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Question 1: Respiratory
A 42 year old man is admitted to hospital with left sided pleuritic chest pain with
haemoptysis and crepitations in the left base. You suspect he has a diagnosis of
pneumonia. He tells you that 3 months beforehand he was diagnosed as having a
carcinoma of the lung and he has been receiving chemotherapy.
What would your first line treatment for the community acquired pneumonia?
As part of your investigation you discover that his platelet count in 75. List 3 possible
causes.
Investigations revealed a dilated biliary tree and ERCP is planned. Name 3 potential
complications of this procedure.
Cytology reveals malignant cells; what 3 management options would you like to
discuss with the patient?
Question 3: Respiratory
A 23 year old asthmatic is brought into the A&E Department with an acute
exacerbation. He has become increasingly short of breath over the last three weeks.
You make a diagnosis of acute asthma attack.
Give 2 clinical factors you would wish to establish in the history from this patient in
order to assess the severity of her attack.
Give 4 clinical factors you should establish in the examination of the patient in order
to assess the severity of her attack.
Question 4: Infection
An 18 year old university student is seen by his GP with a 24 hour history of flu like
illness, fever headache and neck stiffness. He is noted to have a progressively
purpuric rash. There are no known drug allergies.
What is the main limitation of the currently available vaccine for this condition?
What are the 3 factors which influence venous thrombosis, known as Virchows triad?
Name any 2 prophylactic measures that are recommended to prevent this problem
after total hip replacement.
What is the worst complication that can result from this problem?
Question 6: Breast
A 57 year old teacher is seen in the breast clinic. She has been aware of a mass in her
left breast for 2 weeks. She is worried about cancer.
What clinical features may suggest that the lesion may be malignant? List 3.
Name 2 investigations which will help establish the diagnosis of breast carcinoma.
List 3 pieces of code histological information required from the pathologist that will be
needed by the oncology team to decide further treatment.
Question 7: Neurology
While working as a FYI on a medical ward you are asked to asses Mr FK,
a 75 year old woman who was admitted to hospital one week previously
with a sudden onset of weakness in the right arm and leg. On
examination you confirm the weakness and also find that the muscle
tone in the right arm and leg is increased. Sensation is on the right
side Although She can talk, she sometimes has difficulty finding the
words she wants.
What changes do you expect in the tendon reflexes on the right leg?
Over the next 24 hours the patient's condition deteriorates. A CT scan confirms an
infarct in the left middle cerebral a. territory, Her husband calls you aside and ask you
to write in her notes that she should not be resuscitated if she stops breathing.
Which two articles of the Human Rights Act are most applicable when considering
these issues?
Having established the diagnosis, what three issues do you need to take into
consideration before writing a Do Not Resuscitate order?
8
Question 8: Neurology
A 68 year old man presents to the medical clinic. He describes a several year history
of gradually reducing mobility and failure to cope at home. You examine the patient,
and diagnose Parkinsonism.
You decide to treat the Parkinsonism with Dopamine agonists. Apart from nausea and
GI upsets, list 2 common side effects of treatment using L-DOPA.
10
What key early investigations may help you resolve the differential diagnosis? List 3.
After the patients initial assessment, but before definitive treatment, what 4 urgent
measures would you institute?
11
As the FY1 you take 20 mls of blood and request a cross-match, blood count,
electrolytes and clotting studies. You also take a brief history and perform a clinical
examination.
Apart from the above, suggest 4 steps you would take in your initial management of
this patient in the first 15 minutes after arrival on the ward.
Once the patient is stable, list 3 monitoring instructions that you would ask the nurses
to carry out on the patients behalf.
12
13
asian descent
A CT scan of the brain reveals an area of ischaemia. Explain the pathogenesis of this
cause of stroke.
Narrowing: Narrowing of the supplying blood vessels (thrombus or embolus) causes reduced
blood flow (and thus oxygen and glucose) to an area of the brain
Penumbra: There is a central area of necrosis surrounded by a penumbra that may be
salvageable if blood supply is reestablished
Ischemic Cascade: The ischaemic cascade is initiated causing inflammation and oedema
that results in tissue damage
Destructive Enzymes:This leads to glutamate toxicity and cell membrane permeability
changes thus activating destructive enzymes
Given this ladys symptoms, which is the most likely artery to have been affected by
this stroke?
left middle cerebral a.
Aspiration pneumonia
DVT/PE due to immobility
Communication difficulties due to dysphasia and dysarthria
Depression
Bed sores due to immobility
This patient shows minimal improvement over the next three months.
Outline 2 management options that the OT would be able to help with in cases like
this.
Home assessment and adaptations where appropriate
Physical and cognitive deficit screen and provision of aids where needed
15
From the history and signs, which disc would be involved and which nerve root is
being compressed?
L5
What abnormality would you expect to see when examining this patients knee and
ankle reflexes?
Both would be present
The ankle reflex is controlled by S1 so would only be lost by lesion there
The knee jerk is mainly controlled by L4 so would only be lost by a lesion there
What 2 sign and symptom combinations might suggest a central disc prolapse?
Bilateral Leg Pain / Weakness
Urinary Retention / Incontinence
Perianal / Perineal Sensory Loss
Reduced Anal Tone
With the patient in a supine position, what test would you perform to help establish
the diagnosis and what would this show?
Test Straight leg raise
Result Limitation of straight leg raising with sciatica pain radiating down the
buttock and lower limb
In <50 words define what surgical treatment is appropriate and explain what
proportion of patients are likely to require surgery.
16
Discectomy is the surgical removal of herniated disc material that presses on a nerve root.
Microdiscectomy is a minimally invasive procedure in which a portion of a herniated nucleus
pulposus is removed by laser while using a microscope.
90% resolve at 8 weeks with analgesia. 1 year outcomes are the same in those who are
managed conservatively and those who get surgery. Therefore only 10% of patients receive
surgery. Also surgery + intensive exercise programme leads to significantly improved
functional status and faster return to normal.
17
Apart from beta-blockers, list 2 drugs that are commonly used for medical
management of thyrotoxicosis.
Carbimazole
Polythiouracil
What is the most serious side-effect that a patient may develop on anti thyroid drugs?
Bone Marrow Suppression, which may lead to pancytopenia and agranulocytosis
What common clinical condition would you tell the patient to be aware of that may
alert one to the development of this condition?
Tell the patient to seek medical advice immediately if they develop bruising, mouth ulcers,
sore throat, fever, malaise, or non-specific illness
What options are available for more definitive management of thyrotoxicosis? Name
two
radioiodine therapy
thyroidectomy
18
Aside from routine blood tests (FBC, U&E, LFTs), list 3 other parts of your
management plan (including treatment and investigations).
CT Brain - No LP due to possible raised ICP indicated by seizure
Blood cultures and PCR for Neisseria
Coagulation Screen
IV fluids
Antipyrexia
Septic Screen
Contact HDU or ITU
Bearing in mind his occupation, which other agency should be informed and why?
Public Health
Bacterial Meningitis is a notifiable disease so his contacts will need to be traced and treated
19
What investigations could help clarify the diagnosis and its underlying cause? Name
3.
AXR - rule out any masses, faecal loading
Colonoscopy - investigation lower GI tract
Biopsy + histology - determine presence of colitis
Biopsies suggest mucosal inflammation with crypt abscesses. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
Crohns disease
Which classes of drug might be used in treating this condition? Name two.
5-ASA
oral steroid therapy 40mg OD - then taper down to a balance between symptoms & lowest
dose before relapse
If the patient deteriorates despite drug treatment, what urgent operation might be
appropriate?
colectomy
20
What additional history is it important to obtain from the patient at this stage? List 4
items.
presence of PR blood?
any skin changes (pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema nodosum)?
frequency of stool motions?
any nausea/ vomiting +/- haematemesis?
any uveitis, iritis, conjunctivitis?
any PMHx spondyloarthropathies?
any systemic features: SoB, c, night sweats, Kg , loss of appetite, thirst?
any FHx: gluten enteropathy/ coeliac disease, IBD (Crohns, Ulcerative Colitis), CRC, FAP,
HNPCC?
any recent travel/ any unwell contacts?
any HIV risk factors?
As the patients General Practitioner you would like to perform some simple
investigations (before considering referral for a specialist opinion). List 2.
Digital Rectal Exam
Blood tests -> FBC, ESR, CRP
Coeliac screen
Faecal calprotectin
Stool Culture/ Microscopy & C.Difficile test
Ova & Parasite Exam
Thyroid Function Tests
U&Es - degree of dehydration
HIV test
CEA level (unlikely in younger patients but if FHx)
The patient asks why he might be losing weight and you wonder about malabsorption.
Give two tests that could help you identify whether the patient is suffering from
malabsorption.
Vitamin B12 serum level
Folate & Ferritin levels
INR
21
Name 4 additional clinical signs that may be found on examination in this patient.
Murmur
Anaemia
Abscess
Clubbing
Roth Spots
Oslers Nodes
Splinter Haemorrhages
Splenomegaly
Janeways Lesions
Haematuria
Petechiae
Your FY2 asks you to test the urine. What would you expect to find and what is the
pathology behind this abnormality?
haematuria - glomerulonephritis or renal infarct
On further examination you can also hear the pansystolic murmur. This is loudest at
the left sternal edge and you demonstrate her JVP is elevated with giant v waves. In
addition she also has tender pulsatile hepatomegaly.
What is the most likely cardiac lesion to be responsible for this, given the above
history and examination?
tricuspid regurgitation
Name 2 investigations that are mandatory to confirm the clinical diagnosis of infective
endocarditis.
blood cultures - 3 sets at different times from different places
TTE Echo - demonstrating vegetation on affected valves
Other than intravenous drug abuse, name 4 other risk factors for infective
endocarditis.
22
Dental Surgery
Prosthetic Heart Valve
Thoracotomy
Pre-existing Valvular Disease i.e. Rheumatic, Congenital, Acquired
Catheterisation
Peripheral/Central Lines
Immunosuppression
23
You arrange a chest X-ray. What 3 abnormalities would support your diagnosis?
Alveolar edema
Kerley B lines/ interstitial odema
Cardiomegaly
Dilated Prominent Upper Lobe vessels
pleural effusion
She improves and you are now able to hear a pansystolic murmur at the apex. What
cardiac lesion is likely to be responsible for this?
mitral regurgitation
24
What 2 points from the history, as given above, help you to distinguish between the
possible causes of vision loss in this patient?
absence of headache - typical presentation of GCA typically involves headache
lasting under 30 minutes - narrows differential, vascular cause more likely
AF -> risk of retinal a. occlusion due to embolus
What features of the ophthalmic examination would be important for you to note in
this patient? List 4 points
threadlike arterioles
prominent fovea (cherry red spot at macka)
pallor fundus
visual acuity (<6/60)
afferent pupil defect
cattle trucking in retinal arterioles (segmentation of blood column in the arterioles)
What investigation would you perform with regard to the carotid artery?
CT angiography - atherosclerostic plaques, stenosis
25
Question 21: GU
A 69 year old man presents to Emergency Department with severe lumbar back pain,
which has been increasing for some months. There is no history of injury. He has not
seen a doctor for many years. There are no neurological symptoms. A spinal X-ray
reveals multiple sclerotic lesions in the lumbar spine suggestive of metastatic
prostatic cancer.
List 2 investigations you would wish to carry out to investigate the prostate
enlargement.
PSA
Transrectal USS-guided Biopsy
List 2 investigations you would wish to carry out to investigate the degree of
metastasis.
Staging CT Chest/Abdo/Pelvis
Bone scan look specifically for other bony metastases
Prostascint scan to look for soft-tissue metastases is NOT a valid answer as it is very rarely
done
What is the most common type of malignant tumour occurring in the prostate gland?
adenocarcinoma
The diagnosis is confirmed and the patient is deemed unsuitable for lumbar spine
surgery. What other treatment options should be considered for this patient? List
three.
Androgen Ablation Hormonal (GnRH Receptor Antagonists or Surgical e.g.
orchidectomy)
Palliative Chemotherapy
Palliative Radiotherapy to bony metastases (external beam)
26
The patient underwent a laparotomy. What aims would surgery attempt to achieve?
(Name 2)
close perforation, bowel washout and restore bowel functionability
assess the presence of any contributing factors eg malignancy
27
Name any 3 investigations in the diagnosis and evaluation of avascular necrosis of the
femoral head.
XR Both hips - assess severity of damage, any other pathology, whether the left joint is also
affected
Name 2 other areas of the skeleton that may be affected by a traumatic avascular
necrosis.
proximal pole of scaphoid bone
body of talus
28
You consider that this is a pleural effusion. What would you expect to see on a plain
chest X-ray? (Give 2 features)
blunting of costophrenic angles
opaque consolidation in right hemithorax with concave meniscus sign
You proceed with the pleural aspiration. What position should the patient ideally adopt
in order to perform the aspiration?
on the bed, slightly rotated with arm on the affected side elevated in order to expose the
axillary area
When you withdraw the fluid with a diagnostic tap it is clear and has a yellow
colouration. What 3 important investigations would you request and why?
LDH and Protein in Pleural Fluid/Serum determine whether effusion is exudate
or transudate
Effusion Cytology to investigate possible concerns of malignancy
Glucose or pH of Effusion investigate possible malignancy (both should be low)
Her husband comes into the ward to see you.
He tells you that he worked in the shipyards for 25 years before he retired. Why would
this be relevant?
His wife may have been exposed to asbestos through him increased risk of
pleural mesothelioma
29
What is the most likely procedural reason for this complication to have arisen?
mismatching of donor blood group to that of the patients/ ABO incompatibility
30
Give 2 abdominal investigations which would help elucidate the cause of the mass.
Renal USS ? hydronephrosis
Non-contrast CT pyelogram method of choice for suspected stones
(IV/contrast CT not recommended in renal insufficiency)
31
The following morning her signs have progressed and she has generalised peritonitis.
At laparotomy the sigmoid colon is found to be the cause of her peritonitis. What
operative procedure is indicated?
Hartmans Procedure
32
Question 28: GU
A 19 year old female attends her GP with dysuria five days following unprotected
sexual intercourse. She is not on any form of contraception and this was a casual
contact as she is not in a steady relationship at the moment
Name 2 sexually transmitted infections this patient may have contracted which would
be consistent with these symptoms
chlamydia
gonorrhea
mycoplasma genitalium
trichomonas vaginalis
HSV1/2
List 2 additional relevant questions you would wish to ask the patient.
Has she noticed any discharge? (thin and watery or thick/purulent STI)
Lower UTI Questions i.e. urgency, frequency, cloudy urine/offensive smelling Urine?
Upper UTI Questions i.e. loin pain, fever, chills?
Any blood in the urine?
Use of topical hygiene products e.g. scented soaps, vaginal sprays etc?
Any dyspareunia?
Any systemic symptoms e.g. fever?
Any PMH of UTI?
Any post coital-bleed?
If relevant, inter-menstrual bleed?
Assuming she has a sexually transmitted infection, list 4 factors that would be
important at the next stage of management.
Compliance ensure antibiotics were taken for appropriate course
Test-of-Cure repeat diagnostic methods to confirm the infection has cleared
Education on safe sex and the perils of unprotected sex with strangers e.g. HPV
+ Cervical Ca risk
Contact Tracing if possible trace the original source and treat to prevent further
transmission
Contraception whether she has any/ if not pregnancy possibility / ? desire for
some
33
Advice avoid sex until test-of-cure proves infection is gone (prevents accidental spread)
34
What would be the most important radiological investigation to carry out in the
Emergency Department and why?
CXR - exclude tension pneumothorax
Her arterial blood gases are as follows:
pO2 7.2 (normal range 10.5-14)
pCO2 3.0 (normal range 4.7-6)
Ph 7.39 (normal range (7.37-7.42)
Bicarbonate 20
What 4 investigations would you perform at this stage to help you with your further
elucidation of this patients problems and why?
D-dimer - if negative excludes likelihood of VTE
Doppler Ultrasound Lower Limb - exclude VTE
Lung Function Tests - indicate presence of obstructive/restrictive disease
FBC + CRP - CRP + WCC indicate infectious process
Name 3 forms of treatment that you would prescribe while you are waiting for the
results to come back
analgesia/ morphine - for chest pain
Flow (4l/min) concentration (28%) oxygen therapy via nasal mask
IV Fluids eg 250 mL saline 0.9%
What would the most important diagnosis be to exclude in this ladys instance?
PE
Which investigation would you use to confirm this diagnosis and what would it show?
CTPA - occlusion on pulmonary vasculature +/- distally threadlike vessels
35
List 3 changes you would make to her drug therapy and explain why.
Bendrofluazide - consider lowering dose or changing according to national protocol to
calcium channel blocker
Nitrazepam - discuss the clinical need
Give 2 treatments that the physiotherapists might provide to reduce her risk of fall.
strengthening exercises therapy
balance exercises
What assessment might an Occupational Therapist carry out for this patient to prevent
further falls?
home assessment
need for social services
36
What other causes of painless haematuria are important to exclude in this instance?
List 4
prostatic cancer
benign prostate hyperplasia
renal stone disease
bladder tumours
What initial investigations would you like to perform at this stage that would help most
with the diagnosis? List 3
AXR - exclude any abdominal masses to indicate tumors
IV pyelogram - exclude obstruction due to renal stone disease
renal USS - determine presence of polycystic kidney disease
You find bilateral polycystic kidney disease without any other abnormality of the lower
urinary tract. You are concerned about the possibility of renal impairment and wish to
assess the level of renal function more accurately.
List 2 factors which you would like to discuss with him before considering these
options.
risk & complications associated with each option
the impact any comorbidities eg disease may have on the safety/effectivity of transplant
37
38
After taking a full history, what assessment would you undertake in the clinic? (Name
3)
Digital Rectal Examination - assessing anal tone, presence of mass,
GI examination - assessing palpable masses, other causes
Fecal Occult Blood Test - presence of blood
What feature in the patients history would be the most important guide to choosing
an appropriate treatment?
whether there is any pain indicating likelihood of strangulation
Name another common cause of rectal bleeding with anal pain in young adults.
fibre diet causing constipation leading to straining upon opening of bowels
39
List 2 clinical features which may occur as a result of the profuse diarrhoea that is
caused by cholera.
dehydration - skin turgor, sunken orbits, postural hypotension, confusion,
weight loss, oliguria
electrolyte disturbance
shock
Given the history of travel, list 4 other organisms that should be looked for as possible
causes of the diarrhoeal illness.
Enterotoxic E. Coli
Salmonella
Campylobacter
Giardia
Entamoeba histolytica
Shigella
Cryptosporidium
Rotavirus
Norovirus
Plasmodium Falciparium
What organism causes cholera and how does the disease result following infection?
Bacteria - Vibrio Cholera (gram negative rods) -> clinical features due to enterotoxin release
It secretes an enterotoxin which stimulates adenylyl cyclase that the
concentration of cyclic AMP leading to persistent and excessive secretion of fluids
and electrolytes.
Intravenous fluid replacement is essential in cholera infections. Apart from the water
replacement, name the 2 most important constituents in the IV replacement fluid that
will help correct the sequelae of the profuse diarrhoea.
Sodium & Glucose
Pali suggest HCO3- and K but the Exemplar answers are the ones used above.
40
Apart from orthostatic (postural) hypotension, suggest 3 other disorders which are
likely causes for these symptoms.
vasovagal syncope
Arrhythmias e.g. Adam-Stokes Attack (complete heart block), sinus arrest or non-sustained
VT
On examination you find that her blood pressure drops markedly on standing up and
she feels faint. Suggest 2 factors which should be considered that might be
aggravating this change.
pharmacological therapy she is receiving
antihypertensive medication
over-diuresis
age
What types of drug therapy would you consider prescribing in an effort to alleviate her
symptoms? Suggest 1.
Synthetic Corticosteroid with Mineralocorticoid action e.g. Fludrocortisone
0.2mg TDS for 1 week
The patient improves on treatment and you plan discharge. What other factors will you
consider in your plans? Suggest 2.
medication review
physiotherapy
OT assessment
dietetic assessment - food & fluids
41
Name 3 clinical signs would you expect to find on respiratory system examination.
resonance
decreased breath sounds
expansion
no vocal resonance/ tactile fremitus
Name 2 factors that need to be taken into account when considering treatment of
spontaneous pneumothorax.
Severity of symptoms
Size of the pneumothorax i.e. <2cm or >2cm rim between lung and chest wall (estimated via
CXR)
Whether pre-existing lung disease exists or not (if so then lower threshold for drainage)
Over the next hour your patient becomes increasingly breathless and distressed.
Name 2 physical signs that you might associate with this problem.
tracheal deviation
cardiovascular instability
worsening hypoxia
In considering the patient for a chest drain insertion, you wish to avoid the costal
blood vessels. Where are these located and how can they be avoided?
Location costal grooves on the inferior surface of the ribs
How to Avoid insert the chest drain directly above the rib (4-6th on mid-axillary
line) aiming inferiorly
42
Question 37: GU
A 24 year old professional cyclist complains of painless left testicular swelling. You
suspect he has a testicular tumour.
What would be the most standard radiological investigation to help with the
diagnosis?
Scrotal USS
Name 3 treatment options that are available for treating testicular tumour.
radical orchidectomy +/- testicular prosthesis/ sperm storage
chemotherapy if metastases eg pleomycin
radiotherapy (external beam)
43
List 2 pathological features that might have been seen on the biopsy.
subtotal villous atrophy
crypt hyperplasia
How would you suggest this patient should be treated and what investigation would
you suggest after treatment?
patient education to avoid gluten diet
repeat upper GI endoscopy biopsy post-6wks gluten absent diet which should reveal
resolution of initial pathological findings
44
You examine the blood report to see if it provides a reticulocyte count. What are
reticulocytes?
immature enucleated (contain rRNA) erythrocytes - formed in Bone marrow
What co-existing blood condition may this patient have? How would you test for this?
a-thalassaemia
PCR assay testing/ haemoglobin electrophoresis
45
What 2 features would you look for on inspection of the legs to confirm your
diagnosis?
Right/ affected side is shortened & externally rotated in comparison to the left
The x-ray demonstrates an intra-articular fracture of the right hip. What is the
anatomical significance of a fracture at this site?
involvement of the joint space, disruption of articular cartilage and smooth articular bone
surface
Blood supply to the femoral head is in a distal proximal fashion.
Site of intra-capsular fracture means that blood supply to femoral head is potentially
compromised and there is a risk of AVN to the femoral head
You are concerned about the diagnosis of osteoporosis in a lady with a previous
fracture. You proceed to undertake a DEXA scan. Which areas are routinely screened
for the presence of osteoporosis?
L1-L4 Lumbar Spine, femoral neck
She makes a good recovery from the operation. Name 2 factors related to her social
situation that you would wish to take into account when planning her discharge.
home assessment and suitability of home environment considering her mobility
status
need for social services to help with daily activities
She lives alone who will look after her?
What is her home like hazards, stairs, where is the bathroom, shower?
46
Give 4 investigations that would help you to determine whether her renal failure was
chronic rather than acute.
USS to see size of the kidney
FBC to look for anaemia normochromic anaemia
Parathyroid Hormone seen in Renal Osteodystrophy
X-ray chondrocalcinosis at knees/pubic symphysis; osteopenia and bone
fractures look for renal osteodystrophy
Whilst awaiting the results of investigations you consider that dialysis may be
required. Give 4 clinical features and/or laboratory findings that would help guide your
decision.
Diuretic resistant pulmonary oedema
Hyperkalaemia (refractory to medical therapy)
Metabolic Acidosis (refractory to medical therapy)
Uraemic Complications (pericarditis, encephalopathy, bleeding)
Dialysable Intoxications (eg, lithium, toxic alcohols, and salicylates).
Your investigations suggest chronic renal failure. What 3 forms of renal replacement
therapy are available?
Haemodialysis
Peritoneal dialysis
Transplant
Other - continuous renal replacement therapies (CRRT).
Which is the best form of renal replacement therapy in the long term?
live-related renal transplant
47
Suggest 2 investigations that should be undertaken and what results you will expect
from them?
LP + CSF analysis - detection of intrathecal inflammation, pleocytosis, protein,
oligoclonal bands
brain & spinal cord MRI with gadolinium labelling - presence of plaques in cortex, brainstem,
spinal cord
48
The further investigations confirm the diagnosis, which has already been guessed by
the patient. She is now well but comes to see you to talk things over. What points
will you want to make with regard to prognosis and management? Suggest 4.
It is usual practise to inform the patient that there is no cure for MS
There is no method for predicting the course of MS and there is wide variation in its severity
Many MS patients live self-sufficient lives, while others are gravely disabled
MS team and specialised services for one-to-one counselling, support, education and
information
Treatment:
For Relapses Corticosteroids and Immunosuppressants
For Symptomatic Relief Muscle Relaxants (for spasticity) and Anticholinergics
(for tremor)
To Frequency of Relapses (e.g. INF-) but they only work in select group of
patients and are limited in their efficacy
49
What is the most important investigation to undertake at this stage and why?
Plasma Paracetamol Levels - Concentration will guide management
What would you administer orally to reduce the absorption of the paracetamol?
Activated Charcoal
List 3 other important investigations that would also be undertaken and why.
Coag Screen hepatotoxicity of paracetamol may impair liver synthesis of
clotting factors
Urea and Electrolytes assess renal damage and electrolyte levels/ for baseline
measures
Arterial Blood Gas paracetamol overdose can cause acidosis
LFTs same reason as coag
What is the most important treatment of paracetamol overdose at this stage and how
does it work?
N-Acetyl-Cysteine (Parvolex) - Glutathione Donor and therefore serves to help bind toxic
metabolites
Over the next three days she becomes mildly jaundiced. Then, over the subsequent 48
hours she becomes increasingly jaundiced, agitated and confused. What is the likely
diagnosis and what action can be taken?
Hepatic Encephalopathy due to Liver Failure
Refer to tertiary centre for liver transplant
50
Apart from carcinoma of the oesophagus, list 4 recognised conditions which could
cause dysphagia in any patient.
diffuse oesophageal spasm
achalasia
food bolus/ foreign body
benign oesophageal stricture
external compression from enlarged thyroid
GORD -> oesophagitis -> oesophageal stricture
gastric cancer
CVA/ stroke
pharyngeal pouch/ web/ diverticulum
carcinoma of bronchus
Give 2 features in any patients history which would suggest a malignant cause of the
dysphagia.
Progressive dysphagia
Weight loss
no PMHx of reflux Sx
rapid onset/ short history
PMH Smoking NOT the best answer since the question is asking for features
not risk factors
You decide that the patients symptoms merit investigation. What 2 key investigations
could you request?
OGD +/- Biopsy of any abnormal tissue
Ba Swallow (only way of diagnosing functional/motility problems)
51
Surgical resection proves impossible. What 2 courses of action will help to palliate his
symptoms?
endoscopic laser surgery for lesions <8 cm long
oesophageal stenting with a Celestin tube if longer than 8cm
Radiotherapy either external beam or brachytherapy to alleviate dysphagia
Endoscopic Ablation +/- Stenting
Opiates pain relief
Chemotherapy alone is not good palliation
52
Apart from rectal carcinoma suggest 3 other likely causes for these symptoms.
Anatomical Diverticular Disease, Meckels Diverticulum (more common to present
in children)
Vascular Colonic Angiodysplasia
Infection Infective Colitis e.g. Campylobacter, Salmonella, Shigella
Anorectal Haemorrhoids, Anal Fissures
Inflammatory BD with blood more likely UC though both would typically present @
<50yrs
Name 3 further features in the history you would seek to support a diagnosis of rectal
carcinoma.
Change in Bowel Habit frequency loose stools +/- mucus passed
Tenesmus
Weight Loss
Family History of Colo-rectal cancer (?FAP/ HNPCC)
Past Medical History Inflammatory BD, Polyps or Colorectal Cancer
Awareness of Mass
53
What are his risk factors for coronary artery disease? List 4.
smoking - 20 cigarettes per day
Asian ethnicity
hyperlipidemia/hypercholesterolemia (7.2mmol/L cholesterol)
Hypertension (170/100mmHg)
male
You decide to admit him to hospital. What drug therapy could he be started on? List 4
potentially beneficial drugs (2 marks) and give a reason for prescribing each (2
marks).
Simvastatin 5-50mg nocte O - cholesterol & mortality
Calcium Channel Blocker/amlodipine - hypertension by vasodilation & controls
angina
Nitrates/ Glyceryl Trinitrate Spray PRN - symptomatic relief of angina, BP by
vasodilation
Metoprolol 100mg BD - vasodilate coronary arteries to maintain perfusion and
ischemic episodes, BP, HR, controls angina
Aspirin 300mg O bolus ->70mg O OD - prevent platelet aggregation & activation
Clopidogrel/ ticagrelor 90mg O BD - alternative to aspirin and reduces mortality
Lisinopril 5mg BD -> 5-10mg OD- BP & mortality
morphine - controls pain and helps patients feel at ease
Results of blood tests revealed a Troponin T of 0.35ng/ml. (N: unrecordable), peak
Creatinine kinase was 180 iu/ml (reference range: 25- 200 iu/ml) on day two.
List the 2 cardinal ECG features of an acute full thickness anterior myocardial
infarction and outline their electrophysiological cause.
ST elevation (V1-6) +/- (V1 & aVL) - changes in action potentials produced by necrotic
tissues, abnormal firing of action potentials leads to early repolarisation secondary to
ischemia causing this abnormal wave
Pathological Q waves (V1-6) +/- (V1 & aVL) - develop from living tissue behind the infarct,
picked up by ECG as downward movement as impulses move away from anterior leads
Reciprocal ST depression in inferior leads (VIII-aVF)
54
On examination there is mild tenderness in the epigastrium. Your consultant tells you
that the Murphy's sign is negative. What is the significance of a positive Murphy's
sign?
Positive arrest of inspiration on palpation in the upper right quadrant but NOT
in left upper quadrant
Positive result due to pressure (from palpation) on peritoneal inflammation 2 to an inflamed
gallbladder
Hence, it suggests acute cholecystitis is the likely cause of his pain
You suspect the patient may have a peptic ulcer. Name 1 investigation which could be
performed to confirm the presence of Helicobacter pylori?
Urease Breath Test
H. Pylori Stool Antigen Test
The above 2 are correct for a patient presenting to a GP. If the Hx was presenting
to ER/Surgery OGD + CLO test and biopsy
The patient undergoes endoscopy which reveals an ulcer in the lesser body of the
stomach and triple therapy is commenced. Briefly outline the action of lansoprazole in
reducing acid secretion.
Lansoprazole is a Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI)
PPIs irreversibly block hydrogen/potassium ATPase in parietal cells of the stomach
The result is massively reduced H+ secretion stomach acid formed
Two weeks later the patient presents with a rigid, tender abdomen, highly suggestive
of perforation. Name 2 other complications of peptic ulceration.
Acute Upper GI Bleed
Fe Deficiency Anaemia 2 to chronic blood loss
Gastric Outlet Obstruction (long-term complication)
Gastric Cancer (long-term complication)
Penetration
55
She returns to the health centre and this time you notice that she is also slightly
icteric. Urine analysis shows urobilinogen but no bilirubin. There is no glycosuria,
haematuria or pyuria. The serum bilirubin concentration is 65 mols/l (normal range 15
22 mols/litre).
Apart from investigations for haemolysis, list 2 other investigations, explaining your
reason for doing the test, to help elucidate the cause of the increased MCV.
B12 deficiency can cause Macrocytic Megaloblastic Anaemia
Folate Levels deficiency can cause Macrocytic Megaloblastic anaemia
TFTs hypothyroidism can be a cause of macrocytic anaemia
Serum Protein Electrophoresis check for paraproteinaemia (myeloma)
Bone Marrow Aspirate/Trephine check for myelodysplastic syndrome
Explain (in less than 50 words) why in haemolysis increased serum bilirubin may not
lead to increased renal excretion of bilirubin.
Haemolysis results in an increased number of red blood cells being broken down
The above causes an increase in the amount of unconjugated bilirubin in the blood
Unconjugated bilirubin is not soluble in water and hence not excreted by the kidneys
Apart from haemoglobinopathies, list 1 defect in the red cells that can cause
haemolysis and give an example.
Abnormal Membrane e.g. Hereditary Spherocytosis or Elliptocytosis
Abnormal Enzymes e.g. G6PD deficiency, Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency
Abnormal Haemoglobin e.g. Hb C, Hb S, Unstable Haemoglobin
It transpires, when the notes arrive, that Mrs J had a splenectomy for this problem as
a child and that she has subsequently had no follow up or treatment after this
procedure.
Strep. Pneumoniae
Haemophillus Influenzae
Neisseria Meningitidis
List 2 other pieces of advice you would wish to investigate in her instance.
Lifelong Prophylactic Antibiotics
Annual Influenza Vaccine
Pneumococcal Vaccine every 5yrs
If Relevant Anti-Malarial Precautions
57
What 3 structures, other than hernia, might give rise to a lump in this area?
subcutaneous fat (lipoma)
femoral lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy)
psoas m. (abscess)
femoral a. (aneurysm)
After your examination you are sure that you are dealing with a hernia.
What factors would influence your advice to the patient about the possibility of
surgical repair? Name 4
location of hernia - distinguish whether femoral/ inguinal
whether it is reducible/ strangulated?
presence of symptoms (eg pain)?
pts desire for surgery/ functional impact
pts comorbidities/ contraindications to surgery
58
List 2 parameters, in the normal population, that predict lung function in nonsmoking
subjects.
age
height
You also arrange for some baseline blood tests, which show a raised haemoglobin of
19.8g/dl. What is the physiological explanation for the raised haemoglobin?
Gaseous exchange is impaired
As a result, less oxygen is readily absorbed into the bloodstream
Resulting hypoxia is detected by kidneys (juxtaglomerular app.)
erythropoietin production Hb
You discuss with Mr TJ the need to stop smoking and provide him with a number of
medical reasons to encourage him to stop. You review Mr TJ four weeks later, only to
be informed that he has not been able to reduce his cigarette consumption.
59
60
Apart from thyroid disease, which other common condition do you wish to exclude?
anxiety
Can mimic the increased heart rate and agitation of hyperthyroidism but palms will be
clammy instead of warm. Other signs may include the existence of goitre, eye signs,
proximal myopathy and wasting.
Outline 3 treatment options for this patient, and provide one specific side effect that
you would warn the patient about for each treatment option
Anti-thyroid Drugs e.g. Carbimazole or Propylthiouracil can cause
agranulocytosis
Radioactive Iodine may cause initial worsening in hyperthyroid symptoms
Thyroidectomy likely hypothyroidism needing lifelong thyroxine treatment
Propranolol exercise intolerance
61
Biopsies confirm chronic ulcerative colitis with areas of severe dysplasia. Give 2
treatment options.
Panproctocolectomy with terminal ileostomy OR creation of pouch and ileoanal anastomosis
Subtotal colectomy with end ileostomy formation (emergency situation)
62
Name 2 causes of cervical lymphadenopathy in any adult patient, not including your
answer earlier
Reactive following viral infection (eg EBV, CMV, HIV)
seroconversion in HIV
Lung mets
Rheumatology - SLE, Juvenile chronic arthritis
63
What will be your initial approach to this blood pressure result? Give two examples of
your next course of action.
measure it again in order to minimise the risk of white coat hypertension
offer ambulatory BP monitoring or home BP recording to dx HTN
You later decide to treat his raised blood pressure, but Mr R.T. is unhappy about long
term drug treatment and asks what benefits are likely. Suggest 2 long-term
advantages.
chance of having a stroke (HTN increase risk 2x)
chance of having a MI (HTN risk 3x)
risk of developing HF
What drug treatment will you consider? Suggest three classes of drugs likely to be
most useful.
ACEi
CCB
Thiazide like diuretics
Mr R.T. asks you about the side effects of the drugs that you propose to use. List one
potential adverse effect for each class of drug in your previous answer.
ACE-I cough, first-dose severe hypotension
Ca-Channel Blockers ankle swelling, headache
Diuretics hypokalaemia, postural hypotension, diabetes, gout
64
What two other common causes of such pain will you want to consider?
Pericarditis/ Myocarditis
GORD
coronary a. spasm
atrial fibrillation
aortic stenosis/ aortic regurgitation
You are unable to make a diagnosis on the history and examination is normal. You
decide to refer him for tests. Suggest two tests giving the rationale for each.
Invasive coronary angiography - gold standard for assessing presence/ severity of CAD
Stress ECHO - assist diagnosis and provide information on precipitating causes (eg aortic
stenosis, HOCM etc)
Exercise Stress Testing - determine degree of functional impairment in CAD
Angina is diagnosed. What medication will you consider to treat his pain? Suggest
two groups of drugs
Short & long acting Nitrates - breakthrough & prophylaxis (eg GTN spray & isosorbide
dinitrate)
Beta blockers - frequency of attacks
Calcium Channel blockers
Nicorandil/ K channel agonist
Ranolazine
Ivabradine
65
What additional points could you seek in the history that would support this
diagnosis? Suggest 3.
Breathing Exertional Dyspnoea, Orthopnoea, Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnoea
Exercise Poor Exercise Tolerance, Fatigue and Weakness
Lungs Cardiac Wheeze, Nocturnal Cough with Frothy Pink Sputum
Other Impaired Mental Status, Cold Peripheries, Impaired Urine Output During
Day with Nocturia
You arrange for a chest X-ray. What features would support your diagnosis? Suggest
3.
Alveolar Oedema
Kelsey B Lines/ interstitial odema
Cardiomegaly
Dilated Prominent Upper Lobe Vessels
Pleural Effusion
You later consider starting the patient on an ACE inhibitor. What precautions will you
take? Suggest 2.
Warn about side effects e.g. first-dose hypotension, cough, hyperkalaemia, renal impairment
Start at a low dose and titrate up
Check Urea and Electrolytes before initiating treatment (? hyperkalaemia or renal
dysfunction)
Check patient is not taking drugs that have interactions with ACE-I e.g. Ciclosporin ( risk of
K+
66
You think that atopic eczema (atopic dermatitis) is the likely diagnosis. What two
further points in the history would you seek to support your diagnosis?
Family history of atopy (asthma, eczema, allergic rhinitis, hay fever)
Personal history of other atopic disease
Sleep disturbance due to itch
Effect of previous treatment on patient
Aggravating and relieving factors
What two clinical signs would you seek on examination of the skin to support your
diagnosis?
Lichen Simplex Chronicus (lichenification)
Hyperlinear Palms
Keratosis Pilaris
Flexural Distribution
Erythema, Vesicles, Exudates
Prurigo Nodularis (thickened firm nodules)
What advice would you give to the patient about the natural history of her skin
disorder? Give 2 points.
Atopy; genetic predisposition due to hypersensitivity to certain allergens. Begins in early
childhood but tends to improve with age. Increased IgE antibodies cause an increased
immune response to environmental allergens. It is therefore very important to avoid exposure
to known allergens or irritants.
Reduced barrier function of skin; skin cells are less tightly packed and have a reduced
waterproof barrier (filaggrin mutations), this makes it more susceptible to external agents and
increases moisture loss causing irritation, allergies, infection and dryness of the skin. It is
therefore very important to use lots of moisturisers to replenish moisture and improve the
barrier function of the skin.
What occupational advice would you give to the patient? Suggest 2 facts
67
If the place of work exposes the patient to irritants or allergens it is important that the patient
takes necessary actions to eliminate exposure, as her eczema cannot improve until these
factors are removed.
68
Name three common causes of these symptoms (apart from ulcerative colitis)?
infective gastroenteritis
IBD
bleeding peptic ulcer
Apart from undertaking a colonoscopy and biopsy, list two ways in which you could
help clarify the diagnosis.
Bloods: FBC, U&E, ESR, CRP, LFT
Blood culture and stool culture exclude infective causes
Sigmoidoscopy and rectal biopsy
Colonoscopy
Barium enema
What abnormalities are you likely to see in the rectal biopsy once this is performed?
Suggest one
UC
List two classes of drugs that might be used to treat this condition and give one
example of each.
Steroids Hydrocortiosone, Prednisolone
5-Aminosalicylic Acid Sulfsalazine, Mesalazine, Olsalazine
Steroid Sparing Agent Azathioprine
The patient deteriorates despite the drug treatment and abdominal pain becomes more
of a feature with swelling. What acute complication would you be concerned about
and how would you investigate this?
Toxic megacolon +/- perforation
69
Name 3 pieces of information you would enquire about in the history to support the
diagnosis of the ulcer being venous in origin.
Hx venous disease, DVTs or trauma (including surgery/fractures to leg) - 3 most
important points
Recurrent phlebitis
Previous pregnancy
Obesity
Immobility
History of pro-thrombotic tendency
What will you look for on examination to support the diagnosis of the ulcer being
venous in origin? Suggest 3 findings
Anatomical Location located around gaiter area
Shape typically a shallow ulcer with flat margins though not necessarily
Palpable peripheral pulses and normal CRT
Signs of venous hypertension i.e:
- Varicosities
- Haemosiderin Pigmentation
- Lipodermatosclerosis,
- Venous Eczema
- Atrophie Blanche (can be 5 separate points)
You decide to refer the patient to hospital for further assessment. List 2 investigations
that should be performed.
Ankle Brachial Pressure Index
Swabs exclude cellulitis (in practice nearly all ulcers will be infected to some
degree)
Blood Glucose
Biopsy - rarely done and of limited relevance
Venous ulceration seems likely. Suggest 2 curative measures that will be considered.
Multilayer-Compression Dressing
Cleansing and debridement
This is a bad question due to the word curative. Compression dressing is the better
answer here.
When the ulcer is healed, what advice will you give the patient to minimise the
chances of recurrence? List 2 pieces of advice.
Avoid prolonged standing/sitting and encourage walking with elevation at rest
Wearing correctly fitted compression stockings
Avoid injuring legs and maintain good skin care
Weight loss
Smoking cessation
70
In no more than 30 words, describe how you calculate his Glasgow Coma Score (GCS)
Eyes: - 2/4 i.e. open to pain
Verbal: - 2/5 i.e. incomprehensible sounds
Motor: - 5/6 i.e. localises to painful stimuli
Is he in a coma?
No as Coma is a score <3
71
What 2 laboratory results would confirm the clinical diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome?
(Give figures)
hypoalbuminuria (<30g/L)
proteinuria (>3.5g/24hrs)
What 3 investigations and their rationale which are essential before performing a renal
biopsy in this patient?
FBC/ Coag screen & bleeding time - biopsy may be contraindicated if risk of bleeding or in
bleeding disorders
Kidney USS - renal masses, single kidney, size of kidney may affect risk: benefit
ratio and physician's decision to perform biopsy.
U&Es + eGFR - determine degree of kidney impairment
Haematinics - to identify and then follow up with therapy any precipitating causes to anaemia
Which 2 complications should you discuss with the patient when obtaining patient
consent for renal biopsy?
bleeding - perirenal haematoma
clot colic - renal colic due to clot within ureters
arteriovenous fistulas - but typically self resolving
What is the most likely histological diagnosis on renal biopsy in this patient?
lupus nephritis
72
Describe three signs of hip osteoarthritis that might be elicited on examining this
patient
crepitus
Trendelenburgs sign
active and passive movements - internal + external rotation, flexion
You know that you have really exhausted the three basic principles of the early
management of osteoarthritis with Mr JR.
What are the three basic principles of management of osteoarthritis and by what
means can each be achieved?
Pt education, physical/ occupational therapy, weight , exercise, assistive
devices
simple analgesia - Paracetamol/ NSAIDs
intra articular steroids
You refer the patient to the orthopaedic surgeons and he is seen at the Outpatient
clinic. His hips are X-rayed again.
Describe two characteristic changes that might be found in the appearance of the
patients right hip on such an X-ray.
Loss of joint space
Osteophytes
Subarticular sclerosis
Subchondral cysts
73
This shows:
Hb 5.4g/dl (Normal range 13.5-18g/dl)
MCV 112 fl (Normal range 80-95 fl)
74
What is the dysrhythmia in this case? How would you treat it acutely?
Supraventricular tachycardia
Use vagal manoeuvres
Adenosine 6 mg rapid IV bolus;
if unsuccessful give 12 mg;
if unsuccessful give further 12 mg.
Monitor ECG continuously
She responds and is started on regular digoxin. What advice would you give the
patient about the symptoms of possible Digoxin toxicity. Name 2 factors.
Nausea/ vomiting
abdominal pain
dizziness
headache
confusion
delirium
visual disturbance (blurred/ yellow visions)
75
76
What biochemical investigation is performed to test, screen for and monitor treatment
of carcinoid syndrome?
Urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic Acid i.e. 5-HIAA
Serum Chromogranin A/B (more sensitive but less widely available so not as good an
answer)
Explain why carcinoid syndrome usually occurs later in patients with small bowel
carcinoid tumour than in those with a pulmonary carcinoid.
Carcinoid syndrome is due to excess serotonin entering systemic circulation
In small bowel carcinoid serotonin is released into the hepatic portal system and
so is broken down by the liver before entering circulation; hence symptoms dont
appear unless liver metastases are present or there is already pre-existing liver
damage causing liver function
In pulmonary carcinoid serotonin is released directly into systemic circulation and, though the
lung itself has some capacity to metabolise serotonin, it not enough to prevent earlier
accumulation of serotonin to symptomatic levels
In general, small bowel neoplasms are much rarer than those of the large bowel or
stomach. List 2 other malignant tumours that are relatively common in the small
bowel.
Lymphoma
Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumour (Top 2 = best answers)
77
Adenocarcinoma
Apart from exertional chest pain, name 2 other symptoms from which patient with
aortic stenosis might suffer.
Dyspnoea
Exertional Syncope
Orthopnoea
Please describe 3 features of the murmur you would expect to elicit in a case of AS.
Crescendo-decrescendo pattern peaking in mid-systole
Radiates to the Carotids
Loudest at the 2nd right interspace
Please describe, in less than 50 words, why patients with AS may experience chest
pain.
In AS the valve is narrowed creating a pressure burden on the left ventricle
The LV undergoes concentric hypertrophy in response to the high systolic pressure
The hypertrophied muscle requires more oxygen but does not receive it (Supply-demand
mismatch)
Insufficient oxygen causes ischaemia, which produces chest pain
Concomitant coronary artery disease
What is the most important investigation to identify the cause of Mr JJs problem?
Echocardiogram assess pressure gradient and surface area of valve
pericarditis. His arrest page goes off and he is called away and he asks you to sort the
patient out.
List 4 features which would help you confirm the pain is pericardial in origin.
Site: Pain located retrosternally or over left precordium
Onset: Pain is not related to exertion
Character: Pain can be pleuritic, sharp, stabbing or aching (i.e. it is not constricting like
MI/Angina)
Radiation: Pain radiates to the trapezius ridge
E+R Factors: Pain relieved on sitting up or bending forward and worse when lying flat
The ward sister suggests you do an ECG. List 1 abnormality you would expect to see
if the patient has pericarditis.
Concave upwards ST-segment elevation in all leads bar aVR/V1
PR Depression
Clearly Mr PC is in pain.
Give 2 side-effects that you would warn him about because they may cause him
symptoms
Gastro-intestinal Disturbances e.g. discomfort, nausea, diarrhoea and rarely
bleeding/ulceration
Hypersensitivity Reactions i.e. rashes, bronchospasm
The FY2 returns from his arrest and asks you what other causes of pericarditis there
are apart from viral disease.
Neoplasm
Idiopathic
Myocardial Infarction
Autoimmune Disorders e.g. RA
79
80
What is the pathophysiological significance of the raised jugular venous pressure and
crackles at the lung bases?
The raised JVP indicates systemic venous congestion, which suggests Right Heart Failure is
present
The crackles indicate pulmonary congestion, which suggests Left Heart Failure is also
present
Hence, the patient has biventricular cardiac failure with pulmonary oedema
Digoxin, a beta-blocker and dobutamine were all considered for initial treatment but
rejected. Give 1 reason for rejecting each of these.
Digoxin the patient has sinus rhythm (no evidence of benefit)
-Blocker contraindicated in acute heart failure
Dobutamine inotropic agents should only be used to treat acute
decompensation
81
The patient has been using her brothers topical corticosteroid cream. Why are topical
corticosteroids not used a first-line therapy?
Side effects i.e.:
Local skin thinning, striae, easy bruising/fragility, risk of skin infection,
steroid acne
Systemic adrenal suppression, Cushings Syndrome
Risk of developing unstable psoriasis with potent corticosteroids when treatment is stopped
Note that in practice, topical steroid combinations are often used as a first line e.g. with
calcipitriol or tar
Apart from UV phototherapy, name 1 second-line oral drug that a Dermatologist might
offer and state an important side effect associated with its use.
Drug Methotrexate, Ciclosporin, Acitretin, Fumaric Acid
Side Effect Pancytopenia/ Liver Cirrhosis
82
List 2 clinical signs you would seek on examination of the skin to support your
diagnosis
Characteristics well-demarcated, silver scale, salmon pink plaques
Distribution extensor surfaces, scalp, torso
Nail Changes onchylosis, pitting
What types of topical treatments could you start David on? Name 4.
Topical Steroids of mild-mod potency e.g. Hydrocortisone Ointment 1%
Emollients
Vitamin D Analogues
Tar-based Creams e.g. Psoriderm
Less Commonly Dithranol and Tazarotene
You see David frequently over the next year. His psoriasis did not respond well and
you now class it as severe. He is very anxious and you decide to start him on
83
systemic treatment. Your consultant prescribes Acitretin, an oral retinoid. Who would
you not give this drug to and why?
Who women of child-bearing age Also: patients with hyper-lipidaemia / liver
problems
Why teratogenic Exacerbates lipids/ Risks further impairment of liver
function
84
The patient subsequently develops a painful swollen right arm. What complication do
you suspect and how should it be managed?
Complication Axillary Vein Thrombosis
Management Give Heparin
85
As his GP, list 2 lifestyle measures that you would suggest he takes into account as
part of the treatment.
Eat small, frequent portions of meal at regular times
Reduce alcohol intake
If appropriate attempt to lose some weight
If appropriate attempt to cut down smoking
A year later he represents after following all your initial management and his
symptoms are as troublesome as before. You refer him to a gastroenterologist. List
three investigations likely to be necessary.
Urea breath test
Oesophogastroduodenoscopy + biopsy
Oesophageal pH or Manometry
Biopsies from his distal oesophagus demonstrate extensive intestinal metaplasia
Why is it significant?
Barretts oesophagus can progress to oesophageal adenocarcinoma
86
List 2 biochemical abnormalities that you have identified in these results and provide
an explanation as to why each might be relevant, given the above history.
Raised Urea/Creatinine indicates dehydration and need for fluid resuscitation
Hypokalaemia indicates significant diarrhoea and may cause
arrhythmias/altered nerve conduction
There are no beds available within your Infectious Disease Unit. You decide to admit
Mr EE.
What advice would you give to the nurses regarding his infectious state?
Salmonella can spread directly from person to person so barrier nursing is needed
Following Salmonella infection a patient continues to carry and secrete organisms for several
weeks
What type of intravenous fluid would you prescribe given his biochemical results?
Hartmans or equivalent crystalloid solution with Potassium
Over what period of time would prescribe the first 500ml bag?
Rehydrate at least half the calculated deficit (based on degree of reduced intake and
diarrhoeal fluid loss) over 3-4 hours, so first 500ml usually given over 30minutes to 1 hour
Despite your best efforts, the patient dies in the early hours of the morning and you
are called to confirm his death. Give 2 observations that you would use to confirm
death.
Palpation of all major pulses, all absent
87
88
What 2 laboratory results would confirm the clinical diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome?
Give figures.
Proteinuria (>3g/24hrs)
Hypoproteinaemia (serum albumin <25g/L)
List 3 investigations that are essential before performing a renal biopsy in this patient.
Renal US (ensure patient has 2 normal sized non-obstructed kidneys)
FBC
Clotting Screen
U&Es
Group and Save
Early morning protein:creatinine ratio
Name 2 complications you should discuss with the patient when obtaining patient
consent for renal biopsy.
Bleeding (peri-renal haematoma occurs in 65-80%; others = Micro/macroscopic Haematuria
Pain typically in flank and possibly radiating to shoulder
Introduction of infection
Mortality (0.1%)
What is the most likely histological diagnosis on renal biopsy in this patient?
Membranous Nephritis + In-situ Immune Complex Deposition
89
List 4 clinical signs you would use to assess the patient and explain why these would
be valuable.
JVP surrogate for right atrial pressure so fluid overload and fluid
depleted
Skin Turgor measure fluid state
Mucous Membranes measure fluid state
HR tachycardia may be precipitated by hypovolaemia
Temperature <36/>38 may indicate sepsis
Palpable Bladder may be an obstructive cause for AKI
Respiratory Exam may reveal pulmonary oedema
Your FY2 suggests that it may be useful to put in a central venous pressure line.
What is an estimate of the volume of urine needed to be passed per hour to ensure
that oliguric renal failure is less likely to occur?
0.5ml/kg/hr
If the urine output fails to reach this figure, what course of action should be taken?
Give fluid challenge and measure the response
Seek senior review +/- HDU/ICU Support depending on patient status
90
Your clinical examination suggests the presence of an upper motor neurone lesion.
List 4 features that would suggest this is the case.
Increased tone (clasp knife)
Clonus
Hyperreflexia
Extensor plantars
An MRI scan confirms your diagnosis with a secondary deposit in the body of the 11th
dorsal vertebrae. The radiologist contacts you to point out that there is pressure from
this lesion on the thoracic spinal cord.
Suggest 3 urgent treatment that should be considered to help the symptoms of leg
weakness.
IV Dexamethasone
Local Radiotherpy
Surgical Decompression Laminectomy
91
List 2 other features you would ask about in the history to confirm the diagnosis.
Slow Movement
Handwriting changes (Micrographia)
Tremor
Difficulty turning around
Name 2 classes of drugs (with one example of each) that can cause these symptoms.
Typical Antipsychotics e.g. Haloperidol
92
93
Apart from osteoporosis what would your top 2 differential diagnoses be in this lady
and why?
Osteomyelitis
Mechanical Back Pain
Cancer (weight loss and smoking)
List 4 risk factors that you would enquire about in a patient in whom the diagnosis is
suspected to be osteoporosis?
Hx of steroid therapy
Age of menarche/menopause whether or not she used HRT (HRT decreases risk)
Family Hx e.g. of hip fracture
Bone protection i.e. Calcium Intake, sun exposure
Social Hx smoking and alcohol use
PMH prolonged period(s) of immobility
Occupational Hx Space Travel
An X-ray confirms a crush fracture at L1. What key investigation would you now wish
to perform to confirm the diagnosis of osteoporosis?
DEXA scan
Mrs MS has been receiving treatment with hormone replacement therapy for the past
five years for post-menopausal symptoms. Bearing in mind recent research
developments, what advice would you now give her about this form of treatment?
After 5Y: risk breast cancer, stroke, DVT/PE and CV disease BUT risk is still low.
risk colon cancer and hip fracture
What advice and treatment would you now give to the patient on discharge? List 4
separate items.
Alendronic acid 70mg once weekly
Cholecalciferol 600 units OD
Regular exercise strength and balance training
Avoid excess alcohol and cut down smoking
Increase dietary calcium intake and sun exposure/vitamin D intake
Ensure there are no trip hazards around the house
94
What is the most appropriate imaging investigation that should be carried out at this
stage?
CXR
List 3 further non-invasive investigations that would be appropriate and how each
would help you in making the diagnosis?
Sputum Culture and Sensitivity (AAFB) identify causative agent
AAFB Sputum Smear (Ziehl-Nielsen/Auramine Stain) rapidly identify AAFB if
present
Sputum Nucleic Acid Amplification Test for M. Tuberculosis rapidly identify M. TB
if present
What is the most appropriate immediate course of action to be suggested to the nurse
manager when this patient is admitted?
Isolate the patient and initiate barrier nursing
Once your most likely diagnosis is confirmed, who should be informed immediately
and why?
Who Public Health Consultant
Why to initiate contact tracing for prophylactic vaccination and, secondly, so
they know how the disease is behaving in the public for epidemiological studies
95
List 3 clinical features of sarcoidosis that you would specifically look for on your
initial clinical examination?
Arthralgia + OTHERS:
Erythema Nodosum
Lymphadenopathy
Others:
Facial Palsy
Photophobia
Red Painful Eye
Wheezing
Rhonchi
Lupus Pernio
List 2 investigations (other than biopsy) that might help confirm the diagnosis.
FBC leukopaenia / anaemia
Serum Calcium hypercalcaemia
Purified Protein Derivative of Tuberculin exclude TB
ECG identify cardiac involvement
NOT CXR SINCE IT IS MENTIONED ABOVE
What is the most appropriate immediate course of action to be suggested to the nurse
manager when this patient is admitted?
Isolate the patient
NOTE: We have been assured question will appear in exams. The idea behind the question
is that you should isolate the patient as a precaution in case it transpires that the bilateral
hilar lymphadenopathy is due to TB. However, we were told that in practise this would just
never happen as the odds of that being the case in the UK are so slim. Hence, the question
should not make it through the 2012 selection process.
At your initial assessment she has no signs of involvement of other organs and you
decide that no specific treatment is required. You see her again in 3 months but on
that occasion she tells you she has a dry non-productive cough and becomes
breathless on fairly mild exertion.
96
97
List 2 features of her history obtained on further questioning, that would be important
to take into consideration when assessing the severity of her symptoms?
Function is it impacting her daily life/ does it restrict her getting about
Pain how severe is the pain
List 4 features you would look for on examination, which would support your
hypothesis?
3 Js, 3 Ms + Bony Swelling:
Joint tenderness
Joint instability
Joint effusion
Movement limited
Movement crepitus
Muscle wasting
Bony swelling
98
RA has a familial pattern. What is the HLA type associated with its development?
HLA-DR4/DR1
What X ray findings would you suspect if this was a case of rheumatoid arthritis?
JLS-P: (like the band but with a P)
Joint Erosion
Loss of joint space
Soft tissue swelling
Peri-osteal osteoporosis
Routine blood investigations show an increased CRP and a reduced haemoglobin.
List 3 other health professionals that will be involved in the long-term care of this
patient and outline what each would contribute.
Orthopaedic Surgeon total joint replacement, synovectomy, excisional
arthroplasty
Physiotherapist dynamic exercise therapy, hydrotherapy, TENS
Occupational Therapist advice and home adaptations to help manage daily
living i.e. washing etc
Orthotics splints
Dietetics minimise risk of anaemia
99
What is the most likely diagnosis and which is the joint involved?
Osteoarthritis of the Right Hip
You decide to arrange an X-ray. Name 4 features that you would be likely to see in this
case.
LOBS:
Loss of Joint Space
Osteophyte Formation
Bone Cysts
Sub-articular Sclerosis
What is the most appropriate form of management? Name 2 aspects and mark the one
you consider to be most important.
Non-pharmacological (Most Important) weight loss, exercise, physio, OT,
orthotics
Pharmacological analgesia (e.g. paracetamol/NSAIDs) +/- intra-articular
corticosteroids
Surgical arthroplasty is typically best though osteotomy and arthrodesis may also be
used
Six months later she continues to complain of pain, which is not relieved by your
primary treatment. The pain now wakes her at night and you notice a 5 fixed flexion
deformity. What procedure would now be indicated?
Total Hip Arthroplasty
Her daughter asks you about long-term complications of this surgical procedure.
Describe 2 long-term complications that you would tell her about. (Less than 50
words)
Chronic pain and stiffness can be a problem
However, if her mother is compliant with rehabilitation programme this should be minimised
There may be a need for repeated surgery as the joint gradually loosens with activity
Late infection may occur and require antibiotics/revision surgery
As with all operations, death is a potential long-term complication
Early Complications DVT, PE, septic arthritis, limb length discrepancy, medial
acetabular wall rupture
100
In addition to pain, what other symptoms, in connection with her hand, would you
enquire about? Name 2 symptoms.
Paraesthesia median nerve territory i.e. thumb, index, middle and radial half of
ring finger
Decreased Sensation
Weakness of thumb abduction
Clumsiness of hand
List 4 features on physical examination or testing that would help confirm your
diagnosis.
Reduced sensation in median nerve territory
Wasting of muscles of thenar eminence (OAF)
Weakness of abduction of thumb (abductor pollicis brevis)
Positive Phalens test (reproduction of symptoms on full flexion of wrists > 1min)
Positive Tinels test (paraesthesia on tapping over course of median nerve)
Name 2 symptoms and signs that differentiate ulnar nerve entrapment from CTS.
Distribution numbness and paraesthesia on ulnar half of ring finger and little
finger
Wasting hypothenar eminence and interossei
Weakness of abduction of fingers i,e, cant cross fingers due to weakness of
interossei
Froments sign flexion of PIP joint while grasping piece of paper between thumb
and index finger due to weakness of adductor pollicis
Poor flexion of 4th and 5th DIP joints with weakness of wrist flexors
101
What are the 3 main cell types in the islets of Langerhans and what hormones do they
secrete?
Alpha Glucagon
Beta Insulin
Delta Somatostatin
102
Name two additional features that you would expect to elicit if his jaundice is
obstructive in nature?
Dark urine
Pale Stools (steatorrhea)
You had recently prescribed a course of antibiotics and are concerned that he may
have a drug-induced jaundice.
Name 3 mechanisms by which antibiotics may cause jaundice and for each cause give
one example of a drug that may be responsible.
Pre-Hepatic: Impaired Bilirubin Uptake (e.g. Rifampicin) unconjugated
bilirubin jaundice
Intra-Hepatic: Induce Liver Failure (e.g. Rifampicin) excretion of bilirubin
bilirubin jaundice
Post-Hepatic: risk of gallstones (e.g. Flucloxacillin) blocks duct excretion
jaundice
Allergic Haemolytic Anaemia (e.g. Cephalosporins) RBC breakdown
bilirubin jaundice
An abdominal ultrasound is arranged. What findings would lead you to conclude that
he has extrahepatic biliary obstruction?
Dilatation of the Common Bile Duct/Common Hepatic Duct
Name the two main causes of extrahepatic biliary obstruction in a man of this age?
Neoplastic Disease of pancreatic head, ampulla or bile duct (i.e.
Cholangiocarcinoma)
Choledocolithiasis (common bile duct stone)
103
What drugs are commonly responsible for this complication in elderly patients?
NSAIDs e.g. Ibuprofen
Antiplatelets/Anticoagulants e.g. Warfarin
Name two tests available to identify H. Pylori as a cause for peptic ulcer disease?
Urease Breath Test
H. Pylori Stool Antigen Test or Serology
Gastroscopy and CLO test or histological assessment
Apart from blood transfusion list two treatment options for the management of the
acute bleed in this patient.
Resuscitation
Endoscopic Haemostasis e.g. Thermal Coagulation, Mechanical Clips, Adrenaline Injection
PO or IV PPI e.g. Omeprazole.
We have been told this is a badly worded question. It should really just be asking What is
the most appropriate management for this patient? with the answer being Resuscitation
followed by Endoscopic Haemostasis. Also, with regards to IV PPI, it is expensive and there
is limited evidence as to its efficacy. IV PPI (normally Omeprazole) is indicated following
successful endoscopic haemostasis (commonly referred to as the Hong Kong protocol). In
conclusion there is a role for PPI, but this should be given orally for the majority of patients.
Following successful control of the bleeding, she is returned to the ward and
commenced on an infusion of omeprazole. What is the mechanism of action of this
drug?
Proton Pump Inhibitor
Irreversibly blocks hydrogen/potassium ATPase in parietal cells
Result is significantly reduced H+ secreted HCl, which results in an increase
in gastric pH
pH is beneficial because it results in improved platelet function
What hormone is secreted by the gastric mucosa? What cell type is responsible?
Gastrin, G-cells
104
Name three conditions associated with increased plasma levels of this hormone.
Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome
Atrophic Gastritis
Pernicious Anaemia targeting parietal cells ONLY
Peptic Ulcer Disease
Atypical Site of Gastrin Secretion e.g. Meckels Diverticulum with Gastric Mucosa or
Paraneoplastic
There are 2 types of Pernicious Anaemia. One targets the parietal cell H/K ATPase pump (causing acid gastrin) with the other blocking B12/Intrinsic
Factor binding or absorption (and hence never affecting gastrin levels).
105
What techniques are currently available that would permit you to image the bile duct
using appropriate contrast?
Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography
Percutaneous Transhepatic Cholangiography
Operative Cholangiography
HIDA
NOT Magnetic Resonance Cholagiopancreatography as it does not use contrast
NOT CT Pancreas because although it uses contrast, it is venous and never enters the bile
duct
We have been told that this question is terrible due to the contrast component. The patient
has had an episode of acute pancreatitis and has imaging, which suggests
choledocolithiasis. With this in mind, the only appropriate way to proceed is with ERCP.
If the US had not diagnostic (for example if it had demonstrated minimal dilatation of the
CBD with no choledocolithiasis) then MRCP is the most appropriate test.
Alternatively the patient could have a laparoscopic cholecystectomy with intra-operative
cholangiography, but this relies on the operator then having a strategy to manage
choledocolithiasis surgically, so most surgeonswould ensure that the duct was clear with
ERCP or MRCP prior to surgery. There is no real role for CT in the imaging of the biliary tree
as the images produced are not as good as on MRCP. The only situation where a patient
would get a CT over an MR would be if the surgeons anticipated encountering neoplastic
disease of the pancreatic head/CBD HIDA is a functional investigation and I would not
consider it useful/relevant in this situation.
106
What definitive surgical management options would you like to discuss with your
patient?
ERCP + Sphincterotomy and a combination of balloon trawl of CBD and/or stent
Follow above with laparoscopic cholecystectomy if appropriate, OR
Laparoscopic cholecystectomy with intra-operative cholangiography and laparoscopic CBD
exploration
This question is asking about specific management of Choledocolithiasis.
107
Question 89: GU
A 25 year old man presents to his GP with an enlarged non-tender testis. A tumour is
suspected.
Older men (e.g. over 60) are generally affected by different testicular tumours from the
younger age group. Name 2 types of neoplasm in the testis that would be likely to
present in the older age group.
Lymphoma
Interstitial Tumour
His girlfriend comes to see you and asks what the prognosis would be for children
post-surgery if the testis needs to be removed. What principles would you use to
guide what you tell her?
Confidentiality i.e. as bf has capacity you are legally obligated to follow his wishes and since
he has not made it clear that she can be informed about specifics of his rx you are unable to
discuss his case with her without him being present and consent being given
Truthfulness/Honesty: as a general rule in cases where an orchidectomy is required, the
other testicle compensates for the loss. In the unlikely situation both have to be removed,
sperm is 'harvested' and stored for future use
Non-maleficence: you have no idea what the impact of telling her he either will or wont be
able to have children may have and so, it is best to speak in general terms.
This question is absolutely dreadful. The first point is by far the most important. Anything else
within reason will get the marks.
108
You think he has rest pain secondary to arterial disease. Give 3 features from the
history which would support the diagnosis.
Elderly
Male
Smoker
Known DM
Hypertension
Hypercholesterolaemia
Though neither of the above are specifically mentioned, the surgeon informed us that, as
final year students, we are expected to be able to identify factors such as these i.e. 99% of
80 year olds will have hypertension and hypercholesterolemia and hence, it is acceptable to
write these.
109
List 3 features that you would look for on local examination of the leg to support your
hypothesis of chronic arterial vascular disease.
Diminished peripheral pulses
Cold/shiny/scaly skin
Pallor of peripheries
Peripheral hair loss
Ulceration/gangrene
Thickened toenails
Muscle atrophy
She asks you about her condition. In <50 words describe the likely cause of this
presentation as you would outline it to her.
As we get older, the blood vessels that supply oxygen to our muscles may get narrower
Smoking and being overweight are both known to exacerbate this problem
Once severe enough, narrowing prevents the muscles getting enough oxygen, which is felt
as pain
You suspect critical ischaemia. List 4 features which, on examination of the leg, would
support your assessment and suggest that the ischaemia is critical.
Buerger's angle <20 (Elevation Pallor)
Capillary Refill >15 seconds
Diminished/Absent pulses
Evidence of gangrene or ulceration
NOT rest pain as not found on Ex
NOT night pain by hanging off bed
NOT 6 Ps as this is ACUTE Ischaemia - Pain, Paralysis, Paraesthesia, Pallor, Perishingly
Cold, Pulseless
110
If this is a malignant bone tumour, what appearances would you expect to see in the xray of left knee?
Codmans Triangle - as tumors enlarges raising the periosteum
sunray calcification - new bone breaches the cortex & radiates outwards into adjacent soft
tissue
What is the prognosis of this condition with available modern treatment methods?
5yr survival 55%
111
After further examination you decide she is clinically depressed. List 4 mental state
findings that would be sufficient to reach this diagnosis.
Anhedonia
Anergia
Persistently Low Mood
Nihilism
Alexithymia (loss of ability to feel emotion)
Suicidal Thoughts
What is the single most important aspect of risk assessment to consider first?
Suicide Risk/Risk to Others
This is a bad question and weve been told that the author of psych questions has been
informed that it should be removed from further papers.
You decide to prescribe an antidepressant drug. List 3 factors, which would contribute
to your choice of drug.
Suicide Risk (i.e. no TCAs)
Co-morbidities
Drug Allergies
Previous response to antidepressant therapy (if applicable)
Existing therapy (if applicable)
Interactions with current medications (if applicable)
Which other health care professional would you ask to help with longer term follow
up?
Community Psychiatric Nurse
Psychologist
Her own GP
112
What other 3 investigations would you initiate for the couples infertility?
Sperm Analysis - presence of azoospermia, morphological abnormalities
assessment of ovulation/ mid luteal progesterone
hysterosalpingography/laparoscopy
113
List three features from different aspects of the patients social history which would
indicate the severity of his alcohol problem.
Quantity how much is he drinking each week?
Occupation has his drinking affected his job?
Family/Friends does he remain in contact with them/do his friends drink
similarly?
OR CAGE
Has he ever thought of Cutting down?
Has he ever been Annoyed by people criticizing your drinking?
Does he ever feel Guilty about drinking?
Is alcohol an Eye opener for you?
Name 2 laboratory investigations which would help confirm excessive alcohol use.
LFTs - GGT, AST>ALT
FBC Anaemia or Pancytopaenia
Peripheral blood film Macrocytosis
Give two features of the history you would seek from the patient to indicate he has
alcohol dependency.
According to ICD-10:
Compulsion: Do you feel a strong desire to drink when you dont?
Loss of control: Do you find yourself unable to control your drinking behaviour?
Withdrawal: Do you experience any alcohol withdrawal e.g. shakes, tremor, tachycardia,
palpitations
Loss of tolerance: Do you find yourself drinking more alcohol to reach the same effect as
before?
Salience: Is drinking becoming the most important aspect of your life?
Persistence despite evidence of harm: Do you still continue to drink despite knowing the
harm it does?
Stereotyped repetitive behaviour: Do you find yourself drinking at a certain time each day?
Reinstatement: Have you stopped drinking for a certain period, but then gone on to drink
again?
114
Give four long-term psychiatric complications resulting from long term alcohol abuse.
Neurological:
Wernickes encephalopathy (due to B1 (thiamine) deficiency),
Korsakoffs psychosis (irreversible result of untreated Wernickes
Peripheral Neuropathy
Others = Alcohol-related Dementia, Cerebellar Atrophy, Central Pontine Myelinolysis
Psychiatric:
Anxiety
Depression
Others = Personality Disorder, Amnesia, Alcoholic Hallucinosis, Morbid Jealousy
115
What is the underlying mechanism of action that causes this side effect and in which
brain region does it occur?
D2 receptor antagonism
The Nigrostriatal dopamine pathway in the brain
116
Give 2 pieces of information which will be relevant from her booking attendance.
Baseline BP
FH pre-eclampsia
Dipstick Result
PMH of hypertension
What single besides (or ward) investigation would you arrange to be performed?
Urine proteinuria
117
The parents are keen to take the baby home as he is now better. As the FY1 in A+E
what would you do?
Seek senior advice immediately
Inform parents that due to the nature of the injury you need to ask a senior colleague to
review child
When speaking to senior colleague you would inform them of your suspicion and ask them to
review
The opthomologist is used to see the child. Name at least one features the are looking
for.
Retinal Haemorrhages
Both Vitreal Haemorrhages and Retinoschisis (splitting of retinas neurosensory layers) may
also be present but are not as likely and so wouldnt give you the marks.
Name 3 other professionals or resources outside the hospital that might provide
important information to elucidate the diagnosis.
Social Workers
Health Visitor
GP
118
What would you give him for pain relief? Specify the type of drug and give one
example.
morphine sulphate
opioid
What route of administration would you use which would be most appropriate?
IV
He is still in pain. The nurse asks if he may have some Entonox.
What is Entonox?
50% O2 & 50% NO anaesthetic gas
analgesic (equivalent of 15mg morphine given SC)
List 2 groups of patients who should not be given Entonox in an emergency setting.
consciously impaired
patients with a confirmed/ presumed pneumothorax
His pain is now slightly better. You now notice that it is difficult to palpate a pulse in
the right ankle.
What additional measures would make him more comfortable before he goes through
this?
Attempt to reduce the fracture and immobilise it in a back slab plaster cast.
He is immobilised in plaster for 6 weeks. List 3 possible complications that are likely
in this time.
Compartment syndrome.
DVT/PTE
Muscle atrophy
119
The child refuses to talk to you and clings to his mother. Describe 2 ways to assess
pain in this child.
Ask the child or the mother
Observation of the position he holds his knee in i.e. query pseudoparalysis
General behaviour of child
Observation of gait
Gentle examination if appropriate
Because we put so much research into this and the paediatrician gave us the thumbs up, Im
leaving these in even though they arent on the mark scheme:
Faces Pain Scale child points to face that best represents how they feel
FLACC ranks 5 observational criteria (Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, Consolability)
from 0-2 to determine severity of pain in children aged 2mo-7yrs
Alder Hey Triage Pain Score observational scale similar to above but different
criteria (Cry/Voice, Facial Expression, Posture, Movement, Colour)
Ask mother to play with him/ get him to walk while you observe through a window from a
distance
You consider aspiration of the joint. List 2 other investigations you would want to
undertake.
Bloods Culture, FBC ( WCC), cRP, ESR
Imaging US (to guide aspiration) and Plain XR (not diagnostic but used as
baseline)
120
What 2 tests will you use and briefly describe how you will carry out each test?
Visual Acuity Chart 6m distance read off letter rows until cannot read next one
Confrontation Test/ Visual Fields sit opposite patient and ask to cover one eye
(while you cover your own) and use red hat-pin to determine their visual fields in
each eye independently.
Though the second point is most likely the correct answer, it would not be the real priority as
field loss from glaucoma is unlikely to be detected in this way. In an elderly patient with a
hazy cornea and loss of vision, you should always stain with fluorescein to rule out a corneal
ulcer
On examination you find evidence of corneal oedema, a fixed dilated vertically oval
pupil, the lack of a red reflex and a shallow anterior chamber. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
Acute Closed-Angle Glaucoma
This patient had attended a diabetic clinic that day. What iatrogenic factor could have
contributed to her acute illness?
Dilating drops/ mydriatics (e.g. Anticholinergics: tropicamide) to help examine retina
122
What is the most concerning toxic effect of Amitriptyline and how should this be
assessed?
Toxic Effect Arrhythmia secondary to QT Interval prolongation
Assessed ECG
After appropriate medical treatment, you interview him with a view to assessing his
mental state.
Give 4 findings in the history which would be suggestive of serious suicidal intent.
Leaving a note
Planning
Undertaking when unlikely to be discovered/interrupted
Did not inform anyone
Patient sure that their actions would result in death
Patient truly wanted to die
Patient would have died without medical intervention
Patient upset that they failed in their attempt
On-going Suicidal Intent
List 3 underlying psychiatric disorders most associated with raised suicide risk.
Substance Abuse
Bipolar Affective Disorder
Schizophrenia
Depression
Substance abuse although it has the strongest association with suicide risk, the
consultant felt that it might not be accepted.
123
What may Julie have been doing at university, which is a known precipitating factor
for schizophrenia?
marijuana
Why is this? Name 2 other signs you may see because of this side-effect.
Bradykinesia
Rigidity
This is an ambiguous question. The side-effect they mean is Parkinsonism (not general D2
blockage). Hence, Tardive Dyskinesia and Acute Dystonia are incorrect.
Julies mother attends the surgery alone to ask about the treatment and what the
prognosis is for her getting back to University.
124
You refer Julie to a psychiatrist. After 1 month she has failed to respond to two
neuroleptics and clozapine is prescribed. He explains to you that Julie should now
attend the GP surgery for regular blood tests as part of routine monitoring.
What test should be done and what abnormality is being looked for?
agranulocytosis
125
You are working as a Foundation Training Doctor in A&E and examine the child and
perform an arterial blood gas which is reported as follows:
PH 7.50 (normal range 7.35-7.45);
pCO2 5.0 kPa (normal range 4.6-6 kPa);
p O2 12 kPa (normal range 10-13.5kPa);
base deficit +5.8 (normal = 0)
126
On more detailed examination you notice gastric peristalsis and you feel a pyloric
tumour in the upper abdomen. What is the most appropriate next investigation?
abdominal ultrasound
127
List 3 possible reasons which might explain this childs motor development.
normally variance
mild cerebral palsy- hemiplegic cerebral palsy
fragile X syn
rickets
duchenne muscular dystrophy
spinal muscular atrophy
global developmental delay of any cause i.e. TORCH exposure in utero, any chromosomal
abnormality
You decide to evaluate other aspects of the childs development. What would be the
normal speech and language development you would expect in a 15 month old child?
Give 2 points.
vocabulary up to 5 words
adopts no as favorite works
puts fingers to mouth & says shh
You continue with your developmental examination. How would you test vision in this
child? List 2 points
Test visual acuity using Cardiff Cards
if <6wks premature, visual acuity should be 6/18 to 6/12
128
129
Other than intussusception name 2 other conditions that could account for his
symptoms.
gastroenteritis due to Salmonella or Shigella
Urinary tract infection (typically urinary symptoms more prevalent)
pyloric stenosis (but projectile nonbilious vomiting postprandial)
appendicitis (but PR bleed not usually present)
When taking the history from the mother, name 2 symptoms that it is important to ask
about.
blood/mucus or Redcurrant jelly stools (late sign)
Episodes of pallor and screaming
Vomiting (Bilious - late sign)
On examination, the child becomes increasingly irritable. He becomes pale, develops
a tachycardia of 140 bpm and a capillary refill time of 5 seconds. His respiratory rate is
30 per minute but saturations are 98% on air.
131
Name 6 clinical features you might see on simple visual inspection which are
consistent with a diagnosis of Downs syndrome.
brachycephaly + flat occiput
epicanthal folds
upslanting palpebral folds
Brushfield spots on riris
short nose with low nsala bridges and small nares
excess skin on back of neck
short hands
single palmar transverse crease
digital dermatoglyphics
5th finger clinodactyly
wide space between 1st/2nd toes
vertical plantar creases
hypoplasia of iliac wings
What neurological finding is present in almost all newborn infants with Downs
syndrome?
Hypotonia
You decide to confirm the diagnosis. What is the most likely karyotype?
Trisomy 21
132
What type of karyotype would significantly increase the risk of his parents having
another baby with Downs syndrome?
t(14q:21q) - Robertsonian Translocation
Caused by translocation between the long arms (q) of chromosomes 14 and 21 where the
breakpoint is near the centromere; the short arms (p) of these two chromosomes are
generally lost. Carriers are clinically normally but outcomes from conception can include T21
(live birth), T14 (early miscarriage) or t(14q21q) carrier (live birth). - High-yield Cell and
Molecular Biology, Volume 845 p60 (on google books).
A women carrying silent RT 14q;21q has high risk (12-15%) for having a child with Down
syndrome. - Kolgeci S, Kolgeci J, Azemi M, et al. Dermatoglyphics and Reproductive Risk in
a Family with Robertsonian Translocation 14q;21q. Acta Informatica Medica. 2015;23(3):178183. doi:10.5455/aim.2015.23.179-183.
PALI have this answer as being 21:21 but after discussing with Sophie we would disagree
and state the answer above. Ive added the text above to support out answer.
Examination of the cardiovascular system at the time of birth was normal. Five weeks
later the mother takes the baby, James, to the General Practitioner because he has not
been feeding well. On examination the General Practitioner hears a loud pansystolic
murmur but noticed that James is not cyanosed and all his peripheral pulses are
palpable.
Give 2 cardiac lesions that are most likely to underlie his signs and symptoms?
Atrioventricular Septal Defect
Ventricular Septal Defect
The babys mother is in the room. How should the diagnosis be given? Give 5 points.
By a senior clinician with a nurse present to support the mother
In a quiet/calm area suited to discussion (i.e. not in a ward with other people)
Use of warning shot without use of directly negative statement e.g. Im afraid its not good
news
Over an adequate amount of time to facilitate discussion i.e. do not rush
With a detailed description of the condition and the impact it will have (if desired by the
mother)
133
Other than fracture, name 2 other associated injuries which could cause hypotension
in this case?
internal haemorrhage eg left thigh - haemothorax, splenic rupture
neurological -> head injury or C-spine injury (loss of sympathetic supply)
What is the significance of blood at the external urethral meatus and what clinical
examination will you perform to confirm your suspicion?
urethral injury
PR - boggy riding prostate
Give 2 examples of X-rays that must be carried out during evaluation of a polytrauma
patient.
Chest X-ray AP
Pelvic X-ray AP
Accepting that there are no other associated injuries, describe 2 forms of treatment
that you would use to treat the uncontrolled haemorrhage in this patient?
Pelvic Binder (stabilises pelvis stasis)
Fluids O- blood or cross matched or fluids
Clotting Factors FFP cryoprecipitates, Octoplex
Other US/ Laparotomy/ Packing/ Angiogenic Embolisation/ Ligation
134
Identify Cause:
Direct Coombs test
Peripheral Blood Smear, Group + Save
G6PD test, FBC, Abd US, Liver biopsy etc.
You decide to start treatment pending the results from your investigations. What
treatment would you start?
Phototherapy
What other more invasive treatment option is available if your first-line therapy fails?
Exchange transfusion
What is the most important consequence of failing to adequately treat the jaundice?
Kernicterus (necrosis of neurons in brainstem, hippocampus and cerebellum
paralysis of upward gaze, sensorineural hearing loss, dental dysplasia,
intellectual deficit and chorio-athetoid cerebral palsy)
135
List 3 potential causes for these symptoms and underline the most likely diagnosis.
appendicitis
urinary tract infection
mesenteric adenitis
infectious gastroenteritis
Apart from those above, give 2 features which, on examination, would support this
diagnosis.
tachycardia
Rovsing sign - RIF pain when palpating LIF
Psoas sign - RIF pain on hyperextension of R hip
Obturator sign - RIF on internal rotation of flexed right hip
McBurney's sign - RIF over appendix
The child suddenly develops widespread severe abdominal pain and becomes
shocked. The blood pressure is now 70/40. What is the most likely cause of such a
development?
perforated/ ruptured appendicitis with generalised peritonitis secondary to ruptured appendix
137
List 4 investigations that would help you assess the maternal condition.
FBC Platelets (?decreased, which may suggest HELLP)
LFTs Transaminases (part of HELLP)
U&Es Creatinine (elevated -> underlying renal disease or (rarely) development
of failure)
Urate
Abdominal examination shows a fundal height of 26cm with apparently reduced liquor
volume.
List 3 ways ultrasound can be used to help assess the fetal condition.
Estimated fetal weight
Biophysical profile
USS Doppler of Umbilical Artery (for waveform)
Check movements of foetus
Liquor volume is another answer here, but given that it is mentioned directly before this were
not certain it counts as an answer - particularly when there are other options available. Also,
note that although Biophysical Profile is on the mark scheme apparently but O&G dont
actually do it anymore.
What other investigation would help reassure you about fetal well being?
CTG (Cardiotocography) measure variability of heart rate
Delivery of the baby by caesarean section is planned, in the foetal and maternal
interest.
How can the administration of steroids help the survival of the preterm infant?
accelerates fetal lung maturation and increases surfactant synthesis and reduces the risk of
respiratory distress syndrome
How can the administration of steroids help the survival of the pre-term infant?
Reduces the risk of neonate developing RDS by stimulating production of pulmonary
surfactant
138
Give 4 appropriate actions you would perform immediately, before giving specific
medication.
Call for senior help
A protect the airway
B High-flow oxygen through trauma mask + pulse oximetry + auscultate for
breath sounds
C large bore IV access, fluid resuscitation, ABG, Bloods (FBC, U+E, LFTs)
D conscious level, check pupils
E check for rash (e.g. petechial non-blanching) and re-assess temperature
BM
Though Insertion of a Urinary Catheter is a valid component of C, it should always be done
after seizure cessation
You decide to stop the fit. How can this most appropriately be done?
Benzodiazepines e.g. IV or PR Diazepam or buccal Midazolam or IV Lorazepam
PR paraldehyde would be the next step after benzos
If this didnt work then escalate to PR paraldehyde
If this still doesnt work then IV AEDs e.g. Phenytoin
If the patient is still seizing post-AEDs, then contact ITU urgently as GA may be required for
cessation
After successfully completing your initial treatment you decide to take steps to control
the childs temperature. Suggest 3 means of achieving this.
Drugs NSAIDs, Paracetamol. Aspirin,
Stripping the child
Removing Blankets
There is no real evidence to show that wet towels or fan work although they are reasonable
suggestions.
The childs mother later asks you if this episode means that her daughter should not
have her next scheduled immunisations. Is she eligible to have the immunisations
under these circumstances?
Yes unless they are febrile or unwell at the time of vaccination
Half an hour after termination of the fit, the childs condition has improved
considerably. You examine her and find that she is miserable but alert with no signs of
meningitis and nothing to suggest a focus for infection.
When the child goes home what 2 pieces of advice would you give to the parents
about preventing another febrile convulsion?
Ensure they have a thermometer so they can closely monitor childs temp when they are
unwell
Ensure they have a supply of paracetamol and ibuprofen in the home to give if child is hot
What is the prognosis for this girl concerning liability to further convulsions?
~33% of patients will have another febrile seizure, while 10-20% will have 3
further episodes with most occurring within 2 years of the initial presentation
There is also a 2-5% risk of developing Epilepsy depending on the type of febrile seizure.
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141
Define Leukaemia
Haematological Malignancy
Presence of neoplastic haemopoietic cells in the bone marrow +/- peripheral circulation
The presence of a Philadelphia chromosome in children with the most common form
of leukaemia is only 3%. What is the Philadelphia chromosome?
Translocation of 9 and 22
With which type of adult leukaemia is the Philadelphia chromosome most commonly
associated?
CML - chronic myeloid leukemia
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What important points would you like to elicit from her history? Name 3.
Any symptoms being experienced - headache (frontal), upper abdominal pain, visual
disturbances (eg scotoma, photopsia), LoC/ seizures, oliguria, vomiting, sudden swelling of
hands, face, feet?
Any positive FHx, her age ( RFx if >35yrs), multiples, re-gestational DM, any
comorbidities (eg renal disease, autoimmune disease)?
Apart from blood pressure assessment and urinalysis, name 4 investigations that you
would carry out in a Daycare setting and explain why these tests should be done.
Physical Examination - edema, fundus-pubis symphysis height
Spot urinary protein:creatinine ratio/ 24-hour urine collection - quantify proteinuria.
U&Es + eGFR - assess kidney function
LFTs - excl transaminases in HELLP
FBC - excl plts in HELLP
Fetal USS - assess fetal well being by size of baby and amniotic fluid volume
Fetal CTG - assess fetal well being
Fetal biometry - ?fetal growth restriction
Umbilical a. Doppler velocimetry - assessment of end diastolic flow
?signs of raised ICP; fundoscopy
She remains hypertensive and is found to have 5gms proteinuria /24 hours. What is
your diagnosis?
(Moderate) pre-eclampsia
How might this condition affect the fetus? 1 Suggest one only.
intrauterine growth restriction
stillbirth
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Give three possible contraindications to HRT which you would look for in this
patients past history.
undiagnosed abnormal vaginal bleeding
venous thromboembolic disease
active/ recent angina or MI
suspected, current or past breast cancer
endometrial cancer or other oestrogen dependent cancer
active liver disease + abnormal LFTs
uncontrolled HTN
Also but not relevant to this pt: pregnancy/ breast feeding
Give three long term advantages of HRT for this patient, apart from relief from
menopausal symptoms.
bone marrow density and prevents osteoporotic fractures
intervertebral disc collagen loss maintain strength & function and prevent
crush fracture
reduces CHD (if started <60yrs)
effective management of depression in postmenopausal women
replaces lost skin and collagen to provide cosmetic effect
Which generic form of HRT would be most suitable for this patient and why?
estrogen alone as progesterone would only be needed if the pt had a uterus (or coexisting
conditions such as endometriosis that required a progesterone counter)
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What observations would you make and/or what investigations would you perform
during the speculum examination? List 3
Observations:
Visualise Amniotic fluid draining through cervix
Degree of dilation of Cervix
Check for pooling of fluid in post fornix
Look for offensive yellow/brown discharge
Investigations:
High vaginal swab for infective agents (e.g. Chlamydia Trachomatis)
Choriamniocentesis
List 3 variables that you would wish to observe to try and identify the onset of
complications of premature ruptured membranes?
Pre-term Labour dilation of cervix, uterine contractions and foetal heart rate
Chorioamnionitis maternal temperature, WCC/cRP levels (), uterine
tenderness
Foetal Distress on CTG
The baby is delivered. In the first 4 hours after delivery what respiratory signs in the
infant would suggest Respiratory Distress Syndrome? List two.
Cyanosis
Nasal Flaring
Intercostal Indrawing
Subcostal Recession
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List 2 methods for obtaining an uncontaminated sample of urine from this boy and
explain when and why you might make the different choice of method
Catheter specimen
Supra-pubic aspiration
Clean-catch mid-stream specimen
Name 2 other parts of the septic screen, excluding a full blood count, which you would
perform to identify the infection in this instance.
Culture blood, urine and CSF (if not contraindicated) for culture and sensitivity
Microscopy urine and CSF (if not contraindicated)
Bloods WCC/ ESR / cRP
Imaging CXR
NOT Stool Sample although a part of the sepsis screen, the above are more important
48 hours after admission the microbiologist informs you that the laboratory is in the
process of isolating a bacterium from the urine. What 2 standard criteria are used to
define a laboratory culture diagnosis of urinary tract infection?
Pyuria Positive/Negative
Bacteriuria Positive/Negative
Not in NICE Guidelines but valid Colony Forming Unit:
SPA Sample = >1000cfu/ml
Catheter Sample = >10,000cfu/ml
Clean-catch Sample = >100,000cfu/ml
What is the usual organism (or class of organism) which is obtained from a positive
urine culture in this setting?
E.Coli
The urine infection is confirmed and the infant is treated with intravenous antibiotics
for 5 days, followed by a course of oral antibiotics; he improves steadily over this
time. What treatment should he receive on discharge pending further investigations?
Prophylactic antibiotics
What single initial radiological investigation would you request for him at follow-up?
Within 6wks of UTI an US of the urinary tract should be performed to identify structural
abnormalities.
DMSA (identify renal abnormalities) cannot be performed until 4-6mo following the acute
infection. MCUG should only be performed in atypical or recurrent UTI.
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What is the most likely diagnosis? (In 2010 asks for 3 ddx + underline most likely)
Acute Appendicitis
Gastroenteritis
Mesenteric Adenitis
Meckels Diverticulitis
The child suddenly develops widespread severe abdominal pain and becomes
shocked. The blood pressure is now 70/40. What is the most likely cause of such a
development?
Perforated Appendix causing peritonism
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You are concerned he may also have an airway problem. List 4 symptoms and/or signs
that may indicate an airway problem in this man.
Stridor
Soot in mouth/ sputum/ nares
Dyspnoea
Oro-facial/ tongue swelling
Hoarseness
You tell the nurse with you that you plan to admit the patient. List 3 admission criteria
for burns which may apply to this patient.
Special Site e.g. burns of face/hands
Smoke inhalation injury
IV treatment necessary
Circumferential burns
You request an opinion from the Plastic Surgery team. They decide an escharotomy is
needed in the affected hand. What is an escharotomy and why is it being done?
Cutting the eschar (thick rigid layer or burnt tissue)
Necessary for full-thickness circumferential burns of neck, thorax and extremities
Performed to prevent compartment syndrome restricting blood flow
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What scoring system will you use to quantify the level of consciousness?
Glasgow Coma Scale
What important conditions would you suspect to be the cause of the problem? List 3.
Sub-Arachnoid haemorrhage
Pyogenic Bacterial Meningitis
Intracerebral haemorrhage
Encephalitis
What is the most important investigation you would arrange to try and confirm the
diagnosis?
CT head
Within 24 hours of presentation, in spite of appropriate management, the patients
general condition deteriorates to a point at which brain stem death is pronounced.
Organ donation is contemplated.
The Consultant in charge of the patients case is talking to the family about the
concept of brain stem death. What key points need to be covered? Suggest 2.
There is irreversible damage to the area of the brain responsible for breathing and
maintaining life
The patient is not aware of their surroundings nor are they in any pain
Currently life is being supported by machine
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In a Scottish hospital, who can give consent for further medical treatment, and under
what auspices?
Adult with Incapacity Scotland 2000 (Part 5)
If there was a welfare attorney, consent should be gained from them if practical to do so
If not, the doctor is authorised to treat the patient
You decide to manage him as alcohol withdrawal syndrome. List 2 forms of treatment
that you would institute.
Parenteral vitamin supplementation e.g. Pabrinex
Reducing regimen of BDZ e.g. Chlordiazepoxide
You are called to the ward an hour later. The patient is increasingly agitated, and
unresponsive, you demonstrate a newly enlarged pupil on the left side with
corresponding upper motor neurone signs in the left arm and leg. His blood glucose is
in the normal range.
Please list 4 other causes of reduced Glasgow Coma Scale in such a patient.
Delirium Tremens
Meningitis/ Encephalitis
Hepatic encephalopathy
Seizures
Alcohol Intoxication
BDZ Overdose
Whilst you are arranging investigations, nurse tells you the patient is having recurrent
tonic-clonic seizures. You diagnose status epilepticus. Name 2 drugs you could use to
terminate this episode.
Lorazepam
Phenytoin
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List 2 investigations that would help you arrive at the diagnosis of osteomyelitis.
Bloods FBC, ESR, cRP
Imaging XR, Bone Scan or MRI of forearm
Cultures blood, of aspiration from joint, from bone following debridement
Name 2 other possible causes of a swelling in the forearm you would include in your
ddx.
Cellulitis
Ewings Sarcoma / Osteosarcoma
Trauma (fracture with possible compartment syndrome)
List 3 important steps in your initial management of this patient and why they are
relevant.
Analgesia e.g. paracetamol to reduce distress,
Arrange admission and referral to orthopaedics for possible surgical drainage if initially
unresponsive
Empirical Antibiotics e.g. Flucloxacillin and Benzylpenicillin to treat infection
and prevent bone necrosis, chronic infection with discharging sinus, limb
deformity and amyloidosis
One treatment is started, how would you monitor the patient to ensure the condition
was improving. Give 3 examples
Monitor vital signs i.e. pyrexia, HR, RR and improvement of symptoms
Bloods repeat looking for reduction of CRP, ESR
Imaging repeat plain film/MRI looking for improvement
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Suggest 4 further features in the history which would help clarify the diagnostic
possibilities and/or evaluate the symptoms.
Discharge from ear?
Severity of hearing loss assess via impact on school, irritability, speech
problems
History of Atopy
History of Eczema
A pure tone audiogram demonstrates bilateral, low frequency conductive hearing loss.
What surgical treatments may be offered for his hearing loss?
Grommets
Excision of underlying cause if adenoid (adenoidectomy)
152
The patient attends and her consultant decides to regard this as a high-risk pregnancy
and to monitor the foetus closely. Apart from foetal heart monitoring, give 2 methods
by which foetal wellbeing might be assessed.
USS
Measure abdo circumference and BPD to confirm IUGR
Assess liquor volume
Doppler umbilical arterial MCA
Ductus venous Doppler
NOT Cordocentesis (used if a congenital infection is suspected) as its too invasive
On review of the hx, what advice would you give this patient to reduce the impact of
IUGR?
Smoking Cessation
The patient continues with monitoring to 37 weeks when she goes into spontaneous
labour.
Because the pregnancy is regarded as high-risk, the condition of the foetus during
labour is monitored with a foetal heart monitor (cardiotocograph/CTG). Give 2
examples of abnormalities you would look for on the foetal heart monitor trace which
would indicate a foetal problem.
Reduced Variability (<5bpm changes for >40mins)
Baseline Tachycardia
Late Decelerations
NOT Loss of Accelerations as can occur in normal pregnancy
What short-term (i.e. pregnancy and peri-natal period) consequences are there of
IUGR?
Respiratory Distress Syndrome
Low Birth Weight risk of perinatal mortality, still birth and Necrotising
Enterocolitis
Hypoglycaemia
Hypothermia
153
What 2 potential long-term medical complications may this baby be exposed to when
it becomes an adult?
Type II DM
Coronary Artery Disease
Cerebral Palsy
Mental Retardation
154
List 2 other causes of blockages of the Fallopian tubes apart from Endometriosis.
Hydrosalpinx (fluid blockage secondary to chlamydia)
PID or Previous Ectopic causing adhesion
In vitro fertilisation is proposed for the patient. List 3 issues that should be discussed
with the couple before a decision is made.
Success Rate
Alternatives e.g. Adoption
Consent to use fertilised ovum if relationship breaks up
Decision subject to psychological assessement and age
Limited attempts on NHS (2005 NICE guidelines state up to 3 cycles if couple is deemed
suitable)
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You suspect cervical carcinoma. List 3 clinical signs you would look for on your initial
clinical examination.
Friable, red, raised area of cervix
Blood stained vaginal discharge
Pelvic mass
Lymphadenopathy
Colposcopic examination and biopsy are arranged and the histopathology confirms a
malignant tumour. List the 2 most common types of malignant tumour of the cervix.
SCC
Adenocarcinoma
The most common type of malignant tumour is often preceded by a premalignant
condition. Name the 3 stages of this premalignant condition in the order in which they
occur.
CIN I, II, III - ridiculous; we know.
Name 2 ways in which this agent can cause abnormal cell proliferation.
Integration of viral DNA into epithelial cell DNA encouraging abnormal proliferation
Viral antigens/proteins bind to host cell tumour suppressor genes inactivating them
156
Give 2 important points in the history which you would wish to elicit.
Onset and duration of pain i.e. acute or insidious
Has she had a positive pregnancy test?
Dyspareunia over previous few days (common in ectopic)
Any change in bowel habit? (diarrhoea can be present in ectopic or acut appendicitis)
Does she know if she is pregnant or not? (i.e. has she had a urine or blood CG test?)
Previous pregnancies any history of ectopic or recurrent miscarriages?
What injection must be given to a Rh -ve pregnant woman who bleeds during
pregnancy?
Anti-D immunoglobulin (normally given at 28-32wks once or twice and 72hrs after birth)
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In generic terms list two purposes of the new-born examination prior to discharge. Do
not list specific clinical problems.
To confirm normality so as to reassure the patients
To identify and act upon any abnormalities
Give 2 examples of anatomical conditions specific to the new-born that may be elicited
on the clinical examination check.
Developmental Hip Dysplasia
Scoliosis
Talipes
Craniosynostosis
You have to perform a Guthrie test. Briefly (less than 50 words) describe how you
would explain this to the parents.
It involves cleaning the heel then pricking the foot with a small needle to obtain a small
quantity of blood, which is collected on filter paper before being sent to the lab for analysis
158
At the end of your clinical examination you find no abnormal findings apart from
jaundice. List 2 clinical reasons why jaundice is important in the newborn.
Risk of Acute and/or Chronic Bilirubin Encephalopathy (aka Kernicterus)
May be first indication of potentially treatable condition e.g. Hypothyroidism
May indicate serious underlying pathology e.g. Biliary Atresia, Zellwegers Syndrome
Which 2 particular patterns of jaundice are most clinically concerning and why?
Jaundice that appears within 24hrs
Jaundice lasting >2wks
Both would increase the likelihood of an underlying pathological cause
What treatment is used for jaundice in premature babies and how does this work?
Phototherapy
Causes photochemical reactions that transform bilirubin into isomers that:
Are less lipophilic and hence more easily excretable
Produce breakdown products that do not require conjugation in the liver
The mother has no nearby family support and is asking about help in the home after
discharge. Explain what community support is available immediately after discharge
and in the weeks that follow. List 4 mechanisms by which that support can be
delivered that does not include family or friends.
Community Midwife
Health Visitor
GP
Social Work
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How would you explain this to his anxious mother and what is the prognosis?
Explain it clearly, concisely and at a level she can understand with multiple
opportunities for her to ask questions in a calm and quiet environment.
Prognosis Babies born earlier are at a higher risk of developmental delay, but
she is bringing Stewart to clinic for regular review so that we can detect this
earlier and hopefully minimise any difficulties faced.
On the way out the door she has one final question: what will Stewarts next
immunization be and when will he receive it?
Hib/Men C booster + MMR + Pneumococcal (3rd dose) at 12-13 months.
160
You are asked to speak with the mother regarding delivery. List 3 complications of
prematurity that would be relevant to a child of this age that you would discuss with
her.
Respiratory distress may need support with CPAP or oxygen therapy
Sepsis premature babies are more prone to infection
GI baby will not be able to suck and will require nasogastric tube feeds
More likely to get jaundiced and need phototherapy
Bleeding increased risk of intraventricular haemorrhage
PDA increased risk
At four hours of age, this baby continues to have signs of respiratory distress. List 4
signs that you would look for in a child with respiratory distress.
RR
Nasal Flaring
Accessory Muscle Use
Intercostal Indrawing
Grunting
Tracheal Tug
Sunken Fontanelle
Head Bobbing
Cyanosis
Stridor
Stertor
Inability to lie down or cry
Apnea
Agitation
List 4 investigations you would consider relevant to your management of this child.
Pulse Oximetry
FBC
CXR
Blood Cultures
Blood Gases
List 4 treatments that you think would be worth considering in this case.
Oxygen Therapy
CPAP
Intubation
Antibiotics to cover for sepsis
In real life youd consider these for about 2 seconds before remembering youre an FY1 and
so, should CALL A SENIOR
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On examination her pulse is slowed and she has possible evidence of a goitre. What
single blood test would you undertake and why?
TFTs exclude or confirm hypothyroidism as the cause of her symptoms
The blood test comes back within the normal range. Other blood tests and physical
examination are all normal. After consultation with your senior colleagues, you decide
to prescribe Fluoxetine, an SSRI medication.
What advice would you give her about the time it will take for the Fluoxetine to begin
to work?
SSRIs typically take between 2-6wks before their effect is felt
3-4wks is sometimes the clinical figure quoted and although this wouldnt be marked wrong
2-6wks is better.
She responds to this medication. How long should she continue to take it once she
feels better?
At 6-9 months (from Maudsley guidelines)
After three months on the medication, her depression worsens. She wishes to
continue the Fluoxetine. Suggest two medication strategies that can be offered to
boost the effectiveness of her tablet.
Increase the dosage and check compliance
Add a mood stabiliser e.g. Lithium
Add a dopamine re-uptake inhibitor e.g. Bupropion (rarely done in clinical practice)
Add a 5-HT2 receptor antagonist e.g. Mirtazapine (beware serotonin syndrome)
162
In spite of these changes, her depression continues to worsen. You decide to change
her medication to the SNRI, Venlafaxine. How long a washout is recommended in BNF
before this can be done?
Current Maudsley guidelines state that there is no need for a withdrawal period and that
Venlafaxine can be started immediately after cessation of Fluoxetine.
Fluoxetine/MAOIs Venlafaxine = 2 weeks Paroxetine/Citalopram Venlafaxine =
3 days
TCAs Venlafaxine = 4 days Moclobemide Venlafaxine = 1 day
This question is absolute guff. As anyone who has actually looked in the BNF will tell you,
there is no specific figure given for the washout period; all the BNF has to say is that there
should be a washout period. Depending on the resource used, the washout varies from 02wks. The figures i are from a set of Bristol guidelines recommend to us by a psychiatric
trainee and may be considered correct. However, the consultant has recommended we
answer using the text in red as you couldnt be marked wrong for using guidelines,
Unfortunately the change is not effective. She becomes acutely suicidal and says that
she is going to kill herself.
Is it necessary to complete a Section of the Mental Health Act to prevent her leaving
and could you legally detain her in the surgery if this was not completed in time?
Yes: under common law nurses in NHS properties may detain someone for 2 hours without
completing a form with a further 1 hour given for a doctor to examine the patient. If
necessary, an Emergency Detention Certificate (72hrs detention) form can then be
completed.
In practice, you would let them go, call the police to find them then complete an EDC while
theyre brought in.
163
List 4 additional symptoms that would support a psychological cause for her problem.
Globus Pharyngis
Fear of Dying
Collapse
Blackout
Chest Tightness despite no identifiable cardiac abnormality
NOT Clear Trigger as this is not the case with panic attacks
Though other therapies (e.g. Cognitive Behaviour Therapy) are relevant they are not the best
165
Suggest 3 psychiatric symptoms or signs you would look for, either from the above
presentation or from further assessment, to confirm your diagnosis.
Reversal of Sleep/Wake Pattern
Disturbance of Cognition
Emotional Changes
Visual/Auditory Hallucinations
Delusions
Loss of Insight (disorientation)
List 4 possible predisposing causes which could have precipitated this attack of
delirium.
Recent Surgery risk of infection
Recent Surgery risk of vascular event
Recent Surgery risk of metabolic imbalance
Recent Surgery post-op opioids
List 3 cognitive functions you would like to test and give an example of one question
for each function.
Orientation to Time, Place and Person
Recall i.e. list 3 unconnected objects and ask to repeat back immediately then later (delayed
recall)
Language i.e. name an object e.g. pen
166
You undertake an arterial blood gas estimation. What 2 gas abnormalities would you
predict that would relate to the above condition?
Hypoxia
Acidosis
How would you try to correct these gas abnormalities and what precautions should
you take?
Oxygen therapy
Use low flow i.e. 24% Venturi Mask due to risk of COPD in this patient
List two antibiotics that would be most appropriate for treatment of the underlying
condition
Amoxicillin
Clarithromycin
What would be the most appropriate investigation and how would you correct this
abnormality?
Investigation U+E or USS (Pelvic) Weve been told this could be either
Urinary Catheter
167
What two possible groups of antidepressants could be used and their mechanisms of
action
SSRIs inhibit 5-HT re-uptake 5-HT in synaptic cleft receptor binding
mood
SNRIs similar to the above mechanism but also inhibits Noradrenaline reuptake mood
TCAs essentially act like SNRIs but also block Ca/Na channels toxicity in
Overdose
A review appointment is made for 1/52 but unfortunately Mr J is admitted to hospital
with an attempted suicide. His mother finds him unconscious at home. It appears he
has taken an overdose of coproxamol and has left a suicide note. If his mother had not
called by to check on him he may not have been found until the following day. On
examination he has pinpoint pupils.
Give two features that are in favour of this being a serious attempt?
Left a suicide note
Attempt made when likely not to be interrupted
168
169
You discover her husband had died 18 months earlier after a lingering cancer. How
may this be relevant to the current picture? List 3 points?
She may be undergoing a grief reaction
She may be undergoing an adjustment reaction
He may have been her primary carer and hence, may have prevented her from deteriorating
previously by helping her/encouraging her to seek help
List 3 non-drug factors that need to be put in place by the Care Programme
Approach once treatment has been stabilised.
Community Psychiatric Nurse Review
OP Review
Home Care Assessment
Social Care
Six months after discharge, she suffers an accidental overdose of the lithium she has
been prescribed to treat her maintenance therapy. What 2 investigations would you
institute to monitor the situation?
Urea and Electrolytes (renal failure)
Lithium Levels
What is the main principle of therapy for the acute management of this overdose?
Supportive Therapy e.g. IV Fluids, Cardiac Monitoring etc.
170