AIR LAW

016.) Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR
outside controlled airspace?
a) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
b) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft
c) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course
d) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
021.) An aircraft is flying under Instrument FlightRules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is
clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:
a) adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
b) descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations
c) continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan.
d) land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing
062.) In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar?
a) 4.
b) 3.
c) 5.
d) 2.
159.) Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:
a) The preceding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
b) The preceding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
c) The preceding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
d) The preceding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
197.) Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain
distance from the end of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within:
a) 1NM
b) 5NM
c) 3NM
d) 2NM
212.) A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed:
a) during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground;
b) during IFR flights, if the cloud base is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure;
c) as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more
d) during IFR and VFR flights in VMC;
224.) Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension
given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system?
a) 900 metres
b) 1000 metres
c) 420 metres
d) 1200 metres
239.) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and
recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
a) Annex 14
b) Annex 11
c) Annex 17
d) Annex 6

261.) Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received from the non-radar controller should normally be
passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of:
a) 3 NM from touchdown
b) 5 NM from touchdown
c) 4 NM from touchdown
d) 2 NM from touchdown
343.) When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th
birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from:
a) 24 months to 12 months
b) 12 months to 3 months
c) none of the answers are correct
d) 12 months to 6 months
351.) Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for
the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme
should apply:
a) to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of
cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state
b) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights
c) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights
d) only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo
419.) According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted to carrying out
instruction under the supervision of a FI(A), approved for this purpose. The restrictions may be removed from the
rating:
a) On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has
completed a competency test.
b) On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has
completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and , in addition, has supervised at least 25 student solo
flights.
c) On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has
supervised at least 100 solo flights.
d) On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has
supervised at least 100 solo flights and completed a competency test.
420.) According to JAR-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are:
a) FE(A)/TRE(A)/CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorisation.
b) FI(A) and IRI(A).
c) FI(A)/TRI(A)CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorisation
d) FI(A)/TRI(A)/CRI(A)/IRI(A) and SFI authorisation

422.) According to JAR-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for:

a) The period of validity of the class/type rating.
b) Not more than two years
c) Not more than three years
d) The period of validity of the medical certificate.
425.) Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme,
a) At each airport
b) only for administrative staff of airport
c) for every airline operating in the State
d) That is common for all airports within State

427.) When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most expeditious
means of the State of registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing and shall similarly
transmit all other relevant information to the:
a) Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose
citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO
b) Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose
citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the
ICAO
c) Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries on board the aircraft
and the ICAO
d) Two aforementioned States and the ICAO
435.) The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them with controlled
access is called:
a) Terminal.
b) Manoeuvring area.
c) Aeronautical part
d) Security program.

AGK SYSTEM
097.) Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently transmit the:
1. normal bending stresses
2. tangent bending stresses
3. torsional moment
4. shear stresses
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 4
114.) The fuel system boost pumps are used to:
a) feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.
b) feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel into the engine.
c) avoid the bubbles accumulation.
d) avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive
pressure.
149.) To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a
hydraulic system often incorporates
a) auxiliary hydraulic motors.
b) a high pressure relief valve.
c) an accumulator.
d) a stand-by hydraulic pump.
170.) The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if:
a) the reservoir level is at the normal operation limit.
b) there is a leak in the reservoir return line.
c) the pump power accumulator is deflated.
d) the pump output pressure is insufficient.

001.) In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the following frequencies:
a) HF
b) UHF
c) VLF
d) VHF
002.) In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the following frequencies:
a) VHF
b) UHF
c) VLF
d) HF
003.) The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is:
a) 2.46 m
b) 24.60 cm
c) 24.60 m
d) 2.46 cm
011.) The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 12 cm is:
a) 3600 MHz.
b) 2500 kHz.
c) 360 MHz.
d) 2500 MHz.
012.) The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency of 75 MHz is:
a) 40 m.
b) 7.5 m.
c) 75 m.
d) 4 m.
013.) The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency 118.7 MHz is:
a) 2.53 m.
b) 25.3 m.
c) 2.53 cm.
d) 25.3 cm.
026.) The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 kHz is:
a) 1 metre.
b) 100 metres.
c) 1000 metres.
d) 10 metres.
028.) The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths:
a) hectometric.
b) decimetric.
c) metric.
d) centimetric.
029.) The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths:
a) hectometric.
b) centimetric.
c) decimetric.
d) metric.

030.) The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths:
a) centimetric.
b) decimetric.
c) hectometric.
d) metric.
031.) The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths:
a) hectometric.
b) metric.
c) centimetric.
d) decimetric.
032.) The high Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:
a) decimetric.
b) myriametric.
c) hectometric.
d) metric.
033.) The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths:
a) decimetric.
b) hectometric or kilometric.
c) metric.
d) centimetric.
058.) In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is:
a) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 3 decibels.
b) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain.
c) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain, increased by 10kHz at each end.
d) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 20 decibels.
068.) Skip distance is the:
a) thickness of the ionosphere
b) range from the transmitter to the first sky wave
c) wavelength distance of a certain frequency
d) highest critical frequency distance
069.) A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is called:
a) propagation
b) attenuation
c) refraction
d) ducting
073.) The skip zone of HF-transmission will increase when the following change in circumstance occurs:
a) Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
b) Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
c) Lower frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
d) Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
101.) When AC generators are operated in parallel, they must be of the same:
a) amperage and kVAR.
b) frequency and amperage.
c) voltage and frequency.
d) voltage and amperage.

127.) In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is particularly found:

a) at night and when raining.
b) at night, due to the combination of the sky and ground waves.
c) by day, due to the combination of sky and ground waves.
d) by day and when raining.
001.) The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system of a large jet transport
airplane iswithin the following range:
a) 3000 to 5000 psi
b) 20 to 50 psi
c) 300 to 500 psi
d) 5 to 10 psi
009.) A propeller blade is twisted, so as to
a) keep the local Angle of Attack constant along the blade.
b) decrease the blade tangential velocity from the blade root to the tip.
c) allow a higher mechanical stress.
d) avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena.
010.) When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of attack of a
fixed pitch propeller:
a) stays constant.
b) increases.
c) reduces.
d) stays constant because it onlyvaries with engine RPM.
056.) The 'slipstream effect' of a propeller is most prominent at:
a) low airspeeds with low power setting.
b) low airspeeds with high power setting.
c) high airspeeds with high power setting.
d) high airspeeds with low power setting.
142.) An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those encountered in starting. Its engaging
pawls are prevented from operating at higher speeds by
a) engine oil pressure
b) centrifugal force
c) a coil spring
d) electro-magnetic action of operating magneto.
143.) An aircraft magneto is switched off by
a) opening the secondary circuit
b) opening the primary circuit
c) grounding the secondary circuit.
d) grounding the primary circuit
015.) The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a:
a) gear warning.
b) warning light and a warning bell (or aural alert).
c) warning bell.
d) warning light.
025.) The crash/fire axe is part of the safetyequipment fitted to passenger aircraft. Its function is to:
a) activate a radio survival beacon by cutting off the red coloured top
b) settle an escalating conflict with unreasonable passengers, who threaten flight safety.
c) free exits in case of evacuation via the sides.
d) obtain forced access to a fire behind a panel and a general purpose tool during evacuation.

027.) A manual inflation handle:

a) operates a hand pump for manual inflation of a slide
b) serves to inflate a life jacket whenthe normal inflation function fails
c) is generally not applied on slides
d) serves to actuate inflation of a slide when automatic inflation fails
032.) Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system on an aircraft is pulled, the effects are:
1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system
2. opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine concerned
3. setting of extinguishing systems
4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves
5. isolation of the associated electric current generators
6. immediate discharge of extinguishing agentThe combination regrouping all the
correct statements is:
a) 2,3,4,5
b) 1,3,4,5
c) 1,3,4
d) 1,2,5,6
035.) In the cockpit of a transport airplane, atleast one manual fire-extinguisher must be conveniently located
containing:
a) halon.
b) powder.
c) special fluids
d) water
046.) The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path marking system is to:
a) replace the overhead emergency lighting in case of failure.
b) guide the emergency evacuation during night only.
c) mark only the thresholds exits.
d) give additional guidance during an emergency evacuation with a thick smoke.
053.) Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by:
a) a pressurized gas canister combined with the slide itself.
b) a manual pump, used when needed by the cabin crew.
c) pressurized air from the air conditioning system.
d) the aircrafts general pneumatic circuit.

INSTRUMENT
038.) The limit speed maximum operating (VMO) is a speed expressed as:
a) true airspeed (TAS).
b) calibrated airspeed (CAS).
c) computed airspeed (COAS).
d) equivalent airspeed (EAS).
072.) Given: 3168 ile karyo
- Ts the static temperature (SAT)
- Tt the total temperature (TAT)
- Kr the recovery coefficient
- M the Mach number
The total temperature can be expressed approximately by the formula:
a) Tt = Ts(1+0.2 M)
b) Tt = Ts(1-0.2 M)
c) Tt = Ts(1+0.2 Kr.M)
d) Tt = Ts/(1+0.2 Kr.M)

117.) If an EPR is set at a constant barometric pressure, with an increasing OAT, the thrust
a) decreases.
b) remains constant
c) varies according to the characteristics of the engine
d) increases
168.) To be as accurate as possible, an anemometer must be calibrated according to the following formula:
a) Bernoulli, taking into account the air compressibility.
b) Saint-Venant, taking into account the air compressibility.
c) Bernoulli, considering the air as an uncompressible fluid.
d) Saint-Venant, considering the air as an uncompressible fluid
193.) During an automatic landing, between 50 FT AGL and touch down, the autopilot maintains:
a) a vertical speed according to the GPS height.
b) a vertical speed according to the radio altimeter height.
c) a constant flight path angle with reference to the ground.
d) a constant vertical speed.
194.) The stick shaker calculator receives the following information:
1- mass of the airplane
2- angle of attack
3- wing flap deflection
4- position of the landing gear
5- total air temperature
6- pressure altitude
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 5
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
218.) (For this question use annex 022-10179A)
Four scenarios of VOR axis interception are represented in the appended annex. The one corresponding to the
optimal interception path calculated by a flight director is number:
a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1
240.) The calculator combined with the stick shaker system of a modern transport airplane receives information
about the:
1- angle of attack
2- engine R.P.M.
3- configuration
4- pitch and bank attitude
5- sideslip
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1 and 5.
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
d) 1 and 3.
275.) When the auto-pilot is engaged; the role of the automatic trim is to:
a) react to altitude changes in Altitude Hold mode
b) relieve the pressure on the control column and return, the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect
c) synchronize the longitudinal loop
d) relieve the A.P. servo motor and returnthe aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect

312.) Should a defect arise in the stability augmentation system (SAS) during flight:
a) the pilot will be advised by an amber warning.
b) an audio alarm will attract the pilots attention to check the AFCS control panel.
c) the control stick will move to a pre-set patum causing the pilot to revert to manual control.
d) the pilot is not informed unless the second channel fails also.