Measurements

When using a digital voltmeter and digital ammeter to determine the resistance
of a wire, state one possible random error which could occur in the use of the
digital meters. How could this error be kept to a minimum? Explain why the
voltmeter must have a resistance much greater than that of the wire, which
resistance it is trying to measure, in order to avoid a systematic error in the use
of the voltmeter. [5] N95/III/I
Quantization error (rounding-off error), where the reading is rounded up or down.
Hence a reading of 2.3 could actually be anything between 2.25 to 2.35.
Quantization errors, like all random errors, can be minimized by taking several
readings of V and I and finding the average, or by plotting a graph of V versus I
and drawing a best fit line to even out under and over estimations.
Additionally, using higher voltages and currents, and digital meters with greater
precision and more decimal places will also reduce the random error.
The voltmeter has to have a much greater resistance than that of the wire so that
it will draw minimal current away from the wire when connected across it.
This is to minimize the systematic error arising from the reduction in potential
difference across the wire when the voltmeter is connected.

Kinematics
A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Explain how air resistance would affect the
time taken for the ball to reach its maximum height, and the maximum height to
which it rises. J81/I/13
The time will be shorter. Air resistance increases the downward resultant force
and hence the deceleration experienced by the ball, thus bringing to rest sooner.
(Newtons 2nd Law of Motion) Without air resistance, v=u-gt hence t=(u-v)/g = u/g
since v=0. But with air resistance, t=u/(g+a), where a is the additional nonconstant deceleration due to air resistance.
The maximum height will be lower. Air resistance increases the downward
resultant force and hence the deceleration experienced by the ball, thus bringing
it to rest within a shorter distance. (Newtons 2 nd Law of Motion). Without air
resistance, v=u-2gs hence s=(u-v)/2g = u/2g. But with air resistance,
s=u/2(g+a) where a is the additional non-constant deceleration due to air
resistance.
When a train leaves a station, it accelerates from rest along a straight track.
Explain why, in practice, trains do not have a constant acceleration even though
their engine power remains constant. [3] N90/III/I
In practice, air resistance increase with speed. (F=kv) The resultant force acting
on the train, which is equal to the forward engine force subtract the air resistance,

thus decreases with increasing speed. Since acceleration is proportional to the

resultant force according to Newtons 2 nd Law of Motion, the acceleration
decreases with increasing speed.

When a driver sees the traffic light turn red, he steps on the brake so that the car
will come to a stop. The total stopping distance = thinking distance + braking
distance. Explain why thinking distance is proportional to speed whereas braking
distance is not. Describe in words the relationship between braking distance and
speed. [7] J89/II/9
During the thinking phase, the brake has not been depressed hence there is no
deceleration. Hence the speed is constant during this phase. Since distance
traveled is equal to the product of the cars speed and the reaction time ie. s=ut,
the thinking distance is proportional to speed. The constant of proportionality is
the reaction time t.
During the braking phase, the brake exerts a retarding force on the car hence
there is deceleration. The speed decreases non-linearly with distance hence
braking distance cannot be proportional to speed. Using the equation v=u-2as
s=u/2a. The braking distance is thus proportional to the square of the initial
speed.
An archer tries to hit a target pointing his arrow at an angle to the horizontal.
Neglecting air resistance, the angle calculated is 32 degrees. Suggest with a
reason whether the angle would in practice be larger or smaller than that
calculated for the arrow to hit the target. [3] N2000/II/2
Larger. In practice, there is air resistance hence the arrow will fall short of the
target. In order to reach the target, it thus has to aim to hit further than the
target. The range of the arrow is R=usin2/g. The maximum range occurs when
2=1 ie. 2=90 or =45. The closer the angle is to 45, the larger the range.
Hence if an angle is larger than 45, it should be decreased in order to increase
the range. On the other hand, if an angle is smaller than 45, it should be
increased. In this case 32 is less than the optimal angle of 45, hence the angle
should be increased.
Describe qualitatively the motion of bodies falling in a uniform gravitational field
with air resistance.
A falling object has 2 forces acting on it. Its weight acts vertically downwards.
Drag force due to air resistance acts vertically upwards. Drag force increases with
velocity of the object. When the drag force is equal to the weight of the object,
the object is said to achieve terminal velocity.
In the study of kinematics, we normally adopt a coordinate system as a frame of
reference. Explain why this is necessary. [1] IJC Prelims 08/II/1
It helps us define the starting point for measuring any quantity.

Explain why it is technically incorrect to define speed as distance traveled per

second. Include in your answer the correct statement defining speed. [2] N04/III/1
The second is not the only unit of time measurement, nor is it the smallest
division of time interval. Distance traveled per second is the average speed
within a time interval of one second. Speed should be defined as the rate of
change of distance traveled.
State the conditions necessary for the kinematics equations to be applicable. [2]
N98/III/1
Constant acceleration and linear motion.
How do you reduce air resistance?
By bending the body forward into a more streamlined shape, the initial horizontal
velocity at which the body is projected at is increased, increasing the horizontal
distance moved.

Dynamics
A ship is moving towards the dock is decelerated by its engine. Explain
qualitatively how the law of conservation of momentum applies to this example.
[4] N88/II/8
Considering the ship and water to be one system, the decelerating force is an
internal force. Since there is no net external force acting on the system, the total
momentum of the system is conserved. The momentum lost by the ship is
transferred to the water.
Describe the circumstances under which a body is said to be weightless. J79/I/1
A body is weightless when its acceleration is equal in magnitude and direction to
the gravitational field strength at its location. Under such circumstances, the
reaction force between the body and the floor will be zero.
Case 1: Body in a lift under free fall near the Earths surface. The bodys
acceleration is g, the gravitational field strength is g. Since a=g, the body is
weightless.
Case 2: Body in space station orbiting the Earth. The bodys acceleration is equal
to the gravitational field strength at its location. Since a=g, the body is
weightless.

Case 3: Body which is stationary or moving at constant speed deep in outer

space. The bodys acceleration is zero, the gravitational field strength at its
location is also zero. Since a=g=0, the body is weightless.
Some makes of cars have, as a safety feature, regions at the front and rear which
are designed to collapse on impact. Give a brief physical explanation of how this
design may help to protect passengers from serious injury in the event of a
collision. N85/II/2
In the event of a collision, the initial momentum and final momentum of the car is
predetermined by the speed at which it was traveling. However, by collapsing
upon impact, the safety regions increase the time for this momentum to change.
This reduces the rate of change of momentum of the car and its passengers. Since
the resultant force acting on the passengers is proportional to their rate of change
of momentum (Newtons 2nd Law of Motion), the resultant force acting on them is
less and they are protected from serious injury.

A prototype space gun used

2.67x104m/s. Suggest why it
manned space flights and why
equator pointing eastwards. [4]

to launch satellites accelerates the satellite at

would be impossible to use this space gun for
it would be advantageous to site the gun on the
N90/III/1

The human body is not able to withstand such a high acceleration. Human pilots
can withstand an acceleration up to a maximum of 9g without blacking out. An
acceleration of 2.67x104m/s will represent a force 2800 times a persons weight,
which will not only cause a black out but also crush the astronaut in the satellite,
if it were manned.
The Earth rotates about its own axis from west to east. The space gun can make
use of this initial eastward momentum of the satellite on Earth to fling the satellite
into space, thus reducing the amount of fuel or explosives needed to launch it into
orbit. As locations at the equator have the largest radius of orbit, objects located
at the equator move with the greatest speed and kinetic energy compared to
those located at other latitudes. Hence the total change in kinetic energy of the
satellite between the Earths surface and in orbit will also be the lowest.
Describe the concept of weight as the effect of a gravitational field on a mass.
An object which placed in a gravitational field would experience a gravitational
force. The magnitude of the gravitational force experienced is the weight of the
object. Weight = mass x acceleration due to gravity.
In physics we know that every force is an interaction between two objects. Thus,
forces always come in pairs and they all obey Newtons 3 rd law. Also during the
interaction, the principle of conservation of momentum is observed. In the
following examples, describe briefly how the law and the principle are observed.
a) A tennis ball is released from rest, falls vertically to the floor and bounces back
again. b) An alpha-particle travels from a great distance directly towards a gold
nucleus, which can be assumed to be stationary. The alpha-particle returns along
the same path without penetrating the nucleus. [8] AJC Prelims 08/III/4
a) By Newtons law of gravitation, the tennis ball exerts a gravitational attractive
force acting upward on the floor, so the floor exerts an equal and opposite force
acting downward on the ball. At the point of impact, the ball exerts an
electromagnetic repulsive force on the floor downward, and the floor exerts and
equal and opposite force upward on the ball.
When the ball is released from rest, the total momentum of the ball and the earth
is zero. When the ball is falling down, it gains momentum. The floor is gaining
momentum upward so that the total momentum of the system is zero and
conserved. The upward momentum of the floor is not observed due to the large
mass of the earth and its small velocity. At the point of impact where both have
zero velocity, the total momentum is zero and conserved. Immediately after the

collision, the ball moves upwards with maximum momentum in the upward
direction. The floor will move downwards with momentum so that the total
momentum of the system is zero and conserved. The downward momentum of
the floor again is not felt due to the large mass of the earth and its velocity is so
small that it is not observed. When the ball is moving up, it loses momentum
upward. The floor is also losing momentum downward so that the total
momentum of the system is zero and conserved.
b) There is an electric repulsive force acting on the alpha-particle by the gold
nucleus and an equal and opposite repulsive force acting on the gold nucleus by
the alpha-particle. At the point of closest approach, the alpha-particle exerts the
strongest repulsive electric force on the gold nucleus. The gold nucleus also exerts
an equal but opposite strong repulsive electric force on the alpha-particle.
At the great distance, the momentum of the alpha-particle is towards the gold
nucleus and the gold nucleus has zero momentum. When the alpha-particle slows
down as it approaches the gold nucleus, its loss of momentum is transferred to
the gold nucleus. The gold nucleus will have velocity, hence its momentum is in
the same direction so that the total momentum of the system is conserved.
Immediately after the impact, the alpha-particle moves in the opposite direction
with small speed. Its momentum is in the opposite direction. The gold nucleus will
continue to move with greater momentum in the other direction so that the total
momentum of the system is conserved. When the alpha-particle speeds up in the
opposite direction, its momentum will increase in the opposite direction. The gold
nucleus will speed up in the other direction and its momentum will increase in the
other direction so that the total momentum of the system will remain conserved.
When a neutron hits a stationary carbon atom elastically head on, it loses 0.284
of its kinetic energy and retains only 0.716 of its kinetic energy. Discuss
qualitatively the effect on the kinetic energy lost if the collision is not restricted to
head-on collisions only. Explain why very light particles such as electrons and
massive particles such as uranium nuclei are unsuitable for slowing down
neutrons. [10] N89/II/12
If the collision is glancing and not-head on, the kinetic energy lost by the neutron
will be less than 0.284. This is because only the component of the neutrons
momentum acting along the radial direction of the stationary carbon atom will be
involved in the energy transfer. The tangential momentum, on the other hand, will
be totally retained with the neutron. Hence the kinetic energy transferred from the
neutron to the stationary carbon will be less. In order to slow down neutrons,
neutrons have to transfer their kinetic energy to the stationary nuclei. The closer
the mass of the two colliding bodies, the greater the amount of kinetic energy
transferred. In the case where the masses are equal, as in the case of a neutron
colliding with a proton, 100% of the neutrons kinetic energy will be transferred
and the neutron will stop. Electrons and uranium, on the other hand, have masses
much different from that of the neutron. The mass of the electron is too small

while that of the uranium nucleus is too large. Therefore, only a small fraction of
the neutrons kinetic energy is transferred to these nuclei.
State the relationship between the change in linear momentum of an object, the
constant force acting on the object, and the time for which the force acts. [1]
N04/III/2
The change in linear momentum p of an object is equal to the product of the
constant force acting on it and the time for which the force acts.
Suggest with a reason why the momentum equations would not necessarily apply
if the particles concerned were traveling at speeds close to the speed of light. [1]
N01/III/1
At such speeds, relativistic mechanics replaces Newtonian mechanics in predicting
the behaviour of collisions.
In an elastic collision, the two bodies become temporarily compressed and remain
in contact for a short time. Explain why both bodies have the same velocity at the
time of maximum compression and why their total kinetic energy at this time is
different from the sum of their individual kinetic energies after they have
completely separated. J87/II/9
At the point of maximum compression, the two bodies are stuck together and
moving as one, hence they must have the same velocity. Some of the kinetic
energy is stored as elastic potential energy in the compressed bodies. However,
when the bodies separate, they regain their original shape and the elastic
potential energy is converted back into kinetic energy. No kinetic energy is lost
since the collision is elastic. This is unlike a perfectly inelastic collision, whereby
when the two bodies are stuck together and moving as one, kinetic energy is lost
permanently as heat and sound energy, and cannot be recovered.
In order to reduce the number of road traffic accidents, many countries conduct
research into improving road safety. a) One area of research concerns braking.
State three factors that affect braking which might be considered by researchers.
b) State one other aspect of car safety that could be researched, and suggest
briefly how the research could be conducted. [5] N04/III/2
a) Frictional force between the tire and the road. Skidding due to the tires locking
in abrupt braking situations. Speed of braking action.
b) Shock absorption in the event of collision. Research can be conducted into the
efficacy of the crumple zone at the front and back of the car. The material used
should be stiff enough so that the car does not break apart, yet not so stiff as to
result in an extremely large force of impact. Force sensors placed on dummy
drivers can be used to measure the force of injury in simulated collisions.

Forces
A tennis racket hits a ball. Suggest why in practice it is impossible for a constant
force to be applied to the ball. [2] J97/III/1
As the tennis racket hits the ball, the racket strings undergo extension. The force
exerted by the string increases as the string elongates, according to Hookes Law.
Therefore, it is impossible for a constant force to be applied.
Explain why, when ice floating in a jug of water melts, there is no change in the
level of the water. [2] N02/III/10
Since the ice floats, in accordance with the principle of floatation, the weight of
ice is exactly equal to the weight of the water it displaces. Therefore, the mass of
the ice is equal to the mass of water it displaces. Thus when the ice melts, it will
produce the same volume of water as the water it displaces. The water formed by
the melted ice will exactly replace the water displaced by the ice. Therefore there
is no change in the level of the water.

A mass is added to a vertical spring. The string extends according to Hookes Law.
However, the energy stored in the spring is only half of the loss in gravitational
potential energy of the mass. With reference to the law of conservation of energy,
explain this observation. N86/II/13
When the spring first extends to its final equilibrium position, the loss in the
masss gravitational potential energy is equal to the sum of the springs elastic
potential energy and the masss kinetic energy. However, this kinetic energy is
later lost due to damping factors such as air resistance. Thus, when the spring
settles in its final equilibrium position, it is stationary. The mass has lost all its
kinetic energy, and is left with only the springs elastic potential energy.
A thin plastic bag is found to have weight W when empty and pressed flat. When
the bag is filled with air at atmospheric pressure and re-weighed, the weight is
again found to be exactly W. Explain why the two results are the same. N83/I/2
When the plastic bag is inflated, it displaces a volume of air equal to its own
volume. According to Archimedes Principle, the bag will experience an upthrust
equal in magnitude to the weight of the air that it has displaced. Since this
volume of air is exactly equal to the volume of air which filled up the bag, the
upthrust is exactly the same as the weight of the air injected into the bag. The
two additional forces, being equal and opposite, cancels out each other hence the
bag weighs exactly W.
Suggest some similarities and differences between frictional forces and drag
forces. J79/I/14
Similarities: Both forces are resistive forces which oppose motion.
Both forces result in heat dissipation.
Both forces increase with roughness of bodys surface texture.
Differences:
Friction is independent of speed whereas drag force increases
with speed.
Friction increases with body weight whereas drag force is independent
of body weight.
Friction is independent of surrounding fluid medium but drag force
increases with density of surrounding fluid medium.
Friction is independent of surface area of the body, but viscous drag
force increases with surface area.
For the car, motion is impossible without friction. Discuss what is meant by friction
and the direction in which it acts on the car. In your answer, suggest another
example where friction is useful. [5] N06/III/1
Friction is a type of force that exists between contact surfaces, and which resists
relative motion between the two surfaces or the tendency to such motion. In the
case of the car, the frictional force acts in the forward direction of the car. There is
friction at the contact point between the tires and the road. As the wheels rotate

clockwise, the tires exert a leftward frictional force on the road surface. By
Newtons third law of motion, the road surface will exert an equal but opposite
rightward frictional force on each of the rotating tires. This rightward force is the
forward force which accelerates the car.
Friction is also useful in braking. When the brakes are stepped on, there is a
tendency for the wheels to stop rotating and rub against the road surface. In this
instance, the frictional force acts in the opposite direction to the cars motion. This
produces a deceleration which brings the car to rest.

A cyclist traveling at a constant speed of 15m/s exerts a power of 240W. Explain

why a cyclist traveling at a higher constant speed needs to exert a greater power.
[4] It is often stated that many forms of transport transforms chemical energy to
kinetic energy. Explain why this cyclist is not making this transformation, and
explain what transformations of energy are taking. [5] N99/III/1
Resistive forces opposing the cyclist comprise friction (which is independent of
speed), and air resistance (which increases with speed according to F=kv, where
k is a constant). Since acceleration is zero, resultant force is also zero. Hence
driving force is equal but opposite to resistive force. The power exerted is given
by the formula P=Fv where F is the driving force and v his speed. At the same
time, this force is exerted over a greater distance per unit time. Both increases in
F and v result in an increase in the power.
Kinetic energy = 0.5mv. When speed is constant, kinetic energy remains
constant hence there is no transformation of chemical to kinetic energy. Chemical
energy (in the form of metabolic activity of the cyclist) is used to do work against
resistive forces such as friction and air resistance, and dissipated as heat and
sound energy. The heat transfer raises the internal energy of the bicycle, the
ground and the surrounding air.
State the origin of upthrust.
Upthrust on a body is caused by the pressure difference between its upper and
lower surfaces.
Describe a situation in which motion is produced without friction being required.
[2] N06/III/1
Rockets in space which eject gas to accelerate themselves produce motion
without friction being required. The principles of their motion are the law of
conservation of momentum and Newtons third law of motion the backward
thrust on the gas produces an equal and opposite thrust on the rocket.

Work, Energy and Power

Distinguish between gravitational potential energy, elastic potential energy and
electric potential energy.
Gravitational potential energy arises from interaction between masses, whereby
forces involved are always attractive in nature. Elastic potential energy arises
from interaction between charges, whereby forces involved can be either
attractive or repulsive. Elastic potential energy arises from deformation of a
material whereby forces involved serve to stretch or compress the material.

Discuss the energy changes which take place in the following systems. a) A mass
suspended from a spring and oscillating vertically. b) A nucleus undergoing
radioactive decay. [8] N07/III/4
a) When the mass is at the top of its oscillation, it has maximum gravitational
potential energy. As the mass accelerates downward towards its equilibrium
position, it loses GPE, gains EPE and gains KE. Loss in GPE = Gain in KE + PE. As
the mass passes its equilibrium position, it has lost half its total GPE. Of this GPE
lost, half is converted into KE and the other half stored as EPE. After the
equilibrium position, the tension in the spring decelerates the mass. The mass
slows down and loses KE, continues to lose GPE, but gains EPE. Gain in EPE = Loss
in GPE + KE. Finally at the lowermost position, its GPE=0. Its entire GPE lost is
converted into EPE. In the case where resistive forces are present, the oscillating
system will experience damping and progressively lose total energy due to work
done against these resistive forces. This energy will be dissipated as heat, which
then raises the internal energy of the spring and the surrounding.
b) An unstable nucleus can undergo radioactive decay to emit an alpha particle,
beta particle or gamma radiation. In alpha and beta decay, the stationary
radioactive nucleus disintegrates into two parts: a daughter nucleus and either an
alpha or beta particle. The products have a total rest-mass energy lower than that
of the radioactive nucleus. The lost mass m is converted into energy according
to Einsteins mass-energy equivalence equation E=mc where c is the speed of
light in free space. As mass is lost, binding energy increases hence the products
have a higher binding energy and are more stable than the radioactive nucleus.
Most of this energy is released as the kinetic energy of the products, with the
remainder as electromagnetic radiation mainly in the form of gamma radiation.
The gamma radiation comes from the de-excitation of the daughter nucleus
formed in alpha or beta decay. The daughter nucleus, which is in an excited state,
de-excites and falls to a lower energy state. The energy difference is emitted as
gamma radiation. The energy of the gamma ray photon emitted is equal to the
difference in the quantised energy levels within the nucleus, which are
considerably larger than those of the orbital electrons.

Circular Motion
Use Newtons laws of motion to explain why a body moving with a uniform speed
in a circle must experience a force towards the center of the circle. J78/I/14
When a body moves in a circle, even though the speed remains uniform, its
velocity is continuously changing due to the changing direction. Newtons first law
of motion states that a body will continue in its state of rest or uniform motion in a
straight line, unless acted upon by an external net force. An external net force is
thus required to change the direction of its motion. The direction of change is
always towards the center of the circle. Newtons second law of motion states that
the net force produces an acceleration in the same direction. Since the
acceleration is towards the center of the circle, the force must also be towards the

center of the circle. They are known as the centripetal acceleration and
centripetal force, respectively.

An aeroplane circling the Earth above its equator is said to orbit the Earth.
Discuss the validity of his statement. [2] YJC Prelims 08/III/6
It is not valid. To be in orbit, the acceleration of the aeroplane must be equal to
the gravitational field strength. The aeroplane would be falling freely but here, it
has a thrust force due to its engine.
A table fans blades broke and you glued them back. Use Newtons laws to
explain why the blades might break off again at high angular velocities. [4]
N89/II/9
Newtons first law of motion states that a body will remain in its state of rest or
uniform motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by an external net force.
When the blades undergo circular motion, their direction is continuously changing.
To change the direction of their velocity, a net external force has to be applied.
This is the centripetal force, which is provided by the holding force of the glue
between the blade and the axle of the fan. Centripetal force increases with
angular velocity. At high angular velocities, the centripetal force required exceeds
the holding force of the glue. The blade thus breaks and flies off tangential to its
circular motion, in a straight line uniform motion according to Newtons first law of
motion.
Using energy considerations, suggest why it is difficult to drive a fairground ride
to whirl people on a platform in circular motion at a constant speed. [4] N02/III/2
As the panel rises and falls, it gains and loses gravitational potential energy
respectively. There is a tendency for the platform to lose kinetic energy and slow
down on the way up, and gain kinetic energy and speed up on its way down. To
avoid this, the motors power output has to be increased on its way up and
reduced on its way down. To complicate matters, the rate of gain or loss in
gravitational potential energy is not uniform throughout the motion, varying from
zero when the arms are vertical, to maximum when they are horizontal. To
maintain a constant speed would require very precise control of motor power
output using computerized controllers.
Forces acting on bodies which travel in a circle are responsible for the following.
Suggest an explanation for each. a) A string may snap if it is attached to an object
and the object is spun around a vertical pole. b) The rings of Saturn are centered
on the center of the planet. [4] N06/III/3

a) As the string wraps round the pole, the radius of the circular orbit becomes
progressively smaller. Assuming no loss in kinetic energy of the object due to air
resistance, its speed will remain constant. The tension in the string, which
provides the centripetal force for the objects circular motion is given by T=mv/r.
With a constant mass m and speed v but a progressively smaller orbital radius r,
the tension becomes progressively greater. The string may snap if this tension
exceeds the strings breaking strength.
b) The gravitational force acting on the rings provides the centripetal force for
their circular motion about the planet. Since the gravitational force acts towards
the center of the planet while the centripetal force acts towards the center of the
orbit, the plane of the rings orbit must contain the center of the planet. Any
asteroid which orbits about a circle not centered on the center of the planet will
experience a force which moves it towards the equatorial plane.

Gravitation
Why is it incorrect to call g gravity? [2] J94/II/2
Gravity refers to the gravitational force acting on a body. g is not a force, but
the acceleration due to this gravitational force F. Since F=ma, this acceleration
a=F/m.
The Moon orbits about the Earth with a centripetal acceleration of 0.00271m/s
towards the Earth. Since the Moon is accelerating towards the earth, why does
the Moon not fall and hit the Earth? J91/III/1
The Moon has a tangential momentum which is perpendicular to the gravitational
pull that the Earth exerts on it. The gravitational pull of the Earth on the Moon is
just sufficient to provide the centripetal acceleration required to keep the Moon in
circular motion. The centripetal acceleration keeps altering the direction of the
Moons velocity so that it is always tangential to its circular path, and the
continual falling simply results in a change in the Moons direction of motion.
Since the Earth is round, as the moon accelerates towards it, the Earths surface
curves away at the same angular rate, thus maintaining a constant distance
between the Moon and the Earths surface. Therefore, the Moon will never hit the
Earths surface.
Explain why the center of the Earth is expected to lie on the plane of the moons
orbit. [2] AJC Prelims 08/III/1
The only force acting on the moon is the gravitational force directed towards the
center of the Earth. The moon will only move in the plane where this force lies.
Explain why gravitational potential has a negative value? [2] N94/III/1

Due to the attractive nature of the gravitational force, an external agent has to
exert a force in the opposite direction to the displacement of the mass, in order
not to cause it to accelerate when bringing it from infinity to the point in question.
Since the applied force and the displacement are in opposite directions, the work
done by the external agent is negative. Since potential is defined as work done
per unit mass by the external agent, potential is negative.
Explain why gravitational field strength at the poles is greater than that at the
equator.
Part of the gravitational field strength at the equator is used to provide centripetal
force for circular motion.
Explain why a geostationary satellite is often used in telecommunications.
Its radius of orbit is always fixed at 4.23x10 7m. Therefore its position can be
predicted accurately at all times.
What are the advantages of a low orbit satellite?
Time of transmission is shorter. Less energy is required to bring the satellite to
orbit. Signal of transmission is higher.
Why must a geostationary satellite be above the earths equatorial orbit?
The center of earth is approximately the center of the satellites orbit. All
gravitational force exerted by the satellite provides centripetal force required for
circular motion. There is no net force acting on the satellite.
Explain why the energy at infinity is normally taken to be zero. [1] IJC Prelims
08/III/4
The force between the respective two entities is negligible. Thus, the potential
energy at infinity is zero and it is used as a reference for other potential energy.
State the condition(s) under which the equations to find the gravitational
potential energy U=mgh and U=-GMm/r may be used. [2] MJC Prelims 08/II/2
The first equation can be used to find the change in gravitational potential energy
due to a change in the distance h when distance h is << the radius of the planet,
meaning it is very close to the surface of the planet. The second equation can be
used to find the gravitational potential energy associated with an object of mass
m at a distance r from the centre of another object M, regardless of this distance.
Suggest two advantages of low polar orbits and two advantages of geostationary
orbits. [4] N07/III/5

Satellites in low orbits are closer to the Earth hence their signals are received
more strongly. These satellites can fly over and serve every part of the world
equally. A geostationary satellite allows continuous transmission between the
ground station and the satellite, since they are always at the same spot above the
equator. Less energy is also required to launch and maintain it.
Communications satellites lose speed due to friction. Discuss this consequence in
its motion of not correcting for this loss. [2] YJC Prelims 08/III/6
As the satellite loses speed, it would drop to a lower height and it will increase in
speed.

Thermal Physics
State why the thermodynamic scale of temperature is called an absolute scale.
[2] J90/II/6
This means that the temperature on such a scale is not dependent on the
thermometric property of any particular substance and has absolute zero as its
minimum temperature. Its fixed point, absolute zero, is not dependent on any
particular substance but rather is the temperature at which all substances have a
minimum internal energy.
List the basic assumptions of the kinetic theory of gases. J77/I/16
A gas consists of a large number of molecules in constant random motion and
which obey Newtons laws of motion.
Inter-molecular forces of attraction are negligible.
Collisions are elastic on average.
The volume of the molecules is negligible compared to the volume occupied by
the gas.
Collisions are of negligible duration compared to the duration between collisions.
What experimental evidence is there that the assumption that the collisions of the
molecules with the walls of the container are elastic is reasonable? N84/I/17
Collisions are elastic as the temperature of the insulated cylinder of gas is
constant. The temperature of an insulated cylinder of gas remains constant
provided no heat lost to surrounding. Temperature is proportional to the average
kinetic energy of gas molecules. The fact that temperature remains constant
shows that collision is elastic. Otherwise, the temperature will keep falling with
time as molecules lose their kinetic energy.
How may an isothermal compression of a gas be achieved in practice? N78/I/15
Heat is removed from the system at the same rate that work is being done on it.

Two different gases at the same temperature have molecules with different mean
square speeds. Explain why is this possible. [2] ACJC Prelims 08/III/2
Gases at the same temperature have the same average translation kinetic
energy. However, different gases have different masses, therefore mean square
speed is different.
In the upper atmosphere, a large fraction of the hydrogen molecules travel so fast
that they are able to escape from the Earth. There may also be some loss of
helium, but for all other heavier molecules escape in negligible. Explain a) fast
molecules are able to escape form the Earths atmosphere but slow molecules are
not; b) molecules of smaller mass are able to escape whereas more massive ones
are not; c) some molecules escape even though the speed required for escape is
very much greater than their root-mean-square speed. J89/II/10
a) Fast molecules have sufficient kinetic energy to overcome their potential
energy due to Earths gravitational pull. They will escape if their speed exceeds
the escape speed of the Earth, which is approximately 11km/s.
b) For the same temperature, root-mean-square speed is inversely proportional to
the square-root of a molecules mass. Smaller molecules thus have greater rms
speeds and thus more likely to exceed the escape speed.
c) Root-mean-square speed is juts a form of average speed. Even at the same
temperature, there are molecules with speeds much greater and much less than
the rms speed. Those that are much faster may exceed the escape speed, and
thus escape.

If two sufficiently energetic sodium atoms collide, an electron in one of them may
be raised to a higher energy level. a) Explain why such a collision is called an
inelastic collision. b) Briefly explain why such inelastic collisions are not consistent
with basic assumptions of the kinetic theory of gases. J90/III/3
a) When the sodium atom is raised to a higher energy state, the energy is gained
from the kinetic energy of the colliding sodium atoms. The colliding atoms thus
lose part or all of their kinetic energy. Since kinetic energy of the system is not
conserved, the collision is inelastic.
b) Kinetic theory of gases assumes that molecules make elastic collisions so that
their average kinetic energy, and hence temperature, remains constant. If
collisions are inelastic, then colliding molecules progressively lose their kinetic
energy and gradually slow down. The temperature of the gas thus progressively
decreases, even though no heat is supplied / removed or work done on / by the
system.
Explain why the specific latent heat of vaporization of a substance is much larger
than the specific latent heat of fusion. N97/III/5
During boiling, the liquid absorbs heat known as the latent heat of vaporization.
This heat breaks the intermolecular bonds between molecules and separates
them to a great distance apart, as well as pushes back the atmosphere. During
melting, the heat absorbed, known as the latent heat of fusion, does not break the
intermolecular bonds completely or separate the molecules to a great distance
apart. The heat merely modifies the bonds from a rigid structure to a form that
allows relative motion amongst molecules. Less energy is required. Furthermore,
the change in volume in the substance is negligible during melting hence little
work is done on or by the system.
Explain the following observations a) when pumping up a bicycle tyre the pump
barrel gets warm; b) when a gas at high pressure in a container is suddenly
released, the container cools. [2] CJC Prelims 08/III/2
a) External work done on the gas during compression causes the internal energy
to increase. Since the internal energy is proportional to the temperature, the
temperature increases.
b) The gas undergoes sudden expansion and internal energy is used do work
against external pressure. This causes the internal energy of the gas to decrease,
hence the temperature decreases and the container cools.
Internal energy is determined by the state of the system. Explain what this
means. [2] PJC Prelims 08/III/1

A system is at a definite state when it is at equilibrium under a given set of

conditions. The system has a specific pressure, volume, number of moles and
molecules and thermodynamic temperature values that correspond to that state.
Internal energy is determined by the values of the current state and is
independent on how the state is arrived at. If a system undergoes a series of
change from one state to another, its increase in internal energy is the same,
regardless of which path it has taken.
Suggest how an isothermal expansion can be achieved in practice. [2] HCI Prelims
08/III/2
The process must be carried out very slowly so that heat has time to flow in or out
to maintain constant temperature. The walls of the container must be a good
conductor.
Bubbles are formed in water when water boils. Explain why the bubbles in boiling
water get larger as they approach the surface. [1] PJC Prelims 08/III/1
The pressure of water decreases with a decrease in depth of water. The bubble
experiences less pressure as it approaches the surface. Since PV=nRT, the volume
of the air bubble is inversely proportional to the pressure it experience. Therefore
the volume increases as it approached the surface.
Explain why the melting of ice takes place without a change in temperature. [3]
TPJC Prelims 08/II/1
Heat energy that ice absorbs from the surrounding when it is melting is used to
increase potential energy of water molecules. Heat energy has not been used to
increase the average kinetic energy of the water molecules. Thermodynamic
temperature of matter is directly proportional to its average kinetic energy, hence
melting of ice takes place without a change in temperature.
Explain what is meant by an ideal gas. N07/III/6
An ideal gas is a hypothetical gas that obeys the equation of state of an ideal gas
perfectly at all temperatures and pressures. A real gas approaches ideal
behaviour at very low pressures and high temperatures.
Outline how molecular movement causes the pressure exerted by a gas. [2]
N99/III4
Gas molecules are in continuous random motion. When a molecule collides with
the walls of a container, it exerts a force which is proportional to its mass, speed
and frequency of collision. The force by all molecules acting per unit surface area
is the pressure exerted by the gas.

Outline an electrical method to determine the specific latent heat of vaporization

of water. [4] N98/III/5
An electric kettle, with voltage rating V and current rating I, contains some water
and is placed on a balance. The kettle is switched on and when the water is
boiling, the reduction in the balance m within a time interval t is recorded. The
specific latent heat of vaporization l v can be calculated from the following
equation: lv=IVT/m. Errors resulting from re-condensation of steam at the mouth
of the kettle, as well as heat loss to the surrounding, should be minimized with
appropriate measures.

Outline the principles involved in measuring the specific heat capacity of a liquid
using an electrical method. [4] N01/III/5
An insulated container contains the substance which specific heat capacity is to
be measured. An electric heater is placed in the liquid. A thermometer is used to
measure the temperature of the liquid and a stirrer ensures the temperature is
evenly distributed throughout the liquid. The heater is switched on for a
predetermined period of time t. The rise in temperature of the liquid within this
time interval is recorded. The voltage V and current I is recorded from the
voltmeter and ammeter respectively. The specific heat capacity of the liquid can
be found from the equation c=IVT/(m ).
State two reasons why the temperature of a body is not a measure of the quantity
of thermal energy in the body. [2] N06/II/4
Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the molecules whereas
the thermal energy in a body is its total energy. Temperature only measures the
kinetic energy of the molecules whereas thermal energy includes both their
kinetic and potential energy.

Superposition
An experiment is conducted to obtain the displacement-time graph and
displacement-distance graph of a sound wave. Suggest an experimental method
for obtaining the displacement-time graph. Discuss whether the same method
could be used for the displacement-distance graph. [6] N96/III/2
The displacement-time graph can be obtained by placing a microphone in the
path of the sound wave, and connecting the output from the microphone to an
oscilloscope. The microphone acts as a transducer to convert sound energy into
electrical energy, such that the amplitude of the microphones voltage output is

proportional to the amplitude of the sound wave. The x-axis of the oscilloscope is
the time base. The oscilloscope displays voltage-time graph of the microphone
output, and thus the displacement-time graph of the sound wave.
The same method cannot be used for the displacement-time graph because the
oscilloscopes horizontal axis is time and not distance. Displacement-distance
graph shows the displacement of all the particles along the wave at one instant in
time. To produce the displacement-distance graph, multiple microphones must be
placed along the sound wave, and all the microphone outputs connected to a
data-logger which records all of their voltage outputs simultaneously. Their values
are then plotted against distance to obtain the displacement-time graph.

It is possible to use two separate oscillators feeding two loudspeakers to

demonstrate interference of sound. It is not possible to use two filament lamps,
however similar, to produce interference of light. Explain the difference. How
could you modify the experiment in order to show interference of light? [4]
J91/III/2
Provided the two sound oscillators are identical, they will maintain a constant
phase difference. This ensures that both waves are coherent a condition for
interference to occur. Light from a filament lamp is emitted in random pulses, with
different phases emitting from different parts of the filament. Even if two filament
lamps emit the same frequency of light, their wave trains are not able to maintain
a constant phase difference between each other. Since they are not coherent, the
two sources of waves are not able to produce interference. Use a single light
source and place a third slit behind the double slits. The third slit ensures that the
light waves arriving at the double slits are from a single point source and thus
coherent. Alternatively, laser light can be used since laser light is coherent.
Describe an experiment by which the frequency of a stationary wave can be
accurately determined. [5] N90/III/3
Place a light gate transmitter-received pair across an antinode of the vibrating
string. Connect the output of the light gates receiver to a CRO. When the string is
not blocking the light gate, the light gate receivers output is high hence the CRO
displays a high voltage. When the string passes through the equilibrium position
and comes between the light gates transmitter and receiver, the light is blocked.
As a result, there is a brief drop in the light gate receivers output, resulting in a
dip in the CROs voltage display. The time-interval between two successive
voltage drops is half a period. From the period T, the frequency f=1/T.
Explain what is meant by interference with reference to a stationary wave on a
stretched spring. [3] N95/III/3
When the string is plucked in its center, progressive waves emerge in both
directions from the center of the string. When the waves reach the ends of the
string, they are reflected by a phase angle of 180 due to the ends being fixed.
These reflected waves, traveling in opposite directions, superpose with each other
to produce a stationary wave. At locations where the reflected waves are in phase
with each other, they undergo constructive interference to produce antinodes with
twice the amplitude of vibrations of each wave. At locations where they are 180
out of phase with each other, they undergo destructive interference to produce
nodes with zero amplitude of vibration. Energy is redistributed from the minima to
the maxima.
If Youngs double-slit experiment were conducted underwater, how would the
observed interference pattern be affected?

The speed of electromagnetic radiation underwater will be much slower than that
in a vacuum. The wavelength of the wave will decrease and fringe spacing of
observed interference pattern will decrease.

The speed v of a progressive wave is given by the expression v=f. A stationary

wave does not have a speed. By reference to the formation of a stationary wave,
explain the significance of the product f for a stationary wave. [3] N04/II/4
A stationary wave is formed by the superposition of two progressive waves of the
same type with equal speed, frequency, wavelength and amplitude traveling in
opposite directions. The product f in a stationary wave refers to the speed of the
two progressive waves that superpose to form the stationary wave. Due to the
two waves having the same speed f but different directions, their velocity
vectors cancel out resulting in the stationary wave not traveling in either
direction.
Explain why it is usually necessary to adjust either the vibrating length of the
string or the frequency of the vibrator in order to obtain observable stationary
waves on the string. N95/III/3
Both ends of a stretched string are nodes since they are fixed in position and not
able to move. In order for a stationary wave to be set up in a stretched string, the
length of the string must be an integer multiple of 0.5. If the frequency, and thus
wavelength, is fixed, then the length of the vibrating string must be adjusted to
accommodate the condition that its length is an integer multiple of 0.5. However,
if the vibrating length of the string is fixed, then the wavelength can be adjusted
to accommodate the condition, by varying the frequency of vibration, since =v/f.
Suggest why two-source interference of water waves, using a double-slit
arrangement, may not be observed when the slits are wide but, when the slits are
narrow, interference is observed. J96/III/3
When the slits are wide, the water waves do not diffract much. Their wavefronts
pass straight through the slits and their paths do not cross. Since their wavefronts
do not meet, the two waves are not able to interfere with each other. When the
slits are narrow, the water waves diffract significantly. Their wavefronts spread
out in a semi-circular profile. Where their wavefronts meet, the two waves are
able to interfere. At locations where the waves are in phase with each other, they
interfere constructively to produce intensity maxima. Where the waves are 180
out of phase, they interfere destructively to produce intensity minima.
Diffraction gratings can be used to determine the wavelength of electromagnetic
radiation. Suggest one advantage and one disadvantage of obtaining the
wavelength by using observations of the second-order diffracted light rather than
the first-order diffracted light. N95/III/3
Second order diffracted beams make larger angles with respect to the central
axis. The percentage uncertainty in the measured angle will thus be lower.
Second order diffracted light has a lower intensity due to the diffraction envelope
constraint resulting from diffraction of light from each individual slit. This causes
the diffracted beams intensity to be progressively lower the further it is from the
central axis, making observation of the maxima more difficult.

Describe briefly how you would confirm that the laser beam is plane-polarised. [2]
JJC Prelims 08/III/2
Pass the laser beam through a polariser. As the polariser is rotated in plane
perpendicular to the beam, the intensity of the emerging beam should vary from a
maximum to zero or vice versa.
Both diffraction and superposition of waves occur when a diffraction grating is
used to produce a spectrum. The same principles are involved when a compact
disc is viewed in white light and is seen to produce multicoloured streaks of light.
Explain how a diffraction grating produces a spectrum and suggest what this
implies about the nature of the surface of the CD. [5] N94/III/2
When white light passes through a diffraction grating, the light waves diffract and
spread out from each of the many slits. The spreading wave fronts then interfere
with one another. At certain angles where the light waves are in phase, they
interfere constructively to produce intensity maxima. These angles where the
maxima occur depends on the wavelength of the light according to the equation
dsin=n where d is the slit separation and n the order of the maxima. Since
white light comprises a whole range of wavelengths, each wavelength of light will
have its maxima at a different angle, thus producing a spectrum.
The fact that the CD is seen to produce a spectrum suggests that the surface of
the CD has a diffraction grating-like structure. The indentations on the surface of
the CD must be regularly spaced just like a diffraction grating. Each indentation is
a small mirror and reflects white light incident upon it. The reflected light from all
the indentations is similar to the multiple source of light wave spreading out from
the slits of the diffraction grating. They interfere with one another to produce a
spectrum as in the case of a diffraction grating.
Light from a laser is produced via stimulated emission, whereas light form a
fluorescent tube is produced via spontaneous emission. Compare the light from
these two sources in terms of phase difference and deduce the effect this has on
the experimental setup for a double-slit interference experiment using laser light.
[2] YJC Prelims 08/II/3
All photons produced by stimulated emission in a laser have the same phase
difference, whereas those produced by spontaneous emission do not. Thus for a
double-slit experiment, light from a single laser source incident on the double slits
will produce an interference pattern.
Explain why a stationary sound wave set up in a closed tube looks like a
transverse wave although sound waves are longitudinal waves. [2] N06/III/4

This is only a schematic graphical representation of the displacement of the air

molecules in the sound wave. Since sound wave is a longitudinal wave, the air
molecules vibrate parallel to the axis of the pipe. The air molecules actually
vibrate in a horizontal direction (left and right) but the schematic graphical
representation is such that a rightward displacement is represented as positive
while a leftward displacement is represented as negative.
The band is practicing in the band room down the corridor with the door left
slightly ajar. Explain why notes of a certain range of frequencies can be heard
more clearly than others at the end of the corridor. [2] HCI Prelims 08/III/7
Low-pitched notes have longer wavelengths and undergo more diffraction through
the door.

Oscillations
Some sand is placed on a flat horizontal table and plate is made to oscillate with
simple harmonic motion in a vertical direction. With the frequency of oscillation
kept constant at 13Hz, the amplitude of oscillation of the plate is gradually
increased. Explain at which point the sand loses contact. [3] J99/III/4
The sand starts to lose contact with the oscillating table when the maximum
downward acceleration of the table exceeds the acceleration of free fall of the
sand. Maximum downward acceleration occurs at the maximum upward
displacement position. When the amplitude of oscillation exceeds 1.47mm, the
maximum acceleration exceeds that of free fall. When this happens, at its
maximum displacement position, the table accelerates downwards with greater
magnitude than the sands acceleration due to free fall. This will cause the
subsequent downward velocity of the table to exceed that of the sand. The
contact force between the sand and table falls to zero and the sand loses contact
with the table.
A block of wood of mass m floats in still water. When the block is pushed down
into the water, without totally submerging it, and is then released, it bobs up and
down in the water with a frequency f. Surface water waves are then incident on
the block. These cause resonance in the up-and-down motion of the block.
Describe and explain what happens to the amplitude of the vertical oscillations of
the block after the following changes are made. a) Water waves of larger
amplitude are incident on the block. b) The distance between the wave crests
increases. c) The block has absorbed some water. [6] N94/II/2
a) The amplitude of the block increases. The energy of a wave is proportional to
the square of its amplitude. Waves of larger amplitude possess greater energy,
thus transferring a greater amount of energy to the block.

b) Resonance no longer occurs hence the amplitude of oscillation decreases.

Distance between wave crests is the wavelength . Since speed of wave v=f and
v is constant, a larger means a lower frequency f. The frequency f of the driving
force drops below that of the natural frequency of the block.
c) Resonance no longer occurs hence the amplitude of oscillation decreases.
When the block absorbed some water, its mass increases. The natural frequency
decreases. The frequency of the driving force is now above the natural frequency
of the system.
State one situation in which resonance is used to advantage. [1] J97/II/2
Radio tuners natural frequency adjusted to resonate with frequency of radio wave
of the station it intends to receive.

A mass-spring system is used to demonstrate the effects of damping on the

oscillation of the mass. Suggest how light damping of the oscillations may be
achieved and how the degree of damping may be increased. [4] N2000/II/3
Light damping may be achieved by attaching a light piece of cardboard to the
mass thus increasing its effective area and air resistance experienced by it. The
degree of damping may be increased by immersing the mass in a viscous liquid
such as glycerine, which provides a large viscous drag force against the motion.
This causes large amounts of energy to be dissipated from the body.
Discuss the behaviour of a car when the shock absorber mechanism is working
correctly. N78/III/1
A shock absorber mechanism should be critically damped. When a car goes over a
hump, there is an immediate compression of the suspension springs. A properly
working mechanism should then return the spring to its uncompressed position in
the shortest time, without overshooting the equilibrium position.
Resonance can cause considerable engineering problems. Explain one such
problem and suggest ways in which it can be overcome. [4] N98/III/2
When resonance occurs, the system vibrates with maximum amplitude and
energy. This vibration creates tremendous stress on mechanical structures and
may cause them to breakdown. One such problem is in building and bridge
structures. If the frequency of the gusts due to high speed winds coincides with
the natural frequency of the bridge, the bridge may resonate and vibrate with
maximum amplitude. This problem can be overcome by increasing the damping of
the system through the use of shock absorbers.
Describe 2 practical examples of forced oscillations and resonance.
Microwave oven Microwaves will cause the water molecules in the food to
vibrate. If the frequency of the microwave is the same as the natural frequency of
the water molecules, resonance occurs and the water molecules will vibrate with
maximum amplitude, hence heating up the food.
Breaking of a glass by a singer sound waves from the singer will cause the glass
molecules in the glass to vibrate. If the frequency of the sound wave is the same
as the natural frequency of the glass molecules, resonance occurs and the glass
molecules will vibrate with maximum amplitude, and hence may break the glass.
If a truck travels at a certain speed over a series of speed bumps, the vertical
oscillations can be very large. Explain why this is so. [2] MJC Prelims 08/II/2
Resonance occurs. The frequency of passing over the bumps matches the natural
frequency of the truck.

Damping is very often necessary when unwanted oscillations occur in machinery

such as a washing machine or a dishwasher. Describe the factors that determine
the frequency at which unwanted oscillations occur and the principles that are
used in damping out these oscillations. [5] H2 Specimen Paper 07/III/6
The frequency of unwanted oscillations is the natural frequency of the system.
The natural frequency of a system is determined by factors such as the inertia of
the system (mass), the elastic restoring force acting on it (spring constant) and
the dimensions of the system. For machinery like washing machines and
dishwashers, their mass, springiness of their metal frames and dimensions of their
casings determine their natural frequency and frequency of unwanted oscillations.
Damping involves the reduction of amplitude of an oscillating system through the
application of external resistive forces that results in energy being dissipated from
the system. This can be achieved by using dampers. Dampers can be in the form
of viscous fluids or solid material with dissipative properties attached to the parts
of the machine that are likely to experience the most vibrations.

Waves
The wavelength of sound in air is of the order of one million times greater than
the wavelength of light in air. Describe how you could check this statement
experimentally. [8] N04/III/3
The wavelength of a wave can be determined using two-source interference
experiments. To determine the wavelength of sound, connect two loudspeakers to
a single sound oscillator. Face the two speakers towards a wall several metres
away. Move a microphone along the wall to detect variations in sound intensity.
There will be intensity maxima corresponding to constructive interference of the
two sound waves, and minima corresponding to destructive interference. Select a
maximum that is nth order from the central axis maximum. Measure the distance
from each speaker to this maximum and subtract them to obtain the path
difference. The path difference divded by n will be the wavelength of the sound.
To determine the wavelength of light, use Youngs double-slit experiment. A
monochromatic light source is placed behind the double slits, with a third slit
between them to ensure coherence. Bright and dark fringes will be observed on
the screen. Since the angle of diffraction is small in this experiment, the Youngs
double-slit formula y=D/d can be used to calculate the wavelength of the light.
The experimental results will show that the wavelength of sound waves is in the
order of metres; while that of light waves in the order of micrometres.

Distinguish between the displacement of a vibrating object and the amplitude of

vibration. [3] J99/III/4
Displacement is the shortest distance from the equilibrium position to the object
at any instant in time. Amplitude is the maximum displacement of the object from
its equilibrium position, in either direction.

What phenomenon associated with transverse waves is not observed with

longitudinal waves? N90/III/3
Polarisation. Transverse waves vibrate perpendicularly to its direction of
propagation, and possess many possible planes of vibration. Polarisation
eliminates all planes of vibration except the plane which is parallel to the allowed
axis of transmission of the polarizer. Longitudinal waves vibrate parallel to its
direction of propagation, and possess no plane of vibration parallel to the allowed
axis of transmission of the polarizer. Therefore, longitudinal waves cannot be
polarized.

Electricity
Discuss briefly whether it is practicable to suggest that power losses as heat can
be reduced indefinitely by a suitable choice of generator pd. N81/1/7
Theoretically, power loss can be reduced infinitely by increasing the generator pd
by using step-up transformers at the generator output. However, extremely high
voltages tend to cause insulation breakdown between live and neutral wires /
insulation breakdown between windings in the high-voltage secondary coil of the
transformer / electromagnetic interference with the telecommunication
equipment. Hence, there is a limitation to how high the voltage can be stepped
up.
Why do the I-V graphs of a filament of a torch bulb and a piece of intrinsic
semiconductor differ in shape? N89/III/5
The resistance of a metallic conductor increases with temperature. As the voltage
and current increase, the power dissipated increases causing significant heating.
This increases the ionic lattice vibration within the metal, causing increasing
collisions with the drifting free electrons. The drift velocity of the electrons
decreases; the filaments conductivity falls; and resistance rises. Since R=V/I, this
ratio increases thus causing the graph to concave downwards.

The resistance of a semiconductor decreases with temperature. As the voltage

and current increase, the power dissipated increases causing significant heating.
This energy causes more electrons to be released from their bonds. The charge
carrier density of the semiconductor increases; its conductivity rises; and
resistance falls. Since resistance R=V/I, this ratio decreases causing the graph to
concave upwards.
By taking the average value of power dissipated at different temperatures,
energy supplied by battery during period which temperature changes can be
calculated. However, this calculation is only an estimate. Explain.
Since power does not vary linearly with resistance, this method will not yield an
accurate value of power dissipated when resistance changes.

Explain why power is required to maintain an electric current through a metallic

conductor. [4] J98/III/2
The flow of current is a result of electrons drifting in the opposite direction.
Electrons drifting through the conductor constantly collide with the metal ions in
the lattice, passing energy to the ions, causing them to vibrate, and resulting in a
rise in the temperature of the conductor. In order to prevent the electrons from
slowing down after the collision, a continuous amount of energy must be supplied
by the potential difference across the conductor. This potential difference creates
an electric field which immediately accelerates the electrons back to their
terminal drift velocity after each collision with the ionic lattice. In this way, the
power supplied by the potential difference balances the power dissipated as heat
by the vibrating ionic lattice, in accordance with the law of conservation of energy.
In using a simple slide-wire potentiometer circuit, a large protective resistance is
sometimes connected in series with the galvanometer. Why is this done? Explain
how the presence of this resistance affects a) the position of the balance point, b)
the precision with which it may be found. J84/I/7
This resistance limits the current flowing through the galvanometer, preventing it
from being damaged. When the potentiometer is still far from its balance point,
there could be a large potential difference across the galvanometer. Since the
galvanometers resistance is low, the current flowing through it could be
extremely high if not limited by the protective resistance. This protective
resistance does not affect the position of the balance point. At the balance point,
there is no potential difference across the galvanometer. The current will thus be
zero whether or not the protective resistance is present. However, this protective
resistance reduces the precision with which the balance point may be found. This
resistance reduces the current through the galvanometer, thus making it less
sensitive to small changes in potential difference. To overcome this problem, a
dual-resistor system is used whereby the protective resistance is switched to a
lower value when the jockey is near the balance point. By then, the potential
difference across the galvanometer will be quite small.
Explain the use of a thermistor and a light-dependent resistor in potential dividers
to provide a potential difference which is dependent on temperature and
illumination respectively.
A thermistor is sensitive to temperature changes. When temperature increases,
resistance decreases. Hence current from the DC source will increase. Hence, the
potential difference across the resistor increases. A light dependent resistor is
sensitive to illumination. When illumination increases, resistance decreases.
Current from the DC source will increases. Hence, the potential difference across
the resistor will increase.

Use Faradays law of electromagnetic induction to explain why a transformer will

operate for an alternating voltage input but not for a direct voltage input. [2] AJC
Prelims 08/III/3
An alternating voltage input causes a changing magnetic flux which links the
primary coil to the secondary coil. As a result of electromagnetic induction, a
changing emf is produced in the secondary coil. A direct voltage input does not
provide a changing magnetic flux and thus, no emf is induced in the secondary
coil.
In a potentiometer setup, the instructions suggested that the galvanometer be
set to different resistance levels (high or low) for the initial estimation of balance
length and for the final, more accurate verification. Suggest which resistance
levels should be chosen for each measurement. Explain your answer. [4] AJC
Prelims 08/III/6
Initially, high resistance is necessary to protect the meter against possible high
current. For final verification, a change from high to low resistance means that
there will be a current flowing through the galvanometer even at the balance
point that has been determined initially. Hence, a more accurate balance point
can be determined with fine adjustment till the galvanometer reflects null
deflection again.
If the equation V=IR is used to define resistance, why is it not possible then to use
the same equation to define potential difference? [1] CJC Prelims 08/II/4
Resistance of a resistor is defined as the ratio of potential difference across the
resistor to the current through it. Therefore, potential difference cannot be defined
using resistance. This is because physical quantities must be defined in sequence.
Explain why a railway employee who touches the track through which there is a
current of 180A does not get an electric shock. [2] N98/III4
This is because there is no potential difference between the railway employee and
the track. Electric current flows from a region of higher to lower electric potential.
Both the railway employee and the track are in contact with the earth, and thus
are grounded at the same earth potential. Since the employee and the track are
at the same potential, current will not flow either way.
Explain why a high voltage supply is essential for a railway system. [2] N98/III/4
High voltages result in lower transmitted current, since I=P/V where transmitted
power is a constant. A lower current reduces the power loss as Ploss=IR where R
is the resistance of the transmission cable. A lower current either increases the
efficiency of transmission or, if efficiency is to be maintained, allows a thinner wire
with higher resistance to be used, thus saving on cabling costs.

Explain why a different current is needed when the train is climbing a hill from
that required when traveling at the same speed on the flat. [2] N98/III/4
When climbing a hill, additional work needs to be done against gravity which is
converted into potential energy of the train. Engine power P=IV=Fv where F is
force exerted and v the speed of the train. Since speed v is constant but a greater
force F has to be exerted to overcome gravity, a greater current I has to be drawn
to provide the additional power required. This is in accordance with the law of
conservation of energy.
Describe electrical conduction in a metal. [1] N99/III/5
When a potential difference is applied across the ends of a metal, an electric field
is set up. This field exerts an electric force on the free electrons, causing them to
drift towards the higher potential end.
Discuss two factors which affect the magnitude of the current and hence result in
the possible danger of electric shock. One obvious safety precaution is to keep
live wires well insulated. What other safety precautions do you suggest? [4]
N2000/III/4
One factor is the resistivity of the skin, which is affected by its moisture. Wet skin
has lower resistivity and hence resistance, thus increasing the danger from
electric shock. Another factor is the thickness of the skin. If the skin is thinner, the
resistance will also be lower, increasing the danger from electric shock.
The other safety precautions are 1) wear thick rubber boots to reduce current
flowing through the body into the earth in the event of an electric shock; 2)
connect an Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker in the electric circuit to cut off the
power supply the moment current is diverted into the earth wire.

Electric Fields
Explain why the electric potential on the surface of an isolated charged conductor
is the same everywhere. [4] J88/III/5
The surface of a conductor has zero resistance, hence charges on it can flow
freely. Any potential difference which develops between two points on the surface
will create an electric field between the two points. The field will produce a force
which causes the charges to move and redistribute themselves until there is no
more potential difference between the two points. Hence the electric potential on
the surface must be the same everywhere.
Explain to what extent an isolate, positively charged conducting sphere may be
considered to act as a point charge. [3] J89/III/12

An isolated, positively charged conducting sphere may be considered to act as a

point charge at distances equal to or greater than the radius of the sphere. On the
surface as well as outside the sphere, the electric field strength E=Q/4 0dand
electric potential V=Q/40d, where d is the distance measured from the center of
the sphere. Hence, the sphere behaves like a point charge of magnitude Q located
at its center. Within the sphere, however, E=0 and V=Q/40R everywhere in the
sphere, where R is the radius of the sphere, which is a constant. Hence within the
sphere, it does not behave as a point charge. The reason behind this is that the
resistance of a conductor is zero and there can be no potential difference between
any two points in the sphere. Since electric field strength is the negative of the
potential gradient, the electric field must be zero everywhere inside the sphere.
Distinguish qualitative and quantitative aspects of electric field and gravitational
field.
Both are inverse square law fields. Electric field acts on charges while
gravitational field acts on masses. Field lines in an electric field are always
directed away from a positive point charge and towards a negative point charge.
Field lines in a gravitational field are always directed to a point mass. Electric
forces can be attractive or repulsive while gravitational forces are always
attractive.

Suggest why, in the alpha-scattering experiment, a) gravitational effects are

ignore; and b) when calculating electric potential, the direction of approach of the
alpha-particle to the nucleus need not be considered. [2] N98/II/2
a) The potential energy and force due to a gravitational field are many orders of
magnitude smaller than the potential energy and force due to an electric field,
respectively.
b) Electric potential is a scalar quantity which has only magnitude but not
direction. It is hence independent of the direction of approach.
Explain why lightning is more likely to strike the tip of the lighthouse than any
other places close to it. [1] IJC Prelims 08/III/4
Near the tip of the lighthouse, the equipotential surfaces are very close to one
another. This means that the potential gradient there is very strong and it is more
likely to reach the threshold potential gradient before any other places for an
electric discharge to occur. There is a high concentration of charges at the tip of
the lighthouse.
Explain the shape of the path followed by electrons as they pass between the
deflecting plates.
A uniform electric field acts from the upper plate to the lower plate, hence a
constant force exerted on the electron beam causes it to curve up. The curve is
parabolic.
State how the magnitude and direction of the electric field strength at any point
between two charges can be determined by their electric potential-distance
graph. [2] RJC CT1 08/16
The magnitude of the electric field strength at any point between the two charges
can be obtained from the gradient of the potential-distance graph. The electric
field strength acts from region of high to low potential.

Magnetism
A copper disc spins freely between the poles of an unconnected electromagnet.
Describe and explain what will happen to the speed of rotation of the disc when
direct current is switched on in the electromagnet. [4] J91/II/5
The copper disc will slow down and then come to a halt. When a direct current is
switched on, a magnetic field is created perpendicular to the plane of the copper
disc. The rotation of the disc causes the disc to cut these magnetic field lines.
According to Faradays law of electromagnetic induction, a change in the
magnetic flux linking the disc will result in an emf induced across its axle and rim.
This emf will cause a current to flow in the disc. According to Lenzs Law, this

current will flow in such a direction as to oppose the change in magnetic flux
linkage, hence creating an opposing force. This opposing force will slow down the
disc. By the Law of Conservation of Energy, the mechanical energy of the rotating
disc is converted into electrical energy and then dissipated as heat in the disc.
State the effect on the magnetic flux density along the axis of a solenoid in the
presence of a ferrous core. [1] H1 Specimen Paper 06/II/4
In the presence of a ferrous core, the magnetic flux density will be increased a few
thousand times since the permeability of iron is approximately 5000 times that of
free space. There will be many more magnetic field lines which are more closely
spaced compared to before.
A step-down transformer is used to charge a rechargeable battery. The secondary
circuit consists of a diode, a resistor, and the battery to be recharged. a) Suggest
why the diode is necessary in the secondary circuit. b) Suggest why the resistor is
necessary in the circuit. [4] J2000/II/5
a) The diode ensures current is always in one direction so that battery will not
discharge. There will be times when the charging voltage falls below the emf of
the battery. During such instances, the diode prevents the current from reversing,
out of the battery into the transformer which will cause the battery to be
discharged.
b) The resistor limits the current in the circuit to protect the battery and the diode.
This is because the resistance of the diode and internal resistance of the battery
are both very small. If there is no resistor to limit the current, the current could
become very high, causing damage to the battery and diode.
A long bar magnet is suspended from a helical spring so that one pole of the
magnet lies within a short cylindrical coil. The magnet is given a small vertical
displacement and is then released so that one pole of the magnet oscillates
within the coil. Explain the nature of the magnets oscillations when no resistor is
connected; a large resistor is connected and a low resistor is connected. J94/III/3
With no resistor, although an emf is induced across the coil due to Faradays law
of electromagnetic induction, the current cannot flow hence no magnetic field can
be created to oppose the motion of the oscillating magnet. The magnet thus
oscillates freely with constant amplitude.
With a large resistor, the induced emf is able to drive a small current through the
coil. According to Lenzs Law, the current will flow in such a direction as to oppose
the change in magnetic flux linkage. This opposing field slows down the oscillating
magnet. Light damping occurs.
With a small resistor, a large current is able to flow. The opposing field is strong,
and the magnet experiences heavy damping.

In the second and third case, the mechanical energy of the oscillating magnet is
converted into electrical energy, then dissipated as heat in the resistor in
accordance with the Law of Conservation of Energy.
Describe and analyse deflections of beams of charged particles by uniform
electric and uniform magnetic fields.
Beams of charged particles entering a perpendicular uniform electric field are
deflected in parabolic paths. Beams of charged particles entering a perpendicular
uniform magnetic field are deflected in circular paths. The direction of the
centripetal force is given by Flemings left hand rule.

A coil, consisting of many turns of insulated metal wire wrapped around a softiron core, is connected in series with a battery, a switch and a lamp. State what
happens to the magnitude of the magnetic flux in the coil as the current increase
from zero when the switch is closed. Hence explain why an emf is induced in the
coil as the current increases. Hence explain why there is noticeable delay before
the lamp lights up after the switch is closed. State and explain what will happen
to the length of the delay if the soft-iron core is replaced by one made of wood.
[6] J95/II/14
The magnetic flux increases.
According to Faradays law of electromagnetic induction, an emf will be induced in
the coil when there is a change in the magnetic flux linking the coil.
According to Lenzs law, the induced emf will be in such a direction as to oppose
the change. The induced emf is initially equal but opposite to the batterys emf,
thus canceling it out, resulting in there being no net emf in the circuit. Gradually,
this induced emf decreases due to the reduction in the rate of change of magnetic
flux, thus allowing the battery to drive a current through the circuit.
The delay will be shorter. Wood does not encourage magnetic flux as well as softiron. Therefore, the change in the magnetic flux linkage in the coil will be lower.
This induced emf which opposes the batterys emf will be thus lower. Hence the
delay will be shorter.
An electron is projected in a vacuum along the axis of a current-carrying solenoid.
Describe and explain its motion. N81/I/8
The electron will pass straight through undeflected, without any change in speed.
The magnetic field in a solenoid is parallel to its axis. When an electron travels
along the axis of the solenoid, the angle between the direction of the magnetic
field and that of the electrons velocity is zero. Therefore, the force acting on the
electron will also be zero. With no resultant force acting on the electron, it will not
undergo any acceleration and thus will travel with uniform speed in the same
direction, in accordance with Newtons first law of motion.
Explain the forces between current-carrying conductors and predict the direction
of the forces.
Two parallel current-carrying conductors are placed near to each other. Current in
the first conductor generates a magnetic field in its vicinity whose direction is
given by the right hand grip rule. The second current carrying conductor within
this field would experience a magnetic force, whose direction is given by
Flemings left hand rule. 2 parallel conductors with currents flowing in the same
direction will attract each other. 2 parallel conductors with currents flowing in
opposite directions with repel each other.

Briefly explain the working principles of a current balance. [2] NJC Prelims 08/III/6
The magnetic field produced a magnetic force which results in an anti-clockwise
moment about XY to counter the anti-clockwise moment due to the weight of the
rider.

Explain simple applications of electromagnetic induction.

Turbine generator the coil of the turbine is positioned in a strong magnetic field.
The turbine uses force to turn its coil. Hence, its coil experiences changing
magnetic flux linkage. According to Faradays law, emf is induced.
Electric guitar the vibrating string induces an emf in the coil. The pickup coil is
placed near the vibrating guitar string which is made of a metal that can be
magnetized. The permanent magnet inside the coil magnetizes the portion of the
string nearest the coil. When the guitar string vibrates at some frequency, its
magnetized segment produces a changing magnetic flux through the pickup coil.
The changing flux linkage induces emf in the coil. Subsequently the emf is fed to
the amplifier and speaker system to produce sound.
By considering the Earths magnetic field, suggest with reasons why Aurorae are
mostly seen in the polar region rather than in the equatorial region. [2] ACJC
Prelims08/II/7
The direction of the entry of the solar wind (or charged particles) and the Earths
magnetic field are almost perpendicular at the Equator, hence deflected away
from the Earth. However, the direction of solar wind is almost parallel to field lines
at the poles. Hence it is not deflected. Thus Aurora sightings at the equator is rare
but not at the poles.
A charged particle enters a region of uniform magnetic field directed into the
plane of the paper. The tracks of such particles can be made visible by an
apparatus known as a bubble chamber, in which the particle is made to pass
through a liquid close to its boiling point. Thus tiny bubbles are formed along the
path of the particles motion, allowing us to observe the particles trajectory. Such
a track is observed to spiral. Briefly explain why the path deviates from uniform
circular motion. [2] HCI Prelims 08/III/6
Due to collisions between the particle and the medium of the bubble chamber, the
particle loses kinetic energy and thus slows down. Since r=mv/Bq, the decrease in
speed results in a decrease in r, thus resulting in the inward spiraling trajectory.

A beam of electrons of speed v passes undeflected through superimposed

uniform magnetic and electric fields of magnitudes B and E respectively. How
must the fields be related in both magnitude and direction? N98/III/6
In order for there to be no deflection, the force exerted by the electric field must
be equal but opposite to that exerted by the magnetic field. The two fields must
be crossed fields. They must be placed perpendicular to each other, and both
fields must be perpendicular to the direction of the electrons velocity. If the
electric field is downwards, the magnetic field should be into the plane of the
paper. If the electric field is upwards, the magnetic field should be out of the
paper. Since magnetic force = electric force, Bqv=qE thus v=E/B. The ratio of the
electric field to magnetic field should be equal to the velocity of the electron.

Explain why a charged particle moves in a spiral path when it is projected into a
magnetic field.
When it enters the uniform magnetic field at an angle, instantaneous velocity can
be resolved into 2 components one parallel to the magnetic field and the other
perpendicular to the magnetic field. The parallel component remains unchanged
because there is no force along the magnetic field, resulting in a translational
motion. The perpendicular component causes a magnetic force to act
perpendicular to both the magnetic field and velocity which compels the particle
to move in a circular path. The resultant motion is a spiral path.

Quantum Physics
What are the 4 results of the photoelectric effect experiments?
Result 1: Current is proportional to intensity. This result can be explained using
wave nature and particulate nature of light.
Result 2: For every material of cathode irradiated, there is a threshold frequency
below which no electrons would be emitted from the cathode regardless of light
intensity. This result can be explained using the particulate nature of light only.
Result 3: The maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons depends only on
the frequency of the incident radiation, and not its intensity. This result can be
explained using the particulate nature of light only.
Result 4: The emission of photoelectrons starts with no observable time lag, even
for very low intensity of incident radiation. This result can be explained using the
particular nature of light only.

Explain why, for a particular metal and for incident light of suitable frequency,
emission of photoelectrons begins almost instantaneously even if the light has
low frequency. [2] ACJC Prelims 08/II/4
For light of different intensity but same frequency, the energy of the photon
remains the same. Photoelectron emission is the result of direct interaction
between each photon and an electron and the entire energy hf of the photon is
absorbed by the electron instantaneously. The photon then ceases to exist.
Hence, instantaneous emission of photoelectrons occurs.
Explain why not all photons emit photoelectrons.
The metal surface is reflective. Electrons beneath the surface require more energy
in order to be emitted. Before emission, electrons may collide with other electrons
thus losing all its energy.

Describe and interpret qualitatively the evidence provided by electron diffraction

for the wave nature of particles.
When a beam of electrons passed through a thin film of crystal, the dispersion
pattern of the emergent electrons produced on a screen is observed to be similar
to the diffraction pattern produced by a beam of X-ray. This phenomenon provides
evidence for the wave nature of particles like electrons.
Distinguish between ionization energy and work function energy.
Work function energy is the minimum amount of energy required to remove a free
electron from the surface of a metal. Ionisation energy is the minimum amount of
energy required to remove an electron from an isolated atom.
Explain how spectral lines show discrete energy levels in an atom.
An emission spectrum consists of a set of discrete wavelengths. A photon is
emitted from an isolated atom when one of its electrons transits from a higher to
a lower energy level. Energy of the photon is equal to the energy difference
between the two levels involved in the transition.
Distinguish between emission and absorption line spectra.
An emission line spectrum of an element consists of coloured lines on a dark
background while an absorption spectrum consists of dark lines on a coloured
background at the same discrete wavelength positions for the same element. For
emission spectra, electrons transit from a higher energy level to a lower energy
level. For absorption spectra, electrons transit from a lower energy level to a
higher energy level.
Explain the origins of the features of a typical X-ray spectrum using quantum
theory.
It is produced in an X-ray tube where fast electrons strike a metallic target. The
spikes are due to characteristic radiation of the target metal in which electrons
transit from very high to low energy levels. The continuous spectrum is due to
losses of various energies when fast moving electrons collide with atoms of the
metallic target.
Explain qualitatively the phenomenon of quantum tunneling of an electron across
a potential barrier.
An electron is considered as a wave function. The probability of finding an electron
is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude of the wave function. When
the wave function of an electron encounters a potential barrier, its amplitude
decreases exponentially. For a narrow barrier, the wave amplitude may not
become zero after the electron passes through the barrier. Hence, there is a non-

zero probability that the electron will be found beyond the barrier. This process is
called quantum tunneling.

Explain how the photoelectric equation expresses the application of the principle
of conservation of energy to this process. [2] SAJC Prelims 08/II/6
The energy of the incident photon is used to do work to release an electron from
the atom and to provide the electron with kinetic energy.
Describe the application of quantum tunneling to the probing tip of a scanning
tunneling microscope.
The probing tip of an STM is positioned at a very small distance above the
conducting sample surface which represents the width of the potential barrier.
Electrons can cross the potential barrier between the tip and the surface through
the process of quantum tunneling. A small potential difference is applied between
the tip and the surface to produce tunneling current. The tunneling current I
decreases exponentially with the tip surface distance d, so a small change in d will
induce a large change in I.
Explain whether protons of identical kinetic energy as the electron would make a
more or less effective probe of small-scale structures. [2] HCI Prelims 08/II/5
Protons are more effective. They have a larger mass and thus a smaller de Broglie
wavelength. The associated wavelength should be of the same order of
magnitude as the dimensions of the observed object for good resolution of image.
Thus for small objects, we need the associated wavelength to be small as well.
At low temperatures, the absorption line spectrum of hydrogen shows only the
spectral lines of the Lymen series. At higher temperatures, it also displays other
series. Explain the above observation. [2] IJC Prelims 08/II/6
At low temperatures, the hydrogen atoms are mostly in the ground state. Hence
only transitions corresponding to the Lymen series are obtained. At higher
temperatures, hydrogen atoms in higher excited states are present. Hence
transitions corresponding to the Balmer and Paschen series are obtained.
Why is it that sound waves are not normally considered as having particle-like
properties, nor raindrops as having wave-like properties? [6] J89/II/12
The wavelength of a wave is related to its momentum and the Planck constant by
the equation =h/mv. For sound waves, their wavelength is too long hence the
sound particles have too little momentum to exhibit particulate properties. For
raindrops, due to their large mass and hence momentum, their wavelength is too
short for them to undergo significant diffraction. Diffraction can only be
observable if the dimension of the aperture is comparable to the wavelength of
the wave.

It has been said that the ground-state energy in the hydrogen atom can be
precisely known but that the excited states have some uncertainty in their values.
Is this consistent with the energy-time uncertainty principle? Explain. [3] PJC
Prelims 08/III/5
Electron in the ground state is stable and stays there for a long time. Hence the
lifetime t is large and from the expression Eth/4, E will be small. However,
in the excited state, electron is unstable and stays here for a short time. Lifetime
t will be small and hence E will be large. Hence the statement is consistent with
the uncertainty principle.
Discuss the relationship between ground-state energy and the uncertainty
principle. Serway Q41-3
Consider a particle bound to a restricted region of space. If its minimum energy
were zero, then the particle could have zero momentum and zero uncertainty in
its momentum. At the same time, the uncertainty in its position would not be
infinite, but equal to the width of the region. In such a case, the uncertainty
product xp would be zero, violating the uncertainty principle. This contradiction
proves that the minimum energy of the particle is not zero.
It is said that a helium atom in state E 3 can collide with a neon atom in its ground
state and raise the neon atom to state E 2. The energy of helium state E 2 (20.61ev)
is close to, but not exactly equal to, the energy of neon state E 2 (20.66ev). How
can the energy transfer take place if these energies are not exactly equal?
Halliday Q40-13
In addition to quantized energy, a helium atom has kinetic energy; its total energy
can equal 20.66eV.
The absorption or emission spectrum of a gas consists of lines that broaden as
the density of gas molecules increases. Why do you suppose this occurs? Serway
Q42-19
At low density, the gas consists of essentially separate atoms. As the density
increases, the atoms interact with each other. This has the effect of giving
different atoms levels at slightly different energies, at any one instant. The
collection of atoms can then emit photons in lines or bands, narrower or wider,
depending on the density.
Lasers and Semiconductors

With reference to conduction electrons and holes, explain why electrons in solids
are represented by energy bands, whereas those in isolated gas atoms are
represented by energy levels. [2] ACJC Prelims 08/III/7
As isolated atoms are far apart, interatomic interactions are negligible. An isolated
atom has a well-defined set of energy levels that electrons can occupy. When the
atoms are closer together, the energy level splits and curves, either upwards or
downwards and by varying amounts. Hence, these energy levels combine to form
a set of energy bands.

Explain how does stimulated emission occur. [2] ACJC Prelims 08/III/4
Incoming photons of suitable frequency f stimulates the transition of an electron
from an excited state to a lower energy one. The result is two photons of exactly
the same frequency, phase and polarization that move in the same direction.
Using the ideas of population inversion and stimulated emission, explain how a
laser could deliver an intense and directed light beam. [4] HCI Prelims 08/II/4
When more atoms are in an upper state than in a lower state, population inversion
occurs. Population inversion is a necessary condition for stimulated emission to
dominate. Light and electricity are commonly used to selectively transfer energy
to atoms, exciting them to higher energy levels, most of the time, a metastable
state. The photon that any atom releases has a certain wavelength that is
dependent on the energy difference between the excited state and the ground
state. If this photon should encounter another atom that has an electron in the
same excited state, stimulated emission can occur. The first photon can induce
atomic emission such that the subsequent emitted photon vibrates with the same
frequency and direction as the incoming photon. When a stimulated emission
happens, one photon results in two in-phase photons. The other key to a laser is a
pair of mirrors, one at each end of the lasing medium. Photons, with a very
specific frequency and phase, reflect off the mirrors to travel back and forth
through the lasing medium. In the process, they stimulate other electrons to make
the downward energy jump and can cause the emission of more photons of the
same frequency and phase. The initial two in-phase photons will create two
simulated emissions, resulting in four in-phase photons and so on. A cascade
effect occurs, and soon we have propagated many photons of the same frequency
and in exactly the same direction in phase with the incident photon. Thus, the
light is amplified, resulting in an intense and directed light beam.
Explain why a metal is a better electrical conductor than an insulator?
The conduction band of a metal is partially filled. Hence, electrons are free to
move in metal. For an insulator, the band gap between the conduction band and
valence band is wide. Thermal excitation can only produce an insignificant
number of electrons in the conduction band. Hence, it is a poorer conductor.
Why is a semiconductor a better electrical conductor than an insulator?
For a semiconductor, the band gap between the conduction and valence bands is
narrow. At finite temperatures, thermal excitation will excite a significant number
of electrons from the valence to conduction band.
The energy gap for Silicon is 1.17eV at 0K and 1.14eV at 300K. What do you
suppose accounts for the decrease in energy gap with increasing temperature?
Serway Q43-4

Thermal excitation increases the vibrational energy of the molecules. It makes the
crystal lattice less orderly. We can expect it to increase the width of both the
valence band and the conduction band, to decrease the gap between them.

Briefly describe the formation of energy bands. [1] CJC Prelims 08/III/5
Electrons in isolated atoms are restricted to discrete energy levels within the
atom. When the atoms are brought closer together, electrons from one atom
could also be influenced by the neighbouring atoms. The effect of the overlapping
influence of many atoms results in the discrete energy levels broadening into
bands of allowed values. The allowed values in a band are usually closely spaced
and resemble a continuous band.
Using band theory, explain how p-type and n-type extrinsic semiconductors are
produced from intrinsic semiconductors for better electrical conduction. [3] ACJC
Prelims 08/III/7
For a p-type semiconductor, when acceptor atoms are added, they provide an
acceptor level which is just above the valence band. The valence electrons of the
pure semiconductor can easily be excited to this level, leaving behind a hole in
the valence band. When a potential difference is applied, these holes will move
within the valence band to conduct current.
For a n-type semiconductor, when donor atoms are added, they provide a donor
level which is just below the conduction band. The donor electron can easily be
excited to the conduction band, thus becoming one of the conduction electrons
moving freely through the semiconductor. When a potential difference is applied,
these electrons will move in the conduction band in a direction opposite to that of
the electric field to produce current flow.
Discuss qualitatively the origin of the depletion region at a p-n junction and use
this to explain how a p-n junction can act as a rectifier.
Diffusion of the electrons occurs from the n to p-type region of a p-n junction.
Holes diffuse in the opposite direction. They meet and recombine to form a
depletion region consisting of positive and negative immobile ions. An electric
field is set up in the depletion region directed from n to p-type region.
Under forward bias, the external electric field opposes the junctions electric field.
Hence, the majority charge carriers flow across the junction, resulting in a
considerable electric current. Under reverse bias, the external electric field
reinforces the junctions electric field. Hence, only the minority charge carriers
flow resulting in negligible current flow.
Suggest qualitatively how the presence of a forward-bias voltage sustains a
population inversion in the semiconductor laser.
The forward bias voltage ensures a constant source of free charge carriers, thus
there is an increased number of excited electrons in the conduction band which
releases photons when they fill up the holes in the valence band, sustaining
population inversion.

Nuclear Physics
State and explain if mass if conserved in radioactive decay processes. [2]
N01/III/6
Mass is not conserved as shown by the mass defect because some of it is
converted into energy. However, mass-energy is conserved.
State and infer from the results of the alpha-particle scattering experiment the
properties of an atom. N86/II/12
The atom is mostly empty space with a small nucleus at its centre this accounts
for most of the alpha particles passing straight through. The nucleus is massive
this accounts for its ability to deflect the high-speed alpha particles. The nucleus
is positively-charged this accounts for its ability to repel the high-speed alpha
particles backwards resulting in a detectable count rate beyond 90 degrees from
the straight-through axis.
Explain the relevance of binding energy per nucleon to nuclear fission and fusion.
The higher the binding energy per nucleon of a nuclei, the more stable the nuclei
is. In nuclear fission or fusion, the products have higher binding energy per
nucleon than the reactants. Hence, they are more stable than the reactants.
Therefore, these processes release energies.
Explain why more energy per nucleon is released in the fusion process than in the
fission process.
Energy released in a nuclear reaction is equal to the difference in binding energy
between products and reactants. As indicated by the steep slope of the binding
energy curve for light nuclei, the change in binding energy is much larger for
fusion reactions involving lighter nuclei, as compared to that for fission processes
that involve larger nuclei. Therefore more energy per nucleon is released in a
fusion reaction than in fission reaction.
What are the applications and dangers of radioactivity?
Radiation therapy. Tracers and imaging in research and medicine. Damage in
biological organism due to ionization produced in cell. Damage to DNA. Metal and
other structural material becomes brittle and their strength is weakened if the
radiation is very intense.
Describe how you would demonstrate that radioactive decay is a random process.
[1] CJC Prelims 08/III/8

It may be demonstrated by placing a detector such as a Geiger-Muller tube

connected to a counter near a radioactive source. The fluctuations in count rate
show that decay is random.
Why are gamma emitters preferred over alpha / beta emitters for medical
purposes?
Gamma photons are more penetrating, so the radiation can be easily detected by
detectors outside the body and so less amount of radioisotopes are required.