CRIMINOLOGY BOARD EXAM REVIEWER QUESTIONS

CRIMINOLOGY BOARD EXAM REVIEWER
Criminalistics Review Questions 1

1. There is freehand invitation and is considered as the most skilful
class of forgery
A. simulated or copied forgery
B. simple forgery
C. traced forgery
D. carbon tracing
2. Condensed and compact set of authentic specimen which is
adequate and proper, should contain a cross section
of the material from known sources.
A. disguised document
B. questioned document
C. standard document
D. requested document
3. Specimens of hand writing or of typescript which is of known
origin.
A. Letters
B. Samples
C. Exemplars
D. Documents
4. A document which is being questioned because of its origin, its
contents or the circumstances or the stories of its production.
A. disputed document
B. standard document
C. requested document
D. questioned document
5. The art of beautiful writing is known as
A. Drafting
B. Calligraphy
C. Art appreciation
D. Gothic
6. Any written instrument by which a right or obligation is
established.
A. Certificate
B. Subpoena
C. Warrant
D. Document
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7. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the slope or downward

flow of the innermost sufficient recurve is towards the
thumb of radius bone of the hand of origin.
A. ulnar loop
B. tented arch
C. accidental whorl
D. radial loop
8. The forking or dividing of one line to two or more branches.
A. Ridge
B. Island
C. Delta
D. Bifurcation
9. The point on a ridge at or in front of and nearest the center of
the divergence of the type lines.
A. Divergence
B. Island
C. Delta
D. Bifurcation
10.The following are considerations used for the identification
of a loop except one:
A. Delta
B. Core
C. a sufficient recurve
D. a ridge count across a looping bridge
11.The process of recording fingerprint through the use of
fingerprint ink.
A. Pathology
B. Fingerprinting
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Printing press
12.The fingerprint method of identification.
A. Pathology
B. Fingerprinting
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Printing press
13.Two lines that run parallel or nearly parallel, diverge and
surround the pattern area.
A. Ridges
B. Delta
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C. Type line
D. Bifurcation
14.A part of the whorl or loop in which appear the cores, deltas
and ridges.
A. type line
B. bifurcation
C. pattern area
D. furrow
15.Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime scene which are
not clearly visible.
A. plane impressions
B. visible fingerprints
C. rolled impressions
D. latent fingerprints
16.The impressions left by the patterns of ridges and depressions on
various surfaces.
A. kiss marks
B. finger rolls
C. thumb marks
D. fingerprints
17.Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint
A. Arch
B. Accidental
C. Loop
D. Whorl
18.The minimum identical characteristics to justify the identity
between two points.
A. Eighteen
B. Fifteen
C. Twelve
D. Nine
19.A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of
spirals around core axes.
A. whorl
B. double loop
C. central pocket loop
D. accidental
20.A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side
of the impression by a recurve, and terminate on the same side
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pattern?
where the ridge has entered.

A. Loop
B. radial loop
C. ulnar loop
D. tented arch
21.A person allowed who gives his/her opinion or conclusion on a
given scientific evidence is considered
A. interrogator
B. expert witness
C. prosecutor
D. judge
22.The application of scientific knowledge and techniques in the
detection of crime and apprehension of criminals.
A. Law Enforcement Administration
B. Forensic Administration
C. Criminal Psychology
D. Criminalistics
23.Lens that is characterized by a thicker center and thinner sides.
A. concave lens
B. convex lens
C. negative lens
D. positive lens
24.The normal developing time of a paper or film.
A. 30-60 minutes
B. 20-30 minutes
C. 5-10 minutes
D. 1- 2 minutes
25.This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter the lens for
a predetermined time interval.
A. holder of sensitized material
B. view finder
C. shutter
D. view finder
26.A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative
material.
A. telephoto lens
B. long lens
C. normal lens
D. wide angle lens
27.Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.

A. Potassium Bromide
B. Sodium Carbonate
C. Sodium Sulfite
D. Hydroquinone
28.A part of a camera used in focusing the light from the subject
A. view finder
B. lens
C. shutter
D. light tight box
29.A component of the polygraph instrument which records the
breathing of the subject.
A. Cardiosphygmograph
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
30.A component of the polygraph instrument which records the
blood pressure and the pulse rate of the subject.
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
31.A component of the polygraph instrument which is a motor that
drives or pulls the chart paper under the recording pen
simultaneously at the rate of 6 or 12 inches per minute.
B. Pneumograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
32.The following are specific rules to be followed in the formulation of
the questions in a polygraph test except one.
A. Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the
subject can easily understand.
B. Questions must be answerable by yes or no.
C. Questions must be as short as possible.
D. Questions must all be in the form of accusations
33. In polygraph examination, the term examination means a
detection of
A. Forgery
B. Emotion
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C. the mind
D. deception
34. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which
appears to go beyond a persons defensive power.
A. Fear
B. Stimuli
C. Response
D. Reaction
35. The primary purpose of pre-test interview.
A. Prepare subject for polygraph test
B. Obtain confession
C. Make the subject calm
D. Explain the polygraph test procedures
36. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant
question.
A. positive response
B. specific response
C. normal response
D. reaction
37. The study of the effect of the impact of a projectile on the
target.
A. Terminal Ballistics
B. Internal Ballistics
C. External Ballistics
D. Forensic Ballistics
38. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet is called
A. Trajectory
B. Yaw
C. Velocity
D. Gyroscopic action
39. The part of the mechanism of a firearm that withdraws the shell
or cartridge from the chamber.
A. Extractor
B. Ejector
C. Striker
D. Trigger
40. The pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.
A. Yaw
B. Range
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C. Velocity
D. Trajectory
41. This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path
after striking a resistant surface.
A. Misfire
B. Mushroom
C. Ricochet
D. Key hole shot
42. A type of primer with two vents or flash holes.
A. Bordan primer
B. Berdan Primer
C. Baterry Primer
D. Boxer Primer
43. This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of
the bore.
A. swaging
B. ogive
C. rifling
D. breaching
44. It refers to the unstable rotating motion of the bullet.
A. Trajectory
B. Yaw
C. Velocity
D. Gyproscopic action
45. It is the measurement of the bore diameter from land to land.
A. Calibre
B. Mean diameter
C. Gauge
D. Rifling
46. He is known as the Father of Ballistics.
A. Hans Gross
B. Charles Waite
C. Albert Osborne
D. Calvin Goddard
47. A document in which some issues have been raised or is under
scrutiny.
A. Void Document
B. Illegal Document
C. Forged Document
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D.
Questioned Document
48. The following are characteristics of forgery except one:

A. Presence of Natural Variation
B. Multiple Pen Lifts
C. Show bad quality of ink lines
D. Patchwork Appearance
49. Standards which are prepared upon the request of the
investigator and for the purpose of comparison with the
questioned document.
A. relative standards
B. collected standards
C. extended standards
D. requested standards
50. Any stroke which goes back over another writing stroke.
A. natural variation
B. rhythm
C. retracing
A. shading
51. The name of a person written by him/her in a document as a sign
of acknowledgement.
A. Opinion
B. Document
C. Signature
D. Handwriting
52. A kind of document which is executed by a private person
without the intervention of a notary public, or of
competent public official, by which some disposition of
agreement is proved.
A. commercial document
B. official document
C. public document
D. private document
53. An instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a
questioned document, its origin is known and can be proven.
A. simulated document
B. forged document
C. standard document
D. compared document
54. The process of making out what is illegible or what has been
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effaced.
A. Comparison
B. Collation
C. Obliteration
D. Decipherment
55. A document which contains some changes either as an
addition or deletion.
A. inserted document
B. altered document
C. disputed document
D. obliterated document
56. A kind of erasure by using a rubber eraser, sharp knife, razor
blade or picking instrument.
A. mechanical erasure
B. electronic erasure
C. magnetic erasure
D. chemical erasure
57. It is the periodic increase in pressure, characterized by
widening of the ink stroke.
A. Shading
B. pen lift
C. pen emphasis
D. pen pressure
58. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by
private parties but notarized by competent officials.
A. private document
B. commercial document
C. public document
D. official document
59. The detection and identification of poisons.
A. Bacteriology
B. Posology
C. Toxicology
D. Chemistry
60. The specimen that is preferably used in the determination of
abused drugs in the body.
A. blood
B. saliva
C. body fluid
D. urine
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61. A forensic chemist is tasked to examine the chemical nature

and composition of the following except one:
A. Fingerprint
B. Explosives
C. Blood
D. Body fluids
Answer: A
62. Who qualifies a forensic chemist as expert?
A. defense lawyer
B. judge
C. prosecutor
D. the chemist himself/herself
Answer: B
63. Methamphetamine hydrochloride is commonly known as
A. Coke
B. LSD
C. Heroin
D. shabu
Answer: D
64. An area surrounding the place where the crime occurred.
A. crime scene
B. police line
C. area of operation
D. area of responsibility
Answer: A
65. The body of the crime.
A. Evidence
B. body of the victim
C. criminology
D. corpus delicti
Answer: D
66. One of the following is a derivative of the opium poppy.

A. Demerol
B. Caffeine
C. Morphine
D. nicotine
Answer: C
67. Number restoration is necessary in determining whether there is
tampering of serial number in
A. Typewriter
B. Firearm
C. Prisoners
D. Bank notes
Answer: B
68. In forensic examination, a tip of the hair is examined to
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determine if it was
A. Bend
B. Folded
C. Stretched
D. Cut
Answer: D
69. All of the following are accurate tests for the presence of alcohol
in the human body except one:
A. Saliva test
B. Harger Breath Test
C. Fecal test
D. Blood test
Answer: C
70. The application of chemical principles and processes in the
examination of evidence.
A. Forensic Medicine
B. Forensic Evidence
C. Criminalistics
D. Forensic Chemistry
Answer: D
71. Volatile poisons may be isolated by means of this process.
A. Dialysis
B. Dilution
C. Distillation
D. Extraction
Answer: C
72. The process in reproducing physical evidence by plaster moulds.
A. Casting
B. Cementing
C. Moulage
D. Sticking
Answer: C
73. The test used to determine the presence of semen particularly
in stained clothing.
A. Florence Test
B. Barberios Test
C. Microscopic Test
D. Ultra-Violet Test
Answer: A
74. The test used to determine the presence of blood in stained
material.
A. Florence Test
B. Barberios Test
C. Takayama Test
D. Phenolphtalein Test
Answer: C
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75. It is the major component of a glass.

A. Lime
B. Soda
C. Silica
D. Gel
Answer: C
76. Poisons which produce stupor and less feeling.

A. Narcotics
B. Irritants
C. Depressants
D. Stimulants
Answer: A
77. A supercooled liquid which possess high viscosity and rigidity.
A. dry ice
B. cartridge case
C. gel
D. glass
Answer: D
78. The study and identification of body fluids.
A. Pharmacology
B. Serology
C. Posology
D. Immunology
Answer: B
79. The test to determine whether blood is of human origin or not.
A. Blood typing
B. Precipitin Test
C. Confirmatory Test
D. Preliminary Test
Answer: B
80. The circulating tissue of the body.
A. Blood
B. Cells
C. Muscles
D. Liver
Answer: A
81. The complete, continuous, persistent cessation of respiration,

circulation and almost all brain function of an organism.
A. Apparent death
B. Molecular death
C. Cellular Death
D. Somatic death
Answer: D
82. The approximate time for the completion of one case for DNA
Testing.
A. minimum of eight weeks
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B. minimum of six weeks

C. minimum of four weeks
D. minimum of two weeks
Answer: C
83. DNA stands for

A. Deonatural Acid
B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
C. Denaturalized Acid
D. Deoxy Nucleic Acid
Answer: B
84. The Geneticist from Great Britain who pioneered DNA testing and
fingerprinting.
A. Alec Jeffries
B. Lowell C. Van Berkom
C. William Reynolds
D. Henry Van Dyke
Answer: A
85. The cause of death of a person who immediately died because of

lack of oxygen for around 3 to five minutes.
A. Stroke
B. Asphyxia
C. Stupor
D. Exhaustion
Answer: B
86. The most serious burn involving skin, nerves, muscles and bones,
causing death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in
the body and massive infection.
A. First Degree Burn
B. Second Degree Burn
C. Third Degree Burn
D. Sunburn
Answer: C
87. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends
to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependent portions
of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after death and is
completed by 12 hours.
A. livor mortis
B. primary flaccidity
C. maceration
D. rigor mortis
Answer: A
88. A wound which if inflicted in the body so serious that it will
endanger ones life.
A. mortal wound
B. trauma
C. coup injury
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D.
superficial wound
Answer: A
89. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as club and stone.

A. incised wound
B. hack wound
C. lacerated wound
D. punctured wound
Answer: C
90. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without
external wounds.
A. Hematoma
B. Fracture
C. Sprain
D. Dislocation
Answer: D
91. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of
the body which produces mechanical disruption of cell structure
characterized by cold stiffening and diminished body.
A. immersion foot
B. trench foot
C. frostbite
D. gangrene
Answer: C
92. A condition of women who have had one or more sexual
experience but not had conceived a child.
A. virgo-intacts
B. demi-virginity
C. moral virginity
D. physical virginity
Answer: A
93. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood vessels
or has diffused to different parts of the body.
A. hypostatic lividity
B. diffusion lividity
C. hyper lividity
D. rigor mortis
Answer: B
94. Things used by a person in the commission of a crime, or objects
left in a crime scene which are the subjects of criminalistics.
A. testimonial evidence
B. hearsay evidence
C. circumstantial evidence
D. physical evidence
Answer: D
95. The science dealing with the motion of a projectile and the
conditions governing that motion.
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A. Ballistics
B. Forensic Ballistics
C. Terminal Ballistics
D. External Ballistics
Answer: A
96. The application of medical knowledge in the solution of crimes.

A. Forensic Science
B. Forensic Chemistry
C. Forensic Ballistics
D. Forensic Medicine
Answer: D
97. The science or art of obtaining images in scientific materials by
the action of electro magnetic radiation rays.
A. Polygraphy
B. Dactyloscopy
C. Photography
D. Chemistry
Answer: C
98. Instrument used in the measurement of temperature.
A. Endometer
B. Barometer
C. Thermometer
D. ananometer
Answer: C
99. The scientific detection of deception.
A. Polygraphy
B. Dactyloscopy
C. Toxicology
D. Chemistry
Answer: A
100. The test conducted to determine the presence of gunpowder

residue in the hands of a suspect.
A. diphenylamine test
B. ultra violet test
C. paraffin test
D. Simons Test
Answer: C
Answers: Criminalistics Review Questions
1. A
2. C
3. C
4. D
5. B
6. D
7. D
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8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
52.
53.
54.
55.
D
C
B
B
C
C
C
D
D
B
D
A
C
B
D
A
C
C
B
B
B
A
D
D
D
A
A
A
A
B
B
D
C
D
D
B
A
D
D
A
D
C
D
C
D
B
26. A
51. C
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56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
A
D
C
C
D
Criminalistics Review Questions 2

1. The following are types of medical evidence, except:
A. Photographic evidence
B. Experimental evidence
C. Testimonial evidence
D. Autoptic evidence
2. The art of identification by comparison of fingerprint is called:
A. Dactylography
B. All of the these
C. Dactyloscopy
D. Palmistry
3. Some scientific methods of identification are the following, except:
A. Fingerprinting
B. Handwriting
C. Dental identification
D. Identification by close friends and relatives
4. The greater the number of points of similarities and dissimilarities of
two persons compared, the greater the probability for the
conclusion to be correct is found in the
A. Law of Municipality of Evidence in Identification
B. All of the these
C. Identification by Comparison and Exclusion
D. Law of Super Imposition
5. In the strict sense of the word, Forensic Medicine means
A. application of medicine to legal cases
B. application of medical science to elucidate legal problems
C. knowledge of law in relation to practice of medicine
D. none of the above
E. all of the above
6. The different test to determine peripheral circulation are the
following, except
A. Magnus test
B. Diaphanous test
C. I cards test
D. Winslows test
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7. The following officials of the Philippine Government are authorized to

conduct death investigation, except A. Public Prosecutor
B. Judges of the regional trial court
C. Director PNP
D. SOCO team
8. The following statements are important in death determination.
Which is not valid?.
A. Civil personality of a natural person is extinguished by
death
B. Civil property of a person is transmitted to the heirs, if
not, to the government
C. The death of the partner is one of the causes of
dissolution of partnership agreement
D. The criminal liability of a person is extinguished by death
9. The following are kinds of death, which one is not?
A. Somatic or Clinical Death
B. State of Suspended Animation
C. Cellular or Molecular Death
D. Regulated Death
10. Of the following kinds of death, which one is relevant to Organ
Transportation?
A. Somatic or clinical Death
B. State of Suspended Animation
C. Molecular Death
D. Cellular Death
11. To find out the truth is an essential requirement for the
administration of Justice. Which of the following is the commonly
used method of deception detection?
A. Lie detection method
B. Hypnotism
C. Use of drugs
D. Confession
12. In molecular or cellular death, death of individual cells is with in
A. 3-6 minutes
B. 3-6 hours
C. 20-30 minutes
D. 20-30 hours
13. Post-mortem lividity has the following mechanisms:
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A.
B.
C.
D.
Hypostatic pressure
Diffusion
Gravitational pressure
All of the above
14. Hanging is asphyxia due to the constriction of the neck as a result

of suspension in which the weight of the body pulls upon the
ligature.What differentiates it from strangulation by a ligature
therefore is:
A. The factor of suspension
B. Hanging raises a presumption of suicide
C. Strangulation is usually homicidal
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
15. Distinctions between ante-mortem from post-mortem clot are the
following. Which one is not valid?
A. Ante-mortem clot is firm in consistency
B. Clot is homogenous in construction so it cannot be
stripped into layers
C. Clot with varied colors
D. Surface of the blood vessels are raw after the clots are
removed
16. Post-mortem lividity maybe due to any of the following, except:
A. Hypostasis
B. Autolysis
C. Diffusion
D. Suggillation
17. Comprehensive study of dead body, performed by a trained
Physician, to determine the cause of death:
A. Autopsy
B. Biophsis
C. Dissection
D. Physicians
18. Articles and materials found in the crime scene:
A. Physical evidence
B. Associative evidence
C. Evidence
D. Tracing evidence
19. Circumscribed extravation of blood or subcutaneous tissue or
underneath the mucous membrane.
A. Contusion
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B. Petechia
C. Abrasion
D. All of them
20. Among the following, which has the greatest value in scientific
examination/identification?
A. Dental examination
B. Fingerprinting
C. Photography
D. Pictures Parle
21. One is a condition that can approximate the time of death.
A. Cadaver
B. Magnus test
C. Rigor mortis
D. None of these
22. The means sanctioned by the law, of ascertaining the judicial
power/proceeding, the truth respecting the matter of fact.
A. Polygraph
B. Evidence
C. Lie detector
D. All of these
23. Determination of individuality of a person or thing:
A. Description
B. Perception
C. Identification
D. All of these
24. Types of fingerprint patters, except:
A. Arches
B. Ordinary
C. Loop
D. Whorl
25. It is any unusual pattern of sexual behavior including habitual,
preference and completing need for sexual gratification by any
means except sexual intercourse which results to bodily
excitement
A. Virginity
B. Sexual intercourse
C. Prostitution
D. Sexual deviation
26. An open wound produced by a sharp-pointed instrument and is
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characterized by a small opening of the wound.

A. Gunshot wound
B. Stab wound
C. Shrapnel wound
D. Punctured wound
Answer: D
27. A physical injury wherein the offended victim is incapacitated for
work or requires medical assistance for 10 days or more but not
A. Slight physical injury
B. Mutilation
C. Serious physical injury
D. less serious physical injury
Answer: D
28. It is the type of burn due to gamma rays and which is difficult to
remedy:
A. Thermal burn
B. Electric burn
C. Chemical burn
D. Radiation burn
Answer: D
29. The metal tube through which the bullet is fired is called
A. Bore
B. Barrel
C. Baretta
D. Bromet
Answer: B
30. The old form of gunpowder invented over a thousand years ago
and consisting of nitrate, charcoal, and sulfur.
A. Chinese Powder
B. Black Powder
C. Gray Powder
D. All of these
Answer: B
31. The inside of the barrel is generally termed as
A. Bore
B. Barrel
C. Rifling
D. Primer
Answer: A
32. The portion of the gun which is held or shouldered is called
A. Buckle
B. Buttstock
C. Handle
D. End joint
Answer: B
33. In a gun, the portion of the "action" that holds the cartridge ready
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for firing is called

A. Gas tube
B. Chamber
C. Double-action
D. Trigger
Answer: B
34. A metal rod or plate that strikes the cartridge primer to detonate
the powder.
A. Spring
B. Trigger guard
C. Hammer
D. Revolver
Answer: C
35. This is a device for storing cartridges in a repeating firearm for
loading into the chamber. Also referred to as a "clip".
A. Clipper
B. Holder
C. Pin or pinhead
D. None of these
Answer: D
36. A device that fits over the muzzle of the barrel to muffle the
sound of a gunshot. Most work by baffling the escape of gases.
A. Buffer
B. Silencer
C. Magazine
D. Hanger
Answer: B
37. Under the management of Lt. Darby during the American
occupation in the Philippines, a modern and complete fingerprint
file has been established for the Philippine commonwealth. In 1937,
the first Filipino fingerprint technician employed by the Phil.
Constabulary was
A. Mr. Generoso Reyes
B. Mr. Amado Delos Santos
C. Mr. Calixto Solis
D. None of these
Answer: A
38. The first leading judicial decision in the Philippine jurisprudence on
the science of fingerprinting was the case of
A. People vs Medina
B. People vs Pineda
C. People vs Amador
D. People vs. Rosas
Answer: A
39. What is the intermediate and the thickest layer of the hair and is
composed of elongated, spindle-shaped fibrils which cohere? They
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contain pigment granules in varying proportion depending on the

type of hair.
A. Medulla
B. Cortex
C. Core
D. Cuticle
Answer: B
40. Who was the noted British Examiner of questioned documents said
that an intelligent police investigator can detect almost 75% of all
forgeries by careful inspection of a document with simple
magnifiers and measuring tools?
A. Dr. Arthur Stoll
B. Dr. Aristotle Curt
C. Dr. William Harrison
D. Dr. Benjamin Jones
Answer: C
41. In police photography studies, what are called the thin, gelatinous,
light-sensitive coatings on film that react chemically to capture
the color and shadings of a scene?
A. Films
B. Emulsions
C. Chemical Coatings
D. None of these
Answer: B
42. A medium that divert or absorb light, but does not allow lights to
pass though, they absorb most of the light while reflecting some of
it is called
A. Opaque object
B. Convection
C. Visible light
D. Prisms
Answer: A
43. In the practice of polygraphy, what do you call questions
unrelated to the matter under investigation but are of similar
nature although less serious as compared to those relevant
questions under investigation?
A. Irrelevant questions
B. Relevant questions
C. Control questions
D. Interrogative questions
Answer: C
44. What test is given if a subject of interrogation is not yet informed
of the details of the offense for which he is being interrogated by
the investigation, or by other persons or from other sources like
the print media?
A. Peak of Tension test
23
B. Control test
C. IQ Test
D. Guilt Complex Test
Answer: A
45. In fingerprinting, the space between shoulders of a loop, free of

any appendage, and a butting at right angle.
A. Complete curve
B. Sufficient Recurve
C. Straight arrow
D. Core
Answer: B
46. The term use to refer to a single recurving ridge enclosing one or
more rods or bars of a fingerprint.
A. None of these
B. Envelope
C. Furrows
D. Bifurcation
Answer: B
47. These are depressions or canals between the ridges of a
fingerprint which maybe compared with the low area in a tire
tread.
A. None of these
B. Envelope
C. Furrows
D. Bifurcation
Answer: C
48. In the study of questioned documents, what do you call the
quality of paper that does not allow light to pass through or which
prevents dark objects from being seen through the paper?
A. Opacity
B. Watermarks
C. Skid marks
D. Invisibility
Answer: A
49. What is the oldest ink material known?
A. Ball point pen ink
B. Chinese Ink
C. Aniline Ink
D. White Ink
Answer: B
50. It is the art of extracting and working on metals by the application

of chemical and physical knowledge.
A. Cryptography
B. Metallurgy
C. Casting
D. Matalisky
Answer: B
24
51. The branch of geology that deals with the systematic

classification and identification of rocks, rock forming minerals and
soil.Also includes study of dust, dirt, safe insulation, ceramics and
other such materials, both natural and artificial.
A. Petrography
B. Serology
C. Anthropology
D. Ecology
Answer: A
52. In a fire, the presence of reddish brown smoke indicates
A. Nitrocellulose
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. All of these
Answer: D
53. The bending of light around an object gives rise to the
phenomenon called
A. attraction
B. diffraction
C. light curve
D. light fingerprint
Answer: B
54. Under the law of reflection, The angle of reflection depends upon
the angle of the light striking the material, which is referred to as
the
A. angle of incidence
B. angle of biometry
C. angle of light
D. none of these
Answer: A
55. In ballistics, what is the pressure generated within the chamber
erroneously called breeched pressure?
A. Chamber Pressure
B. Barrel Pressure
C. Gunpowder
D. None of these
Answer: A
56. The ratio of the weight of the powder charge to the weight of the
projectile is called
A. Power to speed ratio
B. Charge weight to bullet weight ratio
C. Firing pin stroke ratio
D. All of these
Answer: B
57. Chemical rearrangement of molecules into gas instead of solids to
25
cause the high explosives to exert full power of shock. The speed
varies in different explosive but in some it is as high as 7000 yards
in a second. This refers to
A. Energy
B. Gas
C. Detonation
D. Gun powder
Answer: C
58. What occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time or delayed
in firing?
A. Knocking Power
B. Hang fire
C. Recoil
D. None of these
Answer: B
59. In China, fingerprint is called ___. It was valued for purposes of
identification since time immemorial as found on a Chinese clay
seal made not later than the 3rd Century B.C.
A. Hua Chi
B. Mah Whang
C. Wong Cho
D. Tiang Hin
Answer: A
60. Who has given the fame title as Father of Dactyloscopy?
A. Johannes Purkinje
B. Leonard Keeler
C. Charles Darwin
D. Sir Francis Galton
Answer: A
61. In Hoogly, district of Bengal, India, he used fingerprints to prevent
fraudulent collection of army pay account and for identification of
other documents. He was known as the Father of Chiroscopy.
A. William Herschel
B. Francis Galton
C. Gilbert Thompson
D. Alphonse Bertillon
Answer: A
62. A noted British anthropologist who began observation which led to
the publication in 1882 of his book Fingerprints. That
established the individuality of classifying fingerprint patterns.
A. Francis Galton
B. Gilbert Thompson
C. Wayne Kate
D. Alphonse Bertillon
Answer: A
63. The notorious gangster and a police character, who attempted to
26
erase his fingerprints by burning them with acid but as time went
by the ridges were again restored to their natural feature.
A. John Fielding
B. Johanes Curie
C. John Dellinger
D. Billy the Kid
Answer: C
64. What is the science of palm print identification?
A. Chiroscopy
B. Poroscopy
C. Podoscopy
D. Astrology
Answer: B
65. A single ridge which splits into two ridges forming a Y shape
formation or structure is commonly known as
A. Diverging ridges
B. Bifurcating ridges
C. Loop
D. Delta
Answer: B
66. Symbolized by letter W in the fingerprint classification. It is a
fingerprint pattern which there are two deltas and in which at
least one ridge makes a turn through one complete circuit.
A. Plain whorl
B. Central pocket loop whorl
C. Accidental loop
D. Ulnar loop
Answer: A
67. Father of Criminalistics.
A. Dr. Hans Gross
B. Dr. Cesare Lombroso
C. Dr. John Reid
D. Dr. John Larson
Answer: A
68. Which evidence offers least resistance to decomposition?

A. Semen
B. Urine
C. Hair
D. Blood
Answer: C
69. One in which the facts appearing therein may not be true, and are
contested either in whole or part with respect to its authenticity,
identity, or origin.
A. Questioned document
B. Illegal document
C. Falsified document
27
D.
Disputed facts
Answer: A
70. Are condensed and compact set of authentic specimens which,

if adequate and proper, should contain a cross section of the
material from a known source for questioned document
examination.
A. Basis products
B. Standards
C. Handwriting
D. Signatures
Answer: B
71. A term used by some document examiners and attorneys to
characterize known material.
A. Basis
B. Exemplar
C. Xerox copies
D. Reproduced
Answer: B
72. When a document is issued and notarized by a notary public or
competent public official with solemnities required by law, it is
called
A. Official document
B. Public document
C. Commercial document
D. Private Document
Answer: B
73. What is known as the blotting out or shearing over the writing to
make the original invisible to as an addition?
A. Obliteration
B. Obscuration
C. Forged
D. None of these
Answer: A
74. In legal language, it refers to the document examiner's conclusion.
In Court, he may not only express it but demonstrates the
reasons for arriving at his conclusion.
A. Remarks
B. Testimony
C. Opinion
D. Reasoning
Answer: C
75. In this kind of document examination, the document is viewed with
the source of illumination behind it and the light passing through
the paper.Documents are subjected to this type of examination to
determine the presence of erasures, matching of serrations and
some other types of alterations.
28
A.
B.
C.
D.
Microscopic examination
Ultra violet examination
Photographic examination
Transmitted light examination
Answer: D
76. Ultraviolet radiation is invisible and occurs in the wave lengths just
below the visible blue-violet end of the spectrum (rainbow). These
visible rays react on some substances so that visible light is
reflected, a phenomenon known as
A. Prism
B. Fluorescence
C. Infrared
D. Radiation
Answer: B
77. It is the result of a very complicated series of facts, being used as
whole, combination of certain forms of visible mental and muscular
habits acquired by long, continued painstaking effort.Some
defined it as visible speech.
A. Typewriting
B. Money Bills
C. Handwriting
D. All of these
Answer: C
78. In document examination, what is the relation of parts of the
whole of writing or line of individual letters in words to the
baseline?
A. Proportion
B. Alignment
C. Lining
D. Letter forms
Answer: B
79. Any property or mark which distinguishes and in document
examination commonly called to as the identifying details si called
A. Standard
B. Characteristics
C. Attribute
D. Form
Answer: B
80. The act of setting two or more items side by side to weigh their
identifying qualities; it refers not only a visual but also the mental
act in which the element of one item are related to the
counterparts of the other.
A. Collation
B. Analysis
C. Comparison
D. Recording
Answer: C
29
81. In the study handwriting, the movement of the pen toward the
writer is called
A. Downstroke
B. Backstroke
C. Sidestroke
D. None of these
Answer: A
82. It is a signature, signed at a particular time and place, under
particular conditions, while the signer was at particular age, in a
particular physical and mental condition, using particular
implements, and with a particular reason and purpose for recording
his name.
A. Fraudulent Signature
B. Freehand forged signature
C. Guided Signature
D. Evidential Signature
Answer: D
83. It is the crime of making, circulating or uttering false coins and
banknotes. Literally, it means to make a copy of; or imitate; to
make a spurious semblance of, as money or stamps, with the
intent to deceive or defraud.
A. Counterfeiting
B. Falsification
C. Forgery
D. Fake money bills
Answer: A
84. A fluid or viscous marking material used for writing or printing.
A. Pen
B. Ink
C. Coal
D. Chalk
Answer: B
85. In 1884, who was this insurance agent in New York who patented
the first practical fountain pen containing its own ink reservoir
A. Lewis Waterman
B. John Loud
C. Peter Reynolds
D. Henry Ball
Answer: A
86. What do you calle the type of instrument used in measuring pitch
of rifling firearms
A. Pinometer
B. Helixometer
C. Thermometer
D. Caliper
Answer: B
30
87. This valuable instrument is specially designed to permit the

firearms examiner to determine the similarity and dissimilarity
between two fired bullets or two fired shells, by simultaneously
observing their magnified image in a single microscopic field.
A. Magnetic field device
B. Compound microscope
C. Bullet comparison microscope
D. Photographic microscope
Answer:C
88. Consist of a wooden box, 12 x12x 96, with a hinged to cover
and with one end open. This long box is filled with ordinary cotton
and separated into sections by cardboard petitions use in
ballistics.
A. Firing point box
B. Bullet recovery box
C. Slug collection box
D. All of these
Answer: B
89. Photographic films maybe classified according to their forms and
types. What are the films that are sensitive to radiation?
A. Chrome Films
B. X-Ray Films
C. B&W Films
D. Colored Films
Answer: B
90. Which film is suitable for general use in the preparation of black
and white photography because it produces the most natural
recording of colors?
A. Panchromatic film
B. Chrome Films
C. X-Ray Films
D. Color Films
Answer: A
91. One film maybe rated ISO 100, and another film ISO- 200. This
means that the 200 films are twice as fast (twice more sensitive
to light) than the ISO-100 film. This statement is
A. true
B. false
C. partly true
D. partly false
Answer: A
92. Among the following speed of film, which has the fastest speed?
A. ISO 25
B. ISO 100 to ISO 200
C. ISO 400
31
D.
ISO 1000 and up
Answer: D
93. Chromatic aberration is the failure of different colored light rays to

focus after passing through a lens, focusing of light of different
colors at different points resulting in a blurred image.
A. Astigmatism
B. Bended light
C. Chromatic aberration
D. Pragmatic rays
Answer: C
94. What is the defect in which the light coming from an off-axis
object point is spread along the direction of the optic axis? If the
object is a vertical line, the cross section of the refracted beam at
distances from the lens is an ellipse that
collapses first into a horizontal line, spreads out again, and later
becomes a vertical line.
A. Astigmatism
B. Bended light
C. Chromatic aberration
D. Pragmatic rays
Answer: A
95. Depth of field is the range in front of and behind a sharply focused
subject in which details also look sharp in the final photographic
image.
A. Focus
B. Depth of field
C. Camera trick
D. Aperture
Answer: B
96. In photography, what determines how effectively a moving object
can be stopped, that is, how sharply it can be reproduced without
blurring, or streaking in the final image?
A. Focus
B. Shutter speed
C. Aperture
D. Lens
Answer: B
97. What makes a bullet spin? Without spin, a bullet would not stay
pointed forward in flight, but would tumble over and over. The
spinning motion increases the accuracy of a bullet.
A. Bore
B. Gunpowder
C. Rifling
D. Shell
Answer: C
98. What component of the polygraph machine records the changes in
32
successively greater
the breathing of the subject?

A. Pneumograph
B. Cardiograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Kymograph
Answer: A
99. In fingerprinting, it refers to the process of counting the

intervening ridges that touch or cross an imaginary line drawn
between the core and the delta.
A. Ridge counting
B. Ridge tracing
C. Delta tracing
D. All of these
Answer: A
100.For many years the most commonly used preliminary test for blood
A. Plasma count
B. Serum test
C. Benzidine test
D. Barberios test
Answer: C
Answers:Criminalistics
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. B
8. B
9. D
10. A
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. E
15. C
16. B
17. A
18. A
19. A
20. B
21. C
22. B
23. C
24. B
25. D
26. D
33
27.
28.
29.
30.
B
D
B
B
Law Enforcement Administration

Law Enforcement Administration - the process involved in ensuring strict compliance,
proper obedience of laws and related statutes. Focuses on the policing process or how law
enforcement agencies are organized and manage in order to achieve the goals of law enforcement
most effectively, efficiently and productively.
Law - the system of rules that a particular country or community recognizes as regulating the
actions of its members and may enforce by the imposition of penalties.
Enforcement - means to compel obedience to a law, regulation or command.
Administration - an organizational process concerned with theimplementation of objectives and
plans and internal operating efficiency. Connotes bureaucratic structure and behavior, relative
routine decision-making and maintenance of the internal order.
Sir Robert Peel - considered a "father of law enforcement".
Sir Robert Peels Nine Principles of Policing
1. The basic mission for which the police exist is to prevent crime and
disorder.
2. The ability of the police to perform their duties is dependent upon
public approval of police actions.
3. Police must secure the willing cooperation of the public in voluntary
observance of the law to be able to secure and maintain the
respect of the public.
4. The degree of cooperation of the public that can be secured
diminishes proportionally to the necessity of the use
of force.
5. Police seek and preserve public favor not by catering to public
opinion but by constantly demonstrating absolute impartial
service to the law.
6. Police use physical force to the extent necessary to secure
observance of the law or to restore order only when
34
the expertise of persuasion, advice and warning is found to be

insufficient.
7. Police at all time should maintain a relationship with the public that
gives reality to the historic tradition; the police are the public and
the public are the police. The police being only full time individuals
charged with the duties that are incumbent on all of the citizens.
8. Police should always direct their actions strictly towards their
functions and never appear to usurp the powers of the judiciary.
9. The test of police efficiency is the absence of crime and disorder
not the visible evidence of police action in dealing with it.
Administration of Police Organization

Police - one of the pillars of the criminal justice system that has the specific responsibility of
maintaining law and order and combating crime within the society.
- comes from Latin "politia"-civil administration which itself derives from the ancient
Greek police "city"
Administration - an organizational process concerned with the implementation of objectives and
plans and internal operatingefficiency.
Organization - a group of persons working together for a common goal or objectives.
Police Organization - a group of trained personnel in the field of public safety administration
engaged in the achievement of goals and objectives that promotes the maintenance of peace and
order, protection of life and property, enforcement of the laws and the prevention of crimes.
Enforcement - means to compel obedience to a law, regulation or command.
Law Enforcement Agency - pertains to an organization responsible for enforcing the laws.
Objectives - refer to the purpose by which the organization was created. Refer to the goals of the
organization.
Supervision - means the act of watching over the work or tasks of the members of the
organization to ensure that desired results are achieved.
Management - the process of directing and facilitating the work of people organized in formal
groups in order to achieve objectives. Judicious or wise use of resources (manpower,
material,money,equipment,
supplies and time).
35
Hierarchy - represents the formal relationship among superiors and subordinates in any given
organization. Serves as the framework for the flow of authority downward and obedience
upward, through the department.
Authority - the right to command and control the behavior of employees in
lower positions within an organizational hierarchy. Must be viewed in terms of prescribed roles
rather than of individuals.
A particular position within the organization. Carries the same regardless of who occupies that
position.
Management/Administrative Functions
1. Planning
2. Organizing
3. Directing
4. Controlling
5. staffing
6. Reporting
7. Budgeting
Principles of efficient Management
* Division of work - work specialization can increase
efficiency with the same amount of effort.
* Authority and Responsibility- authority includes the
right to command and the power to require
obedience. One can not have authority without
responsibility.
* Discipline - necessary for an organization to function
effectively, however, the state of the disciplinary
process depends upon the quality of its leaders.
* Unity of Command - subordinate should receive
orders from one superior only.
* Scalar Chain - the hierarchy of authority is the order
of ranks from the highest to the lowest levels of the
organization. Shows the vertical hierarchy of the
organization which defines an unbroken chain of
units from top to bottom describing explicitly the
flow of authority.
Organizational Units in the Police Organization
1. Functional Units
36
Bureau - the largest organic functional unit within a

large department; comprised of several divisions.
Division - a primary subdivision of a bureau.
Section - functional unit within a division that is
necessary for specialization.
Unit - functional group within a section or the
smallest functional group within an organization.
2. Territorial Units
Post - a fixed point or location to which an officer is
assigned for duty.
Route - a length of streets designated for patrol
purpose, also called line beat.
Beat - an area designed for patrol purposes
whether foot or motorized.
Sector - an area containing two or more beat,
route or post.
District - a geographical subdivision of a city for
patrol purposes, usually with its own station.
Area - a section or territorial division of a large city
each comprised of designated districts.
EVOLUTION OF THE POLICING SYSTEM
ORIGIN OF THE WORD POLICE
POLITEIA Greek word which means government of the city
POLITIA Roman word which means condition of the state or government
POLICE French word which was later adopted by the English language
THEORIES OF POLICE SERVICE
1. HOME RULE THEORY
- policemen are regarded as servants of the community, who rely
for the efficiency of their functions upon the express needs of
37
the people.
- policemen are civil servants whose key duty is the
preservation of public peace and security.
2. CONTINENTAL THEORY
- policemen are regarded as state or servants of the
higher authorities
- the people have no share or have little participation
with the duties nor connection with the police
organization.
CONCEPTS OF POLICE SERVICE
1. OLD CONCEPT
- police service gives the impression of being merely a
suppressive machinery
- this philosophy advocates that the measurement of
police competence is the increasing number of arrests,
throwing offenders in detention facilities rather than
trying to prevent them from committing crimes
2. MODERN CONCEPT
- regards police as the first line of defense of the
criminal justice system, an organ of crime prevention
- police efficiency is measured by the decreasing number
of crimes
- broadens police activities to cater to social services
and has for its mission the welfare of the individual
as well as that of the community in general.
EARLY POLICING SYSTEM
1. KIN POLICING
- the family of the offended individual was expected to
assume responsibility for justice
- the family of the victim was allowed to exact
vengeance
2. EGYPT
- ancient rulers had elite unit to protect them
- created the MEDJAYS, a form of police force whose
duties include guarding of the tombs and apprehending
thieves
- introduced the use of dogs as guards and protectors.
3. ROME
- created the first organized police force called
VIGILES OF ROME, or VIGILES URBANI (watchmen of the
city), which had the primary task of firefighting and
38
policing
- the Vigiles acted as night watch, apprehendinng
thieves, keeping an eye out for burglars and hunting
down runaway slaves, and were on occasion used to
maintain order in the streets
- the Vigiles dealt primarily with petty crimes and
looked for disturbances of the peace while they
patrolled the streets
- created a special unit called PRAETORIAN GUARDS, a
special force of guards used by Roman Emperors as the
Emperors' personal guards
- as personal guards of the Emperor, their primary duty
was to protect the Emperor from assassination and
other forms of attack against the Emperor.
4. ENGLAND
a) FRANKPLEDGE SYSTEM/MUTUAL PLEDGE SYSTEM
- required all males aged 12 and above to join a group
of nine to form a TYTHING
- members of the tything are called a TYTHINGMEN
- a CONSTABLE served as a leader of ten tythings
- the primary task of the things was to protect their
village from thieves and animals
- tythings were later organized into SHIRES
- a shire was headed by a leader called SHIRE REEVE,
which is the origin of the word sheriff
- their duty was to apprehend offenders
b) PARISH CONSTABLES
- a parish official charged with controlling crimes
- appointed to serve for one year
- duties included organizing watchmen to guard the
gates
- during trouble, the watchman would raise a HUE AND
CRY, a call to arms where the rest of the parish
would stop what they were doing and come to the aid
of the constable.
MODERN POLICING SYSTEM
1) ENGLAND
a. BOWSTREET RUNNERS - a group of men
organized to arrest offenders.
- organized by Henry Fielding, a magistrate in
London,in 1749 in London, England.
- the name was adopted from the name of the street
where the office of Henry Fielding was located.
- when Henry Fielding retired as magistrate, he was
39
replaced by his blind brother, John Fielding

b. METROPOLITAN POLICE OF ACT 1829
- the law that created the first modern police force in
London England, called the Metropolitan Police
Service.
- this law was passed through the initiative of Sir
Robert Peel, a member of the Parliament
- the headquarters of the Metropolitan Police Service
is the Scotland Yard, now known as the New
Scotland Yard
SIR ROBERT PEEL - recognized as the father of modern policing system.
2. UNITED STATES OF AMERICA
a. NEW YORK POLICE DEPARTMENT
- created in 1845 in New York, USA
- recognized as the first modern style police
department in the US.
- the largest police force in the world
- modeled after the Metropolitan Police Service of
London
b. BOSTON POLICE DEPARTMENT
- the oldest police department in the US
- the first night watch was established in Boston in
1631.
- formally founded in May, 1854.
AUGUST VOLLMER - recognized as the Father of Modern Law Enforcement for his
contributions in the development of the field of criminal justice in the US
- author of the book, Police Administration, which
served as the basic guide in the administration of the
police organization in the US
- was the first police chief of Berkeley, California.
Important Personalities in the Evolution of Philippine Policing
Brig.Gen. Rafael Crame - the first Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary in 1917.
Col. Antonio Torres - the first Filipino Chief of Police of the Manila Police Department in 1935.
Col. Lambert Javalera - the first chief of police of the Manila Police Department after the
Philippine Independence from the United States of America in 1946
Dir.Gen. Cesar Nazareno - the first chief of the Philippine National Police.
HIGHLIGHTS OF RA 6975 THE DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR AND LOCAL
40
GOVERNMENT ACT OF
1990, RA 8551 THE PHILIPPINE NATIONAL POLICE REFORM AND
REORGANIZATION ACT OF
1998 and RA 9708
A. THE DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR AND LOCAL
GOVERNMENT (DILG)
- formerly Department of Local Government (DLG)
- reorganized under RA 6975
ORGANIZATION: - consist of:
a) the Department proper
b) existing bureaus and offices of the DLG
c) local government units (LGU)
1) provincial governors
2) city and municipal mayors
d) the National Police Commission
e) the Philippine Public Safety College
f) Philippine National Police
g) Bureau of Fire Protection
h) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
- the PPSC, PNP, BFP and BJMP were created under RA
6975
- headed by the Secretary to be appointed by the
President and who shall serve at the pleasure of the
President
- the Secretary shall be assisted by two (2)
Undersecretaries and three (3) Assistant Secretaries
a) Undersecretary for Local Government
b) Undersecretary for Peace and Order
- No retired or resigned military officer or police
official may be appointed as Secretary within one
(1) year from date of retirement or resignation
- the Secretary is also the ex officio chairman of the
National Police Commission
POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE DILG
1. Assist the President in the exercise of general
supervision over local governments;
2. Advise the President in the promulgation of policies,
rules, regulations and other issuances on the general
supervision over local governments and on public
order and safety;
3. Establish and prescribe rules, regulations and other
issuance's implementing laws on public order and
41
safety, the general supervision over local

governments and the promotion of local autonomy
and community empowerment and monitor compliance
thereof;
4. Provide assistance towards legislation regarding local
governments, law enforcement and public safety;
Establish and prescribe plans, policies, programs and
projects to promote peace and order, ensure public
safety and further strengthen the administrative,
technical and fiscal capabilities of local government
offices and personnel;
5. Formulate plans, policies and programs which will meet
local emergencies arising from natural and man-made
disasters; Establish a system of coordination and
cooperation among the citizenry, local executives and
the Department, to ensure effective and efficient
delivery of basic services to the public;
6. Organize, train and equip primarily for the
performance of police functions, a police force that
is national in scope and civilian in character.
RELATIONSHIP OF THE DILG WITH THE DEPARTMENT OF NATIONAL DEFENSE
(DND)
- under RA 6975, the Armed Forces of the Philippines
(AFP) was in charge with external security while the
DILG was in charge with internal security
- under RA 8551, the Armed Forces of the Philippines
is now in charge with both internal and external
security with the PNP as support through information
gathering and performance of ordinary police
functions.
NATIONAL POLICE COMMISSION
- an agency attached to the DILG for policy
coordination
- shall exercise administrative control and
operational supervision over the PNP.
VISION OF THE NAPOLCOM
"We envision the National Police Commission as a
highly dynamic, committed and responsive administering and
controlling body, actively and effectively facilitating the
evolvement of a highly professional, competent,
disciplined, credible and trustworthy PNP"
MISSION OF THE NAPOLCOM
42
"To administer and control the Philippine National

Police with the end in view of maintaining a highly
professional, competent, disciplined, credible and
trustworthy PNP
POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE NAPOLCOM
A. Exercise administrative control and operational
supervision over the Philippine National Police (PNP)
which shall mean the power to:
1. Develop policies and promulgate a police manual
prescribing rules and regulations for efficient
organization, administration, and operation, including
criteria for manpower allocation distribution and
deployment, recruitment, selection, promotion, and
retirement of personnel and the conduct of qualifying
entrance and promotional examinations for
uniformed members;
2. Examine and audit, and thereafter establish
standards for such purposes on a continuing basis,
the performance,activities, and facilities of all police
agencies throughout the country;
3. Establish a system of uniform crime reporting;
4. Conduct annual self-report surveys and compile
statistical data for accurate assessment of the crime
situation and the proper evaluation of the efficiency
and effectiveness of all police units in the country;
5. Approve or modify plans and programs on education
and training, logistical requirements, communications,
records,information systems, crime laboratory, crime
prevention and crime reporting;
6. Affirm, reverse or modify, through the National
Appellate Board, personnel administrative actions
involving the demotion or dismissal from the service
imposed upon members of the Philippine National
Police by the Chief of the Philippine National Police;
7. Exercise appellate jurisdiction through the Regional
Appellate Boards, over administrative cases against
policemen and over decisions on claims for police
benefits;
8. Prescribe minimum standards for arms, equipment,
and uniforms and, after consultation with the
Philippine Heraldry Commission, for insignia of ranks,
awards, medals of honor;
9. Issue subpoena and subpoena duces tecum in
matters pertaining to the discharge of its own
powers and duties,and designate who among its
43
personnel can issue processes and administer oaths

in connection therewith;
10. Inspect and assess the compliance of the PNP on
the established criteria for manpower allocation,
distribution and deployment and their impact on the
community and the crime situation, and thereafter
formulate appropriate guidelines for maximization of
resources and effective utilization of the PNP
personnel;
11. Monitor the performance of the local chief
executives as deputies of the Commission; and
12. Monitor and investigate police anomalies and
irregularities.
B. Advise the President on all matters involving police
functions and administration;
C. Render to the President and to Congress an annual
report of its activities and accomplishments during the
thirty (30)days after the end of the calendar year,
which shall include an appraisal of the conditions
obtaining in the organization and administration of
police agencies in the municipalities, cities and
provinces throughout the country, and
recommendations for appropriate remedial
legislations;
D. Recommend to the President, through the Secretary,
within sixty (60) days before the commencement of
each calendar year, a crime prevention program; and
E. Perform such other functions necessary to carry out
the provisions of R.A. 6975, as amended, other
existing laws and Presidential issuance's, and as the
President may direct.
COMPOSITION OF NAPOLCOM
1. One chairperson
2. Four regular commissioner
3. The Chief PNP as ex officio member
Note:
* shall serve a term of office of six (6) years
without reappointment or extension
* three of the four regular commissioners shall come
from civilian sector and not former members of the
44
police or military
* the fourth regular commissioner shall come from the
law enforcement sector either active or retired
* at least one (1) of the four regular commissioners
shall be a woman
* from among the three regular commissioners from
the civilian sector, the Vice Chairperson shall be
chosen
* the Vice Chairperson shall act as the Executive
Officer of the Commission
* refer to the organizational structure of the
NAPOLCOM
Important dates in the history of modern Philippine Policing
1901 - ACT no. 175 of the Philippine Commission established the Philippine
constabulary on august 8, 1901.
1905 - the Philippine constabulary school was established at the sta.lucia barracks in
Intramuros on February 17, 1905.
1908 - the Philippine constabulary school was transferred to Baguio City.
1916 - the Philippine constabulary school was renamed academy for officers of the
Philippine constabulary.
1917 - on December 17, 1917, Brigadier General Rafael Crame from Rizal Province,
became the first Filipino chief of the Philippine constabulary.
1926 - the academy for officers of the Philippine constabulary was renamed Philippine
Constabulary Academy.
1936 - the Philippine Constabulary Academy became the present day Philippine Military
Academy.
1938 - The Philippine Constabulary became the existing and organized national police
force of the country pursuant to commonwealth act no. 343 dated June 23, 1938 and EO
no. 389 dated December 23, 1950. This decree integrated local police forces into the
Philippines constabulary operational and organizational set up.
1966 - congress enacted RA no. 4864, the police act of 1966. This law also created the
Police Commission (POLCOM).
1972 - The POLCOM was reorganized as the National Police Commission.

45
1975 - PD 765 was enacted. This law is called the Police Integration Law of 1975. The
Integrated National Police was established with the Philippine Constabulary as nucleus
under the Department of national Defense. The NAPOLCOM, originally under the office
of the President was transferred to the Ministry of National defense.
1985 - The National Police Commission was returned to the office of the President
pursuant to E.O 1040.
1989 - Executive order 379 placed the Integrated national Police directly under the
command, supervision and control of the President. This order vested the NAPOLCOM
with the powers of administrative control and supervision over the Integrated National
Police.
1990 - RA 6975 was passed on December 13, 1990 establishing the Philippine National
Police under a reorganized Department of the Interior and Local Government (DILG). A
new National Police Commission was created under the DILG.
1998 - congress passed into law RA no. 8551 on February 25, 1998, otherwise known as
the Philippine National Police reform and reorganization act of 1998. This act
strengthened and expanded NAPOLCOM,s authority over the PNP to include
administration of police entrance examination and conduct pre-charge investigation
against police anomalies and irregularities and summary dismissal of erring police
members.
FUNCTIONS IN A POLICE ORGANIZATION

1. PRIMARY OR LINE FUNCTIONS
- functions that carry out the major purposes of the
organization, delivering the services and dealing
directly with the public
- the backbone of the police department
- examples of the line functions of the police are
patrolling, traffic duties, crime investigation
2. STAFF/ADMINISTRATIVE FUNCTIONS
- functions that are designed to support the line
functions and assist in the performance of the line
functions
- examples of the staff functions of the police are
planning, research, budgeting and legal advice
3. AUXILIARY FUNCTIONS
- functions involving the logistical operations of the
organization
- examples are training, communication, maintenance,
46
records management, supplies and equipment management

ORGANIC UNITS IN A POLICE ORGANIZATION
1. OPERATIONAL UNITS
- those that perform primary or line functions
- examples are patrol, traffic, investigation and vice
control,
2. ADMINISTRATIVE UNITS
- those that perform the administrative functions
examples are personnel, finance, planning and
training.
3. SERVICE UNITS
- those that perform auxiliary functions
- examples are communication, records
management,supplies.
ORGANIZATIONAL STRUCTURE
- the systematic arrangement of the relationship of the members, positions,departments and
functions or work of the organization
- it is comprised of functions, relationships,
responsibilities and authorities of individuals within
the organization
KINDS OF ORGANIZATIONAL STRUCTURES
1. LINE
- the oldest and simplest kind; also called military
- defined by its clear chain of command from the
highest to the lowest and vice versa
- depicts the line functions of the organization
- orders or commands must come from the higher l
level of authority before it can be carried out
- involves few departments
2. FUNCTIONAL
- structure according to functions and specialized units
- depicts staff functions of the organization
- responsibilities are divided among authorities who
are all accountable to the authority above.
3. LINE AND STAFF
- a combination of the line and functional kind
- combines the flow of information from the line
structure with the staff departments that service,
advise, and support them
47
- generally more formal in nature and has many

departments
ORGANIZATIONAL PRINCIPLES
FOUR PRIMAL CONDITIONS OF AN ORGANIZATION
1. AUTHORITY
- the supreme source of government for any
particular organization
- the right to exercise, to decide and to command
by virtue of rank and position
2. MUTUAL COOPERATION
- an organization exists because it serves a
purpose.
3. DOCTRINE
- provides for the organizations objectives
- provides the various actions, hence, policies,
procedures, rules and regulations of the org.
are based on the statement of doctrines
4. DISCIPLINE
- comprising behavioral regulations
ELEMENTS OF POLICE ORGANIZATION
1. UNITY OF COMMAND
- dictates that there should only be ONE MAN commanding
the unit to ensure uniformity in the execution of
orders
2. SPAN OF CONTROL
- the maximum number of subordinates that a superior can effectively supervise
Factors affecting the span of control:
a) Leadership qualities of the supervisors
b) Nature of the job and work conditions
c) Complexity of task
d) Education and skill of the employees
3. DELEGATION OF AUTHORITY
- conferring of an amount of authority by a superior
position to a lower-level position.
4. HIERARCHY OF AUTHORITY
- the relationship between superiors and
subordinates
- serves as the framework for the flow of authority
downward and obedience upward through the
48
department
HIERARCHY - represents the formal relationship
among superiors and subordinates in any given
organization
5. SPECIALIZATION
- the assignment of particular personnel to particular tasks
SPECIALIZATION OF JOBS (AREAS OF SPECIALIZATION)
- the designation of certain activities or tasks as
ones that must be performed in a highly.
technological,scientific or precise manner
- areas of police specialization include undercover
works, crime scene operations, legal advising,
computer work, SWAT operations and others
SPECIALIZATION OF PEOPLE (SPECIALISTS)
- the designation of particular persons as having
expertise in a specific area of work
- signifies the adaptation of an individual to the
requirements through extensive training
6. CHAIN OF COMMAND
- the arrangement of officers from top to bottom
on the basis of rank or position and authority.
7. COMMAND RESPONSIBILITY
- dictates that immediate commanders shall be
responsible for the effective supervision and
control.
BRIEF HISTORY OF THE PHILIPPINE POLICING SYSTEM
The institution of police in the Philippines formally
started during the Spanish period. The establishment of
the police force was not entirely intended for crime
prevention nor peacekeeping. Rather, it was created as an
extension of the colonial military establishment.
Ancient Roots
The forerunner of the contemporary police system was the practice of barangay chieftains to
select
able-bodied young men to protect their barangay
during the night and were not required to work
49
in the fields during daytime.Among the duties of

those selected were to protect the properties
of the people in the barangay and protect their
crops and livestock from wild animals.
Spanish Period
Carabineros de Seguridad Publica organized in 1712 for the purpose of carrying the
regulations
of the Department of State; this was armed
and considered as the mounted police; years after, this kind of police organization discharged the
duties of a port, harbor and river police.
Guardrilleros/Cuardillo this was a body of rural police by the Royal Decree of 18 January
1836, this decree provided that 5% of the
able-bodied male inhabitants of each province were to be enlisted in this police organization for
three years
Guardia Civil this was created by a Royal Decree issued by the Crown on 12 February 1852
to partially relieve the Spanish Peninsular troops of
their work in policing towns,it consisted of a body
of Filipino policemen organized originally in each
of the provincial capitals of the central provinces
of Luzon under the Alcalde Mayor
American Period
The Americans established the United States Philippine
Commission headed by General Howard Taft as its first
governor-general. On January 9, 1901, the Metropolitan
Police Force of Manila was organized pursuant to Act No 70of the Taft Commission. This has
become the basis for the
celebration of the anniversary of the Manilas Finest every January 9th.
ACT NO 175 entitled An Act Providing for the
Organization and Government of an Insular Constabulary,enacted on July 18, 1901.
Henry T. Allen - Captain of the 6th US cavalry, a graduate of West Point class 1882. Father of
the Philippine Constabulary.The first chief of the Philippine Constabulary in 1901.
ACT NO 183 - created the Manila Police Department, enacted on July 31, 1901.
CAPT GEORGE CURRY - the first chief of police
of the Manila Police Department in 1901.
Act No 255 the act that renamed the Insular Constabulary into Philippine Constabulary,
50
enacted on October 3, 1901

Executive Order 389 ordered that the Philippine Constabulary be one of the four services
of the Armed Forces of the Philippines, enacted on
December 23, 1940.
Post-American Period
RA 4864 otherwise known as the Police Professionalization Act of 1966, enacted on
September 8, 1966; created the Police Commission
(POLCOM) as a supervisory agency to oversee the
training and professionalization of the local
police forces under the Office of the President; later POLCOM was renamed into National
Police
Commission (NAPOLCOM).
Martial Law Period
PD 765 otherwise known as the Integration Act of 1975,enacted on August 8, 1975;
established the Integrated National Police (INP)
composed of the Philippine Constabulary (PC)
as the nucleus and the integrated local police forces
as components, under the Ministry of National
Defense
- transferred the NAPOLCOM from the Office of the
President to the Ministry of National Defense
Post Martial Law Regime
Executive Order No 1012 transferred to the city and municipal government the operational
supervision and direction over all INP units assigned within their locality; issued on July 10,
1985
Executive Order No 1040 transferred the administrative control and supervision of the INP
from the Ministry of National Defense to the National Police Commission
RA 6975 otherwise known as the Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of
1990,
enacted on December 13,1990; reorganized the
DILG and established the Philippine National Police,
Bureau of Fire Protection, Bureau of Jail
Management and Penology and the Philippine Public Safety College.
RA 8551 otherwise known as the Philippine National Police Reform and Reorganization Act
of 1998, enacted on February 25, 1998; this law
amended certain provisions of RA 6975.
51
RA 9708 - law amending the provisions of RA 6975 and RA 8551 on the minimum educational
qualification for appointment to the PNP and
adjusting the promotion system; approved on 12 August 2009.
- An Act extending for five (5) years the reglementary period for complying with the minimum
educational qualification for appointment to the PNP and adjusting the promotion system
thereof,amending for the purpose pertinent provisions of RA 6975 and RA 8551 and for other
purposes.
Administration of Police Organization Review Questions 1
1.A primary subdivision of a bureau with a department wide
responsibility for providing a specific specialized functions.
A.Section
B.Sector
C.Squad
D.Detail
2.A subdivision of a squad
A.Section
B.Unit
C.Sector
D.Detail
3.A subdivision of a unit.
A.Section
B.Unit
C.Squad
D.Detail
4.A subdivision of a section.
A.Precinct
B.Unit
C.Squad
D.Detail
5.The primary geographic subdivision of a precinct.
A.Post
B.Sector
C. Section
D.Unit
6.The primary subdivision of a sector.
A.Post
B.Beat
C. Unit
52
D.Sector
7.One of several tours of duty.
A.Detail
B.Post
C. Shift
D.Beat
8.Fixed geographic location usually assigned to an individual officer
A.Post
B.Beat
C. Shift
D.Section
9.The primary geographic subdivision of the patrol operation bureau.
A. Precinct
B.Section
C. Sector
D.Unit
10.It means planning the work of the department and of the
personnel in an orderly manner.
A.Plan
B.Delegate
C. Oversee
D.Organize
Memorize the following:
1.Organize - it means planning the work of the department and
of the personnel in an orderly manner.
2.Oversee - It means that the supervisor ensures that the work
that has been organized and delegated is satisfactorily
completed.
3.Delegate - It means giving someone else the responsibility
and authority to do something.
4.Precinct - the primary geographic subdivision of the patrol
operation bureau.
5.Post - Fixed geographic location usually assigned to an
individual officer.
6.Shift - one of several tours of duty.
53
7.Beat - the primary subdivision of a sector.

8.Sector - the primary geographic subdivision of a precinct.
9.Unit - subdivision of a section.
10.Squad - a subdivision of a unit.
11.Detail - a subdivision of a squad.
12.Section - a primary subdivision of a bureau with a department
wide responsibility for providing a specific specialized functions.
Answers: Administration of Police Organization
1. A
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. B
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. D
Administration Of Police Organization Review Questions 2
1. A nationwide, cooperative statistical effort of law enforcement
agencies voluntarily reporting data on crimes brought to
their attention.
A. National Crime Reporting
B. Uniform Crime Reporting
C. National Statistic Report
D. National Police Crime Report
2. It post the location of murder's,rapes,robberies,carnapping and
other major crimes of the locality.
A. Crime hot spots
B. Crime incident location
C. Crime spot map
D. Crime mapping
3. It post the the motor vehicle and pedestrian accident which
occur in the area.
54
A. Traffic spot map

B. Traffic crime map
C. Traffic statistic report
D. Traffic incidence report
4. Useful to indicate the traffic accidents and crime location.
A.Traffic map
B. Traffic and crime map
C. Crime map
D. Spot map
5. Each time any file is issued, a record should be made on a color
charge-out which is often called a Substitution Card or an
Out Card which takes the place of a file that has been
removed from the cabinet.
A. Borrower's card
B. Document card
C. Borrower's slip
D. Charged out card
6. A file showing the history of each police officer, both prior and
subsequent to joining the force, is indispensable.
A. Personal records
B. Policy,order,memoranda file
C. Assignment record
D. Correspondence file
7. This consist of set or records of communications classified,
arranged and filed alphabetically by the subject to which they
pertain.
A. Personal record
B. Policy,order,memoranda file
C. Assignment record
D. Correspondence file
8. This consist of photographic records of known criminals and
describe the procedure how criminals commit crime.
A. Modus operandi file
B. Operation file
C. Method of operation file
D. Criminal file
9. A notation put into a file to indicate that a record is not stored in
that file but in some other location specified therein.It tells the
filer or searcher where to find the needed material.
A. Reference
55
B. Cross reference
C. File notation
D. Cross location
10.Making an identifying mark on the item to be stored to indicate
what classifications it is to be filed .
A. Identifying
B. Classifying
C. Coding
D. Differentiating
Remember the ff: Administration of Police Organization
1. Uniform Crime Reporting - A nationwide, cooperative statistical
effort of law enforcement agencies voluntarily reporting data on
crimes brought to their attention.
2. Crime spot map - It post the location of murder's,rapes,
robberies,carnapping and other major crimes of the locality.
3. Traffic spot map - It post the the motor vehicle and pedestrian
accident which occur in the area.
4. Spot map - Useful to indicate the traffic accidents and crime
location.
5. Charged out card - Each time any file is issued, a record should
be made on a color charge-out which is often called a
Substitution Card or an Out Card which takes the place of
a file that has been removed from the cabinet.
6. Personal records - A file showing the history of each police
officer, both prior and subsequent to joining the force, is
indispensable.
7. Correspondence file - This consist of set or records of
communications classified, arranged and filed alphabetically
by the subject to which they pertain.
8. Modus operandi file - This consist of photographic records of
known criminals and describe the procedure how criminals commit
crime.
9. Cross reference - A notation put into a file to indicate that a
record is not stored in that file but in some other location specified
56
therein.It tells the filer or searcher where to find the needed

material.
10.Coding - Making an identifying mark on the item to be stored to
indicate what classifications it is to be filed .
11. The accredited professional organization for criminologists in the
Philippines is the PCAP - Professional Criminologist
Association of the Philippines.
12.The Professional Criminologists Association of the Philippines
(PCAP) was accredited by PRC on March 25, 1990 as the
professional organization for criminologists in the country.
13. The Board of Examiners for Criminology was created on July 1,
1972, pursuant to Republic Act No. 6506 entitled An Act Creating
the Board of Examiners for Criminologists in the Philippines and For
Other Purposes.
14. The first Board, constituted in 1987, was composed of
1. Dr. Sixto O. de Leon as Chairman
2. Atty. Virgilio B. Andres as member
3. Jaime S. Navarro as member
15.Republic Act No. 6506 - An Act Creating the Board of Examiners
for Criminologists in the Philippines and for Other Purposes.
16. Lourdes W. Aniceto - the present chairman of the board of
criminology.
17. Ernesto V. Cabrera - the present member of the board of
criminology.
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. D
6. A
7. D
8. A
9. B
10. C

57
1. There are how many staff directorate in the Philippine National Police?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
2. The second highest ranking officer in the PNP.
A. Deputy Director General for Operation
B. Chief of the Directorial Staff
C. NCR Director
D. None of the Above
3. What is the rank of the PNP Chief of the Directorial Staff?
A. 3 Star General
B. 2 Star General
C. 1 Star General
4. This theory of Police service is followed by the PNP.
A. Continental Theory
B. Home Rule Theory
C. Modern Rule Theory
5. Under this theory of police service, policemen are considered
servants of the community.
B. Home Rule Theory
6. Under this theory of police service, policemen are considered
servants of the higher authority and people have little share
or no share of all there duties nor any direct connection
with them.
B. Home Rule Theory
7. This concept of police service says that punishment is the
sole instrument of crime control, throwing more people to jail
rather than keeping them out of jail.
A. Old Concept
B. Modern Concept
C. Community Concept
58

8. This concept of police service says that the yardstick of
efficiency of police is the absence of crime.
A. Old Concept
B. Modern Concept
C. Community Concept
9. This type of organizational structure divides authority between
several specialist.
A. Line Organization
B. Functional Organization
C. Line Staff Organization
10.It is the simplest type of organizational structure,Channels of
authority and responsibility extends in a direct line from top
to bottom within the structure.
C. Line staff Organization
Answer:
1. B
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. A
8. B
9. B
10. A
Administration of Police Organization Reviewer 4

1. This type of organizational structure is found in almost
all police organization today.
C. Line Staff Organization
59
2. An organization is effective if it enables the individual

to contribute to the organizations objective.
A. Principle of Unity of Objective
B. Principle of Organizational efficiency
C. Scalar Principle
D. Unity of Command
3. Organization is effective if it is structured in such a way
to aid the accomplishment of the organization's objective
with a minimum cost.
C. Scalar Principle
D. Unity of Command
4. The vertical heirarchy of an organization which defines an
unbroken chain of units from top to bottom describing
explicitly the flow of authority.
C. Scalar Principle
D. Unity of Command
5. A subordinate should only follow the command of one superior.
A. Unity of command
B. Span of control
C. Delegation of authority
D. Principle of balance
6. The control of superior should not be more than what he
can effectively direct.
A. Unity of command
B. Span of control
7. The assignment of authority and responsibility to another person.
A. Unity of command
B. Span of control
8. Refers to the division of work according to type, place, time
and specialization.
A. Functional Principle
B. Line and Staff principle
60
C. Principle of balance
D. Principle of delegation result
9. To ensure the effectiveness of the structure in meeting
the organization's objective.
D. Principle of delegation result expected
10.That which implies the system of varied functions, arrange
into a workable pattern.
Answer:
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. C
10. B

1. The authority delegated should be adequate to ensure
the ability to accomplish expected result.
2. The responsibility of the subordinates to their superior
for performance is absolute and superior can not escape
responsibility for the organization on activities
performed by their subordinates.
A. Principle of Absolute Responsibility
B. Principle of balance
C. Principle of Parity and Responsibility
D. Principle of delegation
61
3. The responsibility for actions can not be greater than that

implied by the authority delegated nor should it be less.
A. Principle of Absolute Responsibility
B. Principle of balance
C. Principle of Parity and Responsibility
D. Principle of delegation
4. This law organized the Manila Police department.
A. Act 183
B. R.A. 8551
C. E.O. 1012
D. E.O. 1040
5. Transferred the operational supervision and direction
over all INP units to the city and municipal government.
A. Act 183
B. R.A. 8551
C. E.O. 1012
D. E.O. 1040
6. Transferred the administrative control and supervision of
the INP from Ministry of National Defense to the office
of the Napolcom.
A. Act 183
B. R.A. 8551
C. E.O. 1012
D. E.O. 1040
7. The Transfer of the administrative control and supervision of
the INP from Ministry of National Defense to the office
of the Napolcom took effect on.
A. July 10, 1985
B. July 10, 1986
C. July 10, 1987
D. July 10, 1988
8. The Manila Police Department was organized on.
A. July 31, 1900
B. July 31, 1901
C. July 31, 1902
D. July 31, 1903
9. Granted to those who possesses the mandatory
promotional requirement.
A. Regular Promotion
B. Special Promotion
62
C. A and B
10.Extended to PNP members who acted conspicuously
beyond and above the call of duty.
A. Regular Promotion
B. Special Promotion
C. A and B
Answer:
1. D
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. C
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. A
10. B

1. A PNP officer before eligible for promotion to the
rank of Senior Superintendent must first obtained
what mandatory training requirement?
A. General Staff Course
B. Officer Senior Executive Course
C. Officer Advance Course
D. Officer Basic Course
rank of Superintendent must first secure what
mandatory training requirement?
rank of Chief Inspector must first secure what
mandatory training requirement.
63

rank of Senior Inspector must first secure what
mandatory training requirement.
5. Before an officer is appointed to the rank of PNP
Inspector, He/She must finish what mandatory training
requirement?
C. Officer Candidate Course
6. Before a PNP enlisted personnel is appointed to the
rank of SPO3 to SPO4, what mandatory training requirement
must he/she undertake?
A. Senior Leadership Course
B. Basic Leadership Course
C. Public Safety Basic Course
7. Before a PNP enlisted personnel is appointed to the
rank of PO2 to PO3, what mandatory training requirement
must he/she undertakes?
A. Senior Leadership Course
B. Basic Leadership Course
C. Public Safety Basic Course
8. Highest award in the PNP.
A. Medalya ng Kasanayan
B. Medalya ng Kabayanihan
C. Medalya ng Katapangan
D. Medalya ng Kagitingan
9. PNP's mandatory retirement age.
A. 55
B. 56
C. 60
D. 65
64
10. Optional retirement requires the approval of the

A. DILG Secretary
B. Napolcom
C. Chief of the PNP
D. President of the Philippines
Answer:
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. B
Note:
Mandatory Promotional Requirement
1. Educational Attainment
2. Time in Grade
3. Eligibility
4. Mandatory Training Requirement
5. Performance Evaluation Rating
6. Awards and Commendations Received
7. Clearances
Mandatory Training Requirement
1. Senior Superintendent - GSC (General Staff Course, MNSA,
or MPSA (Master in Public Safety Administration)
2. Superintendent - OSEC (Officer Senior Executive Course)
3. Chief Inspector - Officer Advance Course
4. Senior Inspector - Officer Basic Course
5. Inspector - Officer Candidate Course
6. SPO3 to SPO4 - Senior Leadership Course
7. SPO1 to SPO2 - Basic leadership Course
8. PO2 to PO3 - Public safety Basic Course
Performance Evaluation Rating - made by supervisor twice
a year. January to June, July to December
65
5
4
3
2
1
- Outstanding
- Very Satisfactory
- Satisfactory
- Fair
Poor
Administration of Police Organization Definition of Terms

Area - a section or territorial division of a large city each composed of designated districts.
Beat - an area designated for patrol purposes whether on foot or motorized.
Bureau - largest organic unit within a large department.
Commanding Officer- an officer who is in command of the department, a bureau, a division, an
area, or a district.
Department Rules - rules established by department directors\superiors to control the conduct of
the members of the police force.
District - a geographical subdivision of a city for patrol purposes usually with its own station.
Division - a primary subdivision of a bureau.
Duty Manual - describes the procedures and defines the duties of officers assigned to specified
post or position.
Formal Organization - is defined as those organizations that are formally established for explicit
purpose of achieving certain goals.
Functional Organization - The functional responsibility of each functional manager is limited to
the particular activity over which he has control, regardless of who performs the function.
Henry Allen - a captain, first chief of the constabulary.
Informal Organization - are those sharing the basic characteristic of all organizations arise
through the social interactions of individuals or through family grouping.
Leave of Absence- period, which an officer is excused from active duty by any valid reason,
approved by higher authority.
Length of Service- the period of time that has elapsed since the oath of office was
administered.Previous active services may be included or added.
66
Line Organization - is the simplest and the oldest types of organization where responsibility
extends in a direct line from top to bottom within the structures and authority is definite and
absolute.
line and staff organization is a combination of the line and functional types.
Off Duty - the nature of which the police officer is free from specific routine duty.
On Duty - the period when an officer is actively engaged in the performance of his duty.
Order an instruction given by a ranking officer to a subordinate.
Organization - It is a form of human association for the attainment of goal or objective.
patrol officer - is the backbone of the police department.
PD 765 - created the PC-INP.
Police - is a branch of the criminal justice system that has the specific responsibility of
maintaining law and order and combating crime within the society.
Police organization - is a group of trained personnel in the field of public safety administration
engaged in the achievement of goals andobjectives that promotes the maintenance of crimes.
Post - a fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned for duty, such as a designated desk
or office or an intersection or cross walk from traffic duty.It is a spot location for general guard
duty.
Ranking Officer- the officer who has the senior rank in a team or group.
RA 4864 - established Napolcom.Known as police act of 1966.
Rafael Crame - first filipini chief of the constabulary.
Report - usually a written communication unless otherwise specifies to be verbal reports;
verbalreports should be confirmed by written communication.
Route - (line beat) a length of street designated for patrol purposes.
Section - functional units within a division.
Sector - an area containing two or more beat, route, or post.
Sick leave - period which an officer is excused from active duty by reason of illness or injury.
67
Special Duty - the police service, its nature, which requires that the officer be excused from the
performance of his active regular duty.
Superior Officer- one having supervisory responsibilities, either temporarily or permanently, over
officers of lower rank.
Suspension - a consequence of an act which temporarily deprives an officer from the privilege of
performing his duties as result of violating directives or other department regulations.
Sworn Officers - all personnel of the police department who have taken oath and who posses the
power to arrest.
Unit - functional group within a section; or the smallest functional group within an organization.
Patrol Organization and Operation Reviewer 1

1. Sir Robert Peel introduced the Metropolitan Police Act and passed
by the parliament of England on
A. 1828
B. 1829
C. 1830
D. 1831
2. Considered as the father of modern policing system.
A. Sir Robert Peel
B. August Vollmer
C. Edgar Hoover
D. Henry Armstrong
3. In the principles of law enforcement enunciated by Sir Robert Peel,
the basic mission of the police is
A. Prevention of crime
B. Enforcement of the law
C. Maintenance of peace and order
D. None of the above
4. One of the feature of this act is that no freeman shall be taken
or imprisoned except by the judgment of his peer
A. Magna Carta
B. Statute of 1295
C. Legies Henry
5. The closing of gates of London during sun down. This mark
68
the beginning of the curfew hours

A. Statute of 1295
B. Statute of 1775
C. Statute of 1827
D. Statute of 1834
6. A Position having power to arrest, punish, and imposes imprisonment.
A. Justice of the Peace
B. Sheriff
C. Star Chamber Court
D. traveling Judge
7. A Special Court that tried cases against the state.
A. Shire-Reeve
B. Star Chamber Court
C. Magna Carta
D. Legies Henry
8. He is held responsible in passing judgment that was taken from the
shire-reeve in view of some abuses.
A. Legies Henry
B. star Chamber Court
C. Justice of the Peace
D. Traveling Judge
9. An Act enacted in England with the following features:
a. Policeman became public servant
b. The Police has a broad power of arrest
c. Grand Jury was created to inquire on the violations of the law.
A. Statute of 1295
B. Star Chamber Court
C. Legies Henry
D. Magna Carta
10. Shire means
A. Ruler
B. District
C. Police
D. Judge
11. Reeve means
A. Ruler
B. District
C. Police
D. Judge
69
Answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
B
A
A
A
A
A
B
D
C
B
A

1. A round line or district area regularly traversed by foot
police patrol.
A. Bureau
B. Division
C. Section
D. Beat
2. One of the advantage of this patrol is that the patrolman
knows the area and people in his beat.
A. Bicycle Patrol
B. Horse Patrol
C. Motorized Patrol
D. Foot Patrol
3. Backbone of the police service in the community.
A. Police Intelligence
B. Police Investigation
C. Police Patrol
4. One of the following types of police patrol is currently
not used in the Philippines.
A. Mobile Patrol
B. Foot Patrol
C. Animal Patrol
D. Aircraft Patrol
5. It is the largest segment of a police station.
70
A. Police Patrol
B. Police Investigation
C. Police Intelligence
6. From the time of the receipt of the call by the police
dispatcher to the arrival of the mobile patrol at the scene.
A. Response Time
B. Preparation Time
C. Speed Time
7. Which of the following kind of patrol is most effective in
parade and crowd control.
A. Foot Patrol
B. Horse Patrol
C. Mobile Patrol
D. Aircraft Patrol
8. One of the advantage of this kind of patrol is stealth
silence for movement.
A. Foot Patrol
B. Bicycle Patrol
C. Mobile Patrol
D. Horse Patrol
9. An electronic equipment that has helped the police in its
record, storage, and location system.
A. Walkie Talkie
B. Vault
C. File Room
D. Computer
10. One electronic gadget or equipment that has assisted
immediately the police investigation and interrogation
in his work.
A. Walkie Talkie
B. Tape Recorder
C. Computer
Patrol Organization Reviewer 3: Next Page

71
Answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
D
D
C
D
A
A
B
B
D
B
1. Backbone of the police department.

A. Intelligence
B. Patrol
C. Investigation
D. Vice Control
2. Established the fist English police department, the London
metropolitan police in 1829.
A. O.W Wilson
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. Henry Fielding
3. He laid the foundation for the first modern police force. he was
appointed magistrate in Westminster in 1748.
A. Henry Fielding
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. O.W. Wilson
4. A Chicago Police department superintendent, he introduced a one man
mobile patrol except in ghetto and crime ridden section of the city.
The rationale is that help is a microphone away.
A. O.W. Wilson
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. Henry Fielding
72
5. Required all men in a given town to serve on the night watch.

A. Hue and Cry
B. Shires
C. Parish constable
D. Watch and Ward
6. Ten tithings or 100 families under the charge of a constable.
A. Shire
B. Parish Constable
C. Beadies
D. Hundred
7. Groups of hundreds within a specific geographic area.They were put under
the control of the King and were governed by a shire-reeve or sheriff.
A. Shires
B. Parish Constable
C. Beadies
D. Tithings
8. Ten families who grouped together to protect one another and to assume
responsibility for the acts of the group member.
A. Hundred
B. Shires
C. Tithings
D. Beadies
9. Enacted in 1285 in England, it established a rudimentary criminal justice
system in which most of the responsibility for law enforcenment remained
with the people themselves.
A. The Hue and Cry
B. shire-reeve
C. Statute of Winchester
D. Magna carta
10.He was responsible for organizing and supervising the watch
A. Shire-reeve
B. Shire
C. Magistrate
D. Parish Constable
73
Answer:
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. D
6. D
7. A
8. C
9. C
10.D

1. He assisted the justices of the peace by presiding the courts, ordering
arrest, calling witnesses and examining prisoners
A. Parish Constable
B. Sheriff
C. Magistrates
D. Shire
2. This office was created to assist the shire-reeve in non urban areas
B. Parish Constable
C. Magistrates
D. Watchmen
3. This office was created to assist the shire-reeve in urban areas.
B. Parish Constable
C. Magistrates
D. Watchmen
4. Patrolling the streets from dusk till dawn to insure that all local
people were indoors and quite and to insure that no strangers were
roaming around.
A. Justice of the peace
B. Parish Constable
C. Magistrates
D. Watchmen
74
5. A system of apprehending criminals whereby a complainant goes in the

middle of the street and shout at the top of his voice calling all males
to assemble and indicates the whereabouts of the culprit.
A. Royal Judge
B. Magistrates
C. Watchmen
D. Hue and Cry
6. He conducts Criminal investigation and give punishment.
A. Royal Judge
B. Magistrate
C. Watchmen
D. Parish Constable
7. Suspects were required to place their hands in boiling water. When not
hurt, he will be acquitted, if not he is guilty of the crime.
A. Hue and Cry
B. Shire
C. Trial by Ordeal
8. An Anglo-saxon period of policing system where the residents themselves
were required to preserve the peace and order and protect life and
properties of the people.
A. Hue and Cry
B. Royal Judge
C. Trial by ordeal
D. Tun policing system
9. The cooperative human effort to achieve the purpose of criminal justice
system.
A. Civil Administration
B. Police Administration
C. Patrol Administration
10.This law established the Napolcom under the office of the President.
It is also known as the Police Act of 1966.
A. R.A. 6975
B. C.A. 181
C. R.A. 4864
D. R.A. 4668
Answer:
75
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. D
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. C

1. An area containing two or more beat, route, or post.
A. Sector
B. District
C. Area
2. A geographical subdivision of a city for patrol purposes usually
with its own station.
A. Sector
B. District
C. Area
3. A section or territorial division of a large city each composed of
designated districts.
A. Sector
B. District
C. Area
4. All personnel of the police department who have taken oath.
A. Duty officer
B. Subordinate officer
C. Sworn officer
D. Commanding officer
5. Describes the procedure that defines the duties of officers assigned
to specific post or position.
A. Duty Manual
B. Mission Order
76
C. Special Order
D. Office Manual
6. The Japanese Military Police.
A. Kempetai
B. Sepuko
C. Arigato
D. Kimchi
7. The Manila Police Department was formally organized on this date.
A. July 31, 1901
B. July 31. 1902
C. August 1, 1901
D. August 1, 1902
8. The PC (Philippine Constabulary) was organized as the first insular
police force on this date.
A. July 31, 1901
B. July 31, 1902
C. August 1, 1901
D. August 1, 1902
9. The First Chief of the PC (Philippine Constabulary).
A. Ronald John Hay
B. Henry Allen
C. George Cury
D. John Burnham
10. The First chief of police of Manila.
A. Henry Allen
B. George Cury
C. Howard Taft
D. Tomas Clark
Answer:
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. C
5. A
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. B
10. B
77
Police Operational Planning

Police Operational Planning - the act of determining policies and guidelines for police
activities and operations and providing controls and safeguards for such activities and operations
in the department. Involves strategies or tactics, procedures, policies or guidelines.
Operational Planning - the use of rational design or patten for alldepartmental undertakings
rather than relying on chance in an operational environment. The preparation and development
of procedures andtechniques in accomplishing each of the primary tasks and functions of an
organization.
Police Planning - an attempt by police administrators in trying to allocate anticipated resources
to meet anticipated service demands. The systematic and orderly determination of facts and
events as basis for policy formulation and decision making affecting law enforcement
management.
Planning - the determination in advance of how the objectives of the organization will be
attained; involves the determination of a course of action to take in performing a particular
function or activity. The process of developing methods or procedures or an arrangement of parts
intended to facilitate the accomplishment of a definite objective. The process of deciding in
advance what is to be done and how it is to be done.
Plan - an organized schedule or sequence by methodical activities intended to attain a goal
or objectives for the accomplishment of mission or assignment. A method or way of doing
something in order to attain objectives and provides answers to the 5Ws and 1H.
Strategy - a broad design or method or a plan to attain a stated goal or objective.
Tactics - are specific design, method or a course of action to attain a particular objective
in consonance with strategy.
Procedures - are sequences of activities to reach a point or to attain what is desired.
Policy - a course of action which could be a program of
actions adopted by an individual, group, organization or government or the set of principles on
which they are based.
case operational plan (COPLAN) - a definite target - specific activity conducted in

relation to an intelligence project under which it is affected. Several case operations may
fall under one intelligence project.- refers to a preparatory plan on how to carry out a case
operation which is the last resort to pursue intelligence objectives when normal police
operations fail.
command post/holding area - area where case conferences, briefings and debriefings
are being conducted by the responding agencies.
78
dragnet operation - is a police operation purposely to seal off the probable exit points of
fleeing suspect from the crime scene to prevent their escape.
Management or Administrative Functions

1. Planning
2. Organizing
3. Directing
4. Controlling
5. Staffing
6. Reporting
7. Budgeting
Guidelines in Planning
1. What - mission/objective
2. Why - reason/philosophy
3. When - date/time
4. where - place
5. How - strategy/methods
Characteristics of a Good Plan
1. A Plan must have a clearly defined objective
2. A Plan must be simple, direct and clear
3. A Plan must be flexible
4. A Plan must be attainable
5. A Plan must provide standards of operation
6. A Plan must be economical in terms of resources
needed for implementation.
Types of Plan
1. Procedural/Policy Plan
2. Operational Plan
3. Tactical Plan
4. Administrative/Management Plan
5. Extra-Departmental Plan
Police Operational Planning Reviewer 1

1. The determination in advance of how the objectives ofthe
organization will be attained.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Controlling
2. involves the determination and allocation of the men and
women as well as the resource of an organization to achieve
pre-determined goals or objectives of the organization.
79
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Controlling
3. It involves the overseeing and supervising of the human
resources and the various activities in an organization
to achieve through cooperative efforts the pre-determined
goals or objectives of theorganization.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Controlling
4. It involves the checking or evaluation and measurement of
work performance and comparing it with planned goalsor
objectives of the organization, and making thenecessary
corrective actions so that work is accomplished as planned.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Controlling
5. The task of providing competent men to do the job and choosing
the right men for the right job-involves good selection and
processing of reliable and well-trained personnel.
A. Staffing
B. Reporting
C. Budgeting
D. Controlling
6. The making of detailed account of activities, work progress,
investigations and unusual in order to keepevery one informed
or what is going on.
A. Staffing
B. Reporting
C. Budgeting
D. Controlling
7. The forecasting in detail of the results of an officially
recognized program of operations based onthe highest
reasonable expectations of operatingefficiency.
A. Staffing
B. Reporting
C. Budgeting
D. Controlling
80
8. This is intended to be used in all situations of all kinds,

which shall be outlined to guide officers and men in the field.
A. Field Procedure
B. Headquarter's Procedure
C. Special Operating Procedure
9. To be included in these procedures are the duties of the
dispatcher, jailer, matron, and other personnel concerned,
which may be reflected in the duty manual. It also involves
coordinated action on activity of several offices.
A. Field Procedure
10.Certain special operations also necessitate the preparation
of procedures as guides.
A. Field Procedure
Answer:
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. C

1. A general statement of intention and typically with
a time horizon.
A. Goal
B. Objective
C. Plan
D. Strategy
81
2. Specific commitment to achieve a measurable result

within a specific period of time.
A. Goal
B. Objective
C. Plan
D. Strategy
3. An organize schedule or sequence by methodical activities
intended to attain a goal and objectives for the
accomplishment of mission or assignment.
A. Goal
B. Objective
C. Plan
D. Strategy
4. Is an attempt by administration to allocate anticipated resources
to meet anticipated service demands.
A. Police Planning
B. Planning
C. Strategy
D. Plan
5. A process of preparing for change and copping uncertainty
formulating future causes of action, the process of
determining the problem of the organization coming up with
proposed resolution and finding best solution.
A. Police Planning
B. Planning
C. Strategy
D. Plan
6. It is a broad design, method, a plan to attain a stated
goal or objective.
A. Police Planning
B. Planning
C. Strategy
D. Plan
7. It is a specific design, method, or course of action to
attain a particular objective in accordance with strategy.
A. Tactic
B. Procedure
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
82
8. A sequence of activities to reach a point or to attain

that which is desired.
A. Tactic
B. Procedure
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
9. A product of prudence or wisdom in the management of
human affairs.
A. Tactic
B. Procedure
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
10.A rule of action for the rank and file to show them
and they are expected to obtain the desired effect.
A. Tactic
B. Procedure
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
Answer:
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. D

1. Set of procedure to meet varying degree of emergency
while at the same time providing continuing police coverage
of areas not affected by the emergency.
A. General Emergency Plan
B. Specific Emergency Plan
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
83
2. A sub-type of plan to meet unusual needs which is similar

to general emergency plan but it is basically to certain
specific situation.
A. General Emergency Plan
B. Specific Emergency Plan
C. Policy
D. Guidelines
3. It relates to plans which are strategic or long range
in application, it determine the organizations original
goals and strategy.
A. Strategic plan
B. Intermediate plan
C. Operational plan
4. It relates to plans which determine quantity and quality
efforts and accomplishment. It refers to the process of
determining the contribution on efforts that can make
or provide with allocated resources.
A. Strategic plan
C. Operational plan
5. It refers to the production of plans which determines the
schedule of special activity and are applicable from one
week to less than a year duration.
A. Strategic plan
C. Operational plan
6. It is the basic principle in planning, organizing, and
management of the PNP in support of the overall pursuit
of the PNP vision, mission, and strategic action plan of
the national objective.
A. Fundamental Doctrine
B. Operational Doctrine
C. Functional Doctrine
7. The principles and rules governing the planning, organization,
direction, and employment of the PNP forces in the accomplishment
of basic mission of maintenance of peace and order, crime prevention
84
and suppression and security and public safety operations.

8. This provides guidance for special activities of the PNP in the
broad field of interest such as personnel, intelligence, operations,
logistics, planning.
9. Doctrine formulated jointly by two or more bureau in order
to effect a certain operation with regard to public safety
and peace and order.
C. Complimentary Doctrine
D. Ethical Doctrine
10.It defines the fundamental principle governing the rules
of conduct, attitude, behavior and ethical norm of the PNP.
C. Complimentary Doctrine
D. Ethical Doctrine
Answer:
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. D

85
1. An organization is more effective if it enables the

individual to contribute to the organization.
B. Principle of Organizational Efficiency
C. The Scalar Principle
D. Functional Principle
2. Organizations structure is effective if it is structured
to aid the accomplishment of organizations objective with
minimum cost.
3. The vertical hierarchy of the organization which defines an
unbroken chain of scale of units from top to bottom
describing explicitly the flow of authority.
4. This implies a system of varied function arranged into a
workable pattern. The line organization refers to the direct
accomplishment of the objective. The staff refers to the line
organization which is an advisory or facilitative capacity.
5. The right to exercise, decide and command by virtue of rank
and position.
A. Authority
B. Doctrine
C. Discipline
6. It provides for the organizations objectives, it provides
the various actions, hence, policies, procedures, rules,
and regulation of the organization are based on the
statement of doctrines.
A. Authority
B. Doctrine
C. Discipline
86

7. It is imposed by command or self restraint to insure
supportive behavior.
A. Authority
B. Doctrine
C. Discipline
8. Procedures for coping with specific situations and locations.
A. Procedural Plan
B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan
D. Extra-Office Plan
9. Plans for the operation of special divisions like patrol,
detective, traffic, vice, and juvenile control division.
A. Procedural Plan
B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan
10. Standard operating procedures shall be planned to guide members
in routine and field operations and in some special operations.
A. Procedural Plan
B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan
Answer:
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. C
10. A
Notes:
1. Scalar Principle
a. Unity of Command
b. Span of Control
87
c. Delegation of Authority
d. Chain of Command
2. Five Approaches in Planning
a. Synoptic Planning
- feasibility study
- acceptability study
- cost effective analysis
b. Must and Wants analysis
c. Incremental Planning
d. Trans-active Planning
e. Advocacy Planning

1. Standard Operating procedures shall be planned to guide
members in routine and field operations and in some
special operations.
A. Policy/Procedural Plan
B. Operational Plan
C. Tactical Plan
2. Procedures for coping with specific situations at
known locations.
B. Operational Plan
C. Tactical Plan
3. Plans for the operation of special divisions like patrol,
detective, traffic, vice and juvenile control division.
B. Operational Plan
C. Tactical Plan
4. The active interest and participation of individual office
is so vital to the success of the integrated police programs
tha the integrated police shall continually seek to
motivate, promote and maintain an active public concern in
its affairs.
B. Operational Plan
C. Tactical Plan
88
5. It shall map out in advance all operations involved in the

organizations management of personnel and material and in
the procurement and disbursement of money.
B. Operational Plan
C. Management Plan
6. Forecasting future events and determining the most effective
future activities for the company.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Commanding
D. Coordinating
7. Consist of the ways in which the organizational structure
is established and how the authority and responsibility
are given to managers a tasked called delegation.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Commanding
D. Coordinating
8. Managers must supervise subordinates in their daily work, and
inspire them to achieve company goals. Likewise it is the
responsibility of managers to communicate company goals and
policies to subordinates.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Commanding
D. Coordinating
9. Concerned with activities designed to create a relationship
between all the organizations efforts and individual task.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Commanding
D. Coordinating
10. It is a manager's duty to observe and report deviations from
plans and objectives, and to make initiatives to correct
potential deviations.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Controlling
D. Coordinating
89
Answer:
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. D
10. C
Notes:
1. Types of Plans
a. Policy/Procedural Plan
b. Tactical plan
c. Operational Plan
d. Extra-Office Plan
e. Management Plan
2. Henry Fayol - (1841 - 1926) - concern was efficiency and
effectiveness of the entire organization characterized by
five specific functions.
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Commanding
d. Coordinating
e. Controlling
3. Five M of management
a. Manpower
b. Machine
c. Money
d. Means/Method
e. Material
Intelligence and Secret Service

Definition of Terms:
Intelligence Agency - is a government agency responsible for the collection,analysis or
exploitation of information and intelligence in support of law enforcement,national
90
security,defense and foreign policy objectives.

Intelligence Officer - is a person employed by an organization to collect,compile and analyze
information which is used to that organization.
Counter Intelligence - refers to effort made by intelligenceorganizations to prevent hostile or
enemy intelligence organization from successfully gathering and collecting intelligence against
them.
Human Intelligence - category of intelligence derived from information collected and provided
by human sources.
Dead Drop/Dead Letter Box - is a method of espionage trade craft used to pass items between 2
individuals using a secret location and thus not require to meet directly.
Live Drop - 2 persons meet to exchange items or information.
Dead Drop Spike - is a concealment device used to hide money,maps,documents,microfilm and
other items.
Cut-Out - is a mutually trusted intermediary,method or channel of communication,facilitating
the exchange of information between agents.
Espionage/Spying - involves a government or individual obtaining information that is
considered secret of confidential without the permission of the holder of the information.
Agent Handling - is the management of agents,principal agents and agent networks
by intelligence officers typically known as case officers.
Case Officer - is an intelligence officer who is trained specialist in the management of agents
and agent network.
Agent - acts on behalf of another whether individual,organization or foreign government, works
under the direction of a principal agent or case officer.
Cryptography - is the practice and study of techniques for secure communication in the
presence of third parties called adversaries.
Eaves Dropping - Is the act of secretly listening to the private conversation of others without
their consent.
Propaganda - is a form of communication that is aimed at influencing the attitude of a
community toward some cause or position.
Flip - apprehended criminals who turn informants.
91
Snitches - jail house informants.

Means of Information Gathering
1.Overt
2.Covert
Intelligence Cycle - is the process of developing unrefined data into polished intelligence for the
use of policy makers.
1. Direction - intelligence requirements are
determined by a decision maker to meet his/her
objective.
2. Collection - is the gathering of raw information
based on requirements.
3. Processing - converting the vast amount of
information collected into a form usable by
analyst.
4. Analysis - conversion of raw information into
intelligence. It includes:
(1) integrating
(2) evaluating
(3) analyzing data and preparing intelligence
product.
5. Dissemination - is the distribution of raw or
finished intelligence to the consumer whose needs
initiated the intelligence requirement.
6. Feedback - is received from the decision maker
and revised requirement issued.
Evaluation - systematic determination of merit, worth and significance of something or someone
using criteria against a set of standards.
Collation - is the assembly of written information into a standard order.
Crime Triangle
1. the offender
2. the victim
3. the location
Crime Intelligence - information compiled, analyzed and/or disseminated in an effort to
anticipate, prevent, or monitor criminal activity.
Strategic Intelligence - information concerning existing patterns or emerging trends of criminal
activity designed to assist in criminal apprehension and crime control strategies for both short
and long terminvestigative tools.
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Tactical Intelligence - information regarding a specific criminal event that can be used
immediately by operational units to further a criminalinvestigation plan tactical operations and
provide for officer safety.
Open Source - refers to any information that can be legitimately obtained e. free on
request, payment of a fee.
Source - the place or person from which information is obtained.
Intelligence Assessment - is the development of forecasts of behavior or
recommended courses of action to the leadership of an organization based on a wide range of
available information sources both overt and covert.
Intelligence Analysis - is the process of taking known information about situations and entities
of strategic, operational, or tactical importance, characterizing the known and with appropriate
statements of probability. the future actions in those situations and by those entities.
Cryptanalysis - from the Greek word Kryptos-hidden and Analyein-to loosen or to unite - is the
art of defeating cryptographic security systems and gaining access to the contents of encrypted
messages without being given the cryptographic key.
Intelligence and Secret Service Reviewer 1
1. Knowledge of a possible or actual enemy or area of operations

acquired by the collection,evaluation and interpretation of
military information.
A. Combat intelligence
B. Police Intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. Counter intelligence
2. Knowledge of the enemy,weather and the terrain that is used
in the planning and conduct of tactical operations.
B. Police intelligence
C. Military Intelligence
D. Counter-intelligence
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3. Activity pertains to all security control measures designed to

ensure the safeguarding of information against espionage,
personnel against subversion and installations or material
against sabotage.
B. Police intelligence
C. Military intelligence
D. Counter intelligence
4. Those which seek to conceal information from the enemy.
A. Passive counter intelligence measures
B. Active counter intelligence measures
C. Strategic intelligence
D. Tactical intelligence
5. Those that actively block the enemy's attempt to gain information
of enemy's effort to engage in sabotage or subversion.
A. Passive counter intelligence measures
B. Active counter intelligence measures
C. Strategic intelligence
D. Tactical intelligence
6. When the source of the information comes from a police
intelligence officer of long experience and extensive background,
the evaluation of reliability of information is labeled.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
7. When there is no adequate basis estimating the reliability of an
information,the evaluation of the reliability of the information is
labeled.
A. A
B. F
C. E
D. D
8. The current head of the PNP directorate for intelligence is
A. Catalino Cuy
B. Cipriano Querol Jr.
C. Lina Sarmiento
D. Angelito Pacia
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9. Knowledge in raw form is known as

A. Intelligence
B. Information
C. Awareness
D. Cognition
10.The resolving or separating of a thing into its component parts.
A. Analysis
B. Evaluation
C. Collation
D. Collection
Remember the ff: Intelligence and Secret Service

Methods of reporting information
A. Evaluation of reliability of information - indicated by a
letter as follows:
A - completely reliable
B - usually reliable - informant is of known integrity
C - fairly reliable
D - nor usually reliable
E - Unreliable
F - reliability not judge - no adequate basis estimating the
reliability of the source.
B. Evaluation of accuracy of information - indicated by
numerals as follows:
1
2
3
4
5
6
confirmed by other agencies

probably true
possibly true
doubtfully true
improbable
truth can not be judged
Answer
1.
2.
3.
4.
C
A
D
A
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5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
B
A
B
B
B
A

1. Ancillary materials that are included in a cover story or deception
operation to help convince the opposition or casual observers that
what they are observing is genuine.
A. Walk-in
B. Warming room
C. Window Observing
D. Window dressing
2. A surveillance team usually assigned to a specific target.
A. Window observer
B. Window dressing
C. Stake-out team
D. Watcher team
3. A location out of the weather where a surveillance team can
go to keep warm and wait for the target.
A. Warming room
B. Rest room
C. Station room
D. Waiting room
4. A defector who declares his intentions by walking into an official
installation, or otherwise making contact with an opposition g
government, and asking for political asylum or volunteering to work
in place. Also known as a volunteer.
A. Enemy traitor
B. Asylum seeker
C. Enemy defector
D. Walk-in
5. The methods developed by intelligence operatives to conduct
their operations.
A. Trade craft
B. Operational technique
C. Trade secret
D. Operational secret
6. It focuses on subject or operations and usually short term.
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A. Strategic intelligence
B. Counter intelligence
C. Tactical intelligence
D. Long-term intelligence
7. Concerns with the security of information,personnel,material
and installations.
8. Deals with political,economic,military capabilities and vulnerabilities
of all nations.
9. Tradecraft techniques for placing drops by tossing them while
on the move.
A. Tosses
B. Dropping
C. Throwing
D. Drops
10.A dead drop that will be retrieved if it is not picked up by the
intended recipient after a set time.
A. Picked drop
B. Timed drop
C. Abandoned drop
D. Recovered drop
You may want to read the ff: intelligence and secret service
A. Four Axioms of intelligence
1. Intelligence is crucial to intel security
2. Intelligence is crucial to all types of operations
3. Intelligence is the responsibility of all intelligence agencies
4. Intelligence of the government must be superior
to that of the enemy.
B. Intelligence - product resulting from the collection,evaluation
analysis,integration and the interpretation of all available
information.
- is a processed information.
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C. Data + analysis = Intelligence

D. Police intelligence - used in the preparation and execution of
police plans,polices and programs.
Answers: Intelligence and Secret Service
1. D
2. D
3. A
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. C
8. A
9. A
10. B
1. Technical air sampler sensors designed to sniff for hostile

substances or parties in a dark tunnel system.
A. Chemical sniffers
B.Tunnel sniffers
C. Dog sniffers
D. Air sniffers
2. A major electronic communications line, usually made up
of a bundle of cables.
A. Cable line
B. Trunk line
C. Telephone line
D. DSL
3. A counter-surveillance ploy in which more than one target car
or target officer is being followed and they suddenly go in
different directions, forcing the surveillance team to make
instant choices about whom to follow.
A. ABC technique
B. Star-burst maneuver
C. AC technique
D. Sudden change maneuver
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4. A chemical marking compound developed by the KGB to keep

tabs on the activities of a target officer. Also called METKA.
The compound is made of nitrophenyl pentadien (NPPD) and luminol.
A. Spy dust
B. Chemical dust
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Potassium nitrate
5. A ploy designed to deceive the observer into believing that an
operation has gone bad when, in fact, it has been put into
another compartment.
A. Burned
B. Deceiving
C. Spoofing
D. Misleading
6. The special disguise and deception tradecraft techniques developed
under Moscow rules to help the CIA penetrate the KGB's security
perimeter in Moscow.
A. Silver bullet
B. Golden bullet
C. Bronze bullet
D. Titanium bullet
7. Any form of clandestine tradecraft using a system of marks,
signs, or codes for signaling between operatives.
A. Ciphers
B. Signs
C. Signals
D. Code
8. Any tradecraft technique employing invisible messages hidden
in or on innocuous materials. This includes invisible inks and
microdots, among many other variations.
A. Secret writing
B. Secret message
C. Hidden message
D. Hidden writing
9. An apartment, hotel room, or other similar site considered
safe for use by operatives as a base of operations or for a
personal meeting.
A. Meeting place
B. Dead drop
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C. Drop
D. Safe house
10.When an operation goes bad and the agent is arrested.
A. Rolled up
B. Rolled down
C. Burned out
D. Burned down
Remember the ff: Intelligence and Secret Service

1. Sun Tzu - The Chinese general who wrote The Art of War
in about 400 b.c.
2. Smoking-bolt operation - A covert snatch operation in which
a special entry team breaks into an enemy installation and
steals a high-security device, like a code machine, leaving
nothing but the "smoking bolts."
3. Information - unprocessed information or raw data.
4. Intelligence information - Information gathered or received
which is of intelligence interests.
5. Intelligence community - It is an integrated and neatly
organized entity composed of units or agencies which have
intelligence interest and responsibilities.
6. Informant - is anyone who can furnish information.
7.Rolling car pickup - A clandestine car pickup executed so
smoothly that the car hardly stops at all and seems to
have kept moving forward.
8. Terms:
1. Wanted list - It is for crime suspects with warrant
of arrest.
2. Watch list - It is for those without warrant of arrest.
3. Target list - It is for organized crime groups.
4. PIR - Priority Intelligence requirement
5. OIR - Other intelligence requirements
6. SOR - Specific order request
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9. R.A. 8551 - Placed PNP as support to the AFP in

Counter insurgency operations thru intelligence gathering.
10.The intelligence cycle (PNP Directorate for Intelligence)
1. Directing
2. Collecting
3. Processing
4. Dissemination and use
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
B
B
B
B
C
A
C
A
D
A
Intelligence and Secret Service Definition of

Terms
2 Methods Of Collecting Information
1. Overt/Open overt info. Are obtained from open and easily available sources like
magazines, reports and files.
2. Covert/Close
3 Defined Objectives Of Police Intelligence
1. To assist the commander in the success of the team
2. Discover and Identify criminal activities
3. To assist in the apprehension of criminals
3 Types Of Channels In Special Communication Systems
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1. Regular
2. Secondary
3. Emergency
4 Phases/Steps of Informant Recruitment
1. Selection
2. Investigation
3. Approach
4. Testing
Area of Interest subject of information gathering (person,place,things or an activity)
Briefs the form in which the finished product of intelligence is presented to the commander in
the police department.
Bugging the placement of a hidden microphone in a particular room to obtain information.
Burned the agent was identified and known.
CIA established in 1946.
Ciples are fundamental guides to action, broad statement of truth from which others are
derived.
Classification/Types Of Police Intelligence
1. Strategic Intelligence
2. Counter Intelligence
3. Line Intelligence
Coding is the process of putting the codes and ciphers to plain text message.
Collate to bring together and compare the truthfulness of the information.
Collection to accumulate knowledge on a subject or area of interest.
Cooperative Members of the Community - a rich source of information on criminals, criminal
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activities and even subversive groups.

Criminal Syndicate it is a stable business with violence applied and directed at unwelcome
competitors.
Criminal World the social organization of criminals having its ownsocial classes.
Cryptoanalysis is the process of putting the plain text message to codes and cipher.
Cryptograph the art and science of making, devising, inventing, or protecting codes and cipher.
Counter Intelligence type of intelligence activity which deals with defending the organization
againsts it criminal activities.
Counter Intelligence Security Measures
1. Physical Security a system of barrier placed between the potential intruder and the
material to be protected.
2. Personnel Security includes all security measures designed to prevent unsuitable
individuals of doubtful loyalty from gaining access to classified matter,securing facilities
and to prevent theappointment, employment, or retention as employees of such
individuals.
3. Operational Security measures taken in conducting operations or action in a secure and
efficient manner.
4. Security Survey/Inspection conducted in order to assist the chief of office in
determining the security measures required to protect key installation from possible
sabotage, espionage,subversion and unauthorized disclosure of or access to classified
defense information or materials.
5. Community Security is the protection resulting from all measures designed to deny
unauthorized person information of value which may be derived from the possession and
study of communications or to mislead unauthorized persons and the interpretation of the
result of such study.
Counter Surveillance if a surveillance team is watched by the supervisor or a designated
unknown individual to know if the team is doing its job as planned or is being watched by
companions of the subject.
Covert Operation if the information is obtained without the knowledge of the person against
whom the information or document may be used or if the method or procurement is done not in
an open manner.
Detection of Criminal the primary purpose of police counter intelligence.
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Decipher to reconvert the cipher into plain text message.

Documentary Security Classifications
1. Top Secret
2. Secret
3. Confidential
4. Restricted
Encipher conversion of plain text message to ciphers.
Evaluation it is the critical appraisal of information as a basis for its subsequent interpretation
which includes determining the pertinence of information and the reliability of the source.
- to judge the information as to its truthfulness or importance.
Financial Gain the most common reason why an informer is giving information.
Frederick The Great father of organized military espionage.
Information are knowledge, data, news, opinion or the like transmitted from one person to
another.
Integrate to make the entire or all the information the subject matter.
Interpret to explain the meaning or to expand the information from the unknown to known.
Intelligence product resulting from the collecting information concerning an actual and
potential situation and condition relating to foreign activities and to foreign or enemy held areas.
- product resulting from collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and interpretation of
available information concerning area of interest.
Interpretation determining the significance of the information with respect to what is already
known and it draws conclusions as to the probable meaning of the evaluated information.
Kinds Of Surveillance
1. Surveillance of place
2. Tailing or shadowing
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3. Undercover investigation or Roping

Line Intelligence types of intelligence which is of immediate nature and necessary for more
effective police planning and operation.
Method of Casing
1. Personal Reconnaissance the most effective
2. Map Reading
3. Research Work
4. Operational Data Research
Military Intelligence it is an evaluated and interpreted information concerning an actual or
possible enemy or theater of operations including weather and terrain together with the
conclusions drawn therefrom.
Need To Know Principle in intelligence dissemination, even a ranking law enforcer who has no
business on the classified information is not furnished the report.
OB File identification, location, and knowing the intents of criminal syndicates, notorious
characters and even people with subversive desires must be made available for use.
Order Of Battle an intelligence document describing the identity, strength, command structure
and disposition of the enemy/criminals.
Organized crime it is the combination of two or more persons for the purpose of establishing
criminal activity.
Overt Operation if the information or document are procured openly with out regard as to
whether the subject of the investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose for which it is
being gathered.
Parker internal affairs is my defense and intelligence is my offensive arm.
Police Counter Intelligence it is the detection, prevention, or neutralization of any activity
inimical to the harmony and best interest of the police organization.
Police Intelligence an evaluated and interpreted information concerning organized crime and
other major police problems.
Reconnaissance to gather specific or detailed information at a particular time and place.
Roping undercover assignment, form of investigation in which the investigator assume a
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different and unofficial identity/cover story in order to obtain information.

Safe House a clandestine place where the intelligence agent and his superior meet.
Schulmoister Napoleon's secret military agent.
Security Inspection conducted in order to determine degree of compliance with established
security policies and procedures.
Stool Pidgeon an individual who sells information to different groups of law enforcers.
Strategic Intelligence intelligence which is primarily long range in nature with little or no
immediate practical value.
Sun Tzu he was the writer of the book Art of War.
Surveillance to gather general information over a wide area and takes a longer time frame.
Tactical Interrogation a process or method to obtain information from a captured enemy.
Walshingham protector of queen Elizabeth.
Wilhelm Von Stieber a CIA intelligence officer who spied for soviet union from 1985 1994,
he had perpetrated the costliest breach of security in the agency's history.
Industrial Security Management

RA no. 5487 - (as amended by PD no. 11) - Private security agency law.
Private Detective Agency - is any person who for hire or reward or on commission conducts or
carries on or holds himself out as conducting or carrying on a detective agency or detective
service.
Private Detective - any person who is not a member of a regular police agency or armed forces
who does detective work for hire,reward or commission.
PADPAO - Philippine Association of Detective and Protective Agency Operators.
Watchmen/Security Guard - person who offers or renders personal service to watch or secure
either residential or business establishment or both or any building,compound or area for hire or
compensation or as an employee thereof.
Security Agency - any person, association, partnership or corporation who recruits, trains,
muster ,furnishes, solicit individuals or business firms, private or government owned or
controlled corporation to engage his services or those of its watchmen.
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Who May Organize Security Agency

1. Any Filipino Citizen or a corporation, partnership or association.
2. With a minimum capital required by law.
In case of corporation, association, or partnership - must be 100 % owned and controlled

by Filipino citizen.
No person shall organize or have interest in more than one agency.
Qualification of an Operator or Manager of a Security Agency:

1. At least 25 years of age
2. College graduate and/or commissioned officer in the
inactive service of the AFP
3. Good moral character
4. No previous record of any conviction of any
crime/offense involving moral turpitude
5. Not suffering from any of the following
disqualifications:
1. dishonorably discharged or separate from the AFP
2. mentally incompetent
3. addicted to the use of narcotic drugs
4. habitual drunkard
An elective or appointive government employees who may be called upon on account of

the function of their respective offices in the implementation and enforcement of the
provision of RA 5487 and person related to such government employees by affinity or
consanguinity in the third civil degree shall not hold any interest, directly or indirectly in
any security guard agency.
Basic Qualification of a security Guard

1. Filipino citizen
2. High school graduate
3. Physically and mentally fit
4. Not less than 21 nor more than 50 years old
5. At least 5'4" in height
6. Not suffering from any disqualification under RA
5487
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Veterans shall be given priority in employment as security guard or private detective.
Person convicted of any crime involving moral turpitude shall not be employed as
security guard or private detective.
Private detective, detective agency, security guard, security agency must first obtain
license from the PNP.
Employees employed solely for clerical or manual work need not be licensed.
The license shall be displayed at all times in a conspicuous and suitable place in the
agency office.
The PNP shall exercise general supervision over the operation of all private detective and
security guard agencies.
The City/Municipal Mayors has the power as director of the City/Municipal civil defense
to deputize private detective and security guards to help maintain peace and order or
prevent or arrest law violators in case of emergency or in times of disaster or calamity.
They shall take orders from the Chief of Police for the duration of the fire, inundation,
earthquakes, riots or other emergency.
A security guard or security agency is entitled to possess firearms.
Firearm must not be higher than .45 caliber.
Agency is entitled to possess firearm not exceeding one firearm for every security guard
in its employ.
Security guard is entitled to possess not more than one riot gun or shotgun.
Firearms shall be carried by the security guard only during his tour of duty in proper
uniform within the compound of the establishment except when he escorts big amount of
cash or valuables in or out of said compound.
The Chief PNP shall prescribe the uniform, ornaments, equipment and paraphernalia to
be worn by the security guards.
Uniforms must be different from the PNP/AFP.
Salary of security guard - not lower than the minimum wage prescribe by law.
Limitations and Prohibitions on a Security Agency

1. No agency operating in the City of manila and
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suburbs may employ more than 1000 watchmen or

security guards.
2. No agency operating in other cities and first class
municipalities may employ more than 500 watchmen
or security guards.
3. No agency operating in municipalities other than
first class may employ more than 200 watchmen or
security guards.
4. No person, corporation, partnership or association
may organize more than one agency in any one city
or municipality.
5. No agency shall offer, render or accept services to
gambling dens or other illegal enterprises.
6. The extent of the security service being provided
by any security agency shall not go beyond the
whole compound or property of the person or
establishment requesting the security service
except when they escort big amount of cash.
Who can Issue rules and regulations to carry out the purpose of RA 5487? ans. the chief
PNP, in consultation with the Philippines Association of Detective and Protective Agency
Operators.
What are the penal provisions for violation of RA5487 or its implementing rules? ans.
1. Suspension, fine or cancellation of license to
operate with the forfeiture f bond filed with the
Chief PNP.
2. Imprisonment ranging from 1 to 4 years and fine, in
the discretion of the courts.
Physical security - describes the measures that are designed to deny access to unauthorized
personnel from physically accessing a building, facility, stored information and guidance on how
to design structures to resist potentially hostile acts.
- a system of barriers placed between a potential intruder and the material or
installation to be protected.
Security - the predictable state or condition which is free from harm, injury, destruction,
intimidation or fear. Freedom from fear or danger or defense against crime.
Physical Security System - a barrier or system of barriers placed between the potential intruder
and the matter to be protected. Protective device against hazards, threats, vulnerability and risks.
Purpose/Goals of Physical security
1. deter potential intruders - ex. warning signs, perimeter markings
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2. distinguish authorized from unauthorized people - ex. using pass card

3. delay or prevent intrusion attempt - ex. wall, door lock, safe
4. detect intrusion and monitor/record intruders - e. CCTV, intrusion alarm
5. trigger appropriate incident responses - ex. security guards
How to deter potential intruders
1. install warning signs 2. build fences
3. put vehicle barriers
4. install vehicle height restriction
5. implement restricted access point
6. install sight lighting and trenches
How to distinguish authorized from unauthorized people - access control at the
1. gates
2. doors
3. locks
How to detect intrusion
1. install alarms
2. install intrusion detection monitor
3. install video monitoring system - ex. cctv
Vigiles (in Rome) - origin of the watchmen although their principal duty was as a fire brigade.
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Notable security guards:

1.
Frank Wills - detected the Watergate burglars ultimately leading to the resignation of
US president Richard Nixon.
Target hardening - the reduction in criminal opportunity, generally through the use of physical
barriers, architectural design and enhanced security measures of a particular location.
Defensible Space - the range of mechanisms that combine to bring an environment under the
control of its residents.
Demography - the study of the characteristics of population groups.
Principles of Physical Security
1. An intruder must be able to acquire access to the
property in order to benefit.
2. The type of access necessary will depend upon a
number of variable factors and therefore may be
achieved in a number of ways.
3. There is no impenetrable barrier.
4. Security is built upon a system of defense in depth
resulting to accumulated delay time which may lead
to the apprehension of the intruder.
5. Each installation is different from the others.
2 Kinds of Barriers
1. Natural
2. Artificial
5 Types of Barriers
1. Human
2. Animal
3. Natural
4. Energy/Electrical/Electronic
5. Structural
3 Line of Defense
1. Perimeter Barrier - 1st line of defense.
2. Building Exterior - 2nd line of defense.
3. Interior Controls - 3rd line of defense.
Perimeter Barrier - main purpose is to deny or impede access or exit of unauthorized persons.
Other Purposes
1. It defines the boundary of the property to be
secured.
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2. It creates a physical and psychological deterrent

to unauthorized entry.
3. It delays intrusion, thus facilitating apprehension
of intruders.
4. It assists in a more efficient and economical
employment of guards.
5. It facilitates and improves the control of pedestrian
and vehicular traffic.
Components:
1. Types of Fencing (solid/full view)
2. The top guard
3. Types of Protective Alarms Systems
4. Types of Protective and Emergency Lighting's
5. CCTV Cameras and other Electronic Security
Systems/Energy Barriers
Building Exterior - Components:
1. walls
2. Doors
3. Windows
4. Roof Openings
5. Fire Escapes
6. Protective Alarm Systems
7. Protective and Emergency lightnings
Interior Controls - Components:
1. ID Systems
2. Protective Alarm Systems
3. Protective Emergency Lighting's
4. Communication Systems
6. Restricted Areas (storage areas/utilities)
7. Access Control
8. Key Control
9. Emergency Plans
10.Guards
Natural barriers or features - such as cliffs,ravines,and rivers which delay or make more
difficult to entry of intruders.
Barriers - any line of boundary and separation,natural or artificial,places,or serving as limitation
or obstruction.Anything that bars,keep out,obstruct progress,or prevents encroachment or
intrusion.
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Structural barriers - features constructed by man regardless of their original intent that tends to
delay the intruder.ex.walls,ceilings,locks,safe,windows.
Human barriers - guards,charges of quarters,office personnel,shop workers etc. who stand
between the intruder and the matter to be protected.
Animal barriers - usually guard dog.ex. trained German shepherds used as guards,goose,and
turkeys can also be included.
Energy barriers - usually electrical or electronics devices used to provide assistance to guard
personnel.ex. protective lightnings,antiintrusion devices.
Full view fence - it is designed primarily to prevent physical access between two
areas.Constructed in such a way that visual access is permitted through the fence.
Physical Security Features:
1.Natural barriers - natural terrains features must be
considered from the stand point of their values to
intruder as cover and concealment.Normally the
first type considered very often we have to accept
and work around them.
2.Fences
a. solid fence - one is constructed in such a way that
visual access through the fenced structure is
denied.
b. full view fence - constructed in such a way that
usual access is permitted through the fence.
Advantages of a full view fence
1. removing patrols and stationary guards are able to
keep area surrounding of the installation under
observation.
2. it does not create shadows which would provide
cover and concealment for the intruder.
Disadvantages of a full view fence
1. It allows visual access to the installation,its
personnel,its guard and its activities.
2. It allows the intruders to become familiar with the
movements and the time schedule of the guard
patrols thereafter allowing him to pick the time for
attempting penetration which would most
advantageous to the intruder.
Advantages of solid fence
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1. Denies visual access of the installation of the

intruder.
2. Denies the opportunity for the intruder to become
familiar with the personnel,activities and the time
schedule of the movements of guards in the
installations.
Disadvantages of solid fence
1. It prevents the guards from observing the area
around the installation.
2. It creates shadows which may be used by the
intruder for cover and concealment.
Minimum acceptable requirements for fence used security barriers
1. Height - 8 feet at a minimum.
2. Slack at the bottom - not to exceed 2 inches.If the
fences are not tight then it should extend even
closer to the ground.
3. Wooden fence post - minimum horizontal dimension
of 4X4 inches.
4.Steel fence post - the round type should at least be
2 inches at the smallest diameter.
5. Fence post - should be set in concrete or in firm
soil using commercial drive anchors to a depth of 3
feet and the maximum distance post is 10 feet.
6. Fence top (Top Guard) - there should be something
on the top of the fence to deter persons attempting
to go over fence.ex.use of barb wire overhang.The
arms holding the barbwire should be extended at 45
degree angle in the direction of the expected
approach.
7. Fence area - it should be declared trees and
vegetation and debris of other materials which
would offer concealment of the intruder or would
aid him in scaling the fence.
8. Fence Gates - gates should be limited to the no.
necessary for efficient and sage operation of the
installation.
9. Fence Opening - all opening in the fence in excess
of 96 inches must be locked barbed or screen in
such a way that they may be interlocked and
opened from the inside and only by selected
personnel.
10.Multiple fence - is used should at least be 10 feet
apart and the overhang on the top of the inner
fence should point inward.
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4 Basic functions that must be accomplished by the guard system

1. Detect intruders
2. Sound alarms
3. Apprehend unauthorized personnel
4. Identify authorized personnel
Personnel Control Identification
2 Types of identification
1. Personal Recognition - is the most effective
2. Artificial Identification - badges,passes etc.
System of Employment of Personnel Control Identification
1. Pass system - a method used by security to screen
visitors or person admitted into building premises.
2. Single pass or Badge system - the least expensive
and the least secure.
3. Group pass and Badge system - one ID for one
group.
4. Multiple pass system - separate pass is required for
access to various areas in need ex.color coding
5. Spot magnetized identification passes - a code may
be placed in the device and when passes through a
machine,the code on the device is read,if it contains
wrong code or no code at all,it will alarm.
6. Access list - it contains the names of authorized
persons or personnel and is checked against
identification cards such as drivers licenses,draft
registration etc.
Visitor control - the measures used would depend on the sensibility of the installation but could
include the following:
1. Escort - expensive but most secure
2. Time traveled - if there is a long delay or time lapse
between the departure and arrival,the visitor may
be required to show cause for the delay.
3. Visitors logs - should contain identifying data,
reasons of visit,time in and hour etc.
4. Visitors entrances - separate access for visitors and
separate for employees .
Utility and maintenance personnel - escort system could be used.If these people visit the
installations on a regular basis some of the systems previously could be used.
Package control - there should be provisions made to check packages being taken in and taken
out.
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Photography - extreme caution must be exercised in areas where classified information is

displayed to preclude unauthorized taking of pictures of the installation.
Vehicular control and identification
* Most common identification is for registering at the headquarters or gates and putting of sticker
on the windows of the vehicles.
* For visitors,the following systems are used:
1. Escort
2. Driver pool - the most secure but the most
expensive.In this system,car is driven by qualified
driver employed by the installation from the
entrance to its destination and after the
conclusion of the business of the visitor.car is
driven back to the installations entrance.
3. Time travel - used in less sensitive installations
4. Grid system - a very complicated system.The
installation is divided into grid ad squares like a
map.Each square is given a no. or letter
designation.The visitor is then given a map and
shown the route to take to his destination and
should not deviate from the prescribed route,
otherwise he could be stopped and questioned
by the guards.
5. Search of vehicles - sign should be put at the
entrance to the installation that any vehicle
entering is subject to search anytime.
Types of Protective Alarm Systems
1. Central station system - the control station is
located outside the installations.When the alarm is
sounded by a subscriber, the central station
notifies the police or protection agency.
2. Property system - the control system is located
inside the installations with its own firefighter,law
enforcer,ambulance,or bomb disposal unit.
3. Local alarm - the signalling is near the alarm itself.
When the intruder enters the installation,the alarm
goes off scaring the intruder.Purpose is just to
scare not to apprehend intruder.
4. Auxiliary alarm - the installation owned the
protective alarm with a unit in the nearest police
station so that in case of need,direct call is possible.
Kinds of Alarms
1. Intrusion alarm - any detecting devices using
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electric and their combinations to signal an alarm

when actuated.
2. Laser beam alarm - a laser emitter floods the wall or
fence with a beam so that when this beam is
disturbed by a physical object,an alarm is activated
3. Photocell alarm - an invisible or visible beam is
emitted and when disturbed,it activates an alarm
or mechanical device that opens a door or lift
movable barriers,activated by light.
Basic component of an alarm system
1. Annunciation - the heart of the system of the
detecting device and is the component that
activates the triggering unit.
2. Transmission - it transmit what is detected.
3. Triggering device - the one which emits those aural
or visual signals or both.
Security Survey - The detailed check and audit of what an installation or plant does not have in
relation to its protection from hazards.
Security Inspection - a precess where physical
examination is conducted to determine compliance with established security policies and
procedures as a result of security survey.
Purpose of security survey
1. To determine existing state or condition of security
2. To locate weaknesses and possible defense
3. To determine degree of protection required
Security hazards - an act or condition which result in a situation conductive to a breach of the
protection system and the subsequent loss or compromise of defense,information,company
secrets,or damage to property,personnel,or facilities.
Hazards - exposure to loss or injury.
Two General Categories of Security Hazards
1. Human hazard - caused by human
action.Ex.sabotage,pilferage,theft
2. Natural Hazard - caused by natural phenomena.
Types of Human Hazards
1. Human carelessness
2. Accident
3. Disaffection
4. Disloyalty
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5. Subversion
6. Sabotage
7. Espionage
8. Pilferage
9. Theft
10.Vandalism
Protective Security - measures taken by an installation or unit to protect against
sabotage,espionage or subversion and at the same time provide freedom of action in order to
provide the installation or unit with the necessary flexibility to accomplish its mission.
3 Aspects of Security
1. Physical Security - measures taken to prevent
physical access or entry to an installation.
2. Personnel Security - measures taken to insure
that only authorized personnel have access to
classified documents or information.
3. Document and Information Security
Types of Security
1. Physical Security - the most broad.
2. Industrial Security - security of business
installations and industrial plants.
3. VIP Security - protection of high level officers and
important personnel.
4. Bank Security - security of money and assets
stored or in transit.
5. Hotel Security - security for hotel guest and their
personal belongings and property as well as
properties of the hotel.
6. Document security - protection of vital records
from loss or unauthorized access.
7. Communication Security - measures to prevent or
delay the unauthorized person in gaining
information through communication.
Physical Security
* Protective barrier - is the physical type of security.
* Barrier - any structure or physical device capable
of restricting,deterring,delaying illegal access into
installations.
* Perimeter barrier - a medium or structures which
define the physical limits of an installation or area
to restrict or impede access thereto.Any physical
barrier used to supplement the protection of the
inside perimeter.
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* Inside Perimeter - a line of protection adjacent to

the protected area and passing through points of
possible entry into the area.ex. doors and windows
* Outside perimeter - a line of protection but some
what removed from the protected area.ex.fence
Types of Perimeter Barrier Opening
1. Gates and Doors
2. Elevators
3. Air intakes,Exhaust tunnels
4. Clear Zone
5. Top Guard
6. Guard Control Stations
7. Tower
8. Barrier maintenance
9. Sign and Notices
Protective Alarms - supplemental physical barriers in a form of sound that cause alarm installed
indoors or outdoors in an installation.
Types of Alarm Systems
1. Metallic foil wire
2. Ultrasonic Detection Device
3. Vibration Detection Device
4. Microwave Motion Detection Device
5. Audio Detection Device
6. Photo Electric or Electric Eye
Kinds of Alarms
1. Bill Traps
2. Foot Rail Activator
3. Knee or thigh button
4. Foot button
5. Double squeeze button
Protective Lighting - provide illumination on areas to be secured that adds psychological
deterrence.
Types of protective Lighting
1. Stationary luminary - consist of series of fixed
luminaries to flood given area continuously
Example: glare protection type
2. Standby Lighting - provides continuous lighting
through manual operations.
3. Movable Lighting - stationary or portable manually
operated search lights.
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4. Emergency Lighting - duplication of existing

lighting system that is utilized in the event of
electric failure.
Types of Lighting Equipment
1. Street lights - used in parking areas
2. Search Lights - highly focused incandescent lamps
used to pinpoint potential trouble spot.
3. Flood Lights - project light in a concentrated beam
used in boundaries and fences.
4. Fresnel Lights - wide beam units primarily used to
extend illumination in long horizontal strips to
protect approaches to perimeter barrier.
Protective Locks and Keys
1. Lock - a mechanical,hydraulic,electrical or
electronic device designed to prevent entry into a
building,room,container or hiding place and to
prevent the removal of items without the consent
of the owner.
2. Padlock - portable and detachable lock having or
sliding hasp that passes through a staple ring.
3. Peterman - A term used in England for lock picker,
safe cracker and penetrators of restricted areas
or rooms.
Types of Locks
1. Lever locks - used in cabinets,drawers,safe
deposit box.
2. Disc-Tumble Locks - used in car doors.
3. Warded Locks - offer little security,used only to
provide privacy.
4. Combination Locks
5. Card Operated Locks
6. Electromagnetic Locks
7. Code operated Locks
Types of Keys
1. Master Key - a special key of opening a series
locks.
2. Grand Master Key - a key that will open
everything in a system involving two or more
master key groups.
3. Change Key - a key to a single lock within a master
keyed system.
4. Sub Master Key - a key will open all lock with a
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particular area or grouping in a given facility.

Types of Security Cabinets
1. Safe
2. vault
3. File Room
Protective Cabinets - considered as the third line of defense against unauthorized persons.
Key Control - a system of controlling keys devised and regulated for disposal,storage and
withdrawals.
Close-in Security Formations
1. One Man Security - 360 degrees coverage.
2. Two Man Security - Each guard has 180 degrees
coverage.
3. Three Man Security - has equal areas of coverage
4. Four Man Security
5. Five Man Security - modified diamond.
6. Six Man Security - (defensive circle) too much
crowd requires arm lock formation.
Note: Six Man Security is the most effective.
Defensive In Depth Barriers
1. Outer Ring - securing sidewalks,in front of
quarters or offices,covering all entrances,front,
center,side and rear.
2. Middle Ring - security covering inside quarters,
office,residence,all stairways and elevators.
3. Inner Ring - immediately outside the high risk
personnel door or the one closest to the VIP.
Industrial Security Management Reviewer 1

1. The Private Security Agency Law is known as
A. R.A. No. 5487
B. R.A. No. 5467
C. R.A. No. 5476
D. R.A. No. 5478
2. Any Person who, for hire or reward or on commission, conducts
or carries on or holds himself or itself out as conducting or
carrying on a detective agency or detective service.
A. Private Security Guard
B. Private Detective
C. Private Security Agency
D. Private Detective Agency
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3. Any Person who is not a member of a regular police agency

or the Armed Forces of the Philippines who does detective
work for hire, reward or commission.
A. Private Detective Agency
C. Private Security Guard
D. Private Security Agency
4. Any Person who offers or renders personal service to
watch or secure either residential or business establishment
or both, or any building, compound or area including but not
limited to logging concession, agricultural, mining, or pasture
lands for hire or compensation or as an employee thereof is
known as
A. Security Guard
B. Private Security Agency
C. Private Detective Agency
5. Any Person, Association, Partnership or Corporation who
recruits, trains, muster, furnishes, solicits individuals or
business firms, private or government owned or controlled
corporations to engage his service or those of its watchmen
is known as
A. Private Security Guard
C. Private Detective Agency
6. Security Agency must be owned and controlled by how many
percentage of Filipino ownership?
A. 100% Filipino
B. 90% Filipino
C. 75% Filipino
D. 60% Filipino
7. How many security agency may a person organize or have an
interest in?
A. Four
B. Three
C. Two
D. One
8. The Operator or Manager of a security agency must be at
least
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A. 25 Years of Age
B. 30 Years of Age
C. 35 Years of Age
D. 40 Years of Age
9. The Operator or Manager of a security agency must be at
least a
A. Ph. D. Degree Holder
B. Master's Degree Holder
C. College Graduate
D. High School Graduate
10. An Operator or Manager of a security agency must have no
previous record of any conviction of any crime or offense
involving
A. Crimes Against Person
B. Crimes Against Property
C. Crimes Against Chastity
D. Moral Turpitude
Answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
A
D
B
A
D
A
D
A
C
D

1. One of the following is not a disqualification for an
operator or manager of a security agency
A. Mental Incompetent
B. Womanizer
C. Narcotic Drug Addict
D. Habitual Drunkard
2. One of the following is not a requirement to qualify as a
security guard
A. Filipino Citizen
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B. College Graduate
C. Physically and Mentally Fit
D. Not More Than 50 Years Old
3. A Security Guard must be at least
A. 5'2" in Height
B. 5'3" in Height
C. 5'4" in Height
D. 5'5" in Height
4. A Security Guard must not be less than
A. 19 Years of Age
B. 20 Years of Age
C. 21 Years of Age
D. 22 Years of Age
5. Who has the power to promulgate the rules and regulations
to carry out the provisions of R.A. No. 5487
A. The President of the Philippines
B. The DILG Secretary
C. The Chief of the PNP
D. The DOJ Secretary
6. Who has the power to exercise general supervision over
the operation of all Private Detective or Security Guard
Agencies?
A. LGU
B. DILG
C. PNP
D. DOJ
7. A Security Agency is entitled to possess firearm in a number
not exceeding
A. One Firearm For Every Two Security Guard
B. One Firearm For Every Three Security Guard
C. One Firearm For Every Four Security Guard
D. One Firearm For Every Five Security Guard
8. When may a security guard carry firearm outside of the
establishment he is guarding?
A. In Case of Emergency or Disaster
B. When Summoned By PNP Member For Help
C. When In Hot Pursuit Of A Thief Or Robber
D. When He Escorts Big Amount Of Cash
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9. A Security Agency operating in the City of Manila may

employ not more than
A. 500 Security Guards
B. 1000 Security Guards
C. 1500 Security Guards
D. 2000 Security Guards
10. A Security Agency operating in places other than
Metropolitan Manila, other cities and first class
municipalities may employ not more than
A. 500 Security Guards
B. 1000 Security Guards
C. 15000 Security Guards
D. 2000 Security Guards
Answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
B
B
C
C
C
C
A
D
B
A

1. A Security Agency operating in municipalities other than first
class may employ
A. Not more than 200 security guard
B. Not more than 300 security guard
C. Not more than 400 security guard
D. Not more than 500 security guard
2. How many security agency may a person, partnership, or
association organize in one city or municipality?
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A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
3. Security Agencies may offer or render services to the
following establishments except one
A. Night Clubs
B. Coffee Shops
C. Gambling Dens
D. Restaurants
4. The Chief PNP in issuing rules and regulations implementing
R.A. No. 5487 or the Private Security Agency Law must
consult with the
A. SAGSD
B. PADPAO
C. DILG
D. LGU
5. A Violation of the provisions of the private security agency
law may result in any of the following except one
A. Suspension
B. Fine
C. Cancellation of License To Operate
6. In a Security Agency, All of the following except one
should secure a license
A. Those employed to manage the agency
B. Those employed to supervise the security guards
C. Those employed to do investigative work
D. Those employed solely to do clerical work
7. A Written Order or Schedule issued by a superior officer
assigning the performance of private security or detective
services duties is known as
A. License To Operate
B. Designation Order
C. Duty Detail Order
D. License To Exercise Profession
8. In a Security Agency, Which of the following is allowed to
issue Duty Detail Order?
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A. The Branch Manager

B. The Security Guard Supervisor
C. The Most Senior Security Guard
D. The Chief Of The PNP SAGSD or Representative
9. New Applicants for a license to operate a Security Agency
shall be required to obtain a minimum capitalization of
A. 250,000 pesos
B. 500.000 pesos
C. 750,000 pesos
D. 1,000,000 pesos
10. No regular license shall be granted to any Private Security
Agency unless it has a minimum of
A. 200 licensed private security personnel in its employ
B. 300 licensed private security personnel in its employ
C. 500 licensed private security personnel in its employ
D. 1,000 license private security personnel in its employ
Answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
A
A
C
B
D
D
C
A
D
A

1. No Regular License shall be granted to any company guard
force unless it has a minimum of
A. 10 Licensed Guard Under Its Employ
B. 30 Licensed Guard Under Its Employ
C. 50 Licensed Guard Under Its Employ
D. 100 Licensed Guard Under Its Employ
2. No Regular License shall be granted to any private detective
agency unless it has a minimum of
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A. 10 Licensed Private Detective Under Its Employ

B. 30 Licensed Private Detective Under Its Employ
C. 50 Licensed Private Detective Under Its Employ
D. 100 Licensed Private detective Under Its Employ
3. What is the maximum number of private security personnel
that a private security agency may employ?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 2000
that a company guard force may employ?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 2000
that a private detective agency may employ?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 2000
6. A License to operate a private security agency shall be valid
for how many years?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
7. The Application for renewal of license to operate a private
security agency shall be filed at least how many days before
expiry date?
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
D. 60
8.Under the Implementing Rules and Regulations of R.A. No
5487, What is required to be displayed at all times in a
conspicuous and suitable place in a security agencies office
or headquarters?
A. Business Permit
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B. DTI Registration
C. Articles of Incorporation
D. License To Operate
9. Services of any security personnel may be terminated on
which of the following ground?
A. Expiration of Contract
B. Revocation of License To Exercise Profession
C. Physical and Mental Disability
D. All Of The Above
10. All of the following except one is a ground for the
termination of the services of any security personnel
A. Violation of Pertinent Rules Promulgated by the PNP
B. Conviction of a Crime Involving Moral Turpitude
C. Lost of Trust and Confidence
D. Filing of a Criminal Offense in the Prosecutor's Office
Answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
B
B
B
B
B
B
D
D
D
D
Industrial Security Management Definition Of Terms

3 Categories of Security Guards Belonging to the Blue Army
1. Agency Guards
2. Company Guards
3. Government Security Guards
Access List an authenticated list of personnel given to security allowing entry to a
compound or installation or a part thereof.
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Alarm a device that signals.

Clear Zone the exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter barrier of an
industrial compound to afford better observation and patrol movement.
Controlled Area an area near or adjacent to limited or exclusive areas where entry
is restricted.
Dry Run practical test or exercise of a plan.
Ducks in England, an owner to protect his compound used and they are not only
effective but cheap to maintain.
Duress Code a type of code system so that security personnel when forced by
armed men intending to enter an installation can give alarm by the use of certain
words in casual conversation with other personnel in the installation.
Exclusion Area a restricted area containing materials of security interest.
Human Made Hazards in an Industrial Firm
1. Pilferage
2. Sabotage
3. Arson
Key Control the management of keys in a plant, office or business organization to
prevent unauthorized access.
Main Office all agencies shall maintain a main office in their registered addresses.
PADPAO Philippine Association of Detective and Protective Agency Operator
PCSUSIA/SAGSD the government agency that issues licenses for private and
government security guard.
Perimeter Barrier the first line of physical defense of a building, compound, or
comples viewing from the outside.
Peterman a term used in England for lock pickers, safe crackers and penetrators of
restricted/prohibited areas.
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Private Detective any person who does detective work for hire, reward or
commission other than members of the PNP, NBI, AFP, BJMP and other law
enforcement agency of the government.
Private Detective Qualifications in addition to those prescribed for a security
guard.
1. Holder of a Baccalaureate degree or Bachelor of Laws

2. Holder of a degree of Bachelor of Science in Criminology
3. Gaduate of a criminal investigation course offered by the PNP.NBI or
any police training school or detective training with
authorized/recognized training center.
4. Advance ROTC/CMT graduate
Private Security Agency Law RA 5487
Relative Criticality of Operation the importance of an establishment with reference
to the national economy and security.
Relative Vulnerability the susceptability of a plant or establishment to damage,
loss, or destruction of operation due to various hazards.
Restricted Area if access is limited only to the authorized.
Safe a metallic container used for the safekeeping of documents or other small
items in an office or installation.
SAGSD Security Agency in Guard Supervisory Division
Security Guard one who is a holder of a security guard license duly issued by the
PNP
Security Guard Qualifications
1. Filipino Citizen
2. High School Graduate
3. Physically and Mentally Fit
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4. At least 18 yrs. Old but not more than 50 yrs. Old

5. Has undergone pre-licensing training course
6. Must not possess any of the disqualification for operator or manager.
Security Service Contract agreement/contract between the agency and client
stipulating among other things the money to be paid by the client and salary of
individual security guard.
Security Survey also known as security audit, risk assessment, and vulnerability
assessment.
Top Guard this is an additional outwardly inclined structure usually barbed wires
placed above a vertical fence to increase physical protection from intruders of a
certain area.
Vault a heavily constructed container usually part of a building structure used for
keeping and protecting cash and documents.
Victimology a special study concerned with what makes an individual a victim of
crime.
Law Enforcement Administration Review Questions

1. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service
A.Clientele
B.Purpose
C.Time
D. Process
Answer: C
2. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of
policemen in busy and crime prone areas. This is called
A. patrol deployment program
B. roving patrol program
C. patrol and visibility program
D. police patrol program
Answer: C
3. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence
with the rank of:
A. Senior Police Officer I
B. Inspector
C. Police Officer III
D. Senior Inspector
Answer: B
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4. In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those

in Divisoria, police patrol is very necessary. Since there
are several types of patrol, which of the following will you
recommend:
A. Horse patrol
B. Mobile patrol
C. Foot patrol
D. Helicopter patrol
Answer: C
5. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation,
analysis, and interpretation of all available information which
concerns one or more aspects of criminal activity and which is
immediately or potentially significant to police planning.
A. Investigation
B. Information
C. Data
D. intelligence
Answer: D
6. These are work programs of line divisions which related to
the nature and extent of the workload and the availability
of resources.
A. administrative plan
B. operational plan
C. strategic plan
D. tactical plan
Answer: B
7. It is the premier educational institution for the police,
fire and jail personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy
B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Philippine College of Criminology
D. Philippine Public Safety College
Answer: D
8. A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consist of
A. a driver and intelligence agent
B. a driver and traffic man
C. a driver and a recorder
D. a driver, recorder and supervisor
Answer: D
9. An industrial complex must establish its first line of
physical defense. It must have
A. the building itself
B. perimeter barriers
C. communication barriers
D. window barriers
Answer:B
10. All of the following are members of the Peoples Law
Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:
133
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order

Council from among the respected members of the
community.
B. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality
concerned chosen by the association of the
Barangay Captains.
C. Any member of the Sangguniang
Panglungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated bar of the
Philippines (IBP)
Answer: D
11. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its
suitability for a particular operational purpose.
A. Inspection
B. Surveillance
C. Survey
D. Casing
Answer: C
12. In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the primary
considerations in the
A. two-party system
B. evaluation system
C. promotional system
D. spoils system
Answer: C
13. In the de-briefing, the intelligence agent is asked to discuss
which of the following:
A. his educational profile and schools attended
B. his personal circumstances such as his age, religious
affiliation, address, etc.
C. his political inclination and/or party affiliation
D. his observations and experiences in the intelligence
Answer: D
14. It is a natural or man-made structure or physical device which
is capable of restricting, determine, or delaying illegal access to
an installation.
A. alarm
B. wall
C. barrier
D. hazard
Answer: C
15. What form of intelligence is involved when information is
obtained without the knowledge of the person against whom
the information or documents may be used, or if the
information is clandestinely acquired?
134
A. covert
B. overt
C. active
D. underground
Answer: A
16. The provincial Governor shall choose the provincial Director

from a list of ___________ eligible recommended by the
Regional Director, preferable from the same province, city,
municipality.
A. three (3)
B. five (5)
C. four (4)
D. Two (2)
Answer: A
17. Republic Act 6975 provides that on the average nationwide,
the manning levels of the PNP shall be approximately in
accordance with a police-to-population ratio of:
A. one (1) policeman for every seven hundred (700)
inhabitants.
B. one (1) policeman for every one thousand five hundred
(1,500) C.inhabitants.
C. one (1) policeman for every five hundred (500)
inhabitants.
D. one (1) policeman for every one thousand (1,000)
inhabitants.
Answer: C
18. In disaster control operations, there is a need to establish a
______where telephones or any means of communication
shall
A.ensure open lines of communication.
B.command post
C.operations center
D.field room
Answer:B
19. Registration of a security agency must be done at the______.
A.Securities and Exchange Commission
B.National Police Commission
C.Department of National Defense
D.PNP Criminal Investigation Group
Answer:D
20. The cheapest form of police patrol.
A. Bicycle Patrol
B. Foot Patrol
C. Motorcycle Patrol
D. Helicopter Patrol
Answer: B
21. The budget is a _________________ in terms of expenditure
135
requirements.
A.tactical plan
B.financial plan
C.work plan
D.control plan
Answer: B
22. The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while
the investigator conducting the surveillance is:
A.rabbit
B.surveillant
C.traffic enforcement
D.patrol
Answer: A
23. It is a police function which serves as the backbone of the
police service. In all types of police stations, there is a specific
unit assigned to undertake this function in view of its
importance.
A.vice control
B.criminal investigation
C.traffic management
D.patrol
Answer: D
24. It is the weakest link in security chain.
A.managers
B.Barriers
C.Personnel
D.inspections
Answer:
25. Which of the following is considered as the most important

factor in formulating an effective patrol strategy?
A.training of station commander
B.adequacy of resources of the police station
C.rank of the patrol commander
D.salary rates of police personnel
Answer: B
26. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers
over errant police members?
A.District Director
B.Provincial Director
C.Chief of Police
D.Chief, PNP
Answer: D
27. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. You dont
have enough men to cover all the patrol beats. Which of the
following will you implement?
A. assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol
136
B.
C.
assign mobile patrols only in strategic places

maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait
for calls for police assistance
D. assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats
but assign a roving mobile patrol to cover beats which
are not covered by foot patrol
Answer: B
28. The father of organized military espionage was:
A. Akbar
B. Alexander the Great
C. Genghis Khan
D. Frederick the Great
Answer: D
29. Which of the following is the most common reason why informer
can give information to the police?
A.wants to be known to the policeman
B.monetary reward
C.as a good citizen
D.revenge
Answer: B
30. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:
A. establish objectives and standards
B. count the number of supervisor
C. require completed work
D. define authority and responsibility
Answer: C
31. What administrative support unit conducts identification and
evaluation of physical evidences related to crimes, with
emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical
nature.
A. Logistics Service
B. Crime Laboratory
C. Communication and Electronic service
D. Finance Center
Answer: B
32. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the
agencys mission are ________.
A. staff
B. supervision
C. management
D. line
Answer: D
33. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the
investigation is conducting surveillance on him, the latter is:
A. cut out
B. sold out
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C. burnt out
D. get out
Answer: C
34. Small alley like those in the squatters area of Tondo can be
best penetrated by the police through:
A. foot patrol
B. mobile patrol
C. highway patrol
D. helicopter patrol
Answer: A
35. Some of the instructions in foot surveillance are the following,
EXCEPT
A. stop quickly, look behind
B. drop paper, never mind what happens to the paper
C. window shop, watch reflection
D. retrace steps
Answer: B
36. On many occasions, the bulk of the most valuable information
comes from:
A. business world
B. newspaper clippings
C. an underworld informant
D. communications media
Answer: B
37. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses and
graduates of forensic sciences can enter the police service as
officers through:
A. regular promotion
B. commissionship
C. lateral entry
D. attrition
Answer: C
38. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a
municipality. He wants his subordinates to be drawn closer to
the people in the different barangays. He should adopt which
of the following projects?
A. COPS on the blocks
B. Oplan Bakal
C. Oplan Sandugo
D. Complan Pagbabago
Answer: A
39. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can
prepare a comprehensive security program for his industrial
plan?
A. security conference
B. security check
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C. security survey
D. security education
Answer: C
40. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait
rather than upon high-visibility patrol techniques.
A. low-visibility patrol
B. directed deterrent patrol
C. decoy patrol
D. high-visibility patrol
Answer: A
41. It enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety
of motorists and pedestrians and attain an orderly traffic.
A. Civil Relations Unit
B. Traffic Operations Center
C. Traffic Management Command
D. Aviation Security Command
Answer: C
42. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator
merely uses his different senses.
A. observation
B. casing
C. research
D. interrogation
Answer: A
43. In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed,
EXCEPT
A. never meet subject face to face
B. avoid eye contact
C. recognize fellow agent
D. if burnt out, drop subject
Answer: C
44. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. PO1
Santos Reyes is standing a few meters from Maria.The thiefs
desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the police
officer but the _______________ for successful theft is.
A. ambition
B. feeling
C. intention
D. opportunity
Answer: A
45. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are
automatically appointed to the rank of:
A. Senior Superintendent
B. Inspector
C. Senior Police Officer 1
D. Superintendent
Answer: C
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46. PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of

the:
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine
Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records
Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
Answer: C
47. One way of extending the power of police observation is to get
information from persons within the vicinity.In the police work,
this is called:
A. data gathering
B. field inquiry
C. interrogation
D. interview
Answer: B
48. Dogs have an acute sense of _______________ thus, their
utilization in tracking down lost persons or illegal drugs.
A. smell
B. hearing
C. eating
D. drinking
Answer: A
49. Intelligence on _________________ makes heavy use of
geographic information because law enforcement officials must
know exact locations to interdict the flow of drugs.
A. Logistics
B. Human Cargo Trafficking
C. Narcotics Trafficking
D. Economic resources
Answer: C
50. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and
search-and-rescue duties?
A. motorcycle
B. helicopter
C. patrol car
D. bicycle
Answer: B
51. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator
tails or follows the person or vehicle.
A. research
B. undercover operation
C. casing
D. surveillance
Answer: C
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52. This is a person who does detective work for hire, reward or
commission, other than members of the AFP, BJMP, provincial
guards, PNP or any law enforcement agency of the
government.
A. Secret Agent
B. Tiktik
C. Private detective
D. Undercover
Answer: C
53. The uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles,
honesty and freedom from moral delinquencies is referred to as
A. integrity
B. loyalty
C. discretion
D. moral
Answer: A
54. Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching
the end of your beat and turning right after reaching the other
end of the road and again turning right until you completed
the cycle by reaching back to your origin of patrolling.What
patrol pattern have you applied?
A. clockwise
B. straightway
C. counter clockwise
D. free-wheeling
Answer: A
55. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the
opportunity to apprehend criminals by soothing them and letting
them believe that their crimes will not be detected?
A. low profile theory
B. high visibility
C. theory of omnipresence
D. team policing
Answer: A
56. Without air force capability, patrol operation that covers large
park areas, grassy fields or wooded areas requires the use of
A. bike patrol
B. horse patrol
C. marine patrol
D. helicopter patrol
Answer: B
57. Which of the following refers to the long range planning?
A. Intermediate
B. Strategic
C. Medium
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D.
short
Answer: B
58. The operational plan which is designed to met everyday or

year round needs is called
A. meeting unusual needs
B. extra office
C. regular operating programs
D. special operating programs
Answer: C
59. Which of the following is the oldest type of patrol?
A. horse
B. foot
C. canine
D. police
Answer: B
60. The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called:
A. demolition
B. squadron
C. eviction
D. tear down
Answer: C
61. Which of the following is not a commissioned officer?
A. Inspector
B. senior superintendent
C. asst. chief
D. chief superintend
Answer: C
62. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the
word credibility?
A. ability
B. capacity
C. believability
D. vulnerability
Answer: C
63. Which of the following best defines the word self-reliant?
A. observation
B. crime prevention
C. called for service
D. criminal apprehension
Answer: C
64. All but one are the primarily line operation in police organization
A. patrol
B. records
C. investigation
D. traffic
Answer: C
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65. Criminals can hear the sound of the helicopter coming and so
element of surprise is lost which is one of the ________
of air patrol:
A. advantages
B. features
C. disadvantages
D. import
Answer: C
66. What is the patrol used to locate prowlers, burglars hiding in
large buildings or stores, and the control of unruly crowds and
riots?
A. foot
B. horse
C. bicycle
D. dog
.
Answer: D
67. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization
under the DILG?
A. R.A. 5487
B. R.A. 8551
C. R.A. 1174
D. R.A. 6975
Answer: D
68. Who is the most important officer in the police organization?
A. investigator
B. patrol officer
C. traffic officer
D. The Chief of Police
Answer: B
69. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?
A. trumpet
B. horn
C. radio
D. siren
Answer: A
70. What type of cover uses actual or true background?
A. artificial
B. multiple cover
C. natural
D. cover within a cover
Answer: C
71. What is the principle of organization suggesting that
communication should ordinarily go upward and downward
through establish channels in the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command
B. Span of Control
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C. Unity of Command
D. Delegation of Authority
Answer: A
72. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of
the police service?
A. 15 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 20 years
Answer: D
73. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having
qualified as such,are automatically deputized as representatives
of the
A. NAPOLCOM
B. DND
C. PLEB
D. none of these
Answer: A
74. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and
control the Philippine National Police.
A. DILG
B. DND
C. NAPOLCOM
D. DFA
Answer: C
75. It is the central receiving entity for any citizens complaint
against the members and officers of the PNP.
A. DILG
B. NAPOLCOM
C. PLEB
D. IAS
Answer: C
76. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any
act or omission of his subordinates in relation to the
performance of their official duties, we are referring to:
A. chain of command
B. delegation of responsibility
C. Command responsibility
D. span of control
Answer: C
77. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the
community in the maintenance of peace and order by police
officers.
A. Integrated Police System
B. Comparative Police System
C. Police Visibility
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D.
Community Oriented Policing System (COPS)

Answer: D
78. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for

accomplishing group objective. Also, no one should exercise all
the authority for making decisions.This refers to
A. chain of command
B. command responsibility
C. unity of command
D. delegation of authority
Answer: D
79. Under RA 6975, a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay
equivalent to how many percent (%) of his monthly basic salary
for every five years of service, to be reckoned from the date of
his original appointment in the police, fire, jail or other allied
services?
A. 2 percent
B. 5 percent
C. 10 percent
D. 15 percent
Answer: C
80. This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively
engaged in the performance of his duty.
A. off duty
B. off limits
C. on call
D. on duty
Answer: D
81. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of
performing his police duties in consequence of an offense and
violation of rules and regulations.
A. dismissal
B. restriction
C. suspension
D. reprimand
Answer: C
82. The credential extended by the Civil Service
Commission/National Police Commission for the purpose of
conferring status for permanent appointment in the police
service.
A. police credibility
B. police visibility
C. Criminology Board Examination
D. police patrol examination
E. police eligibility
Answer: E
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83. In the history of our police force, who was the first Director
General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)?
A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
B. Gen. Raul Imperial
C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
Answer: A
84. The premier educational institution for the training, human
resource development and continuing education of all the
personnel of BJMP, BFP and PNP.
A. PNPA
B. PCCR
C. PNTC
D. PPSC
Answer: D
85. Under the law,the city/municipal jail warden should have a rank
of __.
A. Inspector
B. Chef Inspector
C. Senior Inspector
D. Superintendent
Answer: C
86. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
Answer: C
87. It exercise supervision and control over the provincial jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
D. Provincial Government
Answer: D
88. The required rank for the head of the Fire Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
Answer: C
89. It exercise supervision and control over all city and municipal
jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
D. Local Government
Answer: A
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90. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the

PNP
A. 25%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
Answer: C
91. Which of the following administers and attends to cases
involving crimes against chastity?
A. CIDG
B. DSWD
C. Womens Desk
D. Homicide Division
Answer: C
92. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM
representatives to exercise supervision and control over PNP
units.
A. Chief of Police
B. Judges
C. Local Government Executives
D. Fiscals
Answer: C
93. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial
Director the transfer, reassignment of PNP members outside
of their town residences.
A. Regional Directors
B. Priests
C. Chiefs of Police
D. Mayors
Answer: D
94. The head of a local peace and order council is the __.
A. judge
B. chief of police
C. mayor
D. governor
Answer: C
95. The utilization of units or elements, of the PNP for the
purpose of protection of lives and properties, enforcement of
laws and maintenance of peace and order.
A. employment
B. deployment
C. assignment
D. designation
Answer: A
96. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or
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units of the PNP.

A. employment
B. deployment
C. assignment
D. designation
Answer: B
97. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the
PNP units during elections.
A. NBI
B. Ombusdman
C. COMELEC
D. DILG
Answer: C
98. The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may
recommend for Provincial Director to the governor is __.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
Answer: B
99. Who is the current Chief of the PNP?
A. Nicanor Bartome
B. Nicanor Bartomeo
C. Nick Bartolome
D. Nicanor Bartolome
Answer: C
100. The current PNP deputy director General for Administration is

A. Arturo Cacdac Jr.
B. Emilito Sarmiento
C. Rommel Heredia
D. Alexander Roldan
Answer: A
101. Registration of a security agency as a corporation must be
processed at what particular government agency.
A. PNP SAGSD
B. NAPOLCOM
C. DND
D. SEC
Answer: D
102. Minimum age requirement for security manager or operator of
a security agency.
A. 25 years old
B. 30 years old
C. 35 years old
D. 40 years old
Answer: A
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103. He exercises the power to revoke for cause licenses issued to

security guards.
A. Chief PNP
B. DILG Usec
C. NAPOLCOM chairman
D. DILG Secretary
Answer: A
104. Refers to a natural or man made structure which is capable of
delaying illegal access to facility.
A. Wall
B. Fence
C. Barriers
D. Beach fronts
Answer: C
105. It refers to means and ways that personnel and employees
making them security conscious.
A. Security Promotion
B. Security Education
C. Security Investigation
D. Security Seminar
Answer: B
106. Industrial management must establish the first line of physical
defense,it refers to
A. Perimeter barriers
B. The building itself
C. Door,Locks,Window barriers
D. Entry points where security guards are located
Answer: A
107. Physical security is a system of barriers placed between the
potential intruder and the object matter to be protected.As
criminologists,this is simply a denial of
A. Opportunity to commit the offense
B. Opportunity to the object of protection
C. Access to the object of protection
D. Criminal instinct to surface in the potential offender Answer: C
108. Weakest link in the security chain.
A. Security Guards
B. Manager
C. Barriers
D. Personnel
Answer: D
109. Perimeter barriers,protective lighting and ______ system are

known in industrial security as physical security.
A. Guarding
B. Reporting
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C. Relieving
D. Accounting
Answer: A
110. This is an additional outward inclined fixed structure usually

barbed wires placed above a vertical fence to increase
physical protection from intruders of a certain area,this is
known as
A. Cellar Guard
B. Tower Guard
C. Top Guard
D. Top Tower
Answer: C
111. The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter
barrier of an industrial compound to afford better observation
and patrol movement is known as
A. Protective zone
B. Clear zone
C. Twilight zone
D. Patrol lane zone
Answer: B
112. Protective guarding in a compound can be done by the use of
electronic hardware,human guards and even animals.In
England,an owner to protect his compound used this and they
are not only effective but also the cheapest to maintain.This
man is using
A. Doberman
B. Tame Tigers
C. Geese
D. Duck
Answer: C
113. The government agency that issues licenses for private and
government security guard is
A. PNP SOSIA
B. Mayors office
C. PNP FEO
D. PNP SAGSD
Answer: D
114. If access is limited only to unauthorized personnel,this
particular place is referred to as
A. Compromise area
B. Restricted area
C. Danger area
D. Exclusive area
Answer: B
115. First measure undertaking before a comprehensive security
program for an industrial plan could be developed.
150
A. Security education
B. Security check
C. Security survey
D. Security Inspection
Answer: C
116. A security of a plant or industrial firm is also known by other

terms except
A. Robbery evaluation
B. Vulnerability
C. Risk Assessment
D. Security Audit
Answer: B
117. Today there are 3 categories of security guards belonging to
the blue army.
A. Government security guards
B. Company guards
C. Agency guards
D. Body guards
Answer: D
118. Whether to put up its own security guard organic to the firm
or hire contractual agency guards have their individual merits
and disadvantages.To determine which type of guarding
system an industrial firm will require management must consult
A. A security consultant not connected to or owning a
security agency
B. A military intelligence officer
C. A police officer
D. A security agency owner
Answer: A
119. As a security officer,you can not prevent nor protect natural
hazards like storm,earthquakes,floods and the like.In order to
reduce the disastrous effects of these natural hazards you
will
A. Call PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming
B. Alert your guards when hazards occur
C. Not take any concern of such hazards
D. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan
for these hazards for the firm
Answer: D
120. Practical exercise or test of a plan or activity to determine its
effectiveness is called
A. Sham drill
B. Fire drill
C. Dry run
D. Evacuation plan
Answer: C
151
121. The main reason for a personnel security investigation is

A. To weed out undesirable employees
B. To check loyalty of employees to the organization
C. To determine the character and reputation of certain
employees secretly tagged as risks.
D. Preclude assignment to sensitive positions for those
who are security risks.
Answer: D
122. In an industrial firm there is a need for document security.As
security officer,you can advice management on this aspect
although this is not totally your assigned work.Document
security is not a protection of vital records from
A. Authorized handlers
B. Theft or loss
C. Compromise or destruction
D. Unauthorized access
Answer: A
123. As a security chief of an industrial firm,inventory shows that
pilferage is rampant in the warehouses.What will be your
choice of action
A. To resign if you have failed your job
B. Deploy intelligence men in pilferage prone areas to
catch the culprit
C. Prepare your protective plans and confer with
management for their immediate implementation
D. Tighten checking at exists of vehicles of the
compound/complex
Answer: B
124. There are many types of electronic and electric protective
devices available for security buildings,storehouses and
compounds.One of the ff: is true
A. Electronics/electrical devices provide total protection
for the place to be safeguarded
B. Types of alarms needed can best be given by the
dealers of said devices
C. Each building or compound requires particular
electronic/electrical protective devices
D. Electronic/electrical devices eliminate human guards
Answer: C
125. The management of keys used in plant office or business
organization to prevent unauthorized access is referred to as
A. Security key control
B. Lock control
C. key control
D. Key management
Answer: C
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126. It is defined as system of barriers placed between the matters

protected and the potential intruder
A. Computer security
B. Personnel security
C. Document security
D. Physical security
Answer: D
127. This type of alarm system utilizes a station located outside
the compound
A. Auxiliary system
B. Proprietary system
C. Central alarm system
D. Local alarm system
Answer: C
128. It is installed as part of the building which holds up to 10,000
cubic meters of essential items.At least 12 ft. in height with
enough ventilation and fire proof of at least one hour.
A. Protective cabinet
B. File room
C. Vault
D. Safe
Answer: B
129. It is the susceptibility of a plant or establishment to
damage,loss or disruption of operations due to various
hazards.
A. Risk analysis
B. Risk assessment
C. Relative vulnerability
D. Relative criticality
Answer: C
130. It refers to the importance of the establishment with
reference to the national economy and security.
A. Risk analysis
B. Relative vulnerability
C. Risk assessment
D. Relative criticality
Answer: D
131. The association of all licensed security agencies operators
A. POAPAD
B. PADPAO
C. PODPAO
D. PAOPAD
Answer: B
132.Who among below can own or operate security agency?
A. A Filipino citizen
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B. Anyone provided he knows the job

C. An alien but living in the Philippines
D. All of them
Answer: A
133. A licensed issued to operate security agency or company
forces.
A. Business license
B. License to engage in business
C. License to operate
D. All of them
Answer: C
134. R.A. No. 5487 governs the operation of
A. Private detective
B. Company security
C. Private security forces/agencies
D. All of them
Answer: D
135. A fact-finding prove to determine a plant adequacy and

deficiency all aspects of security with the corresponding
recommendation.
A. Security audit
B. Security survey
C. Security inquiry
D. Security operations
Answer: B
136. Barrier which includes but not limited to wall,fences,grill etc.
A. Structural barriers
B. Man made barriers
C. Physical barriers
D. Natural barriers
Answer: B
137. One who steals due to his inability to resist the unexpected
opportunity and has little fear of detection.
A. Systematic
B. Outsider
C. Casual
D. Insider
Answer: C
138. A barrier which includes but not limited to mountains, cliffs,
ravines, cliffs, etc.
A. Energy
B. Human
C. Natural
D. Animals
Answer: C
139. Issued by the security guard for personnel to be admitted to
154
the company.
A. Duress code
B. Pass system
C. ID
D. Access list
Answer: B
140. In a close-in security formations, a one man security covers

A. 360 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 90 degrees
Answer: A
141. A mechanical device of supplying water which can be manual
or motor driven.
A. Stand pipe
B. Fire extinguisher
C. Fire hydrant
D. Fire pump
Answer: A
142.Intrusion alarm devices are designed to ______ and not
prevent criminals from trespassing and should be used normally
as an independent adjunct and not a replacement of the
human guard forces.
A. Detect
B. Deterred
C. Provide
D. Impeded
Answer: A
143. An authenticated list of personnel given to security allowing
entry to compound or installation or part thereof.
A. Pass system
B. ID
C. Access list
D. Duress code
Answer: C
144. The act or condition affecting the safe operation of the
facility caused by human action,accidental or intentional.It
includes sabotage,espionage,pilferage and
theft,disloyalty,disaffection and subversive activities.
A. Electronic hazard
B. natural hazard
C. Artificial hazard
D. Human hazard
Answer: D
145. Example of the Security Communication system.
A. Telephone
155
B. Paging system
C. Radio
D. All of them
Answer: D
146. The revised rules and regulations governing the organization

and operation of private detective and private security
agencies and company security forces throughout the
country.
A. Private security law
B. International law
C. Private law
D. Security law
Answer: A
147. A metallic container used for the safekeeping of documents
or small items in an office or installation.
A. Steel cabinet
B. Drawer
C. Basket
D. Safe
Answer: D
148. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistant container
usually a part of the building structure used to keep and
protect cash,document and negotiable instruments.
A. Basket
B. Vault
C. Steel cabinet
D. Concrete coffin
Answer: B
149. Steal or plastic pipes located in the building from the lowest
to the top floor with water under pressure for use in case of
fire.
A. Lowering pipe
B. Wet pipe
C. Top pipe
D. Stand pipe
Answer: D
150. Who among below are exempted from pre-licensing training?
A. AFP and PNP retirees
B. Graduate of ROTC basic or advance
C. AFP and PNP veterans
D. All of the above
Answer: D
151. Tenure of security personnel is based on
A. Can be extended by the client
B. The service contract between the agency and the
client
156
C. Labor only contracting between the agency and the

guard
D. Tenure provided by the labor code
Answer: B
152. Before private security agencies render security services to
its clients,there must be a contract that must bind them,it is
called
A. Contract service
B. Service contract
C. Security contract
D. Security service contract
Answer: D
153. Which below is a qualification for the operator or manager of
security agency.
A. Commissioned officer of AFP or PNP,inactive or retirees
B. At least 25 years of age
C. Filipino citizen
D. All of them
Answer: D
154. A security force maintained and operated by any private
company for its own security requirements only.
A. Insular security force
B. Company security force
C. Government security unit
D. Private security unit
Answer: B
155. A person who offers or renders personal services to watch or
secure a residence or business establishment or both is
A. Watchman
B. Security guard
C. B only
D. B and A
Answer: D
156. Include all the security measures designed to prevent
unsuitable individuals or persons of doubtful loyalty to the
government from gaining access to classified matter or to any
security facility and to prevent appointment or retention as
employees of such individuals.
A. Security personnel
B. Employee security
C. Personnel security
D. Both A and C
Answer: C
157. It is an inquiry into the character,reputation,discretion and
loyalty of individual in order to determine a persons suitability
to be given security clearance.
157
A. BI
B. LAC
C. NAC
D. PSI
Answer: D
158. Consist of the investigation of the background of an individual

but limited only to some of the circumstances of his personal
life which are deemed pertinent to the investigation.
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
Answer: B
159. A thorough and complete investigation of all or some of the
circumstances or aspect of a persons life is conducted.
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
Answer: D
160. Among the following,which is the least expensive and least
secure personnel control identification system?
A. Multiple pass system
B. Group pass and badge system
C. Spot magnetized identification pass
D. Single pass or badge system
Answer: D
161. Factors considered in background investigation except:
A. Integrity
B. Character
C. Personal prestige
D. Loyalty
Answer: C
162. Motives that cause people to be disloyal
A. Character
B. Revenge
C. Moral
D. Reputation
Answer: B
163. Weakness that makes people susceptible to pressure

A. Jealousy
B. Weakness of character
C. Close relative in foreign land
D. All of them
Answer: D
164. A security unit maintained and operated by any government
158
entity.
D. Private security agency
Answer: C
165. Cosnsist of the investigation of the background of a person

particularly all the circumstances of his personal life
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
Answer: C
166. Any person,association,partnership,firm or private
corporation,who contracts recruits,trains,furnishes or post
any security guards to do its functions.
D. Private security agency
Answer: D
167. Shall be responsible to the detachment commander as far as
his shift is concerned.
A. Officer in charge
B. Shift in charge
C. Security guard on duty
D. Assistant detachment commander
Answer: B
168. Before a security guard can practice his profession,he shall
possess a valid security license,What is this license?
A. Firearm license
B. License to operate
C. Drivers license
D. Security guard license
Answer: D
169. How many firearms issued for every two guards employed by
the security agency is allowed by law?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: D
170. Firearms of security agency should be covered with firearms
license issued by the PNP through its Firearm Explosive
Division under the civil security group renewable every
A. 4 years
159
B. 3 years
C. 2 years
D. 1 year
Answer: D
171. The aspect of security which involves the application of

security measures For the protection and safeguarding of
classified information
A. Top secret
B. Information security
C. Personnel security
D. Documents security
Answer: D
172. Refers to assigned information by one of the four classification
categories
A. Reclassify
B. Classified
C. Declassify
D. Security clearance
Answer: B
173. Refers to the administrative determination that an individual is
eligible for access to classified matter.
A. Reclassify
B. Classified
C. Declassify
D. Security clearance
Answer: D
174. Means loss of security which results from an unauthorized
persons obtaining knowledge of classified matter.
A. Vulnerability
B. Criticality
C. probability
D. Compromise
Answer: D
175. These are information and material,the unauthorized disclosure
of which would cause exceptional grave damage to the
nation,politically,economically or from a security aspect,this
category is reserved for the nations closest secret and is to
be used with great reserve.
A. Restricted matters
B. Secret matters
C. Confidential matters
D. Top secret matters
Answer: D
176. These information and material,the authorized disclosure of
which would endanger national security,cause serious injury to
the interest or prestige of the nation or of any governmental
160
activity or would be of great advantage to a foreign nation.

B. Secret matters
Answer: B
177. These information and material,the unauthorized disclosure of
which while not endangering the national security would be
prejudicial to the interest or prestige of the nation or any
government activity or would cause administrative
embarrassment or unwarranted injury to an individual or
would be of the advantage to a foreign nation.
B. Secret matters
Answer: C
178. It is information that in some special way relates to the status
or activities of the possessor and over which the possessor
asserts ownership.
A. Transmission security
B. Trade secret
C. Patents
D. Proprietary information
Answer: D
179. It maybe a formula for a chemical compound,a process of
manufacturing,treating or preserving materials,a pattern for
machine or device or a list of customers.
B. Trade secret
C. Patents
D. Proprietary information
Answer: B
180. It is the protection resulting from the application of various
measures which prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized
persons in gaining information through communication.
B. Cryptographic security
C. Communication security
D. All of the above
Answer: C
181. That component of communication security which results from
the provisions of technically sound crypto system and their
proper use.
B. Cryptographic security
161
C. Communication security
D. All of the above
Answer: B
182. A system which uses words as the smallest element.

A. Transposition system
B. Code
C. Concealment
D. Cipher
Answer: B
183. A system that manipulate 1,2 or 3 characters at a time.
A. Transposition system
B. Code
C. Concealment
D. Cipher
Answer: D
184. It is the potential damage or loss of an asset.
A. Adversary
B. Risk
C. Security hazard
D. Criticality
Answer: B
185. It is the impact of a loss as measured in financial terms.
A. Adversary
B. Risk
C. Security hazard
D. Criticality
Answer: D
186. Eliminating or removing the risk totally from the
business,government or industrial environment for which the
risk manager has responsibility.
A. Risk self-assumption
B. Risk spreading
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk avoidance
Answer: C
187. It is an act of spying.
A. Saboteur
B. Espionage
C. pilferer
D. Sabotage
Answer: B
188. It is one of the most annoying and common human hazards

which security has to deal with.
A. Casual pilferage
B. Systematic pilferage
C. Pilferage
162
Answer: C
189. One who steals with pre conceived plans and takes always
any or all types of items or supplies for economic gain.
A. Casual pilferage
B. Systematic pilferage
C. Pilferage
Answer: B
190. What date is the Republic Act No. 5487 or the private security
agency law passed?
A. June 13, 1999
B. June 13, 1969
C. June 7, 2009
D. June 31, 1969
Answer: B
191. A natural hazards or acts of god.
A. Calamity
B. Phenomenon
C. Disaster
D. Force majeure
Answer: D
192. A restricted area where visitors are limited in movement and

are usually escorted.
A. Exclusive area
B. Limited area
C. Restricted area
D. Protected area
Answer: B
193. A structure placed above a vertical fence to increase
protection from intruder.
A. Guard house
B. Clear zone
C. Tower guard
D. Top guard
Answer: D
194.A conference similar to entrance conference,this is only done
after the completion of security survey.
A. Entrance conference
B. Briefing
C. Debriefing
D. Exit conference
Answer: D
195. It is the lost that would be sustained if a given target or
combination of target where totally removed,destroyed or
both.
163
A. Risk reduction
B. Probable maximum loss
C. Risk transfer
D. Possible maximum loss
Answer: D
196. Refers to the amount of loss a target would be likely to

sustain through theft and robbery.
A. Risk reduction
B. Probable maximum loss
C. Risk transfer
D. Possible maximum loss
Answer: B
197. A term used in England for lock pickers,safe crackers and
penetrators of restricted rooms or area.
A. Superman
B. Peterpan
C. Batman
D. Peterman
Answer: D
198. The badge or pass coded for authorization to enter specific
areas is issued to an employee who keeps it in his possession
until his authorization terminates.
A. Pass system
B. Pass exchange system
C. Single pass system
D. Multi pass system
Answer: C
199. Company owned alarm system with a unit in the nearest police
station so that in case of need, direct call is possible.
A. Auxiliary alarm
C. Local alarm system
D. Central station station system
Answer: A
200. The system consists of ringing up a visual or audible alarm
system near the object to be protected.
A. Auxiliary alarm
C. Local alarm system
D. Central station system
Answer: C
Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

Subjects
Relative Weight
164
Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

Law Enforcement Administration
Correctional Administration
Criminalistics
Criminal Sociology
Ethics and Human Relations
20%
20%
15%
20%
15%
10%
Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure is further subdivided into:

1. Criminal Law 1 - Study of the Revised Penal Code book 1,
special criminal statutes, Presidential Decrees, and
Letters of Instructions.
2. Criminal Law 2 - Study of the Revised Penal Code book 2
3. Criminal Procedure - Study of the Rules of Court and Criminal
Procedure covering the law on arrest, search and
seizure, Preliminary Investigation and the granting of bail to an
accused person; Rights of the accused person
during the trial and the manner of prosecution of criminal
offenses; Procedures in arraignment and trial and
discharge of one of several defendants as state witness; Rules
governing arrest without warrant and the use of
firearms in case of resistance to an arrest; Study of court
decisions regarding arrest and search and seizure.
4. Criminal Evidence - Study of the fundamental principle of
criminal evidence as embodied in the rules of court.
Civil Law
1. Filed by a private party.
a corporation
an individual person
2. Penalty: a guilty defendant pays the plaintiff for

losses caused by their actions.
no incarceration
Crimes are divided into 2 classes

1. Misdemeanors - less than one year of incarceration
2. Felonies - sentence of one year or more.
During the times of the Romans, a criminal charge meant presenting the case
before the public.Both the person accused of the crime and the accuser would give
speeches based on their side of the story.The individual with the best
argumentation would determine the outcome of the case.
165
Criminal Law
1. Filed by the government
2. Penalty: a guilty defendant is punished by
incarceration in jail or prison
fine paid to the government
execution (death penalty)
Criminal law RPC (Book 1)

Criminal Law - a branch of municipal law which defines crimes,
treats of their nature and provides for their punishment.
Characteristics of Criminal Law
1. General 2. Territorial 3. Prospective
General - binding on all persons who reside or sojourn in the
Philippines.
Exceptions:
1. Treaty Stipulation
2. Laws of Preferential Application
3. Principles of Public International Law
ex. 1. Sovereigns and other chief of state
2. Ambassadors, Minister resident, and
charges d' affaires
Note: Consuls, Vice Consuls, and other foreign
commercial representatives can not claim the
privileges and immunities accorded to
ambassadors and ministers.
Territorial - Penal laws of the Philippines are enforceable only
within its territory.
Exception: Art. 2 of the RPC - binding even on
crimes committed outside the Philippines.
1. Offenses committed while on a Philippine ship
or airship.
2. Forging or counterfeiting any coin or currency
note of the Philippines or obligations and
securities issued by the government.
3. Introduction into the country of the above
mentioned obligations and securities.
166
4. While being public officers and employees, an

offense is committed in the exercise of their
functions.
5. Crimes against the National Security and the Law
of the Nations.
Prospective - The law does not have any retroactive effect.
Exception: When the law is favorable to the
accused.
Exception to the Exception:
1. The New Law is expressly made inapplicable
to pending actions or existing causes of
action.
2. Offender is a habitual criminal.
Theories of Criminal Law
1. Classical Theory - basis is man's free will to choose between
good and evil, that is why more stress is placed upon the
result of the felonious act than upon the criminal himself. The
purpose of penalty is retribution. The RPC is generally
governed by this theory.
2. Positivist Theory - basis is the sum of social and economic
phenomena which conditions man to do wrong in spite of or
contrary to his volition. This is exemplified in the provisions
on impossible crimes and habitual delinquency.
3. Mixed Theory - combination of the classical and positivist
theories wherein crimes that are economic and social in
nature should be dealt in a positive manner. The law is thus
more compassionate.
Construction of Penal Laws
1. Liberally construed in favor of offender.
Example: a. The offender must clearly fall within the terms
of the law.
b. An act is criminal only when made so by the
statute.
2. In cases of conflict with official translation, original Spanish
text is controlling.
3. No interpretation by analogy.
Limitations on Power of Congress to Enact Penal Laws
1. Ex Post Facto Law
2. Bill of Attainder
167
3. Law that violates the equal protection clause of the

constitution.
4. Law which imposes cruel and unusual punishments nor
excessive fines.
Criminal Law Review Questions 1

1. A Branch of municipal law which defines crimes, treats of
their nature and provides for their punishment.
A. Procedural Law
B. Civil Law
C. Criminal Law
D. Political Law
2. One of the following is not a characteristic of criminal law.
A. General
B. Territorial
C. Prospective
D. Retroactive
3. Criminal law is binding on all person who reside or sojourn
in the Philippines. This characteristic of criminal law is known as
A. General
B. Territorial
C. Prospective
D. Retroactive
4. One of the characteristics of criminal law is generality. Which
of the following is not an exception to the principle of
generality.
A. Treaty Stipulation
B. Laws of Preferential Application
C. Principles of Public International Law
5. One of the following person is not immune from Philippine
criminal law.
A. Sovereigns and other chief of state
B. Ambassador
C. Consuls
D. Charges d' Affaires
6. Penal laws of the Philippines are enforceable only within
its territory. This characteristic of criminal law is known as
A. General
B. Territorial
168
C. Prospective
7. One of the following is not an exceptions to the territorial
principle of criminal law.
A. Offenses committed while on Philippine ship or airship
B. Forging or counterfeiting any coin or currency note of
the Philippines or the obligations and securities issued
by the government.
C. Crimes committed against national security and the law of
nations.
D. Crimes committed against public order.
8. Criminal law does not have any retroactive effect. This
characteristic of criminal law is known as
A. General
B. Territorial
C. Prospective
D. Retroactive
9. When the law is favorable to the accused, is an exception
to which characteristic of criminal law.
A. General
B. Territorial
C. Prospective
D. Retroactive
10. A Theory of criminal law, Basis is man's free will to choose
between good and evil. The purpose of penalty is retribution.
A. Classical Theory
B. Positivist Theory
C. Mixed Theory
D. None of the above.
Answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
C
D
A
D
C
B
D
C
C
A
169

1. Basis is the sum of social and economic phenomena which
conditions man to do wrong in spite of or contrary to his
volition. This theory of criminal law is known as
A. Classical Theory
B. Positivist Theory
C. Mixed Theory
2. In the construction of penal laws, it must be ______________
construed in favor of offender.
A. Strictly
B. Liberally
C. Severely
D. Precisely
3. Which of the following is not a limitation on power of
congress to enact penal laws.
A. Ex post facto law
B. Bill of Attainder
C. Law that violates the equal protection clause of the
constitution.
4. The Revised Penal Code took effect on
A. March 6, 1929
B. March 6, 1930
C. February 1, 1932
D. February 1, 1934
5. What determines whether a vessel is a Philippine vessel for
purposes of the application of criminal law?
A. Place of Registration
B. Place of Construction
C. Citizenship of the Owner
6. Crimes committed aboard foreign vessel within the territorial
waters of a country are not triable in the courts of such
country. In Criminal law, this principle is known as
A. The Philippine Rule
B. The English Rule
C. The French Rule
170
7. Crimes committed aboard a foreign vessel within the

territorial waters of a country are triable in the courts of such
country. In Criminal law, this principle is known as
B. The English Rule
C. The French Rule
8. For Offenses committed aboard foreign vessel committed in
Philippine waters. What principle is applicable to the
Philippines.
B. The English Rule
C. The French Rule
9. Acts and omissions punishable by the RPC is known as
A. Felonies
B. Crimes
C. Misdemeanor
10. Acts and omissions punishable by any law is known as
A. Felonies
B. Crimes
C. Misdemeanor
Answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
B
B
D
C
A
C
B
B
A
B

1. Failure to perform a duty required by law.
A. Exception
B. Exclusion
C. Avoidance
171
D. Omission
2. There is no crime when there is no law punishing it. In
criminal law, this principle is known as
A. Nullum crimen, nulla poene sine lege
B. Ignorantia Legis Non Excusat
C. Actus Non Facit Reum, Nisi Mens Sit Rea
D. Actus Me Invito Factus Non Est Meus Actus
3. These Felonies are committed by means of deceit (dolo).
A. Culpable Felonies
B. Intentional Felonies
C. Unintentional Felonies
4. These Felonies are committed by means of fault.
5. This classification of felony has the following requisites,
freedom, intelligence, and intent.
6. This classification of felony has the following requisites:
freedom, intelligence, negligence, and imprudence.
7. Which of the following is not a characteristics of an offense
mala in se?
A. Moral trait of offender is considered.
B. Good Faith is a defense
C. Mitigating and aggravating circumstances taken into
account in imposing penalty
D. Degree of participation when there is more than one
offender is generally not taken into account
8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an offense
mala prohibita?
172
A. Mitigating and aggravating circumstance is not generally

taken into account
B. Degree of accomplishment of the crime is taken into
account only when consummated
C. Good Faith is not a defense
D. Moral trait of offender is considered.
9. Moving power which impels one to act.
A. Motive
B. Intent
C. Purpose
10. Purpose to use a particular means to effect a result.
A. Motive
B. Intent
C. Purpose
Answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
D
A
B
A
B
A
D
D
A
B

1. In Criminal Law, Error in Personae means
A. Mistake in Identity
B. Mistake in Blow
C. Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong
2. In Criminal Law, Abberatio Ictus means
B. Mistake in Blow
C. Lack of Intent to commit so grave a wrong
173
3. In Criminal Law, Praetor Intentionem means

B. Mistake in Blow
C. Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong
4. The cause which in the natural and continuous sequence,
unbroken by any efficient intervening cause, produces the
injury without which the result would not have occurred.
A. Immediate Cause
B. Intervening Cause
C. Proximate Cause
D. Natural Cause
5. Which of the following is not a requisites of an impossible
crime?
A. Act would have been an offense against persons or
property
B. Accomplishment is inherently impossible or inadequate
or ineffectual or ineffectual means are employed
C. Act is not an actual violation of another provision of the
RPC or of special law.
D. There was no criminal intent
6. A Stage in the execution of felonies when all the elements
necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present.
A. Consummated
B. Frustrated
C. Attempted
7. This Stage in the execution of felonies have the following
elements: a. offender performs all acts of execution b. All
the acts would produce the felony as a consequence c. But
the felony is not produce d. By reason of causes independent
of the will of the perpetrator.
A. Consummated
B. Frustrated
C. Attempted
8. This Stage in the execution of felonies have the following
elements: a. Offender commences the felony directly by
174
overt acts b. Does not perform all acts which would produce
the felony c. His acts are not stopped by his own spontaneous
desistance
A. Consummated
B. Frustrated
C. Attempted
9. In the stages of execution of felonies, the element that all
acts of execution are present, must be present in
A. Attempted and Frustrated
B. Attempted and Consummated
C. Frustrated and Consummated
D. Frustrated and Attempted
10. Which of the following do not admit of frustrated and
attempted stages?
A. Offenses punishable b y special penal laws
B. Formal Crimes
C. Impossible Crimes
D. All of the Above
Answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
A
B
C
C
D
A
B
C
C
D

1. Which of the following crimes do not admit of frustrated
stage.
A. Rape
B. Bribery
C. Adultery
175
D. All of the Above

2. The General Rule is that light felonies are punishable only
when they have been consummated. One of the
following is an exception.
A. If committed against the law of the nation
B. If committed against public order
C. If committed against persons or property
3. Two or more persons come to an agreement for the
commission of a felony and they decide to commit it.
A. Proposal
B. Conspiracy
C. Agreement
D. Non of the Above
4. A Person has decided to commit a felony and proposes its
execution to some other person.
A. Conspiracy to commit a felony
B. Proposal to commit a felony
C. Agreement to commit a felony
5. Under the RPC , afflictive penalties are imposed for a
A. Grave Felonies
B. Less Grave Felonies
C. Light Felonies
6. Under the RPC, Correctional penalties are imposed for a
A. Grave Felonies
C. Light Felonies
7. Under the RPC, aresto menor is imposed for a
A. Grave Felonies
C. Light Felonies
8. Light Felonies are punishable by
A. 1 day to 30 days
B. 1 month and 1 day to 6 months
C. 6 months and 1 day to 6 years
176
D. 6 years and 1 day to 12 years

9. Where the act of a person is in accordance with law, such
person is deemed not to have violated the law.
A. Mitigating circumstance
B. Aggravating circumstance
C. Justifying circumstance
D. Exempting circumstance
10. Grounds for exception from punishment because there is
wanting in the agent of the crime any of the conditions
which make the act voluntary or negligent.
A. Mitigating circumstance
B. Aggravating circumstance
C. Justifying circumstance
Answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
D
C
B
B
A
B
C
A
C
D

1.One while advanced in age has a mental development
comparable to that of children between 2 and 7 years old. He
is exempt in all cases from criminal liability.
A. Insane
B. Imbecile
C. Stupid
2. One who acts with complete deprivation of intelligence or
reason or without the least discernment or with total
deprivation of freedom of will.
A. Insane
B. Imbecile
C. Stupid
177

3. Offender uses violence or physical force to compel
another person to commit a crime.
A. Irresistible Force
B. Uncontrollable Fear
C. Duress
4. Offender employs intimidation or threat in compelling
another to commit a crime.
A. Irresistible Force
B. Uncontrollable Fear
C. Duress
5. The Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act is known as
A. R.A. 9343
B. R.A. 9434
C. R.A. 9433
D. R.A. 9344
6. Mental capacity to fully appreciate the consequences of
the unlawful act.
A. Motive
B. Intent
C. Discernment
7. Actus Me Invito Factus Non Est Meus Actus means
A. Any act done by me against my will is not my act
B. No intent to commit so grave a wrong
C. He who is the cause of the cause is the cause of the evil
caused
8. Some motive which has lawfully, morally, or physically
prevented a person to do what the law commands.
A. Absolutory cause
B. Insuperable cause
C. Mitigating circumstance
9. Where the act committed is a crime but for some reason of
public policy and sentiment, there is no penalty imposed.
A. Absolutory cause
178
B. Insuperable cause
C. Mitigating circumstance
10. Those which if present in the commission of the crime
reduces the penalty of the crime but does not erase criminal
liability nor change the nature of the crime.
A. Justifying circumstance
B. Mitigating circumstance
C. Aggravating circumstance
Answer:
1. B
2. A
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. C
7. A
8. B
9. A
10. B

1. Any unjust or improper conduct or act of the offended party,
capable of exciting, inciting or irritating anyone.
A. Provocation
B. Vindication
C. Passion
D. Obfuscation
2. Those which, if attendant in the commission of the crime,
serve to have the penalty imposed in its maximum period
provided by law for the offense or those that change the
nature of the crime.
A. Justifying circumstances
B. Mitigating circumstances
C. Exempting circumstances
D. Aggravating circumstances
3. It is a kind of aggravating circumstance which apply to all
crimes.
A. Generic aggravating circumstance
B. Specific aggravating circumstance
179
C. Qualifying aggravating circumstance

D. Inherent aggravating circumstance
4. A kind of aggravating circumstance that change the nature
of the crime.
5. A kind of aggravating circumstance which of necessity
accompany the commission of the crime.
6. A kind of aggravating circumstance which arise under special
conditions to increase the penalty of the offense and can not
be offset by mitigating circumstances.
B. Special aggravating circumstance
C. Inherent aggravating circumstance
D. Qualifying aggravating circumstance
7. In Criminal Law, nighttimeas an aggravating circumstance
is also referred to as
A. Obscuridad
B. Despoblado
C. Encuadrilla
8. In Criminal Law, uninhabited place as an aggravating
circumstance is known as
A. Obscuridad
B. Despoblado
C. Encuadrillia
9. In Criminal Law, Band to be considered aggravating
A. There must be three or more armed men
B. There must be four or more armed men
C. There must be five or more armed men
D. There must be six or more armed men
10. En Cuadrillia means
180
A. Uninhabited place
B. Band
C. Nighttime
Answer:
1. A
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. D
6. B
7. A
8. B
9. B
10. B

1. One who at the time of his trial for one crime, shall have been
previously convicted by final judgment of another crime
embraced in the same title of the RPC.
A. Recidivist
B. Habitual delinquent
C. Quasi-recidivist
2. All of the following except one is a person in authority.
A. Barangay Chairman
B. Barangay Tanod
C. Mayor
D. Governor
3. Where the offender has been previously punished for an
offense to which the law attaches an equal or greater
penalty or for two crimes to which it attaches a lighter
penalty. This generic aggravating circumstance is known as
A. Recidivism
B. Habituality
C. Multi-recidivism
D. Quasi-recidivism
4. Reiteracion means
A. Recidivism
B. Habituality
C. Multi-recidivism
181
D. Quasi-recidivism
5. Where a person within a period of ten years from the date
of his release or last conviction of the crimes of serious or
less serious physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa, or
falsification, is found guilty of the sdaid crimes a third time
or oftener. This extra ordinary aggravating circumstance is
known as
A. Recidivism
B. Habitual delinquency
C. Reiteracion
D. Quasi-recidivism
6. Where a person commits felony before beginning to serve
or while serving on a previous conviction for a felony.
This special aggravating circumstance is known as
A. Recidivism
B. Reiteracion
C. Habitual delinquency
D. Quasi-recidivism
7. This aggravating circumstance involves the use of
intellectual trickery or cunning on the part of the accused.
A. Craft
B. Fraud
C. Disguise
8. This aggravating circumstance involves the use of insidious
words or machinations to induce the victim to act in a manner
which would enable the offender to carry out his design.
A. Craft
B. Fraud
C. Disguise
9. This aggravating circumstance involves resorting to any
device to conceal identity.
A. Craft
B. Fraud
C. Disguise
10. Astucia means
A. Craft
B. Fraud
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C. Disguise
11. Disfraz means
A. Craft
B. Fraud
C. Disguise
Answer:
1. A
2. B
3. B
4. B
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. A
11. C

1. When the offender commits any of the crimes against the
person, employing means, methods or forms in the execution
thereof which tend directly and specially to insure its
execution without risk to himself arising from the defense
which the offended party might make.
A. Evident Premeditation
B. Astucia
C. Disfraz
D. Treachery
2. A Circumstance pertaining to the moral order which adds
disgrace and obloquy to the material injury caused by the
crime.
A. Astucia
B. Disfraz
C. Ignominy
D. Obscuridad
3. This Aggravating Circumstance is present when the culprit
enjoys and delights in making his victim suffer slowly and
gradually, causing unnecessary physical pain in the
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consummation of the criminal act.

A. Ignominy
B. Cruelty
C. Obscuridad
D. Disfraz
4. Which of the following is not one of the three types of
principals?
A. Principal by Direct Participation
B. Principal by Induction
C. Principal by Indispensable Cooperation
5. Persons who do not act as principals but cooperate in the
execution of the offense by previous and simultaneous
acts, which are not indispensable to the commission of the
crime.
A. Principal
B. Accomplice
C. Accessory
6. A Person received and used property from another, knowing
it was stolen. This is an example of a
A. Principal
B. Accomplice
C. Accessory
7. Placing a weapon in the hand of the dead who was unlawfully
killed to plant evidence or burying the deceased who was
killed by the mastermind. This is an example of
A. A Principal
B. An Accomplice
C. An Accessory
8. This Law penalizes the act of any person who knowingly or
willfully obstructs, impedes, frustrates or delays the
apprehension of suspects and the investigation and
prosecution of criminal cases.
A. P.D. 1928
B. P.D. 1892
C. P.D. 1829
D. P.D. 1982
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9. This Law penalizes the act, with intent to gain, of buying,

selling, receiving, possessing, keeping, or in any other
manner dealing in anything of value which a person knows
or should have known to be derived from the proceeds of
the crime of robbery or theft.
A. P.D. 1261
B. P.D. 1216
C. P.D. 1621
D. P.D. 1612
10. One of the following accessory is not exempt from criminal
liability.
A. When the Principal is his Spouse
B. When the Principal is his Ascendant
C. When the Principal is his Descendant
Criminal Law Review Questions 10: Next Page
Answer:
1. D
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. C
8. C
9. D
10,. d

1. Suffering inflicted by the state for the transgression of a law.
A. Reward
B. Advantage
C. Penalty
2. A Theory of justifying penalty to prevent or suppress the
danger to the state arising from the criminal act of the
offender.
A. Prevention
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B. Self-Defense
C. Reformation
D. Exemplarity
3. A Theory justifying penalty so as to protect society from
the threat and wrong inflicted by the criminal.
A. Theory of Prevention
B. Theory of Self-Defense
C. Theory of Reformation
D. Theory of Justice
4. A Theory Justifying penalty where the object of punishment
in criminal cases is to correct and reform the offender.
D. Theory of Exemplarity
5. A Theory justifying penalty where the criminal is punished
to serve as an example to deter others from committing
crimes.
D. Theory of Exemplarity
6. A Theory justifying penalty, that crime must be punished
by the state as an act of retributive justice, a vindication
of absolute right and moral law violated by the criminal.
B. Theory of Reformation
C. Theory of Exemplarity
D. Theory of Justice
7. A Legislative Act which inflicts punishment without trial.
A. Bill of Attainder
B. Ex Post Facto Law
C. Republic Act
8. Which of the following is not an Ex Post Facto Law?
A. A Law which makes criminal an act done before the
passage of the law and which was innocent when done.
B. A Law which aggravates a crime or makes it greater than
it was when committed.
C. A Law which changes the punishment and inflicts a greater
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punishment than the law annexed to the crime when

committed.
9. Which of the following crimes will not extinguish the
criminal liability of the offender even if pardoned by the
offended party?
A. Adultery
B. Seduction
C. Concubinage
D. Homicide
10. Fines when imposed alone as penalty, in the amount of
201 pesos to 6000 pesos is considered
A. Afflictive Penalty
B. Correctional Penalty
C. Light Penalty
11. Fines when imposed alone as penalty, over 6000 pesos
is considered
A. Afflictive penalty
C. Light penalty
12. Fines when imposed alone as penalty, in the amount of
200 pesos and less is considered
A. Afflictive Penalty
C. Light penalty
Answer:
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. D
6. D
7. A
8. D
9. D
10. B
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11. A
12. C

1. Breach of allegiance to the government by a person who owes
allegiance it.
A. Espionage
B. Rebellion
C. Sedition
D. Treason
2. Treason can be proven by Judicial Confession of the accused
or testimony of at least how many witness?
A. At Least 1 Witness
B. At Least 2 Witness
C. At Least 3 Witness
D. At Least 4 Witness
3. The Offense of gathering, transmitting, or losing information
respecting the national defense with intent or reason to
believe that the information is to be used to the injury of
the Republic of thre Philippines or the advantage of a
foreign nation.
A. Treason
B. Espionage
C. Sedition
D. Rebellion
4. One of the following felonies may be committed not only
during war but also during peace time.
A. Treason
B. Misprision of Treason
C. Espionage
D. Piracy
5. An Act to punish Espionage and other offenses against
national security.
A. C.A. No. 616
B. C.A. No. 716
C. C.A. No. 816
D. C.A. No. 916
6. It is robbery or forcible depredation on the high seas, without
lawful authority and done with animo furandi and in the
spirit and intention of universal hostility.
188
A. Piracy
B. Mutiny
C. High Jacking
D. Robbery on the the High Seas
7. The Unlawful Resistance to a superior or the raising of
commotions and disturbances on board a ship against the
authority of its commander.
A. Piracy
B. Mutiny
C. High Jacking
D. Rebellion
8. Anti-Hijacking Law is known as
A. R.A. No. 6553
B. R.A. No. 6523
C. R.A. No. 6253
D. R.A. No. 6235
9. The Anti-Piracy and Anti-Highway Robbery Law of 1974 is
known as
A. P.D. No. 532
B. P.D. No. 523
C. P.D. No. 253
D. P.D. No. 235
10. The deprivation by a public officer of the liberty of a person
without any legal ground.
A. Arbitrary Detention
B. Illegal Detention
C. Kidnapping
Answer:
1. D
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. A
6. A
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. A
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1. One of the following is not a crime against the law of nation.
A. Treason
B. Qualified Piracy
C. Flight to Enemy's Country
D. Arbitrary Detention
2. One of the following is not a crime against the Fundamental
Laws of the State.
A. Qualified Piracy
B. Arbitrary Detention
C. Delaying Release
D. Expulsion
3. It is the offense committed by expelling a person from the
Philippines or by compelling a person to change his residence.
A. Light Threats
B. light Coercion
C. Expulsion
D. Grave Threats
4. The term used where the object of the movement is
completely to overthrow and supersede the existing
government.
A. Insurrection
B. Rebellion
C. Sedition
5. The term refers to a movement which seeks merely to effect
some change of minor importance to prevent the exercise
of governmental authority with respect to particular matters
or subjects.
A. Insurrection
B. Rebellion
C. Sedition
6. R.A. No. 6235 is known as
A. Anti-Hijacking Law
B. Anti-Piracy and Anti-Highway Robbery Law of 1974
C. An Act To Punish Espionage
7. All of the following except one are crimes against public order.
A. Coup D' Etat
190
B. Sedition
C. Treason
D. Rebellion
8. This felony involves the raising of commotions or disturbances
in the State. Its ultimate object is a violation of the public
peace or at least such a course of measures as evidently
engenders it.
A. Coup D' Etat
B. Rebellion
C. Sedition
D. Treason
9. Committed by a person who being under oath and required to
testify as to the truth of a certain matter at a hearing before a
competent authority, shall deny the truth or say something
contrary to it.
A. Slander
B. Perjury
C. Libel
D. False testimony
10. Lax, Unrestrained, immoral, maintainer of house of
prostitution.
A. Dissolute
B. Prostitutes
C. Ruffians
D. Vagrants
Answer:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
D
A
C
B
A
A
C
C
D
A
Heinous Crimes Act Of 1993 R.A. No 7659

The Crimes Punishable by death are:
1. Treason
2. Qualified Piracy
3. Qualified Bribery
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4. Parricide
5. Murder
6. Infanticide - however,if any crime penalized in this article be
committed by the mother of the child for the purpose of
concealing her dishonor, she shall suffer the penalty of prision
mayor in its medium and maximum periods, and if said crime be
committed for the same purpose by the maternal grandparents or
either of them, the penalty shall be reclusion temporal.
7. Kidnapping and Serious Illegal Detention
8. Robbery - when by reason or on occasion of the robbery, the crime
of homicide shall have been committed, or when the robbery shall
have been accompanied by rape or intentional mutilation or arson.
9. Destructive Arson
10.Rape - a. committed with the use of deadly weapon or by two or
more persons.
b. when by reason or on the occasion of the rape, the
victim has become insane.
c. when the rape is attempted or frustrated and a
homicide is committed by reason or on the occasion
thereof.
11.Plunder
12.Violations of Dangerous Act
13.Carnapping
General rule: the death penalty shall be imposed in all cases upon
which it must be imposed under existing laws.
Exceptions: in which cases the penalty shall be reduced to reclusion
perpetua.
1. When the guilty person is below 18 years of age at the time of the
commission of the crime.
2. When the guilty person is over 70 years
Anti-Money Laundering Act Of 2001 R.A. NO. 9160

Money Laundering - is a crime whereby the proceeds of an unlawful
activity are transacted, thereby making them appear to have originated from legitimate sources.
Persons Liable:
1. Any person knowing that any monetary instrument or property
represents,involves or relates to, the proceeds of any unlawful
activity, transacts or attempts to transact said monetary
instrument or property.
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2. Any person knowing that any monetary instrument or property

involves the proceeds of any unlawful activity, performs or fail to
perform any act as a result of which he facilitates the offense of
money laundering referred to in paragraph 1 above.
3. Any person knowing that any monetary instrument or property is
required under this act to be disclosed and filed with the
Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC) fails to do so.
Covered Transaction: Transaction in excess of P500,000. within one banking day.
Suspicious Transaction, Requisites:
1. Covered Institution
2. Regardless of amount and
3. Any of the following circumstances:
a. no economic justification
b. client not properly identified
c. amount not commensurate with financial capacity
d. structured to avoid reporting
e. deviation from client's profile or past transactions
f. unlawful activity under this act
g. similar or analogous
Unlawful Activity
1. Kidnapping for ransom
2. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 (Sec. 4,5,6,8,9,10,12,
14,15,16)
3. Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act (Sec.3,par.B,C,E,G,H,I)
4. Plunder
5. Robbery and Extortion
6. Jueteng and Masiao punished as illegal gambling
7. Piracy on the High Seas
8. Qualified Theft
9. Swindling
10.Smuggling
11.Electronic Commerce Act of 2000
12.Hijacking and Other Violation Of RA 6235,Destructive and Murder,
including those perpetrated by terrorists against non-combatants
13.Securities Regulation Code of 2000
14.Offenses of similar nature punishable by foreign penal laws.
What is required to be reported?
Covered Institutions shall report to the Anti-Money Laundering Council
all covered transactions and suspicious transactions within 5 working days from the occurrence.
Authority to inquire into bank deposits
1. Court order upon showing of probable cause that the deposit is
193
related to an unlawful activity or a money laundering offense.

2. No court order required for the ff: unlawful activities:
a. Kidnapping for ransom
b. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002, Hijacking and
other violations of RA 6235, Destructive and Murder, including
those perpetrated by terrorists against non combatants.
Prosecution of Money Laundering
1. Offender may be charged with and convicted of both money
laundering and the unlawful activity
2. Proceeding of unlawful activity shall be given precedence over the
prosecution for money laundering, without prejudice to freezing
and other remedies of this act
Criminal Procedure
Introduction:
Etymology:
Krimea [Greek]: meaning, to charge a wrongdoing
Criminal Procedure
The method prescribed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of persons accused of
any criminal offense, and their punishment, in case of conviction.
It is concerned with the procedural steps through which a criminal casepasses, commencing with
the initial investigation of a crime and concluding with the unconditional release of the offender.
It is a generic term used to describe the network of laws and rules whichgovern the procedural
administration of criminal justice.
Criminal Jurisdiction
The authority to hear and decide a particular offense and impose punishment for it. It has three
requisites, namely:
Subject matter cases of the general class where the proceedings in question belong as
determined by the nature of the offense and by the penalty imposed by law;
Territory the geographical limits of the territory over which the court presides and where
the offense was committed; and
Person of the accused acquired thru: a) arrest [with warrant or warrantless] or b) voluntary
surrender.
I. Prosecution of Offenses
How instituted?
By filing the: 1) Complaint, or 2) Information.
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Complaint
A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense
Executed and Subscribed by the O.P.A.O. [Offended Party, Any peace officer, or Other public
officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated].
May be filed in the prosecutors office or directly to the court
Information
1.An accusation in writing
2. Subscribed by the Prosecutor
3.Filed with the court
Both are:
1. In writing
2. In the name of the People of the Philippines
3. Directed against all persons who appear to be responsible for theoffense involved.
Elements of a complaint or information:
1. Formal elements, and
2. Substantive elements.
It must be:
1. Sufficient in form, and
2. Sufficient in substance
Thus, under Section 14, of Rule 110, a complaint or information may be amended, in form and in
substance .
A complaint or information is sufficient in form if it states: [N.D.A.N.A.P.]
1. The Name of the accused
2. The Designation of the offense given by the statute
3. The Acts or omissions complained of as constituting the offense
4.The Name of the offended party
5. The Approximate date of the commission of the offense
6. The Place where the offense was committed.
A complaint or information is sufficient in substance if it doesnt contain any of the defects
which is a ground for a motion to quash. (Section 3, Rule 117)
Note: A motion to quash, once granted, is equivalent to dismissal (but not acquittal).
Remedy if a complaint or information is defective:
I. If defective in form
a) court may dismiss the complaint or information motu propio or upon motion, or
b) accused may move for a BILL OF PARTICULARS
II. If defective in substance No obligation is imposed on the judge to point out the
duplicitousness or other defect in the indictment on which an accused is being arraigned. It is for
195
the accused to move for a motion to quash on the ground that the complaint or information
charges more than one offense, under sanction of waiver and loss of ground of objection
(Concurring opinion of CJ Narvasa, People v. Bartulay, 192 SCRA 632)
Note: For certain classes of Actions, it is the tribunal having jurisdiction which automatically
determines whether or not the papers are in order before giving it due course, meaning, it
satisfies itself if the complaint or information is sufficient in form and in substance.
Examples:
Articles of Impeachment in an impeachment proceedings
Presidential Election Protest
This is not so in criminal proceedings. It is incumbent upon the accused to object on substantive
defects (People v. Bartulay, supra).
Query:
JP was charged for indiscriminate firing. He claimed that he has to fire his gun in self-defense
because there was an actual threat on his person and the firing of warning shots was reasonably
necessary in order to prevent or repel the unlawful aggression directed against him. Despite this,
the fiscal went on to file the information in court. May JP claim that the information, though
sufficient in form, is defective in substance? Why?
No. JP cannot claim that the information is defective in substance. This is so because selfdefense is not a ground for a motion to quash but a matter of defense. If proven, self-defense is
a basis for acquittal, not dismissal.
Any explanation or defense which the defendant may want to invoke can be properly raised
during trial (Galvez v. CA, 237 SCRA 685).
Distinction between Acquittal and Dismissal:
1. Acquittal is based on MERITS of the case (substantive) ex: accused A was found innocent of
killing B.
2. Dismissal is based on TECHNICALITY (procedural) ex: the crime has already prescribed.
Notes:
1. There are certain classes of offenses that cannot be prosecuted de officio 1private offenses,
i.e. adultery, concubinage, etc. and 2private libels, i.e. defamation imputing private offenses.
2. For some offenses, there are conditions precedents before plaintiff can repair to the courts
for redress [i.e. those requiring mediation at the lupong tagapamayapa]. However, noncompliance of this rule is not jurisdictional. The failure of the plaintiff to comply with the
conciliation requirement of Sec. 40 under the Local Government Code of 1991 does not affect
the Courts jurisdiction if no timely objection is made [San Miguel Village School v. Pundogar,
173 SCRA 704, Bejar v. CA, 169 SCRA 566].
3. All criminal actions, whether commenced by filing of complaint or information, are under
the direct control of the prosecutor.
196
Queries:
I. A, B, C, D were charged with homicide. Preliminary investigation was conducted by the fiscal
who found sufficient evidence against all, but, according to his determination, D was the least
guilty. So the fiscal filed the information only against A, B, and C leaving out D whom he would
utilize as state witness. Is the fiscal correct?
Under the Rules of Court, the fiscal cannot exclude D without court approval. It would be a
grave abuse of discretion on the part of the court in not including D in the information because of
the prosecutors finding that there is sufficient evidence against all. There was no more necessity
to utilize D as a state witness.
Exeption:
Under the Witness Protection Act, the prosecutor has the discretion of discharging an accused as
a state witness and no court approval is necessary.
II. Is designation of the offense an essential element of the complaint or information? Why? Give
the exception, if any.
No. Because in case of conflict between the designation of the offense and the allegations, the
allegation prevails.
The exception is when the allegation is so ambiguous that it may be interpreted to mean either
one or another offense, then the designation of the offense is controlling (Case of US v. Dixon,
where the designation is for trespassing but the allegations indicates either trespassing or a
possible attempted rape).
II. Prosecution of Civil Action
Basis:
Art. 100, RPC - Every person criminally liable is also civilly liable
Generally, when a person commits a crime, he offends two entities, namely:
1) The State [whose laws he violated]; and
2) The individual [whose person, right, honor, chastity, or property was actually or directly
injured or damaged by the same acts or omissions].
Exception:
When the infraction falls under the class of offenses called victimless crimes like gambling,
betting on illegal cock fights, drug addiction, prostitution, etc. etc. under the theory that the
offender himself is his own victim.
Sec. 1, Rule 111 - When a criminal action is instituted, the civil actionfor the recovery of civil
liability is deemed instituted with the criminal action unless the offended party:
Waives the civil action;
197
Reserves the right to institute it separately; or

Institutes the civil action prior to the criminal action
Principle of proferrence of criminal action over civil action:
After the criminal action has been commenced, the separate civil actionarising therefrom cannot
be instituted until final judgment has been entered in the criminal action.
If the criminal action is filed after the said civil action has already been instituted, the latter shall
be suspended in whatever stage it may be found before judgments on the merits xxx.
Reason for the rule:
Criminal action is based on an offense committed against the laws of the State while civil action
is based on an injury to individual rights. Public interest is superior over private one.
Exception to the rule of proferrence of criminal action over civil action
When the independent Civil Action is based on Articles 32, 33, 34 and 2176 of the Civil Code.
When there is a prejudicial question in the civil case that must be decided first before the
criminal action can proceed because the decision in the civil action is vital to the judgment of the
criminal case.
Elements of Prejudicial Question:
The previously instituted civil action involves an issue similar or intimately related to the issue
raised in the subsequent criminal action, and
The resolution of such issue determines whether or not the criminal action may proceed.
Queries:
1. Nobern married Armie on 2005. On 2006, Nobern married X. On 2007, Armie filed a criminal
case for bigamy against Nobern. On 2008, X filed a civil case for annulment against Nobern on
the ground that their marriage was void ab initio for having been contracted during the
subsistence of Noberns prior marriage to Armie without X knowing it.
Is there a prejudicial question? Why?
2. Nobern married Armie on 2005. On 2006, Nobern married X because X threatened to kill him
unless he marries X. On 2007, Nobern filed an annulment against X on the ground of threat and
intimidation. On 2008, Armie filed a criminal case for bigamy against Nobern upon learning of
Noberns marriage to X.
Is there a prejudicial question? Why?
Note:
Prejudicial question is subject to the principle that he who comes into court must come with
clean hands. The accused cannot be permitted to use the law in order to frustrate the ends of
justice. Good faith or bad faith is important.
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III. Preliminary Investigation

Defined
It is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient ground to engender a wellfounded belief that a crime has been committed and the respondent is probably guilty thereof,
and should be held for trial.
When required?
Before the filing of complaint or information for an offense where the penalty prescribed by law
is imprisonment of at least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day, without regard to fine.
When NOT REQUIRED:
In cases where the penalty imposed by law is NOT at least 4 years, 2 month, & 1 day
In case of a valid warantless arrest [shall proceed in inquest]
Officers authorized to conduct PI
Provincial or City Prosecutors and their assistants;
National and Regional State Prosecutors; and
Other officers as may be authorized by law [COMELEC during Election Period, Ombudsman,
etc.]
Note: Effective 2004, judges of the lower court canno longer conduct Preliminary Investigations.
Rules:
1. The complaint must be sufficient in form [See notes in Prosecution of Offenses, supra]
2. Supported by affidavits of the complainant and his witnesses
3. Numbers of copies are proportionate to the number of respondents plus 2 official copies
1. Within 10 days after the filing, fiscal determines if there is prima facie case. If no dismiss. If
yes issue subpoenas.
2. Within 10 days after receipt of subpoena with the complaint and supporting affidavits and
documents respondent submits counter affidavits.
3. In case respondent cannot be subpoenaed or does not submit counter affidavit within 10 days
investigating officer resolves the complaint on the basis of evidence presented by complainant.
Clarificatory hearing if there are facts and issues to be clarified from a party or witness - within
10 days after submission of counter affidavit. No direct examinations. Questions must be
addressed to the fiscal.
Resolution within 10 days after the investigation.
Forwarding of fiscals resolution to superiors within 5 days
Superiors shall act on the resolution within 10 days
IV. Arrest
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Defined:
1. [Based on Rules of Court] The taking of a person in custody in order that he may be bound to
answer for the commission of an offense (Sec. 1, RRC)
2. [Based on Jurisprudence] A restraint on person, depriving one of his own will and liberty,
binding him to become obedient to the will of the law (Larraaga v. CA, 92 SCAD 605)
How made:
As to the manner of enforcement, by:
1) Actual restraint, or
2) Submission to the custody of the person making arrest
As to the presence or absence of judicial order:
1) By virtue of a warrant, or
2) Warrantless arrest, in cases allowed by the Rules
As to the person arresting:
1) Arrest by peace officer, or
2) Citizens arrest
When warrantless arrests allowed:
1. Inflagrante Delicto arrest when in his presence, the person to be arrested has:
Committed
Is actually committing an offense
Is attempting to commit
Translation: In flagrante delicto [latin] Literally, caught in the act of wrong.
2. Hot Pursuit arrest when an offense has Ajust been committed and Bhe has probable cause to
believe based on personal knowledge of facts or circumstances that the person arrested has
committed it.
Tests in determining probable cause based on personal knowledge:
Must be based on the senses, i.e.
2) Hearing
3) Smell
1) Sight
Notes:
A. The arresting officer must have personal knowledge of the commission of the crime through
his senses. He cannot fish for evidence first and afterward make the arrest.
B. The term personal knowledge excludes hearsay as a basis for probable cause.
200
C. There must first be a lawful arrest before any search may be conducted. The process cannot be
reversed (Dissent of Chief Justice A. Narvasa, People v. Malmstedt). Exception: in case of valid
warantless searches (Majority opinion, People v. Malmstedt, 198 SCRA 401).
D. For purposes of arrest Officer may break into any building or enclosure where the person to
be arrested is or is reasonably believed to be, if he is refused admittance thereto, after
announcing his authority and purpose (Sec. 11, RRC).
E. For purposes of search and seizure he cannot break into any building or enclosure without
violating the right of privacy. Exceptions: 1) When there is consent (Dissent of Justice I. Cruz,
People v. Evaristo, 216 SCRA 431). 2) When there is a warrant.
3. Arrest of fugitives from justice persons who has escaped from a penal establishment, place
of confinement etc. while serving sentence, temporarily confined, or case is still pending may
be arrested under the theory that he is engaged in the commission of a continuing offense
(Parulan v. Director of Prisons, 22 SCRA 639).
Methods of Arrest:
I. With warrant, by officer:
The officer shall inform the person of: 1) the cause of the arrest
2) fact that warrant exist
Exception: 1) When he flees or forcibly resist before 1 & 2 is completed
2) When the giving of info will imperil the arrest
II. Without warrant, by an officer and by private persons:
Inform the person of 1) authority and cause of arrest [if person arresting is police officer] or 2)
intent to arrest and cause [if person arresting is private person]
Unless when the person to be arrested is either:
1) Engaged in the commission of the offense
2) Is pursued immediately after its commission
3) Has escaped, flees or forcibly resist before the officer or the
arrest has the opportunity to inform him of 1 & 2, or
4) When the giving of info would imperil the arrest
private person making the
Tests in determining lawfulness of USE OF LETHAL FORCE by the arresting officer:

1) Test of reasonability conduct of the arresting officer is examined.
Where the precipitate action of the arresting officer resulted in the loss of a human life and there
exists no circumstances whatsoever justifying the shooting of a person who is asleep, even if he
is a notorious criminal condemnation, and not condonation should be the rule (People v. Oanis,
74 Phil. 257).
2) Test of necessity conduct of the person arrested is examined.
201
Where the arrested person attempts to flee, struck a policeman with his fists, draw a mess knife
and attacked another policeman, the arresting officer is not required to afford him a fair
opportunity for equal struggle. A police officer, in the performance of his duty, must stand his
ground and cannot, like private individual, take refuge in flight. His duty requires him to
overcome the offender (US v. Mojica, 42 Phil 784).
V. Bail
Kinds of bail bonds:
1. cash bond
2. property bond
3. surety bond
4. recognizance
Defined:
The security given for the release of a person in custody of the law, furnished by him or a
bondsman, to guarantee his appearance before any court as required under the conditions of law.
Generally:
The right to bail only accrues when a person is under custody. Court must have jurisdiction over
the person of the accused either thru: 1) arrest, with or without warrant, or 2) voluntary
surrender.
Exception:
When the person under investigation cannot personally appear because he is hospitalized but
applies for bail through his counsel, he is deemed to be under the constructive custody of the law
(Dinapol v. Baldado, 225 SCRA 110, Paderanga v. CA, 247 SCRA 741).
Where to apply?
In the court where the case is pending (if not yet filed, may be filed before any court).
Conditions for bail:
See Sec. 2, Rule 114
Bail, a matter of right:
1. Before or after conviction by MTC, MTCC or MCTC
2. Before conviction by RTC of an offense not punishable by death, reclusion temporal, or life
imprisonment
Bail, a matter of discretion:
1. Upon conviction of RTC of an offense not punishable by death, reclusion perpetua, or life
imprisonment.
2. Before conviction for capital offenses [punishable by death], or an offense punishable by
reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment, when evidence of guilt is not strong. (Bail is neither a
matter of right nor a matter of discretion only in cases where the evidence of guilt is strong).
202
Bail granted in capital offenses despite findings that evidence of guilt is strong (Cited in Cruz,
Constitutional Law, 2003 Ed.):
De la Rama v. Peoples Court, 77 Phil. 461 accused was granted bail due to tuberculosis that
requires confinement to the hospital.
People v. Sison, GR 398, September 19, 1946 humanitarian reasons considered by SC.
Notes:
1. The right to bail flows from the presumption of innocence. This is so because accusation is not
synonymous with guilt.
2. In deportation proceedings, bail is not a matter of right but of discretion on the part of the
Commissioner of Immigration and Deportation (Harvey v. Defensor-Santiago, 162 SCRA 398).
3. Bail is not available to military facing court martial proceedings (Commendador v. De Villa,
200 SCRA 80).
4. I extradition proceedings, bail may be granted provided the accused undertake to submit
himself to the jurisdiction of the court and provided further that he is not a flight risk (Govt. of
Hong Kong v. Judge Olalia, 2007)
VI. Rights of the accused
Rights may be waived, unless the waiver is contrary to law, public order, public policy, morals,
or good customs or prejudicial to a third person with a right recognized by law (Art. 6, NCC).
In all criminal prosecutions, the accused shall be entitled to the following rights:
Key:
[PIPTEC CoSpA]
P resumed innocent
I nformed of the nature of the cause and accusation
P resent in person and by counsel
T estify in his own behalf
E xempt from being compelled to be a witness against himself
C onfront witnesses
C ompulsory process to secure attendance of witnesses and production of other evidence
S peedy, impartial and public trial
A ppeal
1) To be presumed innocent until the contrary is proved beyond reasonable doubt.
Hierarchy of proof [according to degree of persuasiveness]:
203
Absolute certainty ultimate truth [not required in any legal proceeding]

Moral certainty passed the test of human experience [i.e., guilt beyond reasonable doubt,
conclusive presumptions]
Relative certainty so called because a higher degree of proof exists [i.e., preponderance of
evidence, probable cause, substantial evidence, disputable or prima facie presumptions]
Notes:
The starting point is the presumption of innocence (See: Section 3, Par. (a), Rule 131, RRC)
It is incumbent upon the prosecution to demonstrate culpability. The burden of proof lies in the
prosecution. Unless guilt beyond reasonable doubt is established, the accused need not prove his
innocence.
Burden of proof the duty of the affirmative to prove what it alleges. (Africa, The Art of
Argumentation and Debate).
Absolute certainty is not demanded by the law to convict but only moral certainty.
2) To be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation against him.
Essential to avoid surprise and to afford him the opportunity to prepare his defense accordingly.
Arraignment serves this purpose by informing him why the prosecuting arm of the state is
mobilized against him.
An accused cannot be convicted of an offense unless it is clearly charged in the compliant or
information. Basic rule you cannot prove what you did not allege.
3) To be present and defend in person and by counsel at every stage of the proceedings, from
arraignment to promulgation of judgment.
Express or Implied waiver is renunciation to be present on that particular date only.
Escape of the accused is waiver by implication to be present on said date and all subsequent trial
dates. [Fact of escape made his failure unjustified because he has, by escaping, placed himself
beyond the pale and protection of the law (People v. Salas 143 SCRA 163, cited in Cruz,
Constitutional Law, 2003 Ed.)].
Right to counsel is right to effective counsel. It is not enough to simply appoint a counsel de
officio. Counsel must have no conflict of interest. Thus, a fiscal cannot be appointed as counsel
de officio.
When an accused is represented by a fake lawyer who pretended to be a member of the bar, his
right to counsel is violated, unless the accused voluntarily chose him knowing him to be a nonlawyer.
4) To testify as a witness in his own behalf but subject to cross-examination on matters covered
by direct examination. His silence shall not in any manner prejudice him.
5) To be exempt from being compelled to be a witness against himself.
Right to testify in his own behalf:
Once exercised, the accused is subject to limited cross-examination.
If not exercised, no inference of guilt can be derived from his silence alone.
204
Right against self incrimination:

Intended to shield the guilty & imprudent as well as the innocent & farsighted.
Based on public policy and humanity, otherwise, the accused will be placed on the strongest
temptation to commit perjury.
Notes:
A. Prohibition covers 1testimonial compulsion and 2the production of the accused of
incriminating documents and articles demanded from him.
B. Does not include compulsion to 1submit fingerprints, 2photograph, 3blood or urine samples,
and 4others requiring a mere mechanical act on the part of the accused [Villaflor v. Summers, 41
Phil. 64, US v. Tan Teng, 23 Phil. 145, Schemerber v. California, US L.Ed. 2d 908, 89 S CT No.
658].
6) To confront and cross-examine the witnesses against him at the trial.
Reasons:
To meet the witness face to face (Bill of Rights, 1987 Constitution)
To enable the court to judge the truthfulness, deportment, and the appearance of the witness
while testifying (US v, Javier, 37 Phil 449).
Effect of absence of right to cross examine:
When there is express or implied waiver no effect
In the absence of waiver testimony of the witness cannot be considered as complete and
therefore cannot form part of the evidence against the accused.
Effect when witness dies:
Before he could take witness stand inadmissible
After giving his direct testimony but before cross examination Gen. rule: inadmissible.
Exception: where the adverse party was given adequate opportunity but failed to cross examine
due to his own fault
After the defense conducted cross examination admissible
7) To have compulsory process issued to secure the attendance of witnesses and production of
other evidence in his behalf.
Compulsory process refers to the issuance of the court of:
Sub-poena for the attendance of witnesses
Sub-poena duces tecum for the production of documents
Notes:
A. If a sub-poena or sub-poena duces tecum is issued and the person named in the sub-poena
refuses to appear or refuses to produce the required documents without justifiable reasons court
has the power to declare that person in contempt and may order his arrest. [People v. Montejo, 21
SCRA 722].
205
B. The coercive powers of the court must be employed in order to give meaning to this right.
8) To have speedy, impartial and public trial.
Speed:
Justice delayed is justice as denied
Impartiality:
Every party litigant is entitled to nothing less than the cold neutrality of an impartial court
(Macalintal v. Judge Teh, 280 SCRA 623).
Public trial:
So that the public may see that he is fairly dealt with and not unjustly condemned in case of
conviction.
So the public may know of the fact or the basis of his innocence in case of acquittal.
Note: Public trial and Trial by publicity are two different things. They are not the same.
There should be a public trial, not trial by publicity.
9) To appeal in all cases allowed and in the manner prescribed by law.
The right to appeal is a statutory right but withdrawal of this right, in the absence of a valid
waiver, constitutes a denial of due process guaranteed by the Constitution (Cruz, Constitutional
Law, 2003 Ed.).
It is not a natural right or inherent one. The party who seeks to avail of the said right must
comply with the requirements of the Rules. Otherwise, the right to appeal is lost (People v.
Sabellano, 198 SCRA 196)
VII. Arraignment and Plea
Arraignment: The initial step in a criminal prosecution whereby the defendant is brought
before the court to hear the charges and to enter a plea (Blacks Law Dictionary).
Venue for Arraignment and Plea:
Before the court where the complaint or information was filed or is assigned for trial.
Purpose of arraignment [Key: FIG] (14 Am. Jur., p. 939, GV Jacinto, Crim. Proc.)
1) To fix the identity of the accused
2) To inform him of the charge
3) To give the accused an opportunity to plead
Note:
In order for the Court to acquire complete jurisdiction over the person of the accused,
arraignment is essential. Unless this procedure is completed, the court cannot commence trial in
absentia.
206
Procedure:
Arraignment must be made in open court by the judge or the clerk
Accused must be furnished with a copy of the complaint or information
Complaint or Information must be read in a language or dialect known to him
Accused must be present
Accused must personally enter his plea
I. If under preventive detention
Raffle of case and transmittal of records within 3 days
Arraignment within 10 days from the date of raffle
Pre trial conference within 10 days after arraignment
II. If not under preventive detention
General rule within 30 days from the date the court acquires jurisdiction
Exception a shorter period is provided by special law or SC Circular
Rules in entering a plea:
If accused refuses to plead or makes a conditional plea a plea of not guilty shall be entered
If accused enters a plea but presents exculpatory evidence plea of guilty is withdrawn and a
plea of not guilty shall be entered for him. Burden of proof shifts.
If accused enters a plea to a capital offense court shall conduct a searching inquiry into the
voluntariness and full comprehension of the consequences of his plea and shall require the
prosecution to prove his guilt and the precise degree of culpability.
Pre-trial Conference:
Private offended party shall be required to appear for purposes of:
1) Plea-bargaining
2) Determination of civil liability
3) Other matters requiring his presence
In case of failure of the offended party to appear despite due notice conformity of prosecutor is
sufficient for purposes of pleading guilty to a lesser offense which is necessarily included in the
offense charged.
Bill of particulars:
The accused may, before arraignment, move for a bill of particulars to enable him properly to
plead and prepare for trial. The motion shall specify the alleged defects of the complaint or
information and the details desired.
Scope of the Bill of Particular:
Bill of Particulars is a remedy for formal defects and not substantive defects.
The remedy against an indictment that fails to allege the time of the commission of the offense
with sufficient definition is a Motion for Bill of Particulars and not a Motion to Quash
(Rocaberte v. People, 192 SCRA 152).
207
[See discussion in: Elements of Complaint and Information, remedy in case complaint or
information is defective, supra]
Modes of discovery:
Accused has a right against the suppression of evidence favorable to an accused which is
material as to 1) guilt, or 2) as to punishment (Webb v. De Leon, 247 SCRA 653).
Suppressed evidence must be of such nature as to affect the outcome of the trial (US v. Agurs,
US v. Bagley)
Notes:
1) Arraignment is important for notifying the accused of the cause he is required to meet. The
accused has the right to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation against him (Borja
v. Mendoza, 77 SCRA 422).
2) The existence of a plea is an essential requisite to double jeopardy (People v. Balicas)
208

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Criminalistics Review Questions 1

7. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the slope or downward

where the ridge has entered.

27.Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.

48. The following are characteristics of forgery except one:

61. A forensic chemist is tasked to examine the chemical nature

66. One of the following is a derivative of the opium poppy.

75. It is the major component of a glass.

76. Poisons which produce stupor and less feeling.

81. The complete, continuous, persistent cessation of respiration,

B. minimum of six weeks

83. DNA stands for

85. The cause of death of a person who immediately died because of

89. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as club and stone.

96. The application of medical knowledge in the solution of crimes.

100. The test conducted to determine the presence of gunpowder

Criminalistics Review Questions 2

7. The following officials of the Philippine Government are authorized to

14. Hanging is asphyxia due to the constriction of the neck as a result

characterized by a small opening of the wound.

for firing is called

contain pigment granules in varying proportion depending on the

45. In fingerprinting, the space between shoulders of a loop, free of

50. It is the art of extracting and working on metals by the application

51. The branch of geology that deals with the systematic

68. Which evidence offers least resistance to decomposition?

70. Are condensed and compact set of authentic specimens which,

87. This valuable instrument is specially designed to permit the

ISO 1000 and up

93. Chromatic aberration is the failure of different colored light rays to

the breathing of the subject?

99. In fingerprinting, it refers to the process of counting the

Law Enforcement Administration

the expertise of persuasion, advice and warning is found to be

Administration of Police Organization

Bureau - the largest organic functional unit within a

replaced by his blind brother, John Fielding

safety, the general supervision over local

"To administer and control the Philippine National

personnel can issue processes and administer oaths

1908 - the Philippine constabulary school was transferred to Baguio City.

1972 - The POLCOM was reorganized as the National Police Commission.

FUNCTIONS IN A POLICE ORGANIZATION

records management, supplies and equipment management

- generally more formal in nature and has many

in the fields during daytime.Among the duties of

enacted on October 3, 1901

7.Beat - the primary subdivision of a sector.

A. Traffic spot map

therein.It tells the filer or searcher where to find the needed

Administration of Police Organization Review Questions 3

D. None of the Above

Administration of Police Organization Reviewer 4

2. An organization is effective if it enables the individual

Administration of Police Organization Review Questions 5

3. The responsibility for actions can not be greater than that

Administration of Police Organization Review Questions 6

D. Officer Basic Course

10. Optional retirement requires the approval of the

Administration of Police Organization Definition of Terms

Patrol Organization and Operation Reviewer 1