The correct answer for each question is indicated by a

begins with _______ and ends with _______.

A)

B)

. 1INCORRECT Life-span development

birth; death

conception; old age

C)

infancy; old age

D)

conception; death

2INCORRECT Parents adhering to the fundamental premise of Jean-Jacques Rousseau's

"innate goodness" argument would:
A) reject the need to "teach" language since speech is inherited.

B) provide their children with little monitoring and few constraints.

C) view their child as intellectually indistinguishable from themselves.
D) argue that their newborn's brain is like a "blank slate."

3INCORRECT Which view of children is stated in the doctrine of "original sin"?

A) Children, although born good, are destined to become evil.
B) Evil children are born only to parents who have sinned.
C) Children are basically bad, and are born as evil beings.
D) Children are born good and remain that way until adulthood.

4INCORRECT Which philosophical view assumes that the child's mind at birth is a "blank
tablet"?
A)

original sin

B)

tabula rasa

C)
D)

determinism
innate goodness

5INCORRECT Contrary to the view held centuries ago, today we believe that:
A)

B)

children are miniature adults.

childhood is a unique and important period in life.

C) children ought to be treated as small adults in need of training but little else.
D)children are autonomous and may be expected to grow and develop with very little parental
support.

6INCORRECT The traditional approach to development emphasizes:

A)

little change from birth through old age.

B) extensive change from birth to adolescence, adulthood, and old age.

C) extensive change from birth to adulthood, then little change for the rest of the life span.

D)extensive change from birth to adolescence, little or no change in adulthood, then decline in late
old age.

7INCORRECT The traditional and life-span perspectives are contrasting views of

developmental change. According to the life-span perspective, when do developmental changes
occur?
A)
B)

during infancy and early childhood

during adolescence and early adulthood

C)

during middle and late adulthood

D)

throughout the entire life cycle

8INCORRECT Allan spends a great deal of time working and trying to establish his career. He
also has been thinking about how his personal relationship is going and considering whether it
could be long-term and lead to establishing a family. Allan is MOST LIKELY in:
A)

late adolescence.

B)

early adulthood.

C)

middle adulthood.

D)

late adulthood

9INCORRECT The period of development during which school readiness skills are developed
and most free time is spent playing with friends is called:
A)
B)

infancy.
early childhood.

C)

middle childhood.

D)

late childhood.

10INCORRECT Paul depends almost completely on his parents. He is just learning to

recognize things that he wants and how to get them. Paul is in the development period called:
A)
B)

late childhood.
middle childhood.

C)

early childhood.
D)

infancy.

11INCORRECT Which period of development is characterized by establishing independence,

developing an identity, and thinking more abstractly?
A)

middle childhood

B)
C)

late childhood
adolescence

D)

early adulthood

12INCORRECT Many older persons become wiser with age, yet perform more poorly on
cognitive speed tests. This supports the life-span perspective notion that development is:
A)

multidirectional.

B)

multidimensional.
C)

lifelong.

D)

plastic.

13INCORRECT Development consists of many aspects: biological, cognitive, socioemotional,

etc. This statement supports Baltes' assertion that development is:
A)
B)

contextual.
multidirectional.

C)

multidimensional.
D)

plastic.

14INCORRECT Development is characterized by growth and decline. This statement supports

Baltes' assertion that development is:
A)
B)

contextual.
multidirectional.

C)

multidimensional.
D)

plastic.

15INCORRECT In one study, the reasoning abilities of older adults were improved through
retraining. This is an example of how development is:
A)
B)

contextual.
multidirectional.

C)

multidimensional.
D)

plastic.

16CORRECT Differences in families, neighborhoods, cultures, and even time periods affect
development. This statement supports Baltes' assertion that development is:
A)

B)
C)

contextual.

multidirectional.
multidimensional.
D)

plastic.

17CORRECT In many cultures, people retire from their careers in their fifties or sixties. This
is an example of a:
A)

normative age-graded influence.

B)

normative history-graded influence.

C)

nonnormative life event.

D)

nonnormative socioemotional event.

18INCORRECT Like many others her age, Velma does not know how to use a computer, but
her six-year-old grandson has no problem navigating the Internet and using a word processing
program. This is an example of a:
A)

normative age-graded influence.

B)

normative history-graded influence.

C)

nonnormative life event.

D)

nonnormative socioemotional event.

19INCORRECT When Ben was thirteen when his father was killed in a car accident. This is
an example of a:
A)

normative age-graded influence.

B)

normative history-graded influence.

C)

nonnormative life event.

D)

nonnormative socioemotional event.

20CORRECT The onset of puberty is an example of:

A)

normative age-graded influences.

B)

normative history-graded influences.

C)

nonnormative life events.

D)

storm-and-stress events.

21INCORRECT The AIDS epidemic in the United States would be an example of a:

A)

normative age-graded influence.

B)

normative history-graded influence.

C)

nonnormative life event.

D)

storm-and-stress event.

22CORRECT The number of years since a person was born is a key element in the definition
of:
A)
B)
C)

chronological age.
biological age.
psychological age.

D)

developmental age.

23INCORRECT The expectations society has that a person will act his or her age refers to:
A)

biological age.
B)

C)

social age.
psychological age.

D)

historical age.

24INCORRECT Rozee is 86 years young. She continues to learn phrases in new languages,
she writes poetry, and she enjoys going to museums to see the latest up-and-coming artists. These
examples of her adaptive capacities demonstrate:
A)

chronological age.

B)

biological age.

C)

psychological age.
D)

social age.

25CORRECT As he was studying life-span development, Tyrell had to learn several

interrelated, coherent sets of ideas that would help him explain and make predictions about
development. Tyrell had to learn:
A)

theories.

B)

hypotheses.
C)

D)

models.

scientific methods.

26INCORRECT Which theoretical perspectives describe development as an unconscious

process?
A)

contextual theories

B)

ecological theories

C)

psychoanalytical theories

D)

ethological theories

27INCORRECT Callie is learning about the psychoanalytic perspective and understands there
are three parts to the personality. According to Freud, they are the:
A)

B)

libido, ego, id.

unconscious, conscious, superego.

C)
D)

ego, superego, subego.

superego, ego, id.

28INCORRECT Erik Erikson's theory emphasized:

A) repeated resolutions of unconscious conflicts about sexual energy.

B) developmental change throughout the human life span.

C)

changes in children's thinking as they mature.

D) the influence of sensitive periods in the various stages of biological maturation.

29INCORRECT Most life-span developmentalists recognize that:

A) nature, continuity, and stability are the primary determinants of behavior.
B) nurture, discontinuity, and change are the primary determinants of behavior.
C) while nurture (the environment) is important, nature (heredity) plays the stronger role.
D)

extreme positions on these issues are unwise.

30INCORRECT The information-processing approach to development emphasizes:

A) the quality of thinking among children of different ages.
B)
C)

overcoming certain age-related problems or crises.

age-appropriate expressions of sexual energy.

D) perception, memory, reasoning ability, and problem solving.

31CORRECT From B.F. Skinner's point of view, behavior is explained through:

A)

B)

external consequences of that behavior.

the self-produced consequences of that behavior.

C) individuals' cognitive interpretations of their environmental experiences.

D)

the biological processes that determine maturation.

32CORRECT According to Albert Bandura's social cognitive theory, the three factors that
reciprocally influence development involve:
A)

behavior, the person, and the environment.

B)

punishment, reward, and reinforcement.

C)

memory, problem solving, and reasoning.

D)

cognition, reward, and observation.

33CORRECT Because Dr. Samuels is a cognitive theorist, we know that she stresses the
importance of _______ for understanding development.
A)

B)
C)
D)

thought processes

repressed memories
reciprocal interactions

biologically determined critical periods

34INCORRECT Which theory would be BEST to consider if you wanted to understand how
and why children copy the behaviors they see in TV cartoons?
A)

Skinner's behaviorism

B)

Piaget's cognitive theory

C)
D)

Erikson's psychosocial stages

Bandura and Mischel's social cognitive theory

35CORRECT Which theory believes there are sensitive periods of development?

A)

ethological theory

B)

ecological theory

C)

behavioral theory

D)

social cognition theory

36CORRECT In Bronfenbrenner's theory, the microsystem refers to the:

A) contexts in which the individual lives and plays an active role.
B) b contexts in which the individual lives but does not play an active role.
C)

cultural context within which an individual is raised.

D)

changes in one's culture over time.

37INCORRECT In Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory of development, family is to time as

_______is to _______.
A)

macrosystem; mesosystem

B)

exosystem; microsystem

C)

exosystem; chronosystem

D)

microsystem; chronosystem

38CORRECT Alex believes people are primarily influenced by the environment and learned
experiences, so he believes _______ plays a more powerful role in human development.
A)

B)

nurture

maturation
C)
D)

change
nature

39INCORRECT Which statement BEST resolves the nature-nurture controversy?

A)

Nature is clearly more important in development.

B) The interaction between nature and nurture is most important in development.

C)

Nurture is clearly more important in development.

D) Neither plays a particularly strong role in development.

40CORRECT A major strength of ecological theory is its framework for explaining:

A)

environmental influences on development.

B)

biological influences on development.

C)

D)

cognitive development.
affective processes in development.

41INCORRECT An approach consisting of several different theoretical perspectives is

referred to as:
A)

nondescript.

B)
C)

eclectic.

quasi-experimental.

D)

pseudoscientific.

42CORRECT One difficulty of conducting research in the laboratory setting is that:

A)
B)
C)

it is artificial.

random assignment is impossible.

extraneous factors are difficult to control.

D) participants tend to be unaware that they are in an experiment.

43CORRECT The main advantage of the naturalistic observation technique involves:

A)

real-world validity.

B)

great control over extraneous variables.

C)

the ability to utilize inferential statistics.

D)

a lack of ethical controls.

44INCORRECT An important part of an observational measure is that it be conducted:

A)

in a real-world setting rather than a laboratory.

B)

in a laboratory rather than a real-world setting.

C) in a way that is systematic and planned carefully in advance.

D) with the consent and prior knowledge of all people being observed.

45INCORRECT Dr. Somberg is using a method of gathering information that gives an indepth look at one individual. She is using the:
A)

B)

interview.

emic approach.

C)

participant observation.
D)

case study.

46INCORRECT A common caution for correlational research is:

A)

it is difficult to administer.

B)
C)

correlation does not equal causation.

correlations do not tell direction of relationship.

D) correlations do not indicate the strength of a relationship.

47INCORRECT Experimental designs are superior to correlational approaches when dealing

with:
A) concepts that have not been studied in any great detail.
B)
C)

variables that need to be manipulated.

variables that are unethical to manipulate.

D)

variables that can be controlled easily.

48CORRECT A _______ design compares individuals of different ages (e.g., 30-year-olds, 40year-olds, and 50-year-olds) at one testing time.
A)

cross-sectional

B)

longitudinal

C)

Latin squares

D)

correlational

49INCORRECT Which measure allows a researcher to compare one person's score with the
scores of a large group of similar people?
A)

case study

B)

questionnaire

C)
D)

standardized test
naturalistic observation

50CORRECT Which method of collecting information about life-span development is most

likely to include a life calendar?
A)

life-history record
B)

C)

case study
sequential approach

D)

interview

51CORRECT Which research strategy is the BEST for determining cause-and-effect

relationships?

A)
B)
C)
D)

experimental
correlational
observational
standardized test

Biological Beginnings
The correct answer for each question is indicated by a

INCORREC
T

The process of natural _______ favors individuals of a species that are best able
to survive and reproduce.
A)

progression

B)

distinction

C)
D)

INCORREC
T

selection
accommodation

David Buss believes that _______ not only shapes our physical features but also
influences our decision making, aggressive behavior, fears, and mating patterns.
A)

adaptation
B)

C)
D)

INCORREC
T

instinct
evolution
genetics

According to Baltes, the benefits of evolutionary selection:

A)

increase with age.

B)

decrease with age.

C) remain the same over the life span.

D)first increase in early adulthood, then decrease after the decline in
reproductive capacity.

CORRECT

Albert Bandura would argue that evolutionary psychology focuses too much on
_______ and not enough on _______.
A)

biology; environment

B)

evolution; regression

C) generational trends; individual trends

D)

INCORREC
T

culture; learning

The units of hereditary information that act as a blueprint for cells to reproduce
themselves and manufacture the proteins that maintain life are:
A)

chromosomes.
B)
C)

D)

CORRECT

DNA.
genes.
ribosomes.

In the process of meiosis:

A)the cells divide into gametes, which have half the genetic material
of the parent cell.
B) the focus is on cell growth and repair.
C) the number of chromosomes present remains the same.
D)

two daughter cells are formed.

INCORREC
T

Each human gamete has:

A)

46 paired chromosomes.

B)

46 unpaired chromosomes.

C)

23 paired chromosomes.

D)

INCORREC
T

23 unpaired chromosomes.

The typical female chromosome pattern is:

A)
B)

XX.

C)

XY.

D)

INCORREC
T

A)

dominant.

B)

recessive.

D)

INCORREC
T

XXY.

Traits that are produced by the interaction between two or more genes are
called:

C)

1
0

YY.

monogenic.
polygenic.

The complete set of instructions for making an organism is called the:

A)

phenotype.
B)

zygote.

C)

genome.

D)

1
1

INCORREC
T

DNA map.

Dominant-recessive gene inheritance involves _______ genes, whereas

polygenic inheritance involves _______ genes.

A)

2; 2

B)

4; 2

C)

2; many

D)

1
2

INCORREC
T

many; 2

Of the following, which is the smallest unit?

A)

cell

B)
C)
D)

1
3

INCORREC
T

gene
gamete

chromosome

The typical human being begins life with 46:

A)

cells.

B)

1
4

INCORREC
T

C)

chromosomes.

D)

DNA molecules.

Both of Brian's parents are farsighted, but Brian wears glasses for
nearsightedness. Which genetic principle can explain this difference?

A)
B)

reaction range

D)

INCORREC
T

sex-linked genes

If you are looking at someone's brown hair, you are observing that person's

A)
B)
C)
D)

1
6

INCORREC
T

mitosis

dominant-recessive genes
C)

1
5

genes.

genotype.
phenotype.
reaction range.

dominant gene code.

Amanda was born with Down syndrome. The doctor tells her parents that she
will be mentally retarded. If her parents keep her at home without educational
or training programs, the doctor predicts that her IQ might go as low as 35, but
he predicts it could go as high as 70 if they provide such programs for Amanda.
This variability in Amanda's potential IQ provides an example of the:
A)
B)

canalization of intelligence.
reaction range for intelligence.

C) polygenic inheritance of intelligence.

D) dominant-recessive gene action on intelligence.

1
7

CORRECT

The narrow path marking the development of characteristics that appear

immune to vast changes in environmental events is called:

A)

canalization.
B)

C)
D)

1
8

INCORREC
T

meiosis.
phenotype.
heredity.

Behavioral geneticists believe that behaviors are determined by:

A)
B)

only biological factors.

only environmental factors.

C)biological factors at birth and environmental factors throughout the

rest of life.
D)a continuous interaction between biological and environmental
factors.

1
9

INCORREC
T

Twins that develop from a single fertilized egg are called:

A)

fraternal twins.

B)

adopted twins.

C)

dizygotic twins.

D)

2
0

INCORREC
T

identical twins.

Adoption studies are designed to test the different effects of:

A)

adoption on parenting styles.

B)

polygenic vs. single-gene traits.

C) the home environment and the biological genes.

D) knowledge of one's adopted status on children's behavior.

2
1

Which genetic disorder is caused by an extra chromosome?

CORRECT

A)

Down syndrome

B)

Turner syndrome

C)

sickle-cell anemia

D)

2
2

phenylketonuria (PKU)

Which of these syndromes is NOT sex-linked?

CORRECT

A)
B)
C)
D)

sickle-cell anemia
Klinefelter syndrome
Turner syndrome
XYY syndrome

2
3

INCORREC
T

Mary begs her parents to allow her to take piano lessons. After her first several
lessons, it quickly becomes apparent that Mary has a natural talent for music.
This example best illustrates:
A) passive genotype-environment correlation.
B) evocative genotype-environment correlation.
C) active genotype-environment correlation.
D) active genotype-phenotype correlation.

2
4

INCORREC
T

Children who are highly active, easily distracted, and move quickly often elicit
adult attempts to quiet them down, punishment for lack of concentration, and
angry warnings to slow down. This describes an example of a(n) _______
genotype-environment interaction.
A)

passive

B)
C)

niche-picking
D)

2
5

CORRECT

active

evocative

Rachel has always enjoyed reading. Now that she is a parent, she provides her
daughter with many books to read, hoping the child also will learn to enjoy
reading. How do behavior geneticists refer to this type of interaction between
heredity and environment?
A) passive genotype-environment interactions
B) evocative genotype-environment interactions
C) influential genotype-environment interactions
D) active genotype-environment interactions

2
6

INCORREC
T

Which prenatal diagnostic test is the least invasive?

A)
B)

2
7

INCORREC
T

amniocentesis
ultrasound sonography

C)

chorionic villus test

D)

maternal blood test

If amniocentesis is performed to determine if a woman's fetus is genetically

normal, this will involve:

A) taking a blood sample from the mother.

B)drawing a sample of the fluid that surrounds the baby in the womb.
C)taking a sample of the placenta between the 8th and 11th week of
pregnancy.
D) taking a blood sample from the fetus.

2
8

INCORREC
T

A fertilized ovum is called:

A)

a blastocyst.
B)

C)
D)

INCORREC
T

an egg.
an embryo.
a zygote.

The period of prenatal development that occurs in the first two weeks after
conception is called the _______ period.

9
A)
B)
C)
D)

3
0

CORRECT

fetal
germinal
embryonic

blastocystic

How does the placenta/umbilical cord life-support system prevent harmful

bacteria from invading a fetus?

A) Bacteria are too large to pass through the placenta walls.

B)The placenta generates antibodies that attack and destroy
bacteria.
C)Bacteria become trapped in the maze of blood vessels of the
umbilical cord.
D) No one understands how the placenta keeps bacteria out.

3
1

CORRECT

During which period of prenatal development do cells begin to become different

from each other more rapidly and organs begin to form?

A)

embryonic period

B)
C)
D)

3
2

INCORREC
T

zygotic period
fetal period
blastocystic period

The human body develops from three layers of cells in the embryo. These layers
are the:

A)

zygote, blastocyst, and trophoblast.

B) amnion, placenta, and umbilical cord.

C) endoderm, ectoderm, and mesoderm.
D) blastoderm, trophoderm, and plastoderm.

3
3

CORRECT

Organs and tissues in an unborn baby are most vulnerable to environmental

changes during:

A)

organogenesis.

B)

the fetal period.

C)
D)

3
4

INCORREC
T

the germinal period.

trophoblast differentiation.

Which phrase best defines a teratogen?

A) a life-support system that protects the fetus

B) an agent that stimulates the formation of organs
C) an abnormality in infants of alcoholic mothers
D) an environmental factor that produces birth defects

3
5

CORRECT

Which of the following statements about fetal alcohol syndrome is most

accurate?

A)The infant is often physically deformed and below average in

intelligence.

B) Fetal alcohol syndrome commonly results in miscarriages.

C) Fetal alcohol syndrome causes ectopic pregnancies.
D)Babies suffering from fetal alcohol syndrome are often born before
term and with low birthweights.

3
6

INCORREC
T

A common characteristic of babies born to women who smoke during their

pregnancies is:

A)

a missing arm or leg.

B) facial deformities and below-average intelligence.

C)

restlessness and irritability.

D)

3
7

INCORREC
T

lower birthweights.

Phillip is 5 years old and has a poor attention span. He often fidgets and is
impulsive. It is quite possible that Phillip's mother used _______ while pregnant.

A)

nicotine

B)

cocaine

C)
D)

3
8

INCORREC
T

caffeine
marijuana

Maternal stress is associated with _______ in the baby.

A)
B)

decreased intelligence
increased risk of prematurity

C)
D)

3
9

INCORREC
T

increased heart rate

decreased growth rate

Which of the following statements about the relationship between age and
pregnancy outcome is most accurate?

A) Adolescent mothers are most likely to have retarded children.

B)Artificially inseminated women in their thirties and forties are more
likely to become pregnant than those in their twenties.
C) Mothers over age 30 are most likely to have retarded babies.
D)Adolescent mothers suffer the lowest infant mortality rates of any
age group.

4
0

INCORREC
T

Now that Eric and Luz have established their careers and are in their midtwenties, they are planning to have a baby. In terms of the paternal factors that
may affect his child, Eric should be most concerned about:
A)

his high-stress job as an attorney.

B) the second-hand smoke he encounters in his law office.

C)
D)

4
1

his age.

his low dietary intake of vitamin C.

Which of the following is a complication of delivery?

CORRECT

A)
B)
C)

anoxia
oxytocin
teratology

D)

4
2

INCORREC
T

toxoplasmosis

Drugs used to block sensation in one area of the body or to block consciousness
during delivery are:

A)

analgesics.

B)

4
3

INCORREC
T

anesthestics.

C)

epidurals.

D)

oxytocics.

Linda's baby is about to be born. The baby's head is at the top of the uterus,
and the baby's lower extremities are on the cervix. This situation is:

A)

normal for delivery.

B)
C)
D)

4
4

INCORREC
T

called afterbirth.
called a breech position.

called a precipitate position.

The Apgar primarily assesses a newborn's:

A)

psychological status.
B)

C)
D)

reflexes.

physiological health.
responsivity to people.

4
5

CORRECT

Two-day-old Terry's very low Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale

score is often a good indicator that:

A)

he has brain damage.

B) his mother took heroin while she was pregnant.

C) he will develop a "difficult" temperament.
D) he is unlikely to bond with his primary caregiver.

4
6

INCORREC
T

Which of the following statements about bonding between mothers and

newborns enjoys supporting evidence?

A)The newborn must have sufficiently close contact to bond with the
mother in the first few days of life to develop optimally.
B)Bonding between infant and mother can only occur after standard
childbirth.
C)Bonding with mothers is helpful to preterm infants and adolescent
mothers.
D)Bonding with the mother is more important for the infant's
development than bonding with the father.

Physical Development
The correct answer for each question is indicated by a

INCORREC
T

Which best demonstrates the basic principle of cephalocaudal development?

A)An infant first produces an endogenous smile, then an exogenous

smile, then a laugh.
B) An infant first raises the head, then sits up, then stands up.
C)An infant obtains visual skills, then olfactory skills, then auditory
skills.

D)An infant coos, then babbles, then speaks single words, then uses
language.

INCORREC
T

CORRECT

Proximodistal growth refers to growth that moves from:

A)

top to bottom.

B)

bottom to top.

C)

outer to middle.

D)

middle to outer.

Two important factors that can produce individual differences in height are:
A)

ethnic origin and nutrition.

B) genetic predisposition and early behavior.

C) central nervous system functioning and reduction of fat intake.
D)

CORRECT

standard of living and cost of living.

By the end of early childhood, boys have more _______, whereas girls have
more _______.

C)
D)

A)

muscle; fat

B)

fat; muscle
strength; endurance

weight gain; height gain

CORRECT

The period of middle and late childhood involves:

A)

slow, consistent growth.

B)

rapid, consistent growth.

C)

rapid spurts of growth.

D) moderate growth with occasional spurts.

INCORREC
T

Why are boys generally stronger than girls during middle childhood?

A)
B)
C)
D)

INCORREC
T

Boys exercise more.

Boys lose their baby fat faster.

Boys have a larger skeletal system.

Boys have more muscle cells.

Alice wants to know how early her daughter Barbara will go through puberty.
Which of the following is the best indicator?
A)

INCORREC
T

Alice's weight

B)

Barbara's level of exercise

C)

family history of puberty

D)

Barbara's physical health

The age at which puberty arrives is _______ with each passing decade.

A)

increasing

B)

decreasing

C)

staying the same

D)

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slowing down

Endocrine gland(s) important for controlling growth and regulating other glands
is/are the:
A)

hypothalamus.

B)

pituitary gland.
C)

thalamus.

D)

1
0

CORRECT

_______ are the dominant class of hormone in males, whereas _______ are the
dominant class of hormone in females.

A)

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1

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gonads.

Testosterones; estradiols

B)

Estrogens; androgens

C)

Estradiols; estrogens

D)

Androgens; estradiols

The hormonal and body changes of puberty occur about ______ year(s) earlier
in girls than they do in boys.

A)
B)

1
1 1/2

C)
D)

2
2 1/2

1
2

INCORREC
T

Puberty refers to a period of:

A)declining abstract thought and emotional maturation during late

adolescence.
B) declining gross motor development during late childhood.
C)rapid psychological and emotional maturation during adolescence.
D) rapid skeletal and sexual maturation during adolescence.

1
3

INCORREC
T

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Boys go through growth spurts earlier than girls.

B)Both boys and girls who are shorter than their peers before puberty
will actually surpass their peers during the adolescent growth
spurt.
C) Girls are just as tall and weigh more than boys before puberty.
D) After puberty, girls are shorter but heavier than boys.

1
4

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Recent research has found that early-maturing girls are more likely than latematuring girls to:

A) be satisfied with their figures in high school.

B) be taller and thinner when they reach high school.
C) be less popular with males their own age.
D)

be depressed.

1
5

INCORREC
T

The Berkeley Longitudinal Study showed that, compared with late-maturing

boys, early-maturing boys saw themselves:

A)
B)

more positively.

C)
D)

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6

INCORREC
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less positively.

smaller and weaker.

as bigger but more awkward.

Which of the following might be expected to occur when an individual reaches

age 30?

A)

greater muscle tone and strength

B) radical changes in the sensory systems

C) sagging chins and protruding abdomens
D)

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7

INCORREC
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decrease in the body's fatty tissues

The average adult in middle adulthood _______ height and _______ weight.

A)

loses; loses

B)

loses; gains

C)

gains; gains

D)

gains; loses

1
8

INCORREC
T

People become _______ as they go through middle adulthood.

A)

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9

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faster

B)

happier

C)

thinner

D)

shorter

A man in his mid-forties is MOST likely to notice:

A) increased strength in his upper arms.

B)

sensitivity to high-pitched sounds.

C)

D)

2
0

CORRECT

joint stiffness.

decreased bladder control.

Considering normal aging processes, who'se blood pressure would be expected

to be highest?

A) Sally, a 60-year-old woman who is postmenopausal

B) Cindy, a 40-year-old woman who is premenopausal
C) Carl, a 60-year-old man whose prostate was removed
D) Sam, 40-year-old man whose prostate is still intact

INCORREC
T

During the first 2 years of life, there is tremendous growth in an infant's:

1
A)

stepping reflex.

B)

2
2

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number of nerve cells.

C)

percentage of REM sleep.

D)

neuronal interconnections.

The brain is divided into two halves called:

A)

laterals.

B)

hemispheres.
C)

cortexes.
D)

2
3

INCORREC
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lobes.

Myelination occurs in the brain when:

A)

children develop more nerve cells.

B) nerve cells grow more nerve endings.

C) nerve cells become insulated with a layer of fat.
D)nerve cells become connected to each other in a more complicated
network.

2
4

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Myelination in the brain:

A) nourishes the nerve cells so they function more efficiently.

B)increases the number of cells connected in a given neural network.
C)helps nerve cells communicate with a larger number of other cells.
D)increases the speed of information traveling through the nerve
cells.

2
5

INCORREC
T

Which pair is correct?

A)

left hemisphere : visual processing

B) right hemisphere : auditory processing

C)
D)

2
6

INCORREC
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left hemisphere : speech

right hemisphere : grammar

Nathan has just turned 2 years old. Developmental psychologists believe

Nathan's brain is _______ of its adult weight.

A)

25 percent

B)

50 percent

C)

75 percent

D)

2
7

90 percent

The most rapid growth in the brain for children aged 3 to 6 takes place in the:
CORRECT

A)

frontal lobe areas.

B)

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8

INCORREC
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temporal lobe areas.

C)

parietal lobe.

D)

occipital lobe.

A study designed to discover if the brain activity of adolescents differed from

that of adults during the processing of emotional information found that:

A)there were no significant differences in where information was

processed, but emotional intensity was higher for adolescents than
for adults.
B)adolescents were more likely to process emotional information in
the amygdala and adults were more likely to process it in the
frontal lobe.
C)adolescents were more likely to process emotional information in
the frontal lobe and adults were more likely to process it in the
amygdala.
D)adolescents were less able than adults to perceive expression of
emotion in others.

2
9

INCORREC
T

Which statement summarizes normal brain development from age 70 to 80?

A)Both neurons and dendrites are lost, causing a deterioration in

brain function.
B)New neurons and dendrites develop, as the brain becomes the
most vital organ in old age.
C)Neurons may atrophy, but overall function is maintained by the
growth of new dendrites.
D)Dendrite connections are lost, but overall function is maintained by
the growth of new neurons.

3
0

Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is caused by:

CORRECT

A)

unknown factors.

B)

premature birth.

C)
D)

3
1

INCORREC
T

respiratory infections.

disturbances in the deep sleep state.

Cross-cultural research demonstrates that infant sleep patterns around the

world:

A)
B)
C)

are the same.

differ for each culture.

may relate to mother-child contact.

D) have been steadily changing as humans evolve.

3
2

INCORREC
T

Sleep researchers have found that:

A) infants and adults exhibit similar patterns of REM sleep.

B) infants engage in more REM sleep than adults.
C) adults engage in more REM sleep than infants.
D) adults enter REM sleep earlier in the sleep cycle than infants.

3
3

INCORREC
T

Research comparing sleep patterns of childhood with those of adolescence have

found that adolescents:

A)

wake up earlier than children.

B)

wake up later than children.

C) continue to wake up at the same time they did as children.

D)

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4

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need less sleep than children.

All of the following are recommendations to help older adults sleep better at
night, EXCEPT:

A)

avoid caffeine.

B) stay physically active during the day.

C)
D)

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5

INCORREC
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stay mentally active.

take short naps during the day.

With improvements in medicine, nutrition, exercise, and lifestyle, our life:

A)
B)

span has increased.

expectancy has increased.

C) expectancy has stayed the same, but our lives are healthier.
D) expectancy has dropped, but the quality of life has improved.

3
6

INCORREC
T

Researchers in the New England Centenarian study have found that _______
contributes to living a long life.

A)

lack of stress

B)

good genes

C) the ability to cope successfully with stress

D)

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7

INCORREC
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a healthy lifestyle

Which of the following has remained virtually unchanged throughout history?

A)

life expectancy
B)

C)

life development

D)

3
8

life experience

Longevity is positively correlated with:

CORRECT

A)
B)
C)
D)

3
9

life span

INCORREC
T

ability to cope.

number of stressful events.

years of marriage.
socioeconomic status.

Which of the following countries has the lowest rate of life expectancy?

A)

Australia
B)
C)

India
Kenya

D)

4
0

INCORREC
T

Philippines

If men and women engaged in exactly the same health-related behaviors,

experienced the same amounts of stress, reacted to stress in the same ways,
and had the same work habits and attitudes, which of the following would be
expected?
A) Men and women would have the same life expectancies.
B) Women would have longer life expectancies than men.
C) Men would have longer life expectancies than women.
D) Men and women would both have shorter life expectancies.

4
1

4
2

INCORREC
T

INCORREC
T

According to Hayflick's cellular clock theory, cells can divide a maximum of:

A)

50 to 60 times.

B)

65 to 70 times.

C)

75 to 80 times.

D)

80 to 100 times

Which of the following biological theories of aging states that people age
because their cells' normal metabolism produces unstable oxygen molecules?

A)

cellular clock theory

B)

free-radical theory

C)
D)

telomerase-injection theory
hormonal stress theory

Motor, Sensory, and Perceptual Development

CORRECT

According to the dynamic systems theory proposed by Esther Thelen:

A mastering a motor skill requires the use of the nervous system,
) motivational factors, and environmental opportunities.
B) the development of motor skills is primarily biologically driven.
C the development of motor skills is primarily dependent on
) environmental factors.
D motor skills are initially driven by biological forces but become
) increasingly dependent on environmental influences.

INCORREC
T

The dynamic systems theory of motor development emphasizes:

A)
B)

INCORREC
T

a genetic blueprint.
environmental stimuli.

C)

unconscious motivations.

D)

exploration and selection.

T. Berry Brazelton (1956) found that most infants:

A) engage in sucking primarily for nutrition.

B) continue to exhibit the sucking reflex into toddlerhood.
C) engage in considerable sucking behavior unrelated to feeding.
D) must learn how to suck in order to ensure sufficient nutrition.

INCORREC
T

Which infant motor event typically occurs first?

A)

stands with support

B)

holds the head erect

C)

D)

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rolls over

sits without support

Which of the following reflexes occurs when an infant's cheek is stroked or the
side of his or her mouth is touched?
A)

sucking

B)

blinking
C)

D)

INCORREC
T

Moro
rooting

Diane notices that sudden stimulation causes her 2-month-old to arch his back,
throw his head back, fling out his arms and legs, and then rapidly close them to
the center of his body. Diane's baby is exhibiting the reflex.
A)

rooting

B)

Babinski

C)

tonic neck
D)

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Moro

Arms are to _______ as fingers are to _______.

A)

arms; feet

B)

gross motor; fine motor

C)

fine motor; gross motor

D)

cephalocaudal; top-to-bottom

E)

b; LO: 3; Level: conceptual

Feedback: 8. According to the textbook, many left-handers tend to be

successful in sports because:

INCORREC
T

Compared with right-handers, which of the following BEST describes left-handed

children?
A)They may have less spatial ability and less academic intelligence.
B)They may have better spatial ability but less academic intelligence.
C)They may have less spatial ability but more academic intelligence.
D They may have better spatial ability, and they do as well
) academically.

INCORREC
T

What is the BEST explanation for handedness?

A)

genetics and nutrition

B) positive reinforcement and punishment

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0

INCORREC
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C)

modeling and conditioning

D)

environment and genetics

Pediatricians recommend that parents:

A) slowly ease their babies into structured exercise regimes.

B) enroll their babies in exercise classes.

C) use exercise sessions as a way to bond with their babies.

D) avoid structured exercise classes for babies.

1
1

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Romero is a normal 3-year-old. We would expect that he would be able to:

A)

scramble over a jungle gym.

B)

run back and forth.

C)

climb on the kitchen counter.

D)

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2

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Hallie is active. She loves to tumble and show off. She is not afraid of doing what
her parents consider to be hair-raising stunts. She also loves to run and believes
she is faster than her parents. This type of activity level and confidence is MOST
characteristic of the:
A)

2-year-old.

B)

3-year-old.

C)

4-year-old.

D)

1
3

INCORREC
T

skip rope.

5-year-old.

Current patterns of relative physical inactivity will lead to less development in

which of the following?

A)
B)
C)

tool-use skills
fine motor skills
neural myelination

D)

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4

INCORREC
T

gross motor skills

Peak physical performance is typically reached:

A)

in early adolescence.

B)

in late adolescence.

C)

in early adulthood.

D) at different times, depending on the activity.

1
5

INCORREC
T

Which of the following statements BEST summarizes physical changes during the
thirties?

A Young adults have more diseases than children due to bad health
) habits.
B Young adults are less healthy than they will be during middle
) adulthood.
C Young adults are healthy and fit but are beginning to decline in some
) areas.
D Young adults show peak performances in most sports but show
) significant declines in sensory systems.

1
6

INCORREC
T

Which of the following is an example of a fine motor skill?

A)
B)
C)

walking
raising a hand

buttoning a shirt

D)

1
7

1
8

INCORREC
T

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kicking a ball

During middle and later childhood, girls usually excel at _______ skills, whereas
boys are better at _______ skills.

A)

physical/mental

B)

mental/physical

C)

gross motor/fine motor

D)

fine motor/gross motor

The main difference between sensation and perception is that:

A) sensation involves memory for stimuli, perception does not.

B)sensation involves attaching meaning to stimuli, perception does not.
C)perception involves attaching meaning to stimuli, sensation does not.
D perception involves initial encounters with stimuli, sensation does
) not.

1
9

INCORREC
T

Opportunities for interactions offered by objects that are necessary to perform

functional activities are called:

A)

perceptual processes.

B)

ecological functions.
C)

D)

affordances.
sensory function.

2
0

INCORREC
T

_______ give people such information as when to duck, when to turn their body
through a narrow passageway, and when to put their hand up to catch
something.
A)

Sensations

B)

Perceptions

C)

Affordances

D)

2
1

Proprioceptions

Based on infant visual perception research, which of the following is true?

CORRECT

A) Infants probably have innate perception of patterns.

B) Infants do not perceive facial features until after 6 months.
C) Infants have normal 20/20 vision within 1 month after birth.
D Infants do not perceive depth until after they have experience with
) crawling.

2
2

INCORREC
T

What is the main difference between an adult's ability to hear and an infant's
ability to hear?

A)

Infants have superior hearing.

B) Infants have higher thresholds for sound.

C)
D)

Infants cannot distinguish pitch.

Infants cannot hear at birth.

2
3

CORRECT

Was William James right when he proclaimed that newborns experience a

"blooming, buzzing" world of confusion?

A) No, because infants display visual preferences.

B) Yes, because infants' visual acuity is less than that of adults.
C) Yes, because infants sense the world but do not perceive it.
D No, because infants' reflexes allow for organization into perceptual
) categories

2
4

INCORREC
T

The newborn's vision is estimated to be:

A)
B)

20/100.

C)

20/400.

D)

2
5

20/20.

20/600.

Which of the following is TRUE?

CORRECT

A) Newborns can differentiate between odors.

B) Newborns have difficulty hearing sounds.
C)

Newborns can distinguish all colors.

D) Newborns respond somewhat poorly to touch.

2
6

CORRECT

In Gibson and Walk's (1960) experiment, infants placed on one side of a visual
cliff refused to go to their mothers who coaxed them from the other side,
demonstrating:
A)
B)
C)

depth perception.
failure of visual acuity.

inability to hear at a distance.

D)

2
7

INCORREC
T

inability to crawl.

Rozee's eyes have cloudy, opaque areas in the lens that prevent light from
passing through, causing her to have blurred vision. The visual problem she has
is:
A)

macular degeneration.
B)

cataracts.

C)

glaucoma.

D)

2
8

INCORREC
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presbyopia.

Compared to younger adults, older adults are _____ sensitive to pain.

A)

more
B)

C)

less
equally

D) Sensitivity does not change over time.

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9

INCORREC
T

Robert Fantz (1963) found that infants as young as 2 days old:

A) were able to focus on their mothers' eyes.

B)

were able to distinguish contour.

C) showed a preference for patterned stimuli over plain stimuli.

D) began to perceive the oval shape of the head.

3
0

INCORREC
T

What evidence indicates that a fetus can hear?

A) A fetus moves when a loud noise occurs.

B) Newborns prefer their mother's voice to strangers' voices.
C Hearing is more sensitive and better developed among newborns who
) have been experimentally stimulated before birth.
D Newborns prefer to hear stories that were read to them in their
) mother's womb.

3
1

Research suggests that sensitivity to taste begins:

CORRECT

A)
B)

within the first week after birth.

C)

within the first month after birth.

D)

3
2

INCORREC
T

before birth.

increasingly over the first year of life.

Decline in taste with age often leads to:

A) compensation by eating healthier foods.

B) an increased preference for highly seasoned foods.

C) a decrease in appetite that may result in health problems.
D) a decrease in appetite that may result in a longer life.

3
3

INCORREC
T

When considering perceptual-motor capabilities, Esther Thelen believes that:

A) perceptual and motor development proceed in isolation.

B)perceptual and motor development do not exist in young infants.
C) perceptual and motor development are coupled.
D) parents teach their children perceptual and motor skills.

3
4

INCORREC
T

Recognizing that decreasing volume in the sound of a car engine goes with the
sight of a car moving away rather than moving toward you is an example of:

A)

ecological perception.

B)
C)
D)

3
5

INCORREC
T

depth perception.
intermodal perception.
constructivist perception.

Jessica turned her head when she heard footsteps in the hall, then she smiled
when she saw her mother come into the room. This demonstrates _______
perception.
A)
B)

depth
intermodal

C)

auditory
D)

3
6

INCORREC
T

visual

Recent research (Thelen, 2000) on perceptual and motor development suggests

that:

A) there is a clear distinction between perceiving and doing.

B perceptual and motor development do not occur in isolation from one
) another.
C motor skills decline with age, but perception remains relatively
) constant.
D)

"perception educates action."

Cognitive Developmental Approaches