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SBI PO PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS


Grand Test 3
REASONING
(Directions.1-5) Each of the questions below each of a question and two statements numbered I and II given
below it you have to decide whether the data provided pie statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read the statements and
Give answer
1) In which direction is Ravi facing

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I. Ashok is to the right of Ravi


II. Samir is sitting opposite of Ashok facing north
a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while, the data in statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data either in the statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
2) How M is related to K?
I. The sister of K is the mother of N who is daughter of M
II. P is the sister of M
a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while, the data in statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data either in the statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
3) Is D brother of T?

SBI PO
SBI PO ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA
SBI PO SELECTION PROCEDURE
SBI PO SYLLABUS & BLUE PRINT
SBI PO PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS

3) Is D brother of T?
I. T is the sister of M and K
II. K is the brother of D
a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while, the data in statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data either in the statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
4) How many sons does P have?
I. S and T are brothers of M
II. The mother of T is P who has only one daughter
a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while, the data in statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data either in the statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
5) Who is the tallest among P, Q, R, S and T?
I. R is taller than Q and T
II. T is taller than S and P and S is taller than Q and R
a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while, the data in statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data either in the statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(Directions.6-10) In each question below are four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III
and IV. You have to take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to be t variance with commonly
known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the four given statements
disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers a), b), c), d) and e) is the correct
answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.
6) Statements:
All stones are pearls.
Some pearls are shells.
Some shells are boxes.
No box is container.
Conclusions:
I. Some stones are shells
II. No pearl is container
III. No shell is container
IV. Some pearls are containers
a) Only II follows
b) Only II and III follow
c) Only either II or IV follows

c) Only either II or IV follows


d) Only III follows
e) None follows
7) Statements:
Some schools are colleges.
Some colleges are hostels.
No hostel is office.
All offices are institutes.
Conclusions:
I. No hostel is institute
II. Some hostels are schools
III. Some hostels are institutes
IV. Some offices are colleges
a) Only I follows
b) Only II & III follow
c) Only IV follows
d) Only either I or III follows
e) None of these
8) Statements:
Some pins are needles.
Some threads are needles.
All needles are nails.
All nails are hammers
Conclusions:
I. Some pins are hammers
II. Some threads are nails.
III. Some pins are threads
IV. No pin is thread
a) Only I, II and either III or IV follow
b) Only III and IV follow
c) Only I and II follow
d) All follow
e) None of these
9) Statements:
Some chairs are rooms.
No room is sofa.
All sofas are tables.
Some tables are desks.
Conclusions:
I. Some sofas are desks
II. No room is table
III. Some chairs are tables
IV. No desk is room

IV. No desk is room


a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only either II or III follows
d) Only III and IV follow
e) All follow
10) Statements:
Some rings are chains.
All chains are bangles.
All bracelets are bangles.
Some bangles are pendants.
Conclusions:
I. Some rings are bangles
II. Some chains are pendants
III. Some bracelets are rings
IV. No pendant is ring
a) None follows
b) Only I follows
c) Only II and III follow
d) Only IV follows
e) None of these
(Directions.11-15) Read the following information carefully and then answer the questions given below it.
Following are the conditions for selecting coordinator for a training programmer on Industrial Relations. The
candidate must:
Be a post graduate in Psychology or in Personnel Management
Have worked as Personnel Manager in an organisation for at least 10 years or been teaching in a university an
instituted for at least 6 years
Have worked as guest speaker in similar Programme
Not be less than 40 years as on 1 April, 2009
The case of candidate who satisfies all the conditions except:
I. At B above but has obtained Ph.D in one of the fields A and has at least 5 years work experience or 3 years
experience should be referred to Deputy Director
II. At C above but has more than 7 years teaching experience should be referred to Director.
III. At D above but has working experience of at least 5 years in an American company may be selected.

Based on the above conditions and the information provided in each of the questions below, decide the course
of action in each case. You are not to assume anything. If the data provided is not adequate to decide the given
course of action your answer will be data inadequate. These cases are given to you as on 1 April, 2009.

11) Alok Desai is a post- graduate in Psychology and has been teaching in an Institute for last 5
years and has coordinated such Programme in the past. He was 39 years old as on 10 March,
2008.
a) Dont select

b) Refer to Director

c) Data
inadequate

d) Select

e) None of
these

12) Samir Malkani is a Postgraduate in Personnel Management and was born on 15 Jan., 1965. He
has been working in a company for the last 12 years as Personnel Manager
a) Refer to Director

b) Refer to Deputy
Director

c) Select

d) Dont select

e) None of
these

Director

these

13) Usha Sodani is Ph.D in Personnel Management and has been teaching in an Institute for last 10
years. She has worked as a guest speaker in a similar Programme and was born on 26 Aug, 1966.
a) Refer to Director

b) Refer to Deputy
Director

c) Do not
select

d) Data
inadequate

e) None of
these

14) Sudha Malhotra is a post graduate in Psychology and has been teaching for last 15 years. She
has not worked as guest speaker in similar programmes in the past.
a) Data inadequate

b) Select

c) Refer to
Director

d) Dont select

e) None of
these

15) Mrinal Kelkar is a Post graduate in Business Management and has been working a Personnel
Manager for the last 12 years. He has worked as guest speaker in similar Programme in the past.
He will be 43 years old as on 5 May, 2011
a) Refer to Deputy
Director

b) Refer to Director

c) Dont select

d) Select

e) None of
these

(Directions.16-20) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from
the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage
and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
In India the asbestos industry is growing and employs more than 15,000 people in 75 units which are
spread over several states like Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh etc. Surprisingly,
advanced countries are banning cancer causing asbestos products, multinational companies are from those
countries which are setting up units in developing countries like India. One reason beinglack of awareness in
the society and indifference of the government machinery of these countries. Prolonged exposure to asbestos
dust and fibres can cause lung cancer but most workers in India are too afraid to protest for fear of losing jobs.
Some of these factories are operating in Mumbai. Quite a few of the factories in India are not known to take
adequate precautions to protect workers from asbestos dust.
The Government is taking several steps to provide medical inspection of workers. In fact it has amended
factories act to extend the provision to even those factories employing less than 10 workers.
16) The asbestos industry is one of the largest industries in India
a) If the inference is definitely true, e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given
b) If the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given
c) If the data are inadequate e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true
or false.
d) If the inference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts given
e) If the inference is definitely false, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the
given facts.
17) The asbestos industries in India are located in few metropolitan pockets only
a) If the inference is definitely true, e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given
b) If the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given
c) If the data are inadequate e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true
or false.
d) If the inference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts given
e) If the inference is definitely false, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the
given facts.
18) The advanced countries are concerned and careful to protect health hazards of its people
a) If the inference is definitely true, e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given
b) If the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given
c) If the data are inadequate e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true
or false.
d) If the inference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts given
e) If the inference is definitely false, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the
given facts.
19) The demand for asbestos products appears to be growing in India.

a) If the inference is definitely true, e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given
b) If the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given
c) If the data are inadequate e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true
or false.
d) If the inference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts given
e) If the inference is definitely false, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the
given facts.
20) The Governments of developing countries appear to be not taking appropriate measures while granting
permission to set up production units of multinational companies in their countries.
a) If the inference is definitely true, e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given
b) If the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given
c) If the data are inadequate e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true
or false.
d) If the inference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts given
e) If the inference is definitely false, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the
given facts.
(Directions.21-25) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
(i) B sits second to left of Hs husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.
(ii) Ds daughter sits second to right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of Hs husband.
(iii) Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. Hs brother D sits to the immediate left of Hs
mother. Only one person sits between Hs mother and E.
(iv) Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

21) What is position of A with respect to his mother-in-law?


a) Immediate
left

b) Third to the
right

c) Third to the
left

d) Second to the
right

e) Fourth to the
left

d) G

e) H

22) Who amongst the following is Ds daughter?


a) B

b) C

c) E

23) What is the position of A with respect to his grandchild?


a) Immediate
right

b) Third to the
right

c) Third to the
left

d) Second to the
left

e) Fourth to the
left

d) Four

e) More than
four

24) How many people sit between G and her uncle?


a) One

b) Two

c) Three

25) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form
a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) F

b) C

c) E

d) H

e) G

26) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:
Small brands are now looking beyond local grocery stores and are tying up with Supermarkets such as Big
Bazaar to pull their business out of troubled waters.
Question: Which of the following can be inferred from the given information? An inference is something that is
not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information
a) Merchandise of smaller brands would not be available at local grocery stores in the near future
b) Smaller brands cannot compete with bigger ones in a supermarket set-up
c) There is a perception among small brands that sale in a supermarket is higher than that of small grocery
stores
d) Supermarkets generate more revenue by selling products of bigger brands as compared to the smaller ones

e) Smaller brand have always had more tie-ups with supermarkets as compared to small grocery stores.
(Directions.27-30) These questions are based on the information given below and the sentences labeled (a),
(b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) as given below.
Small brands are now looking beyond local grocery stores and are tying up with Supermarkets such as Big
Bazaar to pull their business out of troubled waters.
(a) A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand, makes
much more profit from the local grocery stores than from the supermarkets.
(b) As the supermarkets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, this step would fail to deliver results
in the smaller cities.
(c) Supermarkets help the smaller brands to break into newer markets withoutinvesting substantially in
distribution.
(d) Supermarkets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands.
(e) Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local grocery stores is much
lower as compared to the supermarkets.
(f) Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses.

27) Which of the statements numbered a), b), c), d), e) and f) can be assumed from the facts /
information given in the statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)
a) Only a)

b) Only b)

c) Both b) and c)

d) Both d) and e)

e) Only f)

28) Which of the statements numbered a), b), c), e) and f) represents a disadvantage of the small
grocery stores over the supermarkets from the perspective of a smaller brand?
a) Only a)

b) Only c)

c) Only e)

d) Only f)

e) Both b) and c)

29) Which of the statements a), b), c), d) and e) mentioned above represents a reason for the shift
from local grocery stores to supermarkets by the smaller brands?
a) Only a)

b) Only b)

c) Only d)

d) Both a) and d)

e) Both c) and e)

30) Which of the statements numbered a), b), c), e) and f) mentioned above would prove that the
step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to supermarkets) may not necessarily be correct?
a) Only a)

b) Only c)

c) Only e)

d) Only f)

e) Both b) and e)

(Directions.31-35) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the
numbers given in the arrangement are two digit numbers)
And Step VII is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input as the desired arrangement is obtained.As
per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for
the given input.
31) Input: 86 open shut door 31 49 always 45
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
a) Five b) Six c) Seven d) Four e) None of these
32) Step III of an input: 25 yes 37 enemy joy defeat 52 46 which of the following is definitely the input?
a) Enemy 25 joy defeat yes 52 37 46
b) 37 enemy 25 joy yes defeat 52 46
c) Enemy joy defeat 25 52 yes 46 37
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
33) Step II of an Input: 18 win 71 34 now if victory 61 How many more steps will be required to compete the
rearrangement?
a) Three b) Four c) Five d) Six e) More than six
34) Input: where 47 59 12 are they going 39
Which of the following steps will be the last but one?

a) VII b) IV c) V d) VIII e) None of these


35) Step II of an input: 33 store 81 75 full of goods 52
Which of the following will be step VI?
a) 33 store 52 of 75 81 full goods
b) 33 store 52 of 75 full 81 goods
c) 33 store 52 of 75 goods 81 full
d) There will be no such step
e) None of these
36)It has been reported in recent years that a very large number of seats in the engineering colleges in the
country remain vacant at the end of the admission session. Which of the following may be the probable cause
of the above effect?
a) There has been a considerable decrease in hiring of engineering graduates due to economic slowdown in
the recent years
b) Students have always preferred to complete graduation in three years time instead of four years for
engineering
c) The Govt. has recently decided to provide post qualification professional training to all engineering
graduates at its own cost
d) There has always been a very poor success rate among the engineering students
e) None of these
37)Majority of the students who appeared in the final examination of post graduate course in management in
the local college have secured first class which is comparatively higher than the performance of students of
other management colleges in the state. Which of the following may indicate that the results are not in line with
the general trend?
a) The students of the local college are qualitatively better than those of other colleges
b) The authorities of the other management colleges in the state are stricter in their standard of elevation for
their students
c) The students of other management colleges in the state performed better than the students of the local
college in all the previous examinations
d) The local management college recently retrenched many of its regular faculty members

e) None of these
38) There has been a spate of rail accidents in India in the recent months killing large numbers of passengers
and injuring many more. This has raised serious doubts about the railways capability of providing safety to
travelers.
Which of the following statements substantiates the views expressed in the above statement?
a) Indian Railways has come to be known to provide best passenger comfort in the recent years
b) People have no option other than travelling by rail over long distances
c) The railway tracks at many places have been found to be stressed due to waer nd tear in the recent times
d) Local residents are always the first to provide a helping hand to the passengers in the event of such
disasters
e) None of these
39) There has been a considerable drop in sales of four wheelers during the past six months when compared
to the number of four wheelers sold during this period last year.
Which of the following can the probable cause of the above phenomenon?
(a) The govt. has imposed higher excise duty on four wheelers at the beginning of this year
(b) The petrol prices have risen considerably during the past eight months
(c) The rate of interest on home and car loans have been rising for the past seven months
a) All a), b) and c) b) a) and c) Only c) b) and c) Only
d) b) Only e) a) only

40) A very large number of technically qualified young Indians are coming out of colleges every year though
there are not enough opportunities for them to get gainful employment. Which of the following contradicts the
views expressed in the above statement?
a) Technically qualified persons are far superior to those with standard degrees like BA / B. Sc / B. Com etc.
b) The Govt. has not done effective perspective planning for engaging technically qualified personnel while
authorizing the setting up of technical colleges
c) A huge gap exists between the level of competence of technically qualified graduates and requirement of the
industry
d) Majority of the technically qualified persons are migrating from India to developed countries for better
opportunities
e) None of these
(Directions.41-45) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight trains bound for eight different cities are stationed on eight different platforms numbered one to eight.
Train to Delhi leaves from Platform no. 6. Two trains are stationed between the trains bound for Kolkata and
the train for Delhi. The train leaving for Jammu is not stationed immediately next to either Kolkata or Delhi
bound trains. Trains bound for Mumbai and Patna are stationed on adjacent platforms. The trains bound for
neither Patna nor Mumbai is stationed on Platform NO. 4. Only one train is stationed between the train bound
for Patna and the train bound for Varanasi. The train bound for Amritsar is not stationed immediately next to
the Varanasi bound train. The train for Dehradun is not stationed on an odd numbered platform and is parked
towards the left of Amritsar bound train (not necessarily to the immediate left).
41) What is the position of the Dehradun bound train with respect to the Patna bound train?
a) Immediate left b) Fifth to the left c) Third to the right
d) Immediate right e) Third to the left
42) Train bound to which of the following cities leaves from Platform No. 5?
a) Jammu b) Varanasi c) Amritsar
d) Patna e) Cannot be determined
43) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

a) Varanasi b) Patna c) Jammu


d) Mumbai e) Kolkata
44) Train to Mumbai leaves from which of the following platform numbers?
a) 1 b) 5 c) 7 d) 2 e) 8
45) Which of the following is true with respect to the given arrangement?
a) Train to Jammu leaves from Platform no. 4
b) Train to Patna leaves from an even numbered platform
c) There is only one platform between the platforms from which trains bound for Delhi and Patna leave
d) Train leaving to Mumbai is stationed second to the right of Delhi bound train
e) Trains to Amritsar and Jammu leave from adjacent platforms
(Directions.46-50) In each of the following questions , a statement is given followed by two course of action. A
course of action is taken for improvement follow up etc, read the statements carefully and then given your
suitable answer from the given options.
46) Statement: Jaundice and typhoid are on the rise in ABC city.
Course of action:
The Government must increase medical facilities as soon as possible.
The Government should take steps to clean the city.
a) if only course of action I follows.
b) if only course of action II follows.
c) if either course of action I or II follows.

d) if both course of action I and II follows.


e) if neither course of action I nor II follow.
47) Statement: Three girls in a prestigious university campus were molested by a group of people.
Course of action:
Police must catch and put them behind the bar.
The university authority should provide security on the campus for the safety of the students.
a) if only course of action I follows.
b) if only course of action II follows.
c) if either course of action I or II follows.
d) if both course of action I and II follows.
e) if neither course of action I nor II follow.
48) Statement: False currency is being supplied to India through buses that play between India and Pakistan.
Course of action:
Indian Government should stop the bus service
Indian police should check the bus properly and keep proper vigilance in the bus.
a) if only course of action I follows.
b) if only course of action II follows.
c) if either course of action I or II follows.
d) if both course of action I and II follows.
e) if neither course of action I nor II follow.

49) Statement: In a No Tobacco day function, it was observed that the number of smokers is increasing
rapidly.
Course of action:
The Government should highlight through media the harms caused due to tobacco.
The Government should ban smoking.
a) if only course of action I follows.
b) if only course of action II follows.
c) if either course of action I or II follows.
d) if both course of action I and II follows.
e) if neither course of action I nor II follow.
50) Statement: Primary teachers are on indefinite strike.
Course of action:
Alternative arrangement should be made, for teachers on adhoc basis
The Government should meet the demands of the teachers.
a) if only course of action I follows.
b) if only course of action II follows.
c) if either course of action I or II follows.
d) if both course of action I and II follows.
e) if neither course of action I nor II follow.
APTITUDE
(Directions .51-55) Study the graph and answer the questions given below:
The graph, below shows sales of different colours of Brand X refrigerator for the years 2009, 2010 and 2011

51) Over the given three years which has been the highest selling colour; and what percentage of volume did it
account for?
a) Blue, 21% b) White, 25% c) White, 26%
d) Lemon, 28% e) None of these
52) Sale of which colour(s) of refrigerator registered the highest percentage increase between 2010 and 2011?
a) Blue b) Lemon c) Red and Blue
d) Grey e) None of these
53) What is the share of sales volume accounted for by the year 2011?
a) 43.26% b) 46.14% c) 44.16%
d) 41.65% e) None of these
54) What is approximately the ratio of sales of Red, Lemon and White refrigerators, taken together, in 2010 to
that of the combined total sales of Blue and Grey ones in 2009 and 2011 taken together?
a) 9: 10 b) 10: 9 c) 11: 12
d) 1: 12 e) None of these
55) How many instances are there in the graph when the difference in sale of refrigerators was greater or
lesser, by 35% or more as compared to the previous year?
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7 e) None of these
(Directions. 56-60) Study the information below to answer these questions.
A certain movie commenced its run in two theatres Metro and Batra simultaneously, and had a run of 30
weeks in the former theatre and 20 weeks in the latter. At Metro it earned an average of Rs. 1.52 lakh per show
for the first seven weeks with four shows in a day. In the next ten weeks it earned Rs. 1.32 lakh per show. In the
subsequent five weeks the earning was Rs. 1.18 lakh per show. For the remaining weeks the number of shows
dropped to two per day and the earning was Rs. 0.98 per show. Batra had 2 shows per day throughout the
movies run but its daily earning was 1/3rd of Metros.
56) How much did the movie earn in all, in the first four days of the seventh week of its run?
a) Rs. 24 lakh b) Rs. 26 lakh c) Rs. 32.43 lakh
d) Rs. 20 lakh e) None of these
57) By how much percent (approximately) did the earning per week of the movie drop from the 17th week to the
25th week?
a) 80% b) 72% c) 89% d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
58) How many seats were there in Metro and Batra respectively, if their ticket prices are in the ratio 7: 6 and
Batra charges Rs. 150 per picket? (Assume 100% occupancy in the first week)
a) 786 and 546 b) 868 and 675 c) 877 and 655 d) 868 and 747 e) None of these
59) If each theatre pays 35 percent tax on the revenue, the post tax earnings of Metro in the first 10 weeks
was
a) Rs. 1.43 crore b) Rs. 2.65 crore c) Rs. 4.08 crore
d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
60) What is the total post-tax earnings of Metro during the films entire run?
a) Rs. 612.61 lakh b) Rs. 942.48 lakh c) Rs. 204.2 lakh
d) Rs. 829.92 lakh e) None of these
(Directions.61-65): The following graph shows percentage distribution of key business segments of three
FMCG companies. The companies cater to a number of consumer product segments like health supplements,
oral care, digestives, hair care, skin care, home care and foods.
61) If for company A, sales from health care amounts to Rs. 150 million, then what is the sales amount from
personal care for company A?
a) Rs. 270 billion b) Rs. 270 million c) Rs. 360 million
d) Rs. 135 million e) None of these
62) If the sales of company B is Rs. 165 crore and that of company C is Rs. 190 crore and profit on sale of
home care products is 6% for both the companies, then what is the ratio of profit from home care products of

home care products is 6% for both the companies, then what is the ratio of profit from home care products of
company B to that of company C?
a) 1.30 b) 0.62 c) 0.89 d) 0.77 e) None of these
63) If the total sales of companies A, B and C are Rs. 100 crore, Rs. 75 crore and Rs. 65 crore respectively, what
is the average amount of sales from food products of these companies?
a) Rs. 14.30 crore b) Rs. 16.35 crore c) Rs. 15.00 crore
d) Rs. 18.00 crore e) None of these
64) In company C, sales from food products is what percent more than sales from home care products?
a) 20% b) 9% c) 10% d) 8% e) None of these
65) Health care vertical includes health supplements, oral acre and digestives. If forcompany A, oral care sales
amount to Rs. 10 crore which is 20% of health care sales, then what is the total sale o company A?
a) Rs. 50 crore b) Rs. 170.28 crore c) Rs. 168.32 crore
d) Rs. 116.28 crore e) None of these
(Directions 66-70) Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:
66) What was the difference between the total monthly income of Arun in all the years together and Sumans
monthly income in the year 2007?
a) Rs. 1.25 lakhs b) Rs. 1.15 lakhs c) Rs. 11.4 lakhs
d) Rs. 12.4 lakhs e) None of these

67) What was the percentage increase in the monthly income of Jyoti in the year 2008 as compared to
previous year?
a) 50 b) 150 c) 160 d) 60 e) None of these
68) Monthly income of Suman in the year 2009 was approximately what percentage of the monthly income of
Jyoti in the year 2010?
a) 72 b) 89 c) 83 d) 67 e) 95
69) In which year was the difference between Jyotis monthly income and Aruns monthly income second
highest?
a) 2005 b) 2006 c) 2007 d) 2009 e) 2010
70) What is the respective ratio between Aruns monthly income in the year 2006, Sumans monthly income in
the year 2007 and Jyotis monthly income in the year 2005?
a) 6: 3: 5 b) 6: 4: 5 c) 5: 6: 4 d) 5: 4: 7 e) None of these
Directions (71-75) Study the following pie charts carefully to answer the questions that follow:71) What is the respective ratio of total number of children from village O to the number of children attending
school from the same village?
a) 204: 145 b) 179: 131 c) 167: 111 d) 266: 137 e) None of these
72) The number of children attending school from village L is approximately what percent of the total number
of children from that village?
a) 78 b) 72 c) 57 d) 84 e) 66
73) What is the number of children attending school from village N?
a) 145 b) 159 c) 170 d) 164 e) None of these
74) What is the total number of children from villages P and M together?
a) 1422 b) 1242 c) 1122 d) 1211 e) None of these
75) What is the respective ratio of total number of children from village L and N together to the number of
children attending school from the village M, O and P together?
a) 987: 1001 b) 510: 1073 c) 1073: 510 d) 1001: 987 e) None of these
Directions(76-80) Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
76) What was the percent increase in the number students appeared from institute D in the year 2007 as
compared to previous year?
a) 78 b) 74 c) 64 d) 174 e) 60

a) 78 b) 74 c) 64 d) 174 e) 60
77) In which year was the difference between the number of students appeared and qualified the entrance test
second lowest from institute C?
a) 2005 b) 2006 c) 2007 d) 2008 e) 2009
78) What was the difference between the number of students appeared in entrance exam from institute B in
the year 2007 and the number of students qualified the entrance test from institute D in the year 2008?
a) 113 b) 104 c) 107 d) 111 e) None of these
79) What was the average number of students appeared in the year 2006 from all the four institutes together?
a) 701 b) 712 c) 709 d) 722 e) None of these
80) What is the respective ratio of total number of students appeared in entrance exam from institute A and
C in 2006 and 2009 together to the total number of students qualified the entrance exam from institute B and
D in 2007 and 2008 together?
a) 811: 1962 b) 1962: 811 c) 885: 1957 d) 1957: 885 e) None of these
81) The sum of three consecutive odd numbers and three consecutive even numbers together is 231. Also, the
smallest odd number is 11 less than the smallest even number. What is the sum of the largest odd number and
the largest even number?
a) 82 b) 83 c) 74 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

82) Two thirds of the first number is equal to the cube of the second number. If the second number is equal
to twelve percent of 50, what is the sum of the first and the second numbers?
a) 330 b) 360 c) 390 d) 372 e) None of these
83) Rajini purchased a mobile phone and a refrigerator for Rs. 12,000 and Rs. 10,000 respectively. She sold the
refrigerator at a loss of 12 percent and the mobile phone at a profit of 8 percent. What is her overall loss/profit?
a) Loss of Rs. 280 b) Profit of Rs. 2,160 c) Loss of Rs. 240
d) Profit of Rs. 2,060 e) None of these
84) The average age of seven boys sitting in a row facing North is 26 years. If the average age of the first three
boys is 19 years and the average age of the last three boys is 32 years. What is the age of the boy who is sitting
in middle of the row?
a) 28 years b) 29 years c) 24 years
d) 31 years e) None of these
85) The perimeter of a square is double the perimeter of a rectangle. The area of the rectangle is 240 s cm.
What is the area of the square?
a) 100 sq cm b) 36 sq cm c) 81 sq cm
d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
(Directions 86-90) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
86) 9, 19, 40, 83, ?, 345,696
a) 162 b) 170 c) 175 d) 166 e) None of these
87) 980, 484, 236, 112, 50, ?, 3.5
a) 25 b) 17 c) 21 d) 29 e) None of these
88) 8, 9, 20, 63, 256, 1285, ?
a) 6430 b) 7450 c) 7716 d) 7746 e) None of these
89) 1015, 508, 255, 129, 66.5, ?, 20.875
a) 34.50 b) 35 c) 35.30 d) 35.75 e) None of these
90) 12, 12, 18, 36, 90, 270, ?
a) 945 b) 810 c) 1080 d) 1215 e) None of these
Directions(91-93) In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both
the equations and Given answer:
a) x > y
b) x y

b) x y
c) x < y
d) x y
e) x = y or the relationship cannot be established
91) I. 5x2 18x + 9 = 0
II. 20y2 13y + 2 = 0
92) I. x3 878 = 453
II. y2 82 = 39
93) I. x2 + 11x + 30 = 0
II.y2 + 7y + 12 = 0
Directions(94-95) In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both
the equations and Given answer:

(a) If x< y
(b) if x y
(c) if x = y
(d) if x y
(e) if x > y
94) I. 4x2 8x +3 =0
II. 2y2 7y +6 =0
95) I. X2+ x -6 = 0
II. 2y2+13y +21=0
Directions.(96-100) Each of the question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question.
96) In how many days will five women complete a work?
I. Two women, five boys and three men together complete the work in six days
II. Eight women complete the same work in twelve days
a) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the questions.
b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d) If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
97) What will be Shyams age after 6 years?
I. The ratio between Rams and Shyams present age is 4: 3 respectively.
II. Ram is seven years older than Shyam
a) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the questions.
b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d) If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

98) What is the average speed of a car?


I. The average speed of the car is five times the average speed of a truck whereas the average speed of a bus
is 45 km/hr.
II. The average speed of the truck is half the average speed of a train whereas the average speed of a jeep is 40
km/hr.
a) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the questions.
b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d) If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
99) What is the simple interest accrued on a principal of Rs. 5,000/- in six years?
I. The rate of the simple interest for the first three years is 5 pcpa.
II. The rate of simple interest for the next three years is 8 pcpa.
a) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the questions.
b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d) If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
100) What is the total cost of 4 kg of apple and 3 kg of mangoes together?
I. The cost of 2 kg of apple is Rs. 170/- and one kg of mango is Rs. 50/II. The total cost of 5 kg of apple and 4 kg of mangoes is Rs. 410/a) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are
not sufficient to answer the questions.
b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are
not sufficient to answer the question
c) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d) If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
e) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
ENGLISH
(Directions.101-104) Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) & (d) given below should replace the phrase given in bold
in the following sentence to make it meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is
and No correction is required. Mark (e) as the answer.
101) We admire they are taking this step despite the numerous risks involved.
a) Them to take b) Them for taking c) That they have taken over
d) How their taking of e) No correction required
102) We have accepted over two billion dollars from them yet it is been used to build hospitals in the area.
a) that is yet to use b) Although it has been used c) Not yet being used
d) Which will be used e) No correction required
103) People have response in favour the governments efforts to resolve the budget crisis
a) Favourably responded b) Response in favour of c) Responded favourably to
d) Been responding favourably e) No correction required
104) The management has been left with no option else to change the branch timings to avoid losing business
a) but to change b) Except the change of c) Unless it changes with

d) Other than the changing e) No correction required


Directions.(105-116) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the question
The great fear in Asia a short while ago was that the region would suffer through the wealth destruction already
taking place in U.S. as a result of the financial crsis. Stock market tumbled as export plunged and economics
growth deteriorated. Lofty property prices in China and elsewhere looked set to bust as credit tightened and
buyers evaporated. But with surprising speed, fear in Asia swung back to greed as the region shows signs of
recovery and property and stock prices are soaring in many parts of Asia. Why should this sharp Asian
turnaround be greeted with skepticism. Higher asset prices mean household feel wealthier and better able to
spend, which could further fuel the regions nascent rebound. But just as easily, Asia could soon find itself
saddled with overheated markets similar to the U.S. housing market. In short the world has not changed, it has
just moved places.
The incipient bubble is being created by government policy. In response to the global credit crunch of 2008,
policy makers in Asia slashed interest rates and flooded financial sectors with cash in frantic attempts to keep
loans flowing and economies growing. These steps were logical for central bankers striving to reverse a
deepening economic crisis. But theres evidence that there is too much easy money around. Its winding up in
stocks and real estate, pushing prices up too far and too fast for the underlying economic fundamentals. Much
of the concerns is focused on China, where government stimulus efforts have been large and effective. Money
in China has been especially easy to find. Aggregate new bank lending surged 201% in the first half of 2009
from the same period a year earlier, to nearly $ 1.1 trillion. Exuberance over a quick recovery which was given a
boost by Chinas surprisingly strong 7.9% % GDP growth in the second quarter has buoyed investor sentiment
not just for stocks but also for real estate.
Former U.S. Federal Reserve Chairman Alan Greenspan argued that bubbles could only be recognised in
hindsight. But investors who have been well schooled in the dangers of bubbles over the past decade are
increasingly wary that prices have risen too far, and that the slightest bit of negative economic news could
knock markets for a loop. These fears are compounded by the possibility that Asias central bankers will begin
taking steps to shut off the money. Rumours that Beijing was on the verge of tightening credit led to Shanghai
stocks plunging 5%. Yet many economists believe that, there is close to a zero possibility that the Chinese
government will do anything this year that constitutes tightening. And without a major shift in thinking, the
easy-money conditions will stay in place. In a global economy that has produced more dramatic ups and
downs than anyone thought possible over the past two years, Asia may be heading for another disheartening
plunge.
105) To which of the following has the author attributed the 2008 Asian financial crisis?
I. Reluctance of Asian governments to taper off the economic stimulus.
II. Greed of Asian investors causing them to trade stocks of American companies at high prices.
III. Inflated real estate prices in Asian countries.
a) None b) Only I c) Only III
d) Only I & II e) Only II
106) Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian economics?
a) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy which is yet to recover
b) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely to cause stock markets to crash
c) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a financial crisis
d) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year.
e) None of these
107) What is the authors main objective in writing the passage?
a) Illustrating that Asian economies are financially more sound than those of developed countries
b) Disputing financial theories about how recessions can be predicted and avoided
c) Warning Asian countries about the dangers of favouring fast growth and profits over sound economic
principles
d) Extolling Chinas incredible growth and urging other countries to emulate it
e) Advising governments about the changes in policy to strengthen economic fundamentals.
108) What does the author want to convey through the phrase The world has not changed it has just moved
places?
a) At present countries are more dependent on Asian economies than on the US economy
b) Economies have become interlinked on account of globalisation
c) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as developed countries

c) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as developed countries
d) All economies are susceptible to recession because of the state of the US economy
e) None of these
109) Which of the following can be said the Chinese governments efforts to revive the economy?
a) These were largely unsuccessful as only the housing market improved
b) The governments only concern was to boost investor confidence in stocks
c) These efforts were ineffectual as the economy recovered owing to the US market stabilizing
d) These were appropriate and accomplished the goal of economic revival
e) They blindly imitated the economics reforms adopted by the US
110) According to the passage, which of the following factor(s) has/ have had a negative impact on the Asian
stock markets?
I. Abrupt drop in exports by Asian countries
II. Extravagant disbursement of housing loans in 2009.
III. Raising of interest rates by the Central Bank
a) None b) Only I & II c) Only I
d) Only I & III e) All I, II & III
111) Why has investor confidence in the Chinese stock market been restored?
Existing property prices which are stable and affordable
The government has decided to tighten credit.
III. Healthy growth of the economy indicated by GDP figures.
a) Only III b) Only I & II c) All I, II & III
d) Only II e) None of these

(Directions.112-114) Choose the word or group of words which is Most Similar in meaning to the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
112) Evaporated
a) Dehydrated b) Melted c) Vaporised d) Vanished e) Dodged
113) Fuel
a) Petrol b) Stimulate c) Sustain d) Heat e) Charge
114) Flooded
a) Surged b) Saturated c) Overflowed d) Deluge e) Overcome
(Directions. 115-116) Choose the group of words which is Most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold
as used in the passage.
115) Sharp
a) Blunt b) Incomplete c) Naive d) Indistinct e) Gradual
116) Buoyed
a) Heavy b) Stifled c) Numbered d) Dull e) Abated
(Directions.117-123) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it. The
error if any will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the letter of that part with error as your answer. If there is
No error, mark e)
117) Their failure to inspect (a) / our factories is a (b) / clear indications that our (c) / licence will not be
renewed (d) / No error (e)
118) The Boards decision has provided (a) / employees with the opportunity (b) / to acquire upto 100(c) /
shares by the company (d) / No error (e)
119) He had telephoned yesterday to (a) / ask how much of the youth (b) / Who attend our classes would be
(c) / interested in working for a textile company (d) / No error (e)

120) If the manufacturing sector continues (a) / to grow at the same rate for (b) / the next few months, I think it
(c) / has a high growth rate this year (d) / No error (e)
121) The success of the (a) / government sponsor job guarantee programme(b) / has resulted in a (c) / drastic
drop in poverty (d) / No error (e)

122) Who had extensively discussions (a) / with the participants and (b) / obtained their feedback (c) /
regarding our new services (d) / No error (e)
123) The government is working (a) / out a new system to compensate (b) / those companies to sell (c) /
products below the market price (d) / No error (e)
Directions.(124-128) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given.
These are marked as a), b), c) and d). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly
spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate
if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also
appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark e) i.e., All correct as your answer.
124) Though these programmes have proved a) / to be extremely b) / effective c) / they do have certain
drawbacks d) / all correct e)
125) In order to confront a) / the threat of global warning b) /it is imperative c) / that we work all together d) /
all correct e)
126) Any failure a) / to complicit b) / will there fundamentalregulation c) / will result in a fine d) / All correct e)
127) We plan to complete the exhaustive a) / performance b) / review c) / undertook by us d) / all correct e)
128) Home loan borrowers will be a) / definitely b) / affected c) / since banks have raised their lending d) /
rates of interest. All correct e)
Directions.(129-132) Rearrange the following six sentences I, II, III, IV, V and VI in the proper sequence to form
meaningful paragraph; then answer given below them.
I. As a result the nonstop tensions and anxieties at work often result in health related problems.
II. The truth is we cannot change the world of work.
III. We spend at least half our waking hours at work.
IV. We have therefore to take change and transform the way in which we respond to our work environment
V. So how can we control these problems and perform at work?
VI. However we can change the way we feel and deal with various situations.
129) Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
a) II b) III c) IV d) V e) VI
130) Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
a) II b) III c) IV d) V e) VI
131) Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
a) I b) II c) III d) IV e) V
132) Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
a) I b) II c) III d) IV e) V
Directions.(133-140) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These are
printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Technology ____133____ Lives. But ____134____ if people want it to. This qualification is important, and
___135____ to understanding progress. Akio Morita, the founder of Sony, used to make inventions not by
making minute, detailed studies of ____136____ People lived their lives. It is observable that when he
relinquished direct involvement in product development at the company in the 1980s, Sony seemed to lose its
____137____ of developing a truly radical invention like the Walkman that the word takes to en masse.
However much it seems that machines are in ____138____ they are not, yet the belief that the technology alone
holds the key to ____139____ the way people work, buy and do business is strong. The rise of dotcoms in the
late 1990s was ____140____ by a belief that technology was changing the rules of marketing and employee
relationships.

133)

a) Ruins

b) Changes

c) Makes

d) Explains

e) Shakes

134)

a) Not

b) Occasionally

c) Seldom

d) Only

e) Never

135)

a) Key

b) Primarily

c) Encouraging

d) Supported

e) Disastrous

136)

a) Why

b) Where

c) When

d) Whether

e) How

137)

a) Share

b) Profit

c) Knack

d) Business

e) Plant

138)

a) Progress

b) Control

c) Action

d) Operation

e) Transaction

139)

a)
Encroaching

b)
Accomplishing

c)
Determination

d)
Highlighting

e) Informing

140)

a) Govern

b) Successful

c) Underlying

d) Disputed

e)
Accompanied

Directions.(141-145) Rearrange the following six sentences I, II, III, IV, V and VI in the proper sequence to form a
meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
I. Two of the best-performing major economies in 2010 were China and Brazil, with growth estimated at 7.5%
and 10.5% respectively
II. Despite that limp growth, major US stock market indexes are up between 11% and 20 % for the year
III. Even knowing where economies are headed sometimes is of no help to an investor.
IV. It is hard to anticipate the direction of financial markets
V. But as of December, stock markets of both nations were in the red for the year.
VI. By contrast, the US economy is likely to have expanded at only about 2.6% for the year

141) Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence?


a) I

b) III

c) IV

d) V

e) VI

142) Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence?


a) I

b) II

c) III

d) V

e) VI

d) IV

e) VI

d) V

e) I

143) Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence?


a) I

b) II

c) III

144) Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence?


a) II

b) III

c) IV

145) Which of the following would be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence?


a) I

b) II

c) III

d) IV

e) VI

(Directions.146-150) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it or a
wrong word has been used. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence which has been printed in bold
and has been numbered a), b), c) or d) . The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
e) i.e., No error. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
146) The convergence of (a) / Indian accounting standards with international Financial Report standards (IFRS)
beginning (b) / in April is expecting to (c) / see power companies struggling with (d) /significant first time
adopting impact. No error (e)
147) Researchers at (a) / the Indian Institute of science (IIS(c), Bangalore, are mapping (b) / Indias solar hot
spots-where round the year (c) / Sunlight makes viable of (d) / companies to set up solar power plants. No
error (e)
148) Though their qualifications span a diverse (a) / range, there is an equal (b) / number of graduates and
those who have just completed school, each set (c) / making up (d) / close to 30% of these households.. No
error (e)
149) As if (a) / the most dangerous moment for any dictatorship is when (b) / it starts to (c) / reform , North
Korea looks ready to turn that truism on its head (d) / No error (e)
150) It so happens (a) / that this happy compy ritual is their way of life (b) / and one into which (c) / they dont
particularly welcome (d) / voyeuristic intrusions. / No error (e)

151) Technology assessment is all assessing how much technology has been incorporated into an
organisation

organisation
a) Analysing the
overall growth of
the organisation

b) Trying to foresee
the effects of new
products and
processes on a
firms operatum and
on society 111
general

c) Assessing
how much
technology one
wants to put
into a company
in the future

d) Assessing the
cost of new
technology to
determine whether
a firm can afford to
use it

e) None of
these

152) Which of the following represents an output from the marketing environment?
a) Money
borrowed by
Liverpool F, C, to
help finance its
operations

b) Nikes television
advertising
campaign featuring
a leading sports
personality

c) Information
on shoppers
attiudes
purchased by
Debenharns
Department
Stores

d) Steel purchased
by Volvo to be used
in producing cars

e) None of
these

153) There are two major categories of laws that directly affect marketing practices:
precompetitive legislation and _______
a) Consumer
protection
legislation

b) Unfair trade
practices laws

c) Trading
standards
legislation

d) Consumer price
dis crimination
legislation

e) None of
these

154) If the National Association of Hoisery Manufactures sets guidelines for its member firms to
follow regarding the use of unethical practices, it is engaging in
a) Legislation

b) Lobbying

c) Self
regulation

d) Environmental
scanning

e) None of
these

c) A social
movement that
is able to
challenge big
business
practices

d) A diverse group
of individuals,
groups and
organisations
attempting to
protect the rights
of consumers

e) None of
these

155) The consumer movement is _____


a) Against
foreign imports
that are much
cheaper than
products
produced in the
home market

b) A movement that
is trying to improve
consumer
satisfaction

156) Lynx has demonstrated against the sale of coats made of animal furs. This groups efforts to
change shoppers attitudes represents for fur retailers _______
a) An opportunity

b) Self regulation

c) A social
force

d) An economic
force

e) None of
these

157) The period in the business cycle in which there is extremely high unemployment, low wages,
minimum total disposable income, and a lack of confidence in the economy by consumers is _____
a) Recovery

b) Prosperity

c) Depression

d) Recession

e) None of
these

c) Buying more
products

d) Buying more
companies

e) None of
these

c) Places
where products
are made
available to the
buyers

d) All of these

e) None of
these

158) Market Expansion means _______


a) Hiring more
staff

b) Firing more staff

159) Delivery channel means ______


a) Maternity
wards

b) Handing over the


products to the
buyers

160) One of the following is a target group for the marketing of Internet Banking
a) All the
customers

b) All the educated


customers

c) All the
computer
educated
customers

d) Only creditors

e) All of
these

161) One of the following is a target group for the marketing of educational loan
a) All the
customers

b) Students

c) Only poor
students

d) Students having
promising
educational track
record

e) All of
these

162) Service after sale is not the function of _____


a) Marketing
staff

b) Seller

c) Director of
the company

d) Employees of
the company

e) All of
the above
are wrong

163) If done through ______ the rural marketing would be more effective
a) Fairs

b) Village fairs

c) Door to door
campaign

d) All of these

e) None of
these

164) Indian-origin Antara Haldar became the first non-European law lecturer at______
a) University of
York

b) University of
Glasgow

c) Cambridge
University

d) University of
Sheffield

e) None of
these

165) Parliament of which country approved a new anti-terror bill aimed anti-terror bill aimed at
preventing jihadists from travelling? This will prevent jihadists from travelling to Iraq, Syria or
elsewhere by confiscating their passports.
a) France

b) Japan

c) Egypt

d) Netherland

e) None of
these

d) Amazon

e) None of
these

166) Tata Group company Coma signed a deal with___


a) Flipkart

b) Snapdeal

c) Ebay

167) Software Gaint Microsoft Corp acquired a video game company Majang for 2.5 billion US
dollors. Majang belongs to which country?
a) Syria

b) Sweden

c) China

d) South Korea

e) None of
these

168) Actor and Environmental activist______ was designated as the United Nations Messenger of
Peace by UN Chief Ban Ki-moon.
a) Bhumibol
adulyade

b) Voreqe
Bainimarama

c) Angelina
Jolie

d) Leonardo
DiCaprio

e) None of
these

169) And then One Day: A Memoir is the autobiography of ________


a) Shabana Azmi

b) Naseeruddin Shah

c) Anupam
Kher

d) Pankaj Kapoor

e) Javed
Akhtar

170) _______ will be hosting International Film Festivel of India every year.
a) Kerala

b) Maharastra

c) Karnataka

d) Goa

e) New
Delhi

171) Le Yucheng was appointed as_____ s new Ambassador to India


a) Japan

b) North Korea

c) China

d) Singapore

e)
Malaysia

172) First Indian State to ratify the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Bill 2014 is
______
a) Rajasthan

b) Maharashtra

c) Assam

d) Madhya Pradesh

e)
Telangana

173) Vintage Daskota aircraft was gifted to ____ by Indian Air force.Dakota aircraft was with the
Indian Airforce its museum.
a) Bhutan Air
Force

b) Myanmar Air
Force

c) Japan Air
Force

d) Bangaladesh Air
Force

e) None of
these

d) Shining Future
of Asia

e) None of
these

174) What is the theme of Asian Games 2014?


a) Meet Aisas
Future

b) Lightening Asia

c) Asia Shining

175) Noted Mandolin player Uppalapu Srinivas passed away in Chennai.He was just____years old.
a) 40

b) 45

c) 55

d) 35

e) 44

176) CM of Assam Tarun Gagoi launched a fund, which is focused on first generation
entrrpreneurs. What is the name of this fund?
a) Star Funds

b) Future Funds

c) Angel Funds

d) Shine Funds

e) Help
Funds

Funds
177) Who Cinched first gold medal in Asian games 2014 for India?
a) Shweta
Chaudhry

b) Jitu Rai

c) Parupalli
Kashyap

d) Vikas Gowda

e) Babita
Kumari

c) certificate of
deposit (CD)

d) checking
account deposit

e) None of
these

c) liquidity and
yield are
inversely
related

d) all of the above


are true

e) None of
these

d) money market
mutual fund shares

e) None of
these

178) Which of the following bears the most market risk?


a) corporate
bond

b) savings account
deposit

179) Which of the following is NOT true?


a) liquidity and
risk are positively
related

b) risk and yield are


positively related

180) Which asset carries the greatest default risk?


a) corporate
bond

b) corporate stock

c) long-term
Treasury bond

181) According to the risk structure of interest rates, play a role in explaining interest rates:
a) default risk

b) liquidity

c) income tax
considerations

d) all of the above

e) None of
these

182) In drawing a yield curve, which of the following is not held constant?
a) default risk

b) tax treatment

c) length of
time to
maturity

d) marketability

e) None of
these

c) short-term
interest rates
equal long-term
rates

d) inflation rates
are high

e) None of
these

183) A yield curve will slope downward when


a) short-term
interest rates are
above long-term
rates

b) long-term interest
rates are above
short-term rates

184) Which of the following nation is considered the originator of the concept of Micro Finance?
a) India

b) Bangladesh

c) South Africa

d) USA

e) None

185) What is the full form of ULIP, the term which was in the news recently?
a) Universal Life
& Investment
Plan

b) Unit Loan &


Insurance Plan

c) Universal
Loan &
Investment
Plan

d) Uniformly
Loaded Investment
Plan

e) Unit
Linked
Insurance
Plan

c) Help to solve
balance of
payment
problems of
member
countries

d) Arrange
international
deposits from
banks

e) None

186) The main function of I.M.F. is to


a) Finance
Investment loans
to developing
countries

b) Act as a private
sector lending arm
of the World Bank

187) RBI has asked banks to make a plan to provide banking services to all villages having a
population upto 2000. This directive issued bythe RBI will fall in which of the following categories?
a) Plan for
Financial
Inclusion

b) Efforts to meet
the targets of Priority
Sector Lending

c) Extension of
Relief
Packages to

d) Plan for opening


more rural
branches

e) None

the Farmers
188) Which of the following is not a part of the scheduled banking structure in India?
a) Money
Landers

b) Public Sector
Banks

c) Private
Sector Banks

d) Regional Rural
Banks

e) State
Cooperative
Banks

189) The rate of interest on Savings Bank Account is stipulated by


a) The
concerned bank

b) RBI

c) Indian Banks
Association

d) Government of
India

e) Banking
codes and

concerned bank

Association

India

codes and
Standards
Board of
India

190) All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks except ____
a) Hackers

b) Spam

c) Viruses

d) Identify theft

e) None of
these

191) A digital computer did not score over an analog computer in terms of
a) Speed

b) Accuracy

c) Reliability

d) Cost

e) None of
these

c) Employs
semi conductor
memory

d) Has modular
constructions

e) None of
these

192) IBM 7000 digital computer


a) Belongs to
second
generation

b) Uses VLSI

193) The first microprocessor built by the Intel Corporation was called
a) 8008

b) 8080

c) 4004

d) 8800

e) None of
these

c) Micro
computer

d) All of these

e) None of
these

c) Joseph
Jacquard

d) All of the above

d) None of
these

d) All of the above

e) None of
these

d) Biochemistry

e) None of
these

194) One computer that is not considered a portable computer is


a) Minicomputer

b) A laptop computer

195) Who invented the microprocessor?


a) Marcian E
Huff

b) Herman H
Goldstein

196) Which of the following required large computer memory


a) Imaging

b) Graphics

c) Voice

197) The subject of cybernetics deals with the science of


a) Genetics

b) Control and
communications

c) Molecular
biology

198) The first electronic general purpose digital computer built by Motley and Accrete called ENIAC
did not work on the stored program concept. How many numbers could it store in its internal
memory?
a) 100

b) 20

c) 40

d) 80

e) None of
these

c) ENIAC

d) All of above

e) None of
these

c) Calculators

d) All of the above

e) None of
these

199) The first electronic computer in the world was


a) UNIVAC

b) EDVAC

200) Microprocessors can be used to make


a) Computer

b) Digital systems

Answer Key:
1.(e)

2.(a)

3.(d)

4.(e)

5.(b)

6.(c)

7.(d)

8.(a)

9.(a)

10.(b)

11.(a)

12.(d)

13.(e)

14.(a)

15.(c)

16.(d)

17.(e)

18.(a)

19.(a)

20.(a)

21.(d)

22.(c)

23.(a)

24.(c)

25.(b)

26.(c)

27.(c)

28.(c)

29.(e)

30.(a)

31.(b)

32.(d)

33.(b)

34.(b)

35.(c)

36.(a)

37.(c)

38.(e)

39.(a)

40.(d)

41.(b)

42.(b)

43.(d)

44.(e)

45.(d)

46.(d)

47.(d)

48.(b)

49.(a)

50.(a)

51.(b)

52.(c)

53.(d)

54.(a)

55.(d)

56.(c)

57.(b)

58.(b)

59.(b)

60.(a)

61.(b)

62.(a)

63.(b)

64.(c)

65.(e)

66.(b)

67.(a)

68.(c)

69.(e)

70.(e)

71.(a)

72.(e)

73.(e)

74.(c)

75.(b)

76.(c)

77.(d)

78.(e)

79.(a)

80.(b)

81.(e)

82.(a)

83.(c)

84.(b)

85.(d)

86.(b)

87.(e)

88.(c)

89.(d)

90.(a)

91.(a)

92.(b)

93.(e)

94.(a)

95.(c)

96.(b)

97.(e)

98.(d)

99.(e)

100.(a)

101.(b)

102.(d)

103.(c)

104.(a)

105.(a)

106.(c)

107.(b)

108.(d)

109.(d)

110.(c)

111.(a)

112.(d)

113.(b)

114.(a)

115.(e)

116.(c)

117.(c)

118.(d)

119.(b)

120.(d)

121.(b)

122.(a)

123.(c)

124.(e)

125.(d)

126.(b)

127.(d)

128.(e)

129.(c)

130.(e)

131.(a)

132.(c)

133.(b)

134.(d)

135.(a)

136.(e)

137.(c)

138.(a)

139.(c)

140.(e)

141.(b)

142.(d)

143.(e)

144.(c)

145.(b)

146.(a)

147.(d)

148.(d)

149.(d)

150.(c)

151.(b)

152.(b)

153.(a)

154.(c)

155.(d)

156.(c)

157.(c)

158.(e)

159.(c)

160.(c)

161.(b)

162.(a)

163.(b)

164.(c)

165.(a)

166.(b)

167.(b)

168.(d)

169.(b)

170.(d)

171.(c)

172.(a)

173.(d)

174.(a)

175.(b)

176.(c)

177.(b)

178.(a)

179.(a)

180.(b)

181.(d)

182.(c)

183.(a)

184.(b)

185.(e)

186.(c)

187.(a)

188.(a)

189.(b)

190.(b)

191.(b)

192.(c)

193.(a)

194.(a)

195.(a)

196.(d)

197.(b)

198.(b)

199.(c)

200.(d)

Follow Us

RACE Bank coaching institute is an ISO


9001:2008 Certified coaching institute in
Tamilnadu providing unique training to its
students, with an aim of achieving the
highest results. Coaching is provided for all
competitive Examinations for selection of
Bank Probationary Officers, Clerks,
Specialist Officers, Central Government
Staff, Insurance Officers and Railway staff.

(http://www.raceinstitute.in)
RACE (Rapid Academy of Competitive Exams)
is the only institute which has produced 5877
selections in IBPS Clerk Dec 2015, 419 SBI
Probationary officers in 2015 and 2647
Probationary officers (in Public sector Bank) by
IBPS PO Exams held in September 2015.

Our History
In 1985, Seeman 100/100 Tutorial was a
well- known coaching centre for 10th and
12th standard students and later in 1997 it
started coaching for Engineering, M.B.B.S.
Entrance Examinations as well. After
lighting up the lives of a vast number of
graduates, it started Rapid Academy of
Competitive Examinations (RACE Institute)
as an extension of its services in 2012.

Experienced Staff Members


Classes are handled by Ex-RBI Officers,
I.I.M. Alumnus, Sr. Bank Managers and
Experts from various fields.

an ISO 9001: 2008 Certified Institution


Right first time, Right every time is the
motto of ISO 9001-2008.The highest level
of quality standards prescribed by ISO
9001-2008 are scrupulously followed by
RACE, which indicates the extent of service

TRACE THE RACE

Library & Computer Lab


We have more than 210 computers in each
branch (Operates 24*7) dedicated for RACE
students to write online Exams. RACE is the
only Institute to have Library with more than
8000 books in all the branches.

What students think about RACE?


Very effective and intellectual training and
motivate us towards our goal. Feeling
confident and inspiring studying at Race.

(https://plus.google.com/+RACEChennai/about)

Leading Bank Institute in Chennai


RACE Institute is the only institute which
has produced 419 SBI Probationary officers
in 2015 and 2647 Probationary officers (in
Public sector Bank) by IBPS PO Exams held
in September 2015.

RACE Bank coaching Institute is a fouryear- old Institution with more than 30
years of existence in the teaching field.
With an unparalleled quality in teaching at
affordable fees, RACE Institute proved itself
to be the Best Institute in South India by
placing 1200 of its students as
Probationary Officers in various Bank
examinations held in December 2014.
RACE, a well- known institute in Tamilnadu,
is committed to provide the best of the
services to the student community. In 2015,
by placing 2647 Probationary Officers in
public sectors Banks, RACE Institute
became the leader in teaching category.
RACE Institute operates in Chennai (HQ),
Madurai, Trichy, Salem and Coimbatore. It
is the only academy to have a full-fledged
Library (with about 8000 Books in all
sections) and a state-of-the art Computer
Laboratory for students (with 210
Computers) at all its branches.

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