(2) Ategmic ovule Opuntia

BABU MEDICAL ACADEMY

( Medical Long Term with Unique 3S Program )
Near Gopalam Sivanarayana Hospital, UmaShankar Nagar, Kanuru, Vijayawada, Krishna (AP)

WEEK-END -12

1) Find out the false statements

(1) The end of reproductive phase can be
considered as one of the parameters of
senescence or old age
(2) Hormones are responsible for the transition
between juvenile phase and reproductive phase
(3) Many of the mammals are continuous breeders
(4) Always in sexual reproduction two organisms
are involved.
2) Which of the following sequences correctly
represents the series of events that take place
during sexual reproduction?
(1) Gametogenesis - Gamete transfer - Fertilisation
Zygote formation - Embryogenesis
(2) Gamete transfer - Fertilisation-Gametogenesis Zygote formation - Embryogenesis
(3) Fertilisation - Zygote formation
Gametetransfer - Gameto genesis -Embryogenesis
(4)Zygote formation Gametetransfer
Embryogenesis - Fertilisation Gametogenesis
3) Which of the following statement is correct
regarding the bisexual conditions in plants?
(1) Homothallic and monoecious terms are used to
describe bisexual condition in plants.
(2) Heterothallic and dioecious terms used to
describe bisexual condition in plants
(3) Heterothallic and monoecious terms are used
to describe unisexual condition in plants
(4) Homothallic and dioecious terms are used to
describe unisexual condition in plants
4) The ratio of synergids and antipodals in
embryosac
(1) 2 : 3
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 4 : 1
5) Identify correct match.
(1) Orthotropous Polygonum

13 09 2015
Max. Marks : 160

(3) Hemianatropous ovules - Brassica

(4) Unitegmic and Amphitropous ovules Helianthus.
6) For the production of last cells of gametophytes
in flowering plants
(1) First cells of sporophyte have to undergo
meiosis which is followed by mitosis
(2) Last cell of sporophyte have to udergo mitosis
followed by meiosis
(3) First cell of gametophyte has to udergo mitosis
(4) Last Cells of sporophyte have to undergo
mitosis only
7) Needle like pollengrains are seen in
(1) Vallisneria
(2) Pinus
(3) Zostera
(4) Ceratophyllum
8) Assertion(A): Hydrophily is seen in all
hydrophytes.
Reason(R): In Vallisneria pollination occurs on
surface of water
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false
9) Assertion(A): The ratio between mitotic
divisions before and after pollination during the
development of male gametophyte is 1 : 1 in
over 60% of Angiosperms
Reason(R): One mitotic division occurs with in
stamen and other after reaching stigma.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false
10) The body of the ovule is perpendicular to

funicle initially but during further growth, the

micropyle and funicle become closer in
(1) Circinotropous
(2) Campylotropous
(3) Hemianatropous
(4) Anatropous
11) The total number of genomes present in all the
nuclei of Polygonum tpe of embryosac after the
fusion of polar nuclei with each other is
(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 5
(4) 3
12) A cell of the embryosac of angiosperm which is
initially dikaryotic and haploid and later becomes
uninucleate and diploid is
(1) Egg cell
(2) Synergid
(3) Antipodal cell
(4) Central cell
13) Ratio of vegetative cells in the male and female
gametophytes of an angiosperm plant respectively
(1) 3 : many
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 3 : 1
14) Starting with microspore mother cells, what is
the least number of meiotic and mitotic divisions
(respectively) that should occur for the formation
of 500 male gemetes in an angiosperm
(1) 65 & 500
(2) 63 & 252
(3) 63 & 500
(4) 63 & 504
15) Ategmic ovules do not have
A) Integuments
B) Necellus
C) Micropyle
D) Embryosac
(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) B and C
(4) C and D
16) Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium is
present in

(1) Hibiscus
(2) Papaver
(3) Bean
(4) Michelia.
17) Assertion(A): Distribution of Bryophytes and
pteridophytes is limited
Reason(R): Bryophytes and pteridophytes need
for water for the transport of male gametes
and fertilization
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct
explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

18) Match the following

LIST A
A) Ornithophily
B) Chiropterophily
C) Ophiophily
D) Therophily

LIST B
i) Birds
ii) Squirrels
iii) Bats
iv) Snakes

(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
19) Bisporangiate stamens are seen in
(1) Lilly
(2) Datura
(3) Hibiscus
(4) Bean
20) The following is not an anemophilous character
(1) Well exposed stamens
(2) Often have a single ovule in each ovary
(3) Pollen grains are sticky
(4) Feathery stigma
21) Hydrophyte which does not show hydrophily is
(1) Water hyacinth
(2) Vallisneria
(3) Zostera
(4) Hydrilla
22) Dominant biotic pollinating agents are
(1) Beetles
(2) Bees
(3) Ants
(4) Bats
23) The most common type of zoophily is
(1) Entomophily
(2) Orinithophily
(3) Malacophily
(4) Chiropteriphily
24) A close relation between flower and pollination
agent is best exhibited by

(1) Cocos
(2) Tridax
(3) Hibiscus
(4) Yucca
25) How many times primary micropylar nucleus
divides mitotically during the development of
polygonum type of embryosac in angiosperm
(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) Several
26) Asymmetric spindle is formed during the
development of
(1) Male gametophyte of angiosperms
(2) Endosperm from PEN
(3) Embryo from zygote

(4) Female gametophyte( embryosac)

27) Centrifugal arrangement of various layers in

anther wall is
A) Endothecium
B) Epidermis
C) Tapetum
D) Middle layers
(1) CDAB
(2) BADC
(3) CDBA
(4) BACD
28) The stored pollen can be used as pollen banks
when stored under the following conditions
(1) Liquid NH3 at 196 C
(2) Liquid nitrogen at - 196 C
(3) Liquid N2 at - 160 C
(4) Liquid xenon at - 196 C
29) What does the filiform apparatus do at the
entrance into ovule?
(1) It brings about opening of the pollen tube
(2) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg
(3) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a
synergid
(4) It prevents entry of more than one pollen tube
into the embryo sac
30) Pollination by snail and slug is known as
(1) Ornithophilous (2) Chiropterophilous
(3) Entomophilous (4) Malacophilous
31) Anemophilous flowers have
(1) Small, smooth stigma (2) Coloured flower
(3) Sessile stigma
(4) Large feathery stigma
32) Fragrant flowers with well developed nectaries
are adapted for
(1) Entomophily
(2) Hydrophily
(3) Anemophily
(4) Zoophily
33) When seed germinates, while the fruit is attached
to the parent plant, it is called
(1) Parthenocarpy (2) Vivipary
(3) Apomixis
(4) Parthenogenesis
34) Banana is seedless (or sedimentary seeds)
because it is developed by
(1) Sexual reproduction (2) Polyembryony
(3) Unfertilised ovule (4) Asexual reproduction
35) If diploid number of chromosomes in a plant is
40, then the number of chromosomes in a gamete
will be
(1) 40
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4)10

36) In a monoecious plant

(1) Male and female sex organs are on different
individuals
(2) Male and female gametes are of two
morphologically distinct types
(3) Male and female sex organs are on the same
individual
(4) All the stamens are fused to form one unit
37) The arrangement of megaspores in a tetrad in an
angiosperm is
(1) Decussate
(2) Tetrahedral
(3) Linear
(4) Isobilateral
38) The hilum and micropyle lie side and very close
to each other in
(1) Anatropous ovule
(2) Campylotropous ovule
(3) Amphitropous ovule
(4) Circinotropous ovule
39) Pollen robbers are
(1) Insects which helps in pollination
(2) Insects consume pollen without bringing
pollination
(3) Bees which helps in pollination
(4) Birds which helps in pollination
40) In wheat, viability period of pollen grains is
(1) >30 minutes

(2) > 30 hours

(3) < 30minutes

(4) <30 hours

41) Study the statements and choose correct

statements
A) Any natural habitat on earth that is
inhabited Just by a single species? There is no
such habitat and such a situation is
imaginable
B) It is obvious that in nature animals, plants
and microbes do not live in isolation but
cannot interact in various ways
C) Even in minimal communities many
interactive linkages exist, although all are
visible
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) None
42) One species is harmed but the other is
unaffected. This interaction is

(1) Parasitism
(3) Amensalism

(2) Mutualism
(4) All

43) In these associations the interacting species live

close together
(1) Predation
(2) Parasitism
(3) Commensalism
(4) All
44) For plants herbivores are
(1) Commensels
(2) Parasites
(3) Predators
(4) Hosts
45) Cattle or goats do not browse calotropis because
of the presence of chemical in it
(1) Cardiac antibiotic
(2) Cardiac glycosides
(3) Cardiac Lipids
(4) Cardiac starches
46)
LIST A
LIST B
A) Gause
i) Inter specific competition
B) Connell
ii) Competitive release
C) Mac Arthur
iii) Competitive exclusion
D) Darwin
iv) Co-existence
A
B
C
D
(1)
i
ii
iii
iv
(2)
iii
ii
i
iv
(3)
iii
ii
iv
i
(4)
iv
iii
ii
i
47) Nearly 25% of all insects are known to be
(1) Parasites
(2) Symbionts
(3) Phytophagous
(4) None
48) In some shallow South American lakes visiting
flamingos and resident fishes compete for their
common food, in shallow waters is an example for
(1) Competitive release
(2) Co-existence
(3) Interference competition
(4) Competitive exclusion
49) Mac Arthur showed that five closely related
species of warblers living on the same tree is an
example of
(1) Co-existence
(2) Resource partitioning
(3) Behavioral differences in their foraging
activities
(4) All

50) In some shallow South American lakes using

Flamingors and resident Fishes complete for their
common food which is Suspended
(1) zoo plankton
(2) phytoplankton
(3) small fish
(4) algae
51) Which of the following appear to be more
adversely affected by competition than carnivores
(1) Herbivores
(2) Plants
(3) Omnivores
(4) 1 & 2
52) Whose experiments prove competitive release
(1) Mac Arthur
(2) Gause
(3) Darwin
(4) Connell
53) Which organism pollinates the flowers of the fig
plant while searching for suitable egg-laying sites
(1) Bee
(2) Bumble bee bat
(3) Female wasp
(4) All
54) The Mediterranean orchid ophrys employ
which trick to get pollination by specific species of
bee
(1) Sexual deceit
(2) Co-evolution
(3) Releases phenemones (4) Offer juicy stamens
55)
LIST A
LIST B
A) Sexual deceit
i) Petal of ophrys
B) Developing seeds as
ii) Partner wasp
food for developing
wasp larvae
C) Male bee is attracted by iii) Mediterranean
Orchid ophrys
D) Sea-anemone
iv) Clown fish
v) Fig species
A
B
C
D
(1) iii
v
i
iv
(2) iii
v
i
ii
(3) ii
v
iii
iv
(4) iv
v
ii
i
56) Cattle egret (a kind of bird) and grazing cattle
living in close association is a classic example of
(1) Parasitism
(2) Commensalism
(3) Mutualism
(4) Amensalism
57) Snail and fish are the two intermediate hosts to
completes its life cycle in case of
(1) Human tapeworm
(2) Plasmodium
(3) Human liverfluke
(4) None
58) Plants offer Juicy and nutrients fruits as fees for
(1) Pollination
(2) Seed dispersal

(3) Nourishment

59)
LIST A
A) Mutualism
B) Commensalism
C) Brood parasitism
D) Co-existance

(4) Protection

LIST B
i) MacArthur
ii) Lichen
iii) Koel & crow
iv) Custa & hedge
Plant
v) Sea Anemone & clown fish
A
B
C
D
(1)
ii
v
iii
i
(2)
ii
v
iii
iv
(3)
iv
v
iii
i
(4)
i
ii
iii
v
60) The zone of lake that has no contact with the
bottom of lake
(1) Profundal zone (2) Littoral zone
(3) Limnetic zone (4) Benthic zone
61)
LIST A
LIST B
A) Emengent vegetation
i) Pistia,wolffia,
Lemna, Azolla
B) Rooted plants with
ii) Live in open
Floating leaves
waters
C) Submerged plants
iii) Typha,scirpus,
sagiltaria
D) Free floating
iv) Hydrilla,chara,
Potamogeton
E) Pedonic forms
v) Nymphea,
Nelumbo
F) Limnetic forms
vi) Neuston
vii) Live at bottom
of lake
A
B
C
D
E
F
(1) iii
v
iv
i
vii
vi
(2) ii
v
iv
i
vii
iii
(3) iii
v
iv
i
vii
ii
(4) ii
iii
iv
v
vi
vii
62) The imaginary line that separates the limnetic
zone from profundal zone is
(1) Zone of compensation
(2) Compensation point
(3) Light compensation level

(4) All
63) Diatoms, green algae, euglenoids, and
dinoflagellates are
(1) Phytoplankton of Littoral zone
(2) Consumers of littoral zone
(3) Zooplankton of liltoral zone
(4) None
64) The animals that rest on or move on the bottom
of the lake constitute
(1) Phytoplankton
(2) Zooplankton
(3) Benthos
(4) Periphyton
65) Hot type of deserts and cold type of deserts seen
in respectively
(1) Ladakh and Rajasthan
(2) Antarctica and Greenland
(3) Himalayas and Western Ghats
(4) Rajasthan and Ladakh
66) The decomposers of profundal zone decompose
the dead plants and animals and release nutrients
which are used by the biotic communities of
(1) Benthic zone
(2) Littoral zone only
(3) Limnetic zone
(4) Both littoral and limnetic zones
67) Which are the primary consumers in terrestrial
ecosystems
(1) Arthropods & Molluscs
(2) Amphibians and Reptiles
(3) Insects, birds and mammals
(4) All invertebrates
68)
LIST A
LIST B
A) Humus
i) Composition of detritus
and climatic conditions
B) Detritus
ii) Reservoir of Nutrients
C) Low temperature iii) Raw material of
and Anaerobic
decomposition
environment
D) Rate of
iv) Inhibit decomposition
decomposition
A
B
C
D
(1) ii
iii
i
iv
(2) i
iv
ii
iii
(3) ii
iii
iv
i
(4) iii
iv
ii
i
69) The number of trophic levels in food chains
varies from
(1) 1 to 3
(2) 2 to 4
(3) 3 to 5 (4) 1 to 6

70) Most of the decomposers are very small

microscopic forms they are called
(1) Macro decomposers
(2) Micro decomposers
(3) Macro consumers
(4) Micro consumers
71)
LIST A
LIST B
A) Water bugs
i) Periphyton
B) Water striders
ii) Dineutes
C) Water Scorpion
iii) Daphnia
D) Water fleas
iv) Amphibious
plants
E) Water snails
v) Ranatra
vi) Gerris
A
B
C
D
E
(1) ii
vi
v
iii
i
(2) ii
v
iii
iv
vi
(3) vi
v
iv
iii
ii
(4) ii
iii
iv
v
vi
72) Zooplanktonic organisms of Limnetic zone of a
lake
(1) Fishes
(2) Red annelids
(3)Copepods
(4) Chaoborous
73)
LIST A
LIST B
A) Areas less than
i) Grassland Ecosystem
25 cm rainfall
B) Himalayan region ii) Desert
C) Tropical rain forest iii) Ladak
D) Cold type of desert iv) Hot type
v) Forest ecosystem
A
B
C
D
(1)
ii
i
iv
iii
(2)
ii
i
v
iii
(3)
ii
v
i
iv
(4)
ii
iv
iii
v
74)
LIST A
LIST B
A) Begin with dead i) Major conduit for energy
Organic matter
flow in Aquatic ecosystem
B) Meet Nutrient
ii) Major conduit for energy
Requirements by
flow in terrestrial
ecosystem
degrading detritus
C) GFC
iii) DFC
D) DFC
iv) Saprotrophs

A
B
C
D
(1)
iv
iii
i
ii
(2)
ii
iii
i
iv
(3)
iii
iv
i
ii
(4)
i
ii
iii
iv
75) Study the following and pick the correct
statements
A) DFC is connected with GFC at some levels
B) Some of the organisms of DFC may form the
prey of the GFC animals
C) The earthworm of DFC may become the food
of the birds of the GFC
D) It is to be understood that food chains are
isolated always
(1) A & B only
(2) B & C only
(3) C & D only
(4) A,B & C only
76) The natural inter connections of food chains
form a network called
(1) DFC (2) GFC (3) Food web (4) All
77)
LIST A
LIST B
A) Source of energy of all i) Biomass per unit
Ecosystems on earth
area
B) Source of energy of
ii) Energy not
deep Sea ecosystem
available for work
C) Entropy
iii) Energy flow
D) Standing crop
iv) Sun
v) Chemical energy
A
B
C
D
(1)
iv
v
ii
i
(2)
v
iv
ii
i
(3)
ii
i
v
iv
(4)
iv
v
ii
iii
78) The earliest and most widely used measures of
ecological efficiency is explained by
(1) Gauses rule of trophic efficiency
(2) Lindermans rule of trophic efficiency
(3) Lindemans rule of trophic efficiency
(4) Connells rule of trophic efficiency
79) If the NPP in produces is 300 KJ, calculate the
body mass of secondary carnivores of that
ecosystem
(1) 30 KJ
(2) 15 KJ (3) 1.5 KJ (4) 0.3KJ
80)
LIST A
LIST B
A) Rate production of biomass i) GPP-R
B) Rate of production of
ii) productivity

organic matter during

photosynthesis
C) NPP
iii) Standing crop
D) On average this percent
iv) GPP
of GPP is used for catabolic v) 20 25%
activity
A
B
C
D
(1) ii
iv
i
v
(2) ii
iv
i
iii
(3) iii
iv
i
v
(4) i
ii
iii
iv

81)
A)
B)
C)
D)

LIST A
LIST B
Elastic collision
e) e = 0
Inelastic collision
f) 0 < e < 1
Coeff. Of restitution
g) e = 1
Semi-elastic coll.
h) 0 e 1
A
B
C
D
(1)
g
e
h
f
(2)
g
e
f
h
(3)
e
g
h
f
(4)
e
g
f
h
82) The collision in which the relative velocity is
zero after collision is
(1) perfectly elastic
(2) perfectly inelastic
(3) partially elastic
(4) sometimes (1) & (2)
83) Two balls at same temperature collide. What is
conserved ?
(1) Temperature
(2) Velocity
(3) Kinetic Energy
(4) Linear Momentum
84) A lighter body collides head-on elastically with
a heavier body at rest with velocity u , then
(1) the heavier body does not move practically
(2) the lighter body retraces its path with V
(3) the lighter body sticks to the heavier body
(4) the lighter body comes to rest
85) A : In any collision momentum is conserved.
R : Collision is associated with internal forces
(1) A is true. R is true. R explains A
(2) A is true. R is true. R does not explain A
(3) A is true. R is false
(4) A is false. R is true.

86) A : In an elastic collision of two billiard balls,

the total kinetic energy is conserved during
the short time of collision of balls
R : Energy spent against friction does not
follow the law of conservation of energy.
(1) A is true. R is true. R explains A
(2) A is true. R is true. R does not explain A
(3) A is true. R is false
(4) A is false. R is true
87) When two particles collide and stick together
then ____ are conserved.
(A) KE
(B) PE
(C) TE (D) Work
(1) A & B (2) B & C (3) C & D (4) A & D
88) In an head-on elastic collision __ are
interchanged.
(A) speeds (B) momenta (C) velocities
(1) A & B (2) A & C (3) B & C (4) B
89) When a stationary bomb shell explodes, final
KE ____ initial KE.
(1) >
(2) =
(3) <
(4)
90) When a bullet is fired from a gun, both bullet
and gun will have the same __ in magnitude
(1) momentum (2) KE (3) PE (4) TE
91) Two bodies of masses 3 kg and 5 kg moving
with velocities 10 m/s and 8 m/s in
perpendicular directions collide and stick
together. The common velocity is ___ m/s.
(1) 6.25
(2) 8.75
(3) 4.25 (4) 0
92) A moving body with mass m collides with
another body M elastically. After the
collision the velocity of the first body
becomes 2/3 of its initial value. M/m =
(1) 25
(2) 0.04
(3) 5
(4) 0.2
94) A body of mass 6 kg traveling with a velocity
of 10 m/s collides elastically with a body of
mass m kg at rest in opposite direction then
m remains at rest while the first mass returns
with 10 m/s. Then the possible value of m
may be
(1) 1 kg
(2) 4 kg
(3) 6 kg (4) 12 kg
95) A 5 kg clay lump moving with 10 m/s to the
left strikes a 6 kg lump moving at 12 m/s to
the right and stick together. The combined
mass now travels with a velocity of
(1) 11 m/s (2) 11 m/s (3) 2 m/s (4) 2 m/s
96) A huge dung cake of mass 10 kg & KE (E) is
thrown onto a dishti doll of mass 4 kg of a

corrupt minister during a protest. The amount

of KE now left over with the dung is ___
times of E.
(1) 9 / 49 (2) 40 / 49 (3) 49 / 50 (4) 1 / 2
97) A shot moving with a velocity 140 m/s collides
a wooden block and comes to rest in it. If
mass of the clock is 13 times the mass of the
shot, velocity of the block is
(1) 14 m/s (2) 10 m/s (3) 4 m/s (4) 2.5 m/s
98) Two spheres of masses m and M traveling
with velocities u and v collide. After
impact, their velocities are U and V. Each
sphere lose the same amount of energy then
(1) u + U = v + V
(2) u + v = U + V
(3) u + v + U + V = 0 (4) No condition
99) A neutron moving with a speed of 106 m/s
suffers a head on collision with a nucleus of
mass number 80. The fraction of energy
retained by the nucleus is
81

79

(1)

79

81

(2)

81
81
(4)

79
79

(3)

100) Two bodies of masses 2 kg and 8 kg have

kinetic energies 16 J and 24 J when they
move in the same direction and collide. The
total momentum after collision in kg.m/s
(1) 4
(2) 40
(3) 2
(4) 20
101) The equation of motion of a particle executing
SHM is y = 2 sin (
) m. if the particle
starts at time t = 0, the minimum time taken to
attain the maximum speed is
(1) t =
(2) t =
(3) t =
(4) t =
102) The amplitude of oscillations of simple
harmonic oscillator of mass 100 g having an
angular frequency of 10 rad/s with a total
mechanical energy of 0.05 J is
(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 5cm
(4) 23 cm
103) SHM is represented by the equation
+Cy = 0 (C is constant). The time period of
oscillations is
(1)
(3)

(2)
(4)

104) A particle moves on the Y axis according to

the equation y =(2+3 sin
(y in m, t in s) the
motion is simple harmonic with amplitude of
oscillations
(1) 2 m
(2) 3 m (3) 5 m
(4) 1 m
105) The displacement of a particle executing SHM
is y= 10cos
m. The maximum speed of
the particle is ____ m/s
(1) 31.4
(2) 62.8 (3) 400
(4) 40
106) The potential energy of a particle executing
SHM in its rest position is 15 J. The average KE
of the particle during oscillations is 5J. The total
energy of the particle oscillations is
(1) 20J
(2) 17.5 J
(3) 15 J
(4) 5J
107) Two particles A and B in SHM are represented
by the equations
x1= 0.1 sin 100(
) ; x2= 0.1 cos
. The
initial phase difference of the particle B is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
108) The displacement of a SHO is given by
y = 2 sin (2
The ratio of its initial
displacement to maximum displacement is
(1) 1/
(2)
(3) 2 (4) zero
109) A particle executes SHM according to the
equation y= 2 sin2 , where y is displacement in
m and t is time in s. The distance covered by the
particle in the first 4 s of its motion is
(1) 0
(2) 2 m
(3) 8 m
(4) 32m
110) A particle is executing SHM with a frequency of
1/8 Hz. If it starts from the mean position at time t
= 0, the ratio of distances covered by it in the 1st
and 2nd seconds is
(1) 1 (2) 1/( - 1) (3) 1/( - 1) (4)
111) The displacement of SHO is given by

-1

y= 0.2 sin (
), where y is in meters and t is
in seconds. The ratio of its displacement and
velocity at t = 2s is
(1)
(2) s (3)
s
(4)
s
112) A particle executing SHM passes through the
mean position with a velocity of 4 m/s. The
velocity of the particle at a point where the
displacement is half of the amplitude is

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 2
(3)
m/s (4) 1 m/s
113) The restoring force acting on a particle
executing SHM is 10 N at a displacement of 2 cm
from the equilibrium position. The restoring force
at a displacement of 3 cm is
(1) 20 N (2) 15 N (3) 20/3 N
(4) 40/9 N
114) The equation of motion of a particle executing
SHM is y= 2sin(
If the particle starts
at t = 0, the minimum time in which it comes to
rest is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
115) A particle executes SHM along x-axis with an
amplitude A, time period T with origin as the mean
position. At t=0 if the particle starts in the +ve Xdirection from the origin the minimum time in
which it will be at x= -A/2 will be
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
116) A body of mass 0.1 kg is executing SHM. Its
displacement is y = 0.2 sin(10t + ) m, where t is
in seconds. The maximum force on the particle is
(1) 20 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 2N
(4) 1N
117) The displacement of two particles of same mass
executing SHM along X- axis are represented by
the equations x1 =4 sin(10t+ ) and x2= 5cos .
The value of
for which the energy of both the
particles will be equal is
(1) 16 units (2) 6 units (3) 4 units (4) 8 units
118) The equation of SHM of a particle is
y = 0.5 sin(2 t + ) m. The amplitude and
frequency of its oscillations are respectively
(1) 0.5m, 2

(2) 1m, 1 Hz

(3) 0.5 m, 1 Hz
(4) 0.5m, Hz
119) The maximum velocity and maximum
acceleration of a particle executing SHM are 20
cm/s and 100 cm/s2. The displacement of the
particle from the mean position when its speed
becomes 10 cm/s is
(1) 2 cm (2) 2.5 cm (3) 2
(4) 2 cm
120) A particle is executing SHM with an amplitude
of 2 m. Its velocity is 10 m/s at mean position. Its
velocity will be half at a displacement of
(1) 3 m

(2)

m (3)

(4)

/2 m

121) 6 moles of a solute is present in 100 moles of a

solution. The mole fraction of the solute is
(1) 0.6
(2) 0.06
(3) 0.03
(4)0.94
122) 1 litre of a solution of H2SO4 contains 392 g. of
H2SO4 . The density of the solution is 1.2gm/ml.
Then its molality is
(1)5.25 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 4.95m
(4) 2.95m
123) x grams of water is mixed with 69 g of
ethanol. Mole fraction of ethanol in the resultant
solution is 0.6. What is the value of x in grams?
(1) 54
(2) 36
(3) 180
(4) 18
124) 138 gms of ethyl alcohol is mixed with 72 gm
of water. The ratio of mole-fraction of alcohol to
water is
(1) 3:4
(2) 1:2
(3) 1:4
(4)1:1
125) The volume of two HCl solutions A(0.5N) and
B(0.1 N) to be mixed for preparing 2 lit. of 0.2 N
HCl solution
(1) 0.5, 1.5 (2) 1.5, 0.5 (3) 1,1 (4) 0.75,1.25
126) The molarity of water is
(1) 18
(2) 55.55
(3) 10
(4) 0.01
127) 250 ml of a solution contains 2.65 grams of
Na2CO3. 10 ml of this solution is added to x ml of
water to obtain 0.001 M Na2CO3 solution. What is
the value of x in ml?
(1) 1000
(2) 990
(3) 9990
(4)90
128) The volume of water to be added to convert 10
ml of decamolar HCl solution to deci molar
solution is
(1) 99 ml (2) 100 ml (3) 1000ml (4) 990ml
129) 5 millimoles of solute present in how many
litres of the solution will have 0.1 M
(1) 5
(2) 0.5
(3) 50
(4) 0.05
130) Conc. H2SO4 is 18 M. The volume of conc.
H2SO4 required to prepare 250 ml of 4M H2SO4
solution is .. ml
(1) 55.5
(2) 194.5
(3) 305.5
(4) 19.45
131) The number of moles of solute present in 0.5
dm3 of 0.5 M solution is
(1) 0.5
(2) 510-3 (3) 510-2
(4) 0.25
132) Mole percent of 17.1 g of sugar in 89.1 g. of
water is
(1) 0.01

(2) 0.1

(3)

(4) 1

133) 100 milli moles of a solute is present in 200 ml

of the solution. Then its molarity is
(1) 2M
(2) 1M (3) 0.5 M
(4) 1.5 M
134) On dissolving 1 mole of each the following
acids, in 1 litre water, the acid which does not give
a solution of strength 1N
(1) Hydrochloric acid
(2) Perchloric acid
(3) Nitric acid
(4) Phosphoric acid
135) The density of NH4OH solution is found to be
0.6 g/ml. It contains 34% by weight of NH4OH.
Calculate the normality of the solution.
(1) 4.8 N
(2) 10N
(3) 0.5 N
(4) 5.8 N
136) 3.15 grams of solute is present in 200 ml of
0.25 M solution. The solute may be
(1) H2C2O4.2H2O
(2) HCl
(3) H2SO4
(4) HNO3
137) The amount of K2SO4 (in grams) present in
dissolved state of 100 ml of solution whose K+
concentration is 0.075M
(1) 0.65
(2) 6.5
(3) 65
(4) 650
138)
LIST A
LIST B
A) 0.5M H2SO4 solution
i) 0.1 N solution
B) 0.1M NaCl solution
ii) 1N solution
C) 0.2M AlCl3 solution
iii) 1.5N solution
D) 0.5M H3PO4 solution
iv) 2.0 N solution
v) 0.6N solution
A
B
C
D
(1)
ii
v
i
iii
(2)
iv
ii
i
v
(3)
ii
i
v
iii
(4)
v
iv
ii
i
139) A sample of NaOH weighing 0.4g. is added to
100 ml of 0.1 N H2SO4 solution. The nature of the
resulting solution is
(1) Acidic
(2) Basic
(3) Neutral
(4) Amphoteric
140) Density of 2.05M solution of acetic acid in
water is 1.02 g/mL, the molality of that solution is
(1) 2.3
(2) 0.49 (3) 0.06
(4) 0.43
141) The density ( in g/mL) of a 3.6M sulphuric and
solution that is 29% H2SO4 by mass will be
(1) 1.88
(2) 1.22
(3) 1.45
(4) 1.64
142) 100 ml of 1M HCl, 200 ml of 2M HCl and 300
ml of 3M HCl are mixed with enough water to get
1M solution. The volume of water to be added is
(in ml)

(1) 600
(2) 700
(3) 800
(4)125
143) A solution is 0.1M with respect to KCl and
0.2M with respect to MgCl2. The molarity of Clions in the solution is
(1) 0.1M
(2) 0.3M
(3) 0.2M
(4) 0.5M
144) 0.84g. of an acid of Molecular weight 225 is
present in 100 ml of the solution. 25ml of this
solution required 28 ml of N/10 NaOH solution for
complete neutralization. The basicity of the acid is
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
145) The mole fraction of solvent in 0.1 molal
aqeous solution is
(1) 0.9982 (2) 0.0017
(3) 0.017 (4) 0.17
146) 6g. of Urea is dissolved in 90 g. of water. The
mole fraction of solute is
(1) 1/5
(2) 1/50
(3) 1/51
(4) 1/501
147) Aqueous NaOH solution is labeled as 10% by
weight mole fraction of the solute in it is
(1) 0.05
(2) 0.0476 (3) 0.052
(4) 0.52
148) The molality of 2% (W/W) NaCl solution
nearly
(1) 0.02m
(2) 0.35m (3) 0.25m (4) 0.45m
149) Which of the following solution is more
concentrated
(1) 0.3% H3PO4
(2) 0.3M H3PO4
(3) 0.3m H3PO4
(4) 0.3N H3PO4
150) Molarity of 1m aqueous NaOH solution
[density of the solution is 1.02 g/ml]
(1) 1M (2) 1.02 M (3) 1.2 M
(4) 0.98 M
151) The number of millimoles of H2SO4 present in
5 litres of 0.2N H2SO4 solution is
(1) 500 (2) 1000
(3) 250
(4) 0.510-3
152) The volume of 0.025M Ca(OH)2 solution which
can neutralize 100 ml of 10-4M H3PO4 is
(1) 10 ml
(2) 60 ml
(3) 0.6 ml (4) 2.8 ml
153) The Molarity of 200 ml of HCl solution which
can neutralise 10.6 g of anhydrous Na2CO3 is
(1) 0.1M
(2) 1M
(3) 0.6M
(4) 0.75M
154) The volume of decamolar aquous solutions of
hydrochloric Acid is required to prepare 2dm3 of
5M HCl solution is
(1)0.5L
(2) 1L
(3) 2L
(4) 3L
155) 10.6 g of a substance of molecular weight 106
was dissolved in 100 ml. 10 ml of this solution was
pipette out into a 1000 ml flask and made up to the
mark with distilled water. The molarity of the
resulting solution is

(1) 1M
(2) 10-2M
(3) 10-3 (4) 10-4M
156) 100 ml of aqueous solution contains 6.0231021
solute molecules. The solution is diluted to 1 lit.
The number of solute molecules present in 10 ml
of the dilute solution is
(1) 6.01020
(2) 6.01019
(3) 6.01018
(4) 6.01017
157) 100 ml each of 1M AgNO3 and 1M NaCl are
mixed. The nitrate ion concentration in the
resulting solution is
(1) 1M
(2) 0.5M (3) 0.75M (4) 0.25 M
158) H2SO4 is labeled as 9.8% by weight. Specific
gravity of H2SO4 is 1.8. The volume of the acid to
be taken to prepare 1000 ml of 0.18M solution is
(1) 10 ml
(2) 100 ml (3) 740 ml (4) 360 ml
159) The volumes of 1M HCl and 5M HCl to be
mixed to get 2 lit of 2M HCl are
(1) 1 lit and 1 lit
(2) 1.5 lit and 0.5 lit
(3) 1.25 lit and 0.75 lit (4) 1.33 lit and 0.66 lit
160) The number of Glucose molecules present in 10
ml of decimolar solution is
(1) 6.01020
(2) 6.01019
(3) 6.01021
(4) 6.01022

Rough Work