IIT 09 STS7 Paper1 - Qns PDF

IIT-JEE 2009
STS VII/MPC/P(I)/QNS
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IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2009

PAPER I
MATHEMATICS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 246
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INSTRUCTIONS:
PART A : MATHEMATICS
SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 6. Each question has
4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. z is a complex number lying on a circle with centre at the origin. The area of the
triangle with vertices at z, z and z + z, being a complex cube root of unity, is
8 3 square units. Then the radius of the circle is
(A) 2 units
(B) 4 units
2. The equation x 2
log
x 2
(C) 4 2 units
6 x x
= (x 3) |x| has
(A) a unique solution
(B) no solution
(C) 2 solutions
(D) 3 solutions
3. The coefficient of x
27
50
in
n = 0
(A)
50
C23
(B)
50
C37
50
(D) 3 units
x2
(C)
50 n
3 is
50
C23
(D)
50
C37
4. The equation of the line through (2, 1) where distance from (1, 3) has the greatest
possible value is
(A) y = 2x 3
(B) y = 3 x
(C) x = 2y
(D) y = 2x + 3
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
ax bx sin x ,
5. If the derivative of the function f(x) =
bx a,
x0
is
x<0
continuous at x = 0, then
(A) a = 0, b = 2 (B) a = 1, b = 1
(C) a + b = 1
(D) a = cos
20
6.
1cos xx
10
dx is
10
10
(A) < 10
(B) > 10
(C) > 10
10
(D) < 10
SECTION II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions numbered 7 to 10.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are
correct.
x
7. If f(x) =
3 t dt, the tangent line to y = f(x), which are parallel to y = x is

0
(A) 6(x y) 1 = 0
(B) 6(x + y) + 1 = 0
(C) 6(x y) + 1 = 0
(D) 6(x + y) 1 = 0
8. The centre of the circle passing through the origin and cutting of intercepts of
length 2a, 2b on the x and y axes respectively is
(A) (a, b)
(B)
a
2
b
2
(C) ( a, b)
(D) (a, b)
9. If a vector r satisfies the equation r 3 i j k = j k , then r equals

(A) 2 i j k
(B) 5 i 2 j 2 k
(C) 5 i 2 j 2k
(D) 8 i 3 j 3 k
10. Equation of the line of intersection of the planes x + y + z 2 = 0 and 2x + 3y + z 5 = 0

is
(A)
x1
(C)
y1
2
x1
2
=
y2
1
(B)
3
=
z1
(D)
1
x1
2
x1
y1
1
=
y2
1
z
1
z1
1
SECTION III
Reasoning Type
This section contains 4 questions numbered 11 to 14. Each question contains
STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation
for statement 1.
(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.
(D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.
11. Statement 1:
The equation 4 3 2 4 = 0 has two distinct real roots.
and
Statement 2:
By the substitution t = 2 we see that the discriminant of the

2
quadratic equation t 3t 4 = 0 is greater than zero.

5
2
12. Statement 1:
The domain of
x 4x 2
is { 1, 0, 1, 2, 3}
2x 2x 1
and
n
For C to be valid n r.
r
Statement 2:
13. Statement 1:
When 3
100
is divided by 100, the remainder is 1
and
Statement 2:
The unit digit in 3
14. Statement 1:
tan (tan
100
2) + tan
is 1
(tan 2) 4
and
Statement 2:
tan (tan
x) = x but tan
(tan x) x in general.
SECTION IV
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 17
In a ABC,
cos A
a
2
cos B
b
cos C
c
a
bc
b
ac
15. B equals
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
16. The radius of the incircle of ABC of Qn. 15 is

(A)
a bc
(B)
a bc
2
(C)
bca
2
(D)
a bc
2
17. If the angles A, C, B of ABC of Qn. 15 are in A.P., sin 2A =

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 3
(D) 2

a, b, c are in A.P.
2
18. a (b + c), b (c + a), c (a + b), ( ab 0) are in

(A) G.P.
(B) H.P.
(C) A.P.
(D) None of the above
(B) G.P.
(C) H.P.
19. bc, ca, ab are in

(A) A.P.
20. If a, b, c are such that sin (b + c) = a, sin (c + a) = b, sin (a + b) = c, with

sin 2b 0, then which of the following is true?
(A) tan a = tan b = tan c
(B) 2 tan b = tan a
(C) tan b = 2 tan a

Leibnitz rule for differentiation under integral sign is given as follows: If f(x), g(x)
are defined in [a, b] and differentiable at x [a, b] and F(t) is continuous, then
g x
d
dx
Ft
dt
f x
d
dx
g x Fg x
d
dx
f x F f x
tan x
21. If f(x) =
t
1 t
1e
dt then f(x) equals
(A) tan x cos x
tan x
(B)
1 tan x
2
(C) tan x
x
(D) tan x sec x
sin
22. Lt
t dt
x 0
(A) 0
(B)
(C) 1
(D) None of these
x 2
23. If f(x) =
t
dt decreases in
(A) (0, )
(B) ( , 0)
(C) ( , )
(D) No interval
PART B : PHYSICS
SECTION I
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 24 to 29. Each question
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
24. A star has uniform spherical distribution of matter. The stars mass is m and
volume is V. If Pg is the gravitational pressure, at centre then:
4/3
(A) Pg V
(B) Pg V
2/3
(C) Pg V
(D) Pg V
25. An engineer wants to locate a water-pipe buried about half a meter below the
surface of a field. Of the following; which sort of radioactive isotope (emitter), he
shall add to the water?
(A) emitter of T1/2 of several days (B) emitter of T1/2 of several years
(C) emitter of T1/2 of a few hours (D) emitter of T1/2 of several years
26. A neutron of energy 1 MeV collides with a stationary helium nucleus and is
27
scattered. Mass of neutron is 1.67 10

kg. The classical values of the
momentum of neutron (pn) and that of helium nucleus (pHe) in their centre of
mass system are given by (with a proper sign convention)
(A) pn = pHe = + 18.49 10
(B) pn = + 18.49 10
(C) pn = 9.245 10
(D) pn = 9.245 10
21
21
20
20
N-s
N-s; pHe = 18.49 10

N-s; pHe = + 18.49 10
N-s; pHe = + 9.245 10
21
21
20
N-s
N-s
N-s
27. The potential energy of a particle is given as V = a cos kx. The position of stable
equilibrium are given by:
(A)
x =
and x =
(B)
x =
and x =
n
3k
n2
; if a < 0
where n = 0, 1, 2, ....
; if a > 0
k
n
k
2n 1
k
(C)
x =
and x =
2n
k
2n 1
k
(D)
x =
n1
and x =
k
n1
2k
; if a > 0
where n = 0, 1, 3, 5, ....
; if a < 0
; if a > 0
where n = 0, 1, 2, ....
; if a < 0
; if a > 0
where n = 2, 4, 6, ....
; if a < 0
28. If two meters X and Y require 40 mA and 50 mA respectively to give full scale
deflection, then:
(A) Y is more sensitive as its full scale deflection is higher.
(B) X is more sensitive.
(C) Both X and Y can be equally sensitive as sensitivity does not depend on full
scale deflection.
(D) It would not be possible to assess the sensitivity on the basis of the given data.
10
29. There is an infinite one-dimensional ionic string of charges of magnitude q which

alter in sign. The consecutive charges are spaced by a distance x. The total
potential energy of the system is
2
(B)
(A) 0
(C)
q l n 4
4 x
(D)
2q l n 2
4 x
SECTION II
This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions numbered 30 to 33. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
30. An object moves along a spiral in three-dimensional space at constant speed. The
axis of the spiral is the z-axis, the radius of the spiral is R0.
Given: x = z = 0 at t = 0 and x = R0, z = 3R0 at t = 2 s.
The parametric equations governing the motion are of the form
x = R0 cos (t + ),
y = R0 sin (t + )
z = c t, where c = 1.5 R .
0
Then, which of the following is/are correct?
(A) The value of cannot be determined from given information
(B) The value of =
rad s
2
(C) The magnitude of objects velocity at any time t is c R
(D) The magnitude of objects velocity at any time t is R0

11
31. In the circuit shown, when the switch S is closed, t < 0 and there is steady state.
The switch opens at t = 0. (Given: = 24 V, C1 = 3 F and C2 = 2 F)
(A) The voltage across switch at t > 0 is
24
11
(B) The voltage across switch at t is 0 V

(C) The voltage across switch at t > 0 is
32
33
(D) The voltage across switch at t is 24 V

32. Which of the following is/are strictly classical (not quantum mechanical)
expectations about photoelectric effect?
(A) There is a cut off frequency for the incident light.
(B) Electrons oscillate in response to E field of incident light.
(C) Energy accumulates until an electron is ejected.
(D) The strength of the incident light is proportional to the photocurrent.
33. In the experimental set-up shown, S is
a.c. source of variable frequency f, B is
magnetic field, Rh is Rheostat; a, b are
bridges, and XY is vibrating wire of
length L. At a suitable value of f, the
wire vibrates in its fundamental mode
as shown. The tension T in the wire is
increased considerably but the wire is
to remain in its fundamental mode. For
this, which of the following is/are
useful?
(A) Increase f
(B) Increase current (by using Rh)
(C) Increase L
(D) None of above

12
SECTION III
Reasoning Type
for statement 1.
34. Statement 1:
Ferrite cores are used in inductances for high frequencies
and
Statement 2:
Ferrites provide high flux density with minimum eddy current

loss and are insulators.
35. Statement 1:
Surface of a liquid is curved and any element of it is in

equilibrium
and
Statement 2:
Pressure on concave side is greater than that on convex side.
36. Statement 1:
Nuclear fusion reactions can take place at low temperatures
and
Statement 2:
Coulombic repulsions are to be overcome.

13
37. Statement 1:
A particle P of mass m is attached to a thin

uniform rod of length l and mass M (= 4m). The
distance of particle from centre of mass C of the
l
rod is . Then, the moment of inertia I of the rod
4
about an axis passing through O normal to rod is
64
48
ml
and
Statement 2:
The mass of P is also to be taken into account while determining I.

SECTION IV
In the following systems involving a spring, the force F is given by the law
3
F = kx bx (where k and b are constants and x is displacement)

38. Which of the following statement is false?
(A) The force is conservative
(B) The force is non-linear
(C) Work-energy theorem is not valid
(D) All of above
14
39. A pendulum bob of mass m is raised to height h and released. It hits the spring
3
with the restoring force F given by F = kx bx .

The compression x of the spring will be:
14
(A) x =
2mgh
b
12
2
4mgh
(B) x =
k
b
k
b
13
(C) x =
(D) x =
2k
b
mgh
k
40. A block of mass m moving at a speed v collides with a spring of restoring force F
given in the data. The maximum compression of the spring is
12
(A)
k
b
(C) k
b
1
2mv b
k
1
(B)
k
b
13
1
mv b
k
1
(D)
k
b
15

An hourglass G sits on a scale S as shown. Initially, all of sand
(of mass m) in G (of mass M0) is held in the upper reservoir. At t = 0,
the sand is released. It leaves the upper reservoir at a constant rate
dm
= k.
dt
Suppose all the sand falls to the bottom of lower reservoir so that
for all grains, the falling height is H. For four periods of time as
listed below, the readings (W) of S are W , W , W , and W given as
1
2
3
4
(i) For 0 < t < t1 where t =
1
2H , reading is W
1
g
(ii) For t1 < t < t2 where t = m , reading is W2

2
k
(iii) For t2 < t < t3 where t = t t
3
, reading is W3
(iv) For t > t , reading is W

3
4
41. The expressions for W1 and W2 will be
(A) W1 = M0 g ktg; W2 = (M0 + m) ktg
(B) W1 = (M0 + m) g ktg; W2 = (M0 + m) g
(C) W1 = M0 g mktg; W2 = (M0 m) g
(D) W1 = 0; W2 = 0
16
42. The expressions for W3 and W4 will be

(A) W = W + k (t t )g; W = (M + m)g
3
2
2
4
0
(B) W3 = W2 kt2g; W4 = (M0 m) g
(C) W = W ; W = (M + m) g
3
2
4
0
(D) W3 = 0; W4 = W2 k (t t2) g
43. The graph between W and t will be, qualitatively as:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

A large solenoid coil for an experiment is made of a single layer of aluminium
8
conductor (of resistivity 3 10 -m) of cross-section 4 cm 2 cm with a cooling water

hole (2 cm 1 cm) in the conductor. The coil consists of 100 turns, has diameter of 3 m
and length of 4 m. It is required to produce a magnetic field of 0.25 T.
17
44. The power (in kW) to be supplied is (nearly):

(A) 2 10
(B) 3 10
(D) 1.5 10
(C) 3 10
3
4
45. Neglecting all heat losses from coil except through water, the rate of flow of
water (in litres/s) to be supplied to keep the rise of temperature at 40C is
(A) 9
(B) 18
(C) 36
(D) 0.25
46. The outward pressure (in N/m ) on coil by the magnetic force is (nearly)
(A) 1.25 10
(C) 2.5 10
(B) 5 10
(D) 0.25 10
18
PART C : CHEMISTRY
SECTION I
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 47 to 52. Each question
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
47. The packing fraction of an element that crystallizes in simple cubic arrangement
is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
48. At a certain temperature, the equilibrium constant K is 16 for the reaction,

c
SO2(g) + NO2(g)
SO3(g) + NO(g) . If 1.0 mol of each of all the four gases is
taken in a one litre container, the concentration of NO2 at equilibrium would be
1
(A) 1.6 mol L
(B) 0.8 mol L
(C) 0.4 mol L
(D) 0.6 mol L
49. According to Bohrs theory, the electronic energy of hydrogen atom in the Bohrs
orbit is given by E
21.76 10
n
19
J . Calculate the largest wavelength

+
that will be needed to remove an electron from the third orbit of He ion.
(A) 3050
(B) 2050
(C) 2500
(D) 3500
50. The rusting of iron is catalysed by

(A) Zn
(B) Fe
(C) O2
(D) H
19
51. In dichromate dianion

(A) 4 Cr O bonds are equivalent
(B) 6 Cr O bonds are equivalent
(C) All Cr O bonds are equivalent
(D) All Cr O bonds are non-equivalent
52. Bring out the correct statement as regards the reactions of acetamide and aceto
nitrile.
(A) Both do not answer carbylamine test.
(B) With HNO2, acetamide liberates N2 but aceto nitrile does not.
(C) When boiled with acid, both undergo hydrolysis.
(D) All are correct.
SECTION II
This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions numbered 53 to 56.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are
correct.
53. Na SO is soluble in water whereas BaSO is sparingly soluble because
2
4
4
(A) Hydration energy of Na SO is more than its lattice energy.
2
4
(B) Lattice energy of BaSO4 is more than its hydration energy.
(C) The lattice energy has no role to play in solubility.
(D) The hydration energy of Na2SO4 is less than its lattice energy.
20
54. Which of the following are pseudo I order reactions?

(A) Inversion of sucrose in the presence of acid.
(B) Hydrolysis of an ester with a base.
(C) Catalytic decomposition of acetaldehyde.
(D) Hydrolysis of an ester in the presence of an acid.
55. Pick up the correct statement:
(A) II is more soluble than I in water

(B) II is more soluble than III in water
(C) II is less soluble than III in water
(D) III is more soluble than I in water
56. Ether will be formed in
(A) C2H5ONa + (CH3)3 C I
(B) C2H5ONa + C2H5I
(C) C2H5OH
(D) C2H5 I + Ag2O (dry)

SECTION III
Reasoning Type

for statement 1.
21

57. Statement 1:
Iodine can be obtained by oxidising I with Cl2.
and
Statement 2:
58. Statement 1:
Chlorine is more electronegative than iodine.

The reaction
proceeds via SN2 mechanism.

and
Statement 2:
59. Statement 1:
In SN2 reaction there is inversion of configuration of carbon atom.

Iodine does not react with CH4 at all.
and
Statement 2:
60. Statement 1:
Iodine undergoes sublimation.

The cell potential becomes half if the cell reaction is divided by 2
throughout.
and
Statement 2:
Ecell = ER EL.
22
SECTION IV
3
A 5.0 cm solution of H2O2 liberates 0.508 g of iodine from an acidified KI solution.

1
61. The molar concentration of H2O2 solution is (in mol L )

(A) 0.8
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.2
(D) 0.1
62. The volume strength of H2O2 at STP is

(A) 4.48
(B) 0.448
(C) 44.8
(D) 22.4
63. Pick out the incorrect statement:

(A) H2O2 can be prepared by the action of dilute acids on BaO2 and not on
MnO2.
(B) Estimation of H2O2 can be done either by permanganametry or by iodometric
method.
(C) An aqueous solution of H2O2 is alkaline.
(D) The H O O bond angle in the non-planar structure of H2O2 is about 102.
The acidic nature of carboxylic acids can be explained by the resonating structures
of carboxylic acid and the corresponding conjugate base i.e., carboxylate ion.
23
Carboxylate ion is relatively more stabilized than the carboxylic acid molecule.
Any substituent which further stabilizes the carboxylate ion increases the acid
strength and vice versa.
64. Which of the following acids has highest tendency to ionize in aqueous solution?
(A) HCOOH
(B) CH COOH
3
(C) FCH2COOH
(D) BrCH2COOH
65. Among the acids given below

CH3CH2COOH (X); CH2 = CH COOH (Y) and CH C COOH (Z)
the correct order of increasing acid strengths is
(A) X < Y < Z
(B) X < Z < Y
(C) Y < X < Z
(D) Z < Y < X
66. Acetaldehyde
In the above sequence, the end product Z is
(A) prop-2-enoic acid
(B) but-2-enoic acid
(C) lactic acid
(D)

The halogens are very reactive and react with metals and non-metals. Fluorine is
the most reactive and the reactivity decreases with increase in atomic number. The
24
oxidising power of halogens decreases down the group and reducing power increases
2
down the group. The electronic configuration of halogens is (ns) (np) . All halogens
form mononegative ions. The halides of all non-metals and some metals are covalent.
They form diatomic molecules.
67. The halogen exhibiting no positive oxidation state is
(A) fluorine
(B) chlorine
(C) bromine
(D) iodine
68. Which of the following reactions is not observed?
(A) 2F2 + 2OH (dilute) 2F + H2O + OF2
(B) 2F2 + 4OH (conc.)

(C)
2
F , Cl , I
2
+ 2OH (conc.) H2O + X + XO
4F + 2H2O + O2
(D) Xe + F2
XeF2
69. Which of the following reactions would not proceed to right hand side?
(A) F2 + Cl (B) Cl2 + Br (C) Br2 + I
(D) I2 + Cl
25
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
C. Question paper format:

13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part A: Mathematics, Part B: Physics and Part C: Chemistry).
Each part has 4 sections.
14. Section I contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which only one is correct.
15. Section II contains 4 multiple choice answer type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which only one or more answers are correct.
16. Section III contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and
STATEMENT-2 (Reason).
Bubble (A)
if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.
Bubble (B)
if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.
Bubble (C)
if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.

17. Section IV contains 3 sets of Linked-Comprehension type questions. Each set consists of a paragraph
followed by three questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
only one is correct.
D. Marking scheme:
18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (1) mark will be awarded.
19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark for all other cases. It may be noted that there is no
negative marking for wrong answer.
20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble

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IIT-JEE 2009

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2009

Maximum Marks: 246

I have read all the instructions

I have verified all the informations

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(A) a unique solution

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5. If the derivative of the function f(x) =

3 t dt, the tangent line to y = f(x), which are parallel to y = x is

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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9. If a vector r satisfies the equation r 3 i j k = j k , then r equals

10. Equation of the line of intersection of the planes x + y + z 2 = 0 and 2x + 3y + z 5 = 0

The equation 4 3 2 4 = 0 has two distinct real roots.

By the substitution t = 2 we see that the discriminant of the

quadratic equation t 3t 4 = 0 is greater than zero.

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is divided by 100, the remainder is 1

The unit digit in 3

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16. The radius of the incircle of ABC of Qn. 15 is

17. If the angles A, C, B of ABC of Qn. 15 are in A.P., sin 2A =

Paragraph for Question Nos. 18 to 20

18. a (b + c), b (c + a), c (a + b), ( ab 0) are in

(D) None of the above

(D) None of the above

19. bc, ca, ab are in

20. If a, b, c are such that sin (b + c) = a, sin (c + a) = b, sin (a + b) = c, with

(B) 2 tan b = tan a

(C) tan b = 2 tan a

(D) None of the above

Paragraph for Question Nos. 21 to 23

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dt then f(x) equals

(A) tan x cos x

(D) tan x sec x

(D) None of these

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scattered. Mass of neutron is 1.67 10

N-s; pHe = 18.49 10

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29. There is an infinite one-dimensional ionic string of charges of magnitude q which

(C) The magnitude of objects velocity at any time t is c R

(D) The magnitude of objects velocity at any time t is R0

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(B) The voltage across switch at t is 0 V

(D) The voltage across switch at t is 24 V

(B) Increase current (by using Rh)

(D) None of above

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Ferrite cores are used in inductances for high frequencies

Ferrites provide high flux density with minimum eddy current

Surface of a liquid is curved and any element of it is in

Pressure on concave side is greater than that on convex side.

Nuclear fusion reactions can take place at low temperatures

Coulombic repulsions are to be overcome.

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