Q 1: Which of the following is not seen in unilateral injury to hypoglossal

nerve?
(A) Hemiatrophy of involved side
(B) Deviation of tongue towards the same side
(C) Loss of taste sensation of the affected side of tongue
(D) Fasciulation of the tongue
Correct Answer: Loss of taste sensation of the affected side of tongue

Q 2: Which of the following muscle is not involved in damage of

craninal part of accessory nerve:
(A) Cricopharyngeus
(B) Palatopharyngeus
(C) Stylopharyngeus
(D) Salpingopharyngeus
Correct Answer: Stylopharyngeus
Q 3: Which of the following is true?
(A) Hypothalamus is part of brainstem
(B) Occipital lobe is part of cerebral cortex
(C) Medulla is part of limbic system
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: Occipital lobe is part of cerebral cortex
Q 4: Which of the following is true?
(A) Hypothalamus is part of brainstem
(B) Occipital lobe is part of cerebral cortex
(C) Medulla is part of limbic system
(D) All of the above

Next Question Finish Later

Correct Answer:
Occipital lobe is part of cerebral cortex
Q 5: Cervical vertebra is differentiated from the thoracic verterbra by the
presence of:
(A) Large vertebral body
(B) Upwards facing facets
(C) Triangular for amina
(D) Foramen transversarium
Get Result Check Answer
Correct Answer:
Foramen transversarium
Q 1: In a pregnan tfemale, there is decreased requirement of the
spinal anaesthetic agent because of all of the following except:
(A) Exaggerated lumbar lordosis
(B) Decreased volume of sub arachnoid space
(C) Engorgement of epidural veins
(D) Increased sensitivity of the nerves to anaesthetic agent
Correct Answer: Exaggerated lumbar lordosis
Q 2: Which of the following is not seen in scoline apnea?
(A) It is due to succinylcholine
(B) It can be inherited
(C) Patients usually do not die of scoline apne they are properly managed
(D) It occurs due to deficiency of cholinesterase
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:
It occurs due to deficiency of cholinesterase

Explanation: Q 3: A 40-year female has to undergo incisional surgery under

general anesthesia. She complains of awaken during her past cesarean
section. Which of the following monitoring techniques can be used to prevent
such awareness?
(A) Color Doppler
(B) Bispectral index monitoring
(C) Transesophageal echocardiography
(D) Pulse plethysmography
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:
Bispectral index monitoring
Explanation:
Q 4: A patient presented with blunt trauma to the abdomen to the emergency
department. His pulse rate is 150/min and his BP is 80/50 mm Hg. scheduled
to undergo an emergency laparotomy. Which of the following is the
anesthetic of choice?
(A) Thiopentone
(B) Midazolam
(C) Ketamine
(D) Propofol
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:
Ketamine
Explanation
Q 5: A patient presented with blunt trauma to the abdomen to the
emergency department. His pulse rate is 150/min and his BP is 80/50
mm Hg. scheduled to undergo an emergency laparotomy. Which of
the following is the anesthetic of choice?
(A) Thiopentone
(B) Midazolam

(C) Ketamine
(D) Propofol
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:
Ketamine
Q 6: A 32-year old male with no past medical history is brought to
the emergency department after being injured in a bomb blast. On
examination he is suspected to have a splenic injury and is supposed
to undergo an emergency laparotomy. Which of the following is the
ideal anaesthetic agent of choice?
(A) Remifentanil
(B) Morphine
(C) Etomidate
(D) Halothane
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:
Etomidate
Explanatio
Q 7: The most important constituent in soda lime for reabsorption of
CO2 in a closed circuit is:
(A) Sodium hydroxide
(B) Barium hydroxide
(C) Calcium hydroxide
(D) Potassium hydroxide
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:
Calcium hydroxide
Q 8: Maximum dose of lignocaine with adrenaline for local blocks in
ophthalmic surgeries is:

(A) 3 mg/kg
(B) 5 mg/kg
(C) 7 mg/kg
(D) 10 mg/kg
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:
3 mg/kg
Q 9: A 10-year old child is undergoing squint surgery. He suddenly
developed increased heart rate, arrhythmia, high fever, metabolic
and respiratory acidosis on arterial blood gases and elevation of end
tidal CO2. Which of the following would be the first agent of choice
in the management of this condition?
(A) Dantrolene
(B) Paracetamol
(C) Procainamide
(D) Sodium bicarbonate
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:
Paracetamol
Q 10: A 26-year old primigravida with severe rheumatic heart disease (mitral
stenosis with mitral regurgitation) is in early labour. The obstetrician wants to
try a normal labour. Which of the following is the ideal intervention for labour
analgesia?
(A) Parenteral opioids
(B) Neuraxial analgesia
(C) Inhalational analgesia
(D) Spinal anaesthesia
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:

Neuraxial analgesia
Explanation:
Q 11: The laryngoscope shall be held in which hand by a right handed person
for the purpose of intubation?
(A) Right hand
(B) Left hand
(C) Either
(D) Neither
Get Result Check Answer
Correct Answer:
Either
Q 1: Gluconeogenesis in fasting state is stimulated by:
(A) Pyruvate kinase stimulated by citrate
(B) Activation of pyruvate carboxylase by acetyl Co-A
(C) Activation of pyruvate kinase by fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
(D) Stimulation of phosphofructokinase-1 by fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:
Activation of pyruvate carboxylase by acetyl Co-A
Explanation:
Dashboard > Test Ques 2 of 5
Q 2: In humans, the genetic code is represented by code of three
nucleotides. If one amino acid is coded by more than one triplet,
then this is known as:
(A) Degeneracy
(B) Frame-shift mutation
(C) Ambiguity

(D) Mutation
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:
Degeneracy
Q 3: Which of the following is true regarding Fluorescence?
(A) Spontaneous illumination in dark
(B) Release of longer wavelength light on absorbing light of shorter
wavelength
(C) Release of shorter wavelength light on absorbing light of longer
wavelength
(D) Continuous emission of lights of different wavelength
Correct Answer: Release of longer wavelength light on absorbing light of
shorter wavelength
Q 4: DNA estimation can be done by:
(A) Spirometer
(B) Spectrophotometer
(C) pH meter
(D) Sphygmomanometer
Correct Answer: Spectrophotomete
Q 5: In porphyrias, which of the following enzyme defects does not
lead to photosensitivity?
(A) Uroporphyrinogen synthase
(B) Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
(C) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
(D) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
Correct Answer: Uroporphyrinogen synthase
Q 1: Ventricular depolarization starts from:
(A) Posterolateral area of ventricle

(B) Base of left ventricle

(C) Right part of interventricular septum
(D) Left part of interventricular septum
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:
Left part of interventricular septum
Explanation:
Q 2: During moderate exercise, blood flow to brain:
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Does not change
(D) First increase, then decreases
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:
Does not change
Explanation:
Q 3: All of the following are true about action of ADH, except:
(A) Post-operative increase in secreation
(B) Secreted via neurosecreation
(C) Increased secretion when plasma osmolality is low
(D) Act on distal convoluted tuble and increase permeability
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:
Increased secretion when plasma osmolality is low
Q 4: Which scienctifc principle is the basis for thermodilution method
used in measurement of cardiac output by pulmonary catheter?
(A) Hagen-Poisseuile principle

(B) Stewart-Hamilton equation

(C) Bernoulis principle
(D) Universal Gas Equation
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:
Stewart-Hamilton equation
Dashboard > Test Ques 5 of 179
Q 5: Which of the following is correct about adult critical closing
volume is?
(A) Volume measured at the end of forceful expiration
(B) Volume at the end of forceful inspiration
(C) Volume remaining after functional residual capacity is measured
(D) Close to residual volume
Correct Answer: Close to residual volume
Q 6: CSF pressure is mainly regulated by:
(A) Rate of CSF formation
(B) Rate of CSF absorption
(C) Cerebral blood flow
(D) Venous pressure
Correct Answer: Rate of CSF absorption
Q 7: In right handed individuals, the left cerebral hemisphere is
more developed than the right cerebral hemisphere. The left
cerebral hemisphere is mainly responsible for:
(A) Appreciation of music
(B) Spatial orientation
(C) Visual stimuli processing
(D) Written and spoken language

Correct Answer: Written and spoken language

Q 8: In Lewis Triple Response, redness when skin is scratched with a
pointed object is seen due to:
(A) Axon reflex causing vasoconstriction
(B) Histamine release due to local injury to mast cells
(C) Free nerve endings injury
(D) Endothelial damage leading to increase in permeability
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:
Histamine release due to local injury to mast cells
Explanation:
Q 9: If the external causes are removed, the sleep-wake cycle in
humans:
(A) Does not continue
(B) Continue with cycle length of 24 hours
(C) Continue with cycle length of less than 24 hours
(D) Continue with cycle length of more than 24 hours
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:
Continue with cycle length of more than 24 hours
Explanation:
Q 10: Which of the following is seen in pneumothorax?
(A) Over expanded chest wall
(B) Reduced concentration of surfactant
(C) More negative itrapleural pressure
(D) Increased lung compliance
Correct Answer: Reduced concentration of surfactant

Q 11: In humans, the brain is considered to be responsive:

(A) It has control centers for all motor actions and sensory inputs
(B) Every cell of brain has got specific function
(C) It is a closed system and so not influenced by changes occurring outside
(D) Its functions are profoundly affected by changes in external environment
Correct Answer: Its functions are profoundly affected by changes in external
environment

Q 12: A young female patient came for routine examination. On

examination a mid systolic click was found. There is no history of
RHD. The histopathological examination is most likely to show:
(A) Myxomatous degeneration and prolapse of the mitral valve
(B) Fibrinous deposition on the tip of papillary muscle
(C) Rupture of chordae tendinae
(D) Aschoff nodule on the mitral valve
Correct Answer: Myxomatous degeneration and prolapse of the mitral valve
Q 13: Which of the following is the characteristic of irreversible
injury on electron microscopy?
(A) Disruption of ribosomes
(B) Amorphous densities in mitochondria
(C) Swelling of Endoplasmic reticulum
(D) Cell swelling
Correct Answer: Amorphous densities in mitochondria
Q 14: Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Chronic myeloid leukemia occurs beyond 50 years of age
(B) Hairy cell leukemia in less than 50 years has a good prognosis
(C) Acute lymphoid leukemia in less than one year has a poor prognosis
(D) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia occurs in h than 50 years of age

Correct Answer: Acute lymphoid leukemia in less than one year has a poor
prognosis
Q 15: Which of the following regarding Bombay blood group is false?
(A) Lack of H, A and B antigen on RBCs
(B) Lack of H, A and B substance in saliva
(C) Lack of antigens of several blood group systems
(D) H, A and B antibody will always be present in serum
Correct Answer: Lack of antigens of several blood group systems
Q 16: Hematopoetic stem cell differ from progenitor stem cell in that
they can:
(A) Form terminally differentiated cells
(B) Have a role in bone marrow regeneration
(C) Produce growth factors
(D) Have receptors for anchoring proteins
Correct Answer: Have a role in bone marrow regeneration
Q 17: In an ablated animal, myeloid series cells are injected. Which
of following is seen after incubation period?
(A) RBCs
(B) Fibroblasts
(C) T lymphocytes
(D) Hematopoetic stem cells
Correct Answer: RBCs
Q 18: The role of bradykinin in process of inflammation is:
(A) Vasoconstriction
(B) Bronchodilation
(C) Pain
(D) Increased vascular permeability

Correct Answer: Increased vascular permeability

Q 19: A 23-year-old female presented with jaundice and pallor for 2
months. Her peripheral blood smear shows the presence of
spherocytes. The most relevant investigation to arrive at a diagnosis
is:
(A) Reticulocyte count
(B) Osmotic fragility test
(C) Coombs test
(D) Tests fro PNH
Correct Answer: Coombs test
Q 20: The fixative used in histopathology:
(A) 10% buffered neutral formalin
(B) Bouins fixative
(C) Glutaraldehyde
(D) Ethyl alcohol
Correct Answer: 10% buffered neutral formalin
Q 21: A newborn baby presented with profuse bleeding from the
umbilical stump after birth. Rest of the examination and PT, APTT
are within normal limits. Most of probable diagnosis is:
(A) Factor X deficiency
(B) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
(C) von-Willebrand disease
(D) Bernard-Soulier disease
Correct Answer: Factor X deficienc
Q 22: HLA antigens observed on ocular dendritic cells are:
(A) Class I
(B) Class II
(C) Class I and II

(D) None
Correct Answer: Class I and II
Q 23: Which of the following statements about anti- epileptics is
false?
(A) Phenytoin and carbamazepine act by prolonging Na+ channel activation
(B) Carbamazepine is also used in trigeminal neuralgias
(C) Diazepam is an anti-epileptic
(D) Lamotrigine acts by GABA mediated Cl- channel opening
Correct Answer: Phenytoin and carbamazepine act by prolonging Na+
channel activation
Q 24: Despite their short half-lives (2 hours), Proton pump Inhibitors
(PPIs) cause a prolonged suppression of acid secretion (up to 48
hours) because:
(A) They are prodrugs and undergo activation gradually
(B) They exit from the plasma and enter acid secretory canaliculi and stay
there, blocking the secretion of acid for a long time
(C) They irreversibly inhibit the proton pump molecule and hence, acid
secretion requires synthesis of new proton pumps
(D) They are available as enteric coated capsules, from which drug is
gradually released
Correct Answer: They irreversibly inhibit the proton pump molecule and
hence, acid secretion requires synthesis of new proton pumps
Q 25: True about first order kinetics is:
(A) A constant amount is eliminated in unit time
(B) The half-life increases with an increase in dose
(C) The rate of elimination is constant
(D) The rate of elimination is proportional to the plasma concentration
Correct Answer: The rate of elimination is proportional to the plasma
concentration
Q 26: Drug-induced colitis is most frequently associated with:

(A) Neomycin
(B) Vancomycin
(C) Clindamycin
(D) Chloramphenicol
Correct Answer: Clindamycin
Q 27: A female treatment for depression took a massive dose of
amitriptyline for suicide. Which of the following is wrong regarding
management for her?
(A) Gastric lavage was done
(B) Sodium bicarbonate was administered to treat acidosis
(C) Atropine sulphate was administered as an antidote
(D) Diazepam was injected to control seizures.
Correct Answer: Atropine sulphate was administered as an antidote
Q 28: All of the following can cause SLE-like syndrome except:
(A) INH
(B) Penicillin
(C) Hydralazine
(D) Sulphonamide
Correct Answer:
PenicillinExplanation:
Q 29: The drug that is not banned for players by the International
Olympic Committee (IOC)
(A) Salbutamol
(B) Sodium chromoglycate
(C) Erythropoietin
(D) Spironolactone
Correct Answer: Sodium chromoglycate

Q 30: Which of the following traditional medicines is effective in the

treatment of heart failure?
(A) Terminalia Arjuna
(B) Neem bark extract
(C) St. Johns wort
(D) Gingkoba biloba
Correct Answer: Terminalia Arjuna
Q 31: Sputum can be disinfected by all except:
(A) Auto claving
(B) Boiling
(C) Cresol
(D) Chlorhexidine
Correct Answer: Chlorhexidine
Q 32: In a 4-year old boy who has history of pyogenic infections by
bacteria with polysaccharide-rich capsules, which of the following
investigations should be done?
(A) IgA deficiency
(B) IgG1 deficiency
(C) IgG2 deficiency
(D) IgA and IgG2 deficiency
Correct Answer: IgA and IgG2 deficiency
Q 33: An abbatoir worker presented with a pustule on his hand that
progressed to form an ulcer. Smear is taken from the ulcer and sent
to laboratory for investigation. Which of the following is the best
stain to determine the causative agent of the ulcer?
(A) Polychrome methylene blue
(B) Kinyouns acid fast
(C) Periodic acid schiff
(D) Calcoflour white

Correct Answer: Polychrome methylene blue

Q 34: With reference to antibiotic resistance all of following
statements are true except:
(A) The most common mechanism is production of neutralizing enzymes by
bacteria
(B) Plasmid mediated resistance is exclusively transferred vertically
(C) Complete elimination of target is the mechanism by which enterococci
develop resistance to vancomycin
(D) Alteration of target lesions leads to development of resistance to
antibiotics in Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Plasmid mediated resistance is exclusively transferred
vertically
Q 35: A person presents with pneumonia. His sputum was sent for
culture. The bacterium obtained was gram positive cocci in chains
and alpha haemolytic colonies on sheep agar. Which of the following
will help in confirming the diagnosis?
(A) Novobiocin
(B) Optochin
(C) Bacitracin
(D) Oxacillin
Correct Answer: Optochin
Q 36: A young male patient presented to OPD with urethral
discharge. On urine examination pus cells were found but not
organisms. Which method would be the best for culture?
(A) McCoy cell line
(B) Thayer Martin medium
(C) PPLO broth
(D) Cooked meat medium
Correct Answer: McCoy cell line
Q 37: Synthesis of an immunoglobulin in membrane bound or
secretory form is determined by:

(A) Carbohydrate content

(B) Class switching
(C) Differential RNA processing
(D) Allelic exclusion
Correct Answer: Differential RNA processing
Q 38: Choking is associated with which of the following firearm?
(A) Revolver
(B) Pistol
(C) Shotgun
(D) Rifle
Correct Answer: Shotgun
Q 38: A person died due to bullet injury. On post-mortem
examination, a metallic bullet was found in his body. This bullet
showed the presence of primary and secondary markings. These
markings can be used for:
(A) Identification of weapon
(B) Knowing the range of firing
(C) Severity of tissue damage
(D) Knowing the time of crime
Correct Answer: Identification of weapon
Q 39: A patient committed suicide by shooting a bullet into his right
temple. On post-mortem examination, the skull was burst open.
There was charring and cherry red discoloration along the track of
bullet and the weapon was firmly clasped in the right hand of
deceased. The bullet was fired from what distance?
(A) Contact shot
(B) Close shot at a distance of one feet from hand
(C) Shot within range of smoking
(D) Shot within range of tattooing

Correct Answer: Contact shot

Q 40: A young female presented with consumption of some
substance in the emergency department. Greenish blue froth was
seen coming out of her nostrils and oral cavity. The poisoning is
most likely due to which of the following?
(A) Arsenic poisoning
(B) Copper poisoning
(C) Mercury poisoning
(D) Lead poisoning
Correct Answer: Copper poisoning
Q 41: There is a case of infanticide. During the post-mortem
examination, the doctor performs Breslaus second life test. This
test detects changes in which of the following organ?
(A) Brain
(B) Heart
(C) Lung
(D) Stomach and intestine
Correct Answer: Stomach and intestine
Q 42: Last organ to be dissected during autopsy in death caused by
asphyxia is:
(A) Neck
(B) Head
(C) Abdomen
(D) Thorax
Correct Answer: Neck
Q 43: A 32-year old adult male broke the jaw of another in an alleged
fight. The investigating police officer:
(A) Can arrest him only after procuring warrant
(B) Can arrest him without warrant

(C) May declare him hostile and put him in jail

(D) May declare him sociopath and send him to mental asylum
Correct Answer: Can arrest him without warrant
Q 44: Muscles are observed in a burns deceased. This indicates that the
person is exposed to intense heat above what temperature?
(A) 30C
(B) 40C
(C) 50C
(D) 60C
Correct Answer: 60
Q 45: Active partner in lesbianism is called as:
(A) Femme
(B) Bugger
(C) Catamite
(D) Dyke
Correct Answer: Dyke
Q 46: A patient died during surgery. The relatives allege that death was due
to negligence. According to a recent Supreme Court judgment, doctor can be
charged for Medical Negligence under section 304-A, only if:
(A) There is corporate negligence
(B) Negligence is from inadvertent error
(C) There is gross negligence
(D) It falls under the doctrine of Res Ipsa Loquitor
Next Question Finish Later
Correct Answer:
There is gross negligence
Explanation:

Q 47: A patient comes with pinpoint pupil, salivation, tremors and

red tears. cholinesterase activity was 30% of Normal. Probable
diagnosis is:
(A) Opium
(B) Organophosphate poisoning
(C) Dhatura
(D) Organochlorine pesticide poisoning
Correct Answer: Organophosphate poisoning
Q 48: In a case of alcohol intoxication, motor incordination and
judgment errors occur at blood alcohol levels of:
(A) 30-80 mg/dL
(B) 80-200 mg/dL
(C) 200-300 mg/dL
(D) 300 mg/dL
Correct Answer: 80-200 mg/dL
Q 49: A young male presented with abdominal pain for the past 2
years. He also complains of weakness in his hands. His hemoblobin
level was 8 gm/dL. The most likely diagnosis:
(A) Lead poisoning
(B) Lead poisoning
(C) Carcinoma stomach
(D) Adenomatous polyposis coli
Correct Answer: Lead poisoning
Q 50: In WHO Road to Health chart, upper and lower limit of
represents:
(A) 30 percentile for boys and 3 percentile for girls
(B) 50 percentile for boys and 3 percentile for girls
(C) 30 percentile for boys and 5 percentile for girls
(D) 30 percentile for boys and 5 percentile for girls

Correct Answer: 50 percentile for boys and 3 percentile for girls

Q 51: According to ICMR guidelines, what is the daily protein
requirement of a girl age group 13-15 years of age?
(A) 0.8 gms
(B) 0.95 gms
(C) 1.0 gms
(D) 1.33 gms
Correct Answer: 0.95 gms
Q 52: Common to both acute and chronic malnutrition is:
(A) Weight for age
(B) Weight for height
(C) Height for age
(D) BMI
Correct Answer: Weight for age
Q 53: Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna is:
(A) Low cost insurance scheme by general insurance companies
(B) Industry associated insurance scheme meant for workers
(C) Government health insurance scheme meant for the poor
(D) Central government insurance scheme for employees
Correct Answer: Government health insurance scheme meant for the poor
Q 54: According to Vision 2020, the recommendations for secondary
care services including cataract surgery is:
(A) 1 service center for 5000 population
(B) 1 service center for 50,000 population
(C) 1 service center for 5,00,000 population
(D) 1 service center for 50,00,000 population
Correct Answer: 1 service center for 5,00,000 population

Q 55: Leprosy is not targeted for global eradication because:

(A) No effective vaccine
(B) Highly infectious but low pathogenicity
(C) Only humans are reservoir
(D) Long incubation period
Correct Answer: Highly infectious but low pathogenicity
Q 56: Which of the following is true regarding role played by social
worker?
(A) Health professional responsible for functional evaluation and activities of
the patient
(B) Health professional responsible for instituting therapeutic exercises and
mobility training of the patient
(C) Health professional involved in the patients personal role performance,
interpersonal skills and family functions
(D) Health professional establishes and sustains the people with disability
for employment
Correct Answer: Health professional involved in the patients personal role
performance, interpersonal skills and family functions
Q 57: The re-evaluation of a case of acute flaccid paralysis for
residual paralysis for the purpose of AFP surveillance is done after
how many days?
(A) 60 days
(B) 90 days
(C) 6 months
(D) 1 year
Correct Answer: 60 days
Q 58: Bias can be eliminated by all except:
(A) Matching
(B) Blinding

(C) Randomization
(D) Multivariate analysis
Correct Answer: Multivariate analysis
Q 59: A study found that an inverse relation exists between
consumption of vegetables containing beta-carotene and
development of cancer. This finding could also be because of other
factors like fibers, which are also consumed by people along with the
vegetables and which also prevents the development of cancer. This
is an example of:
(A) Multifactorial association
(B) Differential misclassification
(C) Confounding factor
(D) Common association
Correct Answer: Confounding factor
Q 60: Food with maximum cholesterol content:
(A) Egg
(B) Coconut Oil
(C) Hydrogenated Fats
(D) Ghee (Hydrogenated)
Correct Answer: Egg
Q 61: Filaria elimination is possible in South-East Asian region due to
all of the following except:
(A) Humans are the only reservoir
(B) Parasite does not multiply in the intermediate host mosquito
(C) Larva multiply in human reservoir only
(D) Infectious larva get deposited on skin but most of them die before
penetrating
Correct Answer: Humans are the only reservoir
Q 62: Which of the following is not true for incubation period?

(A) To differentiate between secondary attacked and co-incident primary

cases
(B) To determine the period of isolation of cases
(C) To determine the period of quarantine
(D) To prevent disease in contacts
Correct Answer: To determine the period of isolation of cases
Q 63: True about Indian reference male is:
(A) Age 20-39 years
(B) Weight 65 kg
(C) Work is mainly sedentary
(D) Works for 10 hour

Q 64: Natural disaster causing maximum deaths:

(A) Hydrological
(B) Meteorological
(C) Geological
(D) Climatological
Correct Answer: Hydrological
Q 65: According to The Workmens Compensation Act, 1923, which of
the following is considered an occupational disease?
(A) Typhoid
(B) Anthrax
(C) Tetanus
(D) Dengue
Correct Answer: Anthrax
Q 66: According to Vision 2020, the recommended Ophthalmologist:
population ratio in India:

(A) 1:5,00,000
(B) 1:1,00,000
(C) 1:50,000
(D) 1:10,000
Correct Answer: 1:50,000
Q 67: An investigator obtained an increased incidence of a disease
due to low fiber diet in a country by obtaining data from the health
authorities and food industry of the country. This type of study is
known as:
(A) Ecological
(B) Cross-sectional
(C) Psephological study
(D) Experimental study
Correct Answer: Ecological
Q 68: In a certain population, there were 4050 births in the last one
year. There were 50 still-births. 50 infants died within 7 days
whereas 150 died within the first 28 days. What is the neonatal
mortality rate?
(A) 50
(B) 62.5
(C) 12.5
(D) 49.4
Correct Answer: 62.
Q 68: A 50-year old male came to emergency department with
complains of unilateral headache, diplopia and difficulty in chewing
food. On evaluation, MRI was normal, ESR was persistently high. The
most appropriate drug for treatment:
(A) Aspirin
(B) Coxibs
(C) Prednisolone

(D) Sodium vaiproate

Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Q 69: A 20 year old male presented with jaundice for the past 2
weeks. His liver function tests revealed serum bilirubin to be 0.9
mg/dL, SGOT/SGPT to be 1240/1450 lU. He was found to be positive
for HBsAg and IgM anti-HEV antibodies and negative for IgM anti
HBc. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Acute hepatitis with mutant hepatitis B virus
(B) Super infection of hepatitis E virus with chronic hepatitis B infection
(C) Acute hepatitis with wild type hepatitis B virus
(D) Co-infection of hepatitis B and E viruses
Correct Answer: Super infection of hepatitis E virus with chronic hepatitis B
infection
Q 70: A patient with previously normal haemoglobin suffered a
sudden massive acute hemorrhage. He is most likely to show all of
the following except:
(A) High reticulocyte count
(B) High neutrophil count
(C) High packed cell volume
(D) Low mean corpuscular volume
Correct Answer: High packed cell volume
Q 71: The treatment of a patient with myocardial infarction is
thrombolytic therapy, if the patient presents within . hours of
chest pain:
(A) 6 hours
(B) 12 hours
(C) 18 hours
(D) 24 hours
Correct Answer: 24 hours
Q 72: Which of the following regarding small vessel disease (SVD),

cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA) and Alzheimers disease (AD) is

not true?
(A) SVD is related to CAA
(B) SVD is not correlated to AD
(C) SVD is related to AD
(D) CAA is associated with AD
Correct Answer: SVD is related to AD
Q 73: A 40-year old female presented with dyspnoea on exertion
grade III and palpitations. ECG showed atrial fibrillation with fast
ventricular rate. Echocardiography shows severe mitral stenosis with
left atrial appendage clot. Which of the following is not advised?
(A) Diltiazen to control ventricular rate
(B) Start warfarin and follow-up with repeat echocardiography
(C) EC followed by percutaneous balloon mitral valvuloplasty
(D) Open mitral commissurotomy with clot removal
Correct Answer: EC followed by percutaneous balloon mitral valvuloplasty
Q 74: Most common clinical presentation of juvenile myoclonic
epilepsy:
(A) Generalised tonic clonic seziures in sleep
(B) Generalised tonic clonic seizures in awake state
(C) Myoclonus
(D) Absence seizures
Correct Answer: Myoclonus
Q 75: All of the following are correctly metched except:
(A) Neurofibromatosis - renal artery stenosis
(B) Moyamoya disease - aortic aneurysm
(C) Marfans disease - dural ectasia
(D) Mulibreynanism - constrictive pericarditis

Correct Answer: Moyamoya disease - aortic aneurysm

Q 76: The most common form of spinocerebellar ataxia (SCA) in India
is:
(A) SCA1
(B) SCA2
(C) SCA3
(D) SCA4
Correct Answer: SCA
Q 77: In metabolic encephalopathy, EEG will most likely show:
(A) Alpha activity
(B) Beta activity
(C) Gamma activity
(D) Delta activity
Correct Answer: Delta activit
Q 78: Two patients presented with significant atherosclerosis. One
had significant comorbid diabetes and the other is non-diabetic. The
incidence of which of the following is increased 100 times in the
patients having diabetes, when both are compared?
(A) Myocardial infarction
(B) Ischemic stroke
(C) Lower limb ischemia
(D) Vertebrobasilar insufficiency
Correct Answer: Lower limb ischemia
Q 79: While assessing the risk of fatality among adults from the
Pneumonia Severity Index, which of the following factor is most
important?
(A) Age
(B) Presence of congestive Heart Failure
(C) Hypothermia

(D) Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: Age
Q 80: Pseudotumor cerebri is most commonly seen in:
(A) Obese females in the age group 20-45 years
(B) Obese males in the age group 20-45 years
(C) Thin built females in the age group 50-60 years
(D) Thin built males in the age group 50-60 years
Correct Answer: Obese females in the age group 20-45 years
Q 81: A 25-year-old person with history of repeated episodes of
Rheumatic fever is hypersensitive to penicillin. Which of the
following drug can be prescribed to him?
(A) Penicillin G
(B) Sulfisoxazole
(C) Sulfasalazine
(D) Streptomycin
Correct Answer: Sulfisoxazol
Q 82: A person presents with following parameters PCO,- 30 mm of
Hg, PO2- 105 mm of Hg, pH-7.45 is having partially compensated:
(A) Metabolic acidosis
(B) Metabolic alkalosis
(C) Respiratory acidosis
(D) Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosi
Q 83: a.A 60 yr old male had a sudden fall in toilet. His BP was 90/50
mm Hg and pulse was 100/mm. His relatives reported that his stool
was black/dark in colour Further careful history revealed that he is a
known case of hypertension and coronary artery disease and was
regularly taking aspirin, atenolol and sorbitrate. The most likely
diagnosis is:

(A) Gastric ulcer with bleeding

(B) Acute myocardial infarction with cardiogenic shock
(C) Acute cerebrovascular accident
(D) Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: Gastric ulcer with bleeding
Q 84: A study of skin biopsy of SLE patient using FITC labeled human
IgG antiserum shows deposition of irregular particles at
dermoepidermal junction. This means there is presence of:
(A) Anti-nuclear antibody
(B) Anti-collagen antibody
(C) Anti-epithelial antibody
(D) Immune complex deposits
Correct Answer: Immune complex deposits
Q 85: Which of the following is associated with an intrinsic defect in
the RBC membrane?
(A) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
(B) Hereditary spherocytosis
(C) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
(D) Thermal injury anemia
Correct Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis
Q 86: Fever blisters can occur due to:
(A) HHV-6
(B) Varicella Zoster virus infection
(C) Primary HSV-1 infection
(D) Reactivation of HSV-1
Correct Answer: Reactivation of HSV-1
Q 87: A female of 40 years presenting with intolerance to cold,
constipation and hoarseness of voice was found to have

cardiomegaly on chest roentgenogram. Which of the following

investigations is the best to determine the cause of her
cardiomegaly?
(A) Coronary angiography
(B) Left ventricular angioraphy
(C) Right ventricular angiography
(D) Echocardiography
Correct Answer: Echocardiography