Sei sulla pagina 1di 16

09/02/2014

Roll No.:

Test Date:

Centre Code:

Test Booklet Code

TEST No. 7
for

JEE (Main) 2014

ES
RI

ALL

S
H TE
A
K
A
A
ST
IA

SE

IN

PAPER - I

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE


1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use Black Ball point PEN to darken the
appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other
material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should
ensure that the test paper contains all pages and no page
is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator,
candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code and
Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.

9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over,


the answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
10. There are three parts in the question paper A, B and C
consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each
question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct
response.
11. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum
marks are 360.
12. One fourth () marks will be deducted for indicating
incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for
any question in the answer sheet.
13. Pattern of the questions are as under:
Section I : Straight Objective Type Questions
Section II : Assertion Reason Type Questions

Test No. 7
Paper I

TOPICS OF THE TEST

Physics

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments, Wave Optics, Dual Nature of Radiation
and Matter, Atoms, Nuclei, Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices
and Simple Circuits, Communication Systems, Units & Measurements

Chemistry

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Amines, Biomolecules,


Polymers, Chemistry in Everyday Life

Mathematics

Differential Equations, Vector Algebra, 3-D Geometry (XI & XII), Probability
(XI & XII), Statistics

Test - 7 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Time : 3 Hrs.

MM : 360

TEST - 7 (Paper-1)
PART - A (PHYSICS)
SECTION - I

Straight Objective Type Questions


This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

4.

Choose the correct answer :


1.

A slab of thickness 10 cm is kept on x-y plane


(z = 0) and its refractive index varies as
z

1.63 1 where z is in cm. If it is viewed


20
from top, its apparant thickness will be (in cm)
5.

3 1.63

Given ln 2 4

2.

3.

(1) 30 cm above

(2) 15 cm above

(3) 120 cm above

(4) 7.5 cm below

A plano convex lens fits exactly into a plano


concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to
each other. If the lenses are made of different
materials of refractive indices 1 and 2 and R is the
radius of curvature of the curved surface of the
lenses, then focal length of the combination is
R
(1)
1
2

2R
(2)
2
1

R
(3) 2( )
1
2

R
(4) 2 ( )
1
2

A ray incident at a point at an angle of incidence of


60 enters a glass sphere of 3 and is reflected

(1) 5

(2) 6

(3) 4

(4) 3

A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror along a


line represented by i j k . The possible vector
orientation parallel to the plane of the mirror to get
the light retraced is
(1) i j k

(2) 2i + j 2k

(3) i j k

(4) 2i 4 j 2k

A concave mirror of radius of curvature 80 cm is


placed at the bottom of a tank containing water upto
a height 20 cm. The mirror faces upwards with its
axis vertical. Solar light falls normally on the surface
of water and the image of the sun is formed. if
4
, then with the observer in air the distance of
3
image from the surface of water is

and refracted at the farther surface of the sphere. The


angle between the reflected and refracted rays at
this surface is

6.

(1) 50

(2) 90

(3) 60

(4) 40

A spherical glass bulb of diameter d is filled with

water . The bulb is viewed along its


3

horizontal diameter. What is the apparent diameter?


(Neglect the thickness of glass)
(1) 2d

(2)

3d
2

d
2

(4)

7d
4

(3)

Space for Rough Work

1/13

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014


7.

A point object is moving on the principal axis of a


concave mirror of focal length 24 cm towards it.
When it is at a distance of 60 cm from the mirror,
velocity is 9 cm/s. What is the velocity of the image
at that instant?
(1) 5 cm/s towards mirror
(2) 4 cm/s towards mirror
(3) 4 cm/s away from mirror
(4) 9 cm/s away from mirror

8.

9.

The K line has a wavelength for an element with


atomic number Z = 19. The K line will have a

for an element with atomic number Z =


wavelength
4
(1) 38

(2) 10

(3) 11

(4) 37

Test - 7 (Paper-I)
10. Two wavelengths are used in YDSE. If one is 430 nm
and the fourth order bright fringe coincides with the
sixth order bright fringe of the other, then the other
wavelength is nearly
(1) 580 nm

(2) 645 nm

(3) 747 nm

(4) 287 nm

11. Figure shows two coherent microwave sources S1


and S2 emitting waves of wavelength and separated
by a distance 3. The minimum non-zero value of y
for point P to be an intensity maximum is (D>>)

P
y
3

Plane parallel wavefronts encounter the interface


between one medium and another, as shown below
(lines represent crest). The wave speed is different in
the two media. Choose the correct option

S1

S2
D

(1) D

(2)

3D

Interface
(3)

Medium-1

Medium-2

(1) The distance between wavefronts remains


unchanged but the direction of wavefront
changes
(2) The distance between wavefronts and the
direction of wavefront both remain unchanged
(3) The distance between wavefronts and the
direction of wavefront both changes
(4) The distance between wavefronts changes but
the direction of wavefront remains unchanged

(4) 2 2 D

12. In a YDSE the separation between the slits is 1 mm


and the screen is at a distance of 2 m from the
plane of the slits. The wavelength missing on the
screen at a point directly in front of one of the
slits is
(1) 417 nm

(2) 500 nm

(3) 523 nm

(4) 600 nm

13. A meson at rest decays into two photons. If rest


mass of meson is 135 MeV/c2, the wavelength
(in fm) of each photon is
(1) 36.74

(2) 18.37

(3) 9.18

(4) 15

Space for Rough Work

2/13

5
D
2

Test - 7 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

14. A source emits e.m. waves of wavelength 2 m and


intensity I0. One beam reaches the observer directly
while other beam reaches after reflection from water
surface travelling an additional distance of 5 m and
4
with intensity reduced to
as compared to the
9
direct beam. The resultant intensity observed will be
4
I0
(1)
9

5
I0
(2)
3

25
I0
(3)
9

13
I0
(4)
9

(2) Rs 8

(3) Rs 16

(4) Rs 4096

(1) K C increases
(2) K C decreases

time t

N1

B
0
N2

C
0
N3

(2) Rate of decay of A will first increase and then


decrease

16. The intensity of X-rays from a coolidge tube is


plotted against wavelength as shown in figure. The
minimum wavelength found is C and wavelength of
K line is K . As the accelerating voltage is
increased

time t = 0

A
N0

(1) Number of nuclei of B will first increases and


then decreases

15. Suppose the price of a radioactive substance is


directly proportional to the activity of radioactive
sample. If initial price of radioactive sample (t1/2 = 6
months) is Rs 4096, then price of radioactive sample
after 5 years will be
(1) Rs 4

17. In the following radioactive decay C is stable


nucleus. Then

(3) If 2 > 1 then activity of B will always be higher


than activity of A
(4) If 1 >> 2 then number of nuclei of C will
always be less than number of nuclei of B
18. A proton moving with a speed u directly towards an
-particle (He nucleus) which, when the two particles
were very far apart from one another, was initially at
rest. What is the separation of the particles at their
point of closest approach? (Assume m = 4 mP)
(1) r

e2
0mP u 2

(2) r

e2
40mP u 2

(3) r

5e2
40mP u 2

(4) r

5e 2
80mP u 2

19. If work function of a metal is 3 eV and wavelength of


subjected radiation to the metal is 275 nm. Then the
de-Broglie's wavelength (in ) of photoelectrons emitted
by the metal is nearly (Given hc = 1240 eV nm)

(3) K increases

(1) 1.5

(2) 1

(4) C increases

(3) 10

(4) 100

Space for Rough Work

3/13

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014


20. In the diagram below, light is incident on the interface
between 1 and 2 at the critical angle, and is totally
reflected. The light is then also totally reflected at the
interface between media 1 and 3, after which it travels
in the direction opposite to the initial direction. The
two interfaces are best perpendicular. The refractive
indices are best related as

Medium-1
n1

24. A terrestrial telescope has an objective of focal length


180 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. The
erecting lens has a focal length of 3.5 cm. The
separation between objective and eyepiece in normal
adjustment is
(1) 167 cm

(2) 179 cm

(3) 199 cm

(4) 213 cm

25. Plane microwaves are incident on a long slit having


a width of 5.0 cm. The wavelength of the microwaves
if the first diffraction minimum is formed at = 30
is

Medium-2
n2

Medium-3

Test - 7 (Paper-I)

(1) 2.5 cm

(2) 0.25 cm

(3) 25 cm

(4) 1.25 cm

n3

SECTION - II

(1) n1 < n2 < n3

Assertion Reason Type Questions

(2) n12 + n32 n22

Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are AssertionReason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.

(3) n12 n22 n32


(4) n12 + n22 n32
21. The first excitation potential for H-atom is
(1) 13.6 V

(2) 10.2 V

(3) 3.4 V

(4) 12.27 V

22. A transistor is used in common emitter mode in an


amplifier circuit. When a signal of 20 mV is added
to the base emitter voltage, the base current
changes by 20 A and the collector current changes
by 2 mA. The load resistance is 5 k. The value of
trans ductance is
(1) 10 1

(2) 1 1

(3) 0.1 1

(4) 0.01 1

23. A TV transmission tower at a particular station has


a height 160 m. By how much the height of tower be
increased to double its coverage range? Given radius
of earth = 6400 km.

26. Statement-1 : A person standing on the edge of a


swimming pool is observed shorter than his usual
length as observed by someone from inside water.
and
Statement-2 : A ray bends towards the normal as it
enters from rarer medium to denser medium.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(1) 320 m

(2) 160 m

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(3) 480 m

(4) 640 m

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True


Space for Rough Work

4/13

Test - 7 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

27. Statement-1 : The kinetic energy of emitted


particles is not equal to the Q value of emission
nuclear reaction.

29. Statement-1 : Soft and hard X-rays differ in


frequency as well as velocity.
and

and
Statement-2 : The daughter nucleus recoils to
conserve the linear momentum when -particle is
emitted in -decay.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

Statement-2 : The penetrating power of hard X-rays


is more than the penetrating power of soft X-rays.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
28. Statement-1 : A small metallic ball is suspended in
a uniform electric field with an insulated thread. If
high energy X-ray beam fall on the ball, ball will be
deflected along the direction of electric field.
and

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for


Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
30. Statement-1 : If the frequency of incident light on a
photosensitive surface is doubled, the maximum KE
of emitted photoelectrons becomes double.
and
Statement-2 : If the distance of point source from the

Statement-2 : X-ray emits photoelectron from an


isolated metallic surface, leaving it positively
charged.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

surface is doubled, then photocurrent becomes one


fourth of the original current.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for


Statement-1

Space for Rough Work

5/13

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Test - 7 (Paper-I)

PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - I

34.

Straight Objective Type Questions


This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

appropriate

O + H2NCH3

pH

A+B

H
Which of the following is true for (A) and (B)?

(1) A is major product and syn oriented


(2) B is minor product and syn oriented
(3) A is major product and anti oriented

CHO

(4) No such orientations are alloted to (A) and (B)


O
Conc.
OH

31.

mixture of product. What is the

H
H

35.

dil OH

A (major product)

equivalent mass of benzaldehyde in this reaction?

Which is true about (A)?

(1) 106 g

(2) 212 g

(3) 53 g

(4) Infinite

(1) A has acidic proton and loss of it can form


aromatic compound

32. Rate of nucleophilic addition reaction is maximum


among the following for
O

(1)

(2) A does not have any acidic proton


(3) A on ozonolysis forms di carbonyl compound
(4) A has 4 bonds in its structure
36. Two compounds (X) and (Y) isomers of each other
are put up into following test as

(2)

X
DNP test

(3)

(4)
CH3

33. CH3CHO

I2
NaOH

product. In product formation

which of the following has highest rate of the


reaction?
(1) First iodination

Positive

Positive

Fehling test Positive

Negative

Tollen's test Positive

Positive

Iodoform test Negative

Negative

If general formula of (X) and (Y) is C8H8O and (Y)


after Clemenson reduction can only forms one
electrophilic substituted product then which of the
following is true for (X) and (Y)?
(1) (X) on oxidation with KMnO4 forms benzoic acid
derivative

(2) Second iodination

(2) (Y) on oxidation with KMnO4 forms terphthalic


acid

(3) Third iodination

(3) (X) on reduction with LAH forms phenol derivative

(4) All have identical rate

(4) (Y) on reduction with LAH forms phenol derivative


Space for Rough Work

6/13

Test - 7 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Br

41. Towards neucleophilic substitution reaction which of


the following produces product with highest rate?

(i) Mg/Dry ether

37.

(ii) H2O
O

A (major product)

(1)

OH
O

(3)

(1)
OH

(3)

(CH2)4

dil
H2SO4

CH3

Cl
O
O

A
(major product)

(A) does not give which of the following test?

(4) Polyaldehyde
O

42.

OH

(1) Effervescence with NaHCO3


(2) Tollen's test

, the IUPAC naming of the given

38.

(4)

(CH2)5
O

O
O

(2) Polyalcohol
H

(2)

(3) Victor Mayer test


(4) Evolution of H2 on adding Na

compound is

43. Which of the following compound on complete


hydrolysis form benzoic acid as one of the products?

(1) 5 - ketopentan - 2 - one


(2) 4 - ketopentan -1-al

CONH2

(3) 4 - formylbutan - 2 - one


(4) 4 - carbonylpentan - 1 - al

CN

(1)

(2)

39. Which of the following compound is more acidic than


benzoic acid?
(1) Formic acid

(2) Tolulic acid

(3) Ethanoic acid

CH3

(1)

(3)

(2)
OH

(4) All of these

44. In which of the following case Gabriel phthalimide


synthesis has fastest rate?
(1) CH3Br

(2)

Br

(4)

Br

O
OH

OH
O

(3)

C=O

(4) Propanoic acid

40. Which among the following has highest rate of


decarboxylation?
H

(4)

OH

(3)

Br

Space for Rough Work

7/13

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014


45. Which of the following compound with Hinsberg
reagent make soluble compound in KOH (aq)?
(1)

(2)

NH2

(3)

(4)

O2N

50. Which of the following is an example of


homopolymerisation?

(1) Nylon - 6, 6

(2) Nylon - 2, 6

(3) Nylon - 6

(4) Dacron

+
N

46. Which of the following combination is most


favourable for azo dye test?
(1)

Test - 7 (Paper-I)

OH

+
N N

HO

+
N N

51. If lysine is put in pH = 1 solution then which of the


following is present in solution?
(1)

+
H3N CH COOH
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 NH2

(2)

H2N CH COOH
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2

NH2

(2)

(3)

H2N

+
N N

CH3
N

(4)

NH3
+

+
N N

O2N

(3)

H3N CH COO

(4)

+
H3N CH COOH

+
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 NH3

CH3

47. Which of the following is equivalently basic as KOH,


in water?
(1) CH3NH2

(2) (CH3)2 NH

(3) (CH3)3N

(4)

CH3 4 NOH

48. Which of the following give Tollen's reagent test?


(1)

(3)

NH2

NO

(2)

(4)

NHOH

NO2

+
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 NH3

52. Which of the following amino acid is not a nonessential amino acid?
(1) Arginine

(2) Leucine

(3) Glycine

(4) Lysine

53. If glucose and galactose are used to produce


disaccharide then which of the following glycosidic
linkage form non reducing sugar?
(1) C1 C4

(2) C1 C1

(3) C1 C6

(4) C2 C1

54. Minimum number of carbon atoms present in a


carbohydrate is

49. Dacron is an example of

(1) 5

(2) 3

(1) Step growth polymer

(3) 4

(4) 6

(2) Copolymer

55. Aspartame is an example of

(3) Condensation polymer

(1) Sweetener

(2) Analgesic

(4) All of these

(3) Soap

(4) Antipyretic

Space for Rough Work

8/13

Test - 7 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

SECTION - II
Assertion Reason Type Questions
Directions : Questions number 56 to 60 are AssertionReason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
56. Statement-1 : On strong heating HCOOH fumes into
air completely without any residue.
and
Statement-2 : HCOOH is a monoprotic acid.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
57. Statement-1 : Secondary & Tertiary structure of
protein represent the biologically active form of
protein.
and
Statement-2 : Primary structure of protein only
predict the sequencing of amino acids in the
formation of polypeptide.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
58. Statement-1 : DiBAL H is used to produce imine
from nitrile.
and
Statement-2 : Hydrolysis of imine produces
aldehyde.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
59. Statement-1 : In water CH3NH2 is more basic than
(CH3)3 N.
and

Statement-2 : CH3 NH3 due to less steric


hinderence of methyl group cause better H-bonding
with H2O.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
60. Statement-1 : Teflon is used in non stick
coating.
and
Statement-2 : Teflon is an addition polymer.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Space for Rough Work

9/13

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Test - 7 (Paper-I)

PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.



65. Given
and
A i 2 j 3k, B i 2 j k




C 3i j . D is normal to both A and B . The



a
angle between of C and D is cos1
. Then a
30
is

61. The means of five observations is 4 and their


variance is 5.2. If three of the observations are 1, 2
and 6, then the other two are

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 1

(4) 2

(1) 2 and 9

(2) 3 and 8

66. A line segment has length 63 and direction ratios

(3) 4 and 7

(4) 5 and 6

3, 2, 6 . If the line makes an obtuse angle with

62. Sri Lanka cricket captain lost the toss of a coin 13


times out of 14. The chance of this happening was
(1) 7/213
(3) 13/214

(2)

1
213

67.

(4) 13/213

63. A determinant is chosen at random from the set of


all determinant of order 2 with elements 0, 1 or 2.
Find the probability that the value of determinant
chosen is zero
35
(1)
81

(3)

32
81

31
(2)
81

(4)

where a and b are co-primes, then a + b is


(4) 41201

(3) 27, 18, 54

(4) 27, 18, 54


^
( p i)2 ( p j)2 ( p k )2 , where | p | 4 , is equal

to
(1) 16

(2) 32

(3) 48

(4) 64

a
,
b

(3) | c | 2(a . b )

(2) | b | 2(a . c )

(4) 2 | a |( b . c )

69. If a number is selected out of the {15, 115, 215, 315,


..... 1515}. The probability that it is a divisor of 100!
is
2
3

(2)

9
16

(3) 1

(4)

5
8

(1)

Space for Rough Work

10/13

68. If a is parallel to b c then

(1) | a | 2(b . c )

probability that x.y is a number ending with 3 is

(3) 40601

(2) 27, 18, 54

64. A square is given in the co-ordinate system with


vertices (100, 100), (100, 100), (100, 100) and
(100, 100). A point inside or lying on the square is
selected with integral co-ordinates say (x, y). The

(2) 40401

(1) 27, 18, 54

(a b ).(a c ) (a b ).(a (b c )) is equal to

50
81

(1) 40501

x-axis, then the components of the vector are

Test - 7 (Paper-I)
70.

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

75. If 3f ( x ) f '( x ) and f (0) 4 then f (2) equals

| |2 | |2 is equal to

(1) 4

(1) 4.e4

(2) 0

(3) 2.e4

(4) 2 .

(3) 4 .

71. The differential equation f ( x )dy y f '( x ) y dx is


changed in the form d ( x, y ) 0 , then ( x, y ) is
(1)

f (x )
y
2

(2)

f (x)
x
y

(3)

f (x )
x
y

(4)

f (x)
y

72. The solution of the equation

(1)

= sin x

(3) x2 = sin y

(2)

y2

= 2 sin x

1 x 2 1 y 2 a( x y ) is
(2) 1 and 2

(3) 2 and 1

(4) 1 and not defined

74. The general solution of the differential equation

dy
xy
xy
sin
sin

is
dx
2
2
y
c 2 sin x
2

(2) log tan

y
x
c 2sin
4
2

(1) y =

x3
c
8

(2) y =

x3
c
4

(3) y =

x3
c
12

(4) y =

x3
c
16

78. If a variable takes discrete values x + 4,

(1) 1 and 1

(1) log tan

the hyperbola xy 4 orthogonally is

(4) x2 = 2 sin y

73. Order and degree of the differential equation


satisfying

(4) 4.e6
 
  
76. The vectors such that A . X 2 and A X B


where A and B are non zero perpendicular vectors.

Then X is
  
  
2A A B
A AB


(1)
(2)
| A |2
| A |2

 

 
A 2A B
A 2( A B )


(3)
(4)
2 | A |2
| A |2
77. The equation of the family of curves which intersects

sin x y
given y = 1 when x is
y ' cot x
2
2
y

y2

(2) 3.e6

7
5
1
1
x , x , x 3, x 2, x , x , x 5 (x > 0),
2
2
2
2
then the mean deviation about median is
(1)

5
2

(3) 2

(2)

5
4

(4) 3

79. If A and B are two independent events such that


P ( A B)

2
1
and P ( A B ) , then P(B) is
15
6

y
(3) log tan c 2 sin x
2 4

(1)

1
5

(2)

1
6

x
y
(4) log tan c 2sin
4
4 4

(3)

2
5

(4)

5
6

Space for Rough Work

11/13

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Test - 7 (Paper-I)

80. If one natural number is selected at random from


1 to 100. The probability that their sum of digits is
prime is

33
100

(1)

(2)

84. Consider the points A(5, 1, 1), B(7, 4, 7),


C(1, 6, 10) and D(1, 3, 4). Then ABCD is

35
100

(1) A square

(2) A rhombus

(3) A rectangle

(4) Not a plane figure

37
100

(3)

(4)

38
100

85.

 
 
81. The vectors c, a xi yj zk and b j are such
 

that a, c and b form a right handed system then

c can be
(1) zi xk


(2) o

(3) yj

(4) zi yk

1
4

(3)

1
8

(4)

1
16

(1) | L1 L2 |2

(2) | L1 L2 |

(4) L1 . L2

Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are AssertionReason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
86. Statement-1 : The differential equation of all circles
in a plane must be of order 3.
and

13
83. The equation of the curve passing through ,1
3
dx
1
y 2 is
the differential equation
dy
y

L2 L2

Assertion Reason Type Questions

x 0, y 0, z 0 (where a = xi yj zk )

(2)

L1 L2

is equal to

SECTION - II

82. If | a | =1 where a is a position vector. If a vector a


is selected at random. Find the probability that

1
2

L1 L2

(3) (L . L )2
1
2

(1)

L1 L1

Statement-2 : If three points are non-collinear and lie


in a plane, then only one circle always pass through
these points.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(2) 3y3 + 29y 6xy = 6

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(3) 3y3 + 29y + 6xy + 6 = 0

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) 3y3 29y 6xy 6 = 0

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(1) 3y3 + 29y + 6xy = 6

Space for Rough Work

12/13

Test - 7 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

87. Statement-1 : If A & B are exhaustive events


and P ( A )

89. Statement-1 : From the point P (1, 1,1), the normal


drawn to planes yz and zx are PA, PB, then the
equation of plane OAB is x + y z = 0.

1
1
1 1
, P (B ) P ( A B ) 1 .
2
2
2 2

and

and
P(A B) = P(A) + P(B).

Statement-2 : From the point P (a, b, c) where at


least two of a, b, c are non zero, the normals drawn
to planes yz and zx are PA, PB, then the equation
of plane OAB is bcx + acy abz =0.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Statement-2 : If A & B are exhaustive events

90. Statement-1 : If A and B are independent events

88. Statement-1 : If | a | = 1 then a will always represent


a circle.

then P ( A B ) P ( A / B ).P (B / A ) .
and

and

Statement-2 : If A and B are independent events

Statement-2 : x2 + y2 = 1 is the equation of a circle.

then P ( A B ) P( A) P (B ) .

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Space for Rough Work

13/13

Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014

TEST - 6 (Paper-I)
ANSWERS
PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

MATHEMATICS

1.

(4)

31.

(1)

61.

(2)

2.

(1)

32.

(3)

62.

(2)

3.

(2)

33.

(2)

63.

(3)

4.

(2)

34.

(4)

64.

(4)

5.

(1)

35.

(3)

65.

(3)

6.

(3)

36.

(2)

66.

(1)

7.

(4)

37.

(3)

67.

(3)

8.

(3)

38.

(3)

68.

(2)

9.

(2)

39.

(3)

69.

(1)

10.

(4)

40.

(1)

70.

(3)

11.

(3)

41.

(2)

71.

(2)

12.

(3)

42.

(4)

72.

(3)

13.

(3)

43.

(1)

73.

(2)

14.

(1)

44.

(3)

74.

(4)

15.

(2)

45.

(2)

75.

(4)

16.

(1)

46.

(3)

76.

(2)

17.

(1)

47.

(4)

77.

(3)

18.

(4)

48.

(4)

78.

(4)

19.

(1)

49.

(3)

79.

(3)

20.

(1)

50.

(2)

80.

(2)

21.

(1)

51.

(3)

81.

(3)

22.

(2)

52.

(2)

82.

(3)

23.

(1)

53.

(1)

83.

(4)

24.

(3)

54.

(4)

84.

(4)

25.

(1)

55.

(2)

85.

(2)

26.

(2)

56.

(2)

86.

(1)

27.

(4)

57.

(4)

87.

(1)

28.

(2)

58.

(3)

88.

(3)

29.

(1)

59.

(4)

89.

(4)

30.

(2)

60.

(3)

90.

(3)

1/11

Potrebbero piacerti anche