3613

CLERK-V-15

INSTITUTE OF BANKING
PERSONNEL SELECTION

INFORMATION HANDOUT FOR

ONLINE EXAMINATION (CWE)
FOR CLERICAL CADRE IN
PARTICIPATING ORGANISATIONS

I. INTRODUCTION
We are glad that you have applied in response to our advertisement for the CWE (Online) for recruitment of Clerical
Cadre in Participating Organisations
1. This booklet contains details pertaining to various aspects of the online examination you are going to take and
important instructions about related matters. The assessment will be done online, hence you should
carefully read instructions regarding the method of indicating answers. You are advised to study this
booklet carefully as it will help you in preparing for the examination.
2. Before appearing for the online examination you should strictly ensure yourself that you fulfill the eligibility criteria
stipulated in the advertisment in all respects.
3. Please note that since this is a competitive examination, you should, therefore, put in your best efforts in the
examination.
II. GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. Particulars to be Noted : Please note carefully your Roll Number, Date of Exam., Time and Venue for the
examination given in the call letter. Please also note that this call letter does not constitute an offer of employment
by any bank.
2. Punctuality in Attendance : You should be present at the examination hall before the time given in the call letter.
Candidates arriving late will not be permitted to enter the Examination Hall. No query in this connection shall be
entertained.
3. Call letter to be Surrendered : Bring this call letter alongwith the photo identity proof in original and a
photocopy with you when you come to the venue for the examination. Write your Roll No. & Registration No. on
the photocopy of photo identity proof. You will not be permitted to appear for the examination if you do not
bring the call letter alongwith the photo identity proof in original and a photocopy. You will be required to
put your left thumb impression clearly and sign clearly in the respective spaces provided on your call letter in the
presence of the invigilator in the examination hall. You should hand over your call letter alongwith the photocopy
of the photo identity proof duly stapled together to the invigilator in the examination hall, when he
collects the call letters from the candidates.
4. Compliance with Instructions : You should scrupulously follow the instructions given by test administrators and
the invigilators at all the stages of the examination for which you have been called. If you violate the instructions you
will be disqualified and may also be asked to leave the examination hall.
5. Use of Books, Notes and Copying or Receiving/Giving Assistance Not Allowed : No calculator, separate or
with watch, pagers, cellphones, books, slide rules, foot rules, note-books or written notes will be allowed inside the
examination hall. Any candidate who is found either copying or receiving or giving assistance will be disqualified.
6. Do not leave your seat unless you are allowed.
7. Use of Stationery : You must bring a ball point pen with you.
8. Rough work to be done on the sheet provided : You should do all the necessary rough work on sheet provided
only. After the test is over, you should hand over the sheet, given for rough work to the invigilator before
leaving the room.
9. Travelling Allowance not admissible : No travelling allowance or other expenses in connection with the
examination will be paid.
10. The possibility for occurrences of some problem in the administration of the examination cannot be ruled out
completely which may impact test delivery and/or result from being generated. In that event, every effort will be
made to rectify such problem, which may include the conduct of another examination if considered necessary.

III. IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER

1. You are advised to bring with you the following things :(i) Call letter with your recent passport style photograph (which should be the same as uploaded in the
online application form) affixed thereon.
(ii) Photo identity proof such as Passport/PAN Card/ Driving License/Voters Card/Bank passbook with
photograph/Photo Identity Proof issued by a Gazetted Officer (on official letterhead) or Photo Identity
Proof issued by a Peoples Representative (on official letterhead)/Identity card issued by a recognised
college/University/Aadhar card with photograph/Employee ID in original as well as a photocopy.

Please note that Ration Card and E-adhar Card will not be accepted as valid ID proof.

In case of candidates who have changed their name will be allowed only if they produce Gazette notification/
their marriage certificate/affidavit.

(iii) One ball point pen.

2. When START signal for Test is given, do not waste your time in first reading all the questions as is done in the
School/College/University examinations. Since these questions are of objective type, read a particular question
and immediately indicate your answer. In case you find a particular question difficult, skip the question and go on
to the next question. The question so skipped may be solved at the end, if time is available.
3. You are advised in your interest to apportion the time given judiciously and not to utilise too much time on a
particular test(s) at the cost of some other tests.
IMPORTANT :
At the time of online examination (Preliminary/Main) or subsequent selection process, if a candidate is (or
has been) found guilty of (i)

using unfair means or

(ii)

impersonating or procuring impersonation by any person or

(iii) misbehaving in the examination hall or disclosing, publishing, reproducing, transmitting, storing
or facilitating transmission and storage of contents of the test(s) or any information therein in whole
or part thereof in any form or by any means verbal or written, electronically or mechanically for
any purpose or
(iv) resorting to any irregular or improper means in connection with his/her candidature for
selection or
(v)

obtaining support for his/her candidature by unfair means or

(vi) carrying mobile phones or electronic devices of communication in the examination/interview hall
such a candidate may, in addition to rendering himself / herself liable to criminal prosecution, be
liable:
(a) To be disqualified from the examination for which he/she is a candidate.
(b) To be debarred either permanently or for a specified period from any examination conducted
by IBPS.
IBPS would be analysing the responses (answers) of individual candidates with other candidates to detect
patterns of similarity of right and wrong answers. If in the analytical procedure adopted by IBPS in this
regard, it is inferred/concluded that the responses have been shared and scores obtained are not genuine/
valid, IBPS reserves right to cancel the candidature of the concerned candidates and the result of such
candidates (disqualified) will be withheld.

You will not be allowed to appear for the Online Examination without the documents listed below :
(i)

Call letter with your recent passport size photograph (which should be the same as uploaded in the
online application form) affixed thereon.

(ii) Photo identity proof in original as well as a photocopy.

In Main Examination :
Biometric data (left thumb impression) will be captured at the examination venue. With regards to the same, please note
the following :
(a) If fingers are coated (stamped ink/mehndi/coloured...etc), ensure to thoroughly wash them so that coating is
completely removed before the exam day.
(b) If fingers are dirty or dusty, ensure to wash them and dry them before the finger print (biometric) is captured.
(c) Ensure fingers of both hands are dry. If fingers are moist, wipe each finger to dry them.
(d) If the primary finger (left thumb) to be captured is injured/damaged, immediately notify the concerned authority in
the test centre.
(Any failure to observe these points will result in non-admittance for the examination)

IV. ONLINE EXAMINATION

I. Preliminary Examination :
Preliminary Examination consisting of Objective Tests for 100 marks will be conducted online. This test would be of 1
hour duration consisting of 3 Sections as follows :
Sr. No.

Name of the Test

No. of Questions Max. Marks Composite Time

1.

English Language

30

30

2.

Numerical Ability

35

35

3.

Reasoning Ability

35

35

Total

100

100

1 hour

The candidates shall be required to qualify in each test as per cut-off marks determined in each test. Each candidate
will have to secure a minimum score on each of the tests as well as on the Total to be considered to be
shortlisted for Main Examination. Depending on the number of vacancies available, cutoffs will be decided
and candidates will be shortlisted for Main Examination. However decision of IBPS in this regard shall be
final and binding upon the candidates.
II. Main Examination :
Main Examination consisting of Objective Tests for 200 marks will also be conducted online. The test would be of
2 hours duration.
Sr. No.

Name of the Test

No. of Ques.

Max. Marks

Reasoning

40

40

II

English Language

40

40

III

Quantitative Aptitude

40

40

IV

General Awareness with special

reference to the Banking Industry

40

40

Computer Knowledge

40

40

Total

200

200

Composite Time

120 minutes

The candidates shall be required to qualify in each test as per cut-off marks determined in each test. Each candidate
will have to secure a minimum score on each of the tests as well as on the Total to be considered to be
shortlisted for interview. Depending on the number of vacancies available, cutoffs will be decided and
candidates will be shortlisted for interview. However decision of IBPS in this regard shall be final and
binding upon the candidates.
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER MARKED BY YOU IN THE OBJECTIVE TESTS. There are five alternatives
in every question of a test. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of
the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by
you there will be no penalty for that question. YOU SHOULD THEREFORE BE CAREFUL IN MARKING YOUR ANSWERS.

Sample Questions for Preliminary and Main Examination

Below are given some sample questions for each of these tests. The type of questions are only illustrative and not
exhaustive. In actual test you may find questions on some or all these types and also questions on the type not
mentioned here.
English Language
This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through questions
on grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion, synonyms, antonyms, comprehension of a passage, etc. Study
and answer the sample questions given below :
Directions : Pick out the most appropriate word from amongst the words given below each sentence to complete it meaningfully.
Q.1.

He quickly glanced .............................. the book to find what it said about the Indian economy.
(1) at
(2) through
(3) in
(4) to
(5) over

The correct answer is through which is answer No. 2.

Q.2.
Q.3.

The counsel urged the court to ........................... down the obnoxious law.
(1) enact
(2) enforce
(3) cancel
(4) strike

(5) declare

The local official ........................... the Minister of the situation.

(1) explained
(2) warned
(3) apprised
(4) told

(5) intimated

Directions : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will
be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part of the sentence is your answer. If there is no error, the
answer is (5).
Q.4.

I am twenty / two years old / when I first / joined the bank.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

No error
(5)

The error is in (1). Therefore the answer is 1.

Q.5.

To the Hindus / the Ganga is / holier than / any other river.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

No error
(5)

In this question, there is no error; therefore the right answer to this question is 5.
Q.6.

Of all the teachers / in our school / our class teacher / were very strict.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

No error
(5)

Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word nearest in
meaning to the word given in capitals.
Q.7.
Q.8.
Q.9.

LETHAL
(1) light
CENTENARY
(1) a guard
TRIUMPH
(1) conquer

(2) dangerous
(2) a hundred years
(2) smash

(3) deadly

(4) cruel

(5) thoughtless

(3) a very old man (4) hundred runs (5) hundredth anniversary
(3) earn

(4) brave

(5) capture

Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word most opposite
in meaning of the word given in capitals.
Q.10. LIVELY
(1) simple

(2) weak

(3) dull

(4) angry

(5) moron

Q.11. INADVERTENT
(1) adequate

(2) available

(3) sluggish

(4) negligent

(5) intentional

Q.12. INEPT
(1) accurate

(2) skilful

(3) sensible

(4) artistic

(5) apt

In addition, there will be questions based on passage, to test your comprehension.

Quantitative Aptitude / Numerical Ability

This test is designed to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers, viz. computation,
quantitative reasoning, interpretation of tables and graphs etc.
Q.13-15. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below
Distribution of 1000 candidates as regards their marks in written examination
out of 300 and interview out of 100 in a selection examination
Written
Examination
Marks

Below 30

30-39

260 & above

210 to 259
160 to 209
110 to 159
60 to 109
Below 60

8
5
16
28
35
32

18
4
10
42
115
32

INTERVIEW MARKS
40-49
50-59
60-69
26
30
45
100
20
20

18
22
56
190
8
4

70 & above

26
10
18
15
7
6

4
9
9
5
5
2

Q.13. How many candidates did obtain more than 69 percent marks and above in both written examination and
interview ?
(1) 22
(2) 49
(3) 13
(4) 9
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.14. if approximately 325 candidates were to be qualified in the written examination, what should be the
percentage of the qualifying marks ?
(1) above 20
(2) above 70
(3) above 36 (4) above 63
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.15. About 42 percent of the candidates fall in which of the following ranges of the interview marks ?
(1) 110-159
(2) 110 & below (3) 50 to 70 (4) 50 & above (5) Other than those given as options
Some of the questions may require arithmetical reasoning. For example :
Q.16. At 10 paise each, how many paise will 6 lemons cost ?
(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 60
(4) 610

(5) Other than those given as options

Q.17. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ?

(1) 27114 (2) 58204
(3) 48402
(4) 32286

(5) Other than those given as options

Q.18. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the pen ?
(1) Rs.3/- (2) Rs.5/(3) Rs.10/(4) Rs.20/(5) Other than those given as options
Also, there may be some questions based on graphs and tables.
Q.19-21. Directions : Given below is a table showing percentages out of a total of 700 employees ranking six
attributes that help promotion. Rank I is the highest. Study the table carefully and answer the questions that
follow :
Attribute

Percent of Employees Giving Different Ranks

I

II

III

IV

VI

Seniority

32

17

22

19

Perseverance

14

19

17

27

14

Efficiency

15

19

21

14

14

17

Intelligence

10

14

10

14

17

35

Honesty

24

17

27

16

Sociability

14

23

35

10

13

Q.19. Which attribute for promotion has received the highest rank ?
(1) Perseverance (2) Seniority
(3) Honesty
(4) Sociability

(5) Efficiency

Notice the percentage for rank I given in the table. You observe that seniority is the attribute with the highest
percentage. So your answer is Seniority, which is answer No. (2)

Q.20. How many employees gave rank III to intelligence ?

(1) 119
(2) 98
(3) 77

(4) 70

(5) 10

Look at the intersection of the column giving percentage for rank III and the row giving percentage for intelligence.
You find that 10 percent of the 700 employees have given rank III to this attribute. 10% of 700 is 70. So your
answer should be (4).
Q.21. Which attribute is considered the least important for promotion ?
(1) Honesty
(2) Intelligence
(3) Perseverance (4) Efficiency

(5) Sociability

Referring to the percentage for VI rank, you find that intelligence is the attribute which receives the highest
percentage. In other words, a majority of people consider it as the least important and give it the last rank.
Therefore your answer is (2).
Reasoning
This is a test to see how well you can think and also to judge your aptitude/ knowledge for working with
computer. It contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample questions.
Directions : In each of the following questions, there are five letter groups or words in each question. Four of
these letter groups or words are alike in some way, while one is different. Find the one which is different.
Q.22. (1) black

(2) red

(3) green

(4) paint

(5) yellow

Of the five, black, red, green and yellow form a group as they are names of colours. paint is not the name
of a colour. Therefore, (4) is the answer.
Now try to solve the following questions.
Q.23. (1) BC

(2) MN

(3) PQ

(4) XZ

(5) ST

Q.24. (1) Mango

(2) Apple

(3) Orange

(4) Guava

(5) Rose

Directions : In each of the following questions, there is a question mark in which only one of the five alternatives
given under the question satisfies the same relationship as is found between the two terms to the left of the sign
:: given in the question. Find the correct answer.
Q.25. Foot : man : : hoof : ?
(1) leg
(2) dog

(3) horse

(4) boy

(5) shoe

In the above example, hoof has the same relationship with horse as foot has to man. Hence the answer is (3).
Now study to solve the following questions.
Q.26. Day : Night : : Kind : ?
(1) Dark
(2) Bright

(3) Cruel

(4) Generous

(5) Gratitude

Q.27. Hut : Mansion : : Rabbit : ?

(1) Hole
(2) Carrot

(3) Elephant

(4) Small

(5) Rat

Now try the following questions.

Q.28. If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O, the last
letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, M is the answer and if no
such word can be formed, X is the answer.
(1) T
(2) P
(3) M
(4) S
(5) X
Q.29. Some leaders are dishonest. Satyapriya is a leader. Which of the following inferences definitely follows
from these statements ?
(1) Satyapriya is honest
(2) Satyapriya is dishonest
(3) Some leaders are honest
(4) Leaders are generally dishonest
(5) Satyapriya is sometimes dishonest
Q.30. If A B means add B to A, A B means subtract B from A, A # B means divide A by B and A V B
means multiply A by B; which of the following gives the average sales of two days where S1 and S2 are
the sales of the first and the second day respectively ?
(1) (S1 S2) # 2
(2) 2 # (S1 S2)
(3) (S1 S2 # 2)
(4) (S1 V S2) # (S1 S2)
(5) Other than those given as options

Q.31. Every person above eighteen years of age who is registered as a voter, can vote. To find out whether
Madhu, who was born twenty years ago, can vote, which of the following further information is
needed ?
(I) Madhus date of birth
(II) Whether Madhu is registered as a voter
(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Either I or II
(4) Neither I nor II
(5) Both I and II
Q.32. In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have
to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts, consider the two conclusions; together and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements
Conclusions

:
:

I.All machines are windows. All windows are clouds.

I. All machines are clouds.
II.All clouds are machines.

(1) None follows

(4) Only II follows

(2) Only I follows

(5) Either I or II follows

(3) Both I & II follow

General Awareness with special reference to the Banking Industry

This test is designed to measure your awareness about the past and present events, socio economic developments
as well as awareness about developments in the Banking Industry etc.
Q.33. Which of the following financial institutions has introduced the Know Your Customer guidelines for Banks ?
(1) IDBI

(2) RBI

(3) NABARD

4) SIDBI

(5) Other than those given as options

Q.34. Which of the following sectors contributes the maximum in deciding the growth in income of the states in
India ?
(1) Energy

(2) Tourism

(3) Service

(4) Transport

(5) Agriculture

Q.35. Headquarters of which of the following nationalised Banks is not situated in Maharashtra state ?
(1) Dena Bank
(2) Central Bank of India
(3) Bank of India
(4) Union Bank of India
(5) United Bank of India
Q.36. Who among the following is the current Prime Minister of India ?
(1) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(2) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(3) Mr Pranab Mukherjee
(4) Shri Narendra Modi
(5) Other than those given as options
Computer Knowledge
This test is designed to measure your computer knowledge.
Q.37. -------------is an output device of a computer.
(1) Printer
(2) CPU
(3) Monitor
Q.38. What is the full form of RAM ?
(1) Random Adaptive Mouse
(4) Random Access Mouse
Q.39. Pick the odd man out.
(1) Monitor
(2) Keyboard

(4) Keyboard

(5) CD

(2) Random Adaptive Memory

(3) Random Access Memory
(5) Other than those given as options

(3) Floppy drive

Q.40. Which of the following is a popular Computer Language ?

(1) A +
(2) BA +
(3) C ++
(4) CA +

(4) Windows

(5) Hard-disk drive

(5) Other than those given as options

The correct answers to all these 40 questions are as follows

Questions

Answers

Questions

Answers

Questions

Answers

Questions

Answers

11

21

31

12

22

32

13

23

33

14

24

34

15

25

35

16

26

36

17

27

37

18

28

38

19

29

39

10

20

30

40

10

Details about On-line Test Pattern

1.

The examination would be conducted on-line i.e. on a computer.

2.

A login screen will be displayed to the candidate. The candidate has to log in using his/her User ID and
Password which is provided on the Call Letter.

3.

After logging in Candidates profile (Name, Roll No. & photograph etc.) will be displayed and the candidate has
to confirm the same by clicked on the I confirm button confirming the profile is correct.

4.

Thereafter the instructions will be displayed on the screen.

5.

A candidate should read the instructions carefully and indicate that he has done so by checking (click) the box
at the bottom of the screen, after which the I am ready to begin button is activated.

6.

After clicking on the I am ready to begin button the actual test time will begin.

7.

In Preliminary Examination, there will be 100 Questions and in Main Examination there will be 200 Questions
and each question is followed by 5 alternatives/options.

8.

The questions except those on English Language will be available in Hindi and in English. In order to view a
given question in the other language, a candidate can click on the view in drop down box and select the desired
language.

9.

Only one question will be displayed at a time.

10.

All the questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the correct answer. The
candidate has to select the most appropriate answer and mouse click that alternative which he/ she feels is
appropriate/ correct. The alternative/ option that is clicked on will be treated as the answer to that question.
Answer to any question will be considered for final evaluation, only when candidates have submitted
the answers by clicking on Save & Next or Mark for Review & Next.

11.

The clock has been set at the server and the countdown timer at the top right corner of your screen will display
the time remaining for you to complete the exam. When the clock runs out the exam ends by default - you are
not required to end or submit your exam.

12.

The question palette at the right of screen shows one of the following statuses of each of the questions numbered:
You have not visited the question yet.
You have not answered the question.
You have answered the question.
You have NOT answered the question but have marked the question for review.
You have answered the question but marked it for review.
The Marked for Review status simply acts as a reminder that you have set to look at the question again. If an
answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final evaluation.

(13)

To select a question to answer, you can do one of the following :

(a)

Click on the question number on the question palette at the right of your screen to go to that numbered
question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the current question.

(b)

Click on Save & Next to save answer to current question and to go to the next question in sequence.

(c)

Click on Mark for Review and Next to save answer to current question, mark it for review, and to go to
the next question in sequence.

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(14)

To select your answer, click on one of the option buttons.

(15)

To change your answer, click another desired option button.

(16)

To save your answer, you MUST click on Save & Next.

(17)

To deselect a chosen answer, click on the chosen option again or click on the Clear Response button.

(18)

To mark a question for review click on Mark for Review & Next. If an answer is selected for a question that is
Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final evaluation.

(19)

To change an answer to a question, first select the question and then click on the new answer option followed
by a click on the Save & Next button.

(20)

Questions that are saved or marked for review after answering will ONLY be considered for evaluation.

(21)

Sections will be displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a section can be viewed by clicking on the
section name. The section you will view will be highlighted.

(22)

After clicking the Save & Next button on the last question for a section, you will automatically be taken to the
first question of the next section.

(23)

You can move the mouse cursor over the section names to view the status of the questions for that section.

(24)

You can shuffle between sections and questions anytime during the examination as per your convenience.

(25)

The candidates are requested to follow the instructions of the Test Administrator carefully. If any candidate
does not follow the instructions / rules, it would be treated as a case of misconduct/adoption of unfair means
and such a candidate would be liable for debarment from appearing for examinations for a period as
decided by IBPS.

(26)

The candidates may ask the Test Administrator about their doubts or questions only before the
commencement of the test. No query shall be entertained after the commencement of the examination.

(27)

After the expiry of 60 minutes for Preliminary Examination and 120 minutes for Main Examination, the candidates
will not be able to attempt any question or check their answers. The answers of the candidate would be saved
automatically by the computer system even if he/ she has not clicked the Submit button.

(28)

Please note :
(a)

Candidates will not be allowed to finally submit unless they have exhausted the actual test time.

(b)

Under no circumstances should a candidate click on any of the keyboard keys once the exam
starts as this will lock the exam.

**********

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