1.

Protein X is the substrate of a tyrosine kinase in a signal pathway. Which of the

following method(s) is (are) able to examine the phosphorylation status of
protein X in a signal pathway
(A) qPCR with protein X specific pair of primers
(B) qPCR with phosphorylated tyrosine specific pair of primers
(C) Western blotting with phospho-tyrosine specific antibody
(D) Western blotting with protein X specific antibody
(E) All of the above

2.

Which of the following is the true inducer that binds to the lac repressor in vivo?
(A) glucose
(B) galatoce
(C) lactose
(D) allolactose
(E) isopropyl--thiogalactoside

3.

If both lactose and glucose are present in large amounts, which of the following
scenarios would result?
(A) lac repressor bound to operator, CRP bound to promoter, no lac operon
transcription
(B) lac repressor bound to inducer, CRP bound to promoter, no lac operon
transcription
(C) lac repressor bound to inducer, CRP bound to promoter, lac operon
transcribed
(D) lac repressor bound to inducer, CRP not bound, no lac operon
transcription
(E) lac repressor bound to operator, CRP not bound, no lac operon
transcribed

4.

DNA damage that requires RecA to bind to a DNA gap activates proteolysis of
_____, which then activates the transcription of genes within the SOS regulon.
(A) cI
(B) Cro
(C) LexA
(D) uvrA
(E) uvrD

5.

In E. coli, the tryptophan amino acid is called _____ in the trp operon.
(A) repressor
(B) corepressor
(C) inducer
(D) activator
(E) coactivator

6.

In prokaryotes, DNA methylation occurs on ______ while in eukaryotes,

methylation occurs on
(A) adenine; thymine
(B) adenine; cytosine
(C) adenine; adenine
(D) cytosine; guanine

(E) cytosine; cytosine

7.

DNA methylation in eukaryotes plays a role in

(A) methyl-directed mismatch repair
(B) protection of restriction sites
(C) chromatin remodeling
(D) cancerous cell growth
(E) gene silencing

8.

Which of the following histone modification will not change the charge of
histone?
(A) metylation
(B) acetylation
(C) methylation
(D) phosphorylation
(E) noneof the above

9.

A short RNA that is complimentary to a specific mRNA and used for inhibition
of translation is called
(A) antisense RNA
(B) missense RNA
(C) nonsense RNA
(D) senseless RNA
(E) none of the above

10. If an miRNA is completely complementary to an mRNA, what is the result of the

pairing of these two molecules?
(A) rapid translation of the mRNA
(B) repeated translation as the miRNA prevents destruction of the mRNA
(C) slowed translation of the mRNA
(D) degradation of mRNA
(E) none of the above
11. An mRNA whose translation is controlled by binding of a metabolic end product
such as flavin adenine dinucleotide or adenosylcobalamin is called a
(A) ribozyme
(B) miRNA
(C) siRNA
(D) shRNA
(E) riboswitch
12. Which enzyme is responsible to the linkage the amino acid to its cognate tRNA?
(A) aminoacyl-tRNA synthase
(B) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
(C) aminoacyl-tRNA transferase
(D) aminoacyl-tRNA ligase
(E) none of the above
13. Degenerationof genetic code means
(A) the code is different for bacteria than for eukaryotes

(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

some codons can code for non-standard amino acids

there is more than one stop codon
there is more than one start codon
most amino acids have more than one codon

14. In most cases, the first codon in prokaryotic mRNA codes for ________ while
the first codon in eukaryotic mRNA codes for ________.
(A) methionine; N-formylmethionine
(B) N-formylmethionine; methionine
(C) methionine; methionine
(D) N-formylmethionine; N-formylmethionine
(E) N-formylmethionine: no specific amino acid
15. What site is occupied by the tRNAfMet during intitiation?
(A) A site
(B) P site
(C) E site
(D) S site
(E) T site
16. In prokaryotes, mRNA is ____________. In eukaryotes, mRNA is
_____________.
(A) equally monocistronic and polycistronic; mostly monocistronic
(B) equally monocistronic and polycistronic; mostly polycistronic
(C) mostly monocistronic; equally monocistronic and polycistronic
(D) mostly polycistronic; equally monocistronic and polycistronic
(E) mostly polycistronic; mostly monocistronic
17. Which of the following is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic
translation?
(A) the ribosomes in prokaryotes are larger
(B) prokaryotic ribosomes are free in the cytosol; eukaryotic chromosomes
are always membrane bound
(C) eukaryotic translation requires more protein factors
(D) the genetic code is different
(E) none of the above
18. How many ATP equivalents are required to make a protein of 150 amino acids?
(A) 150
(B) 300
(C) 450
(D) 600
(E) 750
19. Prokaryotic proteins that are destined for secretion often contain a sequence of
________ amino acids at the ___ -terminus of the protein
(A) hydrophobic; N
(B) hydrophilic; N
(C) hydrophilic; C
(D) hydrophobic; C

(E) no specific amino acid; no specific location

20. Which histone protein is associated with the linker DNA and therefore not
actually part of the nucleosome?
(A) H2A
(B) H2B
(C) H3
(D) H4
(E) H1
21. In eukaryotic ribosome, 40S subunit contains ______ rRNA.
(A) 5S
(B) 16S
(C) 18S
(D) 23S
(E) 28S
22. The wrapping of the DNA around the nucleosome in a _____ orientation
introduces ______ supercoils into the DNA.
(A) left-handed, negative
(B) left-handed, positive
(C) right-handed, negative
(D) right-handed, positive
(E) left-handed, no
23. Which direct does ribosome move along the mRNA during translation?
(A) N to C
(B) C to N
(C) 5 to 3
(D) 3 to 5
(E) no specific direction
24. Protein structural motifs often have general functions in common. Which one of
the following motifs is known to be involved in protein dimer formation but not
in direct protein-DNA interactions?
(A) zinc finger
(B) homeodomain
(C) helix-turn-helix
(D) leucine zipper
(E) -barrel
25. Which one of the following does not interact with mediator?
(A) TATA box
(B) TATA binding protein
(C) CTD of RNA polymerase
(D) TFIIH
(E) Modification and remodeling enzymes
26. Replication of DNA in E. coli occurs in what type of fashion?
(A) unidirectional
(B) bidirectional
(C) multidirectional

(D) directionality depends on specific cellular conditions (E) none of the above
27. In DNA damage, p53 is over-expressed and activated to prevent cell proliferation
from continuing until the damage is corrected. If the DNA damage cannot be
corrected, what happens?
(A) cell apoptosis (B) cell repeat S phase
(C) cell return to G1 phase
(D) cell repeat M phase (E) cell grow into a giant cell but not divide
28. What technique can be used to amplify portions of DNA in test tubes?
(A) DNA sequencing (B) Southern blot analysis (C) electrophoresis
(D) Western blot analysis
(E) polymerase chain reaction
29. Where in the following DNA sequence is the most likely start site
of a 6-base type II restriction site?
1
5
10
15
20
5 A C T T C A G A A T T C C T T A C G A A 3
3 T G A A G T C T T A A G G A A T G C T T 5

(A) 1 (B) 7 (C) 10 (D) 14 (E) there is no such site

30. What modification of host DNA is used to protect it against cleavage by the hosts
own restriction enzymes?
(A) phosphorylation (B) acetylation (C) deamination (D) methylation (E)
glycosylation
31. A small section of RNA and DNA which is generated during DNA replication of
the lagging strand is called
(A) Yanofsky operon
(B) Klenow fragment (C) Okazaki fragment
(D) Kozak sequence
(E) Shine-Dalgarno sequence
32. Which of the following is formed by UV irradiation of a DNA base?
(A) uracil (B) 8-oxoguanine (C) 7-methylguanine
(D) thymidine dime (E)
all of the above
33. The introduction of DNA into a bacterial cell by chemicals such as calcium
chloride or liposome is referred to as _____________
(A) transposition (B) transformation (C) transduction(D) conjugation (E)
recombination
34. Which of the following is the most abundant RNA in cells?
(A) tRNA (B) mRNA (C) rRNA (D) miRNA (E) snRNA

35. Which of the following contains both RNA and protein components?
(A) Telomerase (B) tRNA (C) mRNA (D) DNA polymerase I (E) sigma factor
36. If the DNA template strand sequence is 5-AAGCT-3, which is the transcribed
RNA sequence?
(A) 5-AAGCU-3
(B) 5-UCGAA-3
(C) 5-UUCGA-3
(D) 5-AGCUU-3
(E) None of the above

37. -amanitin is a specific inhibitor for

(A) RNA polymerase I

(B) RNA polymerase II
(D) DNA polymerase III (E) Telomerase
38. RNA polymerase I is located in
(A) cytoplasmic membrane
(B) nucleoplasm
(D) mitochondria
(E) ribosomes

(C) DNA polymerase I

(C) nucleolus

39. Which is not the protein subunit contained within the E. coli RNA polymerase
holoenzyme in prokaryotic organisms?
(A) (rho) (B) (alpha) (C)(beta) (D)'(beta prime) (E)(sigma)

40. Which protein subunit binds to the -10 and -35 elements of an E coli gene
promoter is:
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
E

41. Which is the mRNA polyadenylation signal motif in mammalian cells?
(A) AAGAAA
(B) AAUAAA
(C) UAUAAA (D) UUAUUU
(E) GUAUAG

42. The polyA tail of eukaryotic mRNA is approximately _?_nucleotides in length
(A) 10-30
(B) 20-60
(C) 40-100 (D) 80-250
(E) 250-1000

43. The first two bases and the last two bases in the introns splicing signal consensus
sequence are
(A) GG-AA
(B) GU-AC
(C) CU-AG (D) GU-AG (E) UU-AA

44. Which of the following is the first snRNP to bind during the assembly stage of the
spliceosome cycle?
(A) U1 (B) U2 (C) U4 (D) U5
(E) U6

45. The common sequence in the 3-end of tRNA is:
(A) 5-AUG-3 (B) 5-UAA-3 (C) 5-CCA-3 (D) 5-UCC-3 (E) 5-ACC-3
46. The nucleotide residue of 5-cap is
(A) 3-methylguanosine (B) 5-methylguanosine
(D) 3-methylguanosine (E) 7-methylguanosine

(C) 7-methylguanosine

47. The Shine-Dalgarno sequence in E coli mRNA binds to the 3-end of?
(A) tRNA (B) miRNA (C) DNA
(D) mRNA (E) rRNA

48. Which compound inhibits transcription in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
(A) Actinomycin D
(B) Rifampicin
(C) -amanitin
(D) cycloheximide
(E) Streptomycin

49. Which of the following process occurs in cytoplasma?
(A) mRNA capping
(B) translation
(C) rRNA processing
(D) mRNA splicing
(E) transcription

50. Which one of the following antibiotics does not function by interfering with the
translational process?
(A) chloramphenicol
(B) cycloheximide
(C) penicillin
(D) puromycin
(E) streptomycin