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Mock Test -3

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

All questions carry one mark each.

Since all questions are compulsory do not try to read through the

whole question paper before beginning to answer it.

   Begin with the first question and keep on trying one question after 

another till you finish.

If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much

time on it and pass on to the next one. Time permitting you can

come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance 

and try them again.

Since the time allotted is very short you should makes best use of it.

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PART I

MAT (Mental Ability Test)

Directions (1 to 3): Find the missing terms:

1.

2.

3.

17Z5, 15X4, 13V3, ?, 9R1.

(a) 11S1

94, 166, 258, ?, 4912

(a) 3610

MEH, QIK, UON, YUQ, ?

(a) CAT

(b) 11U2

(b) 370

(b) CET

(c) 11S2

(c) 2480

(c) CCT

(d) 11T2

(d) 3280

(d) CUT

Direction (4): Find the wrong term:

4.

1, 3, 8, 19, 42, 88, 184

(a)

8

(b) 19

(c) 42

(d) 88

Directions (5 to 6): Which sequence of letters when placed at the blank one

after the other will complete the give letter series?

5.

6.

_bcc _ ac _ aabb _ ab _ cc

(a) aabca

aab_ aaa_bba_

(a)

(b) abaca

(b) abb

bba

(c) bacab

(c) bab

(d) bcaca

(d) aab

Directions (7 to 10): Find the missing terms in the given figures.

7.

8.

2
2
6
6

60

3
3
4
4
1
1
4
4
40
40
2
2

(a)

235

(b) 141

5 3 18
5
3
18

4

(a) 112

(b) 92

(c) 144

7 5 65
7
5
65

3

(c) 82

3
3

(d) 188

15
15
9 6 ?
9
6
?

5

(d) 102

3
3
?
?
20
20
9
9

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9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

9 6

2

13
13

5

(a) 72

2

7

9

(b) 18

4

C 26
C
26

3

?
?

4

10

8

11

(c) 17

4

E 60
E
60

8

26
26

18

25

(d) 19

5

6

8

D 68
D
68

?

5

4

6

(a)

If MATCH is coded as NCWGM and BOX as CQA, then OQWIGUVS is

encoded for what?

(a) NOTEBOOK

In a certain code ‘345’ means ‘Veer is gentle’; ‘599’ means ‘Veer kind hearted’

and ‘126’ means ‘Kanchan also good’, then which digit is that code represents

‘Gentle’?

(a)

If the following words are arranged as found in the dictionary, then what will

be the fourth letter from the left in the last word ?

INTIMATION,

INSTIGATION

INTERROGATION,

1

(b)

3

(c) 4

(d)

5

(b) NOTEBOKE

(c) NOTFBOPE

(d) MOKEBOOT

3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) cannot be determined

INTEREST,

INFORMATION,

(a) R

In the given alternatives, find the word which cannot be formed by using the 

letters of the word ‘RAPPROCHEMENT’.

(a) REPRESENT

(d) CEMENT

(b) O

(c) T

(d)

I

(b) REPROACH

(c) PHANTOM

(d) CEMENT (b) O (c) T (d) I (b) REPROACH (c) PHANTOM (a) 690 If ‘+’

(a) 690

If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’ ,then 18 ÷ 4 +

3 × 2 – 2 = ?

(a) 45

(b) 689

(b) 48

(c) 780

(c) 29

(d) 789

(d) 39

Directions (17 to 21): Study the given information carefully and answer the

questions that follow. There are four people sitting in a row: one each from

India, Japan, USA and Germany, but not in that order.

I. They are wearing caps of different colours: green, yellow, red and white,

not necessarily in that order.

II. One is wearing a kurta and one a T-shirt.

III. The Indian is wearing a green cap and a jacket.

IV. The American is not seated at either end.

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V. The persons with kurta and T-shirt are sitting next to each other.

VI.

VII.

VIII.

The persons with kurta wear a red cap and sits next to the Japanese.

The Japanese wears a short and is not seated at either end.

The man with white cap wears T-shirt and is seated at one end.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

Who wears the T-shirt?

(a) Indian

Who is wearing a kurta?

(a) Indian

What is the colour of the cap worn by the Japanese?

(a)

Red (b) Green (c) Yellow (d) White

Who is next to the man wearing T-shirt?

(a) Indian

Who precedes the man wearing jacket?

(a) Indian

(b) Japanese

(b) Japanese

(c) American

(c) American

(d) German

(d) German

(b) Japanese (c) American

(b) German

(d) German

(c) Japanese (d) Cannot say

Directions (22 to 23): Answer the questions on the basis of the information

given below. Five friends Nitin, Reema, Jai, Deepti and Ashutosh are playing a

game of crossing the roads. In the beginning, Nitin, Reema and Ashutosh are on

the one side of the road and Deepti and Jai are on the other side. At the end of the

game, it was found that Reema and Deepti are on the one side and Nitin, Jai and

Ashutosh are on the other side of the road. Rules of the games are as follows:

One ‘movement’ means only one person crosses the road from any side to

I.

the other side.

II. No two persons can cross the road simultaneously from any side to the

other side.

Two persons from the same side of the roads cannot move in consecutive

‘movements’.

If one person crosses the road in a particular movement, he or she cannot

immediately move back to the other side.

III.

IV.

   V.  Jai and Reema did not take part in first 3 movements.

22.

23.

What is the minimum possible number of movements that took place in the

entire game?

(a)

If number of movements are minimized in the game, than which of the follow-

ing combination of friends can never be together on one particular side of the road during the course of the game?

3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d)

5

(a)

Nitin, Reema and Deepti

(b) Nitin, Jai and Deepti

(c)

Deepti, Jai and Ashutosh

(d) Ashutosh, Nitin and Deepti

24.

P,

Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting on a bench facing south. P and V always

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together. U has as many persons to his left as Q has to his right and both of

them don’t sit together. T and W sit at the ends and none of them have U or

Q

sit

as their neighbours. R does not want to sit with U. How many persons sit

between S and Q?

(a)

1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) Cannot be determined

25. In

Nishant is the brother of Brijesh, Mitali is the sister of Nishant; Jai is the

brother of Purnima; Purnima is the daughter of Brijesh. Who is the uncle of

Jai?

(a) Brijesh

(b) Mitali

(c) Nishant

(d) Purnima

26. A

man proceeding to the north turns to the right. After some time he takes

a turn to the left and again to the left. Then he goes to his right and after

some distance again turns towards his right. The direction in which he is now

moving is

(a) West

(b) South

(c) North

(d) East

Directions (27 to 28): In each of the following questions, there are two terms to

the left of the sign :: which are related in some way. Obtain the some relationship

between the term to the right of the sign :: from one of the four alternatives give

under it.

27.

28.

Rectangle : Square :: Ellipse : ?

(a) Centre

Thermometer : degree :: Clock : ?

(a) Wall

(b) Diameter (c) Circle

(b) Tower

(c) Hour

(d) Radius

(d) Cock

Directions (29 to 30): Find the word/group/numbers which is different from

the others.

29. (a) 4, 6, 10, 7

(c)

1, 3, 5, 7

(b) 4, 12, 20, 28

(d)

2, 6, 10, 14

30. (a) Mercury

31. Which of the alternatives indicates the correct relationship between

(b) Venus

(c) Pluto

(d) Moon

Doctors, Nurse, Human being

?

32.

Venus (c) Pluto (d) Moon Doctors, Nurse, Human being ? 32. (a) (b) (c) (d) Sanjay

(a)

(c) Pluto (d) Moon Doctors, Nurse, Human being ? 32. (a) (b) (c) (d) Sanjay left

(b)

(c) Pluto (d) Moon Doctors, Nurse, Human being ? 32. (a) (b) (c) (d) Sanjay left
(c) Pluto (d) Moon Doctors, Nurse, Human being ? 32. (a) (b) (c) (d) Sanjay left

(c)

Pluto (d) Moon Doctors, Nurse, Human being ? 32. (a) (b) (c) (d) Sanjay left home
Pluto (d) Moon Doctors, Nurse, Human being ? 32. (a) (b) (c) (d) Sanjay left home

(d)

Sanjay left home for the bus stop 15 minutes earlier than usual. It takes 10 minutes to reach the stop. He reached the stop at 1.40 a.m. What time does he usually leave home for the bus stop?

(a) 1.40 a.m.

(b) 1.45 a.m.

(c) 1.55 a.m.

(d) Data inadequate

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Direction (33): In each of the following questions, a figure series is given, out of 

which the last figure is missing. Find which one would complete the series.

33.

33. Direction (34): In each of the following questions, there

Direction (34): In each of the following questions, there is some relationship

between the figures A and B of problem figures. The same relationship exists 

between the figure C and one of the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d), choose 

that figure.

34.

that figure. 34. Direction (35):

Direction (35): Choose the figure which is different from the others.

35.

35. Directions (36 to 37):

Directions (36 to 37): Choose the correct mirror-image of the figure (x) from 

amongst the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) given along with it.

36.

amongst the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) given along with it. 36. 37. T3S4P5H6

37. T3S4P5H6

amongst the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) given along with it. 36. 37. T3S4P5H6

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Direction (38): Choose amongst the four alternatives which most nearly

resembles the water image of the given questions.

38. 5DOB6V2

the water image of the given questions. 38. 5DOB6V2 39. Complete the given figure Direction (40):

39.

Complete the given figure

questions. 38. 5DOB6V2 39. Complete the given figure Direction (40):

Direction (40): In each of the following problems, group the given figures into 

three classes using each figure only once.

40.

three classes using each figure only once. 40. (a) (c) 1, 2, 3; 4, 5, 8; 6, 7, 9 1, 3, 5;

(a)

(c)

1, 2, 3; 4, 5, 8; 6, 7, 9

1, 3, 5; 2, 4, 8; 6, 7, 9

(b)

(d)

1, 5, 6; 2, 3, 4; 7, 8, 9

1, 4, 7; 2, 5, 8; 3, 6, 9

Direction (41): In each one of the following questions find from amongst the 

four  response  figures,  the  one  which  resembles  the  pattern  formed  when  the 

transparent sheet, carrying a design is folded along the dotted line.

41.

the  pattern  formed  when  the  transparent sheet, carrying a design is folded along the dotted line.

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Direction (42): Each of the following question, there are three figures marked X, 

Y, Z showing one fold in X, another fold in Y and a cut in Z. From amongst the

answer figures, a, b, c and d select the one showing the unfolded position of Z.

42.

42. Direction (43):

Direction (43): From amongst the figures marked (a), (b), (c) and (d), select the 

figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of dots as in figure (X) 

in question.

43.

in question. 43. 44.

44. How many rectangles are there in the following figure?

(a) 8 (b) 17 (c) 16 (d) 18 Direction (45): In each of the

(a)

8

(b) 17

(c) 16

(d) 18

Direction (45): In each of the following questions, complete the missing portion of

the given pattern (X) by selecting from the given alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d).

45.

from the given alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d). 45. Direction (46):

Direction (46): In each of the following question, select a figure from amongst  the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would  complete the pattern.

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46.

© 2014 Published by Dorling Kindersley (India) Pvt. Ltd 46. Direction (47): In each of the

Direction (47): In each of the following question, fond our which of the answer

Directions (47): In each of the following question, fond our which of the answer

figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) completes the figure matrix?

figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) completes the figure matrix ?

figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) completes the figure matrix ?

Directions (47): In each of the following question, fond our which of the answer

47.

48.

the following question, fond our which of the answer 47. 48. Three sequences of letters/numerals are

Three sequences of letters/numerals are given which correspond to each other

in some way. In question, you have to find out the letters/numerals that come 

in the vacant places marked by (?).

_

1

a

A

3

_

(a) dbaa

D

_

_

A

_

b

(b) bacc

C

1

_

B

2

_

_

4

c

(c) acdd

_

2

d

B

_

?

(d) dcaa

D

_

?

C

_

?

C

_

?

49. Direction (94): In each of the following questions, there are two terms to the

left of the sign :: which are related in some way. Obtain the same relation-

ship between the term to the right of the sign :: from one of the four alterna-

tives given under it.

Acting : Theatre :: Gambling : ?

(a) Hotel

(b) Lodge

(c) Casino

(d) Home

Direction (50): Question based on the following alphabet-series:

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

50. If the above alphabet is written in the reverse order, which will be the eighth letter to the right of O?

(a) W

(b) G

(c) D

(d) V

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PART II

SAT (English)

Directions (1 to 9): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:

On Monday, Robert works at the bank. He plants three bushes. He plants eight yellow

flowers. He plants three trees. On Tuesday, Robert works at the school. He plants 

five red flowers. He digs a hole with a shovel. On Wednesday, Robert works at the 

hospital. He plants twelve bushes. On Thursday, Robert works at the school. He

plants two trees. He plants sixteen white flowers. He digs four holes with a shovel. On 

Friday, Robert works at the grocery store. He plants two bushes. He plants one tree.

1.

2.

3.

4.

Where does Robert work on Wednesday?

a.

c.

What does Robert do on Tuesday?

a.

b.  He plants five red flowers and digs a hole with a shovel.

c.   He plants two trees, plants sixteen white flowers, and digs four holes with 

at the hospital

at the grocery store

b. at the school

d. none of these

He plants twelve purple bushes.

a shovel.

none of these

d.

How many holes does Robert dig during the week?

a. one

c.  five 

How many yellow flowers does Robert plant?

a.  five 

c.

b. three

  d.  none of these

  b.  eight

d. none of these

sixteen

5.

6.

7.

How many bushes does Robert plant during the week?

a. twelve 

c. seventeen

Where does Robert plant white flowers?

a.

c.

Robert works at the school on

  b.  fifteen 

d. none of these

b. at the school

d. none of these

at the bank

at the hospital

I. Tuesday

III. Friday

a.

c.

I only

I, II, and III

II. Thursday

b. I and II only

d. none of these

8. Robert plants bushes at the

I. bank

II.

hospital

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a.

c.

I only

I, II, and III

b. I and II only

d.

none of these

9. Based on information in the passage, we can understand that Robert is a

a.

c.

doctor

landscaper

b. teacher

d.

none of these

Directions (10 to 17): Read the passage and answer the questions given

below:

Christmas is my favorite holiday. My grandmother makes ham, salad, and

cupcakes on Christmas. I also get a present on Christmas! Last year I got a new

set of paint brushes. This year I hope to get new pencils and a drawing pad. I

always have fun on Christmas.

Halloween is another good holiday. My grandmother makes candy corn and

cupcakes on Halloween. People wear costumes during Halloween. Last year I

wore a skeleton costume. This year I am going to wear a zombie costume.

July 4 is a good holiday. July 4 is the birthday of the United States of America.

My grandmother makes hot dogs and salad on July 4. I don’t have to go to

school on July 4. But I don’t get any presents either. If I got presents on July 4 it

would be my favourite holiday.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

When does the author’s grandmother make cupcakes?

I. Christmas

II. Halloween

III.

a.

c.

Which holiday does the author like most?

a.

c.

Based on the things the author gets for Christmas, we can understand that he

likes

a.

c.

What is the author’s favorite thing about holidays?

a.

c.

What costume did the author wear for Halloween last year?

a.

c. a pumpkin costume

July 4

I only

I, II, and III

b. I and II only

d.

none of these

Christmas

Easter

b. Halloween

d. none of these

sports

music

b. art

d. none of these

not going to school

getting presents

b.

d.

b.

d.

eating candy

none of these

a skeleton costume

a zombie costume

none of these

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16.

17.

a.  a pumpkin costume     b.  a flower costume

c.

This story is mainly about

a.

b.

c.

d.

What is the best title for this passage?

a.

c.

a ghost costume

d. none of these

why the author likes some holidays

how someone can get out of school

which foods are the best to eat on different holidays

none of these

The Holidays I Like

Hot Dogs and Salad

b. Why Christmas is best

d. none of these

Directions (18 to 32): Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words

to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

18. He

a. insists

c. desists

in wearing the old fashioned coat in spite of his wife’s disapproval.

b. persists

d. resists

19. She

a brief appearance at the end of party.

20.

a.

c. put across

Life is to death as pleasure is to

a. poverty

c. anguish

put on

b. put in

d. put up

b. suffering

d. pain

21. This, partly, explains how the Mehta family has been able to

lifestyle in recent times, despite the fact that all its assets have been

a.

c. develop, liquidated

keep, removed

b. afford, attached

d. keep up, destroyed

22. The machine is difficult to build 

 easy to maintain.

23.

a. but

c.

If you work beyond your capacity, you will naturally feel

a. Drowsy

c.

b. and

d.

if

for

b. Tired

  d.  Giddy

Confident     

24. If you persists in telling lies to me I shall sue you

a.

c.

to

for

b.

d. with

on

slander.

25. His father-in-law

a. put

c. set

him up in business.

b. made

d. built

its lavish

26. works of reference are valuable as Encyclopedia, Britannica.

a.

A few

b. Few

27.

This book is quite similar

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a.  with the ‘Treasure Island’ 

c.

arrange-

ments to go to the airport.

a. alternative

c. alternate

A crescendo of metallic thuds arose from the market, where the iron-smiths

were

a.  flattening     

c. hammering

b.  of that film we saw at school

d. than a story told by our teacher

to the one I read last week

28. If our friends are not able to take us in their car, we must make

b. another

d. possible

29.

the pieces of metals.

  b.  striking

30. I haven’t eaten an apple

d. thrashing

a long while.

a. from

c.

for

b. since

d. until

31. The parliament invested the new organization

a.

c. from

by

b. with

d. through

judicial authority.

32. Owing to the power cut in the area, factories are being forced to

a.

c. put off

throw away

b. send off

d. lay off

men

Directions (33 to 37): In each question below, there is a sentence of which some

parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R

and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.

33. If you need help

P: promptly and politely

Q: ask for attendants

R: to help our customers

S: who have instructions

The Proper sequence should be:

a. SQPR

c. QSRP

34. It is easier

P: to venture into space

Q: for men

R: beneath their feet

S: than to explore

The Proper sequence should be:

a. QRPS

b. QPSR

d. SQRP

b. QPSR

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35. It was to be

P: before their school examination

Q: which was due to start

R: the last expedition

S: in a month’s

The Proper sequence should be:

a. SRQP

c. RPQS

36. This time

b. RQSP

d. SPRQ

P: exactly what he had been told

Q: the young man did

R: beyond his dreams

S: and the plan succeeded

The Proper sequence should be:

a. QPRS

c. PQSR

37. In the darkness

b. QPSR

d. QSRP

P: the long, narrow beard

Q: was clearly visible with

R: the tall stooping figure of the doctor

S: and the aquiline nose

The Proper sequence should be:

a. RQPS

c. RSQP

b. PSQR

d. QPRS

Directions (38 to 45): In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences.

The  first  and  sixth  sentences  are  given  in  the  beginning.  The  middle  four 

sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P,

Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

38.

S 1 : Hungry, with a population of about 10 million, lies between Czechoslovakia

to the north and Yugoslavia to the south.

P: Here a great deal of grain is grown.

 Q:  In recent years, however, progress has been made also in the field of in-

dustrialization.

R: Most of this country consists of an extremely fertile plain, through which

the river Danube flows.

S: In addition to grain, the plain produces potatoes, sugar, wine and live-

stock.

: The new industries derive mainly from agricultural production.

S

The Proper sequence should be:

a. QRSP

6

b. RPSQ

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39.

S 1 : Palaeobotany is the study of fossil plants preserved in rocks dating back in millions of years.

P: Records of the history of the world are contained in fossils.

Q: Through the ages, plants have evolved from simple to more complex

forms.

R: First there were water plants then land plants appeared during the Paleo-

zoic era.

S: But since the fossil remains appear locked in rock layers, they are closely

related to the geologist area of investigation.

S 6 : The fossil plants indicate the age of the rock, and also point to facts regard-

40.

ing climate, temperature and topography.

The Proper sequence should be:

a. RQSP

c. PSQR

S 1 : On vacation in Tangier, Morocco, my friend and I sat down at a street

b. SQRP

d. QRPS

cafe.

P: At one point, he bent over with a big smile, showing me, a single gold tooth

and a dingy fez.

Q: Soon I felt the presence of someone standing alongside me.

R: But this one wouldn’t budge.

S: We had been cautioned about beggars and were told to ignore them.

S 6 : Finally a man walked over to me and whispered, ‘Hey buddy this guy is

your waiter and he wants your order’

41.

The Proper sequence should be:

a. SQRP

c. QSRP

S 1 : And then Gandhi came.

b. SQPR

d. QSPR

P: Get off the backs of these peasants and workers, he told us, all you who

live by their exploitation.

Q: He was like a powerful current of fresh air, like a beam of light, like a

whirlwind that upset many things.

R: He spoke their language and constantly dre their attention to their appalling

conditions.

S: He didn’t descent from the top, he seemed to emerge from the masses of

India.

S

6

: Political freedom took new shape and then acquired a new content.

The Proper sequence should be:

a. QSRP

c. RSQP

b. SRQP

d. PRSQ

42. S 1 : Biological evolution has not fitted man to any specific environment. P : It is by no means a biological evolution, but it is a cultural one. Q: His imagination, his reason, his emotional subtlety and toughness, makes it possible for him not to accept the environment but to change.

Copyright © 2014 Published by Dorling Kindersley (India) Pvt. Ltd

R: And that series of inventions by which man from age by age has reshaped his environment is a different kind of evolution.

S: Among the multitude of animals which scamper, burrow swim around us

he is in the only one who is not locked in to his environment.

S 6 : That brilliant sequence of cultural peaks can most appropriately be termed

the ascent of man.

The Proper sequence should be:

43.

a. QPRS

c. QRSP

S 1 : The dictionary is the best friend of you task.

b. SRQP

d. SQRP

P: That may not be possible always.

Q: It is wise to look it up immediately.

 R:  Then it must be firmly written on the memory and traced at the first op-

portunity.

S: Never allow a strange word to pass unchallenged.

S 6 : Soon you will realize that this is an exciting task.

44.

The Proper sequence should be:

a. PQRS

c. QRPS

S 1 : The Bhagavadgita recogniszs the nature of man and the needs of man.

P : All these three aspects constitute the nature of man.

Q: It shows how the human being is rational one, an ethical one and a spiritual

b. SPQR

d. SQPR

one.

R: More than all, it must be a spiritual experience.

 S:  Nothing can give him fulfilment unless it satisfies his reason, his ethical 

conscience.

S 6 : A man whom does not harmonize them, is not truly human.

45.

The Proper sequence should be:

a. PSRQ

d. PSQR

S 1 : I usually sleep quite well in the train, but this time I slept only a little.

c. QPSR

a. RSPQ

P: Most people wanted it shut and I wanted it open.

Q: As usual, I got angry about the window.

R: The quarrel left me completely upset.

S: There were too many people too much huge luggage all around.

S

6

: It was shut all night, as usual

The Proper sequence should be:

a. RSQP

c. SQRP

a. SQPR

d. RSPQ

Copyright © 2014 Published by Dorling Kindersley (India) Pvt. Ltd

46. 1. seen

3. you

5. have

a. 35214

c. 32514

47. 1. bag?

3. seen

5. my

a. 51432

c. 42351

2. going

4. him

b. 35142

d. 35124

2. you

4. have

b. 43512

d. 42153

Directions (48 to 52): Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any 

grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The

letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘D’. (Ignore the

errors of punctuation, if any).

48.

49.

50.

(solve as per the direction given above)

a.

c.

(solve as per the direction given above)

a.

c.

(solve as per the direction given above)

a.

b.

c.

d.

I have got

in 1988.

b. my M.Sc. degree

d. no error.

having received your letter

to thank you for the same.

b. this morning, we are writing

d. no error.

if you lend him a book

he will lend it to someone else

and never you will get it back.

no error.

Copyright © 2014 Published by Dorling Kindersley (India) Pvt. Ltd

Part III

Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

1. If 2.5252525

= p

q (in the lowest form), then what is the value of

q

p

?

(a) 0.4

(b) 0.42525

(c) 0.0396

(d) 0.396

2. Which one of the following is a factor of y

zx xy )?

2

(

z

) +

x

2

x

(

y

) +

z

z (yz

+

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

(a)

Five bells start tolling together and toll at intervals of 10 seconds, 8 seconds,

6 seconds, 4 seconds and 2 seconds respectively. How many times do the five

bells toll together in half an hour?

(a)

A man buys 4 tables and 5 chairs for Rs. 1000. If he sells the tables at 10%

profit and chairs at 20% profit, he earns a profit of Rs. 120. The cost of one

table is

(a) Rs. 200

LCM of two numbers is 16 times their HCF. The sum of LCM and HCF is 850.

If one number is 50, then what is the other number?

(a) 800

Square root of 9 + 2 14 is

(a)

Which is the largest number among 2

x – y

(b)

x + y + z

(c)

x – y – z

(d)

x + y + z

15

(b) 16

(c) 20

(d) 30

(b) Rs. 220

(c) Rs. 240

(d) Rs. 260

(b) 1200

(b)

(b)

3

3

(c) 1600

(d) 2400

1 + 2

240 (d) Rs. 260 (b) 1200 (b) (b) 3 3 (c) 1600 (d) 2400 1 +
2
2

3 + 6

(c)

(c) 2 + 7 3 3 12 , 3 , 6 , 1 2 12
(c)
2 + 7
3
3
12
,
3
,
6
,
1 2
12
6 6
(d)
12

(d)

2 + 7 3 3 12 , 3 , 6 , 1 2 12 6 6
2 + 7 3 3 12 , 3 , 6 , 1 2 12 6 6

2 + 5

(a) 2

If x, y denote respectively, the area and the sum of the lengths of diagonals of

rectangle with length 1 unit and breadth 1 2 unit, then which one of the follow-

ing is correct?

(a)

(c)

A circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’. What is the area of

any square inscribed in this circle?

(a)

x and y are rational

x is rational and y irrational

a

2

3

(b)

a 2

4

(c)

a 2

6

(b) x is irrational and y is rational

(d) x and y are both irrational

(d)

a 2

8

10. A rectangular cardboard is 18 cm × 10 cm. From the four corners of the rect- angle, a quarter circle of radius 4 cm are cut. What is the perimeter (approxi- mate) of the remaining portion?

(a) 47.1 cm

(b) 49.1 cm

(c) 51.0 cm

(d) 53.0 cm

11.

The total surface area of a cone whose generator is equal to the radius R of its

Copyright © 2014 Published by Dorling Kindersley (India) Pvt. Ltd

12.

13.

base is S. If A is the area of a circle of radius 2 R, then which one of the fol-

lowing is correct?

(a)

In the figure alongside, PT = 6 cm, PA = 4 cm. What is the length of AB?

S

(c) A = 2

A = S

(b)

A = 2 S

(d)

A = 4 S

the length of AB? S (c) A = 2 A = S (b) A = 2

(a)

27 drops of water form a big drop of water. If the radius of each smaller drop

is 0.2 cm, then what is the radius of the bigger drop?

(a) 0.4 cm

9 cm

(b) 5 cm

(b) 0.6 cm

(c) 4 cm

(c) 0.8 cm

(d) 6 cm

(d) 1.0 cm

14. If

+ 1 = 0 can be reduced to which one of

the following? Take x 0.

(a)

(c)

The sides of a triangle are 20 cm, 16 cm and 13 cm respectively. Which one of

the following is correct?

(a)

(c)

A car finishes a certain journey in 15 at the rate 50 kmph. In order to cover the

same distance in 12 hours, the speed of the car must be increased by

(a) 12.5 kmph

(c) 13.5 kmph

Sachin, Rahul and Lata together can finish apiece of work in 3 days. If Sachin

along can do it in 6 days and Rahul in 9 days, then in how many days Lata

alone can do it?

(a)

H.C.F of ( x

y =

y

y

(

x + x

y

1

) , then x

4

+

x

3

4

2

x

+ x

y 2 = 0

2 + − 6 = 0

2 +

(b)

(d)

y

y

2 + − 4 = 0

y

2 + + 6 = 0

y

15.

The triangle is obtuse angled

The triangle is acute angled triangle

(b) The triangle is right angled

(d) Cannot be determined.

(b) 13 kmph

(d) 14 kmph

16.

17.

18

(b) 19

6

+ 1

(c) 20

+ 1

(d) 21

18.

)

and ( x

4

2

x

)

is

(a) x 2 + 1

(c) x

4

+

x

2

+ 1

(b) x

(d) x 3 + 1

4

x

2

+ 1

19. Simple interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 10% p.a. is Rs. 400. What is the compound interest at the same rate and for the same time?

(a) Rs. 404

(b) Rs. 408

(c) Rs. 410

(d) Rs. 420

20.

If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is halved, keeping the

Copyright © 2014 Published by Dorling Kindersley (India) Pvt. Ltd

height same, what is the ration of the volume of the reduced cylinder to that of

the original one

(a) 1:2

(b) 1:3

(c) 1:4

(d) 2:5

21. A

person travels along a straight road for the first half length with a velocity v

and the second half length with a velocity v 2 . The mean velocity v is given by

(a)

v

v

1

+

v

2

=

(b)

2

=

1

1

+

2

v

v

1

v

2

1

(c)

v

=

v v 1 2
v v
1
2

(d)

v

=

v 2 v 1
v
2
v
1

22.

The numerical ratio of displacement to distance is

(a)

(c)

woman walks on a straight road from her home to a market 3 km away with

a

walks with a speed of 6km/h. The magnitude of average velocity is

(a) 5.50 km/h

(c) 2.73 km/h

A stone is dropped from the top of a tower and travels 24.5 m in the last second

of its journey. The height of the tower is

(a) 44.1 m

The slope of velocity versus time graph gives

(a) Average velocity

(c) Force

Assertion: A body can have acceleration even if its velocity is zero at a given

instant of time.

Reason: A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses its direction of motion.

(a)

speed of 5 km/h. Finding the market closed, she instantaneously turns and

Always less than one

Always more than one

(b) Always equal to one

(d) Equal to or less than one

23. A

(b) 5.40 km/h

(d) zero

24.

25.

26.

(b) 49 m

(c) 78.4 m

(d) none of these

(b) Acceleration

(d) Momentum

If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is correct explana-

tion if the Assertion.

27.

If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not correct explana-

tion of the Assertion.

The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.

The Assertion is false and Reason is true.

A particle is thrown vertically upwards. The graph between its speed v and

(b)

(c)

(d)

time t is given by (neglecting the air resistance) the following figure:

(a)

graph between its speed v and (b) (c) (d) time t is given by (neglecting the

(b)

graph between its speed v and (b) (c) (d) time t is given by (neglecting the

Copyright © 2014 Published by Dorling Kindersley (India) Pvt. Ltd

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

(c)

(India) Pvt. Ltd 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. (c) (d) When a force

(d)

(India) Pvt. Ltd 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. (c) (d) When a force

When a force of 1 N acts on a body of mass 1 gram, the body receives an

acceleration of

(a)

A thief stole a box full of valuable articles of weight W and while carrying it

on his head jumped down from a wall of height h from the ground. Before he

reached the ground, he experiences a load of

(a) W

If the force applied is F and the velocity gained is v, then the power developed

is

(a)

The wave which can propagate through liquids and solids is a

(a) Longitudinal wave

(c) Transverse wave

Which of the following quantities is transferred by a propagating wave?

(a) Speed

Specific resistance of a conductor is measured in

(a)

(c)

A voltmeter is always placed

(a)

(c)

In the following circuit, what is the equivalent resistance between P and Q?

1 ms 2

(b) 9.8 ms 2

(c) 980 ms 2

(d) 1000 ms 2

(b)

W

2

v

F

(c) 2 W

(d) zero

F

v

(b)

(c) Fv

(d) Fv 2

(b) Radio wave

(d) None of the above

(d) Matter

(b) ohm–meter

(d) dioptre

(b)

(d)

(b) Mass

(c) Energy

ohm

ohm

meter

in parallel to the resistor

in parallel to the cell

in series with the conductor

near the electric circuit

to the cell in series with the conductor near the electric circuit (a) 2 Ω (b)

(a)

2

(b) 1

(c)

1

2

(d) 4

Copyright © 2014 Published by Dorling Kindersley (India) Pvt. Ltd

36. The element Ca is not present in

(a)

(c)

Which of the following metals can displace hydrogen?

(a)

Which of the following represents metal?

(a)

Which is the heaviest metal?

(a)

Metals which release H 2 gas with HNO 3

(a)

(c)

Choose the correct option for strategic metals:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

The metal which imparts brick red colour to the flame is

(a)

Amalgam is an alloy, in which one of the element should be

(a)

Silver articles become black in prolonged exposure to air. This is due to the

formation of

(a)

The electrolyte used in the electroplating of silver is

(a)

(c)

Part of the solar radiation absorbed by the atmosphere of earth is

(a)

Which of the following gas is not present in natural gas?

(a)

In the electrolytic decomposition of Al O

(I)

(II)

Choose the correct option:

(a)

(c)

49. In the following food chain supposing that 1000 J energy is available with plants and only 10% of the available of energy at any level is padded on to the next higher level. How much energy would be available to the eagle?

41.

40.

39.

38.

37.

Bleaching powder

Caustic soda

Platinum (b) zinc

13 A

27

(b)

Platinum

9 B

19

(b)

(d) Lime water

Plaster of paris

(c) Silver

(c)

7 C

14

(d) Copper

(d)

17 D

35

(b) Gold

(c) Iron (d) Iridium

Magnesium and Manganese

Manganese and Aluminium

(b) Magnesium and Aluminium

(d) Manganese and Iron

Titanium, Chromium, Manganese and Iron

Titanium, Chromium, Manganese and Zirconium

Titanium, Chromium, Magnesium and Zirconium

Titanium, Copper, Manganese and Zirconium

Sodium

Mercury

(b) Potassium

(b) Zinc

(c) Barium

(c) Copper

Ag N

3

(b)

Ag O

2

Silver chloride

Silver nitrate

(c)

AgCI

Infra-red (b) X-rays

(c) UV rays

Methane

(b) Chlorine

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

(d) Calcium

(d) Silver

(d) Ag S

2

and Ag N

3

(b)

(d) Silver oxide

Silver sulphide

(d) None of these

(c) Hydrogen

2

3

(d) None of the above

Al 3+ ions move towards cathode and O 2 ions move towards anode

3 aluminium ions and 2 oxygen ions are formed

(I) only

(I) and (II)

(b) (II) only

(d) None of these

Copyright © 2014 Published by Dorling Kindersley (India) Pvt. Ltd

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

Plants Grasshopper Frog Snake Eagle

(a) 0.01 J

Nellore, Nali and Marwari are the Indian breeds of

(a) Sheep

Identify the compound:

(a) Methanol

Filaria is actually a disease

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

caused by the worm Wauchereria bancrofti

(b)

0.1 J

(c) 1 J

(d)

10 J

(b) Buffaloes

(c) Cows

(d) Pigs

(c) Formic acid

(b) Formaldehyde

(d)

Freon

of the liver in which bile production is affected

caused by the virus infecting the upper respiratory tract

of the red blood cells in which oxygen carrying capacity if the cells de-

creases

This hormone increases the calcium level in blood:

(a) Glucagon

(c) Parathyroid hormone

The ovules inside the ovary are actually the

(a) Micro sporangia

(c) Mega sporangia

Pollination mediated by water is seen in

(a) Valllisneria

(c) Paddy

Tendrils in the pea plants are actually modified

(a) Leaves

Majority of mammals including human being forms two sets of teeth during

their life, a set of temporary milk or deciduous teeth replaced by a set of per-

manent or adult teeth. This type of dentition is called

(a) Diphyodont dentition

(c) Double dentition

Which of the following is social insect?

(a) Honey bee

(c) Lac insect

Loss of water in the form of vapour that is transpiration occurs through

(a) Cuticle

Venus fly trap is an example of

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) None of the above is true

(b) Adrenalin

(d) Insulin

(b) Megaspores

(d) Microspores

(b) Bryophyllum

(d) Azolla

(d) Branches

(b) Stems

(c) Flowers

(b)

(d)

Replacement dentition

Substitutive dentition

(b) Silkworm moth

(d) Lice

(b) Lenticles

(c) Stomata

(d) All of the above

A trap specially designed to trap flies in the kitchens

A insectivorous plant

A recently developed rocket to be sent to the planet Venus

61. Fish meat is better than meat of other animals as it contains more:

(a) Fats

(b) Water

(c) Starch

(d) Protein

Copyright © 2014 Published by Dorling Kindersley (India) Pvt. Ltd

62. Tipu’s sword was made of

(a) Iron

(b) Steel

(c) Wootz

(d) Mixed metals

63. What is Jamdani?

64.

(a) A fine cloth with ‘naksha’ design

(c) Pottery

When did Jinnah join the Muslim League?

(a) 1906

(b) Paintings

(d) None of these

(b) 1912

(c) 1913

(d) 1916

65. Macaulay

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

(a) was an Orientalist

(b)

(c)

(d) none of the above

What type of education was given to the children in pathshala?

(a) Religious

Under the colonial rule 26th January 1930 was observed as

(a) Republic day

(c) Independence day

Gandhiji launched the ‘No Tax’ campaign at

(a) Meerut

The main aim to start the Non-cooperation Movement was

(a) Home Rule

(b) Purna Swaraj

(c)

(d) None of these

The Boycott and Swadeshi movement was started in the year

(a) 1902

The paper edited by Tilak was

(a) Kesari

(c) Rast Groftar

The Non-cooperation programme was adopted in the Congress session at

(a) Nagpur in 1920

(c) Calcutta in 1920

was an Anglicist

encouraged teaching of modern knowledge through local languages

(b) Oral

(b) Bardoli

(c) English

(d) None of these

(b) Holiday

(d) None of these

(c) Delhi

(d) Calcutta

Redress the wrong done in Turkey and Jallianwala Bagh

(b) 1904

(c) 1905

(d) 1906

(b) Sambad Kaumudi

(d) Shome Prakash

(b) Madras in 1927

(d) Lahore in 1929

73. Warren Hastings was the first

74.

(a) Viceroy

(c) Chief Justice

The battle of Plassy was fought in

(a) 1760

(b) 1759

(c) 1758

of India.

(b) Governor General

(d) Army General

(d) 1757

75. Prime Minister is the most important political institution in the country. He

(a)

does not have a fixed tenure

(b)

is appointed by the President

(c)

Both (a) and (b)

(d)

None of these

Copyright © 2014 Published by Dorling Kindersley (India) Pvt. Ltd

76. What are the advantages to foreign companies in setting up production units in India?

(a) Cheap labour

(c) Provide poor working conditions

If refers to a government formed by an alliance of two or more political

parties:

(a) Coalition government

(c) Local government

Indian judiciary is independent with respect to

(a)

(c) Powers of judiciary

Which of the following right is available under the Indian Constitution?

(a) Right to work

(c) Right to livelihood

Which of the following is not a key feature of Indian Constitution?

(a) Federation

(b)

(c) Secularism

(d)

In India, the laws apply in the same manner to all regardless of a person’s

status. This is called

(a) Lawmaking

(c) Rule of law

Right to Freedom includes

(a) Freedom of speech

(b)

(c)

(d) All of these

Why do you think there are few women in Parliament?

(a)

(c)

In India, some rights are given a special status, they are

(a) Common rights

(c) Constitutional rights

Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the constituent

Assembly?

(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(c) P. T. Nehru

78.

77.

(b)

Spend least on facilities

(d) All of these

(b) State government

(d) Union government

(b) Removal of judges

(d) All of these

Appointment of judges

79.

80.

(b) Right to privacy

(d) Right to protect one’s culture

Presidential form of government

Separation of powers

81.

(b) Law for all

(d) None of these

82.

Freedom to travel in the country

Freedom to form associations

Society is male dominating

Women have no interest in politics

83.

84.

85.

(b) Women are incapable

(d) Women cannot govern

(b) Fundamental rights

(d) Human rights

(b)

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(d) None of these

86. In a Democratic country the Indian people have full right to

(a)

Protest against unjust laws

(b)

Rebel

(c)

Disobey the laws

(d)

Attack the government

Copyright © 2014 Published by Dorling Kindersley (India) Pvt. Ltd

87. The Domestic Violence Bill was introduced in the Parliament in the year

88.

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

94.

95.

(a) 2000

Which element threatens the future of our generation?

(a) Depletion of resources

(c)

How many flowering species are indigenous to Indian?

(a) About 17000

(c) About 47000

The forest cover in India is estimated at

(a) 627293 sq. km

(c) 637293 sq. km

India’s rank in the world in terms of water availability per person per annum is

(a) 122

Which type of vegetation is found in the coastal areas influenced by tides?

(a) Mangrove forest

(c) Tropical deciduous

Staple food crop of a majority of people in India is

(a) Rice

What is the full from of MSO?

(a)

(c) Minimum support price

The sparkle in the toothpaste comes from

(a) Mica

(c) Limestone

(b) 2002

(c) 2004

(d) 2005

(b) Resource planning

(d) Sustainable development

(b) About 27000

(d) About 15000

(b) 617293 sq. km

(d) 607293 sq. km

(d) 128

(b) Mountain forest

(d) Tropical evergreen

(d) Barley

(b) Minimum sale price

(d)

Maximum support price

(b) Silica

(d) Phosphate

Conservation p of resources

(b) 138

(c) 133

(b) Wheat

(c) Jowar

Maximum sale price

96. Magnetite has

per cent iron content

97.

98.

99.

(a) 70

Which one of the following agencies markets steel for the public sector steel

plants?

(a) HAIL

Which of the following is not a basic input in the cement industry?

(a) Limestone

(c) Coal

The phenomenon of increase, decrease or stable condition of population over

a given period of time is known as

(a) Population Distribution

(c) Population Ratio

(b) 85

(c) 80

(d) 75

(b) SAIL

(c) Tata Steel

(d) MNCC

(b) Gypsum

(d) Potash

(b) Population Change

(d) Population Growth

100. Textile industry is an example of

(a)

Agro based industry

(b)

Co-operative sector industry

(c)

Mineral based industry

(d)

Marine based industry

Copyright © 2014 Published by Dorling Kindersley (India) Pvt. Ltd

Part I (Mat)

1. (a)

11. (a)

21. (d)

31. (b)

41. (b)

51. (b)

2. (b)

12. (b)

22. (a)

32. (d)

42. (c)

52. (b)

3. (c)

13. (c)

23. (b)

33. (c)

43. (d)

Part II (sat)

1. (d)

11. (a)

21. (c)

31. (d)

41. (d)

2. (a)

12. (d)

22. (a)

32. (b)

42. (b)

3. (a)

13. (d)

23. (d)

33. (d)

43. (a)

Part III (sat)

1. (d)

11. (a)

21. (b)

31. (c)

41. (b)

51. (d)

61. (d)

71. (a)

81. (c)

91. (c)

2. (d)

12. (b)

22. (d)

32. (c)

42. (d)

52. (c)

62. (c)

72. (a)

82. (d)

92. (a)

3. (b)

13. (b)

23. (d)

33. (b)

43. (a)

53. (c)

63. (a)

73. (b)

83. (a)

93. (a)

answer Key

4. (b)

14. (a)

24. (c)

34. (b)

44. (c)

4. (d)

14. (a)

24. (c)

34. (d)

44. (d)

4. (a)

14. (c)

24. (a)

34. (a)

44. (d)

54. (c)

64. (c)

74. (d)

84. (b)

94. (d)

5. (c)

15. (c)

25. (c)

35. (c)

45. (b)

6. (b)

16. (a)

26. (b)

36. (b)

46. (b)

7. (b)

17. (a)

27. (c)

37. (a)

47. (c)

8. (c)

9. (c)

18. (b) 19. (b)

28. (a) 29. (c)

38. (b) 39. (d)

48. (a) 49. (d)

10. (b)

20. (d)

30. (c)

40. (c)

50. (c)

5. (c)

15. (b)

25. (c)

35. (d)

45. (a)

6. (a)

16. (c)

26. (d)

36. (d)

46. (a)

7. (d)

17. (d)

27. (c)

37. (d)

47. (b)

9. (d)

18. (c) 19. (c)

28. (c) 29. (a)

38. (a) 39. (b)

48. (d) 49. (c)

8. (b)