Intake:

Date:

Academic year:
Time: 90 mins
Important instructions
(according to lecturers decision)
1. Any document and communication devices
are not allowed in the examination venue.
2.
Lecturer (or Head of Subject) :
Dr. Kim Th Phng Oanh

University of Science and Technology of Hanoi

***
Final Examination
Subject: Molecular Biology
No of pages: 6

Sheet:

Pathway coordinator:
Signatures

Question 1: In the Hershey-Chase experiment

a) DNA from parent bacteriophages appeared in progeny bacteriophages
b) Most of the phage DNA never entered the bacteria
c) More than three-fourths of the phage protein appeared in the progeny phagaes
d) DNA was labeled with sulfur
e) DNA formed the coat of the bacteriophages
Question 2: Linked genes:
a) must be immediately adjacent to one another on a chromosome
b) have alleles that assort independently of one another
c) never show crossing over
d) are on the same chromosome
e) always have multiple alleles
Question 3: Which of the following statements are true about double-stranded DNA?
a. A + C = T + G
b. A + G = C + T
c. A + T = G + C
d. A/G = C/T
e. A/G = T/C
Question 4: In the DNA of certain bacterial cells, 27% of the nucleotides are adenine. Which of the
following is true
a. The genome is 13.5% of guanosine
b. The genome is 27% of guanosine
c. The genome is 23% of guanosine
d. The genome is 46% of guanosine
Question 5: RNA molecules that exhibit catalytis activity are called
a. mRNAs
b. ribonucleases
c. ribosomes
d. ribozymes

Question 6: Which of the following statements are NOT correct? Explain your answer
a. RNA contains deoxyribose
b. RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
c. RNA is typically single-stranded molecule
d. RNA chains fold back on themselves to form local regions of double helix similar to B-form
DNA
e. RNAs can form various stem-loop structures
f. Some RNAs are enzymes
Answers: True or False (correct the false statements)

Question 7: Which of the following statements are correct? Explain your answer
a. A DNA strand has a polarity because the bases contain hydrophilic amino groups
b. G-C base pairs are more stable than A-T base pairs
Answers: True or False (explain why?)

Question 8: The two strands of DNA double helix can be separated by heating. If you raised the
temperature of a solution containing the following three DNA molecules, in what order do you
suppose they would melt? Explain your answer.
a.
5-GCGGGCCAGCCCGAGTGGGTAGCCCAGG-3
3-CGCCCGGTCGGGCTCACCCATCGGGTCC-5
b.

5-ATTATAAAATATTTAGATACTATATTTACAA-3
3-TAATATTTTATAAATCTATGATATAAATGTT-5

5-AGAGCTAGATCGAT-3
3-TCTCGATCTAGCTA-5
Answers:
c.

A-T = 2 lk H
G-C = 3 lk H
Co nhieu lk H => ben hon
=> lk H b>a>c
=> c bi tan trc roi toi a va b

Question 9: For each of the terms in the left column, choose the best matching phase in the right
column
a) Replicator
1) The strand that is synthesized discontinuously during replication
b) Homologous
recombination

2) the protein that specifically recognizes a DNA element in the

replicator and activates the initiation of replication.

c) Operon

3) regulatory DNA sequence to which regulatory proteins bind,

influencing the rate of transcription of a structural gene that can be many
thousands of base pairs away

d) Promoter

4) Short length of DNA produced on the lagging strand during DNA

replication

e) Operator

5) Nucleotide sequence in DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to begin

transcription

f)
Semiconservative 6) the entire set of cis-acting DNA sequences that is sufficient to direct
replication
the initiation of DNA replication.
g) Okazaki fragments

7) Short region of DNA in a bacterial chromosome that controls the

transcription of an adjacent gene

h) Initiator

8) The strand of the double helix separate and act as template for new
strands

i) lagging strand

9) Genetic exchange between a pair of homologous DNA sequences,

typically those located on two copies of the same chromosome

j) Enhancer

10) In a bacterial chromosome, a group of contiguous genes that are

transcribed into a single mRNA molecule

2
i

3
h

4
c

5
g

7
a

8
e

9
f

10
j

Question 10: Which statements about nucleosome are NOT true? Explain your answer
a. Nucleosomes consist of DNA wound around a histone core
b. The nucleosomes have a core of 8 histone proteins (two molecules each of histone H2A, H2B,
H3, H4)
c. The core DNA is approximately 60 base pair length
d. Core histones are positively-charged proteins
e. H2A and H2B histones can form a tetramer.
f. Histones have an abundance of two amino acids: glycine and alanine
Answers: True or False (correct the false statements)

Question 11: DNA ligase does which of the following

a. catalyzes DNA replication
b. joins Okazaki fragments to the high molecular weight DNA on the lagging strand
c. requires dNTPs
d. removes RNA primer
e. unwinds double helical DNA
Question 12: A gene encoding one of the proteins involved in DNA replication has been inactivated
by a mutation in a cell. In the absence of this protein the cell attempts to replicate its DNA for the very
last time. What DNA products would be generated in each case if the following protein were missing?
a. Primase
b. DNA polymerase
c. Sliding clamp for DNA polymerase
d. DNA ligase
Answers:

Question 13: MutS, MutL and MutH are proteins that involve in
a. DNA mismatch repair system
b. Photoreactivation
c. Base excision repair pathway
d. Nucleotide excision repair pathway
e. Double-strand break (DSB) repair pathway
Question 14: Which of the following statement is NOT correct? Explain your answer.
a. Glycosylase is an enzyme that repair replication errors in E. coli.
b. Methyltransferase is an enzyme that removes the methyl group from the methylated base O6methylguanine by transferring it to one of its own cysteine residues.
Answers: True or False (explain why?)

Question 15: The sequence of bases located prior to the gene (along the DNA strand), to which a
complex of RNA polymerase and sigma factors attaches itself to initiate transcription is called:
a. initiator

d. enhancer

b. promoter

e. exon

c. replicator

f. intron

Question 16: Complete the following sentences with the name of proteins which involve in
transcription in eukaryotes
RNA polymerase
a. transcribes
the mRNA.
RNA polymerase II
b. transcribes
the large ribosomal RNA precursor gene.
RNA polymerase III
c. transcribes
tRNA genes, some small nuclear genes, and
the 5S rRNA gene.

snRNPs
d. cleave
the RNA at the intron-exon borders and
covalently link the exons together.
Poly(A) polymerase
e. use
ATP as a precursor and adds about 200 adenines to
the RNAs 3-end

Question 17: Which of the following is NOT involved in the processing of mRNA precursor in
eukaryotic cells
a. Capping of the 5 end
b. Addition of poly A
c. Excision of introns
d. Splicing of exons
e. Transport of the pre-mRNA to the cytoplasm
Question 18: Which of the following statements are correct? Explain your answers (If it is false,
explain why?)
a. Because the two strands of DNA are complementary, the mRNA of a given gene can be
synthesized using either strand as a template
b. An mRNA may contain the sequence ATTGACCCCGGTCAA
Answers: True or False (explain why?)

Question 19: Which of the following do NOT need a primer in order to function?
a. DNA pol I

d. RNA polymerase

b. DNA pol II

e. Reverse transcriptase Phin m ngc

c. DNA pol III

f. Telomerase gan them cac trinh tu lap lai o dau mut

nhiem sac the

Question 20: In the transcriptional control, a repressor protein binds to

a. an enhancer

d. a ribosome-binding site

b. a promoter

e. TATA box

c. an operator

f. initiator

Question 21: Eukaryotes use 80S ribosomes which consist of:

a. a (small) 30S and a (large) 50S subunit
b. a (small) 40S and a (large) 60S subunit
c. a (small) 30S and a (large) 40S subunit
d. a (small) 40S and a (large) 50S subunit
e. a (small) 30S and a (large) 60S subunit
Question 22: tRNA molecules are linked to their respective amino acids by enzymes called:
a. glycosylase

c. guanylyl transferase

b. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

d. methyl transferase

Question 23: The bonds that form between the anticodon of a tRNA molecule and the three
nucleotides of a codon in mRNA are .. Complete this sentence with each of the following
options and explain why the resulting statements are correct or incorrect.
a. Covalent bonds formed by GTP hydrolysis
b. Hydrogen bonds that form when the tRNA is at the A-site
c. Broken by the translocation of the ribosome along the mRNA
Answers: Correct or Incorrect (explain why?)

Question 24: Every polypeptide chain formed in translation starts with the amino acid:
a. Alanine

d. Serine

b. Methionine

e. Arginine

c. Lysine

f. Glycine

Question 25: Which of the following is NOT a stop codon ?

a. UAA

c. UAG

b. GUA

d. UGA