1.

Candidates MUST read and follow instructions given on the reverse of answer sheet before
attempting the question paper.
2. All answers are required to be written on the answer sheet and NOT on this question paper.
3. Attempt all questions which carry equal marks
Time Allowed: 2 Hours (120 Minutes)

SECTION I. VERBAL ABILITY

Q1.

Q2.

Q3.

Q4.

Q5.

Q6.

Q7.

Q8.

Total MCQs : 100

Total Marks : 100

NO. OF QUESTIONS = 40

SENTENCE COMPLETION:
Instructions (1-9): In this part of test, you have 9 MCQs about English. Each sentence below
has one or two blanks, each blank shows that something has been omitted. Choose the correct answer
from the four answer choices given with each question, numbered (A), (B), (C), (D).
Viruses are invisible through the ______ microscope; but we know that they are there
because we can see the ______ they cause.
(A) Cheap; Damage
(B) Elementary; Harm
(C) Simple; Danger
(D) Ordinary; Havoc
The sea was coming after me as high as a great hill and ______ as a ______ enemy.
(A) Furious; Charging
(B) Dreadful; Advancing
(C) Terrible; Charging
(D) Angry; Attacking
Although its publicity has been ______, the film itself is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely
produced and altogether ______.
(A) Tasteless; Respectable (B) Extensive; Moderate
(C) Sophisticated; Moderate (D) Risqu; Crude
It takes ______ character to ______ the extremities of the arctic region.
(A) An unflappable; Sustain (B) A dictatorial; Brook
(C) A Spartan; Negotiate
(D) An inimitable; Resist
As a journalist who works to overturn erroneous convictions, Griffin Nicholson was
opposed to the court ruling ______ appeals for inmates who might be ______.
(A) Barring; Culpable
(B) Curbing; Exonerated
(C) Encouraging; Innocent (D) Scrutinizing; Eligible
Their conversation was unsettling, for the gravity of their topic contrasted so oddly with
the ______ of their tone.
(A) Uniqueness
(B) Rapidity
(C) Lightness
(D) Precision
The driver suddenly applied the brakes when he saw a ______ truck ahead of him.
(A) Stationary
(B) Moving
(C) Static
(D) Immobile
Salma is much too ______ to have anything to do with that obnoxious affair.
(A) Noble
(B) Proud
(C) Happy
(D) Difficult

Q9.

Q10.

Q11.

Q12.

Q13.

Q14.

Q15.

Q16.

Q17.

Q18.

Roberto Clement was seen as ______ during his life because of both his selflessness on
the baseball field and his humanitarian work in his native Nicaragua.
(A) An individualist
(B) A grandstander
(C) A sybarite
(D) An altruist
ANTONYMS:
Directions: In each of the following antonym questions, a word printed in capital letters
precedes four or five lettered words or phrases. From these five lettered words or phrases, pick the
one most nearly opposite in meaning to the capitalized word.
ABBREVIATE :
(A) abridge
(B) expand
(C) achieve
(D) Accept
ABJURE :
(A) Acknowledge
(B) disown
(C) Deny
(D) hate
ABSURD :
(A) Scarcity
(B) adorn
(C) Rational
(D) flourish
ABUNDANT :
(A) ample
(B) enough
(C) great
(D) scant
ACERBITY :
(A) Sweat
(B) gentleness
(C) Tasty
(D) account
BLOOMING :
(A) Fading
(B) flowering
(C) Quiet
(D) mild
BLISS :
(A) Merge
(B) disseminate
(C) Dull
(D) suffering
BEWITCH :
(A) Disenchant
(B) rapture
(C) Profit
(D) avail
BAUBLE :
(A) Plaything
(B) valuable
(C) Modest
(D) besiege
ANALOGIES:
Directions: Each of the following analogy questions presents a related pair of words linked by
a colon. Four or Five lettered pairs of words follow the linked pair. Choose the lettered pair of words
whose relationship is most like the relationship expressed in the original linked pair.
Q19. BOOK: READ
(A) Ointment: Apply (B) Bat: Ball
(C) Watch: Time
(D) Marriage: Home
Q20. SUSPICION: FAITH

(A) Prisoner:
(B) Court: Justice
(C) Rule: Serve
Punishment
Q21. ENGINE: COMPARTMENT
(A) Gear: Car
(B) Heart: Lungs
(C) Needle: Thread
Q22. EDUCATION: SCHOOL
(A) Medicine:
(B) Production:
(C) Wood: Furniture
Hospital
Factory
Q23. RENOVATION: RENEWAL
(A) Fail: Examination (B) Tumble: Topple (C) Poor: Poverty
Q24. BUSH: FLORA
(A) Plant: Fauna
(B) Horse: Carriage (C) Fish: Water
Q25. HEAVY: LIGHT
(A) Loophole:
Fool (B) Weight: Bulb
(C) Dark: Night
Proof
Q26. BOOK: PAGE
(A) Parliament:
(B) Rope: Fibre
(C) Ship: Wood
Minister
Q27. EXAMINATION: DEGREE
(A) Doctor: Ph.D
(B) Music:
(C) Interview:
Instrument
Selection

Q28.

Q29.

(D) Dawn: Morning

(D) Pen: Write

(D) Milk: Cow

(D) Up: Climb

(D) Blue: Colour
(D) Water: Fire

(D) Star: Space

(D) Sports: Medal

READING COMPREHENSION:
Directions: Read the passage carefully once and detect its theme. Note what the questions
are about. Answer the questions.
Passage (Question 28-30): The purpose of education is to make the student an expert
in his subject. This must be clearly understood, and mere muddling through lessons and lectures
and books and passing examinations are relegated to secondary importance as means to endwhich is excellence in the field chosen.
But there are so many fields, and no man can become an expert in all the fields. It is
necessary to decide which fields are the important ones that a man should know well.
It is clear that one's own work is the most important. This has been realised and modern
civilization has accordingly provided vocational education. It is now possible to acquire high
professional skill in the various fields, medicine, engineering production, commerce and so onbut with good and bad mixed together, and no standard for guidance.
The purpose of education is to make the student:
(A)
An expert in all fields
(B)
An expert in his subject
(C)
Only capable of earning
(D)
Confident only
What, according to the writer, is the end ?
(A)
Excellence in the field chosen
(B)
Passing the examination
(C)
Earning more and more money
(D)
Cramming lectures and books

Q30.

Q31.

Q32.

Q33.

Q34.

The modern civilization has provided:

(A) Vocational education
(B) Art of conversation
(C) Adult education
(D) Higher education
Passage (Question 31-32): According to Aristotle, the most important question in the
physical world was the search for happiness. He was not an idealist preaching impossible ideals
and counsels of perfection. His scientific training made him a realist who believed that happiness
was the aim of life and every activity, even ethics, was subordinate to it. He tries to explore the
nature of happiness and explains it by differentiating man from other animals in that he possesses
the thinking faculty by which he masters the earth and surpasses all living beings and its
development will give him fulfilment and happiness.
In the given paragraph:
(A) Aristotle surpasses the earth and all living beings
(B) Aristotle tries to explore the nature of physical world
(C) Aristotle speaks about all living beings
(D) Aristotle tries to explore the nature of happiness
Man differs from other animals in having:
(A) A brain
(B) Speaking faculty
(C) Thinking faculty
(D) Eating faculty
Passage (Question 33-37): A duty is an obligation. It is something we owe to others as
social beings when we live together. We must let others live with us. May right of living implies
my duty to my fellowmen to allow them the same conditions of life. Infact, rights and duties are
co-related. What is a right in regard to one is a duty in regard to others. Rights and duties are two
sides of the same coin. We should always observe from the stand point of others. Thus they are
duties. Moral duty is more effective than the legal. A moral duty is that which is upon the people
on moral grounds. It is my moral duty to help the poor because of being a member of the society.
I must try to create these conditions which contribute to the welfare of humanity. Similarly,
I owe a duty to my parents-to be obedient and respectful to them. This duty originates from the
sense of responsibility which is directly related with our conscience. So this maxim is concerned
with a moral duty which a man should owe without the legal bondage.
Sense of duty is paramount for the proper development of civilization in the 20th century.
Hypocrisy and diplomacy are quite reverse to the sense of duty. Hypocrisy involves wickedness
duty involves sincerity and faithfulness.
Rights and duties according to the passage are:
(A)
Co-related
(B)
Two sides of the same coin
(C)
Neither of the above
(D)
Both (A) and (B)
According to the author, the moral duty is:
(A)
Enjoined upon animals
(B)
Helping the rich
(C)
More effective than the legal duty
(D)
Secondary to the legal duty

Q35.

Q36.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q37.

Q39.

Q40.

Where does the duty originate from ?

(A)
From responsibility but not from conscience
(B)
From responsibility which is related with conscience
(C)
From legal bondage
(D)
From hypocrisy and diplomacy
Point out the incorrect statement.
Hypocrisy and diplomacy do not support the sense of duty
Hypocrisy involves wickedness
Duty involves sincerity
Sense of duty is not important for the development of civilization
The author:
(A)
Has sense of responsibility
(B)
Doesn't have sense of duty
(C)
Both (A) and (B)
(D)
Neither (A) nor (B)
Passage (Question 38-40): When we are suddenly confronted with any terrible danger,
the change of nature we undergo is equally great. In some cases, fear paralyses us. Like animals,
we stand still, powerless to move a step in fright or to lift a hand in defence of our lives, and
sometimes we are seized with panic, and again, act more like the inferior animals than rational
beings. On the other hand, frequently in cases of sudden extreme peril, which cannot be escaped
by fright, and must be instantly faced, even the most timid men at once as if by miracle, become
possessed of the necessary courage, sharp quick apprehension, and swift decision. This is a
miracle very common in nature. Man and the inferior animals alike, when confronted with almost
certain death gather resolution from despair but there can really be no trace of so debilitating a
feeling in the person fighting, or prepared to fight for dear life. At such times, the mind is clearer
than it has ever been; the nerves are steel, there is nothing felt but a wonderful strength and
daring. Looking back at certain perilous moments in my own life, I remember them with a kind of
joy, not that there was any joyful excitement then; but because they brought me a new experience,
a new nature, as it were and lifted me for a time above myself.
Q38. An appropriate title for the above passage would be:
(A) The change of nature
(B) Courage and panic
(C) The will to fight
(D) The miracle of confronting danger
The author names three different ways in which a man may react to sudden danger. What
are they?
(A)
He may be paralysed with fear, or seized with panic, or as if by miracle,
become possessed of the necessary courage, and face the danger
(B)
He may be paralysed with fear, run away or fight
(C)
He may flee in panic, or fight back or stand still
(D)
He may be paralysed with fear, seized with panic or act like an inferior
animal
The distinction between inferior animals and rational beings is that:
(A)
The latter are stronger

(B)
(C)
(D)

The latter are capable of reasoning things out whereas the former cannot
do so
The former are incapable of fighting
The latter are clever

SECTION 2. QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

Q41.

Q42.

Q43.

Q44.

Q45.

Q46.

Q47.

Q48.

Q49.

Q50.

Q51.

NO. OF QUESTIONS = 30

PROBLEM SOLVING:
Directions: In the following questions, five possible answers are given, choose the best answer
from the five choices listed below each question.
The sum of a number and its reciprocals is thrice the difference of the number and its
reciprocal. The number is:
(A) +
(B) +
(C) +
(D) +
When the integer k is divided by 17, the quotient is p and the remainder is 5. When k is
divided by 23, the quotient is q and the remainder is 14. Which of the following is true?
(A) 23p + 17q = 19
(B) 14p + 5q = 6
(C) 17p - 23q = 9
(D) 5p - 14q = 6
What is the area of a circle whose radius is the diagonal of a square whose area is 9?
(A) 8
(B) 18
(C) 3
(D) 9
The circumference of a circle is x units, and the area of the circle is y square units.
If x = y, then radius of the circle is:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 2
A cylindrical sillo (container for storing grain) has a diameter of 14 inches and a height of
6 inches. Since one gallon equals 231 cubic inches, the capacity of the sillo is
approximately:
(A) 4 gallons
(B) 1 gallons
(C) 2 gallons
(D) 2 gallons
What is the volume of a cube whose surface area is 294?
(A) 125
(B) 216
(C) 294
(D) 343
The ratio of boys to girls in a certain classroom was 2 : 3. If boys represented five more
than one-third of the class, how many people were in the classroom?
(A) 15
(B) 23
(C) 21
(D) 27
What is the average of 530, 560, 517, 513 and 590?
(A) 5210
(B) 5209
29
59
16
12
89
(C) 5 + 5 + 5 + 5 + 5
(D) 5205
If p + 1 < 3p + 5, then:
(A) p < -2
(B) p > -2
(C) p = 0
(D) p > 2
Which of the following numbers cannot be represented by a repeating decimal?
(A)
(B)
(C) 7
(D)
If an equilateral triangle and a square have the same perimeter, what is the ratio of the
lengths of the sides of the equilateral triangle to the lengths of the sides of the square?
(A) 3 : 4
(B) 4 : 3
(C) 1 : 2
(D) 1 : 3

Q52.

Q53.

Q54.

Q55.

If + + = 12, then x =
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
If a + 2b = x and a - 2b = y, which of the following expression is equal to ab?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
If the sum of the two integers is 42 and their difference is 22. Then the greater of the two
integers is:
(A) 25
(B) 32
(C) 8
(D) 10
Each of Nazirs buckets has a capacity of 11 gallons, while each of Osamas buckets can
hold 8 gallons. How much more water in gallons can 7 of Nazirs buckets held compared
to 7 of Osamas buckets?
(A) 7 gallons
(B) 9 gallons
(C) 21 gallons
(D) 24 gallons

Q56.

Q57.

Q58.

Q59.

Q60.

Q61.

Q62.

In the above figure, three equal circles of radius 3 cm each touch each other, then the area
of the shaded portion is:
(A) ( - ) cm2
(B) (2 + ) cm2
2
(C) (2 - ) cm
(D) (2 - ) cm2
If two circles touch each other externally at C and AB is a common tangent to the circles.
ThenACB is:
(A) greater than 120o
(B) greater than 90o
o
(C) less than 90
(D) equal to 90o
A train running between two towns arrives at its destination 10 minutes late when it goes
40 miles per hour and 16 minutes late when it goes 30 miles per hour. The distance between
two towns is:
(A) 12
(B) 720
(C) 8
(D) 12
What is the value of t in the following figure?
(A) 45
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 55
Two trains 132 meters and 108 meters in length are running towards each other on parallel
lines, one at the rate of 32 km per hour and another at 40 km per hour. In what time will
they be clear off each other from the moment they meet?
(A) 20 sec
(B) 15 sec
(C) 12 sec
(D) 29 sec
If 2a = x and 2b = y, then xy =
(B) 2ab
(A) 9a + b
a+b
(C) 4
(D) 2a + b
If the average (arithmetic mean) of three consecutive integers is M, then which of the
following must be true?
I
Any one of the three numbers is M
II
The average of two of the three numbers is M.
III
M is also an integer

Q63.

Q64.

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I, II and X
If a2 = 17, then (a + 1)(a - 1) = ?
(A) 15
(B) 12
(C)
(D) 16
Which of the following cannot be expressed as the sum of three consecutive integers?
(A) 27
(B) 26
(C) 21
(D) 42
QUANTITATIVE COMPARISON:
Directions: Direction: In the following type of question, each consists of two quantities, one in
column A and one in column B. You must compare two quantities and on the answer sheet fill in:
A
if the quantity in column A is greater.
B
if the quantity in column B is greater.
C
if the two quantities are equal.
D
if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Notes: Sometimes, in certain questions, information concerning one or both the quantities to be
compared is centered above the two columns. A symbol that in both columns represents the same
thing in column A as it does in column B.

Q65.

Column A
7777

Column B

Q66.

(2)N

Q67.

25 - 1

25 - 1

Q68.

(30)(91)

27

74
N is a positive integer
(-2)N + 1

x>1
xy
Q69.
Q70.

yx

xx
The sum of 5 consecutive integer is 0
The product of the integers
The average of the integers

SECTION 3. ANALYTICAL ABILITY

NO. OF QUESTIONS = 30
ANALYTICAL REASONING:
Questions 71-81: Because of a computer malfunction, an accountant cannot directly determine
the classification of certain accounts. Each account falls into one of five classifications: type 1,
type 2, type 3, type 4, or type 5. The accountant hopes to be able to determine the classification
of these accounts by tracing which operations the computer has performed on them. There are
exactly four operations: W, X, Y and Z. No operation can be performed more than once on a given
account, and the operations were performed, without exception, according to the following rules:
v If an account is a type 1, the computer performs either operation W or, alternatively, operation X.
v If the account is a type 2, the computer performs either operation X alone or, alternatively, operation
X and any one of the remaining operations except W.
v If an account is a type 3, the computer performs either operation Y alone or, alternatively, operation
Y and any one of the remaining operations.
v If an account is a type 4, the computer performs exactly two operations in any combination except
that X cannot be one of the two operations.
v If an account is a type 5, the computer performs exactly three operations in any combination drawn
from the four operations.
Q71. If the accountant knows that the computer has performed exactly one operation on an
account, which of the following must be true?
(A) The account is either a type 1 or a type 2
(B) The account is either a type 1, a type 2, or a type 3
(C) The account is either a type 2, a type 3, or a type 5
(D) The account is either a type 2, a type 4, or a type 5
(E) The account is either a type 3, a type 4, or a type 5
Q72. If the accountant knows that the computer has performed operation Z on an account but
cannot determine solely from traces in the account whether any other operation has been
performed, the account could be any one of the five types EXCEPT type:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Q73. Which type of account, if operated on by the computer, must have operation X performed
on it?
(A) Type 1
(B) Type 2
(C) Type 3
(D) Type 4
(E) Type 5
Q74. If the accountant knows that operations X and Z are the only operations that have been
performed on an account, the account must be a type:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Q75. If the accountant knows that the computer has performed exactly two operations on a
given account, and operation Y was not one of the two, which of the following must be
true?
(A) The account is either a type 1 or a type 2 (B) The account is either a type 2 or a type
3

Q76.

Q77.

Q78.

Q79.

Q80.

Q81.

(C) The account is either a type 2 or a type 4 (D) The account is either a type 3 or a type
4
(E) The account is either a type 3 or a type 5
If the sixth book is a leather-bound book and the eighth book is a clothbound book, which
of the following must be a paperback book?
(A) The first
(B) The second
(C) The third
(D) The fourth
(E) The ninth
The clothbound books must be next to each other if a paperback book is in which of the
following positions?
(A) The first
(B) The third
(C) The fifth
(D) The seventh
(E) The ninth
If the second book is a clothbound book and the third book is a paperback book, which of
the following can be a clothbound book?
(A) The fourth
(B) The sixth
(C) The seventh
(D) The eighth
(E) The ninth
If no clothbound book is next to another clothbound book, any of the following could be
paper-back books EXCEPT the:
(A) Second
(B) third
(C) fifth
(D) Seventh
(E) eighth
If the first and seventh books have the same kind of binding, which of the following must
be a leather-bound book?
(A) The first
(B) The second
(C) The fourth
(D) The sixth
(E) The eighth
If a clothbound book is in the fifth position and leather-bound book is in the ninth position,
which of the following pairs of books must have different kinds of binding?
(A) The first and the second (B) The second and the (C) The second and the
third
fourth
(D) The third and the fourth (E) The third and the fifth

Question 82-86: Seven dignitaries F, G, H, I, N, O, and P ____ are to be seated together at a

diplomatic ceremony. They will be seated in a row of seven chairs, numbered from 1 to 7, from
front to back. Any seating is acceptable as long as all seven dignitaries are seated, one in each
chair, and the seating conforms to the following rules:
v F must sit in the chair immediately behind Os chair.
v G cannot sit in the chair immediately in front of Ns chair, and G cannot sit in the chair immediately
behind Ns chair.
v There must be exactly two chairs between the chairs of H and P.
v There must be at least one chair between the chairs of I and P.
v N must sit in chair 3.
Q82. Which of the following seating arrangements, from chair 1 through chair 7, conforms to
the rules?
(A) E, I, N, P, G, O, H
(B) G, P, N, I, H, O, F
(C) I, G, N, P, O, F, H
(D) I, H, N, P, O, F, G
(E) O, F, H, N, I, P, G

Q83. If F sits in chair 6 and H sits in chair 7, which of the following dignitaries must sit in chair
2?
(A) G
(B) I
(C) N
(D) O
(E) P
Q84. If the seating arrangement, from chair 1 through chair 7, is G, I, N, H, O, F, P, which of the
following pairs of dignitaries can exchange seats without violating the rules?
(A) F and G
(B) G and H
(C) G and I
(D) H and P
(E) I and P
Q85. If O sits in chair 1 and H sits in chair 7, then the number of chairs between Fs chair and
Is chair must be:
(A) Zero
(B) one
(C) two
(D) Three
(E) four
Q86. If H sits in chair 4 and F sits in chair 6, then the dignitaries in chairs 1 and 7, respectively,
must be:
(A) G and O
(B) G and P
(C) I and P
(D) O and I
(E) P and O
Questions 87-92: At an art show, exactly five sculptures are to be displayed in a room with exactly
five stands, arranged along a single wall and numbered consecutively 1 through 5. The sculptures
are to be selected from a total of eight sculptures ____ M, N, P, Q, R, S, T, and U and displayed,
one sculpture on each stand, according to the following conditions:
v Either M or U or both must be selected.
v If M is selected, M must be on stand I.
v Either R or S must be on stand 3.
v If T is selected, P must also be selected, and T and P must then be on stands that are immediately
adjacent to one another.
Q87. Which of the following is an acceptable selection of sculptures to be displayed on stands 1
through 5?
1
2
3
4
5
(A) M
R
T
P
Q
(B) N
T
S
U
Q
(C) P
T
S
R
U
(D) T
P
R
S
M
(E) U
N
Q
P
T
Q88. If S is on stand 1, which of the following must be true?
(A) P is on stand 4
(B) R is on stand 3
(C) T is on stand 2
(D) T is on stand 4
(E) U is on stand 5
Q89. If T is on stand 5, which of the following pairs of sculptures can be on stands that are
immediately adjacent to each other?
(A) M and P
(B) Q and N
(C) Q and P
(D) R and T
(E) U and R
Q90. If U is on stand 4, any of the following can be on stand 5 EXCEPT:
(A) N
(B) P
(C) Q
(D) R
(E) T

Q91. If T is on stand 2, which of the following sculptures must be selected?

(A) M
(B) N
(C) R
(D) S
(E) U
Q92. If P is not selected and R is on stand 1, which of the following lists, in alphabetical order,
those sculptures that must also be selected?
(A) M, Q, T, and U
(B) N, Q, S, and T
(C) N, Q, S, and U
(D) N, S, T, and U
(E) Q, S, T, and U

Q93.

Q94.

Q95.

Q96.

LOGICAL REASONING:
Questions 93-99 refer to the following paragraph.
Selfishness is a principal evil in our society. Every person is concerned with only himself.
Personal advancement is the only motivating force in the world today. This does not mean that
individual, are not willing to help one another, on the contrary, _______. However, these are only
short-term occurrences, which ultimately serve our long-term goal of personal gain.
To fill in the blank in the above passage, select one of the options from the below
mentioned options:
(A) We are always trying to undermine others endeavours.
(B) People always deceive one another.
(C) Even close friends are not trustworthy.
(D) People want power to control others.
(D) There are many occasions when we graciously offer our assistance.
Which among the following options would most strongly contradict the authors attitude
towards society?
(A) The greatest strength of society is altruism.
(B) We must all learn the art of love.
(C) Our short-term actions may contradict our long-term goals.
(D) Morality is the bedrock of a growing community.
(D) The forces of goodwill ultimately triumph over evil.
Many people do not read the books they purchase. For example, seventeen percent of
college students in Pakistan have textbooks, but only forty-five percent of them read more
than once a year, and only seventeen percent read more than once a week. Which of the
following, if true, costs doubt on the claim that most people read the books they purchase?
(A) Readers often exaggerate about their book reading.
(B) The sale of novels is more than that of other types.
(C) Many people buy books to pretend themselves as a scholar.
(D) Regular book readers are most susceptible to eye diseases.
(D) Reading speed is increased by frequent readings.
The value of a close examination of the circumstances of an aircraft accident lies not only
in fixing blame but in learning lessons.
The above statement first most logically into which of the following types of passages?
(A) A survey of the scapegoat phenomenon in modern society.
(B) An argument in favour of including specific details in any academic essay.
(C) An argument against the usefulness of the National Transportation Safety Board.
(D) A brief history of aeronautics.

(D) A description of the causes of a particular aircraft accident.

Q97. In the first message to Congress, Harry Truman said, The responsibility of the United
States is to serve and not dominate the world.
Which of the following is one basic assumption underlying Trumans statement?
(A) The United States is capable of dominating the world.
(B) The United States chooses a serve rather than dominate the world.
(C) World domination is a virtue.
(D) One must be decisive when facing a legislative body for the first time.
(D) The United States, preceding Trumans administration, had been irresponsible.
Q98. A researcher has concluded that women are just as capable as men in math but that their
skills are not developed because society expects them to develop other and more diverse
abilities.
Which of the following is a basic assumption of the researcher?
(A) Ability in math is more important than ability is more diverse subjects.
(B) Ability in math is less important than ability in more diverse subjects.
(C) Women and men should be equally capable in math.
(D) Women might be more capable than men in math.
(D) Women tend to conform the social expectations.
Q99.
Researchers have found an inactive virus in dry bread. In previous experiments,
researchers found that inactivated viruses could convert healthy cells into cancer cells. It
can be concluded that the use of dry bread can cause cancer. Which one of the following,
if true, most seriously weakens the argument?
(A) The result of many studies about the same topic were consistent.
(B) Many other ingredients dry bread can neutralize the effect of inactive virus.
(C) Many of cancer patients confirmed the use of dry bread.
(D) Ten percent of rural population use dry bread.
(D) Inactive virus cannot be killed by any medicine.
Questions 100 refer to the following paragraph.
The sum of behaviour is to retain a mans dignity without intruding upon the liberty of others,
stated Sir Francis Bacon. If this is the case, then not intruding upon anothers liberty is impossible.
Q100. The conclusion strongly implied by the authors arguments is that:
(A) Retaining ones dignity is impossible without intruding upon anothers liberty.
(B) Retaining dignity never involves robbing others of liberty.
(C) Dignity and liberty are naturally exclusive.
(D) There is always the possibility of a dignified intrusion.
(D) None of the above.

SELF TEST PAPER - ANSWER SHEET

First of all Fill the answer sheet by yourself then compare it with answers key given at the end.
Note: Use only BALL PEN (Black/Blue) to shade/fill the circles.

Name:
Date:

Start Time:

End Time:

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.

31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.

41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.

50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.

59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.

68.
69.
70.

71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.

80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.

89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.

98.
99.
100.

SECTION 1. VERBAL ABILITY:

1.
6.
11.
16.
21.
26.
31.
36.

D
C
A
D
C
B
D
D

2.
7.
12.
17.
22.
27.
32.
37.

A
A
C
A
B
C
C
A

3.
8.
13.
18.
23.
28.
33.
38.

A
A
D
B
B
B
D
D

4.
9.
14.
19.
24.
29.
34.
39.

C
B
B
A
D
A
C
A

5.
10.
15.
20.
25.
30.
35.
40.

C
B
A
C
A
A
B
B

SECTION 2. QUANTITATIVE ABILITY:

41.
46.
51.
56.
61.
66.

A
D
B
C
D
D

42.
47.
52.
57.
62.
67.

C
A
B
D
D
B

43.
48.
53.
58.
63.
68.

B
C
D
A
D
B

44.
49.
54.
59.
64.
69.

B
B
B
C
B
D

45.
50.
55.
60.
65.
70.

A
D
C
C
C
A

73.
78.
83.
88.
93.
98.

B
E
B
B
E
E

74.
79.
84.
89.
94.
99.

B
C
D
E
A
B

75.
80.
85.
90.
95.
100.

C
C
D
E
C
A

SECTION 3. ANALYTICAL ABILITY:

71.
76.
81.
86.
91.
96.

B
B
C
B
E
E

72.
77.
82.
87.
92.
97.

A
C
B
C
C
A

Analyzing Your Test Results

The chart on this page should be used to carefully analyze your results and spot your strengths
and weaknesses. The complete process of analyzing each subject area and each individual problem
should be completed for each practice test. These results should then be re-examined for trends in
types of errors (repeated errors) or poor results in specific subject areas. This reexamination and
analysis is of tremendous importance to you in assuring maximum test preparation benefits.

Section 1: Verbal Ability

Possible

1. Sentence Completion

2. Antonyms

3. Analogies

4. Reading Comprehension

13

Subtotal

40

Section 2: Quantitative Ability

Possible

1. Problem Solving

24

2. Quantitative Comparison

Subtotal

30

Section 3: Analytical Ability

Possible

1. Analytical Reasoning

22

2. Logical Reasoning

Subtotal

30

Overall Totals

100

Completed

Right

Wrong

Completed

Right

Wrong

Completed

Right

Wrong

Analysis/Tally
Missed

Sheet

for

Problems

One of the most important parts of test preparation is analyzing why you
missed a problem so that you can reduce the number of mistakes. Now that you
have taken the practice test and checked your answers, carefully tally your
mistakes by marking them in the proper column.
Lack
Possible Total Total Simple Misread Lack of
of
Missed Missed Mistake Problem Knowledge
Time
SECTION 1: VERBAL ABILITY
1.
Sentence
Completion

2. Antonyms

3. Analogies

4.
Reading
Comprehension

13

Subtotal

40
SECTION 2: QUANTITATIVE ABILITY

1. Problem Solving

24

2.
Quantitative
Comparison

Subtotal

30
SECTION 3: ANALYTICAL ABILITY

1.
Analytical
Reasoning

22

2.
Logical
Reasoning

Subtotal

30

Overall Totals

100

Reviewing the proceeding data should help you determine why you are missing
certain problems. Now that youve pinpointed the type of error, compare it to other
practice tests to spot other common mistakes.
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