ITIL Foundation Examination Sample A v4.1 Combined

The ITIL Foundation Examination
Sample Paper A, version 4.1

Multiple Choice
Instructions
1.
2.
3.
4.
All 40 questions should be attempted.

All answers are to be marked on the answer grid provided.
You have 60 minutes to complete this paper.
You must achieve 26 or more out of a possible 40 marks (65%) to pass this
examination.
The OGCs Official Accreditor of the ITIL Portfolio The APM Group Ltd 2011
The Swirl logo is a Trade Mark of the Office of Government Commerce
ITIL is a Registered Trade Mark of the Office of Government Commerce in the United Kingdom and other countries
ITIL Foundation Examination SampleA v4.1
This document must not be reproduced without express permission from The APM Group Ltd.
Version 4.1 (Live)
Owner APM Group-The Accreditor
Page 1
1. What types of changes are NOT usually included within the scope of change management?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Changes to a mainframe computer

Changes to business strategy
Changes to a service level agreement (SLA)
The retirement of a service
2. Which of the following is NOT an objective of service operation?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Thorough testing to ensure that services are designed to meet business needs
To deliver and manage IT services
To manage the technology used to deliver services
To monitor the performance of technology and processes
3. What does the term IT operations control refer to?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Managing the technical and applications management functions

Overseeing the execution and monitoring of operational activities and events
The tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT infrastructure and applications
The service desk monitoring the status of the infrastructure when operators are not
available
4. Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Service level management

Service portfolio management
Service asset and configuration management (SACM)
Incident management
5. What is the RACI model used for?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity

Defining requirements for a new service or process
Analysing the business impact of an incident
Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of service management
6. Which of the following is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?
a) An agreement between an IT service provider and another part of the same organization
that assists in the provision of services
b) A written agreement between the IT service provider and their customer(s) defining key
targets and responsibilities of both parties
c) An agreement between two service providers about the levels of service required by the
customer
d) An agreement between a 3rd (third) party service desk and the IT customer about fix and
response times
Version 4.1 (Live)
Page 2
7. What is the MAIN goal or purpose of availability management?

a)
b)
c)
d)
To monitor and report availability of components

To ensure that all targets in the service level agreements (SLAs) are met
To guarantee availability levels for services and components
To ensure that service availability meets the agreed needs of the business
8. Which of the following does service transition provide guidance on?

1. Introducing new services
2. Decommissioning services
3. Transfer of services between service providers
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 only
All of the above
1 and 3 only
9. Which of the following is NOT a phase of the service lifecycle?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Service optimization
Service transition
Service design
Service strategy
10. Which of the following statements about a configuration management system (CMS) is
CORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)
The CMS should not contain corporate data about customers and users
There may be more than one CMS
There should not be more than one configuration management database (CMDB)
Even if an organization outsources its IT services there is still a need for a CMS
11. What are the three sub-processes of capacity management?

a) Business capacity management, service capacity management and component capacity
management
b) Supplier capacity management, service capacity management and component capacity
management
c) Supplier capacity management, service capacity management and technology capacity
management
d) Business capacity management, technology capacity management and component
capacity management
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Page 3
12. Which of the following would be stored in the definitive media library (DML)?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Copies of purchased software

Copies of internally-developed software
Relevant licence documentation
The change schedule
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
13. Which process is responsible for reviewing operational level agreements (OLAs) on a regular
basis?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Supplier management
Service level management
Service portfolio management
Demand management
14. Which role should ensure that process documentation is current and available?
a)
b)
c)
d)
The service owner

The chief information officer
Knowledge management
The process owner
15. Which of the following are the purposes or objectives of the release and deployment
management process?
1. To define and agree release and deployment plans
2. To ensure release packages can be tracked
3. To authorize changes to support the process
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
All of the above
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
16. Which of the following are characteristics of every process?

1.
2.
3.
4.
It is measurable
It is timely
It delivers a specific result
It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 2, and 3 only
1, 2, and 4 only
1, 3, and 4 only
All of the above
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Page 4
17. Agreeing business requirements and service levels for a new service is part of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Service operation
Service strategy
Service transition
Service design
18. The information security policy should be available to which groups of people?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Senior business managers and all IT staff only

Senior business managers, IT executives and the information security manager only
All customers, users and IT staff
Information security management staff only
19. Which of the following are valid elements of a service design package (SDP)?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Agreed and documented business requirements

A service definition for transition and operation of the service
Requirements for new or changed processes
Metrics to measure the service
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
All of the above
20. Which of the following are examples of tools that might support the service transition phase of
the lifecycle?
1.
2.
3.
4.
A tool to store definitive versions of software

A workflow tool for managing changes
An automated software distribution tool
Testing and validation tools
a)
b)
c)
d)
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
2, 3 and 4 only
21. Which of the following statements about problem management is/are CORRECT?
1. It ensures that all resolutions or workarounds that require a change to a configuration item
(CI) are submitted through change management
2. It provides management information about the cost of resolving and preventing problems
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 only
2 only
Both of the above
Neither of the above
Version 4.1 (Live)
Page 5
22. What is the purpose of the request fulfilment process?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Dealing with service requests from the users

Making sure all requests within an IT organization are fulfilled
Ensuring fulfilment of change requests
Making sure the service level agreement (SLA) is met
23. Which statement about value creation through services is CORRECT?

a)
b)
c)
d)
The customer's perception of the service is an important factor in value creation

The value of a service can only ever be measured in financial terms
Delivering service provider outcomes is important in the value of a service
Service provider preferences drive the value perception of a service
24. Plan, Do, Check, Act are the four stages of which quality improvement method?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Business knowledge management framework

Benchmarking
Continual service improvement
The Deming Cycle
25. Which of the following should IT services deliver to customers?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Capabilities
Cost
Risk
Value
26. Which of the following activities is part of the service level management (SLM) process?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Designing the configuration management system from a business perspective

Creating technology metrics to align with customer needs
Monitoring service performance against service level agreements (SLAs)
Training service desk staff how to deal with customer complaints about service
27. Which of the following BEST summarizes the purpose of event management?
a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control
action
b) The ability to detect events, restore normal service as soon as possible and minimize the
adverse impact on business operations
c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of
infrastructure devices
Version 4.1 (Live)
Page 6
28. Which of the following should a service catalogue contain?

a)
b)
c)
d)
The version information of all software

The organizational structure of the company
Asset information
Details of all operational services
29. "Warranty of a service" means?

a)
b)
c)
d)
The service is fit for purpose

There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the service
All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security
30. A technician uses a pre-defined technique to restore service as the incident has been seen
before. This is an example of which of the following?
a)
b)
c)
d)
A workaround
A standard change
A service capability
An alert
31. Which of the following is a benefit of using an incident model?

a)
b)
c)
d)
It will make problems easier to identify and diagnose

It means known incident types never recur
It provides pre-defined steps for handling particular types of incidents
It ensures all incidents are easy to solve
32. Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of activities for handling an incident?
a) identification, logging, categorization, prioritization, initial diagnosis, functional escalation,
investigation and diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure
b) prioritization, identification, logging, categorization, initial diagnosis, functional escalation,
investigation and diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure
c) identification, logging, initial diagnosis, categorization, prioritization, functional escalation,
resolution and recovery, investigation and diagnosis, closure
d) identification, initial diagnosis, investigation, logging, categorization, functional escalation,
prioritization, resolution and recovery, closure
33. Which of the following are objectives of continual service improvement?

1.
2.
3.
4.
To improve process efficiency and effectiveness

To improve services
To improve all phases of the service lifecycle EXCEPT service strategy
To improve international standards such as ISO/IEC 20000
a)
b)
c)
d)
1 and 2 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3 only
All of the above
Version 4.1 (Live)
Page 7
34. Which of the following processes need to carry out risk assessment and management against
services?
1. IT service continuity management
2. Information security management
3. Service catalogue management
a)
b)
c)
d)
All of the above

1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
35. Which of the following is NOT a type of metric described in continual service improvement
(CSI)?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Process metrics
Service metrics
Personnel metrics
Technology metrics
36. Which statement about the relationship between the configuration management system
(CMS) and the service knowledge management system (SKMS) is CORRECT?
a)
b)
c)
d)
The SKMS is part of the CMS

The CMS forms part of the SKMS
The CMS and SKMS are the same thing
There is no relationship between the CMS and the SKMS
37. What is the role of the emergency change advisory board (ECAB)?
a) To assist the change manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made during
particularly volatile business periods
b) To assist the change manager by implementing emergency changes
c) To assist the change manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide whether
they should be approved
d) To assist the change manager in speeding up the emergency change process so that no
unacceptable delays occur
38. Which of the following statements about the service desk is/are CORRECT?
1. The service desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT and its
users for all operational issues
2. The service desk should be the owner of the problem management process
a)
b)
c)
d)
2 only
1 only
Both of the above
Neither of the above
Version 4.1 (Live)
Page 8
39. Which of the following are the four Ps of service design?

a)
b)
c)
d)
Planning, products, position, processes

Planning, perspective, position, people
Perspective, partners, problems, people
People, partners, products, processes
40. Which of the following represents the BEST course of action to take when a problem
workaround is found?
a) The problem record is closed
b) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are documented within it
c) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are documented on all
related incident records
d) The problem record is closed and details of the workaround are documented in a request
for change (RFC)
Version 4.1 (Live)
Page 9
The ITIL Foundation Examination
Sample Paper A, version 4.1

Multiple Choice
ANSWERS AND RATIONALE
ITIL is a Registered Trade Mark of the Office of Government Commerce in the United Kingdom and other countries
This document is not to be re-produced or re-sold without express permission from The APM Group Limited
ITIL Foundation Examination SampleA ANSWERSANDRATIONALES v4.1
Version 4.1 Live)
Page 1
Answer Key and Rationale:

Q
ID
Syllabus
Ref
Book
Ref
153
05-51
ST
4.2.4.3
28
02-09
SO 1.1.1
206
06-02
SO 6.5.1
365
05-63
ST 4.3.1
217
07-02
SD
3.7.4.1
493
03-12
SD 4.3.4
135
05-42
SD 4.4.1
26
02-07
ST 1.1.1
20
02-02
SS 1.2
10
582
03-18
ST
4.3.4.3
11
144
05-45
SD
4.5.4.3
12
482
03-19
ST
4.3.4.4
13
125
05-31
SD 4.3.1
14
212
07-01
SD 6.3.2
15
160
05-61
ST 4.4.1
16
15
01-10
SS 2.2.2
Rationale
A change request is a formal communication seeking an
alteration to one or more configuration items (CI). Services,
SLAs and computers are such CIs. A business strategy is not
a CI and is typically out of scope for IT change management.
These objectives all appear in service operation except for
thorough testing to ensure that services are designed to meet
business needs which is an objective of service transition.
Operations control oversees the execution and monitoring of
the operational activities and events in the IT Infrastructure.
The purpose of SACM is to: record service assets and
configuration items including their attributes and
relationships.
RACI is the responsibility model used by ITIL to help allocate
roles and responsibilities of processes.
A is the OLA, B is the definition of an SLA, C doesnt
correspond to an ITIL definition, D involves a third party and is
a contract.
A is a MINOR objective of availability management. B is
service level managements objective. Service providers can
never guarantee actual availability as in C. D matches the goal
of the availability management: - to ensure that the level of
service availability delivered in all services is matched to or
exceeds the current and future agreed needs of the
business
All three should be in scope for service transition as all three
involve major change.
Service optimization is the correct answer
A: a CMS can contain corporate data about users / customers
such as location or department. B and C: there may be more
than one CMDB but only one CMS reporting on them. D is
correct where despite outsourcing a CMS still helps to control
and report on the infrastructure.
Book answer...business, service and component capacity
management are the three sub-processes
The DML contains master copies of all controlled software in
an organization along with licence documents or
information. The change schedule is not included.
The service level manager has responsibility for, amongst
other thingsnegotiating and agreeing OLAs
A process owner should ensure process documentation is
current and available. Knowledge management is a process
not a role. The service owner can be responsible for service
documentation. The CIO may be responsible for IT strategy
documentation.
The two correct answers (1 and 2) are included in release and
deployment purpose and objectives. Option 3 is within change
management.
There are many reasons why processes need to meet all four
of these answers. Processes need to be measurable for
management and monitoring, timely to allow efficiency to be
measured, deliver a specific result to measure effectiveness
and deliver primary result to a customer to satisfy business
outcomes and deliver value.
Version 4.1 (Live)
Page 2
ID
Syllabus
Ref
Book
Ref
17
269
04-04
SD 3.1.1
18
138
05-43
SD 4.7.1
19
495
03-14
SD App
A
20
498
08-02
SS 7.1
21
564
05-72
SO 4.4.2
&
4.4.6.4
22
185
05-82
SO 4.3.1
23
575
04-02
SS 3.2.3
24
95
03-42
CSI 3.8
25
01-03
SS 2.1.1
26
122
05-31
SD
4.3.5.6
27
181
05-81
SO 4.1.1
28
131
05-41
SD 4.2.1
29
35
03-01
SS 2.1.6
30
480
03-30
31
497
05-71
32
168
05-71
SO 4.2.5
33
504
02-11
CSI
1.1.1
SO
4.4.5.6
SO
4.2.4.2
Rationale
Areas that need to be considered within the design of the
service solution should include the agreed business and
service level requirements. Service level management (a
service design process) is key to this.
Security policies should be widely available to all customers
and users this definition includes all IT staff.
All the elements describe the holistic nature of service design
and are included in the package passed to service transition.
1 is part of the DML, 2 helps change management. 3 is a
release and deployment tool. 4 can help within testing and
validation. They are all parts of service transition.
Book answer. They are both valid roles for problem
management
Request fulfilment is the processes of dealing with service
requests from the users. All requests (B) is far too wide a
scope for the process. Change management looks after
change requests (C).
Service level management is
responsible for D.
D is wrong CUSTOMER preferences drive value perception,
Delivering on Customer Outcomes is vital, this rules C out.
The value of a service can be financial but other factors are
relevant therefore B is wrong. Customer perception is a vital
element in defining how much a customer values a service.
The four key stages of the Deming cycle are Plan, Do, Check
and Act
A service is a means of delivering value to customers
A - designing the CMS is a service asset and configuration
management activity. B technology metrics are likely to be
created within capacity management or other design
processes, C - monitoring the SLAs and performance against
them is a vital part of the service level management process, D
training the service desk is a service desk role.
A - the ability to detect events, make sense of them and
determine the appropriate control action is provided by event
management. B includes some incident management
responsibilities, C is a technical management task, D is likely
shared between availability and service level management.
The purpose of the service catalogue management process is
to ensure that a service catalogue is produced and maintained,
containing accurate information on all operational services.
A is a definition of utility. B and C are distracters. D is the
essence of warranty as defined by ITIL.
A workaround is the technique used to restore service based
on an Incident that has been seen before
Incident models are designed to provide reusable steps that
can be used to restore service after known incident types.
The correct order is given in the diagram in the incident
management process
1 and 2 are fine. 3 is wrong, CSI contributes to ALL lifecycle
phases. 4 is wrong, CSI does not contribute to updating
international standards
Version 4.1 (Live)
Page 3
ID
Syllabus
Ref
Book
Ref
34
147
05-46
SD 4.7.2
35
500
04-10
CSI 5.5
36
573
03-16
ST
4.7.4.3
37
150
05-51
ST
4.2.5.11
38
198
06-01
SO 6.3
39
499
04-03
SD 3.1.5
40
567
05-72
SO
4.4.5.6
Rationale
ITSC carries out risk assessment as part of defining the
requirements and strategy. Information security does likewise
to analyse security risks before taking action to mitigate them.
Service catalogue management carries out no such
assessments.
Personnel metrics would be dealt with outside of the
framework of the service
A is the wrong way round, C is wrong as the SKMS contains
more info than the CMS, D is wrong as the CMS is part of the
SKMS
Where CAB approval is required, this will be provided by the
Emergency CAB (ECAB). This is the only role of the ECAB.
The service desk should be the single point of contact for IT
users on a day-by-day basis. The service desk manager may
often be the incident management process owner but not
problem management.
The implementation of ITIL Service Management as a practice
is about preparing and planning the effective and efficient use
of the four Ps: the People, the Processes, the Products
(services, technology and tools) and the Partners (suppliers,
manufacturers and vendors)
A is obviously wrong; the record must remain open as it hasn't
been resolved. B is correct with the workaround on the
problem record, not the Incident record [C] nor RFC [D]
Version 4.1 (Live)
Page 4

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The ITIL Foundation Examination

Sample Paper A, version 4.1

All 40 questions should be attempted.

Changes to a mainframe computer

2. Which of the following is NOT an objective of service operation?

3. What does the term IT operations control refer to?

Managing the technical and applications management functions

4. Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components?

Service level management

5. What is the RACI model used for?

Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity

Version 4.1 (Live)

7. What is the MAIN goal or purpose of availability management?

To monitor and report availability of components

8. Which of the following does service transition provide guidance on?

9. Which of the following is NOT a phase of the service lifecycle?

11. What are the three sub-processes of capacity management?

Version 4.1 (Live)

Copies of purchased software

All of the above

The service owner

16. Which of the following are characteristics of every process?

Version 4.1 (Live)

Senior business managers and all IT staff only

Agreed and documented business requirements

A tool to store definitive versions of software

Version 4.1 (Live)

22. What is the purpose of the request fulfilment process?

Dealing with service requests from the users

23. Which statement about value creation through services is CORRECT?

The customer's perception of the service is an important factor in value creation

Business knowledge management framework

25. Which of the following should IT services deliver to customers?

Designing the configuration management system from a business perspective

Version 4.1 (Live)

28. Which of the following should a service catalogue contain?

The version information of all software

29. "Warranty of a service" means?

The service is fit for purpose

31. Which of the following is a benefit of using an incident model?

It will make problems easier to identify and diagnose

33. Which of the following are objectives of continual service improvement?

To improve process efficiency and effectiveness

Version 4.1 (Live)

All of the above

The SKMS is part of the CMS

Version 4.1 (Live)

39. Which of the following are the four Ps of service design?

Planning, products, position, processes

Version 4.1 (Live)

The ITIL Foundation Examination

Sample Paper A, version 4.1

ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

Answer Key and Rationale:

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