_

e. the daughter cells have identical genes and the

Name:
SN:
FINAL EXAMINATIONS in Biological Science

daughter cell has genes identical to those of the

mother cell that produced it.
____ 112. Strictly speaking, mitosis and meiosis are divisions of the
a. nucleus.
b. cytoplasm.
c.

chromosomes.

d. nucleus and chromosomes.

e. nucleus, cytoplasm, and chromosomes.
____

3. In mitosis, if a parent cell has 16 chromosomes, each

daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?
a. 64
b. 32
c.

16

d. 8
e. 4
____

4. If a parent cell has 16 chromosomes, how many sister

chromatids will be present after duplication of the
chromosomes?
a. 64
b. 32
c.

16

d. 8
e. 4
____

5. DNA replication occurs

a. between the gap phases of interphase.
b. immediately before prophase of mitosis.
c.

during prophase of mitosis.

d. during prophase of meiosis.

e. at any time during cell division.
____

6. The interval before the onset of DNA replication is

a. the G1 stage.
b. the G2 stage.
c.

the M stage.

d. the S stage.
e. all stages.
____

7. In which of the stages below does each chromosome

consist of two DNA molecules?

11. When a cell undergoes mitosis,

I.

metaphase

II.

telophase

III.

prophase

IV.

anaphase

a. the daughter cells have identical genes.

a. III and IV

b. the daughter cell has genes identical to those of the

b. I, III, and IV

c.

mother cell that produced it.

c.

the amount of cytoplasm in the mother cell and in

d. I, II, and III

each of the daughter cells is equal.

e. I, II, III, and IV

d. there is an exact duplication and division of all of ____

the
organelles between daughter cells.

I and III

8. The entire process of producing two cells from one cell

a. starts with prophase.

b. ends with cytokinesis.

c.

e. migration of chromosomes to opposite ends of the cell

results in the equal distribution of organelles between

____ cells.
15. Four of the five answers listed below are related by a

d. occurs only in multicellular organisms.

common phase of mitosis. Select the exception.

e. starts with prophase and ends with cytokinesis.

a. chromosomes align at the spindle equator

9. The chromosomes are moving to opposite poles during

b. sister chromatids become individual chromosomes

a. anaphase.

c.

b. metaphase.

d. chromosomes move apart

c.

e. spindle microtubules shorten, pulling chromosomes

interphase.

d. prophase.
e. telophase.

centromeres divide

toward the poles

____

10. The chromosomes have arrived at opposite poles during

16. If meiosis did NOT occur in sexually reproducing

organisms,

a. anaphase.

a. growth of the zygote would be halted.

b. metaphase.

b. mitosis would be sufficient.

c.

c.

interphase.

gametes would be haploid.

d. prophase.

d. the chromosome number would double in each generation.

e. telophase.

e. eggs would be haploid, but sperm would be diploid.

11. Which of the following statements is false?

____

17. Synapsis and crossing over occur during

a. Homologous chromosomes do not pair during mitosis.

a. anaphase I.

b. Genes and chromosomes are duplicated during

b. metaphase II.

c.

prophase.

c.

There is a specific number of chromosomes for each

d. prophase II.

species.

e. telophase II.

d. New nuclei are formed during telophase.

____

12. Which of the following statements is true?

18. Crossing over

a. generally results in synapsis and binary fission.

a. After the centromere divides, the chromatids are called

chromosomes.

b. involves nucleoli.
c.

b. Centromeres are separated during anaphase.

c.

d. alters the composition of chromosomes and results in

other while others shorten.

new combinations of alleles being channeled into the

d. Telophase is essentially the reverse of the events of

prophase.
____

II.

telophase

III.

prophase

IV.

anaphase

19. Crossing over is one of the most important events in

meiosis because

mitosis?
metaphase

daughter cells.
e. all of these

13. Which of the following is the proper sequence for

I.

a. it produces new arrays of alleles on chromosomes.

b. homologous chromosomes must be separated into
different daughter cells.
c.

d. homologous chromatids must be separated into

b. I, II, III, IV

different daughter cells.

III, I, IV, II

d. IV, I, III, II

the number of chromosomes allotted to each daughter

cell must be halved.

a. I, III, IV, II
c.

involves breakages and exchanges between sister

chromatids.

During anaphase, some microtubules ratchet past each

e. all of these

prophase I.

e. all of these
____

e. III, IV, I, II
14. Four of the five answers listed below are events

20. Which of the following does NOT occur in prophase I of

meiosis?
a. cytokinesis

occurring during mitosis. Select the exception.

b. tetrad formation

a. chromosome replication

c.

b. division of centromere

d. crossing over

c.

e. condensation of chromatin

lining up of chromosomes at the cellular equator

d. attachment of spindle microtubules to centromeres

synapsis

21. The period that may occur between meiosis I and

a. parents.

meiosis II is called

b. genotypes.

a. cytokinesis.

c.

b. interkinesis.

d. alleles.

c.

e. genes.

synapsis.

d. reduction division.

____

phenotypes.

29. If all offspring of a cross have the genotype Aa, the

e. karyokinesis.

parents of the crosses would most likely be

a. AA x aa.

22. During meiosis II,

a. cytokinesis results in the formation of a total of two cells.

b. Aa x Aa.

b. sister chromatids of each chromosome are separated

c.

c.

Aa x aa.

from each other.

d. AA x Aa.

homologous chromosomes synapse.

e. none of these

d. homologous chromosomes separate.

____

e. sister chromatids exchange parts.

30. Short hair (L) is dominant to long hair (l). If a short-haired

animal of unknown origin is crossed with a long-haired

23. Which of the following does NOT produce variation?

animal and they produce one long-haired and one short-

a. crossing over

haired offspring, this would indicate that

b. random alignment of chromosomes during meiosis

a. the short-haired animal was pure-breeding.

c.

b. the short-haired animal was not pure-breeding.

asexual reproduction

d. genetic recombination of alleles

c.

e. sexual reproduction

d. the long-haired animal was pure-breeding.

24. In comparing mitosis and meiosis, which of the following

statements is true?

____

the long-haired animal was not pure-breeding.

e. none of these can be determined with two offspring.

31. The theory of segregation

a. Meiosis I is more like mitosis than is meiosis II.

a. deals with the alleles governing two different traits.

b. Both processes result in four cells.

b. applies only to linked genes.

c.

c.

Synapsis occurs in both.

applies only to sex-linked genes.

d. Chromatids are present only in mitosis.

d. explains the behavior of a pair of alleles during meiosis.

e. Meiosis II resembles mitosis.

e. none of these

25. Which of the following genotypes is homozygous?

____

32. If short hair (L) is dominant to long hair (l), then what

a. AaBB

fraction of the offspring produced by a cross of Ll x ll will

b. aABB

be homozygous dominant?

aaBB

a. 1/2

d. aaBb

b. 1/4

e. AaBb

c.

c.

26. The most accurate description of an organism with

d. none (no chance of this offspring)

genotype AaBb is
a. homozygous dominant.

1/3

e. none of these is correct

____

33. In a cross involving plants with round/wrinkled seeds,

b. heterozygous.

yellow/green pods, and tall/dwarf stems, the researcher

c.

is actually observing __________ traits.

heterozygous dominant.

d. homozygous recessive.

a. 4

e. heterozygous recessive.

b. 3

27. If R is dominant to r, the offspring of the cross of RR with

c.

rr will

d. 12

a. be homozygous.

e. none of these

b. display the same phenotype as the RR parent.

c.

____

display the same phenotype as the rr parent.

34. Some dogs have erect ears; others have drooping ears.
Some dogs bark when following a scent; others are

d. have the same genotype as the RR parent.

silent. Erect ears and barking are due to dominant

e. have the same genotype as the rr parent.

alleles located on different chromosomes. If two

28. If short hair (L) is dominant to long hair (l), animals LL

and Ll have the same

dihybrids are crossed,

a. the most common phenotype is drooping ears and

barking.

d. it is impossible to reach a decision based on the limited

b. all droopy-eared silent dogs are pure-breeding.

c.

data available.

the least common phenotype is drooping ears and

barking.

____

e. none of these
40. If a child has an AB blood type, the parents

d. there will be no phenotypes or genotypes that

a. must both have different blood types.

resemble the original parents.

b. must be A and B, but not AB.

e. there will be no offspring that resemble the F1 generation.

35. Mendel's theory of independent assortment states that
a. one allele is always dominant to another.

c.

must both be AB.

d. can be any blood type.

e. can have different blood types, but neither can be blood type

b. hereditary units from the male and female parents____

are 41. Blood types (A, B, and O) are controlled by
c.

blended in the offspring.

a. sex-linked genes.

the two hereditary units that influence a certain trait

b. linked genes.

segregate during gamete formation.

c.

d. each hereditary unit is inherited separately from other

hereditary units.
e. all of these

incompletely dominant genes.

d. multiple alleles.
e. none of these

____

36. An individual with a genetic makeup of aa BB is said to

42. Four of the five answers listed below are pure-breeding.

Select the exception.

be

a. AA BB

a. pure-breeding.

b. Aa BB

b. recessive.

c.

c.

d. aa BB

hybrid.

e. aa bb

d. dihybrid.
e. heterozygous.

AA bb

____

37. Roan cattle are the heterozygous hybrids of a cross

43. Plants need which of the following to carry on

photosynthesis?

between a white bull and a red cow. If a roan bull were

a. H2O

crossed with a red cow, their offspring would show which

b. CO2

of the following ratios?

c.

a. all roan

d. lipid

b. 1 red:2 roan:1 white

e. H2O and CO2.

c.

1 red:1 white

____

O2

44. The conversion of solar energy to chemical energy

d. 1 red:1 roan

occurs during

e. all roan

a. glycolysis.

38. In incomplete dominance,

b. photosynthesis.

a. one allele is not dominant to another allele.

c.

b. the genotype can be determined by the phenotype.

d. fermentation.

c.

e. chemosynthesis.

the heterozygote is somewhat intermediate to the two

homozygotes.

____

d. the intermediate phenotype may be the result of

enzyme insufficiency.
e. all of these
39. Susan, a mother with type B blood, has a child with type
O blood. She claims that Craig, who has type A blood, is
the father. He claims that he cannot possibly be the ____

respiration.

45. The oxygen released in photosynthesis comes from

a. carbon dioxide.
b. glucose.
c.

ribulose bisphosphate.

d. water.
e. atmospheric oxygen.
46. The internal membrane system of the chloroplast is

father. Further blood tests ordered by the judge reveal

called a

that Craig is AA. The judge rules that

a. thylakoid.

a. Susan is right and Craig must pay child support.

b. stroma.

b. Craig is right and doesn't have to pay child support.

c.

c.

Susan cannot be the real mother of the child; there

d. mitochondrion.

must have been an error made at the hospital.

e. tracheid.

lamella.

47. Which of the following is NOT associated with the lightdependent reactions?

____

e. none of these
54. An important electron and hydrogen acceptor in the

a. ATP

noncyclic pathway is

b. thylakoids

a. NADP+.

c.

b. ADP.

chlorophyll

d. stroma

c.

e. water

d. H2O.

48. Thylakoid disks are stacked in groups called

a. grana.

O2.

e. none of these
____

55. ATP is formed when __________ the thylakoid

b. stroma.

compartment.

c.

a. hydrogen ions enter

lamellae.

d. cristae.

b. electrons leave

e. none of these

c.

49. Actual assembly of sugars during photosynthesis

d. electrons enter

a. occurs during light-independent reactions.

b. takes place in the stroma.
c.

e. water is split in
____

requires chlorophyll.
place in the stroma.

a. presence of carbon dioxide

b. exposure of the plant to light

e. occurs during light-independent reactions, takes place

in the stroma, and requires chlorophyll.

c.

presence of ribulose bisphosphate

d. presence of ATP and NADPH

50. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

e. presence of required enzymes

____

b. The longer the wavelength of light, the more energy

c.

56. All but which condition must be present for lightindependent reactions to occur?

d. occurs during light-independent reactions and takes

a. Photons are packages of solar energy.

hydrogen ions leave

57. Which of the following statements is not true?

a. Global biodiversity is greater than ever.

it has.

b. The diversity of biological species is lower than ever.

Chlorophyll absorbs energy from light.

c.

d. Photons with different energy levels produce different

d. Some scientists believe an extinction crisis is currently

colors.
e. Visible light is a very small portion of the

Extinction is a continuing process.

underway.

____

electromagnetic spectrum.

58. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the

current extinction crisis?

51. The first event in photosynthesis is the

a. asteroid impact

a. formation of phosphoglyceric acid.

b. human activity

b. donation of an electron from the photosystem to an

c.

c.

adaptive radiation

acceptor.

d. tectonic activity

fixation of carbon dioxide.

e. climate change

d. breakdown of the thylakoid membrane.

____

e. formation of phosphoglyceraldehyde.

59. Endemic means a species

a. originated in one geographic region and lives nowhere else.

52. Chlorophyll reflects (does not absorb) which color of

b. could cause an epidemic at any time.

light?

c.

a. red

d. can live in only one habitat.

b. yellow

e. is extinct.

c.

orange

____

is on its way to extinction.

60. Which of the following would NOT be a contributing

d. green

factor in species extinction?

e. blue

a. habitat loss

53. Where in a plant cell is chlorophyll found?

b. overharvesting

a. on the outer chloroplast membrane

c.

b. inside the mitochondria

d. conservation biology

c.

e. illegal wildlife trading

in the stroma

d. in the thylakoids

habitat fragmentation

61. Three of the four answers listed below are approaches

____
to biodiversity conservation. Select the exception.

76. Condensation and shortening of chromosomes occurs

during this phase.

a. riparian ranching

____

77. Spindle fibers first appear during this stage.

b. strip logging

____

78. During this phase the centromeres break apart as the

c.

introduction of exotic species

separated sister chromatids begin to move to opposite

d. research on species hot spots

62. Four of the five answers listed below can become
threats to species survival. Select the exception.

poles.
____

79. The microtubular spindle develops during this phase.

____

80. Sister chromatids joined at their centromeres are

a. habitat losses

attached to spindle fibers during this phase.

b. introduction of exotic species

c. overharvesting

____

81. Cytokinesis occurs as this phase of mitosis proceeds.

d. illegal wildlife trading

____

82. New daughter nuclear membranes form during this

e. strip logging

phase.

Matching

Some of the stages of meiosis are listed under a-e

a. cytoplasm apportioned between the two daughter cells

below. Answer the following questions with reference to

b. final phase of mitosis; daughter nuclei re-form

these phases of meiosis.

c.

a. prophase I

two sister chromatids are joined here

d. chromosomes condense and mitotic spindle begins to

form

b. prophase II
c.

metaphase II

e. chromosomes line up at spindle equator

d. anaphase I

f.

e. telophase I

sister chromatids separate, move to opposite spindle

poles now

____

g. about 25 nm in diameter; form mitotic spindle

h. half of a chromosome in prophase
i.

stage.
____

in pairs in some eukaryotic cells; move to poles during

spindle formation

83. The formation of tetrads by synapsis occurs during this

____

84. Recombination via crossing over occurs during this

stage.
85. By the end of this phase, the number of homologous

63. centriole

64. centromere

65. chromatid

66. cytokinesis

____

87. Following this phase, each individual cell is haploid.

67. metaphase

____

88. Chiasmata are present during this stage.

68. microtubules

____

89. During this phase, the centromeres separate.

69. prophase

____

90. New genetic combinations, upon which natural selection

70. telophase

71. anaphase

chromosomes is reduced in half.

____

separate.

The stages of mitosis plus interphase are listed under

a-e below. Answer the following questions with
reference to these phases.
a. interphase
b. prophase
c.

metaphase

d. anaphase
e. telophase
72. During this stage homologous pairs of chromosomes are
lined up on the equatorial plate.

73. Chromosomes replicate during this phase.

74. Genes replicate during this phase.

75. DNA replicates during this phase.

86. During this stage, the sister chromatids begin to

can act, is present after this stage.