MATERNAL HEALTH NURSING

SYNERGY REVIEW AND TRAINING CENTER

Situation (1-5). A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency
department in shock with an elevated temperature. She is diagnosed
as having toxic shock syndrome (TSS).
1. The nurse knows that TSS is believed to be caused by a
bacterial toxin produced by:
a. Escherichia coli
a Escherichia coli
b Staphylococcus aureus
c Haemophilus influenzae
d Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. The onset of TSS is characterized by the sudden appearance
of:
a Myalgia and dizziness
b Uncontrolled hypotension
c An elevated fever (up to 102oF)
d A red, macular rash
3. Diagnostic evaluation is made from examination of cultures
from:
a The urine
b The cervix
c The vagina
d All of the above
4. A priority of medical management is:
a Treating the shock
b Alleviating respiratory distress
c Controlling the infection
d Managing the emotional distress
5. Signs associated with TSS include all of the following except:
a A decreased bilirubin level
b An elevated BUN level
c Leukocytosis
d Oliguria
Situation (6-10). Research demonstrates that childbirth preparation
courses can increase satisfaction, reduce the amount of reported
pain, and increase feelings of control for the pregnant woman and
her partner. Thus, childbirth education is now recommended for all
expectant parents by most care providers.
6. Which of the following best defines childbirth education?
a The minimal level of teaching requirements for
prenatal care in this country, as advocated by health
care professionals
b Approach to childbirth involving the use of a coach
and advocation of natural childbirth without analgesic
c Information, exercises and techniques to deal with the
discomforts of pregnancy, labor and birth
d Achievement of a positive, safe and rewarding labor
and birth experience for parents and family members
7. During which of the following would the focus of classes be
mainly on physiologic changes, fetal development, and sexuality
during pregnancy and nutrition?
a First trimester
b Pre-pregnant period
c Second trimester
d Third trimester
8. A young woman had her pregnancy confirm and has completed
her first prenatal visit. Considering that all data were found to be
within normal limits, the nurse would plan that the next visit
should be in
a) one week
c. one month
b) two weeks
d. two months
9. Which of the following best describes the effectiveness of

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childbirth education?
a It provides expectant parents with knowledge and
skills necessary to cope with pregnancy
b It improves newborn health, parent-newborn bonding,
and ability to cope with labor
c It prepares expectant parents to be informed
consumers of birthing attendants and facilities
d It provides a long time for expectant parents to
express their concerns and fears
The following topics should be included in childbirth education
for pregnant adolescents except?
a Interpersonal relationships
b Sibling preparation classes
c Sexuality issues
d Weight gain
The intrapartum period starts:
a At the onset of contractions
b After delivery of the neonate and the placenta
c At conception
d During the second trimester
The corpus luteum degenerates in which phase of the female
reproductive cycle?
a. Luteal
c. Proliferative
b. Follicular
d. Ovarian
A family that consists of parents, grandparents, and grand
children is known as:
a A cohabitation family
b An extended family
c A communal family
d A blended family
The four hormones involved in the menstrual cycle are:
a LH, progesterone, estrogen, testosterone
b Estrogen, FSH, LH, androgens
c Estrogen, progesterone, LH, and FSH
d LH, estrogen, testosterone, and androgens
Which family planning method requires assessment of the
quality of cervical mucus throughout the menstrual cycle?
a Rhythm method
b Billings method
c Coitus interruptus
d Basal body temperature
Which of the following is the least effective contraceptive
method for most couples?
a Coitus interruptus
b Cervical cap
c Subdermal implant
d Condom and foam
When teaching a client about contraception, which of the
following would the nurse include as the most effective method
for preventing sexually transmitted infections?
a. Spermicides
c. Condoms
b. Diaphragm
d. Vasectomy
After intercourse, a client is instructed to keep the diaphragm in
place for at least what period of time?
a. 6 hours
c. 18 hours
b. 10 hours
d. 20 hours
Spermatogenesis is:
a The growth and development of the sperm into
primary spermatocytes
b The division of spermatocytes to form secondary
spermatocytes
c The entire process of sperm formation

d The structural changing of spermatids

20. The main function of the ovaries is to:
a Secrete hormones that affect the buildup and
shedding of the endometrium during the menstrual
cycle
b Produce a mature ova
c Accommodate a growing fetus during pregnancy
d Channel blood discharged from the uterus during
menstruation
21. Early decelerations:
a
Require immediate physician notification
b
Are a sign of fetal head compression
c
Are a sign of fetal compromise
d
Are an indication for a cesarean section
22. The nurse understands that the fetal head is in which of the
following positions with a face presentation?
a Completely flexed
b Partially extended
c Partially flexed
d Completely extended
23. What is the cause of late decelerations?
a) Prolonged labor
b) Head compression
c) Utero-placental insufficiency
d) Umbilical cord compression
24. Which behavior would you expect to assess during the taking-in
phase?
a Strong interest in caring for the neonate
b Passivity with dependence on others
c Redefinition of new role
d Insecurity about ability to provide neonatal care
25. Where would you expect to assess the uterine fundus in a
patient whos 2 days postpartum?
a 2 cm above the level of the umbilicus
b Approximately 2 cm below the umbilicus
c At the level of the symphysis pubis
d 2 cm above the symphysis pubis
26. At the patients 6-week follow-up appointment, you should
assess:
a) Lochia rubra
b) Lochia serosa
c) Lochia alba
d) Absence of lochia
27. Lactation is stimulated by:
a. Estrogen
c. Prolactin
b. LAM
d. Relaxin
28. Which of the following amounts of blood loss following birth
marks the criterion for describing postpartum hemorrhage?
a More than 200 mL
b More than 500 mL
c More than 300 mL
d More than 400 mL
29. The primary cause of early postpartum hemorrhage is:
a PROM
b Uterine atony
c Small size for gestational age
d Perineal laceration
30. Which of the following approaches to childbirth education
advocates slow breathing, deep relaxation, and a person to act
as coach?
a) Dick-Read method
b) Bradley method

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c) New Childbirth method

d) Lamaze method
It is important to educate a pregnant client about the following:
a) Clear or white nipple discharge during pregnancy
b) Frequent urination after the second trimester
c) Headaches and blurred vision after 28 weeks of
pregnancy
d) Nausea and vomiting before 12 weeks of
pregnancy
When taking an obstetric history of Trixie, who states, I had a
son born at 38 weeks' gestation, a daughter born at 30 weeks
gestation, and I lost a baby at about 8 weeks, the nurse should
record her obstetric history as which of the following?
a) G3 T2 P0 A0 L2
b) G4 T1 P1 A0 L2
c) G4 T1 P1 A1 L2
d) G3 T2 P0 A1 L2
The nurse should explain to a primigravida client that the fetal
heart beat will first be heard with:
a Fetoscope around 8 weeks
b Stethoscope at 8 weeks
c Electronic Doppler as early as 8 weeks
d None of the above
What is the most common urinary symptom experienced by the
woman during the first trimester?
a Dysuria
c. incontinence
b Frequency
d. burning
A woman in early pregnancy is concerned because she is
nauseated every morning. Which of the following would be the
best measure to help relieve this?
a eating few crackers before getting out of bed
b Delay tooth brushing until noon.
c Delay breakfast until midmorning.
d Take two aspirin on arising.
A 21-year old client, 6 weeks pregnant, is diagnosed with
hyperemesis gravidarum. This excessive vomiting during
pregnancy will often result in which of the following conditions?
a Bowel perforation
b Electrolyte imbalance
c Miscarriage
d Pregnancy-induced hypertension
A woman who is 4 months pregnant has pyrosis. Which of the
following suggestions would you give her?
a Do not drink milk
b Eat small meals and maintain on upright position after
eating
c Try and include complex carbohydrates in meals.
d Calorie increase vitamin intake by adding more citrus fruit.
A primigravida at 8 weeks gestation tells the nurse that the
nurse has been experiencing excessive saliva production since
becoming pregnant. The nurse should instruct the patient to
a Eat starchy foods such as potatoes.
b Use mouthwash.
c Suck on popsicles or ice cream.
d Eat only three large meals.
If constipation is a problem for a woman during pregnancy,
which of the following would be best to recommend?
a Mineral oil.
b Increased roughage in the diet.
c Stopping prenatal vitamins temporarily.
d Eating more meat products.

40. Early in pregnancy, frequent urination results mainly from which

of the following?
a Pressure on the bladder from the uterus.
b Increased concentration of urine.
c Addition of fetal urine to maternal urine.
d Decreased glomerular selectivity

41. The Membrane that helps form the placenta is the:

a amnion
c. chorion
b yolk sac
d. allantois
42. Progesterone is secreted in relatively large quantities by
the:
a corpus luteum
c. endometrium
b adrenal cortex
d. pituitary gland
43. The developing cells are called a fetus from the:
a end of the 2nd week to the onset of labor
b implantation of the fertilized ovum
c time the fetal heart is heard
d 8th week to the time of birth
44. The ischial spine are designated as an important landmark
in labor and delivery because the distance between the
spines is:
a a measurement of the floor of the pelvis
b a measurement of the inlet of the birth canal
c the widest measurement of the pelvis
d the narrowest diameter of the pelvis
45. True labor can be differentiated from false labor in that in
true labor, contractions will:
a occur immediately after membrane rupture

b bring about progressive cervical dilation

c be less uncomfortable if client is in side-lying
position
d stop when the client is encouraged to walk
around
46. During pregnancy, the volume of tidal air increases
because there is:
a increased expansion of the lower ribs
b a relative increase in the height of the rib cage
c upward displacement of the diaphragm
d an increase in total blood volume
47. During the process of gametogenesis, the male and
female sex cells divide and then contain:
a a diploid number of chromosomes in their nuclei
b a haploid number of chromosomes in their nuclei
c 22 pairs of autosomes in their nuclei
d 46 pairs of chromosomes in their nuclei
48. The placenta does not produce:
a chorionic gonadotropin
b FSH
c progesterone precursor substances
d somatotropin
49. After the 1st 3 months of pregnancy, the chief source of
estrogen and progesterone is the:
a anterior hypophysis
c. adrenal cortex
b placenta
d. corpus luteum
50. In fetal blood vessels, the O2 content is highest in:
a umbilical artery
c. ductus venosus
b ductus arteriosus d. pulmonary artery