1.

Which part of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation govern the issuance of
an
a.
b.
c.
d.

Certificate of Airworthiness
Part 21
Part 23
Part 25
Part 39

2. What is the maintenance recording responsibility of the person who

compliance with an Airworthiness Directive?
a. Advise the aircraft owner/operator of the work performed
b. Make an entry in the maintenance record of the equipment
c. Advise the DGCA office the work performed, by submitting a DGCA form
43-337
d. Record of entry is not required of the person performing the work. The
aircraft owner/operator is responsible for recording maintenance
3. The AME holders of rating in category airframe and engine may exercise the
following privileges:
a. Certify for satisfactory completion of major repairs
b. Sign certification of approved maintenance organization
c. Certify fitness for flight on maintenance release
d. All answers are correct
4. The 100 hours inspection required by CASRs for certain aircraft being
operated for fire may be performed by
a. A person working under the supervision of an appropriately an engineer,
but the aircraft must be approved by the mechanic for return to service
b. An appropriately rated an engineer only if he/she has an inspection
authorization
c. An appropriately rated AME and approved by him/her for return to service
d. An appropriately rate AME, but the aircraft must be approved for return
to service by a AME with an inspection authorization

5. An AME license is effective for what period time?

a. As long as duties are performed under the certificate for at least 60 days
within the preceding 12 months
b. 24 calendar months
c. As long as duties are performed under the certificate for at least 90 days
within the preceding 12 months
d. Until surrendered, suspended, or reworked
6. Under CASR part 65, Category engines is classified into:
a. 3 groups
b. 4 groups
c. 5 groups
d. 6 groups (airframe category)
7. Each person performing a major repair or a major alteration shall forward
copy of DGCA form 43-337 to the DGCA within . after the aircraft, airframe,
aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance is approve for return to service.
a. 48 hours
b. 72 hours
c. 30 days
d. Quickly any time
8. Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration organization :
a. Must have an adequate organization to perform the work and meet the
requirements of part 145. accordance to 121.365
b. Must have an adequate organization to perform any inspection required
by its manual in accordance with 121.369 manual requirement
c. Must be separate the required inspection functions from the other
maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration function
d. All of above are correct

9. Preventive maintenance is limited to the following works, provided it does

not
a.
b.
c.

involve assembly operations : (CASR part 43)

Replacing elastic shock absorber cords on landing gear preventive
Removal, installation, and repair landing gear tires preventive
Replacing bulbs, reflector, and lances of position and landing light

preventive
d. The repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams major
repairs
10.Type certificate is the design approval for a new (model) aircraft; engine or
propeller;
a. To certify that the products design complies with authority standard
b. Which will be issued for individual aircraft, engine, or propeller
c. Issued for transport category
d. A and B answer are correct
11.What is the Newtons second law in more specific sense, the relationship
between mass, velocity, acceleration and distance?
a. Force equal calculation from momentum and velocity
b. Force equal action and reaction from self-force
c. Force equal calculation from mass and acceleration
d. Force equal calculation from rate of change moment
12.An aircraft weighs 6,400 pounds. How much force is needed to give it an
acceleration of 6 ft/sec2 (if set of gravity 32 ft/sec2)
a. 1,000 lb
b. 1,200 lb
c. 3,800 lb
d. 2,600 lb
13.What is the differential X2 + 2X + 5 ;
a. 2X + 5
b. 2X + 2
c. 1/3X3 + X2 + 5X
d. X3 + X2 + 5X

14.What is length of a if b (vertical line) = 5 ft, c (horizontal line) = 12 ft

a. 15 ft
b. 19 ft
c. 13 ft
a
d. 14 ft
b
15.What is differential f(x) = 4X3 + 1/2X2 +
a. 4X2 + 2X + 1
b. 12X2 + 2X + 2
c. 12X2 + X + 2
d. 4X2 + 1/2X + 2

2X + 6

16.The major characteristic of air which makes flight possible is :

a. The high ratio of nitrogen to oxygen
b. Humidity
c. Viscosity
d. Density
17.To restore the original strength on repair work of structural part, a number of
rivets are required. The number of rivets varies according to
a. The thickness of material being repaired and the size of damage
b. The thickness of material being repaired and size of rivet used
accordance to AC 43.13-1
c. The size of damage and type of rivet
d. The thickness of material being repaired
18.The perfect way to make permanent repairs on composites is by
a. Bonding on metal or cured composite patches lighter and has the
original strength
b. Riveting on metal or cured composite patches
c. Riveting on new repair plies
d. Laminating on new repair plies

19.A piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain radius. The curvature of the bend
is referred to as the?
a. Bend allowance
b. Neutral line
c. Bend radius
d. Metal size
20.When a butt welded joint is visually inspected for penetration?
a. The penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of the thickness of the base
metal
b. The penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal
c. The penetration should covered of the base metal
d. Look for evidence of excessive heat in the form of a very high bead
21.The diameter of pilot drill for pre-drilling of rivet hole should be;
a. 0.001 higher than diameter of rivet approximately 0.003 greater
than diameter of rivet shanks
b. 0.001 lower than diameter of rivet
c. Max 0.006 higher than diameter of rivet
d. The same as diameter of rivet
22.The aluminum code number 1100 identifies?
a. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent copper
b. Aluminum alloy containing zinc
c. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum
d. 100 percent of pure aluminum
23.The second digit of aluminum designation identifies
a. The specific alloy modification
b. The percent of alloy group
c. The alloy type first digit
d. The different alloys in a group

24.Based on typed, corrosion is categorized into:

a. Direct chemical and indirect chemical
b. Acid and sulfide corrosion
c. Direct chemical and electro chemical
d. Surface and intergranular
25.Which of these materials is the most anodic
a. Cadmium
b. 7075-T6 aluminum alloy
c. Magnesium easily corroded
d. Zinc
26.Which of the following statements is true of titanium?
a. It is highly magnetic
b. It is as heavy as stainless steel
c. It is in very limited use
d. It is about 60% heavier than aluminum
27.For
a.
b.
c.
d.

cutting and stripping electrical wire

Diagonal cutters plier
Vice grip plier
Duckbill plier
Combination plier

28.The accessories of socket wrench which can be rotated for 180 is :

a. T-Handle
b. Torque wrench
c. Hinge handle
d. Drive handle
29.When twisting safety wire you should use :
a. Duckbill pliers
b. Flat nose pliers
c. Round nose pliers
d. Needle nose pliers
30.To make internal thread used :
a. Reamers
b. Thread cutting dies
c. Countersink
d. Taps
31.What types of drill is used for drilling stainless steel?
a. Low speed drill
b. High speed drill
c. Medium speed drill
d. Carbon steel drill
32.For
a.
b.
c.
d.

cutting and stripping electrical wire using:

Diagonal cutter plier
Vice grip plier
Duckbill plier
Combination plier

33.The identification of heavy-duty screwdriver is showed from:

a. The length of shank

b. The handle
c. The shank and length
d. The tip and the face
34.Which of the following bolts can be called as the special purpose bolt?
a. Hex head bolt with drilled shank
b. Airframe bolt and engine bolts
c. Clevis bolt and jo bolt
d. Close tolerance bolt and drilled head bolt

35.The sign at the head of dzus fastener identified:

a. Fastener manufacture and material
b. Fastener manufacture and distributor
c. Body diameter, head type, and fastener length
d. Body type, head diameter, and fastener length
36.The sign at the head of dzus fastener identified:
a. Fastener manufacture and material
b. Fastener manufacture and distributor
c. Body diameter, head type, and fastener length
d. Body type, head diameter, and fastener length
37.Threaded fastener are identified by NAS. NAS is
a. National American standard
b. National Air force standard
c. Navy air force standard
d. National aircraft standard
38.What is the function of plain washer
a. To protect the surface of the materials being fastened
b. To provide a larger contact area between bolt head or nut with the
materials fastened
c. As a spacer or shim to adjust the thickness to be appropriate with bolt
grip length or cotter pin hole position
d. All of the answer are correct
39.All
a.
b.
c.
d.

the tabs function to assist movement main control surface, except

Trim
Servo
Balance
Spring

40.Fowler flap operation will increase lift of wing by;

a. Changing the angle of attack and reducing of drag
b. Increasing angle of attack, chamber of wing, area of wing, and coefficient
of lift
c. Decreasing angle of attack, chamber of wing, area of wing, and
coefficient of lift
d. Increasing angle of attack, area of wing, and decreasing coefficient of
drag
41.They are 3 forms of flight control surface aerodynamic balance. What kind
the form that has only on tip assist of movement main flight control surface.
a. Handley page
b. Friese
c. Overhang
d. Winglet aerodynamically reduce drag
42.Static balance on flight control surface (after repair) to prevent
a. Dynamic balance
b. Flutter
c. Over travel
d. Difficult to control
43.Landing gear safety device which related with ground flight switch is
a. Safety switch/anti retraction
b. Ground lock
c. Gear indicator
d. Nose wheel centering
44.To withstand the lateral load on main landing gear, the structure uses :
a. Shock strut vertical
b. Drag strut longitudinal
c. Side strut
d. Torque link align landing gear

45.Steering can be done by

a. Steering wheel
b. Rudder pedal
c. Brake pedal
d. A, b, c are true
46.An
a.
b.
c.
d.

aircraft flight in high lift condition. It is mean that

Aircraft landing with flap full down
Aircraft in minimum speed
Aircraft in high induced drag
All above answer are correct

47.Boundary layer control device for hi lift application feature various devices to
maintain hi velocity in boundary layer and delay separation of the airflow.
The kind of method for controlling boundary layer air are :
a. Fix slot
b. Automatic slot
c. Control by flap augmentation
d. All are true
48.How is the installation of speed brakes on the aircraft?
a. On tail cone rear structure
b. On the left and right sides of rear fuselage
c. On the wing upper surface
d. As mentioned on a, b, and c
49.When spoiler is used to assist the ailerons, the movement is as follows :
a. The right spoiler surfaces moves up to make the aircraft bank left
b. The left spoiler surfaces moves up to make the aircraft bank right
c. When right spoilers move up the aircraft bank right, and when left
spoilers move up the aircraft bank left
d. A and b are correct

50.The function of the flight control surface is :

a. To provide the movement control of the aircraft while it is on the ground
b. To provide the directional control of the aircraft while it is in flight
c. To provide lift on the aircraft while it is moving quickly in the air
d. A and c are correct
51.if the rudder is moved to the left, it induces a
a. clockwise rotation
b. nose-up movement
c. nose-down movement
d. counter clockwise rotation you know what lah
52.when banking an aircraft, the spoiler:
a. spoil banking effect
b. speed up the aircraft
c. function with aileron cause it reduces lift on the other side
d. function with flaps
53.which location of components are determines by using buttock lines
a. components on the upper and lower of fuselage longitudinal axis
b. components on the left and right side of fuselage vertical axis
c. components in the front or rear of the datum
d. components on the upper and lower of fuselage lateral axis
54.the differential deflection of aileron (frieze aileron) is as follow:
a. the aileron moves upwards in wider angle
b. the aileron move downwards in lesser angle
c. the upward movement is in lesser angle, while the upward movement is
wider angle
d. as mentioned in A and B differential aileron
55.when the aircraft is nose up or nose down, it can be trimmed to a level flight
by using:
a. the control tabs on aileron
b. the control tabs on rudder
c. the control tabs on elevators or the moveable horizontal stabilizer
d. A and B are the correct answers.
(afm airframe vol 1 pg 1-32)
56.
57.
58.
59.When the lift of airfoil increases, the drag will:
a. Decrease
b. Also increase
c. ..
d.
(afm airframe vol 1 pg 2-8)
60.Wing tip vortices could decrease by:
a. Grow up taper ratio
b. Construct slat/slot hi-lift devices
c. Construct dihedral wing stability

d. Grow up aspect ratio low induced drag, cause wing tip vortices is
affected by increasing in lift
61.The wing loading of an aircraft is:
a. The total gross weight of the aircraft divided by wing area W/S (W:
gross weight; S: wing surface)
b. The payload of the aircraft divided by wing area
c. The all-up weight of the aircraft in o wing area
d. The tare weight of the aircraft over wing area
62.What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross
weight is increase:
a. Induced drag increases more than parasite drag
b. Both parasite and induced drag are equally increased
c. Parasite drag increases more than induced drag
d. Both parasite and induced drag are equally decrease,
(afm airframe vol 1 pg G-20)
(afm airframe vol 1 pg G-25)
63.What changes to aircraft control must be made to maintain altitude while the
airspeed is being decreased:
a. Increase angle of attack to produce more lift than weight
b. Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the decrease in drag
c. Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing dynamic
pressure
d. Maintain a constant angle of attack until the desired airspeed is reached,
then increase the angle of attack. most probable
64.The configuration of inverse dihedral wing is
a. Wings have positive angle towards the longitudinal axis
b. Wings have negative angle towards lateral axis rigging dihedral angle
c. Wings have positive angle towards lateral axis
d. Wings have negative angle towards longitudinal axis
65.Balance tab is
a. An adjustable tab mounted on the leading edge of a control surface to
produce a force automatically that aids the pilot in moving the surface
b. An adjustable tab mounted on the trailing edge of a control surface to
produce a force that aids the pilots in moving the surface
c. A non-adjustable tab mounted on the trailing edge of a control surface to
omit a force that aids the pilot in moving the surface
d. A control surface to produce a force automatically that aids the pilot in
moving the surface.
66.
67.The internal resistance of fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing is called
a. Viscosity
b. .
c. Velocity
d. Capacity

68.Centering cam
a. A cam in the main gear shock strut that cause the piston to center when
the strut fully extend
b. A cam in the left hand main-gear shock strut that cause the piston to
center when the strut fully extends
c. A cam in the nose gear shock strut that cause the piston to center when
the strut fully compress
d. A cam in the nose gear shock strut that cause the piston to center when
the strut fully extends.
69.Some aircraft uses pneumatic power to operate some systems. Which of the
following system normally uses high-pressure pneumatic system? high
pressure pneumatic system generally for emergency use
a. Ice & rain protection system use low and medium pressure
b. Landing gear system (retraction) extension as emergency
c. Pressure System
d. A and B are true
70.What device in hydraulic system with a constant delivery pump allows
circulation of the fluid when no demands are on the system?
a. Pressure relief valve as safety
b. Shuttle valve selector, safety
c. Pressure regulator
d. Debooster valve
71.Hydraulic fluid reservoirs are sometimes designed with a standpipe in one of
the outlet port in order to assure emergency supply of fluid. The outlet port
with the standpipe in it furnishes fluid to the:
a. Normal system power pump
b. Emergency pump when the fluid supply to the normal system has been
depleted.
c. Emergency pump at any time is required.
d. Normal pump when the fluid supply to the normal system has been
depleted

72.What produces the temperature drop drastically in air cycle cooling system?
a. Compressor
b. Turbine
c. Heat exchanger
d. Water separator
73.On
a.
b.
c.
d.

the sea level that has standard value, there are

14,7 psi, 1031 mb, 27,92 inHg
14,7 psi, 1301 mb, 29,92 inHg
1,47 psi, 1013 mb, 2992 inHg
14,7 psi, 1013 mb, 29,92 inHg

74.If condition below was occurs, generally on pneumatic system the SOV /
PRSOV will automatic close, except..
a. Over temperature
b. Over pressure
c. Leak
d. Over Speed
75.On
a.
b.
c.
d.

the windshield construction, that damage on conductive coating is

Delamination
Scratch
Arching most probable
Discoloration

76.anti-icing using exhaust heater will increase the temperature if

a. heat source valve tendency to close
b. heat source valve tendency to close
c. augmentor source valve tendency to close
d. augmentor source valve tendency to open

77.the instrument used in a cabin pressurization system are

a. Cabin altitude, cabin differential pressure.
b. cabin altitude, cabin rate of climb, cabin differential pressure, cabin
temperature
c. cabin altitude, cabin rate of climb,
d. cabin altitude, cabin rate of climb, cabin differential pressure
78.what component of a pressurization system prevent the cabin altitude from
becoming higher than airplane altitude
a. cabin rate of descend control
b. supercharger over speed valve
c. negative pressure relief valve
d. compression ratio limit switch
79.to prevent icing on windshield we can use
a. heat air circulating between double panel
b. heating element attach to the windshield
c. rain repellent
d. answers A and B are correct
80.personal breathing equipment (PBE/smoke hood) and oxygen devices are :
a. For screw use (for combating fire and/or entering areas of smoke or fume
accumulation)
b. Used (for combating fire and /or entering areas of smoke or fume
accumulation) and use for first aid also for walk around probably
c. Used for first aid also for walk around
d. For screw use (for combating fire and/or entering areas of smoke or fume
accumulation) and use for first aid also for walk around

81.the most common agents causing chemical attack on aircraft are :

a. spilled battery acid or fumes from batteries and entrapped caustic
cleaning solution
b. residual flux deposit resulting from inadequately cleaned, welded, brazed
or soldering joint
c. spilled battery acid or fumes from batteries , residual flux deposit
resulting from inadequately cleaned, welded, brazed or soldering joint
and entrapped caustic cleaning solution
d. all of the above
82.at the toilet drain outlet, leak proof flapper valve is installed as:
a. a safety valve and the valve is an integral part of the drain outlet is not
removed
b. a safety valve and the valve is an integral part of the drain outlet is
removed
c. a safety valve and the valve is a difference part of the drain outlet is not
removed
d. a safety valve and the valve is a separate part of the drain outlet is not
removed
83.CO2 fire extinguishers should not be use on an electrical fire unless the
discharge hord is made of a:
a. nonmetallic material
b. metallic material
c. nonmetallic material and metallic material
d. nonmetallic material or metallic material
84.fuel is prevented from flowing away from the boost pump by :
a. bladder type check valve is the fuel tank baffers
b. flapper type control valve in the fuel tank baffers
c. flapper type shut off valve in the fuel tank baffers
d. flapper type check valve is the fuel tank baffers

85. how many thing that are done when the fire warning switch handle in the
cockpit is pulled are :
a. Engine fuel shut off valve is closed, thrust reverser control power goes
off, and spar fuel valve closes.
b. power to engine driven pump low-pressure-warning system goes off,
bleed air valve closes
c. engine fuel shut off valve is closed, thrust reverser control power goes
off, power to engine driven pump low-pressure-warning system goes off,
spar fuel valve closes, , bleed air valve closes and hydraulic shut off
valve is closes
d. Hydraulic shut off valve is closes, engine fuel shut off valve is closed,
thrust reverser control power goes off, and spar fuel valve closes.
86.the cargo compartments are pressurized class D (smother type)
compartments for fire protection , planned on :
a. any fire starting in the compartments will allow the oxygen and
distinguishers
b. any fire starting in the compartments will left the oxygen and
distinguishers itself
c. any fire starting in the compartments will consume the oxygen and
extinguishers itself
d. any fire starting in the compartments will consume the oxygen and
distinguishers itself
87.three instrument are normally connected to the aircraft to the static air
source, there are :
a. airspeed indicator, outside air temperature indicator, altimeter
b. altimeter, oil pressure indicator, oil temperature indicator
c. altimeter, airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator
d. absolute altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator
On simple aircraft, this may consist of a pitot-static system head or pitot
tube with impact and static air pressure ports and leak-free tubing
connecting these air pressure pickup points to the instruments that require
the air for their indications. The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical
speed indicator are the three most common pitot-static instruments.

88.during climb, the air pressure inside the diaphragm of vertical speed
indicator :
a. smaller than air pressure in the instrument case
b. higher than air pressure in the instrument case
c. the same as air pressure in the instrument case
d. smaller than static pressure outside of aircraft
During a climb, the metering unit will establish the required factors
and differential pressure, but as the static pressure under this condition is
a decreasing one, and because the metering unit restricts the
flow out of the case, the case pressure leads the capsule pressure.
89.the component in automatic flight control system that actually applies force
to move the control surface is the :
a. servo
b. hydraulic probably most correct
c. mechanically
d. pressure
90.a rate gyro operates on the gyroscopic characteristic of
a. precession
b. rigidity
c. acceleration
d. deviation
91.an aircraft magnetic compass is swung to update the compass correction
card when
a. an annual inspection
b. the compass service
c. deviation error
d. variation
92.the
a.
b.
c.

commutator is used to
supply the AC output of the generator to the external circuit
produce DC in the armature conductors
convert the generated AC inside the armature to DC for the external

circuit
d. to split the AC output from DC generator
The Commutator: The voltage induced in the armature is AC.
The commutator changes the AC voltage into DC voltage.
93.the
a.
b.
c.
d.

material that normally used as conductor on aircraft system is (are)

aluminum and cooper
gold
cooper only
aluminum only

94.what is the purpose of electric bonding

a. to provide low conductivity path for grounding parts of the aircraft
b. minimize radio interference caused by electrostatic charge
c. prevent the accumulation of static electrical charge

d. all of above answer are correct

95.What is the name of semiconductor devices that has three or more
elements?
a. resistor
b. transistor
c. capacitor
d. inductor
96.VOR receivers are also found couple with
a. ILS
b. glideslope
c. ILS and glideslope
d. GPS
97.Is the process of removing the original information signal from the carrier
wave?
a. regulasi
b. modulasi
c. osilasi
d. demodulasi

98.The radio transmission it is used to provide horizontal guidance to the center

line of the runway?
a. ILS include localizer, glideslope, and marker beacon
b. Glideslope glidepath
c. VOR
d. Localizer
99.A radio altimeter or radar altimeter, is used to measure the distance from the
aircraft to the terrain directly beneath it. It is used primarily during
instrument approach and low level or night flight below?
a. 111o feet
b. 2500 feet
c. 3500 feet
d. 5000 feet
A radio altimeter, or radar altimeter, is used to measure the
distance from the aircraft to the terrain directly beneath it. It
is used primarily during instrument approach and low level
or night flight below 2500 feet.
100. What the output expressions for the following logic gate combinations?