Pharmacy Questions Very Good Mock.

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The KnowHow for Success
pharmagate2014@gmail.com
Oct 21, 2014
Mock MCQ II MCQ Nov 2014

1)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
A non-hypertensive nonalbuminuric diabetic 72-year-old male patient diagnosed with occasional

atrial fibrillation should be classified according to the risk level for occurrence of ischemic stroke
to be at a:
Low risk
Mild risk
Moderate risk
High risk
Very high risk
2)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following is least associated with stroke risk?

Hypertension
Intermittent atrial fibrillation
Chronic atrial fibrillation
Moderate tobacco smoking
Moderate alcohol consumption
S.S. is 29-year-old male patient who arrives at your community pharmacy with his mother. S.S.
has been started on treatment for substance-induced psychosis using long-acting quetiapine
(SEROQUEL XR 600 mg per day) 3 months ago, which proved to be useful, in particular, at
controlling his paranoid delusional thinking. He has been also on long-term prednisone (40 mg
per day) and tiotropium bromide (SPIRIVA 18 mcg capsule once daily) for his pulmonary
fibrosis caused by inhaled and sniffed drugs of abuse. S.S. is also taking multivitamin
preparations and nutritional supplements (ENSURE). S.S. has occasionally been on
methadone for management of drug dependence, but he was not consistent with his treatment
plan. Currently, he is on buprenorphine/naloxone. His medication history reveals also a previous
failed attempt to quit smoking on nicotine replacement therapy. The mother told the pharmacist
that her son is lately doing weird stuff, such as talking to himself and claiming to hear voices
from outside the planet.
What is the most appropriate advice the pharmacist should provide to S.S. mother?
a. Monitor your sons behavior as he might be still abusing street drugs.
b. Your sons lung disease and cigarette smoking might precipitate episodes of low oxygen tension
and hallucinations.
c. Your sons prolonged corticosteroid use might be the source of his current symptoms.
d. Naloxone might be the cause of his new-onset symptoms.
e. Quetiapine dose needs to be adjusted as the current dose might be the reason behind his
peculiar behavior.
Which of the following might affect warfarin therapy the least?
Neutropenia
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4)
a.
3)
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b.
c.
d.
e.
Thrombocytopenia
Cholestasis
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Right-sided heart failure
5)
The cost of visiting a primary care physician clinic by a Canadian resident might be financially
covered by:
federal, provincial and out-of-pocket cash payment
federal funds only
provincial funds only
provincial and private insurance plans
private insurance plans and out-of-pocket cash payments
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
In case of an influenza pandemic in Canada, contingency funding for emergency response plans
is the main responsibility of:
I. the federal government
II. the provincial and territorial governments
III. the municipal and regional health authorities
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
All of the following drugs belong to the "Prescription Drug List", formerly known as Schedule F
drugs EXCEPT:
tramadol sustained-release tablets
zopiclone tablets
temazepam capsules
medroxyprogesterone acetate injection
sildenafil citrate tablets
8)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
All of the following are risk factors for osteoporosis EXCEPT:

advanced age
menopause
maternal hip fracture
a single wrist fracture at the age of 42 years due to slippery ice
an arm fracture at the age of 12 years during a soccer game
9)
A male customer presented at the dropping prescription zone of your pharmacy and dropped a
prescription for a medication for his wife who has just delivered a male infant. The dad explained
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7)
6)
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a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
to the pharmacist that his wife complains of inappropriate nursing of her baby due to a low milk
supply during breast-feeding. He added that the doctor prescribed to her an antiemetic that will
help her produce more breast milk. The most likely drug or natural supplement on that
prescription would be:
metoclopramide
domperidone
dimenhydrinate
doxylamine-pyridoxine
ginger-willow bark extract
10) The very same customer presented at your pharmacy 3 weeks later and dropped a prescription
for an antibiotic for his wife. The client explained to the pharmacist that his wife has mastitis
according to the doctors description and that her breast is hot with a feeling of fullness and
soreness in addition to a mild fever. The most likely antibiotic on that prescription would be:
a. ciprofloxacin 500 mg BID for 10 days.
b. doxycycline 100 mg BID for 10 days.
c. sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim 800/160 mg BID for 10 days.
d. cephalexin 500 mg QID for 10 days.
e. fusidic acid 2% ointment TID for 10 days.
11) Which of the following measures would be least useful as a safety recommendation for issuing
and receiving verbal drug prescriptions?
a. Ensuring completeness
b. Reading back
c. Verifying indication
d. Avoiding truncation
e. Confirming with patient
Which of the following is NOT true regarding risks related to isotretinoin use?
Cheilitis and hypertriglyceridemia are dose related.
Isotretinoin has no effect on male sperm or male fertility.
There is no risk to pregnancies once isotretinoin has been discontinued.
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13)
a.
b.
c.
12) A 54-year-old woman has been given a prescription for a benzodiazepine to help manage her
symptoms of anxiety and insomnia. Of the medications listed below, which one is least likely to
affect her driving the next morning if taken at bedtime?
a. Clonazepam 2 mg
b. Flurazepam 30 mg
c. Diazepam 5 mg
d. Temazepam 15 mg
e. Zolpidem 5 mg
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d.
e.
The drug has an effect only on developing babies, not on ova.

Children parented by those on isotretinoin are not at any risk.
14) A manufacturer initiated a pan-Canadian voluntary recall of brand acetaminophen with codeine
caplets 300 mg/8 mg for a given lot number of a specific bottle size because it is packaged with
a label indicating a child resistant cap and the cap is not child resistant. The manufacturer is
proceeding with a Type I recall of the given lot number to the retail level with the knowledge of
Health Canada. Which of the following ethical principles is most relevant to the manufacturers
initiative?
a. Beneficence
b. Nonmaleficence
c. Justice
d. Loyalty
e. Autonomy
15) Sexual evaluation of sex partners presenting with sexual problems to a healthcare professional
are more appropriately performed for each partner alone. Which of the following ethical
principles this individual assessment of partner responses will fulfill the most?
a. Beneficence
b. Nonmaleficence
c. Autonomy
d. Fidelity
e. Veracity
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17) A 33-year-old female client visited her pharmacy and requested to return an over-the-counter
antitussive medication she purchased a couple of days ago for her 8-year-old kid but did not use
it since the kids physician recommended other medications for asthma management. What is
the most appropriate action the pharmacist should take in that situation?
a. Refuse to return the medication because it is an OTC product which has not been repackaged in
the dispensary.
b. Refuse to return the medication as it not the responsibility of the pharmacist since the client
picked the product from the patients self-selection area of the pharmacy.
16) When it is not possible to affix the prescription label to the drug package because of size
restrictions, pharmacist must ensure the drug package is adequately labelled by carrying
following pieces of information at minimum:
a. Patients name, prescription number and instructions for use
b. Patients name, the drug name and the drug strength
c. Patients name, the drug name and instructions for use
d. Drug name, drug strength and instructions for use
e. Prescription number, instructions for use and drug name
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c.
d.
e.
Accept the returned product for refund if returned in the originally sealed package and reuse the
medication in compounding.
Accept the returned product for refund only if it was in its originally sealed package and return
the product to the shelf.
Accept to refund the returned product only if it was in its originally sealed package and return the
product to the manufacturer.
18) All of the following are likely common causes of medication errors in community pharmacy
EXCEPT:
a. too many telephone calls
b. high prescription volume
c. staff shortage due to maternal leaves
d. overreliance on support personnel
e. look-alike medication labels
The recommended Tallman lettering for the following look-alike medication pair is:
diMENhydrinate vs. diPHENhydramine
dimenHYDRInate vs. diphenHYDRAmine
DIMENhydrinate vs. DIPHENhydramine
dimenHYDRINATE vs. diphenHYDRAMINE
dimenhyDRINATE vs. diphenhydramine
21)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following is the least possible side effect of phenytoin?

Rash
Fragility fracture
Blurred vision and slurred speech
Clumsiness and suicidal ideation
Weight gain
22) Which of the following side effects is least likely to result in the discontinuation of amiodarone
therapy?
a. Exacerbation of arrhythmia
b. Cirrhotic hepatitis
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20)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
19) All of the following describe the implementation of appropriate human factors to minimize the risk
of errors in community pharmacy EXCEPT:
a. Detailed and well defined job descriptions
b. More mechanical work done by technicians
c. Technician certification
a. Increase technician-to-pharmacist ratio
d. Staff meetings to address annual and regular reviews and discussions after errors
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c.
d.
e.
Pulmonary infiltrates
Optic neuritis
Corneal microdeposits
23)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with the use of metolazone?
Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis, hypomagnesemia, and hypocalciuria
Hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia
Ototoxicity
Hypersensitivity and photosensitivity
Altered libido
24) All of the following drugs should be avoided in a patient with hypersensitivity to sulfa drugs
EXCEPT:
a. Celecoxib
b. Topiramate
c. Dorzolamide
d. Mesalamine
e. Sumatriptan
25) Which of the following is NOT true regarding cellulitis?
a. It is usually caused by staphylococci or streptococci that are commonly present on the skin or
inner surface of the nose or mouth of healthy individuals.
b. The most common symptom of cellulitis is tenderness, whereas itching is not a typical symptom
of cellulitis.
c. Cool, wet dressings applied to the infected area may relieve discomfort, whereas topical
antibiotic creams can protect the skin from spreading of the infection
d. Limb elevation above the level of the heart in leg cellulitis can expedite healing.
e. On proper antibiotic therapy if the edges of the redness were marked by a family physician with
a pen, it is expected that the redness goes underneath the marked border within 24-48 hours.
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27) Which of the following is true regarding advertising of drugs and natural products in Canada?
I.
A visual ad for loratidine could only mention therapeutic claims if they were approved by Health
Canada.
26) Which of the following parameters CANNOT serve as an indicator in stratifying the severity of
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
a. Symptomatic impact
b. History of exacerbation in the previous year
c. Number of hospitalizations per year
d. Post-bronchodilator FEV1%
e. Type and number of inhaled medications used
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II.
A TV commercial for tadalafil can only mention the labelled use of the drug, the dose and the
price.
III.
A radio ad for probiotics with a given NPN can include the dose and price of the product but not
its therapeutic indications.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
28) Which of the following populations would be least justifiable as candidates in a randomized
clinical trial due to vulnerability?
a. Inmates
b. Children
c. Mentally ill
d. Cognitively impaired
e. Elderly
29) Which of the following populations is NOT receiving direct health funds from the federal
government of Canada?
a. Low income indigents requiring financial support
b. Low income individuals requiring social assistance
c. Inmates of federal penitentiaries
d. Refugees protection claimants
e. Canadian Forces
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31) J.F. works as a pharmacist for a large pharmacy chain. In the prescription line, a customer
overhears J.F. discussing a prescription with another customer. The matter was raised by the
30) Which of the following would be considered least acceptable regarding the standards of practice
and prescription regulations for controlled drugs and targeted substances?
a. A pharmacy technician reducing to writing a verbal order for acetaminophen-codeine-caffeine
300-30-60 mg (TYLENOL # 3)
b. A pharmacy technician dispensing the 11th refill of and checking a prescription for lorazepam 1
mg (ATIVAN) which has been prescribed a year ago as 30 pills per month at HS.
c. A prescription for hydromorphone 18 mg (HYDROMORPHCONTIN) reading: Take 1 capsule
po BID; mitte 180 capsules; fill 28 every 2 weeks.
d. A prescription for mixed amphetamine salts 20 mg (ADDERALL XR) reading: Take 1 capsule
po AM (ADHD); fill 120 capsules; R = 2.
e. A pharmacist who did not record the purchase of an order for testosterone undecanoate
capsules.
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a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
afflicted customer to senior management. What is the most appropriate action by the employers
manager?
Recommends a disciplinary action to J.F. because he is a custodian of health information
according to the health information act.
Schedules a meeting for J.F. with the Information Technology department of the pharmacy
chain.
Considers implementation of security checks to screen key employee positions.
Ensures that all employees of the pharmacy chain take an oath of confidentiality.
Perform a risk assessment and establish appropriate safeguards.
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33) Doctor E.S. has developed a hypothesis about the association between blood type and
diabetes. He plans to initiate research in this area and is in the process of preparing a research
and grant proposal. In anticipation of this, he routinely asks new patients for their blood type
when they first come to see him. Which of the following is NOT true regarding Dr. E.S. action?
a. The Health Information Act only authorizes collection of information that is directly related to the
purpose it has been collected for.
b. The prime directive requires E.S. as a custodian to collect only the amount of information
essential to allow him to carry out the purpose for which the information is provided.
c. It is improper for E.S. to routinely collect information about blood types of his patients when it is
not needed or directly related to providing the health service the patient is seeking.
d. E.S. could collect the information about the blood type of his patients as he will be using this
information to conduct a clinical research.
32) A patient with a history of drug abuse is admitted for an emergency appendectomy. A file is
obtained from her doctor that contains a detailed history of her treatments over the past few
years. During night shifts, a nurse not involved in her care browses through the file. Which of the
following is true regarding the nurses behavior?
I.
The nurse is an affiliate of the hospital and her behavior could be considered as use of health
information within the circle of care even if s/he is not directly involved in the treatment of this
specific patient.
II.
The nurse is not directly involved in the patient care and therefore does not have the right to
browse the patients health records and custodians must create sanctions to encourage affiliates
to follow the rules.
III.
Access to patients diagnostic, treatment and care records should be restricted to persons
treating that patient and to other affiliates who are in need to know that information for continuity
of healthcare provision.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
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e.
E.S. could collect the information about the blood type of his patients if he had first obtained
Research Ethics Board approval.
34) G.R. has suffered a back injury and has applied for short term disability benefits. Her insurance
company has asked her physician, Dr. S.M., to disclose his patients health information for the
purpose of assessing her insurance claim. What is an appropriate action by Dr. S.M.?
a. He should disclose the required patients health information as there is no provision in the Health
Information Act objecting to the disclosure to insurance companies.
b. He should disclose only the health information needed to assess his patients health claims.
c. He should call his patient and let her know that her insurance company is attempting accessing
her health information.
d. He should not disclose his patients health information to the insurance company unless they
supply a consent form with their request which outlines the purpose of disclosure.
e. He should not disclose his patients health information to the insurance company because
though this is legally permissible it is ethically prohibited.
35) A 16 year-old girl is receiving counselling due to depression. During these sessions she tells the
counsellor that she is contemplating suicide. The parents are concerned that their daughters
depression is not improving and have asked the counsellor to disclose information on her
progress or any statements revealed during the sessions. In this situation, the counsellor might
be faced with an ethical dilemma relating the most to the ethical norms of:
a. veracity and autonomy
b. autonomy and beneficence
c. nonmaleficence and confidentiality
d. confidentiality and autonomy
e. paternalism and fidelity
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37) After an initial upward dose titration in a patient with essential hypertension, perindopril 8 mg
was taken BID instead of AM. Which of the following is least likely?
a. Dizzy spell
b. Heart racing
c. Increased serum potassium
d. Exacerbation of cough
36) The process of endorsing a program that meets predetermined qualifications or standards
describes which of the following terms:
a. accreditation
b. certification
c. credentialing
d. licensure
e. scope of practice
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e.
Proteinuria
38) One month later, the error was noticed by the pharmacist who communicated the error to the
family physician and referred the patient to seek prompt medical attention after inquiring about
physical signs denoting overdose. Upon examination, patient did not show any cardiac or
metabolic abnormalities but his/her potassium level was 5.8 mmol/L. The most appropriate
recommendation to be given to that patient is:
a. Keep taking your blood pressure pills while avoiding potassium rich diet.
b. Stop perindopril until your serum potassium is normalized.
c. Add-on oral calcium polystyrene sulfonate resin until normal blood potassium.
d. Add-on salbutamol inhaler until normal blood potassium.
e. Discontinue perindopril and administer insulin and glucose for a timely correction of serum
potassium.
39) A resident physician recommended levofloxacin as an empiric therapy for CAP in a hospitalized
diabetic patient with secondary renal complications after consulting the patients chest X-ray.
Which of the following parameters would be the most suitable to determine the appropriate dose
of the antibacterial?
a. Estimated glomerular filtration rate
b. Serum creatinine
c. Creatinine clearance
d. Albumin-creatinine ratio
e. Serum albumin
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41) Fortunately, the pharmacist noticed that M.A. is determined to quit smoking and that he elected
to start working on a plan within a few weeks. Which stage of behavioural change could best
describe M.A. in the smoking cessation process?
a. Pre-contemplation
b. Contemplation
c. Preparation
d. Action
10
40) While chatting with M.A., a 48-year-old male post-MI patient, the pharmacist asked the patient
about his smoking status in order to initiate a discussion about the negative impact tobacco
smoking might have on his care plan. Which of the following ethical principles was advocated by
the pharmacist?
a. Nonmaleficence
b. Beneficence
c. Justice
d. Autonomy
e. Paternalism
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e.
Relapse
42)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
NONE of the following are characteristics of academic detailing EXCEPT:

it is funded by pharmaceutical manufacturers.
it is an educational session provided at a reduced cost.
it is a non-interactive activity delivered through educational brochures.
it takes at least 1 hour.
it is held privately.
43) In which of the following scenarios re-starting the medication after the indicated problem
subsides would be acceptable the most?
a. Abacavir in an HIV patient who developed skin hives, diarrhea, and fatigue.
b. Allopurinol in a patient with chronic gouty arthritis who developed fever and arthralgia.
c. Atorvastatin in a post-MI patient who developed acute muscle pain.
d. Clozapine in a psychotic patient with low absolute neutrophil count.
e. Lamotrigine in an epileptic patient who developed generalized rash.
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45) H.S. is a 72-year-old male resident of a nursing home care facility who was admitted to the
hospital with chest tightness, profusely productive cough, and fever of 39.5 C. The admitting
resident noted that H.S. appeared fatigued and confused with some delirium. The patient was
hemodynamically stable and his chest X-ray showed multilobar involvement with some pleural
effusion. H.S. lab values were normal. He is on multiple medications for hypothyroidism, benign
prostatic hyperplasia, atrial fibrillation, and stroke prophylaxis. His PSI score was computed to
11
44) H.D. is a 50-year-old female who has just been admitted to the emergency department with
fever, chest pain, and cough with profuse green sputum. A CXR revealed unilobar infiltrates with
no pleural effusion and ACS was excluded by serial cardiac troponins. H.D. appeared alert and
her vital signs were normal. H.D.s history shows an attempt of smoking cessation, early
menopause at age of 44 for which she has been on hormone replacement, a left wrist fracture,
and a NYHA-II heart failure. The triage note of the patient recorded by the admitting resident
reports the use of the following: premarin/progesterone, furosemide, perindopril, metoprolol,
rosuvastatin, and low-dose aspirin. The patient was diagnosed with community acquired
pneumonia to be treated on an outpatient basis.
Which of the following is the most convenient antibiotic or antibiotic combination that is likely
prescribed to H.D.?
a. Azithromycin 500 mg po STAT and 250 mg days 2-5.
b. Doxycyline 100 mg BID for day 1 then OD days 2-7.
c. Ciprofloxacin 500 mg OD for 5 days.
d. Clarithromycin 1000 mg po once daily and amoxicillin 1000 mg BID for 10 days.
e. Patient should have been hospitalized and administered IV cefazolin 1 g Q8h and azithromycin
500 mg Q24h for 10 days with a consideration of earlier step-down therapy.
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a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
be 112. Which of the following is the major factor which might lead the treating physician to
hospitalize the patient?
The high PSI score
Being a resident of a nursing home facility
Signs of depressed mental status
Patients CXR
Patients risk of death
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47) While in the hospital, the patient became clinically stable. A step-down therapy in this case could
be best described by which of the following therapeutic implementations:
a. keep hospitalized and decrease IV cloxacillin to 500 mg q6h for 1 week
b. keep hospitalized and switch to cloxacillin PO 500 mg q8h for 6 weeks
c. place peripherally inserted central IV catheters for home vancomycin administration over 6
weeks
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46) A 14-year-old male presents with decreased appetite and intermittent tactile fever for the last five
days. He complains of pain in his right leg and he has been having an increasingly difficult time
walking over the last 2 days. He has a history of falling seven days ago. His mother denies
reports of recent weight loss, cough, or dysuria. He has no previous medical problems.
Exam: VS T 39.4, P 110, R 16, BP 95/50, oxygen saturation 99% RA. He is alert and non-toxic
appearing. His heart, lungs and abdomen are normal. Examination of his extremities reveals
swelling, warmth and tenderness to his right proximal tibia. He has some palpable inguinal
lymphadenopathy on the right. He has difficulty bearing weight and walks with a slight limp.
There are no cutaneous skin lesions. His neurologic and joint exams are non-contributory.
Laboratory studies show WBC 18,000, 68% segs, 7% bands, 20% lymphs, 5% monos, H/H
13.4/40, Platelet count 290,000. ESR 60 and CRP 15. Plain radiographs of his right tibia and
fibula are normal. An MRI scan shows a hyperintense signal in the marrow with a small pocket
pus elevating the periosteum and soft tissue swelling of the right proximal tibia suggestive of
osteomyelitis.
An orthopedic consultation is obtained, and a closed needle drainage of the area is done. IV
vancomycin (500 mg q6h) is started empirically and the patients fever declined and his vital
signs and functions are significantly improving. Subsequent blood and wound cultures grow out
methicillin sensitive Staphylococcus aureus. Surgical debridement was carried out and
laboratory results of CBC, CRP, and ESR at routine intervals were followed to monitor clinical
progress.
Which of the following therapeutic managements, if any, should be made now for this patient?
a. Continue vancomycin at same dose for 14 days since the patient is improving
b. Change to linezolid 600 mg IV q12h to account for vancomycin-resistant enterococci
c. Stop vancomycin and start ciprofloxacin 750 mg PO twice daily
d. Stop vancomycin and start cloxacillin 1 G IV q4h
e. No changes should be made and continue monitoring vital signs
PharmaGate
d.
e.
discharge and prescribe cloxacillin PO 1 G q6h for 4 weeks

discharge and prescribe clindamycin PO 300 mg q12h for 4 weeks
48)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The minimum duration needed for defervescence in the previously mentioned patient is:
12 h
24 h
48 h
72 h
96 h
49) Advantages of a step-down treatment in a hospital setting by an IV-PO switch include:

I.
Minimizing the likelihood of nosocomial infection
II.
Reducing drug-drug interaction
III.
Attenuating drug resistance
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
50) (A) Major benefit(s) of IV-PO switch in hospital pharmacy is (are):

I.
Cost-effectiveness
II.
Decreasing length of hospitalization
III.
Enhancing patient compliance
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
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52) All of the following conditions and complications are likely consequences in a chronic diabetic
patient EXCEPT:
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51) A 28-year-old female patient (BMI = 22.2 lbs/in2) has been diagnosed with type I diabetes and
she has been started on prandial insulin in addition to HS NPH. All of the following are
appropriate advices given by her pharmacist EXCEPT:
a. Type-1 diabetes will increase your cardiovascular risk.
b. Pre-meal insulin doses should match your carbohydrate intake.
c. Exercising for 30 minutes per day for 5 days aside from routine daily activities is required.
d. H1N1 and pneumococcus vaccinations are important.
e. A1c% should be monitored monthly.
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a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
left ventricular hypertrophy.

peripheral arterial disease.
bicuspid aortic valvular heart disease.
chronic kidney disease.
damage to the eye microvasculature.
53) M.T. is a 54-year-old female who has been recently switched from oral glyburide to insulin pens
and was initiated, according to her body weight, on 6 units lispro (Humalog) before day meals
and 24 units NPH (HUMULIN-N) at bed time. Her average readings during self-monitoring of
her blood sugar levels for the last 2 weeks are shown in the following table:
BSL mmol/L
Fasting
Postprandial
10:00
12.8
18:00
14.1
21:00
11.5
Lately, M.T. gained 3-4 lbs. and her most recent A1c after her current therapeutic regimen is
8.2%. The most updated medication profile of M.T. includes metformin 500 mg TID and
sitagliptin 5 mg OD. M.T. is a light smoker, and she is working with her dietician to adjust her
carb/protein ratio in her meals. She is scheduled for an appointment with her dietitian in 2
weeks. In her last visit for checkup, her family doctor mentioned to the patient that she might be
showing some sort of insulin resistance and advised her to quit smoking and to exercise
regularly for 20-30 minutes per day.
Her blood sugar level could most likely be controlled by which of the following therapeutic
interventions?
Increasing the dose frequency of sitagliptin
Increasing the dose of daytime metformin
Adding repaglinide at morning and lunch times
Adjusting the dose of basal insulin
Adjusting the dose of bolus insulin
Which of the following will fit to the P part of SOAP notes for M.T.?
New-onset tingling pain in her lower limbs
Intolerance to acarbose
Her most recent A1c%
Her possible insulin resistance
Advice to quit smoking
55) F.Y. is a 59-year-old type-2 diabetic male patient currently on bedtime basal and meal time bolus
insulin combination, gliclazide 60 mg/day, saxagliptin 5 mg/day, metformin 850 mg BID,
perindopril 8 mg/day, and atorvastatin 20 mg/day. His latest A1c% was 9.6. F.Y. has just started
insulin glulisine (0.1 units per Kg) in 2 divided doses with meals. F.Y. visited his community
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54)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Page
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
8:00
7.0
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a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
pharmacy and complained to the pharmacist that his insulin is causing him some dizziness, cold
sweats, and lip tingling. F.Y. added that he did not lately change his dietary habits nor did he
exercise more intensively. What would be an appropriate advice by the pharmacist?
Omit saxaglitpin from the regimen
Omit glicalzide from the regimen
Omit prandial insulin and keep only HS long-acting insulin
Reduce the dose of metformin to 500 mg BID
Reduce the dose of gliclazide to 30 mg/day
56) Which of the following patients is likely at increased risk of cardiovascular disease the most?
a. A hypertensive 44-year old female with a systolic BP of 158 mm Hg who smokes a pack of
cigarettes per day.
b. A hypertensive 44-year old male with a systolic BP of 157 mm Hg who smokes half a pack of
cigarettes per day.
c. A normotensive, non-smoker 49-year old male who has been diagnosed by T2-DM.
d. A hypertensive, non-smoker 49-year old male who has been diagnosed by dyslipidemia.
e. A non-smoker 49-year old female who has been diagnosed by diastolic heart failure.
57)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
All of the following functions fall under the mandate of MedEffect Canada EXCEPT:
running post-market safety research for prescription and nonprescription medications
encouraging reporting and maintaining gathering of medication side effects
assessing and analyzing adverse drug reactions
disseminating drug recall notifications
promoting enhancements to pharmaceutical product labelling
All of the following are among the symptoms of anaphylaxis EXCEPT:

urticaria
arrhythmia
swelling of the tongue
laryngeal edema
hyperventilation
60) Which of the following statements about anaphylaxis is NOT correct?
Page
59)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
15
58) All of the following are mandatory common criteria shared by therapeutically equivalent ramipril
products on the Canadian market EXCEPT:
a. chemistry and pharmacology
b. safety profile
c. route of administration and dose
d. rate of drug absorption
e. Cmax at steady state
PharmaGate
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
61)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The onset is generally within minutes, but may be delayed up to 1 hour after exposure to the
offending antigen.
It follows mostly a uniphasic course, but about 1 in 5 anaphylactic reactions will follow a biphasic
course with the second-phase reactivity within 10 hours on average.
There is little anticipated risk in case of an unnecessary use of epinephrine.
After anaphylaxis, mast cell granules release measurable amounts of histamine in blood which
could be exploited for assessing mast cell activation.
Anaphylactoid reactions are clinically indistinguishable from anaphylaxis, but are not IgEmediated and are seen in response to opiates, NSAIDs and radiocontrast agents.
All of the following are signs of opioid physical dependence EXCEPT:
hypoventilation
diarrhea
rhinorrhea
insomnia
aches
Dose
Pitavastatin
Rosuvastatin
Atorvastatin
Simvastatin
1 mg
5 mg
10 mg
20 mg
LDL-C
Reduced
32%
33%
30%
31%
Bioavailability
Metabolism
CAD$/pill
18%
20%
12%
5%
Sulfation
C29/2C19
3A4
3A4
2.27
1.97
1.40
1.36
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Dose
Extent of reducing LDL-C
Bioavailability
Metabolism
Cost associated with therapy
63)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following activities does NOT belong to the portfolio of Health Canada?
Approval of drug sale
Approval of drug label
Enforcing narcotic regulations
Pricing of medications
Following up on adverse drug reactions after drug marketing
Page
Candidate
16
62) Which of the following is the major factor which will affect the decision of a hospital Pharmacy
and Therapeutics Committee in adding one of the following therapeutic alternative statins (see
table below) to the hospital formulary list?
PharmaGate
64) A hospital pharmacist can best find evidence-based clinical facts about approaches for
antiplatelet use in post-myocardial infarction patients in which of the following references?
a. Cochrane reviews
b. Merck manual
c. MEDLINE
d. Compendium of Therapeutic choices
e. HeartWire
65)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
All of the following are primary sources of information EXCEPT:

a drug monograph
a patent application
a pharmacoeconomic study
a MEDLINE research article abstract
a medication error report
66) Drug Z has just received a notice of compliance by Health Canada. A physician called the
pharmacist inquiring about dosage instructions for drug Z in renal failure. What is the most
reliable source the pharmacist should consult to access the required information?
a. Drug Prescribing in Renal Failure, 5th Edition
b. Compendium of Pharmaceuticals and Specialities
c. Drug Product Database
d. MEDLINE.
e. Drugs.com
Page
68) Which of the following parameters can help a pharmacist the least in assessing the credibility of
drug information on a Web site?
a. A domain extension .gc.ca
b. Quality control of the content
c. Frequency of update
d. Number of references
e. Web impact factor
17
67) A Canadian Muslim man needs updated information regarding vaccination required prior to Hajj
season. He specifically needs to know about meningococcal vaccine. What is an appropriate
referral by a pharmacist?
a. The Canadian Public Health Association
b. The Canadian immunization guide
c. Travel.gc.ca
d. A travel clinic
e. E-Compendium of Pharmaceuticals and Specialities
PharmaGate
69) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding infectious bacterial meningitis?
a. Ampicillin-gentamycin combo is a good option in neonates with Group-A Streptococci meningitis.
b. Starting a broad spectrum antibiotic therapy before the identification of the causative
microorganism via lumbar puncture and cerebrospinal fluid culture is discouraged.
c. Corticosteroids should be used along with antibiotics to minimize neurological complications.
d. Rifampin has an important role in chemoprophylaxis after coming into contact with a person
having meningitis disease.
e. Vaccination against S. pneumonia, H. influenza type B, and N. meningitidis has an important
bioprophylactic role.
70)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
All of the following disease conditions are most likely caused by N. gonorrhea EXCEPT:
urethritis
vulvovaginitis
pelvic inflammatory disease
meningitis
conjunctivitis
71) All of the following is true about tuberculosis EXCEPT:

a. M. tuberculosis is an air-borne pathogen which is resistant to Gram-staining and is highly
aerobic.
b. ethambutol is the preferred add-on antituberculous drug in case of isoniazid resistance.
c. isoniazid monotherapy is the preferred regimen for prophylaxis in asymptomatic non-infectious
patients harboring M. tuberculosis but not in active tuberculosis.
d. Mantoux skin test is performed to differentiate between active and inactive tuberculosis infection.
e. all patients positively diagnosed for an active tuberculosis infection should be counseled and
screened for Human Immunodeficiency Virus.
Page
73) A hospital pharmacist wants to familiarize himself with updated information about the
pathophysiology of heart failure, which of the following references would be the most useful?
a. Merck Index
b. Merck Manual
c. Therapeutic choices
18
72) The most probable classification of heart failure in a 62-year-old male who cannot fully shovel
the snow in front of his garage without the need to rest for a few minutes but is able to have a
sexual intercourse for 5-7 minutes without interruption:
a. NYHA Class I
b. NYHA Class II
c. NYHA Class III
d. NYHA Class IV
e. left ventricular hypertrophy
PharmaGate
d.
e.
Compendium of Pharmaceuticals and Specialities

HeartWire
74)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The drug of choice for febrile seizures is:

fluid and electrolytes resuscitation
diazepam IV PRN
phenobarbitone suppositories TID
acetaminophen Q4h PRN
ibuprofen 400 mg Q4h PRN
75) In the event of neonatal sepsis, an appropriate dosing for gentamicin to obtain clinically effective
blood levels would be:
a. IV push maximal loading dose
b. IV submaximal loading dose
c. IV minimal loading dose
d. IV pulsed dosing calculated on body surface area
e. IM starting dose
76)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The onset of a noticeable clinical effect for rivastigmin is most likely to occur in:
1-2 weeks
3-4 weeks
1 month
2-3 months
4-6 months
Page
78) A 28-year-old female patient presented a prescription for 1 tube of Retin A Micro Gel to the
pharmacist at a community pharmacy. The prescription appeared to be a photocopy, and the
patients name appeared to have been altered. The pharmacist questioned the patient; the
patient said that she changed the name on the prescription to her name so that it could be billed
to her insurance and her friend, the original patient would not have to pay for it. Which of the
following is the least appropriate action that could be taken by the pharmacist on duty?
a. To contact the prescriber in order to confirm the forgery.
b. To refuse to fill the prescription and return the unfilled prescription to the patient.
19
77) Which of the following pairs is responsible for researching the different parameters related to the
inclusion of drugs on provincial and hospital formularies, respectively?
a. Canadian Drug Expert Committee and the Board Hospital of Directorates Committee
b. Canadian Institute of Health Information and Canadian Society of Hospital Pharmacists
c. Patented Medicine Prices Review Board and Hospital Formulary Board
d. Common Drug Review and Pharmacy and Therapeutics committees
e. Federal and provincial governments
PharmaGate
c.
d.
e.
To report the attempt to the local provincial regulatory authority.

To report the attempt to the third party insurer.
To call the local police.
79) Mandopril, a newly developed angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, has just been granted a
new investigational drug status in Canada. Which of the following phases in the drugs life cycle
will focus on testing its safety profile in pregnant and breastfeeding mothers?
a. Pharmacovigilance postmarketing studies
b. Large, randomized, multicenter clinical trials
c. Small, blinded, clinical trials
d. Clinical investigations in healthy volunteers
e. Preclinical investigations in laboratory animals
80) Which of the following describes a role of an owner pharmacist?
I. Pricing
II. Recruitment
II. Remuneration
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
Page
82) To implement a pharmaceutical cold chain protection for vaccines in a community pharmacy,
which of the following behaviors should be followed the least?
a. Check and log temperature twice daily to ensure a refrigeration range of +2C and +8C.
b. Frost buildup and storing vaccines on the door compartments or drawers should be avoided.
c. A spacious all-purpose refrigerator unit should be used.
d. Store full bottles of water on empty shelves and on the door.
e. Store vaccines stacked in rows in bins on the refrigerators shelves.
20
81) The role(s) of a manager pharmacist in a community pharmacy store is (are):

I. Screening of curriculum vitae of job applicants and interviewing the shortlisted candidates
II. Selecting ideal job vacancies candidates and wage commensurate with qualifications
III. Setting prices for store brand Schedule 3 drugs
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
PharmaGate
83) M.L. is a 67-year old female (BMI = 31) on ramipril (5 mg per day) and levothyroxine (0.125 mg
per day) since 3 years. M.L. was hospitalized 1 year ago for a broken hip and has been since on
hormone replacement therapy, calcium, and vitamin D. During her hospital stay, she developed
urticaria when given morphine to control her pain. Thereafter, she was started on paroxetine (20
mg per day) for posttraumatic stress disorder. Lately, M.L. was prescribed 1000 mg
acetaminophen TID which has been upward titrated to 1000 mg QID for her knee osteoarthritis.
However, she has been complaining of a frequent, partially disabling knee pain, especially in the
morning before doing her daily activities.
What would be the most appropriate next step that could be implemented by her orthopedist?
a. Naproxen IR (500 mg TID)
b. Tapentadol IR (100 mg QID prn)
c. Codeine/acetaminophen (30 mg/325 mg q 4h prn)
d. Oxycodone/acetaminophen (5 mg/325 mg QID prn)
e. Fentanyl patch (12.5 mcg q 72h)
84) E.S. is a 52-year-old female patient diagnosed with stage IIIB breast cancer after computerized
axial tomography and sentinel lymph node biopsy. Morphine immediate release 5 mg Q4H with
rescue doses of 1 mg Q1H were prescribed in the interim to control the patients moderate pain
(score 6 on pain scale) until further assessment and decision on her case. Chemotherapy was
scheduled to start in 1 week, followed by breast-conserving surgery with lymph node dissection,
and radiation therapy. Additional hormonal therapy might also be considered in case the tumor is
hormone-responsive. E.S. pain was fully controlled by her current regimen after appropriate
dose escalation; however, she lately complained of repetitive episodes of nausea and vomiting.
The most appropriate therapeutic management in E.S. case would be:
a. administer ondansetron
b. administer metoclopramide
c. administer lorazepam
d. switch her immediate release morphine to time-release preparations
e. switch her morphine to hydromorphone
Page
86) D.Mc. is a 48-year-old male who was diagnosed with lung cancer 1 year ago. He has lately been
complaining of a dull pain which is agonizing upon weight-bearing activities. He describes his
pain as scoring 9 on pain scale. D.Mc. also added that the pain is quite different from the usual
21
85) All of the following could be adverse drug reactions due to the use of delta-9tetrahydrocannabinol-cannabidiol spray EXCEPT:
a. nausea
b. dry mouth
c. constipation
d. nasal stinging
e. stomatitis
PharmaGate
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
breakthrough pain he got used to. The treating physician explained to D.Mc. that this type of
pain is most probably due to metastatic bone cancer. D.Mc.s medication profile currently include
time-release oxycodone 60 mg BID for pain control along with oxycodone 15 mg immediate
release q1-2h PRN for breakthrough pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate to be
used for palliative care of D.Mc. pain?
Physiotherapy daily sessions
dexamethasone 8 mg po QAM
Pregabalin 150 mg po BID
Codeine/acetaminophen 60 mg/300 mg po Q4-6h PRN
Fentanyl transdermal system 100 mcg/h Q72h
87) Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for a distal-lateral dermatophyte
infection underneath 2 fingernails with a thickened yellowish nail of an otherwise healthy 38year-old female patient?
a. Mechanical debridement until the newly grown healthy nail appears
b. Ketoconazole oral treatment for 8 weeks
c. Terbinafine oral treatment for 12 weeks
d. Clotrimazole topical cream for 12 weeks
e. Ciclopirox lacquer for 12 months
Page
89) An 8-year-old female patient was initiated on carbamazepine (maintenance dose of 300 mg
chewtabs TID) for focal seizures showing epileptogenic discharges on EEG but her symptoms
relapsed in 6 months. Her neurophsychiatrist switched her to lamotrigine (maintenance dose of
100 mg BID); however, her symptoms were still uncontrolled. What is an appropriate next step?
a. Gradually withdraw lamotrigine and initiate levetiracetam
b. Combination carbamazepine and topiramate
c. Combination carbamazepine and lamotrigine
22
88) L.H. is a 47-year-old female has finished her clindamycin regimen 1 week ago following a dental
procedure, and visited her doctor today after enduring diarrhea with 8 bowel movements,
abdominal pain, and mild fever. The ED physician has diagnosed her with moderate antibioticassociated diarrhea and requested a stool sample for C. difficile toxin. Confirming the diagnosis,
a positive toxin test was obtained. After a brief hospitalization and IV fluids administration for
rehydration, L.H. was started on metronidazole 500 mg TID po 14 days as an outpatient. L.H.
was getting better; however, a week after her regimen was over, she had a relapse of diarrhea.
The most appropriate treatment option for L.H. is:
a. repeat the same regimen as before recurrence and add loperamide
b. increase metronidazole dose to 1000 mg TID po for another 10 days
c. prescribe a 2nd dose of metronidazole 500 mg TID for 10 days
d. prescribe vancomycin po 125 mg QID with S. boulardii
e. hospitalize and administer metronidazole 500 mg IV 5 days
PharmaGate
d.
e.
Add-on levetiracetam
Add-on valproate
90) M.V. is a 59-year-old advertising executive who presents with tremor which occurs when his
hand is relaxed but not during movement, slowed movement, and postural instability. His history
includes tremor of the right hand. He also experiences occasional tremor of the right leg. He has
recently begun to clench his right fist to abate the tremor. Factors that exacerbate his tremor
include job-related stress (e.g., meetings and presentations), fatigue, excitement, and cold. His
past medical history includes allergic rhinitis and glomerular nephritis beginning at age 8,
accompanied by elevated creatinine levels. His current medications include fish oil supplements
and multivitamins during the winter. He mentioned that his current manifestations are starting to
be bothersome. His family history includes a paternal grandfather who had "shaking" that began
at age 94. He has a niece with epilepsy. M.V. has no history of head injury or concussion. He
does not have depression, dementia, cerebellar symptoms, or abnormal vertical eye
movements. He has no chronic exposure to other medications. He has a history of past
methamphetamine use, with no use within the preceding 10 years. His employer is aware of his
history of methamphetamine use, and he is required to undergo regular drug testing as a
condition of his employment. His primary care clinician made an initial diagnosis of Parkinsons
disease. His general neurologic examination is normal. Cognitive testing reveals a normal score
(30 out of a possible 30) on the Mini-Mental Status Examination, and normal cranial nerves,
muscle strength, reflexes, and sensory examination.
What would be the most reasonable next step in managing M.V.s symptoms?
a. Order a brain magnetic resonance imaging to confirm the diagnosis of Parkinsons disease
b. Order routine laboratory work to assess the risk of Parkinsons disease
c. A watchful waiting
d. Begin treatment with the goal of preventing progression of Parkinsons disease
e. Begin treatment with the goal of relieving symptoms of Parkinsons disease
92) Which of the following can most accurately describe the role of central choline esterase
inhibitors in dementia patients?
a. Improves ability to copy a diamond on a piece of paper
b. Improves the quality of life of patients or caregivers
c. Prolongs patients ability to function independently
d. Prolongs the duration to institutionalization
23
Potential care team partners for M.V. might include all of the following EXCEPT:
a psychiatrist
an occupational therapist
a dietician
a speech language therapist
a social worker
Page
91)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
PharmaGate
e.
Delays disease progression
93) All of the following laboratory tests are likely to be ordered for the initial assessment of dementia
EXCEPT:
a. thyroid stimulating hormone, B12 and folate levels
b. serum glucose
c. blood urea nitrogen/creatinine
d. computed tomographic brain imaging
e. electroencephalogram
94) Which of the following laboratory tests is the most accurate diagnostic test for iron deficiency?
I. Complete blood count
II. Hemoglobin levels
III. Ferritin
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
95)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following is the least to be monitored during levodopa treatment?

Serum creatinine
Blood pressure
Dyskinesia
Signs of psychosis
Urinary hesitancy
Page
97) N.Sh. is a 38-year-old male on citalopram (20 mg/day) who mentioned to his family physician
that though he feels better, mornings are still rotten for him and that a few weeks after he
started the medication he feels that his sexual desire has been affected. He also added that he
still have difficulty sleeping. All of the following therapeutic options and advices are appropriate
regarding the management of N.Sh.s depression EXCEPT:
a. citalopram is an initial good option in your case; however, the dose might need to be adjusted
24
96) NONE of the following manifestations could be attributed to levodopa/carbidopas (SINEMET)

long-term side effects EXCEPT:
a. chorea
b. akathisia
c. bradykinesia
d. dysarthria
e. malignant hyperthermia
PharmaGate
b.
c.
d.
e.
a trial of neurostimulation might prove effective at controlling your depression

recurrent depression should be treated indefinitely
mirtazapine (15 mg/day) is an appropriate add-on therapy to control your insomnia
trazodone (50 mg/day) is an appropriate add-on therapy to control your insomnia
98) Which of the following antidepressants would be the least appealing therapeutic choice for C.M.,
a 51-year-old depressed female patient with poorly controlled essential hypertension?
Patients Medication Profile:
Valsartan/hydrochlorothiazide 160/25 mg AM
Amlodipine 10 mg AM
Aspirin 81 mg AM cc
Atorvastatin 10 mg HS
a. Venlafaxine
b. Sertraline
c. Bupropion
d. Citalopram
e. Moclobemide
99)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
All of the following parameters should be monitored during citalopram therapy EXCEPT:
QT interval
bone mineral density
sodium
sexual function
alanine aminotransferase
Page
101)While shopping in a clothing store in a mall on the weekend, a pharmacist noticed people
gathering around an epileptic 37-year-old male client who has just fallen down and started a
tonic-clonic seizure. Fortunately, the pharmacist was cardiopulmonary-resuscitation certified. All
of the following are acceptable first aid care guidelines to be carried out by the CPR-certified
pharmacist in case of a seizure attack EXCEPT:
a. check the persons airway, breathing, and circulation
b. roll person gently on his side
c. place a small piece of cloth in the patients mouth when it is safe to do so
d. protect the persons head by placing some clothes under his head
25
100)Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for schizophrenia?

a. First-degree relative with a history of a psychotic disorder
b. Prenatal malnutrition
c. Substance abuse
d. Low IQ
e. Young age
PharmaGate
e.
move any store hardware, counters, or fixtures away from the person
102)K.D. is a 62-year-old female patient on 0.125 mg digoxin (Lanoxin) for her chronic paroxysmal
atrial fibrillation (AF). Yesterday, she was admitted to the emergency department in the local
hospital due to an abnormal heart rhythm and persistent AF. The hospital pharmacist contacted
her physician to double check her daily digoxin dose. The pharmacist was told that K.D. should
have been on 0.25 mg digoxin and that her dose should have been increased 1 month ago upon
a written prescription from her physician. However, as K.D. lost her prescription, the community
pharmacist dispensed the 0.125 mg dose of digoxin as a remaining refill of what she has been
initially prescribed according to what was recorded on her profile. Implementing key steps of a
root cause analysis, which of the following statements can best identify the main event where
the error could have been prevented?
a. Digoxin 0.25 mg was not available to the pharmacist due to being in short supply
b. The physician did not properly explain to the patient the desired change to a higher dose of
digoxin
c. The hospital pharmacist did not screen the patients profile in order to review her medication
history
d. The community pharmacist did not compare the original hard copy of the prescription initially
received from the patient to the patients profile
e. The community pharmacist did not institute an adequate dialogue with the patient
103)The most appropriate antibiotic or antibiotic combination for preoperative prophylaxis of
appendectomy is:
a. Gentamycin combined with metronidazole
b. Vancomycin combined with metronidazole
c. Ampicillin combined with clindamycin
d. High-dose amoxycillin
e. Ciprofloxacin
Page
105)Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to the use of metformin in a 44-year-old

type-2 diabetic male patient?
a. NYHA-III heart failure
b. Post-myocardial infarction
c. Prior to magnetic resonance imaging
26
104)Clonidine can be used in all of the following indications EXCEPT:

a. menopausal vascular stabilizer
b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
c. neurogenic tics
d. smoking cessation aid
e. opioid-withdrawal diarrhea
PharmaGate
d.
e.
Stage-4 chronic kidney disease

Viral hepatitis C
106)A.Z., a 38-year-old female, visited your pharmacy with an inquiry regarding her condition. She
explained to the pharmacist that she is complaining of mild facial droop on the left side of her
face and a pain in her jaw and ear. She also added that her doctor diagnosed her with peripheral
facial palsy, but did not want to prescribe any medications to her. She mentioned to the
pharmacist that she googled on Bells palsy and understood that cortisone is a good option to
cure her symptoms. What is an appropriate recommendation by the pharmacist?
a. Corticosteroids are not an indication in symptoms of facial paralysis diagnosed as Bells palsy
b. Oral corticosteroids are only indicated to prevent progression of severe forms of her conditions
into stroke
c. Oral corticosteroid should be initiated within 72 hours of symptom onset and should be avoided
in case more than 7 days elapsed from the onset of symptoms
d. Parenteral corticosteroids are more effective than oral forms in her case
e. Vitamin B complex injections are first line to hasten the restoration of neuronal functions
107)In a long-term care facility, distracted, a female registered nurse forgot and applied a
nitroglycerin patch on one of her patients without allowing for a nitrate-free period and
administered the medications of HS [ASA 81 mg and insulin glargine (Lantus) 16 units]
together with those scheduled for AM next day [Synthroid 0/125 mg, Valsartan 80 mg, Glumetza
850 mg]. The patient suffered from morning hypoglycemia.
Which of the following persons should be notified first?
a. The home administrator
b. The nurse on call
c. The family physician
d. The patients family
e. The pharmacist
Page
109)All of the following dosage forms could be directly interchangeable EXCEPT:

a. intravenous injection
b. oral liquid
c. oral tablet
d. oral capsule
27
108)In order to report the aforementioned event, the nurse should contact:
a. Head nurse
b. Home administrator
c. Canada vigilance online reporting
d. www.ismp-canada.org web reporting
e. http://www.hc-sc.gc.ca internet reporting
PharmaGate
e.
transdermal patches
110)Zinc preparations might be therapeutically used to help with all of the following conditions
EXCEPT:
a. alcoholic hepatitis
b. cold sores
c. common cold
d. eczema
e. infantile diarrhea
111)All of the following activities would help a Canadian pharmacy graduate starting his residency
program in hospital pharmacy EXCEPT:
a. shadowing senior pharmacy staff during their ward rounds
b. attending medical rounds in different wards
c. joining interdisciplinary seminars
d. co-precepting PharmD program candidates
e. contributing to an original research and getting involved in medical and scientific publishing
Page
113)As the face of pharmacy is now changing in Canada, many provincial regulatory authorities are
currently endorsing an additional authority to pharmacists to initiate therapies for select patients.
However, this decision is somewhat not well received by some family physicians who support
their rebutting criticism by the notion that prescribing activities is out of the scope of pharmacists
professional practice since pharmacists have not been educated nor trained on disease
diagnosis in internal medicine. On the other hand, many pharmacists professional bodies are
supporting the movement based on the in-depth therapeutic knowledge and expertise of drug
therapies mastered by clinical pharmacists. Which of the following might be the most appropriate
means that could help the pharmacy profession diversifying in terms of professional services
with minimal resistance from medical practitioners?
a. Providing loyalty credits to patients in the course of the provision of professional clinical services
b. Calling nearby family doctors and thoroughly explain the new regulations emphasizing on
collaborative role
28
112)A pharmacist is planning to launch a new clinical service to be provided to elderly people by
allowing the clinical pharmacist staff to do home visits in order to perform medication reviews, in
addition to implementing phone follow-up services thereafter. Which of the following could be
considered the most appropriate marketing tool in order to test the service before launching it?
a. Radio ads
b. Bus stop banners
c. TV commercials
d. Mail newsprint flyers
e. Local newspapers
PharmaGate
c.
d.
e.
Scheduling appointments with physicians in the municipality to discuss the matter and to explain
the rational of clinical pharmacy services and their role in care plans
Faxing explanatory notes to family physicians in the surroundings with a bulleted summary of
pharmacy scope expansion
Participating in local group meetings with general practitioners to discuss the pharmacists
recommendations
114)All of the following knowledge areas would probably be on a community pharmacy blueprint
EXCEPT:
a. dress code
b. personal protective equipment
c. policies and procedures in case of a fire emergency
d. approved floor plan
e. equipment calibration and maintenance procedures
Page
116)M.J. is an HIV positive 52-year-old male who has just started a combination of efavirenz,
lamivudine, and tenofovir (600mg/300mg/300mg, respectively). M.J. complained to his
pharmacist that he has hard time with his treatment because of repetitive nausea and several
episodes of diarrhea, and he thinks that he cannot continue on the treatment as this is very
much annoying to him and is, in fact, disturbing his quality of life. What is an appropriate
counselling by the pharmacist?
a. Ask your doctor to decrease the dose of your regimen
b. Ask your doctor to switch to protease inhibitors
c. Nausea and diarrhea are common side effects for any antiretroviral therapy and they usually
resolve in a few weeks
29
115)H.K. is a 73-year-old female with hypertension, NYHA-III heart failure, atrial fibrillation, and
hypothyroidism. She has been on enalapril 10 mg Q24H, carvedilol 3.125 mg BID, digoxin 0.125
mg Q24H, rivaroxaban 20 mg Q24H, desiccated thyroid 60 mg Q24H and zopiclone 7.5 PRN
HS. H.K. is a resident of a long-term care facility since 2 years after her husband passed away.
H.K. complained to the consultant pharmacist during the usual medcheck that she has been
quite dizzy and nauseated lately and that yesterday she threw up once. The pharmacist on call
is mainly concerned about plausible deterioration of her heart function while also bears in mind
the possibility of digoxin overtreatment. What is the most convenient way to probe the cause of
H.K.s current signs and symptoms?
a. Discontinue digoxin and refer the patient to the closest emergency department
b. Order hsCRP and BNP to assess for decompensated heart failure
c. Order TSH and free T4 to monitor thyroid function
d. Determine digoxin serum levels before next dose to assess for overdigitalization
e. Administer 1 dose of dimenhydrinate and follow up within 24 hours
PharmaGate
d.
e.
Antiretroviral monotherapy is milder and causes transient gastrointestinal adverse effects which
become tolerable upon continued use
Efavirenz is the main cause of your symptoms
117)A few weeks later, M.J. came back to the pharmacy and was a bit confused. He told his
pharmacist that he forgot to take his pill yesterday as he got tied up with achieving the
documentation of a big project approaching the deadline. He wondered what should be done in
that case. An appropriate advice by the pharmacist would be:
a. take the missed dose as soon as you remember as long as it is 12 hours away from other doses
b. skip the missed dose and take your antiretroviral regimen at the regular intervals
c. take 2 doses today at the same time to make up for the missed dose, and return to your regular
dosing schedule
d. take 2 doses of lamivudine and tenofovir only, but do not double the dose for efavirenz
e. take 2 doses of efavirenz only, but do not double the dose for lamivudine or tenofovir
118)A few months later, M.J. visited his community pharmacy again and presented a prescription
which reads: Rx sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim 800/160mg PO daily on Mondays,
Wednesdays, and Fridays for 3 months. M.J. inquired from his pharmacist about the indication
for use of the prescribed medication as he did not fully understand the rationale behind its use
from his family doctor since the clinic was too busy and he did not have the time to talk to the
general practitioner. The most appropriate answer by the pharmacist would be:
a. the indication depends on the causative organism of your current infection
b. the prescription is for long-term postcoital bladder infection prophylaxis
c. the prescribed medication is for the prophylaxis against hiv-acquired pneumonia
d. the prescribed medication is given as a protective treatment to prevent a serious opportunistic
respiratory fungal infection
e. the prescribed medication is given to treat a serious opportunistic respiratory bacterial infection
Page
120)All of the following manifestations might suggest an acute lower urinary tract infection in a 67year-old male EXCEPT:
a. hesitancy
b. dribbling
c. foul-smelling urine
d. cloudy urine
30
119)The most reliable indicator to monitor the aforementioned therapeutic plan is:
a. CD4+ cell count
b. purified protein derivative
c. viral load
d. urine culture
e. serial chest X-ray
PharmaGate
e.
urethral discharge
121)Sh.S. is a 63-year-old Mexican-American female (BMI = 31 lbs/in2) who has been recently
started on perindopril 4 mg QAM as an antihypertensive. Her history is unremarkable except for
a hysterectomy 15 years ago. Sh.S. visited her pharmacist today and complained of wetting
herself involuntarily and of a quite frequent non-productive cough. Her pharmacist inquired
further about her involuntary leakage and lifestyle. Sh.S. explained that she has been annoyed
by dribbling when coughing or doing workouts. Also, she mentioned that she is a light cigarette
smoker and that she drinks 3-4 cups of black coffee.
Sh.S. Medication Profile:
Paroxetine 10 mg HS (for vasomotor symptoms since perimenopause)
Multivitamin QID
Calcium carbonate/cholcalciferol supplement 500mg/400IU TID
All of the following would help control the bothersome symptoms of Sh.S. EXCEPT:
a. stop perindopril
b. reduce your weight
c. reduce your coffee intake
d. do bladder training, timed voiding, and pelvic floor muscle exercises
e. tolterodine L-tartarate immediate release 1 mg BID
Page
123)T.K. is a 23-years-old female who weighs 202 lbs. and who is currently using ethinyl estradiol
(20 mcg) and levonorgestrel (100 mcg) pills (ALESSE 21) for birth control. T.K. presented at
the pharmacy inquiring about a reliable medication which can delay her period because she is
planning to attend a wedding ceremony for one of her friends and does not want to get
embarrassed during the social event. What is the most appropriate advice the pharmacist can
provide for T.K.?
a. To get 1 injection of medroxyprogesterone acetate injection (Depo-Provera) 1 week before the
event
b. To switch to a triphasic extended ethinyl estradiol and norethindrone pill (Ortho 7/7/7)
c. To start a new pack of her pills right after finishing the one on hand
d. To switch to the 28-day regimen (ALESSE 28)
e. To use Plan-B pills on the morning of the social event
31
122)Which of the following therapeutic options would help Sh.S. the most in case none of the
previous strategies worked her problem out?
a. Vaginal estrogen ring (ESTRING 2mg) Q 3 months
b. Oral estrogen replacement with cyclical progestin
c. Oxybutynin extended release (DITROPAN XL 5 mg) Q 24 h
d. Imipramine 10 mg TID
e. Flavoxate hydrochloride 200 mg TID
PharmaGate
124)A 34-year-old female inquired from her pharmacist about an embarrassing curdy vaginal
discharge with itch. All of the following could be considered risk factors for the clients symptoms
EXCEPT:
a. multiple sexual partners
b. antibiotic use
c. diabetes
d. vaginal foam
e. pregnancy
125)B.C. is a new 51-year-old female customer who visits the pharmacy today and approached the
pharmacist with inquiries about her symptoms. She told the pharmacist on duty that lately she
has been enduring episodes of hot flashes and night sweats, and that these symptoms started to
be bothersome to her. She added also that her mood has been fluctuating over the last few
months in addition to a quite disturbed sleep. All of the following are appropriate questions to be
addressed by the pharmacist EXCEPT:
a. when was your last menstrual period?
b. are you currently on any form of oral contraceptive pills?
c. are you a tobacco smoker, and if yes, how many cigarettes per day?
d. have you had a mammographic examination?
e. are you aware of any history of breast cancer in your first degree family members?
Page
127)Which of the following is an appropriate advice which could be given by a pharmacist to a 2

month-old infants mother who is complaining of bothersome signs of rash and runny nose on
her infant and thinks that her baby is allergic to breast milk giving that the mother mentioned that
she is asthmatic and is using inhalers (salbutamol PRN and salmeterol-fluticasone BID)?
a. Avoid allergens in your diet
b. Continue breastfeeding until the age of 9-12 months as these signs are transient
c. Dilute breast milk and keep it frozen for up to 3-4 months until used
d. Partially hydrolyzed cow milk formula is available without prescription and may be useful until 912 months of age
32
126)Which of the following is true regarding prevention and treatment of pinworms?

a. Aerate bedrooms and shake bedclothes before washing them in hot soapy water
b. Vacuuming rugs and carpets of the entire house is an advisable proper hygiene to prevent reinfestation
c. Apply disinfectants to toilet seats to reduce the likelihood of re-infestation by the pinworm eggs
d. Change underwear and sleepwear daily while keeping the used clothes in a closed plastic bag
for 2 weeks in order to destroy the eggs
e. The treatment of choice for a 14-months-old male infant and his near-term pregnant mother is a
single dose of the nonprescription drug pyrantel pamoate equivalent to 11 mg base for every
kilogram body weight with a second dose after 2 weeks
PharmaGate
e.
Soy-based formula is a good alternative to breast milk and will reduce allergic signs
128)The mother visited the pharmacy a few weeks later and reported that her baby has apparently
less bowel movements than what she has been used to. She added that her baby had not
passed stools for 2 days now, whereas previously she was changing soiled diapers at least 3
times per day. She also added that she did not notice any signs of straining nor an altered stool
consistency in spite of the change in defecation frequency. What is a correct advice given by the
pharmacist in this case?
a. Visit your infants pediatrician as soon as you could
b. A watchful waiting
c. Natural prune juice
d. Mild digital manipulation
e. Glycerin infantile suppositories
129)The mother of a 1-year-old girl visited the pharmacy today inquiring about the most reliable
therapy for lice. She explained to the pharmacist that her daughter caught lice infestation
because she attends a daycare. The mother added that she tried permethrin cream (NIX
cream) a couple of weeks ago, and though it seemed promising at the beginning, she noticed
that her daughter still has live insects. The mother finally expressed that she is immensely
distressed by lice infestation. What is an appropriate advice by the pharmacist?
a. Make sure to use adequate amounts of permethrin to wet all damp hair and repeat application
within 7-10 days
b. Soaking hair with vinegar and using a fine-toothed comb twice a week for 2 weeks could be
helpful since permethrin is not suitable for your daughters age
c. Repetitive application of tea tree oil is an effective pediculicide substitute for infants under 2
years
d. Switch to pyrethrins-piperonyl butoxide shampoos as they are more potent ovicidals
e. Dimethicone works differently and is the agent of choice in this case
Page
131)All of the following statements is true regarding the management of atopic dermatitis EXCEPT:
a. bathing for 5 minutes with warm water followed by patting the skin dry will help remove allergens
from the skin surface and rehydrate the skin
b. emollients are first-line therapy for prevention of flares and treatment of minimal irritation and itch
33
130)Which of the following treatment applications will NOT function as a permeation enhancer in
psoriasis therapy?
a. UV light
b. Topical salicylate 5% ointment
c. Topical urea 20% cream
d. Wrapping with plastic tapes
e. Oleagenous base
PharmaGate
c.
d.
e.
topical mid-to-high potency steroid ointments are first-line pharmacological choices for
chronically eczematous hands and feet
hydrocortisone cream is the drug of choice for atopic dermatitis of the face
pimecrolimus can be used intermittently as a steroid-sparing option but could not be applied to
the face and groin
132)All of the following are likely side effects for long-term use of betamethasone valerate EXCEPT:
a. atrophy
b. eczema
c. hirsutism
d. ocular hypertension
e. spider veins
133)All of the following allied health practitioners can contribute to the care plan for a cystic fibrosis
patient EXCEPT:
a. occupational therapist
b. social worker
c. dietician
d. physiotherapist
e. hepatologist
Page
135)H.A. is a 34-year-old female single mother who is expected to deliver her first baby in 6 weeks.
H.A.s medical history shows that she is currently not using any prescription medications except
fluoxetine for depressive illness and that she did not receive previous Tdap vaccination in
adulthood. H.A. medical profile also shows that she is allergic to penicillin and sulfa drugs. H.A.
needs to leave her child after birth with her parents in order to continue her education and to be
able to support the family. Which of the following is an appropriate recommendation for H.A. in
order to protect her baby from pertussis and pertussis-related death?
I.
Get Tdap vaccine right after delivering your baby
II.
Ask your parents to get a dose of Tdap since they will be looking after your child
III.
Make sure your baby receives the first three doses of pediatric Tdap vaccine at 2, 4 and 6
months according to the childhood immunization schedule
a. I only
b. III only
34
134)All of the following foods are NOT restricted for a celiac disease child EXCEPT:
a. rice
b. wheat
c. beans
d. corn flour
e. milk
PharmaGate
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
136)D.L. is a frequent patient visiting your pharmacy who inquired about travelers vaccination before
her planned trip to Dominican Republic in 3 months. D.L. has been diagnosed with atrial
fibrillation and is currently on low-dose ASA for stroke prophylaxis. She is also on levothyroxine
88 mcg per day. D.L. received adequate vaccination according to the immunization schedule in
the present calendar year. In addition, D.L. had already taken a Hepatitis A and B shot as well
as a vaccine shot for Typhoid fever before travelling to Tunisia 5 years ago. What is an
appropriate recommendation by the pharmacist?
a. Hepatitis A and B and Typhoid booster vaccination
b. Hepatitis A and B booster dose only
c. Hepatitis A booster dose and Typhoid vaccine shot
d. Hepatitis B booster dose and Typhoid vaccine shot
e. Typhoid vaccine only
Page
138)M.K. is a female patient weighing 112 lb with a creatinine clearance of 72 mL/min who has been
diagnosed with a serious pseudomonal infection and has been scheduled for a 14-days IV
gentamicin dose of 2 mg/Kg at an infusion rate of 1.7 mL/min for a 50 mL infusion. One hour
after the 4th infusion, the antibiotic blood level was 7.8 mcg/mL. Patient was monitored, and
blood samples drawn 4 hours post-infusion were analyzed and were shown to have an antibiotic
concentration of 3.9 mcg/mL. How long this patient should wait until the next dosing to achieve a
peak blood level of > 5 mcg/mL and a trough level < 0.5 mcg/mL. Vd for gentamicin = 0.3 L.
a. 36 hours
b. 24 hours
35
137)A newly launched derivative of clindamycin, solindamycin, is showing a linear pharmacokinetic

profile. Using the new antibiotic, a physician called the hospital pharmacist inquiring about the
correct dosing of solindamycin in order to achieve desired therapeutic serum levels of 32
mcg/mL and 7.8 mcg/mL taking into consideration the following information: When solindamycin
was administered at a dose of 400 mg, the serum level after 1 hour was 58 mcg/mL and the
level before the administration of the next scheduled dose 36 hours after the 1 st infusion was 7.5
mcg/mL. The physician wants to start solindamycin 200 mg ampules before deciding on dose
escalation pending blood culture results. In order to reach the desired serum levels envisioned
by the physician, what is a correct dosing frequency for the antibiotic infusion?
a. Every 0.5 day
b. Every day
c. Every 1.5 days
d. Every other day
e. Every 3 days
PharmaGate
c.
d.
e.
12 hours
8 hours
6 hours
139)How many milliequivalents of lithium are contained in 5 milliliters of lithium citrate (Li3C6H5O7)
syrup 8 millimole/5 milliliter?
a.
8 milliequivalents
b. 12 milliequivalents
c. 24 milliequivalents
d. 32 milliequivalents
e. 48 milliequivalents
140)How much minimum diluent is needed to weigh 80 mg of digoxin with a 95% accuracy on a
pharmaceutical balance having a sensitivity of 5 mg?
a. 20 mg
b. 25 mg
c. 30 mg
d. 35 mg
e. 40 mg
143)Which of the following is NOT true regarding the number needed to treat (NNT)?
Page
142)A high-intensity statin used in a primary prevention population results in about 2 excess cases of
new diabetes while preventing about 6 cardiovascular disease events per 1000 individuals
treated for 1 year. This data is most consistent with which of the following:
a. NNH 255/4y and NNT 32/4y
b. NNH 9/4y and NNT 25/4y
c. NNH 2000/y and NNT 600/y
d. NNH 2/y and NNT 6/y
e. NNH 498/y and NNT 155/y
36
141)Drug M is 50% renally eliminated as its unchanged form with an elimination that follows firstorder monophasic kinetics with a half-life of 10 hours in adult humans. What will be the half-life
of a 500 mg dose of drug M when administered by the oral route in a 55-year-old patient whose
kidney function dropped to a glomerular filtration rate of 44 mL/min/1.73 m2 from a baseline of 92
mL/min/1.73 m2?
a. 12 hours
b. 10 hours
c. 8 hours
d. 6 hours
e. 4 hours
PharmaGate
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The response to the interventional therapy can be compared to the gold standard comparator in
a randomized trial to compute the NNT
It should be normalized for the follow-up time
It can only be a positive value
Effectiveness of a given intervention can be directly inferred from the NNT
Statistical significance of the difference between treatment and control can be inferred from the
NNT
Page
145)A metaanlysis showed that the number needed to treat (NNT) for amitriptyline 50 mg to at least
cause a 50% neuropathic diabetic pain relief, compared with placebo was 2.4 (CI 95% 2.2 to
2.5) and that for duloxetine 60 mg was 3.8 (CI 95% 3.4 to 4.4) while that for 10 mg oral
oxycodone was 2.9 (CI 95% 2.6 to 3.6).
Which of the following is true?
a. Only 2 interventions show a statistically significant neuralgic pain relief.
b. The variability in pain response in case of duloxetine is larger than in case of oxycodone.
37
144)A total of 3,047 patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia were randomized to placebo,
doxazosin, finasteride or combination therapy with doxazosin and finasteride. Treatment groups
were similar with regard to demographics and select clinical characteristics at baseline. Median
baseline total prostate volume in all patients was 31 ml. The relative risk of benign prostatic
hyperplasia progression for combination therapy vs doxazosin alone and combination therapy vs
finasteride alone in the baseline total prostate volume less than 25 ml subgroup was 0.74 (95%
CI 0.36 to 1.51) and 0.54 (95% CI 0.27 to 1.09), respectively. On the other hand, the relative risk
of benign prostatic hyperplasia progression for combination therapy vs doxazosin alone and
combination therapy vs finasteride alone was 0.50 (95% CI 0.28 to 0.88) and 0.48 (95% CI 0.27
to 0.85), respectively, in the 40 ml or greater baseline total prostate volume subgroup.
All of the following could be inferred from the results of the aforementioned study EXCEPT:
a. there is no significant difference in the risk of benign prostatic hyperplasia progression for
combination therapy relative to doxazosin or finasteride alone in men with baseline total prostate
volume less than 25 ml.
b. there is a significant difference in the risk of benign prostatic hyperplasia progression for
combination therapy relative to doxazosin or finasteride alone in men with baseline total prostate
volume more than 40 ml.
c. combination therapy of doxazocin and finasteride significantly reduces the risk of progression of
benign prostatic hyperplasia in patients with small prostate glands than doxazocin alone
d. combination therapy of doxazocin and finasteride significantly reduces the risk of overall clinical
progression of benign prostatic hyperplasia in patients with enlarged prostate glands when
compared to each drug alone.
e. data suggests that the prostate size plays an important role in dictating which patients with lower
urinary tract symptoms will derive a greater decrease in the risk of overall clinical progression of
benign prostatic hyperplasia with combination therapy compared to doxazosin or finasteride.
PharmaGate
c.
d.
e.
Duloxetine is significantly more effective than oxycodone for diabetic neuropathic pain.
Oxycodone is significantly less effective than amitriptyline at controlling diabetic neuropathic
pain.
Amitriptyline is more effective than oxycodone in dysesthetic pain; however, the statistical
significance of the results could not be verified.
146)Procefime is a newly introduced antipseudomonal cephalosporin to be tested in phase III clinical

trials, the most suitable testing methodology would be:
I. A randomized, controlled, double blind, noninferiority study
II. A randomized, controlled, double blind, superiority study
III. A prospective cohort study
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
147)All of the following dosage forms need to be shaken before use EXCEPT:
a. mometasone furoate nasal spray
b. sumatriptan nasal spray
c. salbutamol HFA metered dose inhaler
d. prednisolone eye drops
e. medroxyprogesterone acetate aqueous injection
148)All the following require priming before usage EXCEPT:
a. budesonide-formoterol turbuhaler
b. fluticasone metered dose inhaler
c. fluticasone nasal spray
d. delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol-cannabidiol buccal spray
e. nitroglycerin buccal spray
Page
150)All of the following statin-drug interactions are medicated through the liver microsomal system
EXCEPT:
a. digoxin
38
149)All of the following drug pairs interact at the pharmacokinetic level EXCEPT:
a. citalopram and ziprasidone
b. atorvastatin and digoxin
c. clarithromycin and warfarin
d. ethinyl estradiol and phenytoin
e. levothyroxine and calcium carbonate
PharmaGate
39
clarithromycin
fluconazole
cyclosporin
verapamil
Page
b.
c.
d.
e.

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PharmaGate

The KnowHow for Success

Oct 21, 2014

Mock MCQ II MCQ Nov 2014

A non-hypertensive nonalbuminuric diabetic 72-year-old male patient diagnosed with occasional

Which of the following is least associated with stroke risk?

All of the following are risk factors for osteoporosis EXCEPT:

The drug has an effect only on developing babies, not on ova.

Which of the following is the least possible side effect of phenytoin?

NONE of the following are characteristics of academic detailing EXCEPT:

discharge and prescribe cloxacillin PO 1 G q6h for 4 weeks

49) Advantages of a step-down treatment in a hospital setting by an IV-PO switch include:

50) (A) Major benefit(s) of IV-PO switch in hospital pharmacy is (are):

left ventricular hypertrophy.

All of the following are among the symptoms of anaphylaxis EXCEPT:

60) Which of the following statements about anaphylaxis is NOT correct?

All of the following are primary sources of information EXCEPT:

71) All of the following is true about tuberculosis EXCEPT:

Compendium of Pharmaceuticals and Specialities

The drug of choice for febrile seizures is:

To report the attempt to the local provincial regulatory authority.

81) The role(s) of a manager pharmacist in a community pharmacy store is (are):

Delays disease progression

Which of the following is the least to be monitored during levodopa treatment?

96) NONE of the following manifestations could be attributed to levodopa/carbidopas (SINEMET)

a trial of neurostimulation might prove effective at controlling your depression

100)Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for schizophrenia?

105)Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to the use of metformin in a 44-year-old

104)Clonidine can be used in all of the following indications EXCEPT:

Stage-4 chronic kidney disease

109)All of the following dosage forms could be directly interchangeable EXCEPT:

127)Which of the following is an appropriate advice which could be given by a pharmacist to a 2

126)Which of the following is true regarding prevention and treatment of pinworms?

137)A newly launched derivative of clindamycin, solindamycin, is showing a linear pharmacokinetic

146)Procefime is a newly introduced antipseudomonal cephalosporin to be tested in phase III clinical

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