoid
Q.70. Enumerate elastic cartilages.
Ans. 1. Cartilage of epiglottis
2. Cartilage of pinna
3. Corniculate
4. Cuneiform
5. Apex of arytenoid
6. Cartilage of auditory tube
7. Cartilage of external acoustic meatus.
Q.71. Enumerate fibrocartilages.
Ans. 1. Intervertebral disc
2. Inter-pubic disc
3. Articular discs of temporomandibular,
sternoclavicular, and inferior radioulnar
joints
4. Labrum glenoidale and acetabulare
5. Mensci of knee joint
Q.72. A skeletal muscle is sometimes referred
to as voluntary muscle. However, it is an
unsatisfactory term. Explain.
Ans. The skeletal muscle is sometimes referred to
as voluntary muscle because the movements
in which it participates are often initiated
under conscious control. However, this is an
unsatisfactory term since it is involved in
many movements breathing, blinking,
swallowing and the actions of muscles of the
perineum and the middle ear are examples
that are usually or exclusively driven at an
unconscious level.
Q.73. What are synergists? Give one example.
Ans. When the prime movers cross more than one
joint, the undesired actions at the proximal
joints are prevented by certain muscles called
as synergists. During making a tight fist the
flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus
General Anatomy 15
flex the fingers. The wrist joint is fixed in slight
extension by extensors of wrist. These are
called as synergists.
Q.74. Define terms (a) Prime mover (b) Antagonist. Give one example of each.
Ans. a. Prime moverWhen a muscle is a chief
muscle or a member of a chief group of
muscles in producing a particular movement is called a prime mover. Brachials is
a prime mover in the movement of flexion
of the elbow joint.
b. AntagonistThe muscle which opposes the
action of the prime mover is called the
antagonist. The treeps brachii opposes the
action of brachialis in flexing the elbow
joint. Antagonist actually help the prime
mover by active controlled relaxation due
to recprocal innervation.
Q.75. Mention the factors maintaining stability
of joints.
Ans. 1. Bony configuration
2. Ligaments
3. Tone of the muscles
4. Atmospheric pressure
Q.76. Mention functions of articular discs.
Ans. 1. Divide the joint cavity
2. Lubrication
3. Prevent wear and tear of the articular
cartilage
4. The upper compartment shows gliding
movement and lower compartment shows
angular movements.
Q.77. Why the shaft of a long bone is hollow?
Ans. The hollow shaft of the long bone confers high
strength in bending, minimizes bone mass and
increases the speed of the movement.
Q.78. Name the skeletal muscles with no bony
attachments.
Ans. Frontalis, bulbospongiosus, risorius, palmaris
brevis, intrinsic muscles of the tongue,
subcutaneous part of external anal sphincter.
16 SAQs in Anatomy
Q.79. Name unpaired muscles in the body.
Ans. Diaphragm, trachealis, posterior cricoarytenoid, external urethral sphincter, internal anal sphincter.
Q.80. Name elastic ligaments in the body.
Ans. Ligamentum nuchae, ligamentum flavam,
spring ligament.
Q.81. Name commonly ruptured tendons in the
body.
Ans. Tendon of quadriceps femoris, tendocalcaneus,
biceps brachii, supraspinatus, external
pollicius longus.
Q.82. Name the prevertebral muscles.
Ans. Longus capitis, longus colli, scalenus anterior,
medius and posterior, psoas major, quadratus
lumborum, piriformis.
SUPERIOR EXTREMITY
18 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 6. Name the branches of brachial artery.
Ans. 1. Profunda brachii
2. Superior ulnar collateral
3. Inferior ulnar collateral
4. Nutrient artery to humerus
5. Muscular branches
6. Radial
7. Ulnar.
Q. 7. Name the arteries taking part in the anastomosis around the scapula.
Ans. A. Around body of scapula
1. Suprascapular artery (branch of thyrocervical trunk)
2. Deep branch of transverse cervical artery
3. Circumflex scapular (branch of subscapular).
B. Anastomoses over the acromial process
1. Acromial branch of thoraco-acromial
artery.
2. Acromial branch of suprascapular
artery
3. Acromial branch of posterior circumflex
humeral artery.
Q. 8. Name the arteries taking part in the
anastomosis around elbow joint.
Ans. A. In front of lateral epicondyle
1. Anterior descending
2. Radial recurrent.
B. Behind lateral epicondyle
1. Posterior descending
2. Interosseous recurrent.
C. In front of medial epicondyle.
1. Inferior ulnar collateral
2. Anterior ulnar recurrent.
D. Behind medial epicondyle
1. Superior ulnar collateral
2. Posterior ulnar recurrent.
E. Just above olecrenon fossa.
A branch from posterior descending anastomosis with branch from inferior ulnar collateral.
Q. 9. Give the boundaries and contents of
quadrangular space.
Ans. Boundaries:
Superior:
1. Subscapularis in front
2. Capsule of shoulder joint
Superior Extremity 19
3. Teres minor behind.
Medial:Long head of triceps
Lateral:Surgical neck of humerus
Inferior:Teres major.
Contents:
1. Axillary nerve
2. Posterior circumflex humeral artery.
Q. 10. Give boundaries and structures passing
through upper triangular space.
Ans. Boundaries
MedialTeres minor
LateralLong head of triceps
InferiorTeres major
Contents: Circumflex scapular artery.
Q. 11. Give boundaries and structures passing
through lower triangular space.
Ans. Boundaries
SuperiorTeres major
MedialLong head of triceps
LateralMedial border of humerus
Contents:
1. Radial nerve
2. Profunda brachii vessels.
Q. 12. Give boundaries of cubital fossa.
Ans. a. Laterallymedial border of brachioradialis
b. Mediallylateral border of pronator teres
c. Baseis directed upwards represented by
an imaginary line joining epicondyles of the
humerus.
d. Apexdirected downwards, formed by
meeting point of lateral and medial
boundaries
Floor:
i. Brachialis
ii. Supinator muscles.
Q. 13. Give contents of cubital fossa.
Ans. 1. Median nerve
2. Termination of brachial artery and beginning of radial and ulnar arteries
3. Tendon of biceps with bicipital aponeurosis
4. Radial nerve between the brachioradialis
and extensor carpi radialis longus.
20 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 14. Name the branches of axillary nerve.
Ans. A. Muscular
1. Deltoid
2. Teres minor.
B. CutaneousUpper lateral cutaneous nerve
of arm
C. Articularshoulder joint
D. VascularTo posterior circumflex humeral
artery.
Q. 15. Name the branches of musculocutaneous
nerve.
Ans. A. Muscular
i. Bisceps brachii
ii. Brachialis
iii. Coracobrachialis
B. CutaneousLateral cutaneous nerve of
forearm.
Q. 16. Name the branches of median nerve in
the forearm and palm.
Ans. A. Forearm
1. Muscular
i. Pronator teres
ii. Flexor carpi radialis
iii. Palmaris longus
iv. Flexor digitorum superficialis
2. Anterior Interosseous
i. Flexor pollicis longus
ii. Pronator quadratus
iii. Lateral half of flexor digitorum profundus
It supplies distal radioulnar and
wrist joint.
3. Palmar cutaneous branch
4. Articular branch
i. Elbow joint
ii. Superior radioulnar joint.
5. Vascular: radial and ulnar artery.
6. Communicating branch to ulnar nerve.
B. Palm: Muscular: Abductor pollicis brevis
Flexor pollicis brevis
Apponens pollicis
Ist and 2nd lumbrical
Cutaneous: lateral 3 digits.
Q. 17. Name the branches of ulnar nerve in the
forearm and palm.
Ans. A. Forearm: Muscular
Superior Extremity 21
i. Flexor carpi ulnaris
ii. Medial half of flexor digitorum profundus.
Cutaneous: Palmar cutaneous branch
Dorsal cutaneous branch
Articular: Elbow joint.
B. Palm: Muscular:
i. Palmaris brevis
ii. Flexor digiti minimi
iii. Abductor digiti minimi
iv. Apponens digiti minimi
v. Medial two lumbricals (3rd and 4th
lumbricals)
vi. Palmar and dorsal interossei
vii. Adductor pollicis.
Cutaneous: Medial 1 fingers
Articular: Wrist joint.
Q. 18. Name the branches of radial nerve.
Ans. Muscular
i. Before entering the spiral groove, long and
medial heads of triceps
ii. In the spiral groove, lateral, medial head of
triceps and anconeous
iii. Below radial groove in front of arm Brachialis, Brachioradialis and Extensor carpi
radialis longus.
Cutaneous:
i. Above radial groove, posterior cutaneous
nerve of arm.
ii. In the radial groove, lower lateral cutaneous
nerve of arm and posterior cutaneous nerve
of forearm.
Articular branch: Elbow joint.
Q. 19. Name the branches of posterior interosseous nerve.
Ans. Muscular
i. Supinator
ii. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
iii. Extensor digitorum
iv. Extensor digiti minimi
v. Extensor carpi ulnaris
vi. Abductor pollicis longus
vii. Extensor pollicis brevis
viii. Extensor pollicis longus and indices.
Articular: Wrist and distal radioulnar joint.
22 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 20. Name different types of grips of hand.
Ans. 1. Power grip
2. Precision grip
3. Hook grip
4. Power + precision grip
5. Complex manipulation.
Q. 21. Name the muscles inserted in the dorsal
digital expansion.
Ans. 1. Extensor digitorum
2. Palmar Interossei
3. Dorsal Interossei
4. Lumbricals
Q. 22. Name the rotator cuff muscles.
Ans. 1. Subscapularis 2. Supraspinatus
3. Infraspinatus 4. Teres minor
Q. 23. Name the structures passing through
bicipital groove.
Ans. 1. Tendon of long head of biceps brachii
2. Synovial sheath of above tendon
3. Ascending branch of anterior circumflex
humeral artery.
Q. 24. Give functions of interosseous membrane.
Ans. 1. Binds radius and ulna (syndesmosis joint)
2. Provides attachment to muscles
3. Separates flexor and extensor compartments
4. Takes part in weight transmission from
radius to ulna.
Q. 25. What is carpal tunnel? Name the structures passing through it.
Ans. It is an osseofibrous tunnel formed by flexor
retinaculum and carpal bones. Structures
passing through carpal tunnel are:
1. Flexor digitorum superficialis
2. Flexor digitorum profundus
3. Tendon of flexor pollicis longus
4. Median nerve
5. Radial and ulnar bursae.
Q. 26. Name the structure passing in front of the
flexor retinaculum.
Ans. 1. Tendon of palmaris longus.
2. Palmar cutaneous branch of median nerve.
3. Palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar nerve
4. Ulnar nerve
5. Ulnar artery.
Superior Extremity 23
Q. 27. Enumerate the structures piercing clavipectoral fascia.
Ans. 1. Lateral pectoral nerve.
2. Thoracoacromial vessels (artery and vein)
3. Cephalic vein
4. Lymphatics (from breast and pectoral
region to apical axillary lymph nodes).
Q. 28. Name the muscles producing pronation.
Ans. 1. Pronator teres
2. Pronator quadratus
3. Flexor carpi radialis
assisted by
4. Palmaris longus.
Q. 29. Define Pronation and Supination.
Ans. Pronation: The head of the radius rotates
within annular ligament, and the lower end of
radius rotates forwards, medially across the
lower end of ulna and the palm faces posteriorly.
Supination: It is reverse of pronation. The head
of the radius rotates within the annular
ligament and the lower end of radius rotates
laterally and backwards regaining its original
position lateral to ulna and the palm faces
anteriorly.
Q. 30. Enumerate the movements of pectoral or
shoulder girdle.
Ans. 1. Elevation
2. Depression
3. Protraction
4. Retraction
5. Forward rotation 6. Backward rotation.
Q. 31. Name the joints of the shoulder girdle.
What type of joints are they?
Ans. Shoulder girdle consists of
1. Sternoclavicular jointsaddle joint
2. Acromioclavicular jointplane synovial
joint.
Q. 32. Enumerate movements at the shoulder
joint.
Ans. 1. Flexion
2. Extension
3. Adduction
4. Abduction
5. Medial rotation 6. Lateral rotation
7. Circumduction.
24 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 33. Analyse briefly the abduction at the
shoulder.
Ans. Abduction takes place partly at the shoulder
joint and partly at the shoulder girdle. The
humerus and the scapula move in the ratio of
2:1. Throughout abduction, for every 15
elevation, 10 occurs at the shoulder joint and
5 are due to movements scapula.
Q. 34. Name the muscles involved in the abduction of shoulder.
Ans. Ist 15 supraspinatus
15 to 90 Acromial fibres of deltoid
Above 90 Upper and lower fibres of Trapezius
with lower 5 digitations of serratus anterior.
Q. 35. Enumerate movements produced at the
metacarpophalangeal joint and muscles
causing them.
Ans. 1. FlexionInterossei and Lumbricals
2. ExtensionExtensors of fingers
3. AdductionPalmar interossei
4. AbductionDorsal interossei.
Q. 36. Give nerve supply and actions of lumbricals of hand.
Ans. The 1st and 2nd lumbricals are supplied by
the median nerve
The 3rd and 4th lumbricals are supplied by
the ulnar nerve
ActionsLumbricals flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joint of the digit into which they are
inserted.
Q. 37. Specify the joints at which biceps brachii
acts. Name the movements produced at
these joints.
Ans. Biceps brachii acts at shoulder joint and elbow
joint
Shoulder jointFlexion
Elbow jointFlexion
Powerful supination in mid flexed position.
Q. 38. Enumerate the palmar spaces.
Ans. 1. Pulp spaces of the fingers
2. The digital synovial sheaths
3. The ulnar bursa
Superior Extremity 25
4. The radial bursa
5. The midpalmar space
6. The thenar space
Q. 39. Give boundaries of triangle of auscultation. Give its clinical importance.
Ans. Boundaries of triangle of auscultation.
Belowupper border of Latissimus dorsi
Mediallylateral border of trapezius
Laterallymedial border of scapula
Floor6th intercostal space and rhomboideus
major.
By the use of stethoscope breath sounds can
be heard better in the triangle of auscultation
as compared to the remaining part of the back
which is covered by thick musculature.
Q. 40. Specify the nerve supply and actions of
lumbricals. Which position the hand will
adopt due to their paralysis.
Ans. Medial two lumbricalsulnar nerve
Lateral two lumbricalsmedian nerve
Actions: lumbricals produce flexion at the
metacarpopharyngeal joints and extension at
the interphalangeal joints.
Paralysis of lumbricals produces claw hand in
which there is hyperextension at the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the
interphalangeal joints.
Q. 41. Give boundaries of the axilla.
Ans. ApexAnteriorlyclavicle
Posteriorlysuperior border of scapula
Mediallyouter border of 1st rib
BaseSkin and fascia
Anterior wall
i. Pectoralis major
ii. Clavipectoral fasica enclosing pectoralis
minor and subclavius
Posterior wallsubcapularis above teres
major and Latissimus dorsi below
Lateral wallCoracobrachialis and short head
of biceps brachii. Upper part of shaft of
humerus.
Q. 42. Enumerate contents of the axilla.
Ans. Contents of the axilla:
1. Axillary artery and its branches
2. Axillary vein and its tributaries
26 SAQs in Anatomy
3. Axillary lymph nodes and associated
lymphatics
4. Infraclavicular part of brachial plexus
5. The long thoracic and intercostobrachial
nerves
6. Axillary fat and areolar tissue.
Q. 43. What is anatomical snuff box? Give
boundaries of anatomical snuff box.
Ans. It is a skin depression that lies distal to the
styloid process of the radius.
Boundariesmedially-tendon of extensor
pollicis longus.
Laterallytendons of abductor pollicis longus
and extensor pollicis brevis
Q. 44. Give clinical findings in injury to median
nerve at the elbow.
Ans. Clinical findings in injuries to median nerve
at the elbow:
The forearm is kept in the supine position
wrist flexion is weak and is accompanied by
adduction. No flexion is possible at the interphalangeal joints of the index and middle
fingers. The muscles of the thenar eminence
are paralyzed and wasted, so that the
eminence is flattened. The thumb is laterally
rotated and adducted. The hand looks flattened and apelike. SensoryThere is loss of
skin sensation of the lateral half of the palm
of the hand and palmar aspect of the lateral
three and half fingers and the skin is warmer
and drier than normal.
Q. 45. What is carpal tunnel syndrome?
Ans. Carpal tunnel syndrome is produced by compression of median nerve in the carpal tunnel.
It consists of burning pain or pins and needles
along the distribution of the median nerve to
the lateral three and half fingers and weakness of thenar muscles.
Q. 46. Give the clinical findings in injury to the
radial nerve in axilla.
Ans. In injury to the radial in axilla, the patient is
unable to extend the elbow joint, the wrist
joint, and the fingers. Wrist drop or flexion of
the wrist occurs.
Superior Extremity 27
There is a small loss of skin sensations down
the posterior surface of the lower part of the
arm and down a strip on the back of the
forearm. There is also a variable area of sensory loss on the lateral part of the dorsum of
the hand and dorsal surface of the roots of the
lateral three and half fingers.
Q.47. What is Erbs paralysis? Give clinical
findings of Erbs paralysis.
Ans. Injury to the upper trunk (mainly C5 partly
C6) of brachial plexus causes Erbs paralysis.
The deformity is known as policemans tip
hand or porters tip hand. The upper limb
hangs limply by the side, medially rotated and
adducted forearm extended and pronated.
There is loss of sensation along the lateral
side of the arm.
Q. 48. What is Klumpkes paralysis? Give clinical
findings of Klumpkes paralysis.
Ans. Injury to the lower trunk (mainly T1 partly C8)
of brachial plexus causes Klumpkes paralysis.
The deformity is known as clawhand. There is
hyperextension at the metacarpophalangeal
joints and flexion of the interphalangeal joints.
There is cutaneous anesthesia and analgesia
in a narrow zone along the ulnar border of the
forearm and hand.
Q. 49. What is Dupuytrens contracture? Which
structures are involved in Dupuytrens
contracture and what is the position
taken up by them?
Ans. Dupuytrens contracture is localised thickening and contracture of Palmar aponeurosis.
It starts near root of the ring finger, flexing it
at metacarpophalangeal joint and later
involving little finger in the same manner. In
long-standing cases there is flexion at the
proximal interphalangeal joints.
Q. 50. What is Volkmanns ischemic contracture? Involvement of which structure
causes this contracture? Which muscles
are mainly affected?
Ans. Volkmanns ischemic contracture is a contracture of muscles of the foreman following
28 SAQs in Anatomy
fractures of the lower end of the humerus or
fractures of the radius and ulna.
Localised segment of brachial artery goes into
spasm reducing the arterial flow to the flexor
and extensor muscles so they undergo ischaemic necrosis.
Flexor muscles are longer than the extensor
muscles and they are, therefore, the ones
mainly affected.
Q. 51. Give clinical findings in injury to the ulnar
nerve at elbow.
Ans. The hand assumes characteristic claw deformity (man en griff).
MotorFlexion at the wrist joint will result
in abduction. Medial border of the front of
forearm will show flattening.
The patient is unable to adduct or abduct
fingers. It is impossible to adduct the thumb.
The metacorpophalangeal joint becomes
hyper extended. Interphalangeal joints of the
4th and 5th fingers are flexed and wasting of
the hypothenar eminence.
Sensory loss of skin sensations over anterior
and posterior surfaces of the medial third of
the hand and medial one and half fingers.
VasomotorThe skin areas involved in sensory loss are warmer and drier than normal.
Q. 52. Give clinical findings in injury to ulnar
nerve at the wrist. What is ulnar paradox?
Ans. Clinical findings in injury to the ulnar nerve
at the wrist
Flattening of the hypothenar eminence. Metacarpophalangeal joints are hyperextend. Interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th fingers
are markedly flexed.
Usually higher the lesion more obvious is the
deformity, but in injury to ulnar nerve at the
wrist joint flexor digitorum profundus is not
involved which actively produces marked
flexion at the interphalangeal joints of the 4th
and 5th fingers as compared to that produced
due to injury to ulnar nerve at the elbow. This
is called as ulnar paradox.
Superior Extremity 29
Q. 53. Name any four structural changes at the
middle of the arm.
Ans. 1. Cross-sectional changes of the humeral
shaft from upper cylindrical to lower triangular
2. Median nerve crosses the front of brachial
artery from lateral to medial
3. Entry of radial nerve and profunda brachii
into spiral groove
4. Basilic vein pierces deep fascia.
Q. 54. Name the bones to which flexor retinaculum of superior extremity is attached.
Ans. 1. Scaphoid.
2. Pisiform
3. Hook of hamate 4. Trapezium.
Q. 55. Give functions of palmar aponeurosis.
Ans. 1. Provides firm attachment to the overlying
skin to improve grips
2. Protects palmar vessels and nerves and
prevents flexor tendons from bowstringing
3. Provides origin to the palmaris brevis
4. Palmar septa attached to aponeurosis subdivide palm into potential spaces.
Q. 56. The movements of thumb, test radial,
median and ulnar nerves. Explain.
Ans. The flexion of the thumb is brought about by
flexor pollicis brevis and flexor pollicis longus
which are supplied by median nerve.
The extension of the thumb is brought about
by extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis
brevis and abductor pollicis longus which are
supplied by radial nerve.
The adduction of thumb is brought about by
adductor pollicis which is supplied by ulnar
nerve.
Q. 57. List the groups of axillary lymph nodes.
What does the anterior group drain?
Ans. Axillary lymph nodes
1. Anterior
2. Posterior
3. Lateral
4. Central
5. Apical
The anterior group of axillary lymph nodes
drain about 75% of lymphatics from the mammary gland.
30 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 58. Enumerate the factors which maintain
the stability of the shoulder joint.
Ans. 1. Coracoacromial arch
2. Rotator cuff muscles
3. Glenoid labrum
4. Long head of biceps brachii
5. Long head of triceps brachii.
Q. 59. Sternoclavicular joint is synovial, saddle,
compound, and complex joint. Explain.
Ans. Sternoclavicular joint:
A. SynovialThe joint cavity is lined by synovial membrane
B. SaddleThe medial end of clavicle has
concavo-convex shape and the clavicular
notch of manubrium sterni also has
concavo-convex shape.
C. CompoundThree elements taking part in
joint, i.e. medial end of clavicle clavicular
notch of manubrium sterni and Ist costal
cartilage
D. ComplexIntra-articular disc divides
joint cavity.
Q.60. Enumerate the muscles of thenar
eminence and specify their nerve supply.
Ans. The abductor pollicis brevis, the flexor pollicis
brevis and the oppones pollicis form the thenar
eminence. All these muscles are supplied by
the median nerve.
Q.61. Name the movements of the wrist joint
and the muscles producing them.
Ans. 1. Flexion Flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi
ulnaris, palmaris longus
2. Extension Extensor carpi radialis longus,
extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor
carpi ulnaris
3. Abduction Flexor carpi radialis, extensor
carpi radialis longus and brevis, abductor
pollicis, longus
4. Adduction Flexor carpi ulnaris, extensor
carpi ulnaris.
Q.62. Give venous drainage of the breast.
Mention its applied importance.
Ans. Veins form a plexus beneath the areola. From
this plexus the veins radiate to the periphery
Superior Extremity 31
and drain into the axillary, internal thoracic
and intercostals veins.
The veins draining the breast communicate
with the vertebral venous plexus. Through
these communications breast cancer can
spread to the vertebrae and to the brain.
Q.63. Specify the boundaries of the mid palmar
space.
Ans. The mid palmar space is bounded by
1. Anteriorly palmar aponeurosis
2. Posteriorly 3rd, 4th, 5th metacarpals and
the fascia covering the interossei of the 3rd
and 4th space and the medial part of the
transverse head of the adductor pollicis
3. Medially medial palmar septum
4. Laterally intermediate palmar septum
Q.64. Specify the contents of the mid palmar
space.
Ans. The mid palmar space contains
1. The flexor tendons of 3rd, 4th and 5th
fingers.
2. 2nd, 3rd and 4th lumbrical muscles
3. Superficial palmar arch
4. The digital nerves and vessels of the medial
three and half fingers.
Q.65. Enumerate the arteries supplying the
breast.
Ans. 1. Lateral thoracic, superior thoracic and
acromiothoracic branches of the axillary
artery.
2. Internal thoracic perforating branches to
the 2nd, 3rd and 4th intercostal spaces.
3. Lateral branches of 2nd, 3rd and 4th
intercostal arteries.
Q.66. What is superficial palmar arch? Which
arteries take part in its formation?
Ans. Superficial palmar arch is important
anastomoses between the ulnar and radial
arteries.
Superficial palmar arch is formed as the direct
continuation of the ulnar artery beyond the
flexor retinaculum (i.e. by the superficial
palmar branch). On the lateral side the arch
is completed by one of the following branches
of the radial artery
32 SAQs in Anatomy
1. Superficial palmar branch
2. The radialis indicis
3. The princeps pollicis
Q.67. Specify boundaries of the thenar space.
Ans. The thenar space is bounded by
1. Anteriorly palmar aponeurosis
2. Posteriorly fascia covering the transverse
head of the adductor pollicis and first dorsal
interosseous muscle.
3. Medially intermediate palmar septum
4. Laterally lateral palmar septum.
Q.68. What is rotator cuff? What is its function?
Ans. Rotator cuff is musculotendinous cuff formed
by the flattened tendons of the subscapularis,
supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor
which blend with the capsule of the shoulder
joint.
The cuff gives strength to the capsule of the
shoulder joint all around except inferiorly.
Q.69. Specify the contents of the thenar space.
Ans. The thenar space contains
1. The tendon of the flexor pollicis longus with
its synovial sheath
2. The flexor tendon of the index finger
3. The first lumbrical muscle
4. The palmar digital vessels and nerves of
the lateral side of the index finger and of
the thumb.
Q.70. Enumerate branches of the radial artery.
Ans. Branches of radial artery.
1. Muscular
2. Radial recurrent branch
3. Palmar carpal branch
4. Superficial palmar branch
5. First dorsal metacarpal artery
6. Radialis indicis
7. Princeps pollicis
Q.71. Enumerate branches of the ulnar artery.
Ans. Branches of the ulnar artery
1. Muscular
2. Anterior and posterior ulnar recurrent
branches
3. Palmar and dorsal carpal branches
Superior Extremity 33
4. Common interosseous artery
5. Superficial palmar branch (which is the
main continuation of the artery)
6. Deep palmar branch
Q.72. Give lymphatic drainage of the breast.
Ans. A. Lymphatics draining the parenchyma of the
breast and skin of areola and nipple.
75% Drain into axillary nodes. Majority to
anterior axillary group and few to posterior
group central apical supraclavicular nodes.
20% Parasternal nodes (internal mammary)
5% Posterior Intercostal Nodes
From deep surface of the breast through
pectoralis major and clavipectoral fascia
to the apical nodes.
B. From overlying skin excluding areola and
nipple.
From outer part axillary nodes
From upper part supraclavicular nodes
From inner part parasternal (bilateral)
From lower part sub peritoneal, subdiaphragmatic
Q.73. What is Mallet finger?
Ans. Mallet finger (cricket or baseball finger) results
from the distal interphalangeal joints
suddenly being forced into extreme
(hyperflexion). This avulses the attachment
of the terminal tendon of the extensor
digitorum from the base of the distal phalanx.
As a result the patient is unable to extend the
distal interphalangeal joint.
Q.74. What is tennis elbow?
Ans. Tennis elbow or elbow tendinitis is painful
musculoskeletal condition that may follow
repetitive forceful pronation and supination
of the forearm. It is characterized by pain and
point tenderness at or just distal to the lateral
epicondyle of the humerus and appears to be
resulting from premature degeneration of the
common extensor attachment of the
superficial extensor muscles of the forearm.
The pain is aggravated by activities that put
tension on the common extensor tendon. It is
commonly seen in tennis and golf players and
those using screwdrivers and shoveling snow.
34 SAQs in Anatomy
Q.75. What is painful arc syndrome? How it is
caused?
Ans. Painful arc syndrome or subacromial bursitis
or supraspinatus tendinitis is characterised
by pain between 60 and 120 degrees of
abduction of the shoulder.
During abduction of the shoulder joint the
supraspinatus tendon is exposed to friction
against the acromion. Normally the amount
of friction is reduced to minimum by subacromial bursa.
Degenerative changes in the bursa followed
by degenerative changes in the supraspinatus
tendon, which may extend into other tendons
of the rotator cuff cause this syndrome.
Q.76. Give clinical findings in injury to the
axillary nerve. How it is damaged?
Ans. Damage to the axillary nerve results in
paralysis of the deltoid and teres minor
muscles. There is loss of power of abduction of
the shoulder joint and rounded contour of the
shoulder is lost. There is sensory loss over the
lower half of the deltoid.
The axillary nerve may be damaged by
dislocation of the shoulder or by the fracture
of the surgical neck of the humerus.
Q.77. Give clinical findings that in injury to the
musculocutaneous nerve.
Ans. Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve leads to
paralysis of the biceps brachi and coracobrachialis and the brachialis muscle is
weakened (as it is also supplied by radial
nerve). There is sensory loss along the lateral
side of the forearm.
Q.78. Give any four characteristics of the
clavicle.
Ans. 1. It is the first bone to ossify in the body
2. It ossifies from two primary and one
secondary center
3. It is the only long bone placed horizontally
in the body
4. Though it is a long bone it ossifies in
membrane (According to some authorities
partly membrane, partly cartilage).
5. The shaft is curved
Superior Extremity 35
6. It is subcutaneous
7. It is pierced by nerves (supraclavicular).
8. Its articular ends are covered by fibrocartilage
9. It has no medullary cavity
10. It is the only link between upper limb and
axial skeleton
11. It is commonly fractured at the junction of
medial 2/3 and lateraly 1/3
12. It acts like a strut.
Q.79. Give differences between metacarpals
and metatarsals.
Ans. Metacarpals
1. The head is rounded, larger than the base
and is directed below
2. The shaft is of uniform thickness
3. The dorsal surface of the shaft has an
elongated flat triangular area
4. The base is irregular
Metatarsals
1. The head is flattened from side to side,
smaller than the base and is directed in
front
2. The shaft trapers distally
3. The dorsal surface of the shaft uniformly
convex
4. The base is set obliquerly and projects
backwards and laterally
Q.80. Name the muscles having double nerve
supply and mention the nerves supplying
them.
Ans. 1. Pectoralis majorMedial and lateral pectoral nerves
2. BrachialisMusculocutaneous and radial
nerves
3. Flexor digitorium profundusMedian and
ulnar nerves.
Q. 81. Which is the only bone having three types
of epiphyses?
Ans. Scapula is the only bone having three types of
epiphyses
a. Glenoid- Pressure
b. Acromion- Traction
c. Coracoid process- Atavistic
36 SAQs in Anatomy
Q.82. Why clavicle is fractured commonly at the
junction of medial two-third and lateral
one-third?
Ans. Junction of medial two-third and lateral one
third of clavicle is a weak point due to
a. Medial two-third is cylindrical and lateral
one-third is flattened making this point
weak.
b. Two curves of the clavicle meet at this point
c. This junction is devoid of muscular
attachment.
d. Two primay centers appear quite close to
each other at this junction.
INFERIOR EXTREMITY
38 SAQs in Anatomy
B. Cutaneous branch supplies adjacent sides
of 1st and 2nd toes.
C. Articular-ankle joint, tarsal joint, and tarsometatarsal and metatarsophalangeal
joints of the big toe.
Q. 5. Enumerate tributaries of great saphanous
vein.
Ans. 1. Medial marginal vein
2. Posterior arch vein
3. Anterior leg vein
4. Few veins from calf which communicate
with the small saphenous vein.
5. Anterolateral vein
6. Posteromedial vein
7. Superficial epigastric
8. Superficial circumflex iliac
9. Superficial external pudendal
10. Deep external pudendal.
Q. 6 Give boundaries of Popliteal fossa.
Ans. Superolaterallytendon of biceps femoris
Superomediallysemitendinosus and semimembranosus.
InferolaterallyLateral head of gastrocenmius and plantaris
Inferomediallymedial head of gastrocnemius
Roofpopliteal fascia
Floorpopliteal surface of femur, capsule of
knee joint, oblique popliteal ligament, posterior part of upper end of tibia, fascia covering
popliteus muscle.
Q. 7. Enumerate contents of popliteal fossa.
Ans. 1. Popliteal artery and its branches
2. Popliteal vein and its tributaries
3. Tibial nerve
4. Common peroneal nerve
5. Termination of small saphenous vein
6. Posterior cutaneous nerves of thigh
7. Genicular branch of obturator nerve
8. Popliteal lymph nodes
9. Fat
Inferior Extremity 39
Q. 8. Why the medial meniscus is damaged
more frequently than the lateral meniscus?
Ans. The tibial collateral ligament is firmly
attached to the medial meniscus, which
restricts its mobility. During sudden locking
of the knee joint, as in kicking the football, the
medial meniscus is subjected to sudden grinding force and gets torn.
The lateral meniscus is less frequently
damaged because it is not attached to the
fibular collateral ligament and the tendon of
the popliteus which sends few of its fibres to
the lateral meniscus pulls it into more favourable position.
Q. 9. Give the clinical findings in an injury to
the common peroneal nerve.
Ans. Common peroneal nerve may be severed
during fracture of the fibular neck.
It results in the paralysis of all the muscles in
the anterior and lateral compartment of the
leg (dorsiflexors of the ankle and evertors of
foot). The loss of dorsiflexion of the ankle and
eversion of foot causes foot drop. The foot drops
and the toes drag on the floor while walking.
Q. 10. Give functions of menisci of the knee joint.
Ans. 1. Menisci increase the concavity of the tibial
condyles for better adaptation with femoral
condyles
2. They serve as shock absorbers
3. They act as swabs to lubricate the joint
cavity
4. Because of their nerve supply they have an
additional sensory function for better
stability of the knee joint.
Q. 11. Name the muscles under cover of Gluteus
maximus.
Ans. 1. Gluteus medius.
2. Gluteus minimus.
3. Reflected head of rectus femoris.
4. Piriformis.
5. Obturator internus with 2 gemelli.
6. Quadratus femoris.
7. Obturator externus.
40 SAQs in Anatomy
8. Origin of 4 hamstrings from ischial tuberosity
9. Insertion of the upper (Pubic) fibres of
adductor magnus.
Q. 12. Name the vessels under cover of Gluteus
maximus.
Ans. 1. Superior gluteal vessels
2. Inferior gluteal vessels
3. Internal pudendal vessels
4. Trochanteric anastomosis
5. Cruciate anastomosis
6. First perforating artery.
Q. 13. Name the nerves under cover of Gluteus
maximus.
Ans. 1. Superior gluteal
2. Inferior gluteal
3. Sciatic
4. Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
5. Nerve to quadratus fernoris
6. Pudendal nerve
7. Nerve to obturator internus
8. Perforating cutaneous nerves.
Q. 14. Name the structure passing through the
Greater sciatic foramen.
Ans. A. Piriformis
B. Structures passing above the piriformis
i. Superior gluteal nerve
ii. Superior gluteal vessels
C. Structures passing below the piriformis are
i. Inferior gluteal nerve
ii. Inferior gluteal vessels
iii. Sciatic nerve
iv. Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
v. Nerve to quadratus femoris
vi. Pudendal nerve
vii. Internal pudendal vessels
viii. Nerve to obturator internus.
Q. 15. Name the structures passing through the
lesser sciatic foramen.
Ans. 1. Tendon of obturator internus
2. Pudendal nerve
3. Internal pudendal vessels
4. Nerve to obturator internus. The upper and
lower parts of the foramen are filled up by
the origin of two gemelli muscles.
Inferior Extremity 41
Q. 16. What are the boundaries of the femoral
triangle?
Ans. Boundaries of the femoral triangle
Laterally: Medial border of sartorius
Medially:
Medial border of adductor longus
Base:
Formed by the inguinal ligament
Apex:
Point where medial and lateral
borders meet
Floor:
Iliacus, psoas major, pectineus,
adductor longus
Roof:
Fascia lata
Q. 17. Name the contents of the femoral triangle.
Ans. 1. Femoral artery and its branches
2. Femoral vein and its tributaries
3. Femoral sheath
4. Femoral nerve
5. Nerve to pectineus
6. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
7. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
8. Deep inguinal lymph nodes.
Q. 18. Name the intra-articular structures of the
knee joint.
Ans. 1. Medial and lateral menisci
2. Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
3. Tendon of popliteus
4. Intra-articular pad of fat.
Q. 19. Name the bones forming the medial and
lateral longitudinal arches of foot.
Ans. Bones forming the medial longitudinal arch
are:
1. Medial half of the calcanium
2. Talus
3. Navicular
4. Three cuneiforms
5. First three metatarsals
Bones forming lateral longitudinal arch are:
1. Lateral part of calcanium
2. Cuboid
3. Fourth and fifth metatarsals.
Q. 20. Name the branches of the obturator nerve.
Ans. Branches of the obturator nerve:
A. Anterior division
a. Muscular
42 SAQs in Anatomy
i. Pectineus
ii. Adductor longus
iii. Gracilis
iv. Adductor brevis.
b. CutaneousBranch to sub-sartorial
plexus
c. Articular- Hip joint.
B. Posterior division
a. Muscular
i. Obturator externus
ii. Adductor magnus
iii. Adductor brevis, if not supplied by
anterior division.
b. Articularknee joint.
Q. 21. Name the hamstring muscles.
Ans. 1. Semitendinosus
2. Semimembranous
3. Long head of biceps femoris
4. Ischial head of adductor magnus.
Q. 22. What is femoral sheath? What are its
contents?
Ans. The femoral sheath is a funnel- shaped sleeve
of fascia enclosing the upper three to four cms.
of the femoral vessels. It is formed by downward extension of the abdominal fascia i.e.the
anterior wall of the sheath is formed by fascia
transversalis and the posterior wall by the
fascia iliaca.
Contents of the femoral sheath:
a. Lateral compartment-1) femoral artery and
femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve.
b. Intermediate compartment-femoral vein.
c. Medial compartment-(femoral canal)
lymph node of cloquet, lymphatics and areolar tissue.
Q. 23. Enumerate branches of femoral artery.
Ans. 1. Superficial epigastric
2. Superficial circumflex iliac
3. Superficial external pudendal
4. Deep external pudendal
5. Muscular branches
6. Profunda femoris
7. Descending genicular
Inferior Extremity 43
Q. 24. Enumerate branches of popliteal artery.
Ans. 1. Cutaneous-skin of the back of the leg
2. Muscular branches
3. Superior medial genicular
4. Superior lateral genicular
5. Inferior medial genicular
6. Inferior lateral genicular
7. Middle genicular
Q. 25. Trace the pathway a cardiac catheter
takes when introduced into femoral artery
up to left ventricle of the heart.
Ans. Femoral arteryexternal iliac artery
common iliac arteryabdominal aorta
thoracic aortaarch of aortaleft ventricle
of the heart.
Q. 26. Trace the pathway a cardiac catheter
takes when introduced into femoral vein,
up to right atrium of the heart.
Ans. Femoral veinexternal iliac veincommon
iliac veininferior vena cavaright atrium
of the heart.
Q. 27. Enumerate the arteries which anastomose at the anterior superior iliac spine.
Ans. 1. Superficial circumflex iliac artery
2. Deep circumflex iliac artery
3. Deep branch of superior gluteal artery
4. Ascending branch of lateral circumflex
femoral artery.
Q. 28. Specify the pathway of the femoral hernia.
Ans. The hernial sac first passes downward through
the femoral canal then forwards through the
saphenous opening and finally upwards along
the superficial epigastric and superficial
circumflex iliac vessels.
Q. 29. Enumerate the coverings of the complete
femoral hernia.
Ans. 1. Peritoneum of the hernial sac
2. Femoral septum
3. Anterior wall of femoral sheath
4. Cribriform fascia
5. Superficial fascia and skin.
44 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 30. Specify the type, of ankle joint. Enumerate the bones taking part in the ankle
joint. In which position is the ankle most
stable? In which position is the ankle least
stable?
Ans. The ankle joint is a hinge variety of synovial
joint.
The bones taking part in the ankle joint are
lower end of tibia with its medial malleolus of
fibula and lateral malleolus and body of talus.
The ankle joint is most stable in dorsiflexed
position and least stable in planter flexed
position.
Q. 31. What is porta pedis? Name the structures
passing through it.
Ans. Porta means gate, pedis means foot. The
interval between the flexor retinaculum and
the calcaneus forms the main gate of the sole
hence it is called as porta pedis.
The structures passing through the Porta pedis
are:
1. Tibialis posterior tendon
2. Flexor digitorum longus tendon
3. Posterior tibial artery with a pair of venae
comitants
4. Tibial nerve
5. Flexor hallucis longus tendon.
Q. 32. Give functions of plantar aponeurosis.
Ans. 1. It maintains the longitudinal arches of foot
acting as tie beam.
2. It provides origin to the superficial groups
of plantar muscles.
3. It protects plantar vessels and nerves from
compression.
Q. 33. What type of epiphysis is ischial tuberosity and what are the structures attached
to it?
Ans. Ischial tuberosity is a compound type of
epiphysispressure and traction.
Structures attached to it are:
1. Superolateral areaSemimembranosus
2. Inferomedial area
a. Semitendinosus
b. Long head of biceps femoris
3. Inferolateral areaadductor magnus
Inferior Extremity 45
4. Sharp medial marginattachment to
sacrotuberous ligament.
5. Lateral borderischiofemoral ligament.
Q. 34. What are the peculiarities of fibula and
why does it not obey the law of ossification?
Ans. The fibula violates the law of ossification
because the secondary centre which appears
first does not fuse last. The reasons for this
violation are:
1. The secondary centre appears first in the
lower end because it is a pressure epiphysis.
2. The upper epiphysis fuses last because this
is the growing end of the bone.
Peculiarities of fibula are:
1. Does not take part in knee joint formation.
2. Does not take part in weight transmission
3. Does not obey the law of ossification
4. Decalcified fibula can be knoted.
Q. 35. Enumerate structures piercing the femoral sheath.
Ans. 1. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve.
2. Superficial epigastric, superficial circumflex iliac and superficial external pudendal
branches of femoral artery
3. Great saphenous vein.
Q. 36. Enumerate structure passing through
saphenous opening.
Ans. 1. Great saphenous vein
2. Superficial external pudendal and superficial epigastric arteries.
3. Few lymph vessels connecting the superficial and deep inguinal lymph nodes.
4. Few branches of medial femoral cutaneous
nerve.
Q. 37. Enumerate the structures piercing the
oblique popliteal ligament.
Ans. Middle genicular vessels, middle genicular
nerve, genicular branch of the posterior
division of obturator nerve.
Q. 38. What is conjunct and adjunct, medial and
lateral rotations at the knee joint?
Ans. Conjunct rotation takes place automatically
during extension-flexion movements of the
46 SAQs in Anatomy
joint duc to geometry of the articular surfaces
and tension of the ligaments. Its range is
about 20. Adjunct rotation takes place in
semiflexed knee by the active contraction of
muscles and its range varies between 50 and
70.
Q. 39. Name any four of arteries taking part in
the anastomoses around the knee joint.
Ans. The arteries taking part in the anastomoses
around the knee joint:
1. Five genicular branches of popliteal artery
2. The descending genicular branch of femoral
artery
3. The descending branch of lateral circumflex femoral artery
4. Two recurrent branches of anterior tibial
artery.
Q. 40. Name the ligaments of the hip joint. Why
iliofemoral ligament is the strongest
ligament?
Ans. The ligaments of the hip joint are:
1. The fibrous capsule
2. The iliofemoral ligament
3. The pubofemoral ligament
4. The ischiofemoral ligament
5. The ligament of the head of the femur
6. The acetabular labrum
7. The transverse acetabular ligament
The iliofemoral ligament is one of the strongest
ligaments because it prevents the trunk from
falling backwards in the standing posture.
Q. 41. What is inversion? Name two inverters of
the foot.
Ans. Inversion is a movement in which the medial
border of the foot is elevated, so that the sole
faces medially. Inverters of the foot are:
1. Tibialis anterior
2. Tibialis posterior.
Q. 42. What is eversion? Name two evertors of
the foot. What is the axis of inversion and
eversion?
Ans. Eversion is a movement in which the lateral
border of the foot is elevated so that the sole
faces laterally. Evertors of foot are:
1. Peroneus longus
2. Peroneus brevis
Inferior Extremity 47
Axis of inversion and eversion is oblique axis
which runs forwards, upwards and medially,
passing from the back of the calcaneum
through the sinus tarsi to emerge at the
superomedial aspect of the neck of the talus.
Q. 43. Name the contents of adductor canal.
Ans. Contents of adductor canal are:
1. Femoral artery
2. Femoral vein
3. The saphenous nerve
4. The nerve to vastus medialis
Q. 44. Name any four bursae around the knee
joint.
Ans. Bursae around the knee joint are:
1. Subcutaneous prepatellar bursa
2. Subcutaneous infrapatellar bursa
3. Deep infrapatellar bursa
4. Suprapatellar bursa.
Q. 45. What is fascia lata? Mention its modification.
Ans. The fascia lata is a tough fibrous sheath that
envelops the whole of the thigh like a sleeve.
Its two modifications are:
1. Iliotibial tract
2. Cribriform fascia.
Q. 46. Specify root value of tibial part of sciatic
nerve and name any two muscles supplied
by it in the thigh?
Ans. The root value of tibial part of sciatic nerve is
L4,5, and 1,2,3
The muscles supplied by the Tibial part of
sciatic nerve are semimembranosus, semitendinosus and the long head of biceps femoris.
Q. 47. Give boundaries of femoral ring. Why
femoral hernia is more common in
females?
Ans. Femoral ring is bounded
Anteriorly byInguinal ligament
Posteriorly byPectineus and its covering
fascia
Medially byConcave margin of the lacunar
ligament
Laterally byseptum separating it from
femoral vein.
48 SAQs in Anatomy
Femoral hernia is more common in females
because:
1. Fermoral canal is wider in females than in
males.
2. Wider pelvis in females
3. Smaller size of femoral vessels
Q. 48. Give functions of arches of foot.
Ans. 1. They help in proportional distribution of
body weight.
2. Arched foot acts as segmental lever
3. Plantar concavity of the arches protects
vessels and nerves from compression
4. Arched foot is dynamic and pliable. Therefore, the foot acts as spring board which
helps jolting and jumping from height.
Q. 49. Give the differences between medial and
lateral longitudinal arches of foot?
Ans.
Medial longitudinal arch
Inferior Extremity 49
Ans. 1. Gluteus maximus (extensor of the hip)
2. Quadriceps femoris (extensor of the knee)
3. Gastrocnemius } (plantar flexors of the
ankle)
4. Soleus
Q. 52. Give characteristics of the hamstring
muscles.
Ans. 1. They take origin from the ischial tuberosity.
2. They are inserted beyond the knee joint to
the tibia, fibula or both bones.
3. They are supplied by the tibial division of
the sciatic nerve.
4. They act as flexors of knee joint and
extensors of hip joint.
Q. 53. What is reverse muscular action? Explain
with a suitable example.
Ans. During muscular contraction when the
proximal end of a muscle (origin) moves
towards the distal end (insertion). It is called
as reverse muscular action.
The distal end (insertion) of the muscles of
lower limb move only when the feet are off the
ground, i.e. action from above but when the
feet are supporting the body weight the
muscles act in reverse (from below) i.e.
proximal end moves (origin) towards the distal
end. This is typically seen while rising up from
sitting posture and in going upstairs.
Q. 54. What is oblique popliteal ligament? Which
blood vessel and nerve pierce it? Name
structures supplied by the vessel and the
nerve.
Ans. Oblique popliteal ligament is an expansion
from the tendon of the semimembranosus
muscle. The middle genicular vessels and
nerve pierce it. Middle genicular vessels and
nerve supply cruciate ligaments and synovial
membrane of the knee joint.
Q. 55. Name the structures which are
represented by the following ligaments.
1. Tibial collateral ligament
2. Fibular collateral ligament
3. Long plantar ligament
4. Plantar aponeurosis
50 SAQs in Anatomy
Ans. 1. Tibial collateral ligament degenerated
tendon of adductor magnus.
2. Fibular collateral ligament femoral
attachment of peroneus longus
3. Long plantar ligament tendon of gastrocnemius.
4. Plantar aponeurosis distal part of plantaris.
Q. 56. What is sciatica? What are the causes?
Ans. Sciatica is a condition in which patients have
pain along the sensory distribution of the
sciatic nerve. The pain is experienced in the
posterior aspect of the thigh, the posterior and
lateral sides of the leg and the lateral part of
the foot.
Sciatica can be caused by prolapse of an
intervertebral disc (L4 - L5) with pressure on
one or more roots of the lower lumbar and sacral
spinal nerves, pressure on the sacral plexus or
sciatic nerve by an intrapelvic tumour or
inflammation of the sciatic nerve.
Q. 57. How sciatic nerve is injured? Give clinical
findings in injury to the sciatic nerve.
Ans. Penetrating wounds injure the sciatic nerve.
Fractures of pelvis, dislocations of the hip joint
or by badly placed intramuscular injections in
the gluteal region.
In 90 percent of the sciatic nerve injuries
common peroneal part is the most affected
because common peroneal nerve fibres lie
most superficial in the sciatic nerve.
Clinical features - motor hamstring muscles
and all the muscles below the knee are
paralysed causing foot drop.
Sensory sensory loss on the back of the thigh,
the whole of the leg and the foot except area
innervated by the saphenous nerve.
Q. 58. Give boundaries of the adductor canal.
Ans. The adductor canal extends from the apex of
the femoral triangle above, to the tendinous
opening in the adductor magnus below. The
canal is triangular in cross-section and has
anterior, posterior and medial walls. Anteriorvastus medialis. Posterior adductor longus
above and adductor magnus below. Medial
Inferior Extremity 51
(roof) a strong fibrous membrane joining the
anterior and posterior walls. The roof is
overlapped by the sartorius.
Q. 59. Enumerate ligaments of the knee joint.
Ans. 1. Articular capsule
2. Ligamentum patellae
3. Tibial collateral ligament
4. Fibular collateral ligament
5. Oblique popliteal ligament
6. Arcuate popliteal ligament
7. Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
8. Medial and lateral menisci
9. Transverse ligament.
Q. 60. A patient of fracture neck femur presents
with affected limb shortened and laterally
rotated. Explain it on the anatomical basis.
Ans. In a fracture neck femur, rectus femoris, the
adductors and the hamstring muscles pull the
distal fragment upwards so that the leg is
shortened. The gluteus maximus piriformis,
obturator internus, gamelli, quadratus
femoris and psoas major rotate the distal
fragment laterally.
Q. 61. Give differences between pectoral and
pelvic girdles.
Ans.
Pectoral girdle
Pelvic girdle
1. Dermal and
Entirely
endochondral
endochondral
2. Two principal
Three components,
components
pubis, ischium and
clavicle and
ilium, which fuse
scapula remain
into a single
separate
hip bone.
3. No articulation
Articulates with
with the vertebral the sacrum
column
4. No direct ventral Direct ventral
articulation
articulation at
symphysis pubis.
5. Comparatively
Massively constructed
lightly built for
for resistance
mobility
to stress
6. Shallow joint
Deep joint with
with limb,
limb, limiting
allowing wide
range of movements.
range of movements.
52 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 62. Give differences between medial and
lateral meniscus of the knee joint.
Ans. Medial meniscus
1. Nearly semicircular
2. Peripheral margin is attached to the deep
part of the tibial collateral ligament
3. More vulnerable to injury due to fixity to
the tibial collateral ligament.
Lateral meniscus
1. Nearly circular
2. The tendon of the popliteus is attached to
the lateral meniscus
3. It is protected by the popliteus which pulls
it backwards.
Q. 63. What is plantar aponeurosis? What it
represents? Give its functions.
Ans. The thickened central part of the deep fascial
covering of the sole is called as plantar
aponeurosis. It represents the distal part of
the plantaris which has become separated
from the rest of the muscle during evolution
because of the enlargement of the heel.
It fixes the skin of the sole, protects deeper
structures, helps in maintaing longitudinal
arches of the foot and gives origin to muscles
of the first layer of the sole.
Q. 64. What is piriformis syndrome?
Ans. The sciatic nerve is compressed due to spasm
or hypertrophy of piriformis muscle at the
greater sciatic notch.
THORAX
Upper lobe
Right lung
Left lung
Apical
Apical
Posterior
Anterior
Middle lobe
Lower lobe
Posterior
Upper lobe
Anterior
Lateral
Upper lingual
Medial
Lower lingual
Apical
Apical
Medial basal
Anterior basal
Medial basal
Lateral basal
Posterior basal
Posterior basal
Lateral basal
54 SAQs in Anatomy
Aboveupper margin of left atrium
Right sideRight pair of pulmonary veins and
inferior vena cava
Left sideLeft pair of pulmonary veins.
Q. 4. Enumerate tributaries of superior vena
cava.
Ans. 1. Right and left brachiocephalic veins
2. Azygous vein
3. Pericardial veins
4. Mediastinal veins.
Q. 5. Enumerate the four normal constrictions
of oesophagus.
Ans. 1. At the commencement of oesophagus opposite C6
2. Where it is crossed by arch of aorta opposite
T4
3. Where it is crossed by the left bronchus
opposite T6
4. At the oesophageal opening of the diaphragm opposite T10.
Q. 6. Give arterial supply of oesophagus.
Ans. 1. Inferior thyroid artery
2. Descending aorta
3. Bronchial arteries
4. Left gastric
5. Left inferior phrenic.
Q. 7. Give venous drainage of oesophagus.
Ans. 1. Inferior thyroid vein
2. Azygous vein
3. Hemiazygous vein
4. Left gastric.
Q. 8. Give lymphatic drainage of oesophagus.
Ans. 1. Cervical partjugulo-omohyoid lymphnodes
2. Thoracic partparatracheal, tracheobronchial, posterior and mediastinal lymphnodes.
3. Abdominal partpre-aortic lymph-nodes.
Q. 9. At what level and which part of the diaphragm, vena caval opening lies? Name
the structures passing through it.
Ans. Inferior vena caval opening lies at the level of
8th thoracic vertebra. It passes through
central tendon of diaphragm. It transmits:
Thorax 55
1. Inferior vena cava
2. Branches of right phrenic nerve.
Q. 10. At what level and which part of the diaphragm oesophageal opening lies? Name
the structures passing through it.
Ans. The oesophageal opening lies at the level of
10th thoracic vertebra. It transmits:
1. Oesophagus
2. Vagus
3. Oesophageal branches of left gastric artery
4. Oesophageal veins accompanying arteries.
Q. 11. At what level the aortic opening lies in the
diaphragm? Name the structures passing
through it.
Ans. Aortic opening lies at the level of 12th thoracic
vertebra. The structures passing through it
are:
1. Aorta
2. Thoracic duct
3. Sometimes azygous vein.
Q. 12. Give nerve supply of the thoracoabdominal diaphragm.
Ans. Motorphrenic nerve C3 C4 C5
Sensorycentral partphrenic nerve
peripheral partlower 6 or 7 intercostal nerves.
Q. 13. Give arterial supply of the diaphragm.
Ans. 1. Musculophrenic and pericardiophrenic
arteriesbranches of internal thoracic
artery.
2. Lower 5 or 6 posterior intercostal arteries.
3. Superior phrenic arterybranch of thoracic
aorta
4. Inferior phrenic arterybranch of abdominal aorta.
Q. 14. Name the structures supplied by phrenic
nerve.
Ans. 1. Motordiaphragm
2. Sensorymediastinal and central part of
diaphragmatic parietal pleura, fibrous
pericardium, parietal layer of serous
pericardium, part of parietal peritoneum
lying below the central part of diaphragm.
56 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 15. Trace the pathway, a cardiac catheter
takes when introduced into the basilic
vein up to right atrium?
Ans. Basilic veinAxillary vein
Subclavian veinbrachiocephalic vein
Superior vena cavaright atrium.
Q. 16. Draw and label the hilum of right and left
lung.
Thorax 57
It ends by joining the posterior aspect of the
superior vena cava.
Two tributaries of it are:
1. Hemiazygous vein
2. Accessory hemiazygous vein.
Q. 20. Specify the level of commencement and
termination and branches of arch of aorta.
Ans. The arch of aorta begins behind the upper
border of 2nd right sternochondral joint and
ends at the lower boder of 4th thoracic vertebra.
Branches of arch of aorta:
1. Brachiocephalic artery
2. Left common carotid artery
3. Left subclavian artery.
Q. 21. What is pericardium? Name two layers of
pericardium.
Ans. The pericardium is a fibroserous sac which
encloses the heart and the roots of great
vessels. It is situated in the middle mediastinum
Two layers of pericardium are:
1. Serous Pericardium
Parietal
Visceral.
2. Fibrous pericardium
Q. 22. Give arterial supply of trachea.
Ans. Arterial supply of trachea
1. Inferior thyroid arteries
2. Bronchial arteries at its bifurcation.
Q. 23. Give arterial supply of oesophagus.
Ans. Cervical partInferior thyroid arteries.
Thoracic partOesophageal branches of Aorta
Abdominal partOesophageal branches of
left gastric artery.
Q. 24. Give branches of descending thoracic
aorta.
Ans. Branches of descending thoracic aorta
1. Nine posterior intercostal arteries on each
side from 3rd to 11th intercostal spaces
2. Subcostal artery on each side
3. Two left bronchial arteries (the upper left
artery may give rise to the right bronchial
artery which usually arises from the 3rd
right posterior intercostal artery).
58 SAQs in Anatomy
4.
5.
6.
7.
Oesophageal branches
Pericardial branches
Mediastinal branches
Superior phrenic arteries.
Thorax 59
2. PosteriorlyInfrasternal surface of the
body of 12th thoracic vertebra.
3. On each side
i. Costal margin formed by the cartilages
of the 7th 8th 9th and 10th ribs.
ii. 11th and 12th ribs.
Q. 30. Enumerate diaphragms in the body.
Ans. 1. Diaphragm of inlet of Thorax (Suprapleural
membrane) Sibsons Fascia
2. Diaphragm of outlet of thorax (Thoracoabdominal)
3. Pelvic diaphragm
4. Urogenital diaphragm
5. Oral diaphragm (Mylohyoid muscle)
6. Diaphragma sellae.
Q. 31. Enumerate changes occurring at the level
of sternal angle(T4).
Ans. 1. Ascending aorta ends at this level
2. Arch of aorta begins and ends at this level
3. Descending aorta begins at this level
4. Trachea divides into two principal branches
5. Azygous vein arches over root of right lung
and opens into superior vena cava.
6. Pulmonary trunk divides into two pulmonary arteries just below this level.
7. Thoracic duct crosses from right to the left
side.
Q. 32. Give boundaries of the inlet (superior
aperture) of thorax.
Ans. Boundaries of Inlet (Sup Aperture) of thorax
AnteriorlyUpper border of manubrium
sterni
PosteriorlySuperior surface of body of 1st
thoracic vertebra.
On each sideFirst rib with its cartilage.
Q. 33. Enumerate any four arteries passing
through the inlet of thorax.
Ans. 1. Brachiocephalic
2. Left common carotid
3. Left subclavian
4. Internal thoracic arteries
5. Superior intercostal arteries.
Q. 34. Name the viscera passing through the
inlet of thorax.
Ans. 1. Trachea
2. Oesophagus
60 SAQs in Anatomy
3. Apices of lungs
4. Remains of thymus.
Q. 35. Name the various anatomical structures
penetrated by a needle in pleural tapping.
Ans. 1. Skin
2. Superficial fascia
3. Serratus anterior
4. External intercostal
5. Internal intercostal
6. Innermost intercostal
7. Parietal pleura.
Q. 36. Foreign body in the trachea is usually
aspirated into which lung? Why?
Ans. The foreign body in the trachea is usually
aspirated in to the right lung; because the right
bronchus is shorter (2.5 cm) wider and more
vertical (makes an angle of 250 off the median
plane) than the left bronchus.
Q. 37. Which segments of the lung are common
sites of lung abscess by aspiration? Why?
Ans. The apical segment of the lower lobe and
posterior segment of the upper lobe are the
common sites of lung abscess, because these
segments are most dependent in recumbent
position.
Q. 38. Give blood supply of the lungs.
Ans. Arterial supply Bronchial arteries supply
nutrition to the bronchial tree and to the
pulmonary tissue. On the right side one
bronchial artery which arises from third
posterior intercostal artery.
On the left side there are two bronchial arteries
branches of thoracic aorta.
Venous drainage
The two right bronchial veins drain into
azygous vein
The two left bronchial veins drain either into
left superior intercostal vein or in to the
hemiazygous vein.
Q. 39. Enumerate the veins draining the heart.
Ans. A. About 60% of the venous blood of the heart
is drained into coronary sinus. Tributaries
1. great cardiac vein
2. small cardiac vein
Thorax 61
3. middle cardiac vein
4. posterior vein of the left ventricle
5. oblique vein of the left ventricle
6. right marginal vein
B. 40% of the venous blood by
1. anterior cardiac veins directly drain into
infundibulum of the right ventricle and
right atrium.
2. venae cordis minimae open into different
chambers of the heart directly.
Q. 40. Enumerate the parts of the body from
which the right lymphatic duct receives
afferents.
Ans. 1. The right half of the head and neck
2. The right upper limb
3. The right half of the thorax
4. Right lung
5. The right half of the heart.
Q. 41. Specify the nerves taking part in the
formation of deep cardiac plexus. Where
it is situated?
Ans. The nerves taking part in the formation of deep
cardiac plexus are preganglionic sympathetic
fibres from the middle cervical ganglia of both
sides and right superior cervical ganglion, the
upper four thoracic ganglia. The superior
cervical cardiac branch of both vagi and
inferior cervical cardiac branch of right vagus
convey the preganglionic parasympathetic
fibres.
Deep cardiac plexus is situated in front of the
bifurcation of the trachea and behind the arch
of the aorta.
Q. 42. Specify the commencement termination
and areas of drainage of the thoracic duct.
Ans. Thoracic duct commencementIt begins as a
continuation of the upper end of the cisterna
chyli near the lower border of the 12th thoracic
vertebra.
Termination It opens into the angle of
junction between the left subclavian and left
internal jugular vein.
Areas of drainage It drains both halves of
the body below the diaphragm and the left
62 SAQs in Anatomy
side of the head and neck, left upper limb left
lung and thoracic wall, left half of the heart.
Q. 43. Name the terminal branches of the
internal thoracic artery. Specify the
arteries with which they anastomose.
Ans. A. Superior epigastric artery anastomoses
with inferior epigastric artery, a branch of
external iliac artery.
B. Musculophrenic artery
i. Two anterior intercostals arteries for
each of the seventh to ninth intercostal
spaces which anastomose with posterior
intercostal and their collateral branches.
ii. The artery pierces the diaphragm and
anastomoses with the neighbouring
arteries.
Q. 44. What is thoracic inlet syndrome?
Ans. The subclavian artery and first thoracic nerve
arch over the first rib, these structures may be
pulled by a cervical rib causing vascular, neural
or both symptoms. This is called as thoracic
inlet syndrome.
Q. 45. Specify Pleural recesses. Mention their
function.
Ans. 1. Costodiaphragmatic recesses These are
the slit like spaces between the lower limit
of costal and diaphragmatic parietal
pleura and the lower border of the corres
ponding lungs, separated by a capillary
layer of pleural fluid.
2. Costomediastinal recesses These are slit
like spaces between the costal and media
stinal parietal pleurae and anterior
borders of the lungs separated by a capillary
layer of pleural fluid.
These recesses allow expansion of lungs in full
inspiration.
Q. 46. Enumerate parts of the body from which
thoracic duct receives afferents?
Ans. 1. Lower limbs
2. The abdominal viscera
3. Left half of the thoracic wall
4. Left lung and left half of the heart
5. Left upper limb
6. Left half of head and neck.
Thorax 63
Q. 47. Give peculiarities of the twelfth rib.
Ans. The twelfth rib is short and has pointed end.
In the twelfth rib the neck, tubercle, angle and
costal groove are absent; it presents a single
facet on its head.
Q. 48 Which ribs show pump handle movements
during respiration. Mention the axis
around which this movement takes place.
Which diameter is increases during this
movement?
Ans. Pump handle movements occur from second
to sixth ribs. The anteroposterior diameter is
increased by the elevation of the ribs around
an oblique axis, which passes through the
centers of costovertebral and costotransverse
joints along the neck of the ribs.
Q. 49. Which ribs show bucket handle movements during respiration? Mention the
Axis around which this movement takes
place. Which diameter is increased during
this movement.
Ans. Bucket handle movement is observed in the
seventh to tenth ribs. The movement takes
place around an anteroposterior axis from the
costovertebral to costosternal joints. This
produces elevation of the middle of the rib by
outward twist increasing transverse diameter.
It resembles lifting of the handle of a bucket,
hence called bucket handle movement.
Q. 50. Give differences between right and left
lungs.
Right Lung
Left lung
Ans.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Shorter
Wider
More capacious
Absence of
cardiac notch
Cardiac impression
shallow
Absence of lingula
Arrangement at
hilum from above
downwards-bronchus, artery,
bronchus vein.
Three lobes separated by two fissures
Longer
Narrower
Less capacious
Presence of
cardiac notch
Cardiac impression
deep
Presence of lingula
Arrangement at
hilum from above
downwards-artery,
bronchus vein
Two lobes separated
by one fissure.
64 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 51. What is transverse pericardial sinus? What
is its development?
Ans. Transverse pericardial sinus is a passage
between two tubular reflections of serous
pericardium. It is an intervisceral space.
Transverse sinus is developed after degeneration of the central cells of the dorsal
mesocardium.
Q. 52. Give peculiarities of the first rib.
Ans. The first rib is the shortest, broadest and most
curved rib. The shaft is not twisted and the
tubercle coincides with the angle of the rib. It
is flattened from above downwards and has
no costal groove. The upper surface near the
inner border is marked by the scalene tubercle.
Q. 53. Specify the formation course and termination of the superior vena cava. Mention
its tributaries.
Ans. Superior vena cava is formed by the union of
the right and left brachiocephalic veins.
It begins behind the lower border of the sternal
end of the first right costal cartilage. It pierces
the pericardium opposite second right costal
cartilage and terminates by opening in to the
upper part of the right atrium.
Tributaries of the superior vena cava
Azygous vein
Several small pericardial and Mediastinal
vein.
Q. 54. Define a typical intercostal space. Which
are the typical intercostal spaces?
Ans. The space intervening a between typical ribs
and traversed by vessels and nerves which are
confined to the thoracic wall are called as
typical intercostal space.
Third, fourth, fifth and sixth intercostal spaces
are the typical intercostal spaces.
Q. 55. Specify boundaries and contents of a
typical intercostal space.
Ans. Boundaries of a typical intercostal space Superiorly sharp lower margin of the upper
rib and its cartilage.
Inferiorly blunt upper margin of the lower
rib and its cartilage
Anteriorly lateral border of the sternum
between the costal notches.
Thorax 65
Posteriorly body of the corresponding thoracic
vertebra
Contents Muscles external, internal and
innermost intercostals
Vessels anterior and posterior intercostal
arteries and veins.
Nerves intercostal nerves
Q. 56. What is Sibsons fascia (suprapleural
membrane)? Give its attachments.
Morphologically which structure is
represented by it? Give its functions.
Ans. Suprapleural membrane (Sibsons Fascia) is
the diaphragm of the inlet of the thorax, which
is in two halves, right and left with a cleft in
between.
It is triangular in shape. Its apex is attached
to the tip of the transverse process of the
seventh cervical vertebra and the base to the
inner border of the first rib and its cartilage.
Morphologically it represents the flattened
tendon of the scalenus minimus (pleuralis)
muscle.
It partly separates the thorax from the neck.
It provides rigidity to the thoracic inlet, so that
the root of the neck is not puffed up and down
during respiration.
Q. 57. What is costal element (Pleurapophysis).
Mention costal and transverse elements
of all vertebrae.
Ans. The costal element is a component of the
vertebral arch in the embryos and develop as
independent ribs only in the thoracic region.
In other regions they fuse with the transverse
process.
Region
1. Cervical
2. Thoracic
3. Lumbar
4. Sacrum
Costal element
Transverse element
(Pleurapophysis)
(Diapophysis)
66 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 58. Give nerve supply of the pericardium.
Ans. Fibrous and parietal pericardiumphrenic
nerve
Visceral pericardiumsuperficial and deep
cardiac plexus
Q. 59. Give arterial supply of the pericardium.
Ans. 1. Internal thoracic artery
2. Musculophrenic artery
3. Descending thoracic aorta
ABDOMEN
68 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 5. Give blood supply to prostate gland.
Ans. Arterial supply
1. Inferior vesical
2. Middle rectal
3. Internal pudendal
VenousProstatic plexus of veins which drains
into vesical and internal iliac veins. The plexus
communicates with vesical plexus, internal
pudendal veins and vertebral venous plexus.
Q. 6. Name the supports of rectum.
Ans. 1. Pelvic floor
2. Fascia of waldeyer
3. Lateral ligaments of the rectum
4. Rectovesical fascia
5. Pelvic peritoneum and related vascular
pedicles.
Q. 7. Give relations of anal canal.
Ans. A. Anteriorly
i. In both sexes-perinial body
ii. In males-membranous urethra, bulb of
penis
iii. In females-lower end of vagina
B. Posteriorly
i. Anococcygeal ligament
ii. Tip of coccyx.
C. LaterallyIschiorectal fossa.
Q. 8. Enumerate the structures forming extrahepatic biliary apparatus.
Ans. 1. The right and left hepatic ducts
2. The common hepatic duct
3. The gallbladder
4. The cystic duct
5. The bile duct.
Q. 9. Macroscopic differences between jejunum and ileum?
Ans.
Features
Jejunum
Ileum
Location
Walls
Lumen
contd...
Abdomen
69
contd...
Features
Jejunum
Ileum
SI
LI
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Absent
Absent
Absent
Smaller
Longer
Present
Present
Present
Larger
Shorter
Appendices epiploicae
Taenia coli
Sacculations
Calibre
Length
70 SAQs in Anatomy
3. Stomach
4. Anterior layers of Greater Omentum
Q. 14. Give lymphatic drainage of stomach?
Ans. Lymphatic drainage of stomach
1. Pancreaticosplenic area drains into pancreaticosplenic nodeslying along splenic
artery.
2. Area BLeft gastric nodesdrain into
cocliac nodes
3. Area CRight gastroepiploic nodesin
angle between Ist and 2nd parts of duodenum.
4. Hepatis nodesCoeliac nodes
5. Area DPyloric, hepatic, left gastric coeliac
nodes
Q. 15. Enumerate the supports of uterus.
Ans. A. Primary supports:
1. Muscular
a. Pelvic diaphragm
b. Perineal body
c. Urogenital diaphragm
2. Fibromuscular
a. Pubocervical ligament
b. Transverse cervical ligament
c. Uterosacral ligament
d. Round ligament of uterus.
3. Mechanicaluterine axis.
B. Secondary supports
a. Broad ligament
b. Uteroversical fold of peritoneum
c. Rectovaginal fold of peritoneum.
Q. 16. Give the contents of deep perineal pouch.
Ans. Contents of deep perineal pouch:
1. Membranous urethra
2. Muscles
a. Sphincter urethrae
b. Deep transversus perinei
3. Nerves
a. Dorsal Nerve of penis
b. Muscular branches from the perineal
nerve.
4. Vessels
a. Artery of penis
b. Stems of origin of four arteries from the
artery of penis passing to the superficial
perineal space.
Abdomen
71
5. Glands
a. Bulbourethral glands in males.
Q. 17. Name any of the four contents of broad
ligament of uterus.
Ans. Contents of broad ligaments of uterus
1. Uterine tube
2. Round ligament of uterus
3. Ligament of ovary
4. Uterine vessel near its attachment to the
uterus.
5. Ovarian vessels in infundibulopelvic ligament
6. Uterovaginal and ovarian nerve plexus.
Q. 18. Enumerate contents of rectus sheath.
Ans. Contents of Rectus Sheath
1. Muscles
a. Rectus abdominis
b. Pyramidalis
2. Arteries
a. Superior epigastric artery
b. Inferior epigastric artery
3. Veins
a. Superior epigastric vein
b. Inferior epigastric vein
4. Nerves
Terminal part of lower six thoracic nerves
lower five intercostal nerves and subcostal
nerves.
Q. 19. Name coverings (capsules) of the kidney.
Ans. Coverings (Capsules) of kidney
1. Fibrous Capsule
2. Perirenal (Perinephric ) fat
3. Renal fasciaAnterior layer (fascia of Toldt)
Posterior layer (fascia of zuckerkandl)
4. Pararenal (paranephric ) body (fat).
Q. 20. Give blood supply of ureter.
Ans. Blood supply of ureter
Upper partrenal artery and branches from
gonadal or colic vessels
Middle partAorta, gonadal or iliac vessels
Lower part (pelvic part)Vesical, middle
rectal, uterine vessels (in females)
72 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 21. Give blood supply of suprarenal gland.
Ans. Blood supply of suprarenal gland.
Arterial Supply
Superior suprarenal arterybranch of inferior
phrenic artery
Middle suprarenal arterybranch of abdominal aorta.
Inferior suprarenal arterybranch of renal
artery.
Venous Drainage
Each gland is drained by one vein. Right suprarenal drains into inferior vena cava, left
suprarenal drains into left renal vein.
Q. 22. Name tributaries of inferior vena cava.
Ans. Tributaries of inferior vena cava
1. Common iliac veins
2. Third and fourth lumbar veins
3. Right testicular (or ovarian) vein
4. Renal veins
5. Right suprarenal vein
6. Hepatic veins.
Q. 23. Give boundries of perineum.
Ans. Boundaries of perineum
Superficial boundaries
AnteriorlyScrotum in males, mons pubis in
females
Posteriorlybuttocks
On each sideupper part of medial side of
thigh.
Deep boundaries(Similar to pelvic outlet)
AnteriorlyUpper part of pubic arch and
arcuate (inferior) pubic ligament.
Posteriorlytip of the coccyx
On each sideconjoined ischiopubic rami,
ischial tuberosity, sacrotuberous ligaments.
Q. 24. What is perineal body? What is its function? Give its applied anatomy.
Ans. Perineal body or central part of perineum, is a
fibromuscular node, situated in the median
plane, about 1.25 cm in front of the anal
margin and close to the bulb of penis.
It is very important in females for support of
pelvic organs. It may be damaged during
parturition (childbirth). This may result in
prolapse of the urinary bladder, the uterus,
the ovaries and even the rectum.
Abdomen
73
74 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 30. Name the structures piercing perineal
membrane in females.
Ans. In females
1. Urethra
2. Vagina
3. Artery and nerve to vestibule
4. Deep artery of clitoris
5. Dorsal artery of clitoris
6. Posterior labial arteries and nerves
7. Branches of perineal nerve to superficial
perineal muscles.
Q. 31. Give contents of pelvic cavity.
Ans. Sigmoid colon and rectum
In both sexes
Urinary bladder-ureters
In malesductus deferens, seminal vesicles,
prostate.
In femalesuterus, uterine tubes, round ligaments of uterus, ligaments of ovaries, ovaries,
vagina
Q. 32. Mention different positions of vermiform
appendix.
Ans. Different positions of vermiform appendix
1. Paracolic or 11 oclock position
2. Retrocaecal or 12 oclock position
3. Splenic or 2 oclock position (Preileal/ postileal)
4. Promonteric or 3 oclock position
5. Pelvic or 4 oclock
6. Subcaecal /midinguinal or 6 oclock
Q. 33. Name the branches of superior mesenteric
artery.
Ans. Branches of superior mesenteric artery
1. Interior pancreaticoduodenal artery
2. Jejunal and ileal 3. Ileocolic
4. Right colic
5. Middle colic.
Q. 34. Name the tributaries of portal vein.
Ans. Tributaries of portal vein
1. Splenic
2. Superior mesenteric
3. Left gastric
4. Right gastric
5. Superior pancreaticoduodenal
6. Cystic
7. Paraumbilical
Abdomen
75
76 SAQs in Anatomy
4.
5.
6.
7.
Inferior vesical/vaginal
Inferior gluteal
Internal pudendal
Uterine (in females)
Abdomen
77
6. Obturator
7. Branches to quadratus lumborum and
psoas major
8. Lumbosacral trunk.
Q. 46. Enumerate the arteries supplying the
anterior abdominal wall.
Ans. 1. Superior epigastric
2. Inferior epigastric
3. Musculophrenic
4. 9th to 12th intercostal
5. Superficial epigastric
6. Deep circumflex iliac arteries.
Q. 47. Enumerate the actions of anterior abdominal wall muscles.
Ans. 1. Flexion
2. Abduction
3. Rotation
4. Respiration
5. Fixation.
Q. 48. List the ligaments of vertebral column.
Ans. 1. Supraspinous ligament (ligamentum
nuchae in cervical region)
2. Interspinous ligaments
3. Ligamentum flavum
4. Anterior longitudinal ligament
5. Posterior longitudinal ligament.
Q. 49. Name muscles present in the superficial
perineal pouch.
Ans. 1. Ischiocavernosus
2. Bulbospongiosus
3. Superficial transversus perinei.
Q. 50. Name the structures a gynaecologist
would palpate during pervaginal examination of a normal female.
Ans. Anteriorlyurinary bladder, urethra
Posteriorlyloops of ileum, sigmoid colon
rectal ampulla. Perineal body.
Laterallyureters, levator ani and urogenital
diaphragm
Q. 51. Name the structures palpated by a
surgeons gloved index finger inserted
into the anal canal and rectum of a normal
male.
Ans. Anteriorlyposterior surface of urinary
bladder, seminal vesicles, vas deferens,
prostate, perineal body, urogenital diaphragm,
bulb of penis.
78 SAQs in Anatomy
PosteriorlySacrum, coccyx, anococcygeal
body.
Laterallyischiorectal fossa, ischial spines.
Q. 52. Name the structures palpated by a
surgeons gloved index finger inserted
into the anal canal and rectum of a normal
female.
Ans. Anteriorlyrectoutrine pouch, vagina, cervix,
urogenital diaphragm, and perineal body.
Posteriorlysacrum, coccyx, anococcygeal
body.
Laterallyischiorectal fossa, ischial spines.
Q. 53. Name the various anatomical structures
traversed by trocar and cannula when a
hydrococele (tunica vaginalis distended
with fluid) is tapped.
Ans. 1. Scrotal skin
2. Dartos muscle and membranous layer of
superficial fascia
3. External spermatic fascia
4. Cremateric fascia
5. Internal spermatic fascia
6. Parietal layer of tunica vaginalis.
Q. 54. Name the various anatomical structures
traversed by a lumbar puncture needle
for giving spinal anaesthesia.
Ans. 1. Skin
2. Superficial fascia
3. Supraspinous ligament
4. Interspinous ligament
5. Ligamentum flavum
6. Internal vertebral plexus
7. Dura mater
8. Arachnoid mater.
Q. 55. Name the nerves present in the superficial
perineal pouch.
Ans. 1. Posterior scrotal
2. Nerve to the bulb
3. Muscular branches
4. Long perineal nerve.
Q. 56. Enumerate the contents of Ischiorectal
fossa.
Ans. 1. Ischiorectal pad of fat
2. Inferior rectal nerves and vessels
Abdomen
79
80 SAQs in Anatomy
3. Common iliac artery
4. Aorta.
Q. 62. A paediatrician is doing umbilical vein
catheterisation in a newborn child for
exchange transfusion. Enumerate the
blood vessels through which the catheter
passes.
Ans. 1. Umbilical vein
2. Ductus venosus
3. Inferior vena cava.
Q 63. Name the structures supplied by pudendal nerve.
Ans. 1. External anal sphincter
2. Skin around anus
3. Anal canal below pectinate line
4. Skin of scrotum or labia majora
5. Urogenital muscles
6. Levator ani
7. Corpus spongiosum
8. Corpus cavernosum
9. Skin of the body of the penis and of the
glans.
Q. 64. Enumerate the various anatomical structures traversed by a needle for liver biopsy
in the 9th intercostal space in the
midaxillary line.
Ans. 1. Skin
2. Superficial fascia
3. External intercostal muscle
4. Internal intercostal muscle
5. Innermost intercostal muscle
6. Endothoracic fascia and parietal pleura
7. Costopherenic space
8. Pleura covering diaphragm
9. Diaphragm
10. Peritoneum over under surface of diaphragm, peritoneal recess between diaphragm and liver, peritoneum over liver
11. Liver.
Q. 65. Enumerate the various anatomical structures traversed by a needle for splenic
venography in the 9th intercostal space
in the midaxillary line.
Ans. 1. Skin
2. Superficial fascia
Abdomen
81
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
External intercostal
Internal intercostal
Innermost intercostal
Edothoracic fascia and parietal pleura
Costophrenic space
Pleura covering diaphragm
Diaphragm
Peritoneum over under surface of diaphragm,
peritoneal recess between diaphragm and
spleen, peritoneum over spleen
11. Spleen.
Q. 66. What are internal haemorrhoids (piles)?
Why are they painless?
Ans. Internal haemorrhoids is a fold of mucous
membrane and submucosa containing a
varicosed tributary of the superior rectal vein
and a terminal branch of the superior rectal
artery.
The internal haemorrhoids are painless
because they occur in the upper half of the anal
canal where the mucous membrane is
innervated by autonomic afferent nerves.
Q. 67. Enumerate the vascular segments of
kidney.
Ans. 1. Apical
2. Upper
3. Middle
4. Lower
5. Posterior
Q. 68. Enumerate the contents of the lienorenal
ligament.
Ans. 1. Tail of pancreas
2. Splenic vessels
3. Pancreatic splenic lymph nodes
4. Lymphatics and sympathetic nerves.
Q. 69. Specify the parts of peritoneal cavity
separating the spleen from the stomach
and the stomach from the kidney.
Ans. The spleen is separated from the stomach by
the greater sac.
The stomach is separated from the kidney by
the lesser sac.
Q. 70. Trace the path of extravasated urine in
case of rupture of bulbar urethra.
Ans. The extravasated urine in case of rupture of
the bulbar urethra may pass into the loose
82 SAQs in Anatomy
connective tissue in the serotum, around the
penis, and superiorly deep to the membranous
layer of the subcutaneous connective tissue of
the lower anterior abdominal wall.
Q. 71. Trace the path of extravasated urine and
blood in case of rupture of membranous
urethra.
Ans. The extravasated urine and blood in case of
rupture of membranous urethra pass into deep
perineal pouch and then superiorly and
extraperitoneally around prostate and urinary
bladder.
Q. 72. What is McBurneys point? What is its
applied importance?
Ans. McBurneys point lies at the junction of the
lateral 1/3 and medial 2/3 of the line joining
the umbilicus to the right anterior superior
iliac spine.
It is the site of maximum tenderness in appendicitis.
Q. 73. What is varicocele? Why it is common on
the left side?
Ans. Varicocele is a condition in which veins of the
pampiniform plexus are elongated and
dilated.
Varicocele is common on left side possibly
because:
1. Left testicular veins is longer than the right
testicular vein.
2. Left testicular vein enters left renal vein at
right angle.
3. Right testicular vein joins low pressure
inferior vena, whereas left testicular vein
joins left renal vein in which venous pressure is higher.
4. Left testicular vein is crossed by colon which
is often loaded.
5. The left renal vein passes anterior to the
aorta and posterior to the superior
mesenteric artery. The angle between these
two arteries which may be too narrow and
can cause compression of he left renal vein.
6. The left testicular vein is put into spasm
by adrenalin rich blood entering the left
renal vein from the left suprarenal vein.
Abdomen
83
Q. 76. Enumerate the sites of portacaval anastomoses and name the blood vessels
taking part in the anastomoses.
Ans. 1. Umbilicusleft branch of the portal vein
and paraumbilical veins.
2. Lower end of oesophagusoesophageal
tributaries of left gastric vein and oesophageal tributaries of the accessory hemiazygous vein
84 SAQs in Anatomy
3. Anal canalsuperior rectal vein and
middle and inferior rectal vein.
4. Bare area of liverhepatic venules and
phrenic and intercostal vein.
5. Posterior abdominal wallveins of retroperitoneal organs like duodenum, ascending
and descending colon anastomose with
retroperitoneal veins of abdominal wall.
Q. 77. Enumerate the sphincters of the alimentary canal.
Ans. 1. Sphincter of the mouthorbicularis oris
2. Sphincters of the pharynx
a. Nasopharyngeal
b. Cricopharyngeal
3. Sphincters of the stomach
a. Cardiac
b. Pyloric
4. Sphincters of the small intestine
a. Duodenojejunal flexure
b. Ileocaecal valve
5. Sphincters of the large intestine
a. Internal anal sphincter
b. External anal sphincter
Q. 78. A nurse is introducing a nasogastric tube
in a patient. Enumerate three sites of
oesophageal narrowing, which may offer
resistance to the nasogastric tube and
their approximate respective distances
from the nostrils.
Ans. 1. At the beginning of the oesophagus behind
the cricoid cartilage18 cm.
2. Where the left bronchus and the arch of
aorta cross the front of oesophagus
28 cm.
3. Where oesophagus enters the stomach
44 cm.
Q.79. Enumerate ligaments of the liver.
Ans. I. False or peritoneal folds
a. Falciform ligament
b. Lesser omentum
Abdomen
85
86 SAQs in Anatomy
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Ans. 1.
2.
3.
Q. 83. Name parts of the male urethra mentioning the shapes of the lumen of each
part in cross-section.
Ans. 1. Prostatic part crescentric with the
convexity in front.
2. Membranous part stellate
3. Spongy part
i. At the bulb of the penis trapezoid
ii. At the body of the penis transverse
slit
iii. At the external orifice sagittal slit
Q. 84. Draw and label anterior and posterior
relations of the right kidney.
Ans.
Right Kidney
Abdomen
87
88 SAQs in Anatomy
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
Obturator nerve
Ureter
Internal iliac artery
Internal iliac vein
Vas deference in males
Ovarian artery and round ligament of
uterus in females
Coils of small intestine
Median umbilical ligament
Medial umbilical ligament
Lateral umbilical ligament
Sigmoid colon
Appendix, if pelvic in position
Abdomen
89
90 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 95. Give boundaries of the inguinal canal.
Ans. 1. Anterior wall skin, superficial fascia,
aponeurosis of the external oblique, lateral
one third by fleshy fibres of the internal
oblique.
2. Posterior wall fascia transversalis, in the
medial half by conjoint tendon, reflected
part of the inguinal ligament.
3. Roof arched fibres of the internal and
transverses abdominis muscles.
4. Floor grooved upper surface of the
inguinal ligament, medially by the lacunar
ligament
5. Inlet deep inguinal ring
6. Outlet superficial inguinal ring.
Q. 96. Define transpyloric plane. Mention the
structures situated at this level.
Ans. The transpyloric plane is an imaginary
transverse plane passing through tip of the
9th costal cartilage anteriorly and lower part
of the body of the first lumbar vertebra
posteriorly.
Structures situated at the level of transpyloric
plane are:
1. Pyloric end of the stomach
2. Fundus of the gallbladder
3. Hila of both kidneys
4. Origin of superior mesenteric artery
5. Lower end of the spinal cord
6. Cisterna chyli
Q. 97. What is watershed line?
Ans. It is a transverse line drawn at the level of the
umbilicus which demarcates the direction of
flow of subcutaneous lymphatics from the
upper area of the abdominal wall bilaterally
into axillary lymph nodes and those from the
lower area drain bilaterally in to superficial
inguinal lymph nodes.
Q. 98. What is lesser sac? Why it is called omental
bursa?
Ans. Lesser sac is a large recess of peritoneal cavity
or greater sac. It is situated behind the
stomach. It is closed on all sides except at the
epiploic foramen through which it communicates with the greater sac.
Abdomen
91
92 SAQs in Anatomy
of the pleura. Renal colic pain usually radiates
downwards and forwards from the renal angle
to the groin. Surgically the kidney is exposed
retroperitoneally by an oblique incision, which
extends downwards and forwards commencing
from the renal angle.
Q.102. Through which veins collateral venous
circulation is established between
superior and inferior vena cavae in
thrombosis of inferior vena cava.
Ans. In thrombosis of inferior vena cava collateral
venous circulation between the superior and
inferior vena cavae is established through
superficial or deep veins or both.
The participating superficial veins include
epigastric, circumflex iliac, lateral thoracic,
thoracoepigastric, internal thoracic, posterior
intercostal, external pudendal and lumbar
vertebral veins.
The deep veins are the azygous, hemiazygous
and lumbar veins. The vertebral venous plexus
may also provide an effective collateral
circulation between the two vena cavae.
Q.103. Give characteristics of the male pelvis.
Ans. Characteristics of the male pelvis are:
1. The subpubic angle is 50 to 60
2. Ischiopupic rami markedly everted and
rough
3. Ischial tuberosities are not everted
4. Greater sciatic notch 50
5. Sacral promontory is more projecting
forwards, pelvic inlet is heart shaped.
6. Transverse diameter is placed nearer the
promontory
7. Body of the first sacral vertebra forms more
than one-third of the base
8. The pelvic cavity is longer and more conical.
The walls converge inferiorly so that outlet
is smaller than the inlet.
9. Sacral part of chilotic line is longer than
the pelvic part.
10. Pelvis is heavier and thicker and bony
markings are more prominent.
Q.104. Give characteristics of the female pelvis.
Ans. Characteristics of the female pelvis are:
1. The subpubic angle is wider 80 to 85
Abdomen
93
94 SAQs in Anatomy
reduced by wrinkhing, to prevent loss of heat.
In hot weather the muscle relaxes. The area of
scrotal skin is increased to promote loss of
heat.
Q.107. Give morphology of coeliac ganglia.
Ans. Coeliac ganglia are the largest ganglia in the
body. They are situated on each side of the
coeliac trunk adjacent to the suprarenal
glands, anterior to the crura of the diapragm.
They are connected by coeliac plexus. Each
ganglion is irregular in shape and divided into large upper part which receives greater
splanching nerve and a smaller lower part
which receives lesser splanchnic nerves.
Q.108. Give morphology of the coeliac plexus or
the solar plexus.
Ans. The coeliac or solar plexus is the largest
autonomic plexus in the body. It is a dense
network situated at the level of T12 and L1 on
the aorta around coeliac axis artery and the
root of the superior mesenteric artery.
Connecting two coeliac ganglia. The plexus is
joined by greater and lesser splanchnic nerves
and branches from the vagus and phrenic
nerves.
Q.109. Name various secondary plexuses to
which the coeliac plexus is connected or
name various plexuses which the coeliac
plexus gives rise to?
Ans. The coeliac plexus is connected to or gives rise
to phrenic, splenic, hepatic, superior mesenteric, suprarenal, renal and gonadal plexuses.
Q.110. Give morphology and connections of the
superior hypogastric plexus (presacral
nerve).
Ans. The superior hypogastric plexus lies, in front
of the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta, the
body of the vertebra L5, the promontory of the
sacrum and between the two common iliac
arteries. Though it is called presacral nerve, it
is neither a single nerve nor presacral in
position.
The plexus is formed by:
A. Sympathetic nerves (1) Descending fibres
from the aortic plexus, (2) Third and fourth
lumbar splanchnic nerves.
Abdomen
95
96 SAQs in Anatomy
ventral rami to the lumbosacral trunk all run
anterior to the fifth lumbar transverse process.
Any or all of them may be damaged in injuries
of this process.
Q.115. Which nerves may be involved in disease
of the sacroiliac joint, and in which region
the pain will be felt?
Ans. 1. Obturator nerve
2. Femoral nerve
3. Lumbosacral trunk
4. First sacral ventral ramus
The pain will be felt along anteromedial and
posteromedial aspect of the thigh and the leg
and not at the site of involvement.
Q.116. What are the weak spots in the abdomen
through which hernia may occur?
Ans. Deep inguinal ring
Superficial inguinal ring
Umbilicus
Greater and lesser sciatic foramina
Femoral ring
Lumbar triangle
98 SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 8. Enumerate the anatomical structure cut
by a scalpel to perform cricothyroidectomy to establish adequate airway.
Ans. The incision is taken between cricoid cartilage
and thyroid cartilage.
The layers encountered are:
1. Skin
2. Superfical fascia
3. Investing layer of deep cervical fascia
4. Pretracheal fascia
5. Cricothyroid ligament.
Q. 9. Enumerate the anatomical structures
encountered by a scalpal while performing a tracheostomy operation.
Ans. 1. Skin
2. Superficial fascia
3. Investing layer of deep cervical fascia
4. Pretracheal fascia
5. 2nd tracheal ring.
Q. 10. Name the muscles attached to the body of
hyoid bone.
Ans. 1. Geniohyoid
2. Mylohyoid
3. Part of hyoglossus
4. Genioglossus
5. Sternohyoid
6. Omohyoid.
Q. 11. Give the nerve supply and actions of
stapedius.
Ans. Stapedius is supplied by facial nerve. Stapedius draws the stapes laterally. It exerts
damping effect of sound vibrations to protect
the internal ear from loud sounds.
Q. 12. Give the nerve supply and actions of
tensor tympani.
Ans. Tensor tympani is supplied by mandibular
nerve.
Tensor tympani draws the handle of malleus
medially and tightens the tympanic membrane.
Q. 13. Enumerate prevertebral muscles of the
neck.
Ans. 1. Longus coli
2. Longus capitis
100
SAQs in Anatomy
102
SAQs in Anatomy
4. Rt. recurrent laryngeal
5. Cardiac.
104
SAQs in Anatomy
106
SAQs in Anatomy
iv. Pharyngeal
v. Artery of pterygoid canal
vi. Sphenopalatine.
108
SAQs in Anatomy
110
SAQs in Anatomy
112
SAQs in Anatomy
114
SAQs in Anatomy
B. Special Sensory olfactory nerves from
cribriform plate of ethmoid to superior
concha.
116
SAQs in Anatomy
Zygomaticotemporal nerve
Auriculotemporal nerve
Posterior branch of great. Auricular nerve
Lesser occipital nerve
Greater occipital nerve.
118
SAQs in Anatomy
fibres relay in the ganglion postganglionic
fibres pass through zygomatic nerve
zygomaticotemporal nerve communicating
branch to lacrimal nerve lacrimal gland.
120
SAQs in Anatomy
Sphenomandibular ligament
Anterior ligament of malleus
Tensor palati and tensor tympani muscle.
Structure related to the spine of the sphenoid
Laterally auriculotemporal nerve
Medially chorda tympani nerve
auditory tube
122
SAQs in Anatomy
Ans. a.
b.
c.
d.
124
SAQs in Anatomy
Breadth 100
Length
126
SAQs in Anatomy
128
SAQs in Anatomy
3. Pharyngeal
4. Muscular branch supplying stylopharyngeus
5. Tonsillar
6. Lingual
130
SAQs in Anatomy
Prominent
Very
prominent
Less
prominent
More
Everted
Heavier
Lagrer
Thick
walled
Not
prominent
Not
prominent
Prominent
Less
Not everted
Lighter
Smaller
Thin
walled
132
SAQs in Anatomy
BRAIN
Brain
135
136
SAQs in Anatomy
Brain
137
138
SAQs in Anatomy
Brain
139
140
SAQs in Anatomy
Brain
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
141
142
SAQs in Anatomy
1. Involvement of vestibular nuclei severe
giddiness
2. Involvement of nucleus ambiguous
dysphagia, dyarthria
3. Involvement of
Contralateral loss of
the lateral
sensation of
Spinothalamic
pain and temperature
tract
4. Involvement of
Ipsilateral loss of pain
spinal nucleus
and temperature of
and tract of
the face.
trigeminal nerve
5. Involvement of sympathetic pathway
Horners syndrome.
Q. 43. Specify the commencement and termination of the tracts in the posterior
funiculus of the spinal cord.
Ans. The tracts in the posterior funiculus are
fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus.
They are formed by central processes of
neurons located in the dorsal nerve root
ganglion. The fasciculus gracilis which lies
medially is composed of fibres from sacral.
Lumbar and lower thoracic ganglia. The
fasciculus cuneatus which lies laterally
consists of fibres from upper thoracic and
cervical ganglia. These fibres terminate by
synapsing with neurons in the nucleus gracilis
and nucleus cuneatus respectively in the lower
part of medulla oblongata.
Q. 44. Thrombosis of which artery causes medial
medullary syndrome? Which part of the
medulla oblongata is damaged? What are
the characteristics of the medial medullary syndrome?
Ans. Thrombosis of the anterior spinal artery causes
medial medullary syndrome. In this syndrome
ventral and medial part of the medulla is
damaged.
Characteristics of medial medullary syndrome.
1. Involvement of corticospinal fibres
contralateral hemiplegia
2. Damage to the hypoglossal nucleus
ipsilateral paralysis of muscles of the
tongue.
Brain
143
144
SAQs in Anatomy
3. Median nerve at the wrist
4. Lateral terminal branch of deep peroneal
nerve
Brain
145
3. Trochlear nucleus
4. Mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminal
nerve.
Q. 55. Enumerate the cranial nerve nuclei
present in the pons.
Ans. 1. Main sensory nucleus of the trigeminal
nerve
2. Motor nucleus of the trigeminal nerve
3. Nucleus of facial nerve
4. Abducent nucleus
5. Superior salivatory nucleus
6. Inferior salivatory nucleus
7. Lacrimatory nucleus.
Q. 56. Enumerate the cranial nerve nuclei
present in the medulla oblongata.
Ans. 1. Hypoglossal nucleus
2. Nucleus ambiguous
3. Nucleus of tractus solitarius
4. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
5. Spinal nucleus of trigeminal nerve
6. Vestibular nuclei
7. Dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei
Q. 57. Enumerate the gyri present on the
tentorial surface of the cerebrum.
Ans. 1. Parahippocampal gyrus
2. Medial occipitotemporal gyrus
3. Lateral occipitotemporal gyrus
4. Lingual gyrus.
Q. 58. Specify the boundaries of the inter peduncular fossa. Mention the structures seen
in the fossa.
Ans. The interpeduncular fossa is bounded, in front
by optic chiasma. On the sides by right and
left optic tracts and posteriorly by the crus
cerebri.
The structures seen in the interpeduncular
fossa are tuber cinerum, mamillary bodies and
posterior perforated substance.
Q. 59. Specify the ascending and descending
fibres passing through the genu and the
posterior limb of the internal capsule.
Ans. A. Ascending fibres superior thalamic
radiations (from ventral posterior nucleus
of thalamus to post central gyrus).
146
SAQs in Anatomy
Thalamoparietal fibres
B. Descending Fibres
1. Corticonuclear
2. Corticospinal
3. Frontopontine
4. Corticorubral
5. Corticoreticular
6. Parietothalamic
T1 T 2
Preganglionic
fibres
Postganglionic
fibres
Ganglia
Parasympathetic
Short
Long
Short
Paravertebral
Prevertebral
Small ganglia
close to viscera
(e.g. otic ganglion)
Ganglion cells in
plexuses
(e.g. cardiac)
Brain
147
148
SAQs in Anatomy
Brain
149
150
SAQs in Anatomy
Fibres of corpus callosum:
1. Forceps minor
2. Forceps major
3. Tapetum.
Brain
151
152
SAQs in Anatomy
Brain
153
Grey rami
1. Medial in position
2. Convey pre ganglionic motor fibres only
3. Connected to all 31 pairs of spinal nerves
from the lateral ganglia
4. Segmental in distribution.
Q.86. Draw and label following cells.
1. Purkinje, 2. Pyramidal, 3. Stellate,
4. Fusiform, 5. Martinotti, 6. Horizontal
cell of cajal
Ans.
154
SAQs in Anatomy
Basal Ganglia:
1. Corpus striatum
i. Caudate nucleus
ii. Lentiform nucleus
a. Globus pallidus
b. Putamen
2. Claustrum
3. Amygdaloid body
Brain
155
156
SAQs in Anatomy
HISTOLOGY
Q. 3. What is unit membrane? How cell membrane differs from unit membrane?
Ans. All the biological membranes including the
cell membrane and internal membranes of the
cell organelles have common trilaminar
structure which is about 7.5 nm thick made
up of lipids and proteins and called as unit
membrane.
The cell membrane separates the cytoplasm
of the cell from the surrounding structures and
it is made up of trilaminar unit membrane
158
SAQs in Anatomy
and in addition its external surface shows glycocalyx coat (glycoproteins and glycolipids).
Q. 4. Classify the cell contacts.
Ans. A. Unspecialized contactsCell adhesion
molecules (CAM) occupy the entire thickness of the cell membrane.
i. Ca dependent
ii. Ca independent
B. Specialised Contacts
i. Zonula occludens
Junctional
ii. Zonula adherens
complex
iii. Macula adherens
(desmosome)
iv. Gap junctions
v. Hemidesmosomes
Q. 5. Draw and label a Golgi complex.
Histology
159
160
SAQs in Anatomy
Histology
161
162
SAQs in Anatomy
Histology
163
Q. 19. Draw and label structure of a spermatozoon as seen under electron microscope.
164
SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 21. Classify glands on the basis of development and give an example of each.
Ans. 1. Ectodermalmammary gland
2. Mesodermalsuprarenal cortex
3. EndodermalThyroid.
Q. 22. What is cytoskeleton? Give any two functions of cytoskeleton.
Ans. Microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments present in the cytoplasm
constitute cytoskeleton.
Functions:
1. They give support and form framework of
the cells thus maintaining the structure of
the cell.
2. They bring about various movements of cell
organelles within the cell.
Q. 23. Draw and label structure of a mitochondrium and specify its functions?
Ans. Functions:
1. ATP and GTP are formed in mitochondria
which provide energy for various cellular
functions.
2. It is concerned with fatty acid metabolism.
Histology
165
166
SAQs in Anatomy
Histology
167
168
SAQs in Anatomy
Histology
169
Cardiac Muscle
170
SAQs in Anatomy
They are made up of protein elastin. Elastic
fibre can be stretched (like a rubber band) and
return to its original length when tension is
released.
They are digested by enzyme elastase.
Histology
171
172
SAQs in Anatomy
Histology
173
Distal convoluted
tubule
20-50 mm
Large
cuboidal, no brush
border
Less intensely pink.
174
SAQs in Anatomy
Coiledarteries
Secretory phase
2 to 3 mm
Long tubular,
usually straight
5 to 7 mm
highly tortuous,
lumina dilated and
filled with secretions
Seen in the
Extend in to the upper
deeper regions
portion of the endomeof the endometrium trium
Histology
175
176
SAQs in Anatomy
of the cell. The nucleus is flattened and
situated near the base, rough endoplasmic
reticulum and golgi complex is well developed.
Histology
177
178
SAQs in Anatomy
Ans. The serous membrane or the serosa is a
functional unit formed by epithelium and its
underlying connective tissue lining closed
cavities. (except peritoneal cavity in females
which communicates with the exterior by way
of uterine tubes). Structurally it consists of a
lining epithelium, called mesothelium, a
supporting connective tissue and a basal
lamina between them. The serous membranes
do not contain glands and the fluid on their
surface is watery.
The serosa lines the peritoneal, pleural and
pericardial cavities.
Histology
179
180
SAQs in Anatomy
deficiency of dynein, a protein normally present
in the cilia. This protein is responsible for the
sliding of the microtubules, a process that is
necessary for ciliary movements.
Histology
181
182
SAQs in Anatomy
Q.104. Why skeletal muscle cells are multinucleated and nuclei are peripherally placed?
Ans. The skeletal muscle fibers are elongated cells
formed by fusion of many myoblasts. Therefore
they are multinucleated. The skeletal muscle
fiber contraction is with great power and speed.
If nuclei are in the center of the fiber they can
cause obstruction during contraction and would
get compressed.
Q.105. What is canal of schlemm? What is its
function and its clinical importance?
Ans. Canal of schlemm (scleral venous sinus) is a
circular canal lined by endothelium present
at sclerocorneal junction. It is connected externally to anterior ciliary veins and internally to the anterior chamber through spaces of
fontana. The aqueous humor is continuously
drained through the canal into blood stream.
[Aqueous humor serves as a medium for exchange of metabolites to and from the avascular lens and the cornea and maintaining intraocular pressure]. Obstruction to the drainage of aqueous humor leads to increased intraocular pressure causing glaucoma.
Q.106. Name the microglia.
Ans. Oligodendrocytes
Astrocytes
Mllers cells of retina
Pituicytes
Ependymal cells
Q.107. How enamel and dentin formation differs
from the bone formation?
Ans. During bone formation bone forming
osteoblasts are surrounded by bony plates.
Incase of enamel and dentine formation
ameloblasts and odontoblasts move away
from the site of calcification.
Q.108. What are dense bodies and dense plaques
present in the visceral (smooth) muscle?
Ans. The cytoplasmic dense bodies and
semimembranous dark plaques are
equivalent to Z discs of striated muscle cells.
They contain alpha actin protein and anchor
actin filaments and intermediate filaments.
Histology
183
EMBRYOLOGY
Embryology
185
186
SAQs in Anatomy
Example: Alcohol, drugs-like androgens, and
progestogens, antibiotics like tetracycline, and
streptomycin.
Q. 9. What is critical period of human development? What is its clinical importance?
Ans. Critical period of human development is third
to eighth week of intrauterine development.
The tissues and organ systems are developed
rapidly during this period. Exposure of
embryos to teratogens during this period, may
cause major congenital anomalies.
Embryology
187
188
SAQs in Anatomy
Embryology
189
190
SAQs in Anatomy
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
Trachea
Bronchi
Lungs
Pharynx
Thyroid
Tympanic cavity
Pharyngotympanic tube
Tonsils
Parathyroid glands.
Q. 28. Enumerate the four embryonic components from which the diaphragm develops.
Ans. 1. Septum transversum
2. Pleuroperitoneal membranes
3. Dorsal mesentery of esophagus
4. Muscular ingrowth from lateral body walls.
Q. 29. Name the derivatives of the first pharyngeal Arch Cartilages.
Ans. 1. Malleus
2. Incus
3. Anterior ligament of the malleus
4. Sphenomandibular ligament
5. Primordium of the mandible.
Q. 30. Name the derivatives of the second
pharyngeal Arch Cartilages.
Ans. 1. Stapes
2. Styloid process
3. Stylohyoid ligament
4. Lesser cornu and superior part of the body
of the hyoid bone.
Q. 31. Name the derivatives of the fourth and
sixth pharyngeal arch cartilages.
Ans. 1. Thyroid cartilage
2. Cricoid cartilage
3. Arytenoid cartilage
4. Corniculate cartilage
5. Cuneiform cartilage.
Q. 32. Name the derivatives of the first pharyngeal Arch muscles.
Ans. 1. Masseter
2. Temporalis
3. Lateral pterygoid
4. Medial pterygoid
5. Mylohyoid
Embryology
191
192
SAQs in Anatomy
Embryology
193
194
SAQs in Anatomy
Embryology
195
196
SAQs in Anatomy
On the left, the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
hooks around the ductus arteriosus formed by
the distal part of the sixth aortic arch. When
this vessel involutes after birth the nerve hooks
around the ligamentum arteriosum and the
arch of the aorta.
Medial umbilical
ligament
Ligamentum teres of
the liver
Ligamentum venosum
Ligamentum
arteriosum
Embryology
197
198
SAQs in Anatomy
3. In the perineum
4. In the thigh.
Embryology
199
200
SAQs in Anatomy
During development of the kidney the
metanephric deverticulum (ureteric bud)
induces the formation of tubules in the
metanephric mesoderm. This mesoderm in
turn induces branching of the diverticulum
that results in the development of the
collecting tubules and calices of the kidney.
Embryology
201
202
SAQs in Anatomy
Somatic cells
and Gametes
Less than 3
hours
3. Resulting Cells
4. Chromosome
Identical
Diploid
Number
5. Stages
One
6. Duration
of Prophase
Very Brief
7. Crossing-
Nil
over
Split
8. Centromeres
Gametes
Males 60 to 64
days
Female 13 to 48
years
Not so genetic
variation
Haploid
Two meiosis I
(m1)
meiosis II (m2)
m1 very long
Male days
Female years
Usual and
essential
M1 no splitting
M2 split
Embryology
203
204
SAQs in Anatomy
Puberty
Early embryonic
life
60-65 days
10-50 years
4Spermat1 Ovum (2 polar
gametes
oza bodies)
300-500 million 1 Ovum per
per ejaculate
menstrual
cycle
Embryology
205
Small
Very Scanty
Cell with a tail
A Specialty
Two-Y- Bearing
X- Bearing
Large
Abundant
Round
Nil
One X- Bearing
only
2. Proportion
of genes in
common
3. Foetal
membranes
4. Sex
5. Physical
appearance
Single ovum
fertilized
by a single
sperm
100%
Two ova,
each fertilized
by a single sperm
Always
dichorionic and
diamniotic
50%
Same or different
Different
206
SAQs in Anatomy
Embryology
207
208
SAQs in Anatomy
2. Developmental stage at the time of
exposure to teratogen. Most sensitive period
is 3rd to 8th weeks of gestation.
3. Dose and duration of exposure to a teratogen.
4. Teratogens act in specific mechanisms, i.e.
inhibition of a specific biochemical or
molecular process.
5. Manifestations of abnormal development
are death, malformation, growth retardation and functional disorder.
Embryology
209
10
GENETICS
Genetics
211
4. Chromomere
5. Chromosome.
Q. 5. List the characteristics of mitochondrial
chromosomes:
Ans. 1. The mitochondrial chromosome is a small
circular molecule.
2. The DNA molecule is 16 kb long and
encodes 13 structural genes and numerous
RNA genes.
3. They show maternal inheritance.
Q. 6. Define the following terms and give one
example of each (a) codominant (b) intermediate inheritance.
Ans. a. Codominant When both members of an
allelic pair are able to express themselves
fully in the phenotype, the inheritance is
called codominant e.g. ABO blood groups.
A and B genes are fully expressed in AB
blood group.
b. Intermediate inheritance When the trait is
the result of a sharing of or a partial
expression of both alleles it is called intermediate inheritance, e.g. sickle cell trait.
Q. 7. What is Barr body or sex chromatin? From
which structure it is derived?
Ans. Barr body or sex chromatin is a small chromatin body detected in the nuclei of the cells in
interphase of female mammals when stained
with basic dyes.
Barr body is derived from one of the X-chromosomes, which is condensed and inactive.
Q. 8. Enumerate structural chromosomal
abnormalities.
Ans. 1. Deletion
2. Duplication
3. Translocation 4. Inversion
5. Isochromosome 6. Ring chromosome.
Q. 9. Enumerate numerical chromosomal
aberrations.
Ans. 1. Triploid 3N
2. Tetraploid 4N
3. Aneuploid
a. 2 N1-Monosomy
b. 2 N+1-Trisomy.
212
SAQs in Anatomy
Genetics
213
214
SAQs in Anatomy
Q. 23. Draw a pedigree chart of autosomal recessive inheritance for four generations.
Q. 24. Draw a pedigree chart of X-linked recessive inheritance for four generations.
Carrier female
affected male
Genetics
215
Q. 25. Draw a pedigree chart of X-linked dominant inheritance for three generations.
216
SAQs in Anatomy
2. There is no overlapping of bases in the code
3. There are no spaces between successive
codes of a gene.
4. The code is universal.
Satellite DNA
Long interspersed
elements (LINE)
Genetics
217
218
SAQs in Anatomy
3. Trait transmitted to all children of affected
female
4. Trait seen in every generation.
Genetics
3. It has double
helix strands.
4. DNA has
pyramidine
base thymine
219
It has single
strand
It has pyramidine
base - uracil
220
SAQs in Anatomy
a. Biochemical studies of amniotic fluid
can detect open neural tube defects like
spinabifida, anencephaly (increased levels
of alphafoeto proteins)
b. Karyotyping (cytogenetic studies) of amniotic fluid can diagnose numerical and
structural chromosomal aberrations (deletion, translocation, trisomy, monosomy,
etc.)
c. If genetic condition is severe enough parents
are informed and choice of medical termination of pregnancy can be given to them.
Genetics
221
11
RADIOLOGY
Radiology
223
224
SAQs in Anatomy
catheter in position the bolus of the dye can
be injected at selected levels and the
injection of the dye can be repeated at
intervals if necessary.
Q.7. Which radiological procedure is done to
study carotid blood vessels? Give one
indication. How much quantity of dye is
injected and at how much time interval
pictures are taken?
Ans. Carotid angiography is done to visualise the
carotid blood vessels. It is indicated in lesions
above the tentorium cerebelli.
About 10 ml of contrast medium (conray 280)
is injected in the common carotid artery. The
radiograph is taken when the last 2 ml of
medium is to be injected then next pictures
are taken at 1 and 2 seconds interval.
Q. 8. Give principles of ultrasonography.
Ans. Ultrasonography employs sound waves whose
frequency is higher (from 2 105 to over 10
106 hertz) than can be registered by the human
ear.
A small transducer, placed in contact with the
area of the body being investigated, produces
ultrasonic waves, which travel through human
tissues and are reflected back to the surface
where these echoes are received back by the
transducer. These waves are changed to faint
signals, which are processed by a computer
into a video image.
It is a noninvasive, rapid and safe technique.
Therefore, it is the only body scanning
technique recommended for pregnant women.
Q. 9. Give principles of CT (Computed Tomography) or CAT (Computerised Axial
Tomography) scanning.
Ans. CT scan employs an X-rays tube on the yoke
that allows 360 rotation. A thin fan shaped
X-ray beam penetrates the body and produces
a cross-sectional view of tissues within, by
revolving the X-ray tube around the body. CT
machines view thin slices of the body from
many angles. The X-rays fall on hundreds of
crystal chip detectors on the opposite side of
the tube. The detectors record multiple data
Radiology
225
226
SAQs in Anatomy
Ans. The radiological procedure used to visualize
the esophagus is barium swallow or
esophagograph. The patient is kept nil by
mouth for eight hours prior to the procedure.
200 ml of barium sulphate in water
suspension is given to the patient orally and
radiograph is taken. The normal concave
indentations of esophagus seen on radiograph
are due to arch of aorta, left bronchus and left
atrium.
Radiology
227