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1.

the shortest diameter is :


a. conjugate diameter
b. diagonal diameter
c. Intraspinous diameter
d. all of above

2. per vaginal exam is contraindicated in case of :


a. Cervical cancer
b. placenta previa
c. Abruptio placenta
d. uterine rupture
3. the following cancer is not have carcinoma in situ :
a. endometrial cancer
b. ovarian cancer
c. vaginal cancer
d. cervical cancer

4. definition of Preeclampsia :
a. systolic hypertension more than 140 mmHg and diastolic hypertension
more than 90 mmHg.
b. hypertension + pedal edema
c. hypertension + proteinuria
d. hypertension + eclampsia

5. common presentation vesicular mole is :


A. Vaginal bleeding (painless )
b. Vaginal discharge
c. LAP
d. Dyspanurea

6. the treatment of Sheehan syndrome is : HRT


a. Estrogen
b. progesterone
c. Cortisone
d. thyroid atom

7. After evacuation of vesicular mole , it should follow


a. Radiotherapy
b. Chemotherapy
c. hysterectomy
d. contraceptive pills

8. the most common cause of ectopic pregnancy is :


a. congenital anomalies of uterus
b. Follicular saplingitis
c. Coagulation diseases
d. salipigopalsty

9. clinical manifestation of sever preeclampsia include all the


following except :
a. liver tenderness
b. sever headache
c. Nystagmus
d. epigastric pain

10. one is true about Cord prolapse :


a. may be reaily detected during screening method in 3rd trimester of
pregnancy
b. when it detect by PV during labor CS must be done
c. Frank presentation is commonly dangerous type of cord prolapse
d.

CS delivery is contraindicated in IUFD

11. In management of Preeclpmsia . one is wrong :


Answer is : ACE drugs in treatment of choice in case preeclampsia
12. pyometria in post menopause should be considered as she may had
a. Endometriosis
b. PID
c. Asherman syndrome
d. Malignancy
13. About DUB , one is true :
a. it defined as irregular menstrual vaginal bleeding
b. it defined as polymenorrhea
c. usually physical examination is unremarkable
d. D&C is mainly indicated in every women less than 40 years

14. the most common cause of recurrent abortion is


a. genetic anomalies
b. uterine anomalies
c. hormone disease
d. pelvic congestion

15. 40 years old female has history of IUCD , has serum


pregnancy positive , which of the following is high risk to
develop it ?
a. recurrent abortion
b. vesicular mole
c. Ectopic pregnancy
d. congenital abnormalities

16. which of the following is not consider as antepartum


hemorrhage ?
a. Abruptio placenta
b. placental previa
c. undetermined cause
d. uterine rupture

17. The most common cause of PPH is


a. uterine atony
b. retained placenta tissue
c. Coagulapathy
d. all of above

18. one of the following is true about physiological changes in


pregnancy :
a. blood volume is increased about 100 % (T 40%)
b. increase vascular resistance 50 %
c. leukocytosis (T)
d. decrease plasma renal follow

19. obstetric complication of diabetic mother is all of


following except :
a. IUFD
b. PTL
c. Macrosomia
d. PPH

20. about PET , one is true :


a. sever PET may persist after delivery of fetus
b. Eclampsia may occur up to 4 weeks after delivery
c. patient with sever PET, renal function test should not performed after
delivery
d. I forget it .. sorry..

21. As regard the mechanism of labor , which of the following


sequences is correct (descent-engagment-flexion-internal rotationextention-restituation-external rotation)
A- Descent , internal rotation , flexion
B- Engagement , flexion , internal rotaion
C- Engagement , internal rotation , descent
D- Engagement , descent , flexion
E- Descent , flexion , engagement

22. Maternal mortality refers to the number of maternal


deaths that occur as the result of the reproductive process per
A -1000 births
B- 10.000 births
C- 100.000 births
D- 10.000 live births

23. Ovulation in the human


a. ) Is associated with a surge of luteinizing hormone.
b. Is characteristically followed by the development of secretory
endometrium.
c. Is associated with an increase in motility of the fallopian tube.
d. Is associated with a sustained rise in basal body temperature.
e. Is followed by a rise in urinary pregnantriol.

24. The normal Vaginal PH is ( 3.8-4.5 )


a. 7-10
b. 3-4
c. 0-3
d. 6-8
25. Myoepithelial epithelial cell contraction can be achieved by :
A. prolactin
b. oxytocin
c. progesterone
d. estrogen

26. Viral infection of the cervix one true


A. Papilloma viruses are RNA viruses. (DNA Virus)
B. Human papilloma virus (HPV) types 16 and 18 are the RNA viruses
most commonly associated with cervical cancer
C. Human papilloma virus infection can regress spontaneously
(postpartum)
D. Viral infections involving the cervical epithelium are only manifested
by dyskaryosis

27. All of the following are true in regards to vulvar Paget's


disease with the EXCEPTION of
A. Presents as an erythematous, eczematoid lesion of the vulva
B. Most common in postmenopausal, Caucasian women
C. Presenting complaints of pruritus and vulvar soreness
D. Pathologic extent of disease corresponds well to the visual
assessment of the lesion

28. Regarding the broad ligament, the following are true


except
A- Contains tissues of mesonephric origin
B- has the fallopian tube in its upper free border
C- has the ovarian artery in its lower attached border
D- has the ureter passing forward in its lower attached border

29. Neck US is useful for giving possible find of :


a. multiplicity
b. Lymph node status
c. differentiation between malignant and benign
d. nodular size

30. The most common complication of pelvic fracture is :


a. hemorrhage
b. pelvic pain
c. urine retention (urethral injury)
d. rectal tenzmus

31. DVT prevention is achieved by :


a. Calf compression during surgical operation
b. Elevation of bed floor .
c. both
d. Neither

32. according to Paget disease one is true


a. usually present with eczematous of nipple and aerola
b. it precancerous lesion
c. mostly bilateral
d. usually treatment by simple mastectomy

33. one is incorrect about breast cancer :


a. usually has history of painful breast mass
b. often present in upper outer quadrant
c. can be detected preoperatively by experience physicians 95 %
d. surgical operation is usually is treatment of choice

34. blood stained nipple discharge commonly associated with


a. breast ductal cancer
b. Dutacl ectasia
c. Fibroadenoma
d. intraductal papilloma
Mcc of postmenpausal bleeding.. atrophic vaginaitis
*Uterin size in nonpregnant woman..
A.50-70 ^60-120^
B.30-50
C.40-60
D.90-110

Fetal weigth in 28 weeks gst.


A.600 B.800 C.2000 D.1100 E.1500

Breech presentation in %
A.1

B.2 C.3 D.6 E.8

*25 y/o woman with havey menorreghea and 2


years infertility
A.endometrosis
B.uterin fibroid
C.pcos

*51 years healthy woman what you should do


A.papsmer
B.mamogram once yearly 2 years then evry 5 yeare
C.....
*Umbilcal cord contan
A. 2 ven 1 art.
B.2 art 1 ven
*14 years old with breast mass should do all exept
A.us
B.fna
C.biopcy
D.mamogram
* marina its a type of
A.IUD
B.OCPS

one is c/i of Ocps ?


note:
absolute CI : thrombo-embolism \ CHD\CVA\hepatic
tumors\breast CA\ endometrial hyperplasia|CA|undiagnosed
uterin bleeding\pregnancy
relative CI : HTN\ migrains\ VV \ smoking>35 yo\ befor major
surgery\ DM \ epilypsy \ uterin fibroid \lactation

When we should treat the parents


A.candidasis
B.vagainla warts
C. Bacterial vaginosis
D.herpe

1)regarding antenatal care (ANC) the all true except


1)
2)
3)
4)

regular ANC can prevent ..... macrosomia


regular ANC reduce the incidince of pylonephtitis
exercise during pregnancy can help in reduce weight after delivary
regular ANC can prevent hydrops fetalis rhesus isommunized
mother
5) air travel is not allowed for patient transport at 34 week g
gestation

2)in the management of patient suspected as acute pelvic


inflammatory disease all investigation are beneficial except
1-urine analysis and culture
2-CRP
3-laproscopy
4-endocervical swab
5-hysteroscopy

3)regarding the bacterial vaginosis all true except


1-commonly presented as deep dysparounia
2-wet smear thows clue cell
3-no need to treat the partner
4-is usually asymptomatic
5-culture commonly reveals gardnerella vaginosis

4)during which the stage of labor is the fetus delivered


1- stage ZERO
2 - stage one
3 -stage two
4 -stage three
5 -stage four

5)breast milk containe all except


1-- vitm A
2- vtm B
3- vitmD
4- vitm e
5- vitm K

6)one of the following is NOT a complication of preeclampsia


-1HELLP syndrome
-2placenta previa
-3pulmonary edema
-4acute pulmonary edema
-5cerebral hemorrhage

7)regarding progesterone only pills ,all true except


-1safe in women over 40
-2associated with breakthrough bleeding
-3should be taken dally at fixed time
-4associated with functional ovarian cyst
-5as effect as combined pills in inhibition of ovulation

8)which the following antibiotic is contraindication during


pregnancy
-1amoxicillin
-2imipenem
-3oxacillin
-4- levofloxacin
-5ampicilin

9)regarding the management labor in women with heart


disease , all are correct except
-1indcation of labor is immedated for .....
-2ensure adequant analgesia during 1st stage
-3fluid restiction is recommended
-4ergometrine can be used in the active manegment of 3rd stage
-5keep 2nd stage short

10) regarding hydatiform mole all true except


-1is an abnormal growth of the placenta
-2in a complete molar pregnancy ,some fetus development may occurs
-3is due to problem during fertillization
-4uterus is large in about half of cases
-5nausea and vomotong is more with complete mole

11) M C symptom of cerviacl ca


-1increase freguency if urination
-2pelvic pain
-3postcoital bleeding
-4infertility

12) A 26 y old primigravida was found to have 6*6 cm right


ovarian cyst during routine visit ,at 10 week gestation ,the
best course of action is
-1admit for ovarian cystectomy immediately
-2rescan at 14-18 week
-3reassure the patient and ignore the cyst as it will disappeare
spontaneously
-4give progesterone therapy
-5arrange for CT scan and tumor marker

-13which the earlist point in pregnancy that a woman will

begin to perceive fetal movement


1- 8week
2- 10week
3- 16 week
4- 24week
5 - 30 -week

14) low birth weight is


-1less than 2.00 kg
-2less than 2.5 kg and the height less than 40 cm
-3less than 2.5 kg
-4between 1.5-2.5 kg

15) low level of HCG may be found in which of the following


-1ectopic pregnancy
-2down syndrome
-3erythroblastosis fetalls
-4molar pregnancy
-5twin pregnancy

16) the heart rate of fetus during labor is considered to be


normal if it
1- 120-100 -bpm
2- 100-80 -bpm
3- 180-160-bpm
4 - 160-120-bpm
5- within any of above

17) A 55 y old asymptomatic obese female present to your


clinic for checkup and general advice .you advice her that all
of the following condition are strongly associated with obesity
except :
-1osteroporosis
-2atherosclerosis
-3hypoventilation syndrome
-4insulin resistance
-5hypertention

18) cushing syndrome is charactriized by all except-:


-1poor wound healing
-2Acne
-3hyperpigmentation of the buccal mucosa
-4Hirsutism
-5truncal obesity

19) CO2 mostly carried by-:


-1HCO3
-2albumin
-3globulin
-4hemoglobin
-5dissolved in the blood

20)at what gestational age dose aminiotic fluid vomume reach


its peak :
1- 24week
2- 28week
3- 30week
4- 34week
5- 40week
-21what is the approximate riske of trisomy 21 in 20 y old women
1- 1 in 1200
2- 1 in 1000
3- 1 in 500
4- 1 in 150
5 - 1 in 70

22) -all the following are STDs (sexually transmotted disease )


except-:
-1trichomonas vaginalis
-2syphilis
-3chlamydia
-4candidia albicans
-5gonorrhea

22 ) 5-y old girl present with foul smelling vaginal discharge


most likely causes is-:
foreign body-1
candidiasis-2
trichomoniasis-3
vesicorectal fistula-4
bacterial vaginosis-5

23) ovarian vessels are found in which ligaments-:


-1broad
-2round
-3uterosacral
-4infundiabulo pelvic
-5broad and round

1- All Causes of polyhydramnios except :


abcd-

Chrorioangiomas
Anencephaly
Hydrocephalus
Renal agensis

2- All drugs safe in pregnancy except:


abcd-

Heparin
Acetaminophen
Methothrexate
Insulin

3- All are risk factor for endometrial cancer except :


abcde-

Nulliparity
Late menopause
PCOS
Multiparity
Obesity

4- The relationship of long axis of the fetus to the mother


is :
abcd-

Lie
Presentation
Position
Attitude

5- What percentage of couple in the reproducive age is


unable to conceive after one year of coitus without
contraception:
Ans : 15%

6- The incidence of breech presentation at term is:


Ans : 3 %

7- All the following are chromosomal disorders except :


a- Downs syndrome
b- Cystic fibrosis
c- Edwards syndrome

8- Female present with vaginal bleeding ,,large uterus and


passage of vesicles per vagina ..the diagnosis is :
a- Molar pregnancy
b- Ectopic pregnancy

9- Menorrhagia with dysmenorrhia and dyspareunia is

mostly :
Ans : endometriosis

10All the following are commom complications of


diabetes in pregnancy except :
a- RDS
b- Macrosomia
c- Bleeding

11- The cervial canal is lined by :


a- Non ciliated columnar epithlium
b- ciliated columnar epithlium

12-

the normal baseline fetal heart rate:


ans: 110- 150 \ (120-160) bpm

pregnant 35 week present with vaginal bleeding


and tender rigid uterus and fetal bradycardia :

13-

a- ectopic pregnancy
b- placenta abruption
c- placenta previa

14-

the commonest infection in pregnancy:


ans: UTI

Anti D immunoglobulin is given to rhesus negative


women in :

15-

abcd-

16-

Amenocentesis
Abrotion
Exrernal cephalic version
All of the above

Most common Germ cell ovarian tumour is....


Ans: dysgerminoma

17-

Most common site of ectopic pregnancy :


abcd-

18-

All vaccine cant be give in pregnancy except:


abcd-

19-

Interstitium
Isthmus
Ampulla
Infundibulum

Measles
Mumps
Oral polio vaccine
Injection polio vaccine

All about hepatitis B false except:


Ans: Safe in pregnancy

20-

How Percentage of breech presentation:


a- 3%
b- 0.3%
c- O.03%

21-

Premature baby is ........:


a- Below 37 weeks
b- Less than 1500 mg (true :less than 2500mg)

22-

Alfa fetoprotien present in :


a- Wilms tumour
b- Hepatoblastoma
c- Neuroblastoma

23-

Trichomonas vaginalis infection


abcd-

Is treated by multiple antibiotic


Caused by gram nigative
This is sexually transmitted disease
All of the above

24Woman has miscarriage in her first pregnancy


,most likely cause by:
Ans: chromosomal abnarmality

25-

All are used for induction of labour except :


a- Ergomertrine
b- Postaglandin
c- Oxytocin

26-

Alarming sign for preeclampsia is:


abcd-

27-

Increase BP
Protienuria
Epigastic pain
Headache

All case of maternal anemia except:


a- Vasa previa
b- Placenta previa

28-

Sign for progress of labour:


a- Dilation
b- Engagement
c- Contractile upper uterine segment

29-

Contraception contraindication for lactation:


abcd-

30-

All are Secondary amenorrhea except:


abcd-

31-

Depo-provera
Minipill
OCP
Intrauterine device
Pregnancy
Imperforate hymen
Anovulation
Antipsychotic medication

Primary amenorrhea is:

Ans: absence of menses at age 14 without secondary sexual


development

32-

All case of Uterus large for date except:


Ans: fibroid

33-

Normal amount of blood of menstural cycle:


a- 80 100 ml
b- 100- 150 ml
c- 30- 80 ml

34Weman 22 years old c/o from 5 week) no menses


..the mangment is:
Ans: do B-hcg
:
- anti d isoimmunization

All of the following statements regarding the health


status of

A. -:HIV Infected individuals are true except


B. .They are usually a symptomatic
C. They have circulating HIV particles in their Plasma and
.peripheral blood mononuclear calls
D. .They will ultimately develop AIDS
E. .They will be cured with AZT ( Azidothy midine). Treatment

Documented Spread of AIDS has occurred from all the


:following except
A.
B.
C.
D.

From mother to child in utero or at the time of birth


.In house hold contacts
heterosexual and homosexual contact
.Rom eating food

All of the following sexually transmitted infection .3


-:caused by bacteria except one
.a) Gonorrhea
.b) Lymphogranuloma venereum
.c) Chlamydia conjunctivitis
.d) Syphilis
.e) Trichomonicsis

4- one of the following sexually tansmitted infection is


charaterized by ulcerative pathology:?
.a) Syphilis
.b) Gonorrhea
.c) Lymphogranuloma venerum
.d) genital herpes
.e) Chancroid

Horizontal transmission of STIs include all the .5


.following methods
.Sexual intercourse (1
.Intravenous drug use (2
Through breast feeding (3
.During pregnancy )4
.Medical procedures and sharps (5

6- the period needed foe HIV virus to become


detectable in blood from the time entering the body is
?
.a) 1-3 months
.b) 1-3 weeks
c) 1-3 years
.d) 1-3 days
.e) Non of the a bove

1- A woman 35 years old /G4 P3 presents with couvelaire


uterus in C/S. When is hysterectomy indicated?
A-presence of hematoma in the broad ligament
B-presence of hematoma in mesosalpinx
C- atony retractable to treatment
D- presence of blood in abdominal cavity

2-In the second stage of labor ,you notice a persistent fetal


heart rate bradycardia of 110 bpm. What is your
management?
A- left lateral position, nasal oxygen, 1000 cc serum, fetal monitoring
B- detecting fetal blood PH
C-after 40 min intervention is needed
D- It is a normal event in this stage . No further step is needed.

3-BPP of a 34-week pregnancy is 4. What step should be


taken?
A-L/S should be determined . If it is below 2, the BPP should be repeated
B-immediate pregnancy termination
C-BPP should be repeated if it is below 6 , pregnancy termination
D- BPP should be repeated 48 hours later and management is designed
according to that score

4- NST of a G2 / GA=37 wks/ cephalic presentation/ with a


history of 2 IUFDs shows a 2-min deceleration. What is the
best management ?
A- daily BPP and observation
B- C/S
C- repeat of NST 24 hours later
D-vaginal exam with continuous fetal monitoring

5- A pregnant womans BPP shows a non-reactive NST, one


inspiration in 3 min of 30 sec duration, 2 body movements,
one Flex and Ext of limbs, AF of one vertical packet of 3 cm.
What is your management?
A- pregnancy asphyxia and pregnancy termination
B- repeating the test one week later w/o the possibility of fetal asphyxia
C- repeating the test with the possibility of fetal asphyxia
D- the possibility of asphyxia, repeat of the test on the spot and if
abnormal, termination of pregnancy

6-A term pregnancy- dil=3cm- eff=50%-satation=-2 soft cervix


in mid position has a Bishop score of:
A-5
B-7
C-9
D-10

7- G4-P1-Ab2 / GA:38wks/full dil &eff/frank breech/ station=1


/WB=intact /FHR=100 BPM / x-ray shows flexion of the head.
What is the best management?
A-Frank breech extraction
B-C/S
C-modified Prague maneuver
D- observation for non assisted breech delivery

8-Which is wrong about misoprostol?


A- It is a synthetic PG E1
B-It is used for peptic ulcer
C- It is used for contraception
D- Its dose is 100 mcg intra cervical for labor induction

9-Which is wrong in shoulder dystocia?


A-Most of shoulder dystocia cases can not be diagnosed or predicted
B- Shoulder dystocia can be diagnosed with high accuracy using
modern imaging studies
C-ultrasound is not reliable
D- C/S is recommended in diabetic mothers with babies more than 4500
gr and in non diabetic mothers with babies more than 5000 gr

10- A 40 years old woman / G3/P2 /GA=35 wks/ BP=210/110


is in seizure. What is the best way to control her seizure?
A-Phenytoin loading dose of 1000 mg/h IV
B- Diazepam and creatinin measurement
C- amobarbital sodium 250 mg IV
D- MgSO4 4-6 gr as loading dose

11-which is the most common reason of DIC in Obstetrics?


A-IUFD

B-abruption

c-AF emboli

D- septic shock

12-A woman suffers intractable heavy vaginal bleeding after


C/S. Laparatomy is performed. Retrovesical hematoma is
evacuated and the site of bleeding is sutured. The bleeding
does not stop. What is the second stage in management?
A-total hysterectomy
B-bilateral uterine and ovarian arteries ligation
C-bilateral hypogastric arteries ligation
D-bilateral hypogastric and ovarian arteries ligation

13-How PG f2-alfa is administered for uterine atony?


A-20 mg IM for max 3 doses by 15-90 min intervals
B-500 mcg IV for max 4 doses IM by 30 min intervals
C-1000 mcg IM single dose
D-250 mcg IM for max 8 doses by 15-90 min intervals

14-In a 14 year old anemic girl with prolonged uterine


spotting what should be done?
A- assurance, follow up and ferrus sulfate
B- Low dose OCP q6h for 7 days
C- Low dose OCP 21 days for 3-6 cycles
D- conjugate estrogen 2.5 mg PO q6h for 7 days

15-What trisomy in the form of placental mosaicism causes


IUGR?
A-13
B-16
C-18
D-21

16-Which is not a sign of twin to twin transfusion?


A-difference in weights more than 10%
B-hydramnios in one fetus and oligohydramnios in the other
C- difference in Hb more than 5 gr/dl
D-monochorion with placental vascular anastomosis

17- What should be done for a woman 31 week gestation with


twin pregnancy and one fetus dead?
A-prophylactic heparin for DIC prevention
B- C/S
C- observation
D- tocolytics

18-What is your management of a 36 year old woman who is


pregnant after primary infertity. She is referring to you for
spotting and hypogastric pain, beta HCG is 1500 mu/l and
ultrasound of uterus and ovaries are normal.
A-laparatomy
B-laparascopy
C-repeat of vaginal sonography several days later
D-progesterone measurement
19. Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to

undergo torsion during pregnancy?


A. Serous cystadenoma.
B. Mucinous cystadenoma
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Theca lutein cyst
20. A 28-year-old primigravid woman at term comes to the labor and
delivery ward with a gush of fluid and regular contractions. Her prenatal
course was remarkable for her being Rh negative and antibody negative.
Her husband is Rh positive. Over the following 10 hours, she progresses
in labor and delivers a 3600-g boy via a normal spontaneous
vaginal delivery. The placenta does not deliver spontaneously, and a
manual removal is required. To determine the correct amount of
RhoGAM (anti-D immune globulin) that should be given, which of the
following is the most appropriate laboratory test to send?
A. Complete blood count
B. Kleihauer-Betke
C. Liver function tests
D. Prothrombin time
E. Serum potassium

21.A 25-year-old nulliparous woman at 35 weeks' gestation


comes to the labor and delivery ward complaining of
contractions, a headache, and flashes of light in front of her
eyes. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated except for an
episode of first trimester bleeding that completely resolved.
She has no medical problems. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6
F), blood pressure is 160/110 mm Hg, pulse is 88/minute, and
respirations are 12/minute. Examination shows that her
cervix is 2 centimeters dilated and 75% effaced, and that she
is contracting every 2 minutes. The fetal heart tracing is in the
140s and reactive. Urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. Laboratory
values are as follows: leukocytes 9,400/mm3, hematocrit 35%,
platelets 101,000/mm3. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is
200 U/L, and ALT 300 U/L. Which of the following is the most
appropriate next step in management?
a.Administer oxytocin
b.Discharge the patient
c.Encourage ambulation
d.Start magnesium sulfate
e.Start terbutaline

22. A 21-year-old primigravid woman at 39 weeks' gestation comes to


the labor and delivery ward with painful contractions every three
minutes. Her prenatal course was unremarkable. Examination shows
her cervix to be 3 centimeters dilated and 90% effaced. The fetal heart
rate tracing is in the 150s and reactive. 5 hours later cervical
examination reveals that the patient is 9 centimeters dilated and at -1
station. The fetal heart rate tracing shows moderate variable
decelerations with each contraction and decreased variability. Fetal
scalp sampling is performed that yields fetal scalp pHs of 7.04, 7.05,
and 7.06. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in
management?
a.Expectant management
b.Episiotomy
c.Forceps-assisted vaginal delivery
d.Vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery
e. Cesarean delivery
23.The pseudomyxoma peritonei occurs as a complication of the
following ovarian tumor:
a) Serous cystadenoma
b) Mucinous cystadenoma
c) Dysgerminoma
d) Gonadoblastoma

24.The risk of Asherman syndrome is the highest if Dilatation


and Curettage (D & C) is done for the following condition:
a) Medical termination of pregancy
b) Missed abortion
c) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
d) Post partum haemorrhage

25.The risk of endometrial carcinoma is the highest with the


following histological pattem of endometrial hyperplasia:
a) Simple hyperplasia without atypia
b) Simple hyperplasia with atypia
c) Complex hyperplasia without atypia
d) Complex hyperplasia with atypia

26.PAP smear shows Ca in situ-what is the best next logical


procedure
a) Conisation
b) Colposcopy & biopsy
e) Hysterectomy
d) HPV viral D.N.A. testing

27.Which of the following is the least likely physiological


change in pregnancy
a) Increase in intravascular volume
b) Increase in cardiac output
c) Increase in stroke volume
d) Increase in peripheral vascular resistance

28.Red degeneration most commonly occurs in


a) 1 st trimester
b) 2nd trimester
e) 3rd trimester
d) Puerperium

29.Late hyperglycemia in pregnancy is associated with


a) Macrosomia
b) IUGR
c) Postmaturity
d) Congenital malformation

30.The most common congenital anomaly in baby born to


Insulin Dependant Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM) mother is :
a) Neural tube defect
b) Cardiovascular anomalies
c) G.l.T anomalies
d) Pulmonary anomalies

31.The investigation of choice in a 55 year old


postmenopausal woman who has presented with
postmenopausal bleeding is:
A. Pap smear
B. Fractional curettage
C. Transvaginal ultrasound
D. Ca 125 estimation.

32.Misoprostol has been found to be effective in all of the


following except:
A. Missed abortion
B. lnduction of labour
C. Menorrhagia
D. Prevention of post-partum hemorrhage (PPH)

33.Risk of preterm delivery is increased if cervical length is:


A. 2.5 cm
B. 3.0 cm
C. 3.5 cm
D. 4.0 cm

34.All are the causes of intrauterine growth retardation


except:
A. Anemia
B. Pregnancy induced hypertension
C. Maternal heart disease
D. Gestational diabetes

35.In a case of Dysgerminoma of ovary one of the following


tumor markers is likely to be raised.
A. Serum HCG
B. Serum alphafetoprotein
C. Serum lactate dehydrogenase
D. Serum inhibin.

36.The most common pure germ cell tumor of the ovary is :


A. Choriocarcinoma
B. Dysgerminoma
C. Embryonal cell tumor
D. Malignant Teratoma

37.Which of the following strongly suggest the diagnosis of


preterm labor?
A. cervical dilatation > 1cm
B. cervical effacement > 80%
C. contractions (4 in 20 min ) with progressive cervical dilatation
D. all of the above.

38. Which of the following is associated with an increased


incidence of placental abruption ?
A.young age .
B. alcohol abuse.
C. oligohydramnios.
D. multifetal gestation

39. Imperfect development of the nitabuch layer during


placental development that results in placental villi
penetrating through the myometrium is termed which of the
following ?
A. placenta increta
B. placenta accrete
C. placenta percreta
D. placenta diacreta
NOTE:
Accreta chorionic villi attach to the myometrium,
Increta chorionic villi invade into the myometrium.
Percreta chorionic villi invade through the myometrium.

40.All are the causes of intrauterine growth retardation


except:
A. Anemia
B. Pregnancy induced hypertension
C. Maternal heart disease
D. Gestational diabetes

41. A 29-year-old woman comes to the emergency


department because of abdominal distension and shortness
of breath. Approximately 1 week ago, she underwent fertility
treatment with ovulation induction and oocyte retrieval. She
has a history of polycystic ovarian syndrome but no other
medical problems. She had laparoscopy 1 year ago as part
of a fertility evaluation. She has no known drug allergies. Her
temperature is 37 C (98.6F), blood pressure is 80/40 mm Hg,
pulse is 130/min, and respirations are 28/min. Physical
examination is remarkable for crackles at the lung bases
bilaterally and a
distended, nontender abdomen with a fluid wave. Ultrasound
demonstrates bilaterally enlarged ovaries (each >10 cm) and
free fluid in the abdomen. Urine hCG is negative.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Hemorrhagic ovarian cyst
C. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
D. Ovarian torsion
E. Tubo-ovarian abscess

1- Narrowest part of pelvis is :


A- Pelvic inlet
B- Pelvic outlet
C- Midpelvis
D- At level of sacral promontory
E- Pelvic floor

2- One is a C/I for forceps delicery:


A- Aftercoming head in breech
B- Face
C- Brow
D- Occipitoanterior
E- Occipitoposterior

3- One is true about prolonged latent phase of labor:


A- May risk of PPH
B- Oxytocin may be used
C- Affect fetus wellbeing
D- Is an indication C/S

4- Minimum time needed for oxytocin to reach its


maximum effect is:
A- 5 min
B- 10 min
C- 20- 30 min
D- 30-40Entrance Exam 2011 18/21

5- Duration of sleep cycle in fetus is:


A- 10 min
B- 23 min
C- 54 min
D- 76 min
E- 84 min
6- About functional ovarian cyst all true except:
A- Clomiphene citrate used for treatment

7- About benign ovarian disease all true except:


A- May be cystic or solid
B- Usually asymptomatic
C- Abdominal distension is a common presentation
D- Laparoscopic cystectomy is preferred for cystic lesions

8- About serous cystadenocarcinoma, all true except:


A- Contains calcifications in their walls(psammoma bodies)
B- Lined by columnar epithelium
C- Can reach very large size
D- Usually have papillary projections into the cyst

9- About gonadal differentiation all true except:


A- If we removed gonads before differentiation, the fetus will be
male or female according to their chromosomes
B- XX chromosomes induce gonads to differentiate to ovaries
C- Wolffian duct give rise to vas deferens and epididymis

10- About endometrial polyps all true except:


A- Most are malignant
B- Treated by hysteroscopic resection

11- About endometrial cancer all true except:


A- Spread to internal and external iliac LN the paraortic LN
B- Usually occurs in perimenopause
C- Increased risk in nulliparus

12- Irregular ripening of endometrium is associated with


all except:
A- Treated by progesterone
B- Caused by defect in corpus luteum function
C- Biopsy may show patchy areas of hyper progesteronemic
endometrium
D- Present with premenstrual spotting
E- May be caused by defect in endometrium response to
hormones

13- One is not used in labor induction:


A- Oxytocin
B- Prostaglandins
C- Misoprostol
D- Ergometrine
E- Stripping of membranes

14- All true about injectable progesterone except:


A- Can cause endometriosis
B- Lead to weight gain
C- Can cause acne

15- All are C/I for progesterone minipills except:


A- Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
B- Mild hypertension
C- Acne

16- About OCPs and Breast cancer, which is true:


A. OCPs with high estrogen increase risk of breast cancer
B. OCPs with high progesterone increase risk of breast cancer
C. OCPs with both high estrogen & progesterone increase risk of
breast cancer
D. There is no relation to breast cancer whatever the dose

17- Polycystic ovary syndrome, all true except:


A. LH:FSH ratio is 1:1
B. Can present with amenorrhea

18- Regarding abortion, all are true except:


A. Many of cases may be due to Trisomies
B. Abnormal structure of chromosomes is more common than
number of chromosomes

19- All can cause first trimester abortion except:


A. Trisomies
B. Cervical incompetence

20- Best time to measure MSAFP to assess NTDs is:


A. 10-12 weeks
B. 6-8 weeks
C. 16-18 weeks
D. 26-28 weeks

21- Antiphospholipid affects pregnancy by:


A. Causing thrombosis and infarction of the placenta

22- Variable decelerations is most likely caused by:


A. Pressure on the fetal head leading to a vagal response
B. Uteroplacental insufficiencyEntrance Exam 2011 21/21
C. Cord compression

23- Best assessment of progression of labor is:


A. Cervical Dilatation

24- Regarding menopause, all are true except:


A. Time of menopause is likely to be genetically determined
B. Associated with elevated FSH levels
C. Occurs due to permanent loss of basal layer of endometrium

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