PRACTICE SET

IBPS CWE Clerk

Test-I: Reasoning Ability
1.

In a certain code language MAINE is written as

GPHCO. How is GRANT written in that code language?
1) VPZSH
2) VPZTI
3) VPBTI
4) PVZTI
5) None of these
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
APPROPRIATE each of which has as many letters
between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) More than four
3. How many meaningful English words can be formed
using the first, third, seventh and eighth letter of the
meaningless word LAMBASTE, using each letter only
once in each word?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and hence form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group?
1) 89
2) 69
3) 79
4) 49
5) 59
5. If the letters of the word INCREMENT are arranged in
the English alphabetical order, the position of how
many letters will remain unchanged?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
6. In a column of twentytwo students, Q is fourth after P
from the front and P is 18th from the back. What is the
position of Q from the front?
1) Eighth
2) Tenth
3) Ninth
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 7-11): Study the following arrangement
carefully and answer the questions given below:
49 4 923 21 57 935 8525 618 59 72 624 2 5831
624
7. Which of the following is seventh to the left of the
twentysecond digit from the left end of the above
arrangement?
1) 9
2) 1
3) 6
4) 5
5) None of these
8. How many such 2s are there in the above arrangement
each of which is immediately preceded by a perfect
square?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these

9.

If all the odd digits are deleted from the above

arrangement, which of the following will be tenth from
the left end of the arrangement?
1) 6
2) 2
3) 4
4) 8
5) None of these
10. How many such 5s are there in the above arrangement
each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
number and followed by an even number?
1) None
2) Three
3) One
4) Two
5) None of these
11. If one is added to each of the even digits and two is
added to each of the odd digits given in bold in the
above arrangement, how many digits will appear twice
in the new number thus formed?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 12-16): Study the following questions
which are based on the following diagram.
The diagram shows three figures, each representing
the people of three countries. The rectangle represents the
people of India, the triangle represents the people of
Russia, the circle represents the people of the USA.

K
KUNDAN

12. How many Russians are also Indians in the above

diagram?
1) 9
2) 8
3) 15
4) 17
5) None of these
13. How many Americans are also Russians but not
Indians?
1) 7
2) 14
3) 12
4) 19
5) None of these
14. How many Indians are neither Russians nor
Americans?
1) 1
2) 10
3) 7
4) 6
5) None of these
15. How many Americans are also Indians and Russians?
1) 17
2) 7
3) 2
4) 8
5) None of these
16. How many Indians are also Americans but not
Russians?
1) 8
2) 2
3) 7
4) 5
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 17-22): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight persons B1, B2, B3, B4, B5, B6, B7 and B8 are sitting
in a straight line facing south but not necessarily in the
same order.
B5 is second to the right of B1 and B7 is third to the left

of B1. B5 is not the immediate neighbour of B3 and is not at

the ends of the row. B6 is second to the right of B2, who is
not the neighbour of B1.
17. Who is on the immediate right of B1?
1) B3
2) B4
3) B8
4) Either 2) or 3) 5) None of these
18. Who among the following pairs is at the ends of the
row?
1) B4, B8
2) B2, B4
3) B8, B2
4) Cant be determined
5) None of these
19. If B8 is on the immediate right of B5 then who among
the following is third to the right of B6?
1) B8
2) B4
3) B1
4) B2
5) None of these
20. If B1 is on the immediate left of B4 then who among the
following is second to the right of B4?
1) B5
2) B6
3) B8
4) B3
5) B7
21. Who among the following is second to the left of B3?
1) B7
2) B2
3) B4
4) B1
5) Cant be determined
22. If B5 is on the immediate right of B4 then which of the
following pairs is at the extreme ends of the row?
1) B4, B2
2) B3, B2
3) B8, B4
4) B2, B8
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 23-27): In these questions, a
relationship between different elements is shown in the
statements. The statements are followed by two
conclusions. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I is true.
2) if only conclusion II is true.
3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
(23-24):
Statement:
QP= RN< GE>S
23. Conclusions:
I. Q N
II. R > E
24. Conclusions:
I. G > P
II. S < R
25. Statement:
B=YD<W< MN
Conclusions:
I. M > Y
II. D < N
(26-27):
Statement:
J< X V >U= W<L< P =T
26. Conclusions:
I. P > U
II. W < V
27. Conclusions:
I. J < W
II. T > U
Directions (Q. 28-32): In each question below are
given two/three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the given statements, disregarding commonly
known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.

3) if either conclusion I or II follows.

4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
28. Statements: Some circles are triangles.
All triangles are squares.
Conclusions: I. All squares being circles is a
possibility.
II. Some triangles are circles.
29. Statements: All phones are wires.
No wire is a pole.
Conclusions: I. Some poles are phones.
II. No phone is a pole.
30. Statements: No pen is a pin.
Some pins are caps.
Conclusions: I. Some pins are caps.
II. Some caps are not pens.
(31-32):
Statements: All discs are sticks.
No stick is a drum.
Some drums are covers.
31. Conclusions: I. No disc is a drum.
II. All sticks being discs is a
possibility.
32. Conclusions: I. All covers being drums is a
possibility.
II. No stick is a cover.
Directions (Q. 33-37): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight persons I, J, K, L, M, N, O and P are sitting
around a circular table but not necessarily in the same
order. Three of them are facing outward while five are facing
towards the centre.
M is third to the right of K. N is sitting third to the left
of M. Three persons are sitting between N and J. O is
sitting third to the right of N, who is not facing the centre.
L is sitting third to the right of I, who is not facing the
centre.
33. Who sits between N and I?
1) J
2) K
3) M
4) O
5) None of these
34. Who among the following is second to the right of J?
1) L
2) K
3) M
4) N
5) None of these
35. Which of the following statements is/are true with
respect to P?
1) P is opposite of O.
2) P is fourth to the right of O.
3) P is fourth to the left of O.
4) All are true
5) None of these
36. Which of the following groups represents the group,
of those facing away from the centre?
1) IKN
2) KNL
3) IJK
4) LMN
5) None of these

K
KUNDAN

37. What is the position of K with respect to P?

1) K is third to the right of P.
2) K is second to the left of P.
3) K is third to the left of P.
4) K is in front of P.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 38-40): Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and
II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement
II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data in both the statements I and II together
are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both the statements I and II together
are necessary to answer the question.
38. How many sisters does R have?
I. N is father of Rs brother Ls father, who has three
children.
II. M is daughter of K, who is daughter-in-law of N.
39. In which direction is Rehans home with respect to
Rinas home?
I. Rinas home is east of Rajus home and the home of
Rehan is to the north of Rajus home.
II. Rehans home is northwest of Nilams home and
east of Rajus home.
40. Who is the tallest among Shiva, Mira, John and Punit?
I. Mira is not as tall as either Shiva or Punit.
II. John is taller than Shiva.

a womens bank. There are two reasons why the idea is not
exciting for some of us. First, merely setting up an allwomen bank is not likely to address the core issue of
attitudinal bias against women, which is so prevalent in
our banking institutions. There is both overt and covert
exclusion in the system. Second, there is no guarantee that
the all-women bank is going to mitigate the problem of
financial exclusion of Indian women. My scepticism also
stems from the limited success of other previous attempts
at focused banking, such as the setting up of the regional
rural banks.
In order to assess the likely impact of the proposed
women-only bank, it would be interesting to draw an
analogy with the launching of the regional rural banks in
the 1970s. The RRBs were set up in 1976 as special conduits
of credit delivery in rural India. They were supposed to
combine the local feel and familiarity of rural problems
with the professionalism and large resource base of
commercial banks. Thus, there was an acknowledgment
that mainstream commercial banks could not effectively
cater to the needs of the villages, so a new type of locally
oriented banks, the RRBs had to be set up. This is very
similar to the proposed womens banks ambition to
address the gender-related issues of financial inclusion.
On the face of it, there is nothing wrong in setting up
new institutions that target specific segments of the
population. However, we have seen in the case of the RRBs
that, less than ten years into operation, their financial
viability became a matter of concern. Starting from 1981,
more than 10 committees were set up to address various
issues (of financial viability, reconstruction and
amalgamation, manpower and human resources and
technological upgradation) relating to operation of the
RRBs. Following this, the RRBs went through the process
of recapitalisation and amalgamation so as to make them
financially sound. Due to amalgamation and mergers, some
RRBs have become large entities that defeat the very
concept of locally oriented banks.
Ironically the number of urban and metropolitan
branches of RRBs has increased over the years, while that
of their rural branches has declined. Between 1992 and
2009, there was a 22-percentage point decline in the
proportion of rural bank branches of RRBs while there was
a 16-percentage point increase in the share of their nonrural branches. Thus the creation of localised rural banks
as a means for tackling the lack of familiarity of rural
problems on the part of mainstream commercial banks
does not seem to have served its purpose. In fact, rural
India is much more financially excluded today when
compared to the 1990s, both in terms of banking outlets
and availability of institutional credit.
Going by this analogy, it must be asked if the womenonly bank can promote financial inclusion of India women

K
KUNDAN
Test-II: English Language

Directions (Q. 41-50): Read the following passage

carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words/phrases in the passage are printed in bold to help
you locate them while answering some of the questions.
That women in India are much more financially
excluded than the men is evident from the figures as of
March 2011. Only 21 per cent of total bank deposit accounts
were held by women and these accounted for just about 12
per cent of the total volume of deposits. Similarly, women
availed only 18 per cent of the total small credit from banks
in 2011. The problem must be understood in the context of
larger issues arising from the underprivileged status of a
woman in India.
Finance minister P Chidambaram has proposed to deal
with the financial exclusion of Indian women by setting up

unless we address the core issue of exclusion at a more

fundamental level. Attitudinal changes in our banking system
should be an essential and integral part of all our efforts to
promote financial inclusion. Not too long ago, the Rangarajan
Committee on financial inclusion had emphasised the
correction of mindsets of the bank staff. Citing a study
conducted in Madhya Pradesh, the committee highlighted
that the majority of the bank branch managers held negative
attitudes towards lending to (the) poor, although (the) poor,
if guided properly, not only succeed as entrepreneurs but
also are good repayers. There is no doubt that if the poor
happens to be a woman, this discrimination gets doubled.
41. Why is the author apprehensive about the success of
the womens bank?
1) Because women are not so competent as men.
2) Because previous attempts at focused banking
such as the setting up of the RRBs have shown
limited success.
3) Because there is no ready infrastructure for the
setting up of the all-womens bank.
4) The government itself is under severe financial
constraints as of now.
5) All the above
42. Find the incorrect statement regarding Regional Rural
Banks.
1) The RRBs were set up as a special channel of credit
delivery in rural India.
2) The RRBs were set up to cater to the needs of the
villages.
3) The number of urban branches of RRBs has
increased over the years.
4) The number of both rural and metropolitan branches
of RRBs has increased over the years.
5) None of these
43. Which of the following statements is/are true about
the operation of RRBs in the first decade of their
inception?
1) They did not reflect the desired results as expected
at the time of their launch.
2) To make the RRBs financially sound the process of
mergers and amalgamation were adopted.
3) Various committees were formed to address various
issues related to operations of the RRBs.
4) Only 1) and 3)
5) All 1), 2) and 3)
44. What is/are the reason(s) for setting up of the allwomens bank?
(A) Financial inclusion of Indian women
(B) To address the core issue of attitudinal bias
against women
(C) To provide financial assistance and loans only to
women professionals
1) All (A), (B) and (C)
2) Only (A) and (B)
3) Only (A) and (C)
4) Only (B) and (C)

5) Only (A)
45. Which of the following needs to be done to promote
financial inclusion?
1) General mindset towards women in general and
poor women in particular needs to be changed.
2) Women should be granted financial aids at
comparatively low rate of interest.
3) Women at village level should be educated through
meetings, hoardings, banners and posters.
4) It should be made mandatory to bring all rural
women under the umbrella of financial inclusion.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 46-48): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
46. Discrimination
1) description
2) insight
3) revelation
4) distinction
5) contradiction
47. Core
1) right
2) temporary
3) central
4) vast
5) burning
48. Stems
1) declines
2) moves
3) extracts
4) trunks
5) originates
Directions (Q. 49-50): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
49. Exciting
1) repulsive
2) provocating 3) interesting
4) useful
5) elating
50. Mitigate
1) allay
2) enhance
3) relieve
4) waste
5) vindicate
Directions (Q. 51-55): Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
number of that part is the answer. If there is No error,
the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
51. 1) Anand did the nation pride by winning the
international chess championship / 2) five times at a
time when / 3) India was faring miserably in / 4)
international sporting events like the Olympics. / 5)
No error
52. 1) She has a lot of positivity about her / 2) and the
employees see her as a compassionate woman / 3)
who would handle issues from a human perspective /
4) not as a cold and robotic boss. / 5) No error
53. 1) Israel is a highly developed agricultural economy, /
2) illustrated by its green fields and expensive
infrastructure / 3) as well as by its migrant workforce /
4) that is in this sector largely from Thailand. / 5) No
error
54. 1) The transformation of the Indian Constitution over
the years / 2) and its flexibility in adapting / 3) to

K
KUNDAN

changing needs constitute an area of / 4) great interest

to scholars. / 5) No error
55. 1) As she had an education of sorts, she managed to
land a job / 2) that fetch her some money with which /
3) she paid rent and supported her in-laws / 4) who are
landless agricultural workers. / 5) No error
Directions (Q. 56-60): In the following questions, a
sentence has been given with some of its parts in bold. To
make the sentence grammatically correct, you have to
replace the bold part with the correct alternative given
below. If the sentence is correct as it is, give 5) as your
answer (ie No correction required).
56. The Second World War proved that internal massive
violations of human rights has lead to the break of
international peace.
1) have led the breaking 2) leads to the break up
3) lead to the breach
4) leads to the break
5) No correction required
57. The Jindal International Summer School was formally
launched on the 1st of March 2013 at the Constitution
Club of India, New Delhi.
1) formally launched from the
2) launched formally since
3) formally launched on
4) formally began from the
5) No correction required
58. Why did you not returned the money?
1) had you not return
2) you have not repaid
3) were you not return
4) did you not return
5) No correction required
59. I am beginning to realising how difficult it is to be a
teacher.
1) have been beginning to realising
2) have been beginning to realise
3) am beginning to realise
4) I am beginning the realisation of
5) No correction required
60. I have said that in the experimental novel it is best for
us to hold to the strictly scientific point of view if we
would wish to base our studies on solid ground.
1) if we wish to
2) if we will wish to
3) if we could wish to
4) when we should wish to
5) No correction required
Directions (Q. 61-65): In each of the following
sentence there are certain blank spaces. Below each
sentence there are five options denoted by the number 1),
2), 3), 4) and 5). Find out which option can be used to fill up
the blank(s) in the sentence in the same sequence to make
it meaningfully complete.
61. There are numerous NGOs, international and national,
________ in the field of human rights.
1) who is very active
2) that is more active

3) that are lesser active

4) which are very active
5) there are hardly active
62. You can ________ on our leaders to stay a step ahead
of the law.
1) buy
2) bank
3) believe
4) mind
5) stand
63. ________ the blanket protests, the ________ of
Telangana, Indias 29th state, appears certain.
1) In spite of, launch
2) Moreover, beginning
3) Despite, birth
4) However, start
5) Unlike, division
64. Delhis Shastri Bhawan, ________ to the Petroleum
and Natural Gas ministry, easily ________ the award
for the most paranoid corridors of power complex in a
city that ________ in Machiavellian intrigue.
1) house, received, interests
2) building, get, enjoys
3) palace, achieved, involves
4) residence, caught, helps
5) home, gets, specialises
65. Exide is _______ to present the first ever maintenancefree tubular battery with wheels attached.
1) pride
2) proud
3) glorified
4) haughty
5) arrogant
Directions (Q. 66-70): Rearrange the following seven
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer
the questions given below.
(A) However, these efforts could not produce
significant results on account of policy and
inadequate budgetary support.
(B) Keeping in line with the growing demands of
advanced equipment, infrastructure and scientific
support, Government of India has taken a lot of
initiatives.
(C) Sports and games have always been seen as an
integral component in the all-round development
of human personality.
(D) Unlike in the past, modern sports have become
highly competitive.
(E) Moreover, achievement in sports has always been
a source of national pride and prestige.
(F) The use of modern equipment, infrastructure and
advanced scientific support has changed the
scenario of sports at international level.
(G) Apart from being means of entertainment and
physical fitness, sports have also played a great
role in generation of spirit of healthy competition
and bonding within the community.
66. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence
after rearrangement?
1) G
2) D
3) A
4) C
5) B

K
KUNDAN

67. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence

after rearrangement?
1) A
2) E
3) G
4) B
5) F
68. Which of the following should be the LAST
(SEVENTH) sentence after rearrangement?
1) D
2) B
3) C
4) F
5) A
69. Which of the following should be the SECOND
sentence after rearrangement?
1) G
2) A
3) B
4) D
5) E
70. Which of the following should be the FOURTH
sentence after rearrangement?
1) B
2) C
3) D
4) A
5) G
Directions (Q. 71-80): In the following passage, some
of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated
by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given
against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully
complete.
Last April, the Allahabad High Court allowed the
farmers writ pleas and (71) the project. It (72) that farmers
who had received (73) for their land should either return
the money and take back the land or willingly hand it over
for the project. Around 140 farmers did not accept
compensation. Those who did are in no condition to repay
the amount, causing an (74) which the administration is
(75) to break.
After the (76) violence, the (77) have been peaceful,
but the farmers complain they are being (78) by local (79)
and officials to give up their land and (80) the protests.
71. 1) enquired
2) stalled
3) interrogated
4) inspected
5) checked
72. 1) framed
2) prayed
3) rebuked
4) stipulated
5) questioned
73. 1) fee
2) compensation 3) benefit
4) profit
5) premium
74. 1) importance
2) end
3) agreement
4) interest
5) impasse
75. 1) struggling
2) attacking
3) tackling
4) prohibiting
5) labouring
76. 1) final
2) initial
3) late
4) leading
5) starting
77. 1) gossip
2) condition
3) protests
4) riot
5) turmoil
78. 1) helped
2) rescued
3) intimidated
4) praised
5) protected
79. 1) hawkers
2) workers
3) goons
4) friends
5) person
80. 1) forbid
2) prohibit
3) check
4) enforce
5) discontinue

Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 81-100): What should come in place
of question mark (?) in the following equations?
81. 14973 ? 1976 + 3688 = 15344
1) 1431 2) 1341 3) 1236 4) 1680 5) 940
82. 777777 37 3 = ?
1) 7601 2) 7061 3) 7007 4) 7337 5) 7610
83. 4379 777 = ?
1) 3620483
2) 3240683
3) 3562393
4) 3402483
5) 3142583
84. 4 + 0.4 + 0.44 + 0.444 + 0.4444 = ?
1) 5.2784 2) 5.3784 3) 5.9884 4) 5.4384 5) 5.7284

K
KUNDAN
85.

106090 14884 ?
1) 15
2) 17
3) 19
4) 21
86. 22 + 42 + 62 + 72 + 82 + 102 + 122 + 142 = ?
1) 6709 2) 609
3) 1006 4) 1240

5) 23

5) 980

1
5
3 ?
11 13
1) 24
2) 36
3) 28
4) 27
88. 34.5 123 243.5 23.5 44.5 = (12)?
1) 13
2) 14.5
3) 11
4) 11.5
89. (850 68) (3024 36) = ?
1) 1230 2) 1180 3) 1030 4) 1040

87. 7

5) 52
5) 12

5) 1050

1
5
13
9
of
of
of
of 3465 = ?
3
7
15
11
1) 380
2) 585
3) 385
4) 485
91. 79% of 816 + ? = 700
1) 46.64 2) 49.86 3) 36.66 4) 55.36

90.

92.

13824 17576
?
576 676 624
1) 95
2) 80
3) 70

5) 715
5) 58.36

4) 60

5) 50

1
6
4
93. 2 3 2 ?
9
7
7

94.

1) 5

4
7

2) 4

4
7

4) 3

2
7

5) None of these

3) 5

3
7

1492 835 43 40 81 ?

1) 28
2) 37
3) 39
4) 43
5) 49
95. 75% of 780 + (?)% of 1662 = 60% of 2360
1) 35
2) 20
3) 30
4) 65
5) 50
96. 15 ? 1246

2
of 4465
5

1) 1236 2) 1296 3) 1225 4) 1156

97. 45% of 1998 + ? = 65% of 2400
1) 660.9 2) 690.8 3) 669.7 4) 780.2
98.

99.

100.

24 20 ? 120
1) 36
2) 42
3) 30

4) 40

5) 1444
5) 682.4
5) 50

37 37 37 33 33 33
?
37 37 33 33 1221
1) 4
2) 70
3) 74
4) 80
5) None of these
4.5 6 3.6 5
?
8.8 5 5.5 6

5
7
8
9
5
2)
3)
4)
5)
7
11
11
11
11
101. A train covers the distance from Delhi to Patna at the
speed of 42 kmph and from Patna to Delhi at 48 kmph.
What is the average speed of the train?
1) 44.8 kmph
2) 45.5 kmph
3) 46.6 kmph
4) 43.9 kmph
5) None of these
102. The cost of 24 pens and 36 pencils is `720. What is
the cost of 6 pens and 9 pencils?
1) `109
2) `230
3) `180
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
103. If the sum of five consecutive even numbers A, B, C,
D and E is 110, what is the product of B and D?
1) 460
2) 480
3) 520
4) 760
5) None of these
104. If 45% of a number is 1291.5, what is 67.5% of that
number?
1) 1968.35
2) 1925.37
3) 1940.5
4) 1937.25
5) None of these
105. Two years ago the ratio of the ages of Manoj and
Shyam was 15 : 11. Two years hence the ratio of their
ages will be 17 : 13. What is the present age of Shyam?
1) 24 years
2) 26 years
3) 28 years
4) 22 years
5) None of these
106. The cost of 19 kg Apples is `1158, that of 17 kg
Tomatoes is `595, and that of 13 kg Oranges is `949.
What is the total cost of 11 kg Apples, 7 kg Tomatoes
and 3 kg Oranges?
1) `1876
2) `1366
3) `1230
4) `1780
5) None of these
107. Pinky invested an amount of `24500 at the rate of 9%
per annum. After how many years will she get a simple
interest of `37485?
1) 13 years
2) 15 years
3) 17 years
4) 19 years
5) None of these
108. 50 persons can complete a piece of work in 50 days.
How many persons with twice the efficiency will
complete the same piece of work in 10 days?
1) 110
2) 115
3) 120

1)

4) 125
5) None of these
109. Two candidates fought an election. One of them got
60% of the total votes and won by 550 votes. If 5% of
votes were declared invalid what was the total number
of votes polled?
1) 2700
2) 3300
3) 3500
4) 3700
5) None of these
110. A number when multiplied by six times of itself gives
value equal to 1176. What is the number?
1) 14
2) 17
3) 18
4) 16
5) None of these
111. The LCM of two numbers is 1540 and their HCF is 20.
If one of the numbers is 11 20, find the other number.
1) 160 2) 140 3) 130 4) 180 5) None of these
112. Two sums of money are proportional to 7 : 9. If the first
one is `140, what is the other?
1) `180
2) `200
3) `240
4) `220
5) None of these
113. In how many different ways can the letters of the word
PRACTICE be arranged?
1) 26100
2) 20160
3) 21060
4) 20106
5) None of these
114. How long does a 110-m-long train running at a speed
of 54 kmph take to cross a 205-m-long-bridge?
1) 40 seconds
2) 42 seconds
3) 21 seconds
4) 20 seconds
5) None of these
115. A man swims 21 km downstream and 14 km upstream,
taking 7 hours each time. What is the speed of the
stream?
1) 2 kmph
2) 1.5 kmph
3) 1 kmph

K
KUNDAN

1
kmph
5) None of these
2
116. A profit of 25% is earned on goods when a discount
of 20% is allowed on the marked price. What profit
percentage will be earned when a discount of 10% is
allowed on the marked price?

4)

1) 45

9
%
11

3
2) 42 %
4

5
3) 40 %
8

2
4) 37 %
5) None of these
3
117. A 20m long and 16m wide rectangular hall is
surrounded by a 2-metre wide verandah. Find the area
of the verandah.
1) 128m2
2) 130m2
3) 168m2
2
4) 160m
5) None of these
118. The difference between the compound interest and
the simple interest on a certain sum of money at 10%
per annum for 2 years is `15. Find the sum.
1) `2000
2) `1600
3) `1500
4) `2500
5) None of these
119. Two horses are sold for `1955 each. The first one is
sold at 15% profit and the other one at 15% loss. What
is the total profit or loss?

1) `110 profit
2) `90 loss
3) `90 profit
4) `110 loss
5) None of these
120. A number when divided by 527 gives a remainder 31.
What remainder will be obtained by dividing the same
number by 17?
1) 14
2) 12
3) 13
4) 8
5) None of these

128. The RBI has undertaken Cheque Truncation System

(CTS) as a new method for clearing of cheques. Which
of the following is NOT correct about the CTS system?
1) Physical movement of cheques takes place in this
system.
2) Electronic image of the cheque is transmitted.
3) Clearing-related frauds and cost of collection are
reduced.
4) Only 1) and 3)
5) Only 2) and 3)
129. Which of the following banks has the highest number
of branches outside India?
1) HDFC Bank
2) ICICI Bank
3) Bank of Baroda
4) Indian Overseas Bank
5) Punjab National Bank
130. The book Scandal Point has been authored by who
among the following?
1) Fahad Samar
2) FS Aijazuddin
3) Talmiz Ahmad
4) Sudhir Kakar
5) None of these
131. Who among the following has won the Formula Ones
season-ending Brazilian Grand Prix recently?
1) Sebastian Vettel
2) Kimi Raikkonen
3) Lewis Hamilton
4) Mark Webber
5) None of these
132. Justice Ajay Manikrao Khanwilkar has been sworn in
as the 22nd Chief Justice of which of the following
High Courts recently?
1) Gauhati High Court
2) Madhya Pradesh High Court
3) Himachal Pradesh High Court
4) Jammu and Kashmir High Court
5) None of these
133. Which of the following cannot be categorised as a
debt instrument?
1) Loan
2) Certificate of deposit
3) Commercial paper
4) Bond
5) Stock
134. Banks in India normally follow a practice of providing
additional interest rate on retail domestic term deposits
of _________.
1) Handicaps
2) Senior citizens 3) Rural people
4) Married women 5) None of these
135. Mexico has announced to award its 2013 International
Prize for Equality and Non-Discrimination to who
among the following?
1) Barack Obama
2) Malala Yousafzai
3) Hillary Clinton
4) Sachin Tendulkar
5) None of these
136. India and which of the following countries signed a
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to strengthen
co-operation in public administration and governance
as part of the efforts to enhance their strategic
partnership recently?

K
KUNDAN
Test-IV: General Awareness

(with Special Reference to Banking Industry)

121. Which of the following countries has launched an

unmanned lunar probe Change-3 comprising a lander
and a Moon rover recently?
1) Japan
2) US
3) Russia
4) China
5) India
122. Which of the following countries has offered six oil
and gas blocks to Indias ONGC Videsh Ltd without
bidding in South China Sea recently?
1) Philippines
2) Vietnam
3) Thailand
4) Myanmar
5) None of these
123. Which of the following is NOT correct with respect to
the National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT)?
1) It is a nationwide payment system facilitating oneto-one funds transfer.
2) No physical transfer of funds takes place, hence
very low risk.
3) Even having a bank account is not at all necessary
to avail this facility.
4) All the above are correct
5) Only 1) and 2)
124. Expand the term MFI as used in banking/financial
parlance.
1) Market Finance Institution
2) Medium Finance Institution
3) Micro Finance Institution
4) Mega Finance Institution
5) None of these
125. The two-day third edition of the biennial BRICS
International Competition Conference was organised
in which of the following countries recently?
1) South Africa 2) China
3) India
4) Brazil
5) None of these
126. Who among the following has dethroned Indias fivetime title holder Viswanathan Anand as the World
Champion recently?
1) Veselin Topalov
2) Garry Kasparov
3) Vladimir Kramnik
4) Magnus Carlsen
5) None of these
127. The National Education Day is observed every year
on which of the following dates?
1) 11 Nov
2) 12 Nov
3) 15 Nov
4) 19 Nov
5) None of these

1) Indonesia
2) Thailand
3) Malaysia
4) Singapore
5) None of these
137. Name the inventor of the world's most popular assault
rifle, the AK-47, a simple and durable weapon of war
used by tens of millions in about 100 countries, who
died recently.
1) Hugo Schmeisser
2) Samuel Colt
3) Helge Palmcrantz
4) Mikhail Kalashnikov
5) None of these
138. Who among the following has been appointed the
Chairman of the National Bank for Agriculture and
Rural Development (NABARD) recently?
1) Prakash Bakshi
2) Harsh Kumar Bhanwala
3) Santosh Nayar
4) Sushil Muhnot
5) None of these
139. President Pranab Mukherjee inaugurated the 10-day
Hornbill festival and took part in the 50th anniversary
celebration of the statehood of ________recently.
1) Assam
2) Manipur
3) Tripura
4) Nagaland
5) Meghalaya
140. The countrys first fully privately-financed developed
metro system has been launched in the public-private
partnership mode in which of the following cities
recently?
1) Gurgaon
2) Mumbai
3) Bangalore
4) Jaipur
5) None of these
141. Who among the following has won the World Cup of
golf recently?
1) Anirban Lahiri
2) SSP Chowrasia
3) Mohammad Siddikur
4) Jason Day
5) None of these
142. Which of the following is/are eligible for priority sector
lending by banks in India?
1) Micro and Small Enterprises
2) Economically weaker sections
3) Agriculture
4) Only 1) and 3)
5) All 1), 2) and 3)
143. Banks have now been advised by the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) to offer a Basic Savings Bank Deposit
Account (BSBDA) to all their customers. A customer
can open what number of BSBDAs in one bank?
1) Only one
2) Only two
3) Only three
4) Only four
5) Any number
144. India successfully test-fired its Dhanush ballistic
missile recently. The nuclear-capable surface-tosurface missile is a naval variant of which of the
following Indias indigenously developed missiles?
1) Agni
2) Trishul
3) Aakash
4) Prithvi
5) None of these
145. Who among the following has been named the WTA
Player of the Year 2013?
1) Li Na
2) Maria Sharapova

3) Serena Williams
4) Victoria Azarenka
5) None of these
146. Who among the following has been appointed the
new army chief of Pakistan?
1) Haroon Aslam
2) Ashfaq Parvez Kayani
3) Rashid Mehmood
4) Raheel Sharif
5) None of these
147. In the event of a bank failure, Deposit Insurance and
Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) protects bank
deposits that are payable in India. Which of the
following is not covered by DICGC?
1) Deposits of Central/State Govts
2) Current
3) Recurring
4) Fixed
5) Savings
148. Who among the following won the women's title in
the $15,000 Tata Open India international Challenge
recently?
1) Della Destiara Haris
2) Shendy Puspa Irawati
3) Sayali Gokhale
4) PV Sindhu
5) None of these
149. Assessees paying excise duty and service tax of what
amount will have to mandatorily pay the levies
electronically with effect from Jan 2014?
1) `1 lakh
2) `2 lakh
3) `5 lakh
4) `10 lakh
5) None of these
150. The United Nations Day is observed on
1) 24 Oct
2) 26 Oct
3) 28 Oct
4) 30 Oct
5) None of these
151. Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme started by
the RBI in 2004, all resident individuals, including
minors, are allowed to freely remit up to what amount
per financial year (AprMar)?
1) USD 25,000
2) USD 50,000
3) USD 75,000
4) USD 1,00,000 5) None of these
152. What does the term red herring refer to in the context
of an IPO?
1) Minimum offer per share
2) Number of shares offered
3) Preliminary prospectus
4) Size of IPO
5) None of these
153. Who among the following has been appointed the
new chief justice of Pakistan?
1) Tassaduq Hussain Jillani
2) Iftikhar Chaudhary
3) Abdul Hameed Dogar
4) Rana Bhagwandas
5) None of these
154. Who among the following has been crowned Miss
Universe 2013 at the 62nd edition of the beauty
pageant recently?

K
KUNDAN

1) Manasi Moghe
2) Constanza Baez
3) Patricia Yurena Rodriguez
4) Gabriela Isler
5) None of these
155. Which of the following countries has announced to
abolish the decades-old gentan production
adjustment system for rice by the year ending Mar
2019 to bring reforms in agriculture sector?
1) China
2) South Korea 3) Japan
4) Malaysia
5) None of these
156. Which of the following is NOT a financial/banking
term?
1) El Nino Effect 2) SWIFT
3) CAMELS
4) CBS
5) ECS
157. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently directed the
banks to charge customers for transaction SMS alerts
on _____basis.
1) Fixed fee
2) Usage
3) Free
4) Double the actual fee
5) None of these
158. Satyananda Mishra has been appointed the Chairman
of which of the following exchanges in the country
recently?
1) National Stock Exchange (NSE)
2) Multi Commodity Exchange (MCX)
3) Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
4) MCX Stock Exchange (MCX-SX)
5) None of these
159. The Union Petroleum Minister Veerappa Moily
inaugurated the first Synthetic Rubber Plant of the
country at which of the following places recently?
1) Chennai
2) Hyderabad
3) Panipat
4) Mangalore
5) None of these
160. Who among the following has lifted the womens
singles title of the Macau Open Grand Prix Gold
badminton tournament recently?
1) Saina Nehwal 2) Michelle Li
3) PV Sindhu
4) Wang Shixian 5) Li Xuerui

164. The capability of a microcomputer can be enhanced

with the help of
1) secondary memory
2) additional processor
3) expansion card
4) buffer memory
5) None of these
165. The lowest form of computer language is called
1) BASIC
2) FORTRAN
3) Machine Language
4) COBOL
5) None of these
166. The linking of computers with a communication system
is called
1) Networking
2) Pairing
3) Interlocking
4) Assembling 5) Sharing
167. Which of the following is/are a scanning device?
1) OMR
2) MICR
3) BCR
4) All the above 5) None of these
168. Which of the following is/are not a Web browser(s)?
1) Mosaic
2) Cello
3) Lynx
4) All of these
5) None of these
169. Which term identifies a specific computer on the web
and the main page of the entire site?
1) URL
2) Website address
3) Hyperlink
4) Domain name
5) None of these
170. The code that relational database management systems
use to perform their database task is referred to as
1) QBE
2) SQL
3) OLAP
4) Sequel Server 5) None of these
171. Personal computers can be connected together to form
a
1) server
2) supercomputer 3) enterprise
4) network
5) None of these
172. A button that makes character either upper or lower
case and numbers the symbols is
1) monitor
2) shift key
3) icon
4) mouse
5) None of these
173. Which of the following computers is not considered
as a portable computer?
1) Notebook computer
2) Laptop
3) Mini computer
4) PDA
5) Tablet
174. Preparing a magnetic disk for data storage is called
1) debugging
2) formatting
3) booting
4) commissioning 5) compiling
175. A register that contains the result of an operation is
called a(n)
1) action register
2) program counter
3) accumulator
4) stack pointer
5) data register
176. Third-generation language is
1) machine language
2) assembly language
3) high-level language
4) middle-level language
5) low-level language
177. ATM cells comprise how many bytes?

K
KUNDAN
Test-V: Computer Knowledge

161. Information in a computer is stored as

1) analog data
2) digital data
3) modem data
4) watts data
5) None of these
162. What is the full form of USB as used in computerrelated activities?
1) Universal Security Block 2) Ultra Serial Block
3) United Service Block
4) Universal Serial Bus
5) None of these
163. ________ determines the appearance of your desktop
and controls the performance of your hardware.
1) Windows Explorer
2) Internet Explorer
3) Program file
4) Control Panel
5) System file

1) 53 bytes
2) 57 bytes
3) 45 bytes
4) 48 bytes
5) None of these
178. The device used to carry digital data on analog lines
is called
1) modem
2) multiplexer
3) modulator
4) demodulator 5) None
179. Dumb terminals have terminals and
1) mouse
2) speakers
3) keyboard
4) mouse or speakers
5) None of these
180. The portion of the CPU that coordinates the activities
of all other computer components is the
1) motherboard
2) coordination board
3) control unit
4) arithmetic logic unit
5) None of these
181. Which of the following is to be used when you want
to make all letters capital without using the shift key
for each character?
1) Shifter
2) Upper case
3) Caps lock key
4) Icon
5) None of these
182. Which of the following is a device that reads the
information contained on a disk and transfers it to the
computers memory?
1) Monitor
2) Screen
3) Keyboard
4) Disk drive
5) None of these
183. Which view in PowerPoint can be used to enter
speakers comments?
1) Normal
2) Slide show
3) Slide sorter
4) Notes page view
5) None of these
184. The boxes that are displayed to indicate that the text
pictures or objects are placed in it is called
1) Placeholder
2) Auto text
3) Text box
4) Word art
5) None of these
185. When you select a mouse for a particular computer
system, what is the most important consideration?
1) The type of drivers that come with the mouse
2) The length of the mouse cord
3) The type of connector the mouse is equipped with
4) The number of buttons the mouse has
5) None of these
186. Which of the following is an acronym for Electronic
Delay Storage Automatic Calculator?
1) UNIVAC
2) EDSAC
3) EDVAC
4) Abacus
5) None of these
187. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are
not updated, this causes
1) data redundancy
2) information overload
3) duplicate data
4) data inconsistency
5) None of these
188. ________ are words that a programming language
has set aside for its own use.
1) Control words
2) Reserved words
3) Control structures
4) Reserved keys

5) None of these
189. A good practice, before installing software on the
Windows XP operating system, is to establish a(n)
________ so that if anything goes wrong during
installation you can restore your system back to how
it was before you started.
1) backup
2) image
3) restore point
4) upgrade
5) None of these
190. To resolve problems with Microsoft products, check
the ________, an online collection of more than
250,000 articles written by Microsoft support
professionals.
1) FAQs
2) Knowledge Base
3) integrated help
4) manual
5) None of these
191. In a Batch Processing Operating System, interaction
between the user and the processor is
1) limited
2) not possible
3) unlimited
4) depends upon user only
5) depends upon amount of work
192. In case of computer, JUMPER is
1) used to configure the hard disk
2) used to configure the primary memory
3) used to play computer game
4) a software language
5) a machine language
193. A small or intelligent device is so called because it
contains within it a
1) Computer
2) Microcomputer
3) Programmable data
4) Sensor
5) None of these
194. Which technology is used in compact disks?
1) Mechanical
2) Electrical
3) Electromagnetic
4) Laser
5) None of these
195. The process that rearranges file fragments into
contiguous files is called
1) file filing
2) folder folding 3) unfragging
4) defragmentation
5) file folding
196. ________ virus describes the awful consequences
of not acting immediately.
1) Android
2) Spoofing
3) Phishing
4) Misleading e-mail
5) Sabotage
197. ________ operating systems are found on ROM chips
in portable or dedicated devices.
1) Server
2) Network
3) Embedded
4) Stand-alone 5) Windows
198. Identify the odd term among the following groups.
1) Optical fibre
2) Co-axial cable
3) Twisted pair wire
4) Micro waves
5) None of these
199. POP (Post Office Protocol) is used for

K
KUNDAN

1) accepting e-mail
2) accessing any e-mail
3) creating e-mail
4) transfering e-mail
5) None of these
200. The full form of COBOL is
1) Common Business Oriented Language
2) Common Bright Oriented Language
3) Co-axis Business Oriented Language
4) Common Logic Oriented Language
5) None of these

K
KUNDAN

Answers
1. 2;

to each odd digit we get 5 and 3 are the digits

that appear in the number twice. 9 5 3 7 3 5
12. 4; 9 + 8 = 17
13. 1
14. 3; 6 + 1 = 7
15. 4
16. 2
(17-22):

26. 5; Given statement:

17. 4
18. 4
19. 2
20. 3
21. 1
22. 4
23. 1;
Given statement: Q P = R N < G E > S
Thus, Q N is true. Hence, conclusion I is
true. Again, we cant compare R and E.
Hence, conclusion II does not hold true.
24. 4; Given statement:
QP=RN<GE>S
Thus, we cant compare G and P, or S and R.
Hence, conclusion I and II both are not true.
25. 2; Given statement:

Thus, U < T or T > U is true. But we cant

compare J and W.
Hence, conclusion II is true but I is not true.
28. 5; There is no negative statement. Thus,
the possibility in I exists. Hence, conclusion
I follows. Again, Some circles are triangles
conversion Some triangles are circles.
Hence, conclusion II follows.
29. 2; All phones are wires (A) + No wire is a
pole (E) = A + E = E = No phone is a pole.
Hence, conclusion II follows but I does not
follow.
30. 2; No pen is a pin (E) + Some pins are
caps (I) = E + I = O* = Some caps are not
pens. Hence, conclusion II follows. But
conclusion I does not follow because it is a
restatement of statement I.
31. 5; All discs are sticks (A) + No stick is a
drum (E) = A + E = E = No disc is a drum.

2. 5;
3. 2; First letter L
Third letter M
Seventh letter T
Eighth letter E
The meaningful English word is MELT.
4. 4; Only 49 is a perfect square.
5. 2;

6. 3; P is 18th from the back.

The position of Q from the back is 18 4
= 14th
Hence, the position of Q from the front is
(22 14 + 1 =) 9th
7. 4; 7th to the left of the 22nd digit from
the left is (22 7 =) 15th from the left end,
ie 5.
8. 3; 92, 42
9. 1; The new series is 4 4 2 2 8 2 6 8 2 6 2
4 2 8 6 2 4. So, the tenth digit from the left
end is 6.
10. 3; 3 5 8
11. 2; 8 3 1 6 2 4
After adding one to each even digit and two

Hence, conclusion II is true but I is not true.

Thus, V > W or W < V is true. Again, U < P

or P > U is true.
Hence, both conclusion I and II are true.
27. 2; Given statement:

Hence, conclusion I follows.

Again, the possibility in II exists from first
statement. Hence, conclusion II follows.
32. 1; Some drums are covers conversion
Some covers are drums. Thus, the
possibility in I exists. Hence, conclusion I
follows.
Again, No stick is a drum (E) + Some drums
are covers (I) = E + I = O* = Some covers are
not sticks. Hence, conclusion II does not
follow.
(33-37):

82. 3; ? = 777777 37 3 =

777777
37 3

= 7007
83. 4; ? = 4379 777 = (4300 + 79) 777
= 334100 + 61383 = 3402483
84. 5; ? = 4 + 0.4 + 0.44 + 0.444 + 0.4444
= 5.7284

96. 2; 15

10609 14884 103 122

225 = 15

86. 2; ? = 22 + 42 + 62 + 72 + 82 + 102 + 122 +

142 = 4 + 16 + 36 + 49 + 64 + 100 + 144 +
196 = 609

78 44

24
11 13
88. 3; (12)? = 34.5 123 243.5 23.5 44.5
= (3 4)4.5 123 123.5
= (12)4.5 123 (12)3.5 = (12)4.5 + 3 + 3.5
= (12)11
? = 11
89. 5; (850 68) (3024 36)
= 12.5 84 = 1050

? + 1246 =

or, 15

? = 1786 1246 = 540

? =

?=

120 120
= 30
24 20

87. 1; ? =

33. 5; P 34. 2

35. 4

36. 1

37. 3

38. 4; From I.

90. 2; ? =

1 5 9 13
3465 = 585
3 7 11 15

From II.
91. 4; ? = 700

79
816 = 700 644.64
100

92. 5; ? =

From I.

93. 1; ? =

99. 2; a + b =

a 3 b3
a 2 b 2 ab

where a = 37, b = 33
a + b = 70

27.0 18.0 9

44 33
11
101. 1; Let the distance between Delhi and
Patna be x km.
100. 3; ? =

t1 =

x
x
,t =
42 2
48

x
x
15x

=
42 48
336
Average speed
Now, t1 + t2 =

= 55.36
Hence, both are not sufficient to answer the
question.
39. 1;

2
4465 = 1786
5

540
= 36
15
or, ? = (36)2 = 1296
97. 1; ? = (65 24 45 19.98)
= 1560 899.1 = 660.9
98. 3; 24 20 ? = (120)2
or,

85. 1; ? =

831 100
50
1662

or, ? =

13824 17576
31400
50
=
576 676 624
628

K
KUNDAN
=

19 27 18 19 27 162

9 7
7
63

102. 3; Let the cost of one pen be `x and

the cost of one pencil be `y.
Then, 24x + 36y = 720
... (i)

351
36
4
5
5
=
63
63
7

Hence, Rehans home is in southwest

direction with respect to Rinas home.
Hence, statement I alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
40. 4;
From I and II. There may be several
possibilities.
Both are not sufficient to answer the
question.
41. 2
42. 4
43. 5
44. 2
45. 1
46. 4
47. 3
48. 5
49. 1
50. 2
51. 1; Replace pride with proud
52. 3; Replace human with humane
53. 5
54. 4; Replace to with for
55. 2; Replace fetch with fetched
56. 3
57. 5
58. 4
59. 3
60. 5
61. 4
62. 2
63. 3
64. 5
65. 2
(66-70): CGEDFBA
66. 4
67. 2
68. 5
69. 1
70. 3
71. 2
72. 4
73. 2
74. 5
75. 1
76. 2
77. 3
78. 3
79. 3
80. 5
81. 2; 14973 ? 1976 + 3688 = 15344
or, ? = 14973 + 3688 15344 1976
= 1341

94. 3; ? =

Multiplying eqn (i) by

1492 835 43 40 81

1492 835 43 40 9

1492 835 43 7

1492 835 6

1492 841 =

1521 = 39

95. 5;

1492 29

or, 585

1
, we get
4

6x + 9y = `180
Hence cost of 6 pens and 9 pencils = `180.
103. 2; Let A be x.
Then, B = x + 2, C = x + 4, D = x + 6 and E
=x+8
Now, x + x + 2 + x + 4 + x + 6 + x + 8 = 110
or, 5x = 110 20 = 90
x = 18
B = 20 and D = 24
Hence, B D = 20 24 = 480
104. 4; Let the number be x.

45
= 1291.5
100
or, x = 2870
67.5% of 2870
Now, x

75 780 ? 1662
60 2360

=
100
100
100

or,

2x
336
2x
44.8 kmph
15x
15x

336

?1662
= 1416
100

1662 ?
1416 585 831
100

67.5 2870
= 1937.25
100
105. 1; Let the present age of Manoj and
Shyam be x years and y years respectively.
=

114. 3; Total length = 110 + 205 = 315m

x 2 15
Then, two years ago, y 2 11

or, 11x 22 = 15y 30

or, 11x 15y = 8
Again, after two years,

... (i)

x 2 17

y 2 13

5
Speed = 54
= 15 ms
18

Then, x

315
Time =
= 21 seconds
15
115. 4; Let the speed of the man be x kmph
and that of the stream be y kmph.

or, x =

115
= `1955
100

1955 100
= `1700
115

Again, y

85
= `1955
100

K
KUNDAN

or, 13x + 26 = 17y + 34

or, 13x 17y = 8
... (ii)
Multiplying eqn (i) by 13 and eqn (ii) by 11,
we get

143x 195y 104

143 187 y 88
8 y 192

106. 2; Rate of Apple per kg =

1558
82
19

595
= `35 per kg
17

949
= `73 per kg
13
11 kg Apple + 7 kg Tomato + 3 kg Orange
11 82 + 7 35 + 3 73
= 902 + 245 + 219 = `1366
Orange =

100 SI
100 37485
107. 3; T =
=
PR
24500 9
= 17 years
108. 4; For 50 days, the number of persons
required = 50
For 10 days, the number of persons required
50 50
= 250
10
As efficiency is double, so persons required
= 125
109. 5; Let the total votes polled be x.
=

Then, x

21
= 3
7

... (i)

14
=2
7
Solving eqn (i) and (ii), we get
And, x y =

... (ii)

5
1
kmph and y =
kmph
2
2
116. 3; Let the marked price be `x.
x=

y = 24 years

Tomato =

Then, x + y =

After 20% discount, selling price = x

=`

x
5

4x
5

4x
100
16 x

=`
5
125
25
Now, after allowing 10% discount,
Cost =

SP = x

x
9x
=
10
10

Profit =

9 x 16 x
13x

=
10 25
50

Now, % profit =

13x 25
325

100 =
50 16x
8

5
= 40 %
8
117. 4;

60
35
x
= 550
100
100

25x
550
or, x = 2200
100
110. 1; Let the number be x.
Then, x 6x = 1176
or,

x2 =

1176
= 196
6

x=

196 = 14

111. 2; Product of two numbers

= LCM HCF

1540 20
140
11 20
112. 1; Let the sums of money be 7x and 9x.
7x = 140, x = 20, 9x = `180
113. 2; Here the number of letters in the
word is 8 and C occurs twice.
Reqd number =

Number of ways =

8!
= 20160
2!

The area of hall PQSR = 20 16

= 320m2
The length of the rectangular region ABDC
= 20 + 2 + 2 = 24m
And breadth of the rectangular region ABDC
= 16 + 2 + 2 = 20m
Now, area of the rectangle ABDC
= 24 20
= 480 m2
Area of the verandah = 480 320
= 160 m2

10

118. 3; Difference = Sum

100

Sum = 15 100 = `1500

119. 2; Let the cost of the first horse be `x
and that of the second horse be `y.

1955 100
= `2300
85
Total cost = 1700 + 2300 = `4000
Selling price = 1955 2 = `3910
Loss = 4000 3910 = `90
120. 1; Number = 527 Q + 31
= 17 31 Q + 17 + 14
= 17{31 Q + 1} + 14
So, when divided by 17, the remainder will be
14 .
121. 4 122. 2 123. 4 124. 3 125. 3
126. 4 127. 1 128. 1 129. 3 130. 1
131. 1 132. 2 133. 5 134. 2 135. 2
136. 3 137. 4 138. 2 139. 4 140. 1
141. 4 142. 5 143. 1 144. 4 145. 3
146. 4 147. 1 148. 2 149. 1 150. 1
151. 3 152. 3 153. 1 154. 4 155. 3
156. 1 157. 2 158. 2 159. 3 160. 3
161. 2 162. 4 163. 4 164. 3 165. 3
166. 1 167. 4 168. 5 169. 1 170. 2
171. 4 172. 2 173. 3 174. 2 175. 3
176. 3 177. 1 178. 1 179. 3 180. 3
181. 3 182. 4 183. 4 184. 1 185. 3
186. 2 187. 4 188. 2 189. 3 190. 2
191. 1; In a batch processing operating
system, interaction between the user and the
processor is limited or there is no interaction
at all during the execution of work. Data and
programs that need to be processed are
bundled and collected as a batch and executed
together.
192. 1; Several different connectors and
jumpers are used to configure the hard disk
and connect it to the rest of the system. The
number and types of connectors on the hard
disk depend on the data interface it uses to
connect to the system, the manufacturer of
the drive and any special features that the
drive may possess.
193. 4
194. 4
195. 4
196. 4
197. 3
198. 4
199. 2
200. 1
or, y =