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SBI PO
SBI PO ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA
SBI PO SELECTION PROCEDURE
SBI PO SYLLABUS & BLUE PRINT
SBI PO PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS
3) Is D brother of T?
I. T is the sister of M and K
II. K is the brother of D
a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while, the data in statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data either in the statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
4) How many sons does P have?
I. S and T are brothers of M
II. The mother of T is P who has only one daughter
a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while, the data in statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data either in the statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
5) Who is the tallest among P, Q, R, S and T?
I. R is taller than Q and T
II. T is taller than S and P and S is taller than Q and R
a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while, the data in statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data either in the statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(Directions.6-10) In each question below are four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III
and IV. You have to take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to be t variance with commonly
known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the four given statements
disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers a), b), c), d) and e) is the correct
answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.
6) Statements:
All stones are pearls.
Some pearls are shells.
Some shells are boxes.
No box is container.
Conclusions:
I. Some stones are shells
II. No pearl is container
III. No shell is container
IV. Some pearls are containers
a) Only II follows
b) Only II and III follow
c) Only either II or IV follows
Based on the above conditions and the information provided in each of the questions below, decide the course
of action in each case. You are not to assume anything. If the data provided is not adequate to decide the given
course of action your answer will be data inadequate. These cases are given to you as on 1 April, 2009.
11) Alok Desai is a post- graduate in Psychology and has been teaching in an Institute for last 5
years and has coordinated such Programme in the past. He was 39 years old as on 10 March,
2008.
a) Dont select
b) Refer to Director
c) Data
inadequate
d) Select
e) None of
these
12) Samir Malkani is a Postgraduate in Personnel Management and was born on 15 Jan., 1965. He
has been working in a company for the last 12 years as Personnel Manager
a) Refer to Director
b) Refer to Deputy
Director
c) Select
d) Dont select
e) None of
these
Director
these
13) Usha Sodani is Ph.D in Personnel Management and has been teaching in an Institute for last 10
years. She has worked as a guest speaker in a similar Programme and was born on 26 Aug, 1966.
a) Refer to Director
b) Refer to Deputy
Director
c) Do not
select
d) Data
inadequate
e) None of
these
14) Sudha Malhotra is a post graduate in Psychology and has been teaching for last 15 years. She
has not worked as guest speaker in similar programmes in the past.
a) Data inadequate
b) Select
c) Refer to
Director
d) Dont select
e) None of
these
15) Mrinal Kelkar is a Post graduate in Business Management and has been working a Personnel
Manager for the last 12 years. He has worked as guest speaker in similar Programme in the past.
He will be 43 years old as on 5 May, 2011
a) Refer to Deputy
Director
b) Refer to Director
c) Dont select
d) Select
e) None of
these
(Directions.16-20) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from
the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage
and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
In India the asbestos industry is growing and employs more than 15,000 people in 75 units which are
spread over several states like Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh etc. Surprisingly,
advanced countries are banning cancer causing asbestos products, multinational companies are from those
countries which are setting up units in developing countries like India. One reason beinglack of awareness in
the society and indifference of the government machinery of these countries. Prolonged exposure to asbestos
dust and fibres can cause lung cancer but most workers in India are too afraid to protest for fear of losing jobs.
Some of these factories are operating in Mumbai. Quite a few of the factories in India are not known to take
adequate precautions to protect workers from asbestos dust.
The Government is taking several steps to provide medical inspection of workers. In fact it has amended
factories act to extend the provision to even those factories employing less than 10 workers.
16) The asbestos industry is one of the largest industries in India
a) If the inference is definitely true, e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given
b) If the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given
c) If the data are inadequate e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true
or false.
d) If the inference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts given
e) If the inference is definitely false, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the
given facts.
17) The asbestos industries in India are located in few metropolitan pockets only
a) If the inference is definitely true, e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given
b) If the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given
c) If the data are inadequate e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true
or false.
d) If the inference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts given
e) If the inference is definitely false, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the
given facts.
18) The advanced countries are concerned and careful to protect health hazards of its people
a) If the inference is definitely true, e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given
b) If the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given
c) If the data are inadequate e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true
or false.
d) If the inference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts given
e) If the inference is definitely false, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the
given facts.
19) The demand for asbestos products appears to be growing in India.
a) If the inference is definitely true, e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given
b) If the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given
c) If the data are inadequate e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true
or false.
d) If the inference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts given
e) If the inference is definitely false, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the
given facts.
20) The Governments of developing countries appear to be not taking appropriate measures while granting
permission to set up production units of multinational companies in their countries.
a) If the inference is definitely true, e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given
b) If the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given
c) If the data are inadequate e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true
or false.
d) If the inference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts given
e) If the inference is definitely false, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the
given facts.
(Directions.21-25) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
(i) B sits second to left of Hs husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.
(ii) Ds daughter sits second to right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of Hs husband.
(iii) Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. Hs brother D sits to the immediate left of Hs
mother. Only one person sits between Hs mother and E.
(iv) Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.
b) Third to the
right
c) Third to the
left
d) Second to the
right
e) Fourth to the
left
d) G
e) H
b) C
c) E
b) Third to the
right
c) Third to the
left
d) Second to the
left
e) Fourth to the
left
d) Four
e) More than
four
b) Two
c) Three
25) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form
a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) F
b) C
c) E
d) H
e) G
26) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:
Small brands are now looking beyond local grocery stores and are tying up with Supermarkets such as Big
Bazaar to pull their business out of troubled waters.
Question: Which of the following can be inferred from the given information? An inference is something that is
not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information
a) Merchandise of smaller brands would not be available at local grocery stores in the near future
b) Smaller brands cannot compete with bigger ones in a supermarket set-up
c) There is a perception among small brands that sale in a supermarket is higher than that of small grocery
stores
d) Supermarkets generate more revenue by selling products of bigger brands as compared to the smaller ones
e) Smaller brand have always had more tie-ups with supermarkets as compared to small grocery stores.
(Directions.27-30) These questions are based on the information given below and the sentences labeled (a),
(b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) as given below.
Small brands are now looking beyond local grocery stores and are tying up with Supermarkets such as Big
Bazaar to pull their business out of troubled waters.
(a) A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand, makes
much more profit from the local grocery stores than from the supermarkets.
(b) As the supermarkets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, this step would fail to deliver results
in the smaller cities.
(c) Supermarkets help the smaller brands to break into newer markets withoutinvesting substantially in
distribution.
(d) Supermarkets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands.
(e) Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local grocery stores is much
lower as compared to the supermarkets.
(f) Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses.
27) Which of the statements numbered a), b), c), d), e) and f) can be assumed from the facts /
information given in the statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)
a) Only a)
b) Only b)
c) Both b) and c)
d) Both d) and e)
e) Only f)
28) Which of the statements numbered a), b), c), e) and f) represents a disadvantage of the small
grocery stores over the supermarkets from the perspective of a smaller brand?
a) Only a)
b) Only c)
c) Only e)
d) Only f)
e) Both b) and c)
29) Which of the statements a), b), c), d) and e) mentioned above represents a reason for the shift
from local grocery stores to supermarkets by the smaller brands?
a) Only a)
b) Only b)
c) Only d)
d) Both a) and d)
e) Both c) and e)
30) Which of the statements numbered a), b), c), e) and f) mentioned above would prove that the
step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to supermarkets) may not necessarily be correct?
a) Only a)
b) Only c)
c) Only e)
d) Only f)
e) Both b) and e)
(Directions.31-35) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the
numbers given in the arrangement are two digit numbers)
And Step VII is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input as the desired arrangement is obtained.As
per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for
the given input.
31) Input: 86 open shut door 31 49 always 45
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
a) Five b) Six c) Seven d) Four e) None of these
32) Step III of an input: 25 yes 37 enemy joy defeat 52 46 which of the following is definitely the input?
a) Enemy 25 joy defeat yes 52 37 46
b) 37 enemy 25 joy yes defeat 52 46
c) Enemy joy defeat 25 52 yes 46 37
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
33) Step II of an Input: 18 win 71 34 now if victory 61 How many more steps will be required to compete the
rearrangement?
a) Three b) Four c) Five d) Six e) More than six
34) Input: where 47 59 12 are they going 39
Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
e) None of these
38) There has been a spate of rail accidents in India in the recent months killing large numbers of passengers
and injuring many more. This has raised serious doubts about the railways capability of providing safety to
travelers.
Which of the following statements substantiates the views expressed in the above statement?
a) Indian Railways has come to be known to provide best passenger comfort in the recent years
b) People have no option other than travelling by rail over long distances
c) The railway tracks at many places have been found to be stressed due to waer nd tear in the recent times
d) Local residents are always the first to provide a helping hand to the passengers in the event of such
disasters
e) None of these
39) There has been a considerable drop in sales of four wheelers during the past six months when compared
to the number of four wheelers sold during this period last year.
Which of the following can the probable cause of the above phenomenon?
(a) The govt. has imposed higher excise duty on four wheelers at the beginning of this year
(b) The petrol prices have risen considerably during the past eight months
(c) The rate of interest on home and car loans have been rising for the past seven months
a) All a), b) and c) b) a) and c) Only c) b) and c) Only
d) b) Only e) a) only
40) A very large number of technically qualified young Indians are coming out of colleges every year though
there are not enough opportunities for them to get gainful employment. Which of the following contradicts the
views expressed in the above statement?
a) Technically qualified persons are far superior to those with standard degrees like BA / B. Sc / B. Com etc.
b) The Govt. has not done effective perspective planning for engaging technically qualified personnel while
authorizing the setting up of technical colleges
c) A huge gap exists between the level of competence of technically qualified graduates and requirement of the
industry
d) Majority of the technically qualified persons are migrating from India to developed countries for better
opportunities
e) None of these
(Directions.41-45) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight trains bound for eight different cities are stationed on eight different platforms numbered one to eight.
Train to Delhi leaves from Platform no. 6. Two trains are stationed between the trains bound for Kolkata and
the train for Delhi. The train leaving for Jammu is not stationed immediately next to either Kolkata or Delhi
bound trains. Trains bound for Mumbai and Patna are stationed on adjacent platforms. The trains bound for
neither Patna nor Mumbai is stationed on Platform NO. 4. Only one train is stationed between the train bound
for Patna and the train bound for Varanasi. The train bound for Amritsar is not stationed immediately next to
the Varanasi bound train. The train for Dehradun is not stationed on an odd numbered platform and is parked
towards the left of Amritsar bound train (not necessarily to the immediate left).
41) What is the position of the Dehradun bound train with respect to the Patna bound train?
a) Immediate left b) Fifth to the left c) Third to the right
d) Immediate right e) Third to the left
42) Train bound to which of the following cities leaves from Platform No. 5?
a) Jammu b) Varanasi c) Amritsar
d) Patna e) Cannot be determined
43) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
49) Statement: In a No Tobacco day function, it was observed that the number of smokers is increasing
rapidly.
Course of action:
The Government should highlight through media the harms caused due to tobacco.
The Government should ban smoking.
a) if only course of action I follows.
b) if only course of action II follows.
c) if either course of action I or II follows.
d) if both course of action I and II follows.
e) if neither course of action I nor II follow.
50) Statement: Primary teachers are on indefinite strike.
Course of action:
Alternative arrangement should be made, for teachers on adhoc basis
The Government should meet the demands of the teachers.
a) if only course of action I follows.
b) if only course of action II follows.
c) if either course of action I or II follows.
d) if both course of action I and II follows.
e) if neither course of action I nor II follow.
APTITUDE
(Directions .51-55) Study the graph and answer the questions given below:
The graph, below shows sales of different colours of Brand X refrigerator for the years 2009, 2010 and 2011
51) Over the given three years which has been the highest selling colour; and what percentage of volume did it
account for?
a) Blue, 21% b) White, 25% c) White, 26%
d) Lemon, 28% e) None of these
52) Sale of which colour(s) of refrigerator registered the highest percentage increase between 2010 and 2011?
a) Blue b) Lemon c) Red and Blue
d) Grey e) None of these
53) What is the share of sales volume accounted for by the year 2011?
a) 43.26% b) 46.14% c) 44.16%
d) 41.65% e) None of these
54) What is approximately the ratio of sales of Red, Lemon and White refrigerators, taken together, in 2010 to
that of the combined total sales of Blue and Grey ones in 2009 and 2011 taken together?
a) 9: 10 b) 10: 9 c) 11: 12
d) 1: 12 e) None of these
55) How many instances are there in the graph when the difference in sale of refrigerators was greater or
lesser, by 35% or more as compared to the previous year?
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7 e) None of these
(Directions. 56-60) Study the information below to answer these questions.
A certain movie commenced its run in two theatres Metro and Batra simultaneously, and had a run of 30
weeks in the former theatre and 20 weeks in the latter. At Metro it earned an average of Rs. 1.52 lakh per show
for the first seven weeks with four shows in a day. In the next ten weeks it earned Rs. 1.32 lakh per show. In the
subsequent five weeks the earning was Rs. 1.18 lakh per show. For the remaining weeks the number of shows
dropped to two per day and the earning was Rs. 0.98 per show. Batra had 2 shows per day throughout the
movies run but its daily earning was 1/3rd of Metros.
56) How much did the movie earn in all, in the first four days of the seventh week of its run?
a) Rs. 24 lakh b) Rs. 26 lakh c) Rs. 32.43 lakh
d) Rs. 20 lakh e) None of these
57) By how much percent (approximately) did the earning per week of the movie drop from the 17th week to the
25th week?
a) 80% b) 72% c) 89% d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
58) How many seats were there in Metro and Batra respectively, if their ticket prices are in the ratio 7: 6 and
Batra charges Rs. 150 per picket? (Assume 100% occupancy in the first week)
a) 786 and 546 b) 868 and 675 c) 877 and 655 d) 868 and 747 e) None of these
59) If each theatre pays 35 percent tax on the revenue, the post tax earnings of Metro in the first 10 weeks
was
a) Rs. 1.43 crore b) Rs. 2.65 crore c) Rs. 4.08 crore
d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
60) What is the total post-tax earnings of Metro during the films entire run?
a) Rs. 612.61 lakh b) Rs. 942.48 lakh c) Rs. 204.2 lakh
d) Rs. 829.92 lakh e) None of these
(Directions.61-65): The following graph shows percentage distribution of key business segments of three
FMCG companies. The companies cater to a number of consumer product segments like health supplements,
oral care, digestives, hair care, skin care, home care and foods.
61) If for company A, sales from health care amounts to Rs. 150 million, then what is the sales amount from
personal care for company A?
a) Rs. 270 billion b) Rs. 270 million c) Rs. 360 million
d) Rs. 135 million e) None of these
62) If the sales of company B is Rs. 165 crore and that of company C is Rs. 190 crore and profit on sale of
home care products is 6% for both the companies, then what is the ratio of profit from home care products of
home care products is 6% for both the companies, then what is the ratio of profit from home care products of
company B to that of company C?
a) 1.30 b) 0.62 c) 0.89 d) 0.77 e) None of these
63) If the total sales of companies A, B and C are Rs. 100 crore, Rs. 75 crore and Rs. 65 crore respectively, what
is the average amount of sales from food products of these companies?
a) Rs. 14.30 crore b) Rs. 16.35 crore c) Rs. 15.00 crore
d) Rs. 18.00 crore e) None of these
64) In company C, sales from food products is what percent more than sales from home care products?
a) 20% b) 9% c) 10% d) 8% e) None of these
65) Health care vertical includes health supplements, oral acre and digestives. If forcompany A, oral care sales
amount to Rs. 10 crore which is 20% of health care sales, then what is the total sale o company A?
a) Rs. 50 crore b) Rs. 170.28 crore c) Rs. 168.32 crore
d) Rs. 116.28 crore e) None of these
(Directions 66-70) Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:
66) What was the difference between the total monthly income of Arun in all the years together and Sumans
monthly income in the year 2007?
a) Rs. 1.25 lakhs b) Rs. 1.15 lakhs c) Rs. 11.4 lakhs
d) Rs. 12.4 lakhs e) None of these
67) What was the percentage increase in the monthly income of Jyoti in the year 2008 as compared to
previous year?
a) 50 b) 150 c) 160 d) 60 e) None of these
68) Monthly income of Suman in the year 2009 was approximately what percentage of the monthly income of
Jyoti in the year 2010?
a) 72 b) 89 c) 83 d) 67 e) 95
69) In which year was the difference between Jyotis monthly income and Aruns monthly income second
highest?
a) 2005 b) 2006 c) 2007 d) 2009 e) 2010
70) What is the respective ratio between Aruns monthly income in the year 2006, Sumans monthly income in
the year 2007 and Jyotis monthly income in the year 2005?
a) 6: 3: 5 b) 6: 4: 5 c) 5: 6: 4 d) 5: 4: 7 e) None of these
Directions (71-75) Study the following pie charts carefully to answer the questions that follow:71) What is the respective ratio of total number of children from village O to the number of children attending
school from the same village?
a) 204: 145 b) 179: 131 c) 167: 111 d) 266: 137 e) None of these
72) The number of children attending school from village L is approximately what percent of the total number
of children from that village?
a) 78 b) 72 c) 57 d) 84 e) 66
73) What is the number of children attending school from village N?
a) 145 b) 159 c) 170 d) 164 e) None of these
74) What is the total number of children from villages P and M together?
a) 1422 b) 1242 c) 1122 d) 1211 e) None of these
75) What is the respective ratio of total number of children from village L and N together to the number of
children attending school from the village M, O and P together?
a) 987: 1001 b) 510: 1073 c) 1073: 510 d) 1001: 987 e) None of these
Directions(76-80) Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
76) What was the percent increase in the number students appeared from institute D in the year 2007 as
compared to previous year?
a) 78 b) 74 c) 64 d) 174 e) 60
a) 78 b) 74 c) 64 d) 174 e) 60
77) In which year was the difference between the number of students appeared and qualified the entrance test
second lowest from institute C?
a) 2005 b) 2006 c) 2007 d) 2008 e) 2009
78) What was the difference between the number of students appeared in entrance exam from institute B in
the year 2007 and the number of students qualified the entrance test from institute D in the year 2008?
a) 113 b) 104 c) 107 d) 111 e) None of these
79) What was the average number of students appeared in the year 2006 from all the four institutes together?
a) 701 b) 712 c) 709 d) 722 e) None of these
80) What is the respective ratio of total number of students appeared in entrance exam from institute A and
C in 2006 and 2009 together to the total number of students qualified the entrance exam from institute B and
D in 2007 and 2008 together?
a) 811: 1962 b) 1962: 811 c) 885: 1957 d) 1957: 885 e) None of these
81) The sum of three consecutive odd numbers and three consecutive even numbers together is 231. Also, the
smallest odd number is 11 less than the smallest even number. What is the sum of the largest odd number and
the largest even number?
a) 82 b) 83 c) 74 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
82) Two thirds of the first number is equal to the cube of the second number. If the second number is equal
to twelve percent of 50, what is the sum of the first and the second numbers?
a) 330 b) 360 c) 390 d) 372 e) None of these
83) Rajini purchased a mobile phone and a refrigerator for Rs. 12,000 and Rs. 10,000 respectively. She sold the
refrigerator at a loss of 12 percent and the mobile phone at a profit of 8 percent. What is her overall loss/profit?
a) Loss of Rs. 280 b) Profit of Rs. 2,160 c) Loss of Rs. 240
d) Profit of Rs. 2,060 e) None of these
84) The average age of seven boys sitting in a row facing North is 26 years. If the average age of the first three
boys is 19 years and the average age of the last three boys is 32 years. What is the age of the boy who is sitting
in middle of the row?
a) 28 years b) 29 years c) 24 years
d) 31 years e) None of these
85) The perimeter of a square is double the perimeter of a rectangle. The area of the rectangle is 240 s cm.
What is the area of the square?
a) 100 sq cm b) 36 sq cm c) 81 sq cm
d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
(Directions 86-90) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
86) 9, 19, 40, 83, ?, 345,696
a) 162 b) 170 c) 175 d) 166 e) None of these
87) 980, 484, 236, 112, 50, ?, 3.5
a) 25 b) 17 c) 21 d) 29 e) None of these
88) 8, 9, 20, 63, 256, 1285, ?
a) 6430 b) 7450 c) 7716 d) 7746 e) None of these
89) 1015, 508, 255, 129, 66.5, ?, 20.875
a) 34.50 b) 35 c) 35.30 d) 35.75 e) None of these
90) 12, 12, 18, 36, 90, 270, ?
a) 945 b) 810 c) 1080 d) 1215 e) None of these
Directions(91-93) In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both
the equations and Given answer:
a) x > y
b) x y
b) x y
c) x < y
d) x y
e) x = y or the relationship cannot be established
91) I. 5x2 18x + 9 = 0
II. 20y2 13y + 2 = 0
92) I. x3 878 = 453
II. y2 82 = 39
93) I. x2 + 11x + 30 = 0
II.y2 + 7y + 12 = 0
Directions(94-95) In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both
the equations and Given answer:
(a) If x< y
(b) if x y
(c) if x = y
(d) if x y
(e) if x > y
94) I. 4x2 8x +3 =0
II. 2y2 7y +6 =0
95) I. X2+ x -6 = 0
II. 2y2+13y +21=0
Directions.(96-100) Each of the question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question.
96) In how many days will five women complete a work?
I. Two women, five boys and three men together complete the work in six days
II. Eight women complete the same work in twelve days
a) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the questions.
b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d) If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
97) What will be Shyams age after 6 years?
I. The ratio between Rams and Shyams present age is 4: 3 respectively.
II. Ram is seven years older than Shyam
a) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the questions.
b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d) If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
c) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as developed countries
d) All economies are susceptible to recession because of the state of the US economy
e) None of these
109) Which of the following can be said the Chinese governments efforts to revive the economy?
a) These were largely unsuccessful as only the housing market improved
b) The governments only concern was to boost investor confidence in stocks
c) These efforts were ineffectual as the economy recovered owing to the US market stabilizing
d) These were appropriate and accomplished the goal of economic revival
e) They blindly imitated the economics reforms adopted by the US
110) According to the passage, which of the following factor(s) has/ have had a negative impact on the Asian
stock markets?
I. Abrupt drop in exports by Asian countries
II. Extravagant disbursement of housing loans in 2009.
III. Raising of interest rates by the Central Bank
a) None b) Only I & II c) Only I
d) Only I & III e) All I, II & III
111) Why has investor confidence in the Chinese stock market been restored?
Existing property prices which are stable and affordable
The government has decided to tighten credit.
III. Healthy growth of the economy indicated by GDP figures.
a) Only III b) Only I & II c) All I, II & III
d) Only II e) None of these
(Directions.112-114) Choose the word or group of words which is Most Similar in meaning to the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
112) Evaporated
a) Dehydrated b) Melted c) Vaporised d) Vanished e) Dodged
113) Fuel
a) Petrol b) Stimulate c) Sustain d) Heat e) Charge
114) Flooded
a) Surged b) Saturated c) Overflowed d) Deluge e) Overcome
(Directions. 115-116) Choose the group of words which is Most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold
as used in the passage.
115) Sharp
a) Blunt b) Incomplete c) Naive d) Indistinct e) Gradual
116) Buoyed
a) Heavy b) Stifled c) Numbered d) Dull e) Abated
(Directions.117-123) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it. The
error if any will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the letter of that part with error as your answer. If there is
No error, mark e)
117) Their failure to inspect (a) / our factories is a (b) / clear indications that our (c) / licence will not be
renewed (d) / No error (e)
118) The Boards decision has provided (a) / employees with the opportunity (b) / to acquire upto 100(c) /
shares by the company (d) / No error (e)
119) He had telephoned yesterday to (a) / ask how much of the youth (b) / Who attend our classes would be
(c) / interested in working for a textile company (d) / No error (e)
120) If the manufacturing sector continues (a) / to grow at the same rate for (b) / the next few months, I think it
(c) / has a high growth rate this year (d) / No error (e)
121) The success of the (a) / government sponsor job guarantee programme(b) / has resulted in a (c) / drastic
drop in poverty (d) / No error (e)
122) Who had extensively discussions (a) / with the participants and (b) / obtained their feedback (c) /
regarding our new services (d) / No error (e)
123) The government is working (a) / out a new system to compensate (b) / those companies to sell (c) /
products below the market price (d) / No error (e)
Directions.(124-128) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given.
These are marked as a), b), c) and d). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly
spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate
if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also
appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark e) i.e., All correct as your answer.
124) Though these programmes have proved a) / to be extremely b) / effective c) / they do have certain
drawbacks d) / all correct e)
125) In order to confront a) / the threat of global warning b) /it is imperative c) / that we work all together d) /
all correct e)
126) Any failure a) / to complicit b) / will there fundamentalregulation c) / will result in a fine d) / All correct e)
127) We plan to complete the exhaustive a) / performance b) / review c) / undertook by us d) / all correct e)
128) Home loan borrowers will be a) / definitely b) / affected c) / since banks have raised their lending d) /
rates of interest. All correct e)
Directions.(129-132) Rearrange the following six sentences I, II, III, IV, V and VI in the proper sequence to form
meaningful paragraph; then answer given below them.
I. As a result the nonstop tensions and anxieties at work often result in health related problems.
II. The truth is we cannot change the world of work.
III. We spend at least half our waking hours at work.
IV. We have therefore to take change and transform the way in which we respond to our work environment
V. So how can we control these problems and perform at work?
VI. However we can change the way we feel and deal with various situations.
129) Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
a) II b) III c) IV d) V e) VI
130) Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
a) II b) III c) IV d) V e) VI
131) Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
a) I b) II c) III d) IV e) V
132) Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
a) I b) II c) III d) IV e) V
Directions.(133-140) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These are
printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Technology ____133____ Lives. But ____134____ if people want it to. This qualification is important, and
___135____ to understanding progress. Akio Morita, the founder of Sony, used to make inventions not by
making minute, detailed studies of ____136____ People lived their lives. It is observable that when he
relinquished direct involvement in product development at the company in the 1980s, Sony seemed to lose its
____137____ of developing a truly radical invention like the Walkman that the word takes to en masse.
However much it seems that machines are in ____138____ they are not, yet the belief that the technology alone
holds the key to ____139____ the way people work, buy and do business is strong. The rise of dotcoms in the
late 1990s was ____140____ by a belief that technology was changing the rules of marketing and employee
relationships.
133)
a) Ruins
b) Changes
c) Makes
d) Explains
e) Shakes
134)
a) Not
b) Occasionally
c) Seldom
d) Only
e) Never
135)
a) Key
b) Primarily
c) Encouraging
d) Supported
e) Disastrous
136)
a) Why
b) Where
c) When
d) Whether
e) How
137)
a) Share
b) Profit
c) Knack
d) Business
e) Plant
138)
a) Progress
b) Control
c) Action
d) Operation
e) Transaction
139)
a)
Encroaching
b)
Accomplishing
c)
Determination
d)
Highlighting
e) Informing
140)
a) Govern
b) Successful
c) Underlying
d) Disputed
e)
Accompanied
Directions.(141-145) Rearrange the following six sentences I, II, III, IV, V and VI in the proper sequence to form a
meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
I. Two of the best-performing major economies in 2010 were China and Brazil, with growth estimated at 7.5%
and 10.5% respectively
II. Despite that limp growth, major US stock market indexes are up between 11% and 20 % for the year
III. Even knowing where economies are headed sometimes is of no help to an investor.
IV. It is hard to anticipate the direction of financial markets
V. But as of December, stock markets of both nations were in the red for the year.
VI. By contrast, the US economy is likely to have expanded at only about 2.6% for the year
b) III
c) IV
d) V
e) VI
b) II
c) III
d) V
e) VI
d) IV
e) VI
d) V
e) I
b) II
c) III
b) III
c) IV
b) II
c) III
d) IV
e) VI
(Directions.146-150) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it or a
wrong word has been used. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence which has been printed in bold
and has been numbered a), b), c) or d) . The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
e) i.e., No error. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
146) The convergence of (a) / Indian accounting standards with international Financial Report standards (IFRS)
beginning (b) / in April is expecting to (c) / see power companies struggling with (d) /significant first time
adopting impact. No error (e)
147) Researchers at (a) / the Indian Institute of science (IIS(c), Bangalore, are mapping (b) / Indias solar hot
spots-where round the year (c) / Sunlight makes viable of (d) / companies to set up solar power plants. No
error (e)
148) Though their qualifications span a diverse (a) / range, there is an equal (b) / number of graduates and
those who have just completed school, each set (c) / making up (d) / close to 30% of these households.. No
error (e)
149) As if (a) / the most dangerous moment for any dictatorship is when (b) / it starts to (c) / reform , North
Korea looks ready to turn that truism on its head (d) / No error (e)
150) It so happens (a) / that this happy compy ritual is their way of life (b) / and one into which (c) / they dont
particularly welcome (d) / voyeuristic intrusions. / No error (e)
151) Technology assessment is all assessing how much technology has been incorporated into an
organisation
organisation
a) Analysing the
overall growth of
the organisation
b) Trying to foresee
the effects of new
products and
processes on a
firms operatum and
on society 111
general
c) Assessing
how much
technology one
wants to put
into a company
in the future
d) Assessing the
cost of new
technology to
determine whether
a firm can afford to
use it
e) None of
these
152) Which of the following represents an output from the marketing environment?
a) Money
borrowed by
Liverpool F, C, to
help finance its
operations
b) Nikes television
advertising
campaign featuring
a leading sports
personality
c) Information
on shoppers
attiudes
purchased by
Debenharns
Department
Stores
d) Steel purchased
by Volvo to be used
in producing cars
e) None of
these
153) There are two major categories of laws that directly affect marketing practices:
precompetitive legislation and _______
a) Consumer
protection
legislation
b) Unfair trade
practices laws
c) Trading
standards
legislation
d) Consumer price
dis crimination
legislation
e) None of
these
154) If the National Association of Hoisery Manufactures sets guidelines for its member firms to
follow regarding the use of unethical practices, it is engaging in
a) Legislation
b) Lobbying
c) Self
regulation
d) Environmental
scanning
e) None of
these
c) A social
movement that
is able to
challenge big
business
practices
d) A diverse group
of individuals,
groups and
organisations
attempting to
protect the rights
of consumers
e) None of
these
b) A movement that
is trying to improve
consumer
satisfaction
156) Lynx has demonstrated against the sale of coats made of animal furs. This groups efforts to
change shoppers attitudes represents for fur retailers _______
a) An opportunity
b) Self regulation
c) A social
force
d) An economic
force
e) None of
these
157) The period in the business cycle in which there is extremely high unemployment, low wages,
minimum total disposable income, and a lack of confidence in the economy by consumers is _____
a) Recovery
b) Prosperity
c) Depression
d) Recession
e) None of
these
c) Buying more
products
d) Buying more
companies
e) None of
these
c) Places
where products
are made
available to the
buyers
d) All of these
e) None of
these
160) One of the following is a target group for the marketing of Internet Banking
a) All the
customers
c) All the
computer
educated
customers
d) Only creditors
e) All of
these
161) One of the following is a target group for the marketing of educational loan
a) All the
customers
b) Students
c) Only poor
students
d) Students having
promising
educational track
record
e) All of
these
b) Seller
c) Director of
the company
d) Employees of
the company
e) All of
the above
are wrong
163) If done through ______ the rural marketing would be more effective
a) Fairs
b) Village fairs
c) Door to door
campaign
d) All of these
e) None of
these
164) Indian-origin Antara Haldar became the first non-European law lecturer at______
a) University of
York
b) University of
Glasgow
c) Cambridge
University
d) University of
Sheffield
e) None of
these
165) Parliament of which country approved a new anti-terror bill aimed anti-terror bill aimed at
preventing jihadists from travelling? This will prevent jihadists from travelling to Iraq, Syria or
elsewhere by confiscating their passports.
a) France
b) Japan
c) Egypt
d) Netherland
e) None of
these
d) Amazon
e) None of
these
b) Snapdeal
c) Ebay
167) Software Gaint Microsoft Corp acquired a video game company Majang for 2.5 billion US
dollors. Majang belongs to which country?
a) Syria
b) Sweden
c) China
d) South Korea
e) None of
these
168) Actor and Environmental activist______ was designated as the United Nations Messenger of
Peace by UN Chief Ban Ki-moon.
a) Bhumibol
adulyade
b) Voreqe
Bainimarama
c) Angelina
Jolie
d) Leonardo
DiCaprio
e) None of
these
b) Naseeruddin Shah
c) Anupam
Kher
d) Pankaj Kapoor
e) Javed
Akhtar
170) _______ will be hosting International Film Festivel of India every year.
a) Kerala
b) Maharastra
c) Karnataka
d) Goa
e) New
Delhi
b) North Korea
c) China
d) Singapore
e)
Malaysia
172) First Indian State to ratify the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Bill 2014 is
______
a) Rajasthan
b) Maharashtra
c) Assam
d) Madhya Pradesh
e)
Telangana
173) Vintage Daskota aircraft was gifted to ____ by Indian Air force.Dakota aircraft was with the
Indian Airforce its museum.
a) Bhutan Air
Force
b) Myanmar Air
Force
c) Japan Air
Force
d) Bangaladesh Air
Force
e) None of
these
d) Shining Future
of Asia
e) None of
these
b) Lightening Asia
c) Asia Shining
175) Noted Mandolin player Uppalapu Srinivas passed away in Chennai.He was just____years old.
a) 40
b) 45
c) 55
d) 35
e) 44
176) CM of Assam Tarun Gagoi launched a fund, which is focused on first generation
entrrpreneurs. What is the name of this fund?
a) Star Funds
b) Future Funds
c) Angel Funds
d) Shine Funds
e) Help
Funds
Funds
177) Who Cinched first gold medal in Asian games 2014 for India?
a) Shweta
Chaudhry
b) Jitu Rai
c) Parupalli
Kashyap
d) Vikas Gowda
e) Babita
Kumari
c) certificate of
deposit (CD)
d) checking
account deposit
e) None of
these
c) liquidity and
yield are
inversely
related
e) None of
these
d) money market
mutual fund shares
e) None of
these
b) savings account
deposit
b) corporate stock
c) long-term
Treasury bond
181) According to the risk structure of interest rates, play a role in explaining interest rates:
a) default risk
b) liquidity
c) income tax
considerations
e) None of
these
182) In drawing a yield curve, which of the following is not held constant?
a) default risk
b) tax treatment
c) length of
time to
maturity
d) marketability
e) None of
these
c) short-term
interest rates
equal long-term
rates
d) inflation rates
are high
e) None of
these
b) long-term interest
rates are above
short-term rates
184) Which of the following nation is considered the originator of the concept of Micro Finance?
a) India
b) Bangladesh
c) South Africa
d) USA
e) None
185) What is the full form of ULIP, the term which was in the news recently?
a) Universal Life
& Investment
Plan
c) Universal
Loan &
Investment
Plan
d) Uniformly
Loaded Investment
Plan
e) Unit
Linked
Insurance
Plan
c) Help to solve
balance of
payment
problems of
member
countries
d) Arrange
international
deposits from
banks
e) None
b) Act as a private
sector lending arm
of the World Bank
187) RBI has asked banks to make a plan to provide banking services to all villages having a
population upto 2000. This directive issued bythe RBI will fall in which of the following categories?
a) Plan for
Financial
Inclusion
b) Efforts to meet
the targets of Priority
Sector Lending
c) Extension of
Relief
Packages to
e) None
the Farmers
188) Which of the following is not a part of the scheduled banking structure in India?
a) Money
Landers
b) Public Sector
Banks
c) Private
Sector Banks
d) Regional Rural
Banks
e) State
Cooperative
Banks
b) RBI
c) Indian Banks
Association
d) Government of
India
e) Banking
codes and
concerned bank
Association
India
codes and
Standards
Board of
India
190) All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks except ____
a) Hackers
b) Spam
c) Viruses
d) Identify theft
e) None of
these
191) A digital computer did not score over an analog computer in terms of
a) Speed
b) Accuracy
c) Reliability
d) Cost
e) None of
these
c) Employs
semi conductor
memory
d) Has modular
constructions
e) None of
these
b) Uses VLSI
193) The first microprocessor built by the Intel Corporation was called
a) 8008
b) 8080
c) 4004
d) 8800
e) None of
these
c) Micro
computer
d) All of these
e) None of
these
c) Joseph
Jacquard
d) None of
these
e) None of
these
d) Biochemistry
e) None of
these
b) A laptop computer
b) Herman H
Goldstein
b) Graphics
c) Voice
b) Control and
communications
c) Molecular
biology
198) The first electronic general purpose digital computer built by Motley and Accrete called ENIAC
did not work on the stored program concept. How many numbers could it store in its internal
memory?
a) 100
b) 20
c) 40
d) 80
e) None of
these
c) ENIAC
d) All of above
e) None of
these
c) Calculators
e) None of
these
b) EDVAC
b) Digital systems
Answer Key:
1.(e)
2.(a)
3.(d)
4.(e)
5.(b)
6.(c)
7.(d)
8.(a)
9.(a)
10.(b)
11.(a)
12.(d)
13.(e)
14.(a)
15.(c)
16.(d)
17.(e)
18.(a)
19.(a)
20.(a)
21.(d)
22.(c)
23.(a)
24.(c)
25.(b)
26.(c)
27.(c)
28.(c)
29.(e)
30.(a)
31.(b)
32.(d)
33.(b)
34.(b)
35.(c)
36.(a)
37.(c)
38.(e)
39.(a)
40.(d)
41.(b)
42.(b)
43.(d)
44.(e)
45.(d)
46.(d)
47.(d)
48.(b)
49.(a)
50.(a)
51.(b)
52.(c)
53.(d)
54.(a)
55.(d)
56.(c)
57.(b)
58.(b)
59.(b)
60.(a)
61.(b)
62.(a)
63.(b)
64.(c)
65.(e)
66.(b)
67.(a)
68.(c)
69.(e)
70.(e)
71.(a)
72.(e)
73.(e)
74.(c)
75.(b)
76.(c)
77.(d)
78.(e)
79.(a)
80.(b)
81.(e)
82.(a)
83.(c)
84.(b)
85.(d)
86.(b)
87.(e)
88.(c)
89.(d)
90.(a)
91.(a)
92.(b)
93.(e)
94.(a)
95.(c)
96.(b)
97.(e)
98.(d)
99.(e)
100.(a)
101.(b)
102.(d)
103.(c)
104.(a)
105.(a)
106.(c)
107.(b)
108.(d)
109.(d)
110.(c)
111.(a)
112.(d)
113.(b)
114.(a)
115.(e)
116.(c)
117.(c)
118.(d)
119.(b)
120.(d)
121.(b)
122.(a)
123.(c)
124.(e)
125.(d)
126.(b)
127.(d)
128.(e)
129.(c)
130.(e)
131.(a)
132.(c)
133.(b)
134.(d)
135.(a)
136.(e)
137.(c)
138.(a)
139.(c)
140.(e)
141.(b)
142.(d)
143.(e)
144.(c)
145.(b)
146.(a)
147.(d)
148.(d)
149.(d)
150.(c)
151.(b)
152.(b)
153.(a)
154.(c)
155.(d)
156.(c)
157.(c)
158.(e)
159.(c)
160.(c)
161.(b)
162.(a)
163.(b)
164.(c)
165.(a)
166.(b)
167.(b)
168.(d)
169.(b)
170.(d)
171.(c)
172.(a)
173.(d)
174.(a)
175.(b)
176.(c)
177.(b)
178.(a)
179.(a)
180.(b)
181.(d)
182.(c)
183.(a)
184.(b)
185.(e)
186.(c)
187.(a)
188.(a)
189.(b)
190.(b)
191.(b)
192.(c)
193.(a)
194.(a)
195.(a)
196.(d)
197.(b)
198.(b)
199.(c)
200.(d)
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