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(c) carbon
(d) none of these
42. Combustion of pulverized coal as compared to
that of lump coal
(a) develops a non-luminous flame
(b) develops a low temperature flame
(c) can be done with less excess air
(d) provides a lower rate of heat release
43. Which of the following is the most important
deterrents to an extended use of pulverized coal
in boiler firing?
(a) ash disposal problem
(b) excessive fly-ash discharge from the stack
(c) high power consumption in its transportation
(d) erosion of induced draft fan blades
44. Pulverized coal used in boiler firing need have
(a) less moisture content
(b) high fusion point of its ash
(c) high bulk density
(d) lower ash constant
45. Dry air required to burn one lb of carbon
completely may be around
(a) 11.5 lb
(b) 2.67 lb
(c) 16 lb
(d) none of these
46. Dry air requirement for burning 1 ft of CO to
CO2 may be around
(a) 2.4 ft
(b) 1.75 ft
(c) 0.87 ft
(d) 11.4 ft
47. Washing of coal
(a) reduces its sulfur and ash content
(b) controls its ash fusibility and increases its
calorific value
(c) improves its coking properties
(d) all (a), (b), and (c)
48. Which of the following has the highest gross
calorific value?
(a) blast furnace gas
(b) coke oven gas
(c) carburetted water gas (d) oil refinery gas
49. Most of coking coals are
(a) anthracite coal
(b) bituminous coal
(c) lignite
(d) none of these
50. High excess air in combustion of fuels results in
(a) increased fuel consumption
(b) incomplete combustion
3
(c) lime and magnesia content (d) all (a), (b) (c)
60. Which of the following accentuates clinkering
trouble on furnace grate burning coal
(a) low density of carbonized residue containing
high proportions of iron and sulfur
(b) low forced draught and fuel bed temperature
(c) thick fire and preheated primary air
(d) all (a), (b) and (c)
61. A coal having high ratio of volatile matter to
fixed carbon as compared to a coal having low
ratio of volatile matter to fixed carbon
(a) is less liable to spontaneous combustion on
storage
(b) is more difficult to ignite and produces a
shorter flame
(c) requires smaller combustion space and less
secondary air
(d) none of these
62. Which of the following can be made into
briquettes without the use of a binder
(a) lignite
(b) bituminous coal
(c) anthracite coal
(d) none of these
63. Presence of free moisture in coal is most
disadvantageous during
(a) its pulverization (as it requires more
power)
(b) combustion of fine slacks on the grates
(c) handling (e.g. when emptying wagons)
(d) none of these
64. Which of the following is not a binder for coal
briquetting?
(a) coal tar
(b) bitumen
(c) molasses
(d) none of these
65. Highly caking coals
(a) produce weak coke
(b) produce strong coke
(c) may damage the coke oven walls during
carbonization
(d) both (b) and (c)
66. Presence of free moisture in coal during its high
temperature carbonization
(a) reduces the coking time
oxidation
(c)
temperature is more in former
whereas pressure is more in the latter
(d) pressure is more in the former
whereas temperature is less in the
latter
45. Cooking liquor in case of sulfite process
is
(a) sodium sulfite and sodium
bisulfite
(b) magnesium sulfite and free SO2 in
acid medium
(c) magnesium sulfate and magnesium
bicarbonate
(d) sodium bisulfite
46. Which is a high-grade pulp?
(a) rag pulp
(b) mechanical pulp
(c) sulfate pulp
(d) sulfite pulp
47. Which of the following paper does not
require a filler during manufacture?
(a) bond paper
(b) writing paper
(c) blotting paper
(d) colored paper
48. Bleaching of paper pulp is done with
(a) activated clay
(b) bromine
(c) chlorine or chlorine dioxide
(d) magnesium sulfite
49. Sizing material is incorporated in paper
to
(a) impart resistance to penetration
by liquids
(b) increase its thickness
(c) increase its flexibility and opacity
(d) increase its brightness
50. Viscose rayon is
(a) cellulose nitrate
(b) regenerated cellulose nitrate
(c) regenerated cellulose acetate
(d)regenerated cellulose fiber
51. Which of the following coal has the
highest calorific value?
(a) Lignite
(b) Sub-bituminous
(c) Anthracite
(d) Peat
52. The main product of high temperature
carbonization is
(a) Coke
(b) Ammonia
(c) Tar
(d) Phenol
53.
High temperature carbonization
produces
(a)
inferior coke compared to low
temperature carbonization
(b) less of gases compared to liquid
products
(c) larger quantity of tar compared to
low temperature carbonization
(d) relatively low tar and yields of
gaseous products are larger than
the yield of liquid
products
54. High temperature carbonization takes
place at
(a) 4000 - 5000F
(b) 950F
(c) > 1650F
(d) < 1000F
55. Low temperature carbonization takes
place at
(a) 500F
(b) 1300F
(c) 750 - 1100F
(d) 2500 F
56. Proximate analysis of coal determines
(a) moisture, ash, sulfur, volatile matter
(b) moisture, volatile matter
(c) moisture, sulfur, nitrogen, fixed
carbon
(d) carbon, hydrogen, ash
57. Ultimate analysis of coal determines
(a) moisture, hydrogen, nitrogen,
sulfur
(b) carbon, ash, sulfur,nitrogen
(c) carbon, sulfur, volatile matter, ash
(d) carbon,volatile matter, ash, moisture
58. Washing of coal is done to
(a) remove the inherent impurities
(b) remove the adhering impurities
(c) reduce the ash content
(d) both b and c
59. A good quality coal should have
(a) low fusion point of ash
(b) high ash content
c (c) high sulfur content
d (d) none of these
60. Coke oven gas consists mainly of
(a) H2, CH4
(b) CO, CO2
(c) H2, CO
(d) CH4, CO
61. Lurgi coal gasifier is a pressurized
(a) moving bed reactor
(b) fixed bed reactor
(c) fluidized bed reactor
(b) toluene
(c) nitrotoluene
(d) benzene
72.
Which is the most suitable dye for
synthetic fibers?
(a) acid dye
(b) azoic dye
(c) pigment dye
(d) mordant dye
73. Fumigant insecticides
(a) kill insects when they eat it
(b) emit poisonous vapor
(c) are absorbed throughout the plant
(d) are stomach poisons
74. Systemics insecticides
(a) are absorbed throughout the
plant
(b) kill insects following external bodily
contact
(c) are stomach poisons
(d) emit poisonous vapor
75. DDT stands
(a) diethyl-diphenyl-trichloromethane
(b) dichloro-diphenyl-trichloromethane
(c) diphenyl-dichloro-trichloromethane
(d)dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane
76. BHC (Benzene hexa-chloride) is made by
chlorination of benzene
(a) which is an addition reaction
(b) which is a substitution reaction
(c) in absolute dark
(d) in presence of sunlight
77. Analgesic drugs are
(a) pain relievers
(b) antibiotics
(c) used in the treatment of TB
(d) used in the treatment of typhoid
78. Antibiotic
(a) prohibits/destroys the growth of
micro-organism
(b) is used as pain reliever
e (c) is an anti-malaria
(d) is an anaesthetic
79. Penicillin is made employing
(a) continuous
fermentation
process
(b)aerobic batch fermentation
(c) anaerobic batch fermentation
(d) aerobic
or
anaerobic
batch
fermentation
80.
Which of the following is not an
antibiotic?
(a) penicillin
(b) streptomycin
(c) tetracyclin
(d)quinine
than 50%
(c) Sodium sulfate or sodium
carbonates do not cause hardness in water
(d) Water with pH value less than 7, is
acidic
115. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining
to solvent extraction of oil
Rate of extraction.
(a) decreases with decrease of
thickness of the flakes
(b) increases with the increasing flake
size keeping the flake thickness constant
(c) increases considerably with the rise
of temperature
g
(d) decreases as the moisture content
of flakes increases
116. Fats as compared to oils have
(a) more unsaturated glycerides of
fatty acids
(b) less unsaturated glycerides of
fatty acids
(c) much higher reactivity to oxygen
h
(d) lower melting point
117. Salt is added in the kettle during soap
manufacture to separate
(a) soap from lye
(b) glycerin from lye
(c) the metallic soap
(d) the unsaponified fat from soap
118. Hydrazine (N2H4) is used mainly as
(a) explosive
(b) rocket fuel
i (c) an additive in detergent
j (d) catalyst
119. Oils are partially hydrogenated (not
fully) to manufacture vanaspati, because
fully saturated
solidified oils
(a) cause cholesterol build up and
blood clotting
(b) are prone to rancid oxidation
(c) always contain some amount of
nickel (as their complete removal is very
difficult)
(d) have affinity to retain harmful sulfur
compounds
120. Hydrogenation of oil takes place in
(a) an autothermal reactor
(b) a trickle bed reactor
(c) a plug flow reactor
(d) backmix reactor
121. Temperature during hydrogenation of oil
should not be more than 200C, otherwise it
will
result in
(a) pyrolysis of oil
b) spray dryer
c) tray dryer
d) rotary dryer
4. Equilibrium-moisture curves of different
solids
a) are different
b) are same
c) depend on the humidity of the gas
d) none of these
5. Detergent solution is dried to a powder in
a
a) spray dryer
b) spouted bed dryer
c) tunnel dryer
d) pan open to atmosphere.
6. If moisture content of a solid on dry basis
is X then the same on wet basis is
a)
X
b)
X+1
X
c)
1-X
1+X
a) cylinder dryer
b) conveyor dryer
c) tunnel dryer
d) festoon dryer
20.Sticky material can be dried in a
a) tray dryer
b) rotary dryer
c) fluidized bed dryer
d) none of these
21.Drying of a solid involves
a) only heat transfer
b) only mass transfer
c) both heat and mass transfer
d) none of these
22.A solid material shows case hardening
properties while drying. Which of the
following
should be controlled to control the drying
process?
a) flow rate of inlet air
b) relative humidity of outlet air
c) humidity of inlet air
d) temperature of the solid
23.Capacity of a rotary dryer depends on
a) its r.p.m
b) its inclination with ground surface
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
24.Air at a particular humidity is heated in a
furnace. The new dew point
a) decreases
b) increases
c) depends on the extent of heating
d) remains unchanged
25.The critical moisture content in case of
drying indicates
a) beginning of falling rate period
b) beginning of constant rate period
c) end of falling rate period
d) none of these
26.A slurry is to be dried to produce flaky
solid.
Which
dryer
would
you
recommend?
a) spray dryer
b) drum dryer
c) rotary dryer
d) dielectric dryer
27.For continuous drying of granular or
crystalline material, the dryer used is
a) tunnel
b) tray
c) rotary
d) none of these
28.All moisture in a non-hygroscopic material
ismoisture
a) free
b) equilibrium
c) unbound
d) bound
29.During constant rate period, the rate of
drying decreases with
a) decrease in air temperature
b) increased air humidity
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
30.Which is the controlling factor for a drum
dryer?
a) diffusion
b) heat transfer
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
31.Paper industry employs..dryers
a) cylinder
b) rotary
c) spray
d) fluidized bed
32.Sand is dried in foundaries in a ..dryer
a) rotary
b) fluidized bed
c) vacuum
d) spray
33.Free flowing granular materials can be
best dried in a
a) rotary dryer
b) cylinder dryer
c) drum dryer
d) freeze dryer
1. Humidification involves mass transfer
between a pure liquid phase and a fixed
gas which is:
a) insoluble in the liquid
b) soluble in the liquid
c) non-ideal in nature
d) at a fixed temperature
2. At a fixed total pressure, humidity
depends only on the
a) partial pressure of vapor in the
mixture
b) heat capacity of the vapor
c) density of the vapor
d) none of these
3. In saturated gas, the
a) vapor is in equilibrium with the
liquid at the gas temperature
b) vapor is in equilibrium with the liquid
at the room temperature
c) partial pressure of vapor equals the
vapor pressure of the liquid at room
temperature
d) none of these
supply?
a) wet bulb temperature
b) relative humidity
c) partial pressure of vapor
d) both b and c
29.The relative saturation of a partially
saturated mixture of vapor and gas can
be increased by
a) reducing the total pressure of the
mixture
b) increasing the total pressure of the
mixture
c) reducing the temperature of the
mixture
d) both b and c
30.Condensation of a vapor-gas mixture just
begin when
a) p = P
b) p P
c) p P
d) p>= P
where: p = partial pressure of the vapor
P = vapor pressure of the liquid
31.Unsaturated air (with dry and wet bulb
temperatures being 35oC and 25oC
respectively) is
passed through water spray chamber
maintained at 35oC. The air will be
a) cooled
b) humidified
c) both a and b
d) dehumidified
32.In case of unsaturated air
a) dew point wet bulb temperature
b) wet bulb temperature dry bulb
temperature
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
33.Unsaturated
air
(with
dry
bulb
temperature and dew point being 35oC
and 18oC respectively)
is passed through a water spray chamber
maintained at 15oC. The air will be
a) cooled and humidified
b) cooled and dehumidified with increase
in wet bulb temperature
c) cooled at the same relative humidity
d) cooled and dehumidified with
decrease in wet bulb temperature
34.Which of the following parameters
remains almost constant during adiabatic
saturation of
unsaturated air?
a) dry bulb temperature
b) dew point
c) wet bulb temperature
d) none of these
35.Unsaturated air (with dry bulb and wet
bulb temperatures being 45oC and 25oC
respectively)
is passed through a water spray chamber
maintained at 23oC. The air will be
a) cooled and humidified with wet
bulb temperature decreasing
b) cooled and humidified at constant wet
bulb temperature
c) cooled and dehumidified
d) none of these
1. The unit of volumetric diffusivity is
a.) cm2/ec
b.) cm/sec
c.) cm3/sec
d.) cm3/sec3
2. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture
is related to the temperature (T) as
a.) D T
b.) D T0.5
c.) D T1.5
d.) D T3
3. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture
is related to the pressure (P) as
a.) D T1.5
c.) D
1
P
a.) K D
b.) K D
1.5
c.) K D
d.) K D2
8. Penetration theory relates average mass
transfer co-efficient (K) with diffusivity (D)
as
a.) K D
b.) K D
1.5
c.) K D
d.) K D2
9. Corresponding to Prandtl number in heat
transfer, the dimensionless group in mass
transfer is
a.) Schmidt number b.) Sherwood
number
c.) Peclet number
d.) Stanton
number
10.Schmidt number is
a.)
b.) Re.Pe
DAB
b.) Sh x Pe
d.) Re / Pe
11.In physical terms, Schmidt number means
a.) thermal diffusivity / mass diffusivity
b.) thermal diffusivity / momentum
diffuisivity
c.) momentum diffusivity / mass
diffusivity
d.) mass diffusivity / thermal diffusivity
12.Corresponding to Nusselt number in heat
transfer, the dimensionless group in mass
transfer, is
a.) Scherwood number b.) Schmidt
number
c.) Peclet number
d.) Stanton
number
13.Mass transfer coefficient of liquid is
a.) affected more by temperature
than that for gases
b.) affected much by less temperature
than that for gases
c.) not affected by temperature
d.) none of these
14.Lewis number (Le) is
a.) Sc x Pr
b.) Pr x Sc
c.) Sc x Pr
d.) St
x Sh
15.Which of the following is not a unit of
mass transfer coeffiecient?
a.)
moles transferred
(time)(area)(mole fraction)
b.)
moles transferred
( time)(area)(pressure)
c.)
mass transferred
(time)(area)(mass A / mass B)
d.) none of these
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
a.
b.
c.
d.
11.
12.
13.
14.
increases
decreases
remains unchanged
may increase or decrease; depends on type
of adsorbate
The change in enthalpy when a unit quantity of gas
is adsorbed by a relatively large quantity of
adsorbent (on which a definite concentration of the
adsorbed gas already exists) is termed as the
a. differential heat of adsorption
c. integral heat of adsorption
b. heat of wetting
d. heat of normal condensation
As complete saturation of an adsorbent is
approached, the differential heat of adsorption
approaches
a. heat of normal condensation c. zero
b. integral heat of adsorption d.
none of
these
Ion exchange process is similar to
a. absorption
c. adsorption
b. extraction
d. leaching
CO2 can be adsorbed by
a. hot cupric oxide
c. Cold Ca (OH)2
b. heated charcoal
d. alumina
a. iron ores
c. quartz
b. sulfide ores
d. metal ores
2. In Froth Flotation, chemical agent added to cause air
adherence is called
a. collector
c. modifier
b. frother
d. promoter
3. Pine oil used in forth flotation technique acts as a
a. collector
c.
frother
b. modifier
d. activator
4. Which of the following is the most suitable for
cleaning of fine coal dust (< 0.5 m)?
a. Through washer
c. Spiral separator
b. Baum Jig Washer d. Froth Flotation
1. Which of the following operations does not involve
leaching?
a. dissolving gold from ores
b. dissolving pharmaceutical products from bark or
roots
c. dissolving sugar from the cells of the best
d. removing nicotine from its water solution by
kerosene
2. Tea percolation employs
a. liquid-liquid extraction c. absorption
b. leaching
d. adsorption
3. Rate of leaching increases with increasing
a. temperature
c. pressure
b. viscosity of solvent
d. size of the solid
4. Stage efficiency in a leaching process depends on
the
a. time of contact between the solid and the
solution
b. rate of diffusion of the solute through the solid
and into the liquid
c. both a and b
d. vapor pressure of the solution
5. Extraction of coffee from its seed is done by
a. liquid-liquid extraction c.
extractive
distillation
b. leaching
d. steam distillation
6. Leaching of sugar from sugar beets is done by
a. hot water
c. dilute H2SO4
b. hexane
d. lime water
7. With increase in temperature, the leaching rate
increases due to
a. decreased liquid viscosity
c. both a and
b
b. increased diffusivity
d. neither a nor b
8. Leaching rate is independent of the
a. agitation
c. temperature
b. particle size
d. none of these
( i ), ( iv ), ( v ), ( vii ) c. ( i ), ( iii ), ( v ),
( vii )
b.
( i ), ( iii ), ( v ), ( vi ) d. ( i ), ( ii ), ( iv ), (
vii )
4. Selectivity of solvent used in extraction should be
a. 1
c. > 1
b. < 1
d. 0
5. In liquid extraction, if selectivity is unity, then
a. separation of the constituent is most
effective
b. no separation will occur
c. amount of solvent required will be minimum
d. solvent flow rate should be very low
6. When the solvent dissolves very little of solute then
a. solvent of low latent heat of vaporization
should be used
b. solvent of low freezing point should be used
c. large quantity of solvent is required to
extract the solute
d. very small quantity of solute is required
b. screen size
d. surface area per unit mass
10. Trommels separate a mixture of particles depending
on their
a. size
c. screen size
b. wet ability
d. electrical and magnetic
11. Screen capacity is expressed in terms of
a. tons/h
b. tons/ft2
c. both a and b
d. tons/h-ft2
12. Which of the following screens has the maximum
capacity?
a. grizzlies
c. shaking screen
b. trommels
d. vibrating screen
13. For sizing of fine materials, the most suitable
equipment is a
a. trommel
c. shaking screen
b. grizzly
d. vibrating screen
14. Mesh number indicates the number of holes per
a. square inch
c. square foot
b. linear inch
d. linear foot
15. Optimum ratio of operating speed to critical speed of
a trommel is
a. 0.33 0.45
c. 0.5 2
b. 1.33 1.45
d. 1.5 2.5
16. 200 mesh screens means
a. 200 openings/cm2
c. 200 openings/cm
b. 200 openings/inch
d. 200 openings/inch2
17. In screen analysis, notation + 5 mm/ -10 mm means
passing through
a. 10 mm screen and retained on 5 mm screen
b. 5 mm screen and retained on 10 mm screen
c. both 5 mm and 13 mm screens
d. neither 5 mm nor 10 mm screens
18. The critical speed of a trommel (n) is related to its
diameter (D)
1
N
D
N D
a.
c.
1
N
N D
D
b.
d.
19. With increase in the capacity of screens, the screen
effectiveness
a. remains unchanged
c. decreases
b. increases
d. decreases exponentially
20. Vibrating screens have capacity (tons/ft 2 hr mm
mesh size) in the range of
a. 0.2 to 0.8
c. 50 to 100
b. 5 to 25
d. 100 to 250
21. The material passing one screening surface and
retained on a subsequent surface is called
a. intermediate material
c.
plus
material
b. minus
d. none of the above
SEDIMENTATION
Questions 1 and 2 are based on the following
information and illustration
1
In an experiment, a sphere of density
and
1
radius r is dropped in a tank of oil of viscosity
and
2
density
. The time of descent for the sphere through
the first section of height d is recorded as t1 and through
the second section of the same height as t2, 0 < t2 t1 <<
1.
Sphere
d
d
(1)
2
a. 1
c. 1
b. 0.5
d. 0.5
14. The terminal velocity of a small sphere settling in a
viscous fluid varies as the
a. first power of its diameter
b. inverse of the fluid viscosity
c. inverse square of the diameter
d. square of the difference in specific weights of
solid and fluid
15. Buoyant force
a. for non symmetrical bodies is not vertical
b. depends on the depth of the submergence of the
floating body
c. depends on the weight of the floating body
d. none of these
16. Center of pressure in an immersed body is _______
the center of gravity
a. Above
b. below
c. at
d. either above or below; depends on the liquid
density
17. The line of action of the buoyant force passes
through the center of gravity of the
a. submerged body
b. displaced volume of the fluid
c. volume of fluid vertically above the body
d. horizontal projection of the body
18. Drag is the force component exerted on an immersed
object
a. passing the centroid of the body at 60 to the
direction of motion
b. the component being parallel to the flow
direction
c. the component being normal to the flow
direction
d. none of these
19. Sphericity of raschig ring (whose length and
diameter are equal) is
a. >1
c. <2
b. 1
d. 2
20. Sphericity of pulverized coal is
a. 1
c. <1
b. >1
d.
21. Sedimentation on commercial scale occurs in
a. classifiers
c. thickeners
b. rotary drum filters
d. cyclones
22. For non spherical particle, the sphericity
a. is defined as the ratio of surface area of a
sphere having the same volume as the particle
to the actual surface area of the particle
b. has a dimension of length
c. is always less than 1
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
c. Ball mill
b. Squirrel-cage disintegrator
d.
none of
these
As the product becomes finer, the energy required
for grinding
a. Decreases c. is same as for coarser grinding
b. increases d. is 1.5 times than for coarser
grinding
Ultrafine grinders operate principally by
a. slow compression
c. attrition
b. impact
d. cutting action
The energy consumed by a ball mill depends on
a. its speed c. the density of the material being
ground
b. its ball load
d. all a, b and c
Grinding efficiency of a ball mill is of the order of
a. 1 5%
c. 75 80%
b. 40 50%
d. 90 95%
In case of a revolving mill, wet grinding compared
to dry grinding
a. requires more energy
c.
complicates
handling and classification of the product
b. has less capacity
d. none of these
Choke crushing (in case of a jaw crusher) compared
to free crushing
a. results in increased capacity
c. consumes more power
b. consumes less power
d. both a and c
For efficient grinding, ball mills, must be operated
a. at a speed less than critical speed
c. at a speed equal to critical speed
b. at a speed more than critical speed
d. with minimum possible small balls
To get ultra fine particles, the equipment used is
a. ball mill
c. hammer crusher
b. rod mill
d. fluid energy mill
The material is crushed in a gyratory crusher by the
action of
a. impact
c. compression
b. attrition
d. cutting
To get fine talc powder from its granules, the
equipment used is
a. roller crusher
c. jaw crusher
b. ball mill
d. gyratory crusher
Ball mill is used for
a. crushing
c. fine grinding
b. coarse grinding
d. attrition
The main differentiation factor between tube mill
and ball mill is the
a. length to diameter ratio
c. final product size
b. size of the grinding media
d. operating speed
Kicks law relates to
a. energy consumption c. feed size
b. final particle size
d. none of these
c.
S /V p
2
b.
S /V p
when
volume ratio
respectively
S /V f
d.
S /V f
and
of the
are surface to
product and feed
c. column
d. saddles
2. Bracket supports are most suitable for
a. thick walled vertical vessels
b. horizontal vessels
c. thin spherical vessel (e.g. Hortonsphere)
d. none of these
3. Skirt support is most suitable for
a. small horizontal vessels b. large horizontal
vessels
c. tall vertical vessels
d. thick walled small vertical vessels
4. Saddle supports are used for supporting
a. horizontal cylindrical vessels
b. tall vertical vessels
c. thick walled vertical vessels
d. thick spherical vessels
5. Wind load consideration in the design of a
support can be neglected when the vessel is
a. tall (say 30 meters) but is full of liquid
b. tall but empty
c. short (<2 m) and housed indoor
d. none of these
6. Leg support is meant for
a. large horizontal cylindrical vessels
b. tall but empty vessels
c. small vessels
d. thick walled tall
vessels
7. The force due to wind load acting on a tall
vessels depends upon its
a. shape
b. outside diameter
c. height
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
8. Joint efficiency for a seamless pipe is
a. 1
b. 0.85
c.1.2
d. 0.5
9. In the design of a paddle agitator the ratio
paddle diameter to tank diameter is normally
taken as:
a.0.1 b. 0.8
c.0.25
d. 0.5
10. The ratio propeller agitator diameter to tank
diameter is normally taken as
a. 0.15-0.30 b. 0.5-0.65
c. 0.75-0.85
d. 0.60-0.90
11. Baffle width is normally taken as
a. 0.1-0.12 tank diameter
b. 0.4-0.5 tank diameter
c. 0.45-0.6 tank diameter
d. 0.2-0.45 tank diameter
12. The minimum baffle height should be
a. equal to the impeller diameter
b. twice the impeller diameter
c. twice the diameter
d. 3/4 of the tank height
13. Baffles may be eliminated for
a. low viscosity liquids (<200 poise)
b. high viscosity (>600 poise)
c. large diameter tank
d. none of
these
14. Power required for agitation depends upon
the
(c)
Diopt 3.9 q f
0.45
0.13
a.
Diopt 4.7 q f
0.49
Diopt 3 q f
0.36
0.14
c.
Diopt 3.9 q f
a.
0.45
c 0.95
d.
qf
where
c 0.18
c
= fluid viscosity, centipoise
Diopt
= optimum inside pipe diameter, inches
Diopt 3.6 q f
0.45
c 0.28
a.
0.487
c 0.025
c.
Diopt 3 q f
a.
Diopt q f
0.36
0.18
Diopt q f
0.364
0.182
d.
c.
(a) __1__
s + 1
(b) __s_____
1 + s
(c) __1
s -1
(d) __s_____
s - 1
2. The transfer function of the first order system is
(a) __1
Ts + 1
(b) _1_
Ts
(c)___s__
Ts + 1
(d) 1/s
(b)
(a)
(b)
36.
The symbol for
instrumentation diagram is
(c)
capillary
line
in
(a) | e | dt
(b) | e | dt
(c)
e2 dt
60.
Pressure of 0.0001 absolute psi can be
measured by
(a) Meloid gauge
(b) Pirani gauge
(d) copper-aluminum
65. pH meter has
(a) one cell
(b) two cells
(c) three cells (d) no cell
66. Maximum differential pressure in liquid manometer
is
(a) 20 psi
(b) 30 psi
(c) 40 psi
(d) 50 psi
67. Interfacial level in pressure vessel is measured
(a) float (b) manometers of float type
(c) U-tube manometer d) Bourdon gauge
68. Flow rate of sludge is measured by
(a) V-notch
b) rectangular notch
(c) circular pipe (d) Kennison nozzle
69. Composition of natural gas can be determined by
(a) chromatograph
b) orsat apparatus
(c) spectrometer d) photometer
70. Bellows are made of
(a) leather
(b) paper
(c) plastic
d) thin copper
71. Flapper nozzle is a
(a) pneumatic controller
(b) hydraulic
controller
(c) electronic controller (d) both a and b
72. Weir valve is used for
(a) slurries
(b) acids
(c) neutral solutions
(d) bases
73. Valve used to supply oil to burner is
(a) gate valve
(b) butterfly valve
(c) rotary plug valve
(d) both a and b
74.
Mode used for transmitting signal for one
kilometer distance is
(a) hydraulic
(b) pneumatic
(c) electronic
(d) all a, b and c
75. Use of pilot in transmission (pneumatic) is to
(a) speed up signal
(b) change the flow
of air
(c) adjust the signal
(d) all a, b and c
76. Final control element is a
(a) valve
(b) switch
(c) signal (d) both a and b
77. Example of a second order instrument is a
(a)
mercury-glass
thermometer
with
covering
(b) bare mercury-glass thermometer
(c) pressure gauge
(d) Bourdon gauge
78. Offset
(a) varies with time
(b) varies exponentially
with time
(c) does not vary with time
(d) varies as square of the time
79. Regulator problem means that
(a) set point is constant
(b) load is
constant
80. Servo problem means that
(a) set point is constant
(b) load is
constant
(c) both a and b
(d) neither a nor b
81.
Critically damped system means that the damping
coefficient is
(a) 1
(b) < 1
(c) > 1
(d) 0
82. In Bode stability criterion, amplitude ratio at
180 should be
(a) 1
(b) < 1
(c) > 1
(d) 0
83. Phase plane method is used for
(a) linear-behavior
(b) non-linear
behavior
(c) both a and b
(d) neither a nor b
84. Laplace transform method is used for
(a) linear behavior
(b) non-linear behavior
(c) both a and b
(d) neither a nor b
85. Phase lag of first order system is
(a) tan-1 (T)
(b) tan-1 (T)
(c) /2
d) 0
86. P-I controller as compared to P-controller has
a
(a) higher maximum deviation
(b) longer response time
(c) longer period of oscillation(d) all a, b
and c
87. Difference at any instant between the value
of controlled variable and the set point is
called
(a) deviation
(b) derivative time
(c) error ratio
(d) differential gap
88. The time difference by which the output of a
P-D controller leads the input when the input
changes linearly with time is called
(a) error ratio
(b) derivative time
(c) proportional sensitivity (d) gain
89.
Steady state deviation resulting from a
change in the value of the load variable is called
(a) offset
(b) error ratio
(c) deviation (d) static ratio
90. Time required for the output of a first order
system to change from a given value to within
36.8% of the final value when a step change of
input is made is called
(a) time constant
(b) settling time
(c) rise time
(d) derivative time
91.
A controller action in which there is a
continuous linear relation between value of the
controlled variable and rate of change of
controlled output signal is called
(a) proportional action
(b) integral
action
(c) derivative action (d)
proportionalintegral action
92.
A controller action in which there is a
continuous relation between value of the
controlled variable and the value of the output
signal of the controller is called
(a) proportional action (b) derivative action
(c) integral action (d) proportional-derivative
93.
Steady state ratio of the change of
proportional controller output variable and the
change in actuating signal is called
(a) proportional sensitivity (b) reset rate
(c) rangeability (d) integral action
94. In case of flow measurement by an orifice,
the pressure difference signal is
proportional to
(a) Q
(b) Q
(c) Q3
(d) 1 /Q
95. Thermistor is a
(a) semiconductor whose resistance
decreases with temperature rise
(b) metal whose resistance increases linearly
with temperature rise
(c) metal whose resistance does not vary
with temperature
(d) device for measuring nuclear radiation
96. Which of the following factors does not
influence measurement accuracy?
(a) static and dynamic error b) reproducibility
(c) dead zone (d) none of these
97.
Which of the following is suitable for
measuring the temperature of a red hot moving
object
(e.g. steel ingots on roller table) ?
(a) thermocouple (b) radiation pyrometer
(c) thermistor (d) radiograph
98. Thermocouples
(a) have very slow speed of response
(b) cant be connected to the measuring
instrument remotely located
(c) need cold junction compensation
(d) are much less accurate compared to
bimetallic or vapor pressure thermometer
99.
Selection of material for thermocouple
depends on the
(a) depth of immersion in the hot fluid
(b) minimum and maximum temperature
(c) pressure and velocity condition of the
fluid whose temperature is to be
measured
(d) both a and b
100. Radiation pyrometers
(a)
have very low speed of response
(b) need not see the temperature source; it
is measuring
(c) cant measure temperature of objects
without making physical contact
(d) none of these
101. V-notch is used to measure flow rate of a
liquid in
(a) an open channel
(b) a non-circular cross-section closed channel
(c) vertical pipeline (d) horizontal pipeline
102.
Which of the following is not a head
flowmeter?
(a) segmental orifice plate
(b) pitot tube
(c) rotameter (d) flow nozzle
103. Flow rate of a liquid containing heavy solids
(e.g. sand) can be best measured by
(a) pitot tube
(b) concentric orifice
(c) eccentric orifice
(d) rotameter
104. Orifice plates for flow measurement
(a) incurs very low permanent pressure
loss
(b)
has
poor
accuracy on high orifice ratios (above
0.75)
(c) cant be easily interchanged
(d) is best for very large liquid flows and big
pipelines
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
c. working capital
d. present
14. Funds supplied by others on which a fixed rate of
interest must be paid and the debt be repaid at a
specific place and time
a. discount
b. cash flow
c. working capital
d. borrowed capital
15. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered
for sale at a certain price at a given place and time
a. supply
b. demand
c. discount
d. investment
16. The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought
at a certain price at a given place and time.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
a. supply
b. demand
c. discount
d. investment
A condition where only few individuals produce a
certain product that action of one will lead to
almost the same action by the other.
a. monopoly
b. oligopoly
c. semi monopoly d. perfect competition
Is the simplest form of business organization
a. sole proprietorship
b. enterprise
c. partnership
d. corporation
An association of two or more persons for a
purpose of engaging in a profitable business
a. sole proprietorship
b. enterprise
c. partnership
d. corporation
A distinct legal entity which can practically transact
any business transaction which a real person could
do.
a. sole proprietorship
b. enterprise
c. partnership
d. corporation
An increase in the value of capital asset is called
a. profit
b. capital gain
c. capital expenditure
d. capital stock
The reduction in the money value of a capital asset
is called
a. capital expenditure
b. capital loss
c. loss
d. deficit
The difference between sales revenue and the cost
of goods sold
a. net income
b. gross profit
c. rate of return
d. gross national product
A currency traded in a foreign exchange market for
which the demand is consistently high in relation to
its supply
a. money market
b. hard currency
c. treasury bill
d. certificate of deposit
Defined as the certificate of indebtedness of a
corporation usually for a period not less than 10
years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain
assets of a corporation
a. bonds
b. T-bills
c. stock
d. all of these
It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a
term deposit
a. time deposit
b. bond
c. capital gain
d. certificate of deposit
The amount of a company's profit that the board of
directors of the corporation decides to distribute to
ordinary shareholders
a. dividend
b. return
c. share stock
d. par value
a document that shows proof of legal ownership of
a financial security
a. bond
b. bank note
c. coupon
d. check
The process determining the value of certain
properties for definite reasons
a. valuation
b. appraisal
c. estimate
d. both a and b
Represent
ownership
and
enjoys
certain
preferences than ordinary stock
a. authorized capital stock b. preferred stock
c. common stock
d. incorporators stock
It is the difference between present worth and the
worth of the paper at some time in the future
a. discount
b. amortization
c. depletion
d. investment
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
1.
a. market value
b. book value
c. goodwill value
d. franchise value
The length of time during which it is capable of
performing the function for which it was designed
and manufactured.
a. economic life
b. business life
c. insular life
d. physical life
Products that are directly used by people to satisfy
their wants.
a. supply
b. consumer goods
c. producer goods
d. cash flows
A change in cost for a small change in volume of
production.
a. fixed cost
b. sunk cost
c. first cost
d. differential cost
An amount which has been spent and for some
reasons cannot be recovered.
a. sunk cost
b. first cost
c. increment
d. fixed cost
The difference between the book value and the
actual lower resale value is
a. salvage value
b. resale value
c. sunk cost
d. fixed cost
It occurs when a unique product or service is
available only from a single supplier and entry of
all other possible suppliers presented.
a. competition
b. monopoly
c. inventory
d. profitability
A place where buyer and seller come together
a. market
b. shop
c. department store
d. parlor
Ratio of annual net profit and the capital invested
a. proportion
b. rate of return
c. load factor
d. use factor
The price of which a willing buyer will pay to a
willing seller for a commodity
a. resale value
b. market value
c. book value
d. scrap value
The price of property when sold for a junk
a. scrap value
b. book value
c. resale value
d. market value
An interest earning fund in which equal deposits
are made at equal intervals of time
a. annuity
b. sinking fund
c. interest
d. investment
A term describing wealth which is placed in a
business and could include cash equipment, raw
materials and finished products
a. capital
b. investment
c. collateral
d. assets
The first cost of any property includes
a. the original purchase price and freight and
transportation charges
b. installation expenses
c. initial taxes and permits' fee
d. all of the above
d.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
d.
13.
B
A
14.
ml of EDTA solution
a.
b.
c.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
c. TLC
d. Adsorption chromatography with gradient elution
To deionize tap water by ion exchange for laboratory use, the
best approach employs
a. a column containing a strong-acid cation exchange in the
hydrogen form
b. a column containing a strong-base anion exchanger in the
hydroxyl form
c. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation
exchanger in the sodium form and a strong-base anion
exchanger in the chloride form
d. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation
exchanger in the hydrogen form and a strong-base
anion exchanger in the hydroxyl form
Line spectra are emitted by
a. incandescent solids
b. excited molecules
c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. excited atoms and monatomic ions
Band spectra are emitted by
a. tungsten lamps and Nernst glowers
b. excited molecules in the vapor phase
c. excited atoms and monatomic ions
d. incandescent solids
A chemical engineer is conducting research on the development
of analytical methods based upon chemiluminescence. If a
conventional spectrofluorometer is used for the measurements,
an the instrument has separate switches for its various circuits,
which switch will be left in the "off" position?
a. detector power supply
b. amplifier
c. source power supply
d. power to the motor drive of the scanning monochromator
on the emission side of the instrument
In flame spectroscopy, the highest temperature fuel oxidant
combination available as yet is
a. hydrogen-oxygen
b. hydrogen-nitrous oxide
c. acetylene-oxygen
d. acetylene-nitrous oxide
If the change in a molecule caused by absorption of light energy
involves change in the average separation of the nuclei of two or
more atoms, then the change is
a. electronic
b. vibrational
c. translational
d. rotational
The nephelometric method of analysis is based upon
a. Beer's law
b. Fajar's law
c. Bouger law's
d. Beer Lambert's Law
IR spectro-photometers have practically the same basic
components as visible and UV spectro-photometers. In which of
the following basic components could the devices be used
interchangeable in both:
a. sources of radiant energy
b. optical system
c. sample holders
d. detectors
Which of the following may not be used in the determination of
sugars?
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
a. TLC chromatography
b. Polarimetry
c. Copper reduction methods
d. Lane and Eynon methods
Which is not the recommended device for a filter photometry?
a. hydrogen arc lamp
b. glass filter
c. barrier layer photocell
d. none of these
This law states that the amount of light absorbed or transmitted
by a solution is an experimental function of the concentration of
absorbing substance present and the sample path length
a. Bouger's Law
b. Beer's Law
c. Lambert's Law
d. Bouger-Beer Law
Deviation's from Beer's Law may be due to
a. instrumental
b. intermolecular reactions
c. formation of complexions with varying number of ligonds
d. all of these
IR spectrophotometers have the same basic components as UV
spectrophotometers, except:
a. source of radiant energy and the kind of detectors
b. materials used in the optical system
c. materials used in the sample cells
d. all of these
Which of the following involves emission of radiation by excited
atoms:
a. Ultra-violet spectrophotometry
b. Infra-red spectrophotometry
c. Atomic absorption spectrometry
d. Nephelopmetry
The absorption of a solution of a particular substance does not
depend on the :
a. wavelength of the incident light
b. intensity of the incident light
c. concentration of the substance
d. thickness of the sample cell
If we compare flame spectrophotometry and emission
spectroscopy, which of the following statements will be true?
a. Flame photometry is more senstive than emission
spectroscopy
b. Flame photometry can analyze more metals than
emission spectroscopy
c. Flame photometry is less sensitive to the matrix than
emission spectroscopy
d. Flame photometry is simpler to use than emission
spectroscopy
Atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS) differs from visible
absorption spectrophotometry because AAS
a. has no light source
b. does not need a monochromator
c. does not follow Beer's Law
d. destroys the sample when a reading is made
Gas chromatography does not use this detector
a. thermal conductivity detector
b. refractive index detector
c. flame ionization detector
d. electron capture detector
In gas chromatography, the retention time is not dependent on
a. carrier gas velocity
b.
c.
d.
column temperature
volume of compound analyzed
volatility of compound analyzed
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
e. n = constant
P
Of the following, ______________ is a valid statement of
Charles law.
a. P = constant
T
b. V = constant
T
c. PV = constant
d. V = constant x n
e. V = constant x P
Which one of the following is a valid statement of
Avogadros law?
a. P = constant
T
b. V = constant
T
c. PV = constant
d. V = constant x n
e. V = constant x P
The volume of an ideal gas is zero at _________.
a. 0C
b. -45F
c. -273K
d. -363K
e.
-273C
Of the following, only _________ is impossible for an ideal
gas.
a. V1 = V2
T1 T2
b. V1T1 = V2T2 V1 = T1
V2 T2
c. V2 = T2 ( V1)
T1
d. V1 = T1 = 0
V2 T2
The molar volume of a gas at STP is _____L.
a. 0.08206
b. 62.36
c. 1.00
d. 22.4
e. 14.7
A gas is considered ideal if ___________.
a. it is not compressible
b. one mole of it occupies exactly 1 liter at standard
temperature and pressure
c. it can be shown to occupy zero volume at 0C
d. its behavior is described by the ideal-gas
equation
e. one mole of it in a one-liter container exerts a
pressure exactly 1 atm at room temperature
For which of the following changes is not clear whether
the volume of a particular sample of an ideal gas will
increase or decrease?
a. increase the temperature and increase the
pressure
b. increase the temperature and decrease the pressure
c. increase the temperature and keep the pressure
constant
d. keep temperature constant and decrease the
pressure
a.
b.
d.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
b.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
a. 1/8 b. c.
d. 1
e. 2
91. The coordination number of each cesium atom in
CsCl is
a. 1 b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
e. 12
92. A certain solid is a good insulator, is brittle, and
has a high melting point. The substance readily
conducts electricity when molten. This substance is
most likely _____ in nature.
a. molecular b. covalent
c. ionic
d. metallic
e. it could be more than one of
these
93. In a metallic solid, _______ are located at the lattice
points.
a. neutral metal atoms b. molecules
c. positively
charged core ions d. electrons e. atomic clusters
94. The metal with the highest melting point is
a. Pt b. Rh c. Nb
d. Ga
e. W
95. A structure that forms naturally when identical rigid
spheres are placed as close together as possible is
called a ____ arrangement.
a. primitive b. close-packed
c. facecentered
d. dense
e. nematic
96. A crystal structure which yields close packing for
uniform rigid spheres is
a. primitive cubic b. tetragonal c. body-centered cubic
d. all of these e. none of these
97. In the hexagonal close-packed structure, each
atom has a coordination number of
a. 2 b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
e. 12
98. In diamond, each carbon is covalently bonded to
________ other carbon atoms
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
e. 8
99. The most stable form of sulfur at room temperature
is
a. gaseous atoms b. long chains of sulfur atoms c. S4
tetrahedral d. S2 molecules with double bonds e. S8
rings
100.
Which element in group V does not form a solid
with each atom bonded to three others?
a. As
b. Bi
c. N
d. P
e. Sb
101.
Which of the following forms a layered
structure?
a. graphite b. white tin
c. sulfur
d. red phosphorous
e.
all of these
102.
Which of the following forms a solid with the
diamond structure?
a. sulfur
b. white tin
c. red phosphorous
d. sodium
e. gray tin
103.
The crystal defect in which an atom or ion is
displaced from its regular position in the lattice to
an interstitial site is called a(n)
a. Schottky defect b. Frenkel defect
c. Fcenter d. site defect
e. berthollide
104.
Irradiation of NaCl with ultraviolet light can
cause
a. chloride ions to lose electrons to the crystalline
lattice
b. formation of an F-center
c. formation of a nonstoichiometric crystal
d. all of these
e. none of these
105.
In a plastic crystal,
a. the molecules tumble before the lattice s
disrupted
b. the lattice is disrupted before the molecules
begin to tumble
c. the molecules are rod-like
d. all of these
e. none of these
106.
The rate constant of a reaction depends upon
a. initial concentration of reactants
b. extent of reaction
c. temperature
d. time of reaction
107.
Which of the following factors does not
influence the rate of a reaction?
a. Concentration of reactants
b. Nature of reactants
c. Molecularity of the reaction
d. Temperature
108.
The mechanism of a reaction can sometimes
be reduced from
a. the temperature dependence of the rate
b. the rate law
c. the net equation
d. the activation energy
109.
The activation energy of a reaction may be
lowered by
a. raising the temperature
b. lowering the temperature
c. removing the products of the reaction
d. adding a catalyst
110.
The equilibrium constant in a reversible
chemical reaction at given temperature
a. depends on the initial concentrations of the
reactants
b. depends on the concentration of one of the
products at equilibrium
c. does
not
depend
on
the
initial
concentrations
d. is not characteristic of the reaction
Answer the following questions 111-113 with
the help of the hypothetical reaction and its
rate law
3A(g) + B(g) +2C(g) D(g) + 2E(g)
Rate of formation of D = k[A] [B]2
111.
Doubling of the concentration of A increases
the rate of reaction by a factor of
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 9
112.
Doubling of the concentration of B increases
the rate of the reaction by a factor of
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 9
113.
If the volume of the container is suddenly
reduced to one-half its original volume the rate will
increase by a factor of
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
114.
The value of k, the specific rate constant, may
be increased by
a. decreasing the concentration of D
b. increasing the concentration of A
c. increasing the concentration of C
d. increasing the temperature
115.
What effect does an increase in temperature of
10C have on the rate of the reaction?
a. Halved
b. Multiplied by 1.5
c. Doubled
d.
Tripled
116.
Which of the following is the best explanation
for the effect of increase in temperature on the
rate of the reaction?
a. It increases the number of particles with
the necessary activation of energy
b. It enables the reacting particles with the
necessary activation energy
c. It lowers the activation energy for the reaction
d.
122.
What term is used to define the phenomenon
of emission of light in a chemical reaction?
a. Chemical luminescence
b. Photosensitization
c. Both
chemical
luminescence
and
photosensitization
d. None of the above
123.
Raman spectra may be obtained in
a. IR and Visible region
b. Visible region only
c. IR and micro wave region
d. UV and visible region
124.
ESR spectra mainly helps in study of
a. compounds having hydrogen
b. compounds having carbons
c. free radicals
d. ionic compounds
125.
Which one of the following rate laws has an
overall order of 0.5 for the reactions involving
substances X, Y, Z.?
a. Rate = k(Cx) (Cy) (Cz)
b. Rate = k (Cx)0.5 (Cy) 0.5 (Cz)0.5
c. Rate = k (Cx)1.5 (Cy) 1 (Cz)0
d. Rate = k (Cx) (Cz)0/(Cy)2
126.
Chemical reaction rates in solution do not
depend to any great extent upon
a. pressure
b. temperature
c. concentration
d. catalyst
127.
Which of the following might be used as an
electrode?
a. A stick
b. A nail
c. A glass rod
d. A soda straw
128.
The e.m.f. value for oxidation from H 2 at 1.0
atm to H+ at 1.0 x 10-1 M is
a. 0.00V
b. 0.059V
c. 0.059V
d. 0.030V
129.
A good reducing agent
a. will always react rapidly
b. has a negative oxidation potential
c. is readily oxidized
d. shows a negative oxidation number
130.
A Faraday of electricity is
a. one ampere per second
a. Na
c. OH-
b. H+
d. Cl2
146.
If a large quantity of cobalt metal were dropped
into a solution containing Ag+, Fe+2, Cu+2, the
products of the reaction will be:
a. Ag, Fe and Cu
b. Ag, Fe++ and Cu+
c. Fe++, Cu and Co++d. Fe++, Cu, Ag and Co++
147.
Which of the following instruments makes use
of the standard electrode potentials and the variation
of electrode potential with concentration?
a. Polarimeter
b. pH meter
c. Electrophorous
d. Electrophotometer
148.
The series in which the electrode potentials of
metals are arranged in an order is known as:
a. electrical conductivity series
b. electrode potential series
c. electrochemical series
d. chemical affinity series
149.
In a salt-bridge KCl is used because
a. agar-agar forms a good jelly with it
b. KCl is an electrolyte
c. K+ and Cl- have the same transference
number
d. KCl is present in calomel electrode
150.
Four colorless salt solutions are placed in
separate test-tubes and a strip of copper is dipped in
each.. which solution finally turns blue?
a. Pb (NO3)2
b. Zn (NO3)2
c. AgNO3
d. Cd (NO3)2
151.When an electric current is passed through a cell
containing an electrolyte, positive ions move towards the
cathode and negative ions towards the anode. What will
happen if the cathode is pulled out of solution?
a. The positive ions will start moving towards the anode
and negative ions will stop moving
b. The negative ions will continue to move towards the
anode and the positive ions will stop moving
c. Both negative and positive ions move towards the
anode
d. None of these movements will take place
152.
What is the standard cell potential for the cell
Zn; Zn+2 (IM) ll Cu+2 (IM); Cu (E for Zn+2 l Zn =
-.76; E for Cu+2 l Cu = +0.34)
a. -0.076 + 0.34 = -0.42 V
b. 0.34 (-0.76) = +1.10V
c. 0.34 (-0.76) = +0.42V
d. 0.76 (+0.34) = -1.10V
153.
One Faraday of current was passed through the
electrolytic cells placed in series containing
solutions of Ag+, Ni+2 and Cr+3 respectively. The
amount of Ag (At.Wt. 108), Ni (At. Wt. 59) and Cr
(At. Wt. 52) deposited will be:
Silver Nickel Chromium
a.
108g 29.5g 17.5g
b.
108g 59g
52.0g
c.
108g 108g 108g
d.
108g 117.5g 166g
154.
Given standard electrode potentials
E
Fe++ + 2e Fe
-0.440V
Fe+++ + 3e Fe
-0.036V
0.476V
0.404V
+0.404V
+0.771V
0.78V
when both the half cells (a) and (b) are connected
with SHE, the metallic electrode Co is found to be ve
and Hg electrode is found to be +ve. The correct sign for
the electrode potentials will be:
a. +ve for half cell (I)
b. +ve for half cell (ii)
c. ve for half cell (ii)
156.When an iron wire is immersed in an acidic solution of
CuSo4, the blue color of the solution is lost after some
time. This is due to
a. reduction of Cu++
b. oxidation of CuSO4
c. formation of double complex between iron and
copper sulfate
d. formation of a colorless salt of Cu++
Solid
solid
gas
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
164. The minimum number of phases existing in a system is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
165. The incongruent melting point is so called
a. peritectic temperature
b. meritectic temperature
c. transition temperature
d.