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Page 1 - Mod 13
19. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you
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a) 3 ft error
b) 6ft error
c) 12 foot error
20. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the
a) widest width
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b) narrowest width
c) number of joints and bends
21. Which side of the pilot is the collective?
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a) Left
b) Right
c) In-between legs
22. What effect does the ground have on a helicopter?
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a) Increases lift
b) No effect
c) Increases thrust
23. What damps vibrations on a helicopter?
a) Pfifer damper
b) Swashplate
c) Scissor levers
24. What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor?
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a) Weight of blade
b) Engine and gearbox
c) Fineness ratio
25. Relative velocity of rotor
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a) increases at fwd travelling blade
b) increases at retreating blade
c) is equal for all blades
26. When OAT increases what happens to an helicopter operating
ceiling?
a) Increase
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b) Decrease
c) No effect
27. How many satellites required for GNS?
a) 8
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b) 4
c) 6 90o apart
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37. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually
assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known
as the
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a) decision height
b) intercept height
c) alert height
38. The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is
a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without
external reference
b) operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters
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c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with
RVR of 200 meters
39. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by
a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office
b) three sets of instruments at the side of the runway
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c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway
40. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing
equipment which fail operational control and roll out guidance will have
a) a decision height of about 50 feet
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b) no decision height
c) a decision height depending upon the RVR
41. The purpose of a yaw damper is to
a) assist the aerodynamic response
b) produce a co-ordinated turn
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c) block the Dutch roll frequency
42. in a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system
will disconnect
a) all channels
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b) the failed system and carry on with an autoland
c) the failed system and continue with a manual approach
43. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by
a) differentiating deviation signal
b) integrating deviation signal
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c) integrating course error
44. With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilot
modes are
a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD
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b) IAS HOLD and ALT ARM
c) V/S and ALT ARM
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79. An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true
airspeed?
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a) Higher than its IAS
b) Lower than its IAS
c) The same as its IAS
80. The stall margin is controlled by
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a) EPR limits
b) speed bug cursor
c) angle of attack and flap position
81. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle
a) only with the Flight Director selected
b) With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System
(DFCS) engaged
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c) only after take off
82. A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists of
a) electronic engine control unit only
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b) electronic engine control unit and all its sensors
c) electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitter
83. A FADEC system does not have the following system?
a) An automatic starting capability
b) Control of thrust reverser operation
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c) Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers
84. Which is the correct sequence for an autoland?
a) Glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare
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b) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare
c) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude hold
85. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually
assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is know
as the
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a) decision height
b) intercept height
c) alert height
86. The ICAO weather category 3A is
a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without
external reference
b) operation down to 60 m and 800 m
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c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with
RVR of 200m
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96. If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the
aeroplane will
a) increase speed
b) rotate nose up
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c) increase speed and rotate nose up
97. V NAV can be selected
a) alone
b) only if A/P and F/D selected
c) only if A/T selected
98. If during autoland the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach
a) system degrade to CAT II
b) autoland is continued
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c) go-around is initiated
99. The order of autoland approach is
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a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE
b) GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE
c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD
100. Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to
a) assist with localiser tracking
b) assist with glide slope tracking
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c) point the aircraft down the runway at touch down
101. An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that
a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any
failure is detected
b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to
overshoot if any failure is detected
c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of
signal failure
102. The effective gain of the glide path receiver
a) is increased as the aircraft descends
b) remains constant as the aircraft descends
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c) is decreased as the aircraft descends
103. During an automatic landing , the aircraft descent rate is sensed by
a) pitch rate gyros
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b) radio altimeters
c) vertical accelerometers
104. An autopilot with two separate power supplies is
a) fail passive
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b) fail operational
c) fail redundant
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159. When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft what
is the distance that VHF Com cover?
a) 100 nm
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b) 120 nm
c) 140 nm
160. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature, the
aircraft is at the
a) 180 degree radial
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b) 090 degree radial
c) 275 degree radial
161. A unit with two springs and a mass pick off is
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a) an accelerometer
b) a gyroscope
c) a tachogenerator
162. The units of vibration are measured in
a) phons
b) decibels
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c) relative amplitude
163. A fuel flow system can be adjusted for
a) maximum flow rate
b) minimum flow rate
c) cannot be adjusted
164. Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between
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a) true north and magnetic north
b) magnetic heading and aircraft heading
c) the compass north and magnetic north
165. GPWS mode 1 is excessive
a) terrain closure
b) rate of ascent
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c) rate of descent
166. How many bits make up the mode "S" address
a) 12
b) 24
c) 36
167. The applied pressure to an ASI varies with the
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a) square of the speed
b) square root of the speed
c) cube root of the speed
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257. When secondary stops are utilized in control surfaces, they come in
contact
a) before the primary stops
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b) after the primary stops
c) at the same time as the primary stops
258. EICAS indicates
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a) engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions
b) engine performance only
c) engine performance and aircraft status
259. Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the right
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a) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right
b) pitch operating arms lengthen in one direction and shorten in
another
c) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right
260. Magnetic heading errors will be
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a) positive if easterly
b) negative if easterly
c) negative if northerly
261. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?
a) It moves once the aircraft is established on a new heading
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b) It move as the aircraft moves
c) It stays fixed on magnetic north
262. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?
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a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1
b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1
c) If P2 is before P1
263. An aircraft with autoland is fitted with a CMC
a) records all faults in volatile memory
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b) records all faults in non-volatile memory
c)
264. A helicopter autopilot uses
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a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude
hold
b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude
hold
c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold
265. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the
beam?
a) Radio deviation
b) Glideslope deviation
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c) Course deviation
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274. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3
pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length?
a) 21 micro seconds
b) 8 micro seconds
c) 17 micro seconds
275. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000
degrees what will the TO/FROM indicator indicate?
a) TO
b) FROM
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c) Neither
276. What does the Radar contour button do?
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a) Alter the beam shape
b) Alter the transmitter power
c) Alter the video amplifier
277. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds how far away is the
target?
a) 12 miles
b) 25 miles
c) 40 miles
278. on a helicopter, what is vortex ring state?
a) Tip vortex interference at high forward speed
b) Ground vortex interference when hovering close to the ground
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c) Tip vortex build-up during hover
279. What controls are used in response to PVD display?
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a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedals
b) Control wheel
c) PVD control unit
280. DME transponder transmits on receipt
a) of any interrogation
b) of pilot input command request
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c) of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds
281. The best design of a MRB is where the C of P
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a) does not move
b) moves freely along the length of the blade
c) is insignificant
282. The RAD alt electrical length for an helicopter is
a) 16ft
b) 12ft
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c) 28ft
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301. in air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director
pitch command bar signifies
a) speed increase
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b) speed decrease
c) height decrease
302. Back beam is captured
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a) by manually selecting the back beam mode
b) this automatically trips the L NAV mode
c) by manually selecting the L NAV mode
303. With an insulation tester
a) the long lead is attached to the aircraft air frame and short lead
to item
b) the short lead to the aircraft airframe and long lead to the item
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c) it does not matter which lead goes where
304. DME reply pulses are 63MHZ
a) higher
b) lower
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c) higher or lower
305. Flight director incompatible modes are
a) VOR and glideslope
b) heading and altitude hold
c) VOR and altitude hold
306. What is VHF comm range at 9000 feet?
a) 110 nm
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b) 120 nm
c) 130 nm
307. GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1?
a) c/a code only
b) c/a code and P code
c) P code only
308. Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a
helicopter. The primary control method is
a) inspect loose fixtures and fittings
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b) design of engine and gearbox supports
c) inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft
309. Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from
a) rad alt to barometric
b) rad alt decrease
c) approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold
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381. The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode are
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a) integrated pitch and radio altitude.
b) G/S deviation and radio altitude.
c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation
382. Rollout guidance after touch down is by
a) automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering
b) visual indication and nosewheel steering
c) visual indication and rudder control
283. During autoland failure of one channel is detected
a) all channels will disconnect in triplex system.
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b) all channels will disconnect in dulpex system.
c) all channels will disconnect in dual-dual system.
384. In triplex autoland system failure of one channel will
a) disconnect all channels
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b) disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach
c) disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual
approach
285. During the flair mode the A/T throttle will
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a) retard throttle to idle.
b) disconnect autothrottle
c) select reverse thrust.
386. Roll out mode occurs
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a) after flare
b) before flare
c) at alert height
287. High and low signal to voter are
a) average
b) removed
c) added
388. Basic monitoring is function of
a) voting
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b) signal comparison
c) signal summing
389. In series rudder system
a) the pilot cannot input to the system
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b) the pilot can input to the system
c) yaw damping is only possible signal input
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496. What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left?
a) Elevator up, left aileron down
b) Elevator down, right aileron down
c) Elevator up, right aileron down
497. Where is the placement of a mercury switch?
a) Outer gimbal
b) Gyro case
c) Instrument case
498. DC power into the GCU comes from
a) main battery bus
b) main battery bus and ground service
c) ground service
499. In a boost gauge system the sensing element contains
a) 1 capsule
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b) 2 capsules
c) 3 capsules
500. If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, the
control surface will
a) move up
b) move down
c) remain at the same place
501. Spring tabs
a) cannot be adjusted in flight
b) can be adjusted in the flight deck
c) cannot be adjusted
502. Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered, AoA will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain
503. If an aircraft moves in roll it is moving about the
a) normal axis
b) lateral axis
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c) longitudinal axis
504. LOC signal modulation is
a) 50 %
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b) 20 %
c) 10 %
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505. After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter , the helicopter
would
a) continue to roll
b) increases roll
c) come back to level flight
506. What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure?
a) ASI
b) Machmeter
c) VSI
507. If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS will
a) decrease
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b) increase
c) remain the same
508. A Master Warning is issued when
a) overspeed and low cabin attitude occurs
b) cargo smoke and low oil quantity occurs
c) engine fire & trip occurs
509. How does a delta wing aircraft move about the pitch and roll axis?
a) Elevator s
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b) Elevons
c) Ailerons
510. If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine
generator give?
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a) Up Elevator
b) Left rudder
c) Down elevator
511. What effect does lowering the flaps for takeoff have?
a) Increases lift & reduces drag
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b) Increases lift and drag
c) Increase lift only
512. What effect does lowering flaps for takeoff have?
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a) Reduces takeoff and landing speeds
b) Reduces takeoff speeds only
c) Reduces landing speeds only
513. Which signal would be integrated to get onto Localiser centreline?
a) Heading error
b) Course error
c) Radio deviation
Page 58 - Mod 13
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532. Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost,
following the FD commands. Aircraft will
a) stay on centre of course
b) stay parallel to course
c) follow the course with scalloping or bracketing
533. Flight director on G/S capture, the pitch integration is
a) to increase GS signal
b) to decrease GS signal
c) to maintain GS signal
534. A helicopter needs to re-trim
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a) indication is shown on the API
b) indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSI
c) indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude
indicator
535. API Trim pointers are fed by
a) a synchro
b) an RVDT
c) an LVDT
536. VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for
maximum power transfer is
a) 50 ohms
b) 25 to 75 ohms
c) 129 ohms
537. Transformer coupling between an ADI and a flight director
computer is
a) to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer failure
b) to protect the FD computer in case of an ADI failure
c) to protect the FD computer in case of an HSI failure
538. In audio clipping
a) vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal
b) vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal
c) there is no change in relative strength of vowels
539. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses
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a) attenuation first then amplification
b) amplification first then attenuation
c) no attenuation but amplification
540. DME - how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid?
a) Decoder
b) Blocking oscillator
c) Integrator
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566. When more than one D.R. compass is fitted on an aircraft or where
a D.R. compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass
a) only the master compass readings and adjustments carried out
and remaining compasses are adjusted with master compass
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b) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made
simultaneously on each heading
c) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made
at any one heading only
567. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for
entry on the deviation card should not exceed
a) 2 degrees
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b) 3 degrees
c) 5 degrees
568. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called
a) apparent error
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b) residual error
c) index error
569. Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with
cover glasses whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce
a) Parallax error
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b) Surface reflection
c) Static to avoid dust attraction
570. Versine signal is governed by
a) roll
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b) pitch
c) yaw
571. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed
by
a) 4%
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b) 7%
c) 10.321%
572. A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance for electrical
cables carrying electrical current is
a) 20 inches
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b) 24 inches
c) 28 inches
573. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is
carried out with
a) an inclinometer
b) micrometer
c) spirit level
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596. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be
a) stationary
b) rotating at idle
c) rotating at Nsync
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Ahmed Marafi
26569