IIT 09 STS5 Paper1 - Qns PDF

IIT-JEE 2009
STS V/MPC/P(I)/QNS
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IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2009

PAPER I
MATHEMATICS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 246
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PART A : MATHEMATICS
SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 6. Each question has
4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. |cot x + cosec x| = |cot x| + |cosec x|, x [0, 2 ] if and only if x belongs to the
interval
(A) [0, ]
(C) 0 ,
(B) 0 ,
(D) ,
, 2
2
3
2
,
3
, 2
2. A man takes a step forward with probability 0.5 and backward with probability
0.7. The probability that at the end of 13 steps, he is one step away from the
starting point is
(A) 0.7853
(B) 0.4251
(C) 0.4231
(D) 0.3785
3. The sum of the squares of lengths of the chords intercepted by the lines x + y = n,
2
n N on the circle (x 1) + (y + 1) = 9 is
(A) 84
(B) 42
(C) 44
(D) 24
4. A line segment has length 45 and the direction ratios are ( 2, 2, 1). If the line
makes an acute angle with x-axis, the components of the line vector are
(A) 30, 30, 15
(B) 30, 30, 15
(C) 30, 30, 15
(D) + 30, + 30, 15
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
5. The number of points at which the function f(x) = |x 0.7| + |x 1| + |x 2|

does not have a derivative in the interval ( 2, 2) is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
6. The value of the integral
dx is
(A) e
(B) 3e
(C) 4e
(D) 4e
SECTION II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions numbered 7 to 10.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are
correct.
a b c
7. If 12! = 2 3 5 7 11 , then
(A) a = 10
(B) b = 4
(C) c = 2
(D) d = 1
8. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5, the sides opposite to these
angles are in the ratio
(A) 3 : 4 : 5
(B)
(C) 2 : 6 : 3 1
31
2 2
(D) 1 :
3 :
31
9. The area of the quadrilateral formed by the tangent from the point (8, 7) to the
2
circle x + y 4x 8y + k = 0 with a pair of radii joining the points of contacts of

these tangents is 10 2 sq. units. The value of k is
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 20
(D) 15
10. Let f(x) = x 6x + 15x 20x + 15x 6x + 1. Then

(A) f has neither maximum nor minimum
(B) f decreases on [1, )
(C) f increases on [1, )
(D) f has a minimum at x = 1
SECTION III
Reasoning Type
This section contains 4 questions numbered 11 to 14. Each question contains
STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation
for statement 1.
(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.
(D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.
11. Statement 1:
The degree of the differential equation

2
d y
dx
2
dy
dx
1
x
log
d y
dx
, is 1
and
Statement 2:
The degree of a differential equation is the degree of the highest

derivative which occurs in it.
12. Statement 1:
If A is a point in space such that OA is inclined to OX at 45 and

OY to 60, then OA is inclined to OZ at 60 or 120
and
Statement 2:
13. Statement 1:
If l, m, n are the direction cosines of OP , then l + m + n = 1.

If S denotes the set of all values of p for which the equation
2
3x 3(p + 1) x + p = 0 has one root less than p and the other

root greater than p, then S equals (0, )
and
Statement 2:
A real number k lies between the roots of the quadratic equation

2
f(x) = ax + bx + c = 0 if and only if a and f(k) are of the same

sign.
14. Statement 1:
tan
1 + tan
2 + tan
3 is equal to
and
Statement 2:
tan
1
cot
1
1
x
x =
cot
1
1
x
, if x > 0
, if x < 0
SECTION IV
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 17

2
The equation of normal to y = 4ax is y = mx 2am am and the foot of the

2
normal is (am , 2am) and the corresponding normal to x = 4ay is x = my 2am am
at the point ( 2am, am )

2
15. Foot of the normal drawn from ( 2, 1) to the parabola y 4x 2y 3 = 0 is

(A) ( 1, 1)
(B) (1, 1)
16. Three normals to the parabola y

(A) k = 1
(B) k =
1
2
(D) ( 1, 0)
(C) (1, 0)
2
= 2x are drawn through the point (k, 0). Then

(C) k > 1
(D) k < 1
2
17. The line px + qy + r = 0 is a normal to the parabola x = 4ay if

2
(A) ap (p + 2q ) + q r = 0
2
(C) aq (2p + q ) = p r
(B) ap (p + 2q ) = q r
2
(D) ap (2p + q ) = 2q r

A function f is said to have an absolute maximum on an interval I at x0 if f(x0) is
the largest value of f on I. i.e., f(x0) f(x) for all x in the domain of f that are in I.
Similarly f is said to have an absolute minimum on I at x if f(x ) is the smallest value
0
0
of f on I. i.e., f(x0) f(x) for all x in the domain of f that are in I.
Extreme Value Theorem: If a function f is continuous on a finite closed interval
[a, b], then f has both an absolute maximum and an absolute minimum on [a, b].
18. The absolute maximum value of f(x) = 14x

x=
(B) 1
(A) 0
(C)
8/7
1/7
7x
on the interval [ 1, 1] occurs at
(D) 1
16
19. The function g(x) = 5x + 4x , has

(A) Both absolute maximum and absolute minimum
(B) Neither absolute maximum nor absolute minimum
(C) No absolute minimum
(D) No absolute maximum
1
20. The value of a for which the function f(x) = a sin 2x +
sin 4x has an extremum
at x = is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1
4

Consider a variable plane at a constant distance k from origin meeting the
coordinate axes at P, Q, R
21. Through P, Q, R if planes are drawn parallel to the coordinate planes, then the
locus of their point of intersection is
2
(A) x y z = k
(C) x + y + z = k
(B) x
(D)
2
1
x
y
1
y
2
1
z
z
=
2
= k
2
1
k
22. The locus of the centroid of PQR is

2
(A) x y z = k
(C) x
2
y
2
z
2
(B) x
= 3k
2
2
(D) x
y
2
y
2
2
z
2
z
2
= k
2
= 9k
2
23. If the intercepts made by the plane on the axes are p, q, r respectively, then the
area of PQR is given by
(A)
(C)
1
2
1
4
2 2
2 2
2 2
q r p r p q
2
p q r
(B)
(D)
1
2
1
2
p q r
pq r
PART B : PHYSICS
SECTION I
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 24 to 29. Each question
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
24. A coil and a 5 resistor are connected in series
with a source of emf of negligible internal
resistance with a switch. After closing the
switch, a graph of voltage across the coil versus
time is drawn as shown in the Figure. The
maximum current through the circuit then is
(A) 5 A
(B) 2 A
(C) 3 A
(D) 4 A
25. A particle of mass 1 kg is executing uniform circular motion with speed 5 ms

along a circle of radius 10 cm in horizontal (x y) plane with centre at origin,
starting from a point on x-axis in anticlockwise direction. The mean momentum
1
of the particle while moving from one end of a diameter to other is (in kg ms
(A) 2.5 i
(B) 3.18 k
(C) 2.5 k
(D) 3.18 i
3
26. A 0.25 kg wooden metre scale of area of cross-section 10 m is pivoted at its

lowest point in a liquid. The rod is free to rotate in a vertical plane about
horizontal axis passing through the pivoted point. If the angular frequency for
1
small displacement from equilibrium position is 3 5 rad s , the density of the

3
liquid must be (in kg m ) [Take g = 10 ms ].

(A) 1000
(B) 800
(C) 13600
(D) 750
10
27. One end face of 3 m length solid plastic cylinder is covered with black coating on
which two straight, thin parallel scratches with the separation of 0.3 mm are
made. The opposite face is covered with the fluorescent coating. The black face is
illuminated by laser of wavelength 640 nm. If the two dark fringes observed on
fluorescent coated face on either side of central fringe are separated by 4 mm, the
index of refraction of the plastic must be
(A) 1.60
(B) 1.55
(C) 1.64
(D) 1.50
28. An atom has energy levels at 2 eV and 3.5 eV above the ground level. The atom
in ground state is illuminated by photons with energy ranging from 2 eV to 3.5 eV.
The longest wavelength of emission spectrum is [Take h = 4.136 10
(A) 620 nm
(B) 827 nm
29. A proton of mass 1.6 10

mass 6.4 10
27
27
eVs]
(D) 1240 nm
kg is directed towards a stationary alpha particle of
kg. The minimum kinetic energy of the proton to approach
alpha particle within 4 10

(A) 72 keV
(C) 433 nm
15
14
m is
(B) 84 keV
(C) 96 keV
(D) 64 keV
SECTION II
This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions numbered 30 to 33. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
30. A particle is moving in horizontal (x-y) plane under the action of a force
2
F = 4xy i 8xy j N. Initially, the particle is at rest at O (0, 0). The particle
is moved slowly from O to a point A (2, 4). Point out the TRUE statements
(A) Work done in taking the particle from O to A along OA is about 128 J
(B) F is a non-conservative force
(C) F is a conservative force
(D) Work done in taking the particle from O to A along OA is about 149 J
11
31. A series RLC circuit is activated by a frequency ()

variable ac source of voltage VS volt as shown in the
circuit. VRL and VC are the potential drops across RL and C respectively. Select FALSE choice from the
following:
(A) At low frequency limit, both VRL and VC are proportional to
(B) At high frequency limit, VRL approaches VS but VC is proportional to
(C) At high frequency limit, both VRL and VC are proportional to
(D) At low frequency limit, VRL is proportional to 1 , whereas VC approaches VS
32. An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process ABCA as shown in

P-V diagram. The gas expands isothermally along AB and
adiabatically along BC and the respective work done are
600 J and 250 J. If during the compression, the gas gives
up 50 J of heat to the surrounding, then
(A) the net change in internal energy is zero
(B) the amount of work done on the gas along CA is 300 J
(C) the net work done is 600 J
(D) the change in internal energy along CA is 250 J
12
33. Applying Bohrs quantum condition on uniform circular motion of a planet of

mass m about the fixed sun of mass M,
1
(A) the radius of the allowed orbit is proportional to
(B) the energy of the planet is directly proportional to m

(C) the sum of kinetic energy and total energy is zero
(D) total energy is twice the potential energy
SECTION III
Reasoning Type

for statement 1.
34. Statement 1:
The net work done by an electric field along a closed loop is zero
and
Statement 2:
35. Statement 1:
The electrostatic force is a conservative force

Usually, a light bulb, in the verge of burning out, does so just
when it is switched on
and
Statement 2:
The resistance of ohmic conductors is less when they are cold.

13
36. Statement 1:
Rain drops and snow flakes fall down in atomosphere with

almost uniform speed
and
Statement 2:
37. Statement 1:
All falling objects have zero mass.

All the bodies at 0C radiate the radiations of all the
wavelengths
and
Statement 2:
Newtons Law of cooling states that all bodies radiate heat when
their temperature is above the temperature of surroundings.
SECTION IV
A 10 kg block placed on a horizontal surface is pushed by a force F making an
angle 45 with the vertical. The coefficient of static friction between the surface and
block is 0.58. [Take g = 10 ms
and 0.58 0.33]
38. The force required to slide the block uniformly on the floor must be
(A) 165.5 N
(B) 195.3 N
(C) 135.5 N
(D) 163.3 N
39. The critical angle which the force makes with the vertical below which it is just
impossible to slide the block uniformly irrespective of the force applied is
(A) 15
(B) 30
(C) 20
(D) 10
14
40. The acceleration of the block when it is pushed by a force of 300 N is

2
(A) 6.2 ms
(B) 3.1 ms
(C) 1.3 ms
(D) 2.6 ms

A
charge
of
mass
10
15
kg
is
projected
with
velocity
6
1
into uniform magnetic field B = 0.4 k T . The
v = 5 i 5 j 3k 10 ms
force on the charged particle at an instant is found to be 1.414 N in magnitude.
41. The charge of the particle then must be

(A) 0.5 C
(B) 1.0 C
(C) 1.5 C
(D) 2.0 C
1
42. Angular frequency of rotation of the particle is (in rad.s
(A) 1.0 10 for circular motion in (x-z) plane

8
(B) 1.5 10 for circular motion in (x-y) plane

8
(C) 1.0 10 for circular motion in (x-y) plane

8
(D) 1.5 10 for circular motion in (x-z) plane

43. If the particle starts at t = 0 from (1 m, 2 m, 0), its coordinates at time t =
will
be
(A) (1.63 m, 1.37 m, 0.38 m)
(B) (1.63 m, 1.37 m, 0)
(C) (1 m, 2 m, 0.38 m)
(D) (1.63 m, 2.63 m, 0.38 m)
15

Two identical spheres of mass 0.5 kg each are fixed to the ends of a straight rod of
1 m length and of negligible mass. The system is placed on a smooth horizontal
1
surface. Two identical bullets each of mass 0.1 kg moving with a speed of 300 ms in
opposite directions, perpendicular to the rod, hit the two spheres and stick to them at
the same instant.
44. The velocity of the system after hitting is
1
(A) zero
(B) 20 ms
(C) 100 ms
(D) 40 ms
45. The angular velocity of the system of spheres and bullets just after striking is
1
(in rad s
(A) 150
(B) 100
(C) 200
(D) 250
46. The time taken by the spheres after the strike to align themselves along the
initial direction of the bullets motion would be (in ms)
(A) 30.14
(B) 10.42
(C) 21.14
(D) 15.7
16
PART C : CHEMISTRY
SECTION I
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 47 to 52. Each question
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
47. The wrong statement about Joule-Thomson coefficient is
(A) It is zero for a real gas at inversion temperature
(B) It is positive for most gases like CO2, at ordinary temperatures
(C) It is negative for H2 and He at ordinary temperatures and low pressures
(D) It is zero for ideal gases
48. A compound having ethene as ligand is
(A) Zeises salt
(B) EDTA-Mg complex
(C) Brown ring complex of nitrate ion
(D) Sodium nitroprusside
49. Crystal field stabilisation energy (CFSE) is zero for both tetrahedral and weak
field octahedral complexes with the electronic configurations
4
10
10
(A) d , d , d
(C) d , d , d
10
10
(B) d , d , d
(D) d , d , d
50. The correct sequence of reagents 1, 2 respectively involved in the following

conversion is
(A) dil H2SO4, aqueous KOH
(B) dil HCl, aqueous KOH
(C) C2H5ONa, dil HCl
(D) SOCl2 , aqueous KOH

17
51. The equivalent conductivities at infinite dilution ( ) for NaCl, HCl and sodium
acetate in water at 298 K are 128.0, 425.0 and 91.0 ohm

cm equiv.
respectively. An aqueous solution of ethanoic acid shows an equivalent conductivity
1
of 38.8 ohm
cm equiv. . The percentage of dissociation of ethanoic acid is
(A) 5.0
(B) 10.0
(C) 20.0
(D) 30.0
52. Which among the following is/are true for hydrophilic sols?
(1) Surface tension is lower than that of water
(2) Viscosity is higher than that of water
(3) Coagulation is reversible
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1
(D) 1, 2 and 3
SECTION II
This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions numbered 53 to 56.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are
correct.
53. Which of the following combinations can function as secondary or rechargeable
cell?
(A) Pb, PbO2 and H2SO4 (dil)
(B) Cd, Ni(OH) and H O
3
2
(C) Zn(Hg), HgO, carbon, paste of KOH and ZnO
+
(D) Li, MnO2 incorporated with Li and LiClO4

54. Which of the following functional group/groups can give rise to metamers?
(A) Ethers
(B) Ketones
(C) 2 and 3 amines
(D) Esters
18
55. The metal or its alloys that is/are used in nuclear reactors is/are
(A) Cd
(B)
235
(C) Be
(D) Na
56. Tyndal effect is observed when

(A) light is passed though a suspension
(B) the refractive index of the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are same
(C) the diameter of the colloidal particle is not much smaller than the wavelength of the light passed through sol
(D) the refractive index of the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium differ
much
SECTION III
Reasoning Type
for statement 1.
57. Statement 1:
The cracking and isomerisation of long-chain hydrocarbons is

carried out by zeolite ZSM-5 catalyst.
and
Statement 2:
Zeolite ZSM catalyst lowers the activation energy of the reaction.

19
58. Statement 1:
Helium and neon are separated at 93 K by activated coconut

charcoal.
and
Statement 2:
59. Statement 1:
Helium exhibits plasma state at this temperature.

Rate of ester hydrolysis in aqueous medium increases with time.
and
Statement 2:
60. Statement 1:
Water is a protic solvent.

Naturally occurring bromine exhibits nuclear isomerism.
and
Statement 2:
The isotopes of bromine differ in their energy state, spin and

half-life periods.
SECTION IV
The end point in acid-base titration is conveniently determined by acid-base
indicators like phenolphthalein, methyl orange, methyl red etc., Acid base indicators
are weak electrolytes and can exist in the ionised form with one colour and with a
different colour in the unionised form. The colour change depends on the pH of the
solution in which the indicator is placed.
20
61. Name the indicator and the colour change at end point during the volumetric
estimation of sodium hydroxide using standard oxalic acid (NaOH
in the
(aq)
conical flask).
(A) Methyl orange, yellow to pink
(B) Methyl orange, pink to yellow
(C) Phenolphthalein, disappearance of pink colour
(D) Phenolphthalein, appearance of pink colour
62. In the estimation of boric acid, it is mixed with ethylene glycol and titrated with
aqueous sodium hydroxide using phenolphthalein indicator. In this estimation,
boric acid acts as
(A) weak tribasic acid
(B) strong dibasic acid
(C) strong tribasic acid
(D) strong monobasic acid
63. When phenolphthalein is used as indicator with sodium hydroxide against

(I) HCl and (II) CH3COOH, the change in pH at the neutral point are (NaOH in
the conical flask)
(A) (I) 4 to 10, (II) 3.1 to 4.5
(B) (I) 5.3 to 9.8, (II) 6 to 8.0
(C) (I) 10 to 4.0, (II) 10 to 7.4
(D) (I) 10 to 2.0, (II) 10 to 4.0

Williamson Synthesis of ethers
When alkyl halides are heated with sodium alkoxide, ethers are formed.
Ethers containing substituted alkyl groups (secondary and tertiary) may also be
prepared by this method. This reaction involves SN2 attack of an alkoxide ion on
primary alkyl halide. Good yield are obtained, if the alkyl halide is primary. With
secondary and tertiary alkyl halides, elimination competes over substitution,
decreasing the yield of ether.
21
Ethers can also be prepared by the dehydration of excess alcohol using

H2SO4 , H3PO4 or passing alcohol vapours over hot Al2O3.
64. The reactants required for the preparation of t - butylethylether are
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
65. The products of the reaction between CH3 CH = CH O C2H5 and 1 mole of
HI are
(A) CH CHI CH , CH CH OH
3
3
3
2
(B) CH3 CH2 I, CH3 CH = CH2
(C) CH3 CH2 I, CH3 CH2 CHO
(D) CH3 CH2 I, CH3 CHOH CH3
66. Arylalkyl ethers are not formed when aryl halides are treated with sodium
alkoxide because
(A) arylalkyl ethers formed undergo thermal dissociation
(B) aryl halides undergo electrophilic substitution
(C) aryl halides undergo elimination reaction with strong base
(D) aryl halides are unreactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction due to
the partial double bond nature of C X bond
22

The tendency of a gas to spread spontaneously and to occupy the entire available
volume is known as diffusion. Diffusion is due to molecular motion or velocity of the
molecules. Diffusion is less in the liquids and it is almost nil for solids. Diffusion
increases with increase in temperature and pressure. As the molecular velocity of
gases decreases with increase in molar mass or density, rate of diffusion of gas is
inversely proportional to the square root of density or molar mass of the gas at
constant temperature and pressure. This is the basis of the Grahams Law of diffusion.
Grahams law of diffusion is useful in determining the molar mass of gases,
separation of mixture of gases or gaseous isotopic substances.
67. The ratio of velocities of diffusion of gases X and Y under identical conditions is
1 : 5. If the ratio of their masses present in the mixture is 2 : 3, the ratio of their
mole fractions is
(A)
(B)
25
(C)
75
68. Naturally occurring solid uranium (

into gaseous
235
UF6 and
235
The molar ratio
(D)
50
235
U, 0.7% and
2
75
238
U 99%) is converted
238
UF6 mixture. (At. mass of F = 19)
UF
238
after one diffusion through a barrier (enrichment
UF
factor) under identical condition is

(A) 1.1
(B) 1.21
(C) 1.0043
(D) 1.43
69. The rates of diffusion of SO2 , CO2 , PCl3 and SO3 under identical condition
through a nozzle will be in the order
(A) PCl > SO > SO > CO
3
(C) SO 2 > SO 3 > PCl 3 > CO 2
(B) CO > SO > PCl > SO

2
(D) CO 2 > SO 2 > SO 3 > PCl 3
23
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
C. Question paper format:

13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part A: Mathematics, Part B: Physics and Part C: Chemistry).
Each part has 4 sections.
14. Section I contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which only one is correct.
15. Section II contains 4 multiple choice answer type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which only one or more answers are correct.
16. Section III contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and
STATEMENT-2 (Reason).
Bubble (A)
if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.
Bubble (B)
if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.
Bubble (C)
if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.

17. Section IV contains 3 sets of Linked-Comprehension type questions. Each set consists of a paragraph
followed by three questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
only one is correct.
D. Marking scheme:
18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (1) mark will be awarded.
19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark for all other cases. It may be noted that there is no
negative marking for wrong answer.
20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble

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IIT-JEE 2009

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2009

Maximum Marks: 246

I have read all the instructions

I have verified all the informations

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5. The number of points at which the function f(x) = |x 0.7| + |x 1| + |x 2|

6. The value of the integral

circle x + y 4x 8y + k = 0 with a pair of radii joining the points of contacts of

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10. Let f(x) = x 6x + 15x 20x + 15x 6x + 1. Then

The degree of the differential equation

The degree of a differential equation is the degree of the highest

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If A is a point in space such that OA is inclined to OX at 45 and

If l, m, n are the direction cosines of OP , then l + m + n = 1.

3x 3(p + 1) x + p = 0 has one root less than p and the other

A real number k lies between the roots of the quadratic equation

f(x) = ax + bx + c = 0 if and only if a and f(k) are of the same

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 17

The equation of normal to y = 4ax is y = mx 2am am and the foot of the

normal is (am , 2am) and the corresponding normal to x = 4ay is x = my 2am am

at the point ( 2am, am )

15. Foot of the normal drawn from ( 2, 1) to the parabola y 4x 2y 3 = 0 is

16. Three normals to the parabola y

= 2x are drawn through the point (k, 0). Then

17. The line px + qy + r = 0 is a normal to the parabola x = 4ay if

Paragraph for Question Nos. 18 to 20

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18. The absolute maximum value of f(x) = 14x

on the interval [ 1, 1] occurs at

19. The function g(x) = 5x + 4x , has

20. The value of a for which the function f(x) = a sin 2x +

sin 4x has an extremum

Paragraph for Question Nos. 21 to 23

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22. The locus of the centroid of PQR is

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25. A particle of mass 1 kg is executing uniform circular motion with speed 5 ms

26. A 0.25 kg wooden metre scale of area of cross-section 10 m is pivoted at its

small displacement from equilibrium position is 3 5 rad s , the density of the

liquid must be (in kg m ) [Take g = 10 ms ].

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29. A proton of mass 1.6 10

kg is directed towards a stationary alpha particle of

kg. The minimum kinetic energy of the proton to approach

alpha particle within 4 10

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31. A series RLC circuit is activated by a frequency ()

(C) At high frequency limit, both VRL and VC are proportional to

(D) At low frequency limit, VRL is proportional to 1 , whereas VC approaches VS

32. An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process ABCA as shown in

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33. Applying Bohrs quantum condition on uniform circular motion of a planet of

(A) the radius of the allowed orbit is proportional to