Engg PDF

Code No.
SLR-UM 15
*SLRUM15*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
_
_
f
C
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Duration : 30 Minutes
Q. No. 1 is M.C.Q. type.

Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 6 is compulsory.
Answer any 2 questions out of Q. No. 3, 4, 5.
Make suitable assumptions if required but mention it clearly.
MCQ/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 20
1. Make tick () mark against correct answer option for the following questions :
1) If an error makes the measurement too great it is a
a) Positive error
b) Compensating error
c) Negative error
d) All the above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 15
*SLRUM15*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) With a rise in temperature, the sensitivity of the bubble tube

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remain same
d) Cannot said
3) On a turning point
a) Only BS is taken
b) Only FS is taken
c) Both BS and FS is taken
d) IS is taken
4) An imaginary line lying throughout the ground surface and having a
constant inclination to the horizontal is a
a) Contour line
b) Ridge line
c) Contour gradient
d) None of these
5) If angular measurements of a traverse are more accurate than the

linear measurements, balancing of the traverse is generally done by
a) Bowditchs rule
b) Transit rule
c) Arbitrary rule
d) Axis method
6) When the upper clamp of a theodolite is fight and its lower plate clamp
is loose, turning the theodolite telescope _________ the reading on
horizontal circle.
a) Alters
b) Do not alter
c) Alter by half amount
d) None of these
*SLRUM15*
SLR-UM 15
-3-
7) The horizontal angle between two lines is generally measured

a) Clockwise from the forward station
b) Clockwise from the back station
c) Counter clockwise from the forward station
d) Counter clockwise from the back station
8) In open traversing which of the following methods is preferred ?
a) Method of direct angles
b) Method of exterior angles
c) Method of deflection angles
d) Method of interior angles
9) If N is the number of stations and the least count of the instrument is
, then the limit on the angular error of closure in traversing should
not be
a) < 20 N
b) > 20 N
c) < 20
d) > 20
N
10) For a closed traverse (theodolite) which check is more important and
essential ?
a)
b)
L=0
D=0
c) Both a) and b)
d) FB BB =
&
11) If A1 and A2 are areas of two end faces, D distance apart and M is
area of section midway, then the volume of prismoid is given by
a)
'
'
b)
D
c)
d)
D
12) In area measurement by planimeter, additive constant is zero, if

a) Anchor point is outside figure
b) Anchor point is an perimeter of figure
c) Anchor point is inside figure
d) Tracing point is outside figure
SLR-UM 15
*SLRUM15*
-4-
13) Two instruments and two operators are required in

a) Tellurometer
b) Geodimeter
c) Distometer
d) Total Station
14) Contours can be interpolated by

a) Estimation
b) Arithmetic calculation
c) Graphical method
d) All of these
15) Block contouring is particularly suitable for

a) Fairly level site
b) Hilly area
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
16) Indian pattern clinometer has scale of

a) Vertical angle
b) Tangent of vertical angle
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
17) Total station consist of
a) PDM
b) Theodolight
c) Microprocessor
d) All of these
18) For locating the point that are visible but not accessible following method
of plane table is used
a) Radiation
b) Intersection
c) Traversing
d) Resection
19) In graphical method of three point problem use

a) Tracing paper
b) Lehmens rule
c) Both of these
d) None of these
20) Biggest advantage of plane table survey is

a) Economy
b) Accuracy
c) Simultaneous plotting with field work
d) Less accessories
______________________
*SLRUM15*
SLR-UM 15
-5-
Seat
No.
S.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

SURVEYING I (Old)
Day and Date : Wednesday, 21-5-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80
Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 6 is compulsory.

Make suitable assumptions if required but mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Dumpy level was set up midway between two peg points 80 m apart. The
readings on the staff at two pegs were 3.200 m and 3.015 m respectively. The
instrument was then moved by 20 m. ahead of the second peg in line with the
two pegs. The respective staff readings were 2.825 m and 2.690 m. Calculate
the staff readings on two pegs to provide line of sight horizontal.
b) What are the different corrections applied to levelling ?
8
6
3. a) A traverse is run to set out a line. MQ = 1900 m at right angles to a given line
MN. The lengths and bearings of a traverse legs are observed as follows :
Line
Length(m)
Bearings
MN
MO
850
OP
PQ
1000
&
0
0
3

Compute the length and bearing of PQ.

b) Describe how you would measure vertical angles by transit theodolite.
8
5
SLR-UM 15
*SLRUM15*
-6-
4. a) A theodolite was set up at a distance of 150 m from tower. The angle of

elevation to the top of the parapet was
&
' while the angle of depression the
'. The staff reading on the BM of RL 50.217 with the

foot of wall was
telescope horizontal was 0.880. Find the height of the tower and the reduced
level of the top of parapet.
b) Define following terms :

1) Swinging
4) Face right
2) Transiting
5) Centring.
3) Face left
5. a) Explain the methods of soundings.

b) Explain any one of the minor instrument by neat sketch.
5
8
5
SECTION II
6. a) Draw a sketch of total station indicating various parts.
b) Write short note on tellurometer.
9
5
7. a) What are advantages and disadvantages of plane table survey.
b) Explain mechanical method of solving three point problem.
8. a) How to identify following topographical features in contour map.
I) Saddle
II) Ridge
III) Pond
b) Explain graphical method for the solution of three point problem.
9. a) What are various methods for measuring area between irregular boundaries ?
Write the formula for each method.
8
8
b) Calculate area of figure from the following readings by planimeter with anchor
point inside the figure.
Initial reading = 7.875
Final reading = 3.086
M = 100 sq. cm.
C = 23
The zero mark on dial passed the fixed index marks twice in clockwise
direction.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM 100
*SLRUM100*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
f
C
Instructions : 1) Type I-questions carry one mark each.

2) Type II-questions carry two marks each.
Marks : 20
Choose correct alternatives :

TYPE I (1 mark each 10 questions = 10 marks)
1) Operations research involves
a) Qualitative managerial skills
b) Quantitative approaches to decision making
c) Operational management skills
d) Scientific research as opposed to applications
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 100
*SLRUM100*
-2-
DO
W
T
O
E
T
I
R
R
HE
2) Coefficient of basic variable in objective function in simplex table will

always be
a) Zero
b) Positive
c) Negative
d) None of these
3) In an assignment problem
a) One agent can do parts of several tasks
b) One task can be done by several agents
c) Each agent is assigned to its own best task
d) None of the alternatives is correct
4) In case of unbalanced transportation problem
a) No. of availabilities are more than no. of requirements
b) No. of availabilities are less than no. of requirements
c) No. of availabilities are not equal to no. of requirements
d) No. of availabilities are equal to no. of requirements
5) Bellmans principle of optimality in dynamic programming is based on
the concept of
a) Recursion
b) Integration
c) Multiplication
d) All of these
*SLRUM100*
SLR-UM 100
-3-
6) Pure strategy games are those in which both players

a) Stay with one strategy throughout
b) Play more than one strategy
c) Employ fresh strategies every time the act is played
d) None of these
7) The parts of network that represent the origins are
a) The axes
b) The flow
c) The modes
d) The arrows
8) Group replacement policy is most suitable for
a) Blood groups
b) Street lights
c) Trucks
d) All of the above
9) Which of the following criterian for decision making is also referred as
criterian of rationality ?
b) Maximin
a) Minimax
c) Laplace
d) Hurwicz
10) Operations research can be applied in
a) Manufacturing industries
c) LIC
b) Agriculture
d) All of the above
TYPE II (2 marks each 5 questions = 10 marks)

1) While determining leaving variable in simplex table iteration, the denominator
of the ratio taken should be
a) Positive
b) Negative or positive
c) Positive or zero
d) Negative
2) In case of travelling salesman problem, the diagonal elements
a) have a value of one
b) may have negative value
c) give the final allocations
d) can not be a part of final allocation
SLR-UM 100
*SLRUM100*
-4-
3) The value of game whose pay off matrix is
$
&
a)
b)

&
c)
"
is
&
d) 1
!
&
4) In PERT, the three time estimates used to calculate the average time,
are supposed to follow ______ distribution.
a) Normal
b) Alpha
c) Gamma
d) Beta
5) When money value changes with time at 10%, then PWF for 3rd year is
a) 0.909
b) 1
c) 0.826
d) 0.9
______________________
*SLRUM100*
SLR-UM 100
-5-
Seat
No.
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

OPERATIONS RESEARCH
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80
Answer any three questions from each Section.

Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Use of calculators is permitted.
Use of statistical tables is allowed.
SECTION I
1. a) Solve following LPP by simplex method

Max. Z = 3x1 + 2x2
S.t., 2x1 + x2 40
2x1 + 3x2 60
x1 + x2 24 and x1, x2 0.
b) Elaborate various phases in solving or problems.

2. a) There are four jobs and five machines to be assigned. Following table gives
processing time of jobs on machines. What is the total processing time to
complete all the jobs ? Which machine is idle ?
Find optimum assignment.
Machines
)
"
"
Jobs
!
"
"
&
'
b) Discuss the application of assignment problems in automobile manufacturing

industry.
SLR-UM 100
*SLRUM100*
-6-
3. a) Obtain the initial basic feasible solution to following problem by VAM and
hence solve further for optimum solution. Table indicates unit transportation
cost between origins and destinations.
Destinations
D
"
&
"
&
"
"
"
Origins
O
b) Discuss the mathematical formulation of transportation problem.

4. a) A 4 ton vessel is loaded with one or more of 3 items. The following table gives
the unit weight and unit revenue for 3 items. How should the vessel be loaded
to maximize the total revenue ?
I
b) Explain the applications and scope of or in space research.
SECTION II
5. a) Solve following game using graphical method.
"
'
b) Discuss the principles of dominance is games theory.

6. a) The following mortality rates have been observed for a certain type of light
bulbs.
Month :
% failing by month end : 10
25
50
80
100
*SLRUM100*
-7-
SLR-UM 100
There are 1000 bulbs in use and it costs Rs. 10 to replace an individual bulb
which has burnt out. If all bulbs were replaced simultaneously, it would cost
Rs. 2.5 per bulb. It is proposed to replace all the bulbs at fixed intervals and
individually those which fail between the intervals. What would be the best
policy to adopt ?
b) Describe the various types of replacement situations with example.
8
5
7. a) The data for a certain project is given below : (Time in days)

Activity : 1-2 2-3 1-6 6-7 7-8 2-4 3-5 4-5 5-8
Time :
6
13
5
11
15
4
11
6
3
Construct the network. Determine the critical path, project duration and total
float.
b) Explain the rules governing the preparation of a network of a project. Hence

discuss dummy activity.
8. a) Explain with suitable example, the concept of decision making under conditions
of uncertainty. Hence, discuss the Expected opportunity loss criterion.
b) Discuss the considerations is maximal flow algorithm of network models.

_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM 111
*SLRUM111*
Seat
No.
&
&
O
e
r
O
f
C
Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

2) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
3) All questions are compulsory.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 111
*SLRUM111*
-2-
T
O
N
DO
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
Marks : 20
1. Tick mark the correct answer :

1) The Thevenins equivalent (RTH and Vth) between terminals A and B of the
circuit given below is
68
100
120
R2
R1
R3
Vs
a) 120
c) 70
100 V
, 4.16 V
, 4.16 V
b) 120
d) 70
, 41.6 V
, 41.67 V
2) The Norton Resistance RN and Norton current IN between the terminals

A and B of the following circuit is
20 V
20
A
20
B
a) RN = 10
c) RN = 5
, IN = 1A
b) RN = 20
, IN = 1A
d) RN = 10
, IN = 0.5A
, IN = 0.5A
*SLRUM111*
SLR-UM 111
-3-
3) A network has 7 nodes and 5 independent loops the number of branches in

the network is
a) 13
b) 12
c) 11
d) 10
4) A Vs = 18 V source has an internal resistance Rs of 70 . If load resistance
is connected to the voltage source the load power PL is
RL of 33
a) 0 W
b) 1 W
c) 175 mW
d) 18 mW
5) In a parallel RLC circuit, which value may always be used as a vector reference ?
a) Current
b) Reactance
c) Resistance
d) Voltage
6) What is the voltage across the capacitor in the given circuit ?
C
L
R
25 mH
220
0.47
20 V
800 Hz
a) 6.8 V
b) 11.9 V
c) 16.1 V
d) 22.9 V
SLR-UM 111
*SLRUM111*
-4-
7) At any resonant frequency, what voltage is measured across the two series
reactive components ?
a) Applied voltage
b) Reactive voltage
c) Zero voltage
d) VL + VC voltage
8) Y21 parameter of the network shown in the given figure will be
3
2
2
a) 0.5
b) 0.5
c) 0.75
d) 0.75
9) Inverse transmission parameters are obtained by
a) Short circuiting i/p port and open circuiting i/p port
b) Short circuiting i/p port and open circuiting o/p port
c) Short circuiting o/p port and open circuiting i/p port
d) Short circuiting o/p port and open circuiting o/p port
*SLRUM111*
SLR-UM 111
-5-

10) The admittance matrices of two-port networks are
and
"
#

"
&
If the two networks are connected in parallel. What is the admittance matrix
of combination ?
!
a)
"
!

"
&
b)
!
"
"
&
c)

"
"
&
!
!
d)

"
!

&
"
11) The time constant of series RL circuit is

a) LR
b) L/R
c) R/L
d) eR/L
12) When a series RC circuit is connected to a voltage V at t = 0, the current
passing through capacitor C at t = 0+ is
a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) R.C.
d) V/R
SLR-UM 111
-6-
*SLRUM111*
13) Transient current in an RLC circuit is oscillatory when

a)
R
b) R = 0
c)
d)
14) The cutoff frequency of constant K high pass filter is

a)
b)
c)
d)
15) In the m-derived low pass filter, the resonant frequency is to be chosen so
that it is
a) Below the cut-off frequency
b) Equal to the cut-off frequency
c) Above the cutoff frequency
d) None of the above
16) Inductor does not allow sudden changes in
a) Voltages
b) Currents
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above
*SLRUM111*
-7-
17) Attenuation offered by network in decibels is

a)

P

1
b)

I

2
c)

V

2
d) a), b) and c)
18) The Laplace transform of ramp function is
a) 1
b)

c)

d)

19) The system is said to be stable, if and only if.

a) All the poles and zeros must lie in left side of s-plane
b) Poles and zeros must lie in right side of s-plane
c) Real parts of zeros are positive
d) Real parts of poles are positive
20) The necessary condition for the transfer function is that
a) Coefficients of Q(s) may be negative
b) Coefficients of P(s) may be negative
c) The coefficients in the polynomials P(s) and Q(s) must be real
d) All above
______________________
SLR-UM 111
*SLRUM111*
SLR-UM 111
-8-
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2014

NETWORK THEORY AND ANALYSIS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Answers to the two Sections should be written in one
answer book.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four :
(45=20)
a) State and verify reciprocity theorem.

b) Determine Nortons equivalent circuit for the given circuit.
10
8
A
4
25A
10
B
c) Obtain the ABCD parameters in terms of Y-parameters.
d) Determine Y21 (s) and Z21(s) for the following two part network.
I1(s) 2H
I (s)
2
2
V1(s)
IF
1H
V2(s)
*SLRUM111*
SLR-UM 111
-9-
c) In the following circuit, an inductance of 0.1 H having a Q of 5 is in parallel

with a capacitor. Determine the value of capacitance and coil resistance at
resonant frequency of 500 rad/sec.
RL
3. a) Obtain the current passing through 2

2
resistor by using superposition theorem.

(210=20)
i2
1
3A
2i2
b) Obtain the h-parameters and inverse h-parameters for the following two port
network.
2
OR
b) A voltage v(t) = 50 sin wt is applied to a series RLC circuit. At the resonant
frequency of the circuit, the maximum voltage across the capacitor is found
to be 400 V. The bandwidth is known to be 500 rad/sec and the impedance at
resonance is 100 . Find the resonant frequency and compute the upper and
lower limits of the bandwidth. Determine the values of L and C of the circuit.
SLR-UM 111
*SLRUM111*
-10-
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) In the circuit shown in fig. 4-a, determine the current i.

s
30
60 V
15 H
i
fig. 4.a
b) Derive the design equations for T-type attenuator.

c) Design a low pass filter (both and T) having a cutt-off frequency of 2 KHz
to operate with a terminated load resistance of 500 .
d) For the network shown in fig. 4. d determine the transform impedance Z(s).
20
2H
10
Z(s)
5F
fig. 4.d
e) Explain Routh criteria for stability of network.
5. Attempt any two :
(210=20)
a) For the circuit shown in fig. 5. a, find the complete expression for the current
when the switch is closed at t = 0.
20
30
100 V
0.14
fig. 5.a
b) Obtain the pole zero diagram of the given function and hence obtain the time
domain response.
"
c) Design a prototype band pass filter (both T and

Section) having cut-off
frequencies 3 KHz and 11 KHz and nominal characteristic impedance of 500 .
_____________________
SLR-UM 116
Code No.
*SLRUM116*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
W
:
_
_
_
_
f
C
Instructions: 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
1. Choose the correct answer.
Marks : 20
20
!
1) The admittance matrices of two, two-port networks are given by
. If the two networks are connected in parallel, what is the admittance
and
"
matrix of the combination.

a)
b)
"
c)
"
'
d)
"
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 116
*SLRUM116*
-2-
DO
W
T
O
E
T
I
R
R
HE
2) What is the transfer admittance of the two port network shown in Fig. a ?
2
(Fig. a)
a) 2
c) 4
3) For a two port network to be reciprocal
a) Z11 = Z22
c) h21 = h12
b) 3
d) none of above
b) Y21 = Y22
d) AD = BC
4) What is the impedance of an ideal parallel resonant circuit without resistance

in either branch ?
a) zero
b) infinite
c) inductive
d) capacitive
5) What is the resonance frequency of parallel resonance circuit, if RL = 20
RC = 20 C= 10 F, L = 100 mH ?
a) 159. 15 kHz
b) 159.15 Hz
c) 1591.5 Hz
d) 15.915 kHz
6) In a series RLC circuit operating below the resonant frequency, the current I
a) leads Vs
b) lags Vs
c) in phase with Vs
d) None of above
7) The current flowing through 2
2
resistance shown in Fig. b is
4V
4
6
(Fig. b)
a) 0.48 A
b) 1 A
c) 2 A
d) 0.63 A
*SLRUM116*
SLR-UM 116
-3-
8) Mesh analysis is based on

a) Kirchoffs current law
c) Both
b) Kirchoffs voltage law

d) None
9) Inductor does not allow sudden changes

b) in voltage
a) in current
c) both voltage and current
d) none
10) The time constant of a series RC circuit is
b) R/C
a) 1/RC
c) C/R
d) V/R
11) When a series RL circuit is connected to a voltage source V at t = 0, the
current passing through the inductor L at t = 0+ is
a) V/R
b) V/L
c) Infinite
d) zero
12) Band pass filter may be obtained by using

a) both b) and c)
b) high pass filter followed by low pass filter
c) low pass filter followed by high pass filter
d) all the above
13) An ideal filter should have
a) infinite attenuation in the pass band
b) zero attenuation in the pass band
c) zero attenuation in the stop band
d) none
14) In the m-derived high pass filter the resonant frequency is to be chosen so
that it is
a) above the cut-off frequency
b) below the cut-off frequency
c) equal to cut-off frequency
d) none of the above
15) The function is said to be having simple poles and zeros only if
a) the poles are not repeated
b) the zeros are not repeated
c) both poles and zeros are not repeated
*SLRUM116*
SLR-UM 116
-416) The transfer impedance is defined as
a) the ratio of transform voltage at one port to the current transform of the
other port
b) the ratio of transform voltage to transform current at the same port
c) both a) and b)
17) A circuit consist of two resistances R1 and R2 connected in parallel. The total
current passing through the circuit is IT. The current passing through R1 is
a)
1
b)
c)
d)
4
18) Obtain the Thevenins equivalent circuit of given circuit shown in Fig. c
50
10 V
A
20
(Fig. c)
a) VTH = 10V, RTH = 25
b) VTH = 6.66V RTH = 75

c) VTH = 3.33V, RTH = 16.66

d) none of above
a)
b)
c) RC
4
20) Maximum power is transferred when load impedance is

a) equal to source resistance
b) equal to zero
c) equal to half of the source resistance
d) none of above
______________________
d) eRc
*SLRUM116*
SLR-UM 116
-5-
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

NETWORK THEORY AND ANALYSIS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Determine Y parameters of given network shown in Fig. 1.

10
6
2
1
8
1'
2'
(Fig. 1)
b) For the circuit shown in Fig. 2, determine impendance at resonant frequency,

15Hz above resonant and 15Hz below resonant frequency.
20
0.8H
1 F
(Fig. 2)
c) Derive the expression for resonant frequency of parallel resonant circuit.
SLR-UM 116
*SLRUM116*
-6-
d) Determine the current flowing through 10

Shown in Fig. 3.
4
resistance by using Nodal analysis.

10
2
+
12
24V
(Fig. 3)
e) Explain maximum power transfer theorem.

f) Define hybrid parameters for a two port network and draw its equivalent
diagram.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Determine the transmission parameters for the network shown in Fig. 4.

+
V1
1
+
I2
4I1
V2
(Fig. 4)
b) Derive the expression for resonant frequency for tank circuit shown in Fig. 5.
Also discuss variation of capacitive and inductive suceptance, impedance
with frequency.
jXc
RL
N
(Fig. 5)
jXL
*SLRUM116*
SLR-UM 116
-7-
c) Explain Thevenins theorem. Find the current through 5

Fig. 6.
10
+
100V
15
resistor shown in
B
8
(Fig. 6)
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Design T-section high pass filter with cut-off frequency 1kHz and design
impendance 800
b) Design a
-type attenuator to give 20 dB attenuation and to have a
characteristic impedance of 100

c) Explain DC response of RC series circuit.

d) Determine the current i, the voltage across resistor and voltage across inductor
for RL circuit shown in Fig. 7.
s
60 V
30
15 H
(Fig. 7)
e) For a given denominator polynomial of a network function, determine the
value of K for which network to be stable.
Q (s) = s3 + 2s2 + 4s + k
SLR-UM 116
*SLRUM116*
-8-
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) For the given network function draw the pole zero diagram and hence obtain
the time domain response. Verify this result analytically.
!

I

I
b) Design an m-derived T and

section high pass filter having a design
impedance of 500 and cut-off frequency 1kHz. Take m = 0.2.
c) For the circuit shown in Fig. 8, find the current transient when switch is
closed at t = 0.
S
L
R
100 v
20
0.05H
20 F
(Fig. 8)
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 130
*SLRUM130*
Seat
No.
Sig nature of Jr. S upe rvis or
Se at No . _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ Ce ntre _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
For O ffice U se O n ly
Co de No .
Se at No . in w ords _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
T.E. (Part I) (Electonics) Examination, 2014

DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
Day & D ate : T ues day, 20 -5-2014
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m .
M ax. Ma rks : 1 00
Da y & Date _ __ __ _ __ _ __ __ _ __ __ _ __
La ngu age o f A nsw er _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
Ex amin atio n _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
P aper N o. _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
Su bjec t _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
O ut of
Ma rks Sig nature of

Ex amin er
S ection _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ Exa min atio n _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ (P ape r - _ _ _ _ _ _ _ )
For O ffice U se o nly
Code No.

MCQ/Objective Type Question Paper
Marks : 20
1. 1) Using long division method, we devide numerator polynomial by a denominator

polynomial to obtain power series in z1 depending on whether the series to
be recovered is ____________ signal.
a) anticausal
b) causal
c) both sided
d) none
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 130
-2-
DO
*SLRUM130*
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
T
NO
2) DFT coefficients are obtained after sampling the following

a) FT
c) DFT
3) DTFT of a impulse function is
a) f[n]
b) DTFT
d) FFT
b) 1
c) f[n 1]
d) none
4) Use of a padding by zero to a sequence while performing DFT operations is
a) for better display of frequency spectrum
b) to use DFT in linear filtering
c) both a) and b)
d) none
5) A DT signal has
a) continuous time continuous amplitude
b) continuous time discrete amplitude
c) discrete time continuous amplitude
d) discrete time discrete amplitude
6) Transform domain is used as it
a) Enhance the signal
b) Compress the signal
c) Reduce the data points
d) Increase the data points
*SLRUM130*
-3-
SLR-UM 130
7) Correlation is measure of __________ between two signal sequences.

b) difference
a) similarity
c) associativity
d) reversal
8) When length of DFT is 32 then real time multiplications and real time additions
for radix 2 algorithm are
a) 88, 408
b) 24, 152
c) 264, 1302
9) FFT algorithm calculates
a) DTFT
c) DFT
d) 204, 972
b) DCT
d) DST
10) DFT of sequence ( 1)n for N = 4 is

a) {0, 0, 0, 4}
b) {4, 0, 0, 0}
c) {0, 4, 0, 0}
d) {0, 0, 4, 0}
11) P DSP 's with which of the following architecture has multiple functional
units ?
a) Harvard architecture
b) VLIW architecture
c) Modified Harvard architecture
d) None of these
12) Which of the following has best transition width characteristics ?
a) Barflett
b) Rectangular
c) Hanning
d) Hamming
13) Which of the following features are required for efficient performance of DSP
operation are ?
a) VLIW architecture
b) Multiple Access Memory
c) Multiplier and Accumulator
d) All of these
SLR-UM 130
-4-
*SLRUM130*
14) The FIR filter of order N gives linear phase if

a) h(n) = h(M 1 n)
b) h(n) <
c) h(n) = h( n)
d) none of these
15) Which of the following are the finite word length effects ?
a) product quantization
b) limit cycle oscillation
c) coefficient quantization
d) all of these
16) The frequency mapping from s-domain to z-domain using impulse invariant
method is
a) Many to many
b) One to one
c) Many to one
d) None of these
17) The transition width of main lobe is Blackman window is

a) 12
b) 8 N
c) 4 N
d) 2 N
18) Which of the following is not true for IIR filters ?
N
a) they have poles

b) have infinite impulse duration
c) they have linear phase
d) none of these
19) IIR filters are
a) Recursive type
b) Non-recursive type
c) Always stable
d) Always unstable
20) For same set of specifications

a) FIR filter requires fewer filter coefficient than IIR
b) IIR filter requires fewer filter coefficient than FIR
c) Both IIR and FIR filters require same number of coefficient
d) None of these
_____________________
*SLRUM130*
-5-
SLR-UM 130
Seat
No.
T.E. (Part I) (Electronics) Examination, 2014

Day and Date : Tuesday, 20-5-2014
Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

(45=20)
a) Prove the property of DFT as X(k) is real and even when x(n) is real and
even
b) Compute DFT of the sequence
1 0n7
x(n) =
0 otherwise
using DIT algorithm.
c) Find circular convolution of sequence

x(n) = {1, 2, 1, 1} h(n) = (1, 0 , 1, 1}
d) Explain DFT as linear transformation along with cyclic property of twiddle

factor.
e) The difference equation describing a filter is
3
1
1
y[n 1] + y [n 2] = x[b] + . x[n 1]. Draw direct form I and
4
8
2
direct form II realization.
y[n]
(102=20)
a) Listout similarity and differences between DIT and DIF algorithm. Obtain
DFT of following sequence using DIT DFT.
x(n) = [1, 2, 3, 4, 4, 3, 2, 1}.
b) Explain how DFT can be used for linear filtering operations. Compute
convolution of sequences by overlap add method.
x(n) = {1, 2, 1, 2, 3, 2, 3, 1, 1, 1, 2, 1} and h(n) = {1, 2}.
SLR-UM 130
c) i)
ii)
-6-
*SLRUM130*
Obtain a cascade realization of the system characterized by

2(z + 2)
H(z) =
.
z(z 0. 1)(z + 0 .5)(z + 0 .4 )
Draw direct form realization structure for linear phase FIR filter.

a) Convert the analog filter to digital filter whose system function is
H(s) =
36
2
(s + 0. 2) + 36
wr = 0.2
6
4
24
. The digital filter should have a resonant frequency of
. Use impulse invariant technique.
b) What is bilinear transformation ? Obtain the transformation formula for bilinear

transformation.
c) Draw and explain the multiply and accumulate unit of DSP. Explain how
overflow and underflow cases are handled.
d) Define phase delay and group delay. What is linear phase filter ? Which
conditions are to be satisfied by the impulse response of FIR system in
order to have leaner phase ?
e) What is a rectangular window function ? Obtain its frequency domain
characteristics.
16
a) Explain the applications of DSP in audio processing and image processing.
b) A filter is to be designed with following desired frequency response.
/4 /4
0
Hd(ej ) = j2
/4 <||
e
Determine the filter coefficients hd(n) of the window function is defined as

1 0n4
w(n) =
0 otherwise
Also, determine the frequency response H(ej ) of the designed filter.

c) Design a DT Butterworth filter for the following specifications using bilinear
transformation method.
0. 8 < | H(ej )| < 1 for 0 < < 0.2 . |H(ej )| < 0.2 for 0.5 < <
The sampling frequency is 1 Hz.
SLR-UM 131
Code No.
*SLRUM131*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
_
_
O
f
f
C
Instructions: 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Marks : 20
1. Select suitable option :
(120=20)
1) A microprocessor having ten address lines can access

a) 1 KB memory
b) 4 KB memory
c) 2 KB memory
d) 16 KB memory
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 131
*SLRUM131*
-2-
DO
NO
R
W
T
H
E
IT
E
R
E
2) Which of following is not associated with 8085 ?

a) Monitor program
b) Loader
c) DMA
d) None of above
3) Which of below can be used as 17th address line ?

a) SID
b) DO
c) SOD
d) None of above
4) 2716 is a __________ EPROM.

a) 2K 8
b) 4K 8
c) 8K 8
d) 16K 8
5) Which of below is an invalid instruction ?

a) MVI M, 25
b) MOV M, B
c) MV B, 1234H
d) None of above
6) Which of below instruction checks parity flag ?

a) CP
b) CPE
c) JP
d) All of above
7) Address of ISR for RST7 is

a) 0020 H
b) 0028 H
c) 0030 H
d) 0038 H
8) Which of below is the lowest priority ?

a) RST 7.5
b) RST 6.5
c) RST 5.5
d) INTR
*SLRUM131*
9) A zero at D7 of 8255 CWR indicates

a) Mode 0
c) Mode 2
10) To increase resolution of DAC,
a) Increase Vref
c) Increase number of bits
SLR-UM 131
-3-
b) Mode 1
d) BSR mode
b) Use faster op-amp
d) None of above
11) Which of below is not associated with 8251 ?

b) TXRDY
a) Sync detect
c) Baud rate
d) None of above
12) For a memory mapped I/O, address of input port is __________ bit and that of
output port is __________ bit.
a) 8 and 8
b) 16 and 16
c) 8 and 16
d) 16 and 8
13) Which of below ADC uses a DAC as a building block ?
a) Flash
b) Successive approximation
c) Single slope
d) Double slope
14) Maximum number of sync character supported by 8251 is
b) Two
a) One
c) Three
d) Four
15) Which of below is not a signal in 8255 Mode 1-output mode ?
b)
a)
c) INTR
d)
A
16) Which of below instruction effectively rotates left nine bits of data ?
b) RRC
a) RLC
c) RAL
d) RAR
17) Second machine cycle of instruction cycle for instruction MVIA, 35 is
a) Opcode fetch
b) Memory read
c) Memory write
d) None of above
18) How many Gate pins are available with 8253 ?
b) Two
a) One
c) Three
d) None
SLR-UM 131
*SLRUM131*
-4-
19) For a stepper motor, step angle is

N
. In this equation K is
0
a) A number of teeth on rotor

b) Excitation factor
c) 8255 port number
d) Mode of operation
20) In a DAC 0808, output ___________ is proportional to input voltage.
a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Both a) and b)
d) Resistance
______________________
*SLRUM131*
-5-
SLR-UM 131
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

MICROPROCESSOR AND INTERFACING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Explain PUSH operation with suitable example and diagram.

b) With suitable timing diagram explain timing characteristics in a typical memory
read operation.
c) Draw and explain state transition diagram for 8085.
d) WAP to exchange contents of memory locations 2000 H and 3000 H. Write
two programs 1) Using XCHG 2) Without using XCHG.
e) WAP to transfer overlapping blocks of data.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Show and explain basic memory cell for EPROM. Also explain EPROM
programming.
b) With suitable timing diagram explain how READY signal is used to interface
slower memory with 8085.
c) Interface 16 K 8 EPROM using 4 K 4 chips starting from address 0000 H.
SLR-UM 131
-6-
*SLRUM131*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Draw and explain internal block diagram of 8253.

b) Draw and explain internal block diagram of 8255.
c) Draw (only) interfacing of ADC 0808 with 8085.
d) Compare with example Interrupt based data transfer Vs. stones check
based data transfer.
e) Write a short note on RS232C.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Interface a stepper motor with 8085 using 8255 and WAP to rotate motor
clockwise with speed of 1 revolution per second.
b) Interface 8 8 matrix keyboard with 8085 using 8255 and WAP to detect, as
debounce and encode key pressed.
c) Interface a Centronix type printer with 8085 using 8255 and WAP to print 20
characters using status check method.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 151
*SLRUM151*
Seat
No.
Signature of Jr. Supervisor

Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2014

CIRCUITS AND NETWORKS
Day & Date : Tuesday, 20-5-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Day & Date ____________________ _
Language of Answer ______________________________
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________ Section ________________________________________

Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination _________

______________ (Paper - _______)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 should be answered on the question paper itself and

should be returned within first 30 minutes.
3) Assume suitable data if required.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 151
-2-
DO
*SLRUM151*
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
T
NO

Marks : 20
1. Tick mark the correct answer.

1) If Rg in the given circuit is variable between 20 and 80 , then the
maximum power transferred to load RL will be
Rg
+
12 V
RL = 60
a) 0.6 W
b) 0.3 W
c) 6.67 W
d) 2.4 W
2) In the circuit shown in the given figure, switch s is closed at time t = 0. After
sometime when current in the inductor was 6A, the rate of change of current
through it was 4A/s. The value of the inductor is
t=0
+
S
L
20 V
3
a) intermediate
b) 1.50 H
c) 0.54 H
d) 1.54 H
*SLRUM151*
-3-
SLR-UM 151
3) When superposition theorem is applied to any circuit, the dependent voltage

source in that circuit is always
4)
a) opened
b) shorted
c) active
d) none of these
4
1
4
B
1
RAB = ?
a) 1
b) 1. 5
c) 2.5
d) 3
5) In the network shown in the figure, effective resistance faced by the voltage
source is
i/4
i
4
V
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
SLR-UM 151
-4-
*SLRUM151*
6) In series RLC circuit R = 10 , L = 0.5 mH and C = 10 F then the resonant

frequency is
a) 3.25 kHz
b) 1.25 kHz
c) 4.25 kHz
d) 2.25 kHz
7) In a parallel resonance circuit, why does the current lag the source voltage
at a frequencies below resonance ?
a) because the circuit is predominantly resistive
b) because the circuit is predominantly inductive
c) because the circuit is predominantly capacitive
d) none of these
8) In a series RLC circuit has a quality factor at 50 rad/sec, when R = 10
and L = 1H
a) 5
b) 4
c) 10
d) 0.2
a)
1
RC
b)
R
C
c) RC
d) e RC
*SLRUM151*
-5-
SLR-UM 151
10) Columns of incidence matrix A with unit entries in two identical rows
correspond to two branches with same end nodes and hence they are
a) series
b) parallel
c) delta
d) star
11) Electric wave filters
a) Allow electric signals with specified frequency range
b) Suppress signals outside a specified range
c) Both (a) and (b) occurs simultaneously
d) Either (a) or (b) occur at a time
12) A cascade connection of low pass filter and high pass filter is called
a) Band pass filter
b) Band elimination filter
c) Neither (a) nor (b)
d) Both (a) and (b)
13) The condition AD-BC = 1 for a two port network implies that the network is
a) Reciprocal network
b) Lumped element network
c) Loss less network
d) Unilateral element network
SLR-UM 151
-6-
*SLRUM151*
14) Two port network are connected in cascade, the combination is to be

represented as a single two port network, the parameters of the network are
obtained by multiplying the individuals
a) Z parameter matrix
b) H parameter matrix
c) Y parameter matrix
d) Transmission parameter matrix
15) The response of a network is decided by the location of
a) Its poles
b) Its zeros
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) Both (a) and (b)
16) Example of two port network is
a) Transformer
b) Transmission line
c) Bridge circuit and transistor circuit
d) All of the above
17) For two port network to be reciprocal
a) Z11 = Z22
b) Y21 = Y12
c) H21 = h12
d) AD BC = 0
*SLRUM151*
-7-
SLR-UM 151
18) The system is said to be unstable if

a) all poles lie on right half of s plane
b) some poles lie on right half of s plane
c) all poles does not lie on right half of s plane
d) both a and b
19) What kind of filter can be used to select the signal from one particular radio
station ?
a) low pass
b) high pass
c) band pass
d) band stop
20) The first and last critical frequencies of a driving point impedance function of
a passive network having two kinds of elements are a pole and zero
respectively. The above property will be satisfied by
a) RL network only
b) RC network only
c) LC network only
d) RC as well as RL Networks
_____________________
SLR-UM 151
-9-
*SLRUM151*
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part I) (Old)

Examination, 2014
CIRCUITS AND NETWORKS
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four.
(46=24)
a) Find the value of RL for maximum power transfer. Also find the maximum
power.
25 V
V
25
++
30 V
20
RL
30
50 V
30
15
b) State and explain Reciprocity theorem.

c) Obtain the current passing through 2 resistor in the circuit shown below
by using superposition theorem.
22
10 V
V
10
ii22
+
2i2
2i
3A
*SLRUM151*
SLR-UM 151
-10-
d) The voltage applied to the series RLC circuit is 5V. The Q of the coil is 25
and the value of the capacitor is 200 PF. The resonant frequency of the
circuit is 200 KHz. Find the value of the inductance, the circuit current and
the voltage across the capacitor.
e) The circuit shown below, consists of series RL elements with R = 150
and L = 0.54. The switch is closed when = 30 . Determine the resultant
current when voltage V = 50 cos(100 t + ) is applied to the circuit at
= 30.
S
R = 150
LL == 0.5
0.5 H
H
50 cos(100t + )
3. a) Write nodal equations for the circuit shown below and find the power supplied
by the 10 V source.
2
+
10 V
10 A
4
+ V
3
1
4 V3
SLR-UM 151
*SLRUM151*
-11-
b) For the circuit shown below, the applied voltage v(t) = 15 sin 1800 t. Determine
the resonant frequency. Calculate the quality factor and bandwidth. Compute
the lower and upper limits of bandwidth.
5H
15
2 F
v(t) = 15 sin 1800 t

OR
b) A series RC circuit with R = 15 and C = 100 F. A sinusoidal voltage
v = 100 sin(500t + )volts is applied to the circuit at time corresponding to
= 45. Obtain the current transient.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four questions.
(54=20)
1) Express ABCD parameters in terms of Z parameters.
2) For the constant K band pass filter, show that the resonant frequency of
individual arm should be the geometric mean of its two cut off frequencies.
3) Derive the condition for the reciprocal network in terms of Z parameters.
4) Derive the expression for arm resistances of T-type attenuator and hence
design T-type attenuator to give an attenuation of 70 dB with characteristic
impedance of 700 .
5) Give necessary conditions for transfer function.
6) Explain how routh array can be used to determine stability of the network.
5. Solve any two questions.
(102=20)
1) Define Pole and Zero. Draw pole zero diagram for the given function I(S) and
12 S
obtain the expression from the same for i(t) I(S) = (S + 4 ) (S + 3 ) .
2) Derive the expression for driving point impedance at the output port with
source impedance at input port in terms of Z parameters and y parameters.
Draw equivalent circuit for two port network in terms of Z and Y parameters.
3) Explain constant K low pass filter. Design a low pass filter with T and
sections having a cut off frequency of 1 kHz to operate with a terminated
load resistance of 400 .
Code No. SLR-UM
193
*SLRUM193*
Seat
No.
S
_
_
&
&
r
a
p
a
Instructions : 1) Objective type Section carries 20 marks with duration 30

minutes.
Marks : 20
1. Please tick mark appropriate option :

1) The recursive function would result in infinite recursion if the following were
left out
b) Recursive call
a) Base case
c) Subtraction
d) Local variable declaration
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 193
*SLRUM193*
-2-
DO
NO
R
W
T
H
E
IT
E
R
E
2) What is the meaning of the following declaration ?

int (* ptr [5] ) () ;
a) ptr is pointer to function
b) ptr is array of pointer to function
c) ptr is pointer to such function whose return type is array
d) ptr is pointer to array of function
3) Which operator has the highest priority ?
b) %
a) ++
c) +
d) /
4) The number of arguments used in malloc () is
b) 1
a) 0
c) 2
d) 3
5) Which file I/O function is used to report the number of bytes from beginning of
the file to the file position indicator ?
b) freport
a) ftell
c) fscek
d) fcount
6) The declaration float f [ ] [3] = { { 1.0}, {2.0}, {3.0}; represents
a) a one-by-three array
b) a three-by-one array
c) a three-by-three array
d) a one-by-one array
*SLRUM193*
SLR-UM 193
-3-
7) The break statement is used in

a) selective control structures only
b) loop control structures only
c) option a and b
d) in functions
8) The operator exclusively used with pointer to structure is
b)
a) .
c) [ ]
d) *
9) The function used for reading binary stream is

a) read ()
b) fread ()
c) fscanf ()
d) all the above
10) Which of the following operators has right to left associativity ?
b) &&
a) &
c) <<
11) The memory address of the first element of an array is called
a) floor address
b) foundation address
c) first address
d) base address
12) Which of the following data structures are indexed structures ?
a) linear arrays
b) linked lists
c) array of structures
d) all a), b) and c)
13) A variable P is called pointer if
a) P contains the address of an element in DATA
b) P points to the address of the first element in DATA
c) P can store address of any type of DATA
d) P contain the DATA and the address of DATA
14) The elements of an array are stored successively in memory cells because
a) by this way computer can keep track only the address of the first element
and the addresses of other elements can be calculated
b) the architecture of computer memory does not allow arrays to store other
than serially
c) both of above
d) none of above
SLR-UM 193
-4-
*SLRUM193*
15) Which of the following statement is false ?

a) arrays are dense lists and static data structure
b) data elements in linked list need not be stored in adjacent space
in memory
c) pointers store the next data element of a list
d) linked lists are collection of the nodes that contain information part and
next pointer
16) Which of the following is two way list ?
a) singly circular linked list
b) doubly linked list
c) linked list with header and trailer nodes
d) none of above
17) The situation when PTR > NEXT = START in a circular linked list, means
a) PTR is at the first node in the linked list
b) PTR is at the last but one node in the linked list
c) PTR is at the last node in the linked list
d) PTR is at the middle node in the linked list
18) An algorithm that calls itself directly or indirectly is known as
b) recursive algorithm
a) sub algorithm
c) polish algorithm
d) traversal algorithm
19) In circular queue, the empty spaces are filled using formula
b) (rear front) % size
a) (rear + front) / size
c) (rear 1) % size
d) (rear + 1) % size
20) In the declaration : char *argv [ ] ; argv is
a) array of strings
b) array of pointers to strings
c) pointer to an array of strings
d) pointer to a string
______________________
*SLRUM193*
-5-
SLR-UM 193
Seat
No.
S.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2014

(Old)
DATA STRUCTURES I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Each Section carries 40 marks.

2) Objective type Section carries 20 marks with duration 30
minutes.
3) Attempt all questions from each Section.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four of the following :
(54=20)
a) List the file opening mode with example in C.

b) What is recursion ? Explain algorithm of factorial and fibonacci series using
recursion ?
c) Explain static and dynamic memory allocation with example.
d) Write a C program to compare two string without using library function.
e) Explain pointer to structure with example.
3. Solve any one of the following :
10
a) What is pointer ? Explain pointer to array and array of pointer with example.
b) Write a C program to count the following from the text file
i) Number of character
ii) Number of words
iii) Number of lines
4. Explain the different string library functions in C with example.
10
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 193
-6-
*SLRUM193*
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) Write C functions for singly linked list :

1) insert in the begining of linked list
2) insert at the end of linked list
3) insert after a given node
b) Explain the operations on stack.
c) What is sparse matrin ? Write a function to generate a sparse matrix.
d) Explain how infix expression can be converted into postfix using a stack.
e) Write a program to create and display doubly linked list in reverse order.
6. Attempt any one :
10
a) Write a program to merge two sorted linked lists, which contains following
functions
1) Creation of linked lists
2) Merging of linked lists
3) Display resulting linked list
b) What is priority queue ? Write an algorithm to insert and delete the element
from priority queue.
7. Implement the concept of queue using linked list.
_____________________
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 197
*SLRUM197*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014

DISCRETE MATHEMATICAL STRUCTURES (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Day & Date _____________________
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________ Section ________________________________________

Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination _________

______________ (Paper - _______)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. 1) The valid conclusion from the premises P Q, Q R, P M,

a) P (Q R)
b) P (Q R)
c) R (P Q)
d) Q (P R)
M is
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 197
*SLRUM197*
-2-
DO
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
T
NO
2) (P P) is equivalent to
a) ~ ( P P)
c) ~P
b) ~ P ~ P
d) All of these
3) The dual value of (P Q) R is

a) (P Q) R
b) (P Q) R
c) (P Q) T
d) (P Q) R
4) (A
B)
(A
BC) is equivalent to _________ (where BC denotes
complements of B).
b) B
a) A
c) A
d) A
5) Let A be the finite set of size n, the number of elements of power set of
A A is
a) 22n
b) 2n2
c) (2n)2
d) None of these
6) Pick the correct prefix formula

a) P QR ~ S
b) P QRS
c) PQ QR PR
d) P Q ~ QSP
*SLRUM197*
-3-
SLR-UM 197
7) Which of the following proposition is tautology ?

a) (P Q) P
b) P (Q P)
c) P (P Q)
d) P (P Q)
8) Let A = { , { }}, which of the following is false ?

a) P(A)
b) {{ }} A
c) { } subset of A
d) { } A
9) Which is functionally complete set of connectives ?

a) { , V)
b) { , }
c) { }
d) None of these
10) The number of subsets of a set of order 3 is

a) 3
b) 8
c) 6
d) 9
11) A lattice L is said to be complemented lattice if every element of L has

a) No complement
b) Atleast one complement
c) Exactly two complements
d) None of these
12) The Rank of well-formed polish formula is
a) 0
b) 1
c) > = 1
d) None of these
13) If em is the identity element in the monoid <M,*>, then for any X belongs to
M, we have
a) X * e = e
b) X * e = Xe
c) X * e = 0
d) X * e = X
SLR-UM 197
-4-
*SLRUM197*
14) If G is a group, then every a belongs to G has

a) Two inverse in G
b) A unique inverse in G
c) More than two inverse in G
d) None of these
15) If G is group, then for every a belongs to G
a) (a1) 1= a1
b) (a1)1 = (a)1
c) (a1)1 = a
d) None of these
16) The Boolean expression a (a * b) is equal to

a) a
b) a * b
c) a b
d) a + a * b
17) A mapping f : x y is called onto if

a) Rf = X
c) Df = Y
b) Rf = Y
d) None of these
18) The number of functions from m element set to n element set are
a) m + n
b) mn
c) nm
d) m*n
19) Every finite subset of lattice has

a) Only one LUB and GLB
b) Many LUBs and a GLB
c) Many LUBs and many GLBs
d) Either some LUBs or some GLBs
20) Every chain is
a) Complemented lattice
b) Sub lattice
c) Distributive lattice
d) Boolean algebra
_____________________
*SLRUM197*
SLR-UM 197
-5-
Seat
No.
S.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014

DISCRETE MATHEMATICAL STRUCTURES (New)
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions :1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
(54=20)
a) Show the following equivalence without truth table.

(P Q) (R Q) (P R) Q
b) Write a note on Tautological implication with example.
c) If A = { , } and B = {1, 2, 3} what are A B, B A, A A, B B.
d) Convert the following formula is prefix form
P Q
e) Define POSET and how they are represented with example.

f) Give the relation R on the set of positive integers as
R = { < x, y > | (x y) is divisible by m}
Show that R is equivalent relation.
10
a) Obtain the PDNF and PCNF of the following formula without constructing
truth table.
P (
P (Q (
Q R)))
b) Define relations. Explain the various properties of relation with example.

4. What are connectives ? Define all connectives with their truth table.
10
SLR-UM 197
-6-
*SLRUM197*
SECTION II
a) Show that every chain is distributed lattice.
b) Define group and explain the properties of the groups.
c) Define the following terms :
(54=20)
i) sub semigroup
ii) sub monoid.
d) Obtain the sum of products canonical forms of the following Boolean
expression x1 (x2 * x3).
e) Explain different types of functions with suitable examples.
f) Define algebraic system and explain the properties of algebraic system.
10
a) Write all functions from X = {1, 2} to Y = {a, b, c} and classify them into
one-to-one, onto, and neither one-to-one nor onto types of functions.
b) Define Boolean algebra. Explain the various properties with an example in
detail.
7. Define lattice as a partial ordered set and explain properties with example.
10
Code No. SLR-UM 198
*SLRUM198*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
_
_
_
_
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
All questions are compulsory.

Assme suitable data, if necessary.
Draw neat diagrams.
1. Solve the following MCQs.
Marks : 20
20
1) A variable P is called pointer if

a) P contains the address of an element in DATA
b) P points to the address of the first element in DATA
c) P can store address of any type of DATA
d) P contain the DATA and the address of DATA
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 198
*SLRUM198*
-2-
DO
W
T
O
E
T
I
R
R
HE
2) Each array declaration need not give, implicitly or explicitly, the information
about
a) The name of array
b) The data type of array
c) The index set of the array
d) The first data from the set to be stored
3) When new data are to be inserted into a data structure, but there is no available
space; this situation is usually called
a) Underflow
b) Overflow
c) Houseful
d) Saturated
4) Pointer variable is declared using preceding ______ sign.
a) ^
b) %
c) *
d) &
5) * is called as
a) Scope resolution operator
b) Address operator
c) Value at operator
d) None of these
*SLRUM198*
6) What is the output of this C code ?
#include <stdio.h>
void main( )
{
char*s = hello;
char*p = s;
printf (%c\t%c, *(p + 1), s[1]);
}
a) h e
c) h h
SLR-UM 198
-3-
b) e I
d) e e
7) Which data structure is used to store the return addresses of functions which
are repeatedly called in recursion ?
b) array
a) stack
c) structure
d) queue
8) A solution to a 64-disk towers of Hanoi problem requires how many disks to
be moved ?
b) 2^64 1
a) 64
c) 64^2 1
d) 64^64 1
e) None of the above
9) abc [ ] and xyz [ ] are two strings and we have to copy xyz [ ] in abc [ ]. Which
of the following function is used ?
b) strcat( )
a) strcmp( )
c) strcpy( )
d) strconca( )
10) Which one is not a data conversion function ?
b) strtod( )
a) ecvt( )
c) isalnum( )
d) itoa( )
11) Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are
b) Complexity and capacity
a) Processor and memory
c) Time and space
d) Data and space
12) The worst case occurs in linear search algorithm when
a) Item is somewhere in the middle of array
b) Item is not in the array at all
c) Item is the last element in the array
d) Item is the last element in the array or is there at all
SLR-UM 198
*SLRUM198*
-4-
13) _________ is not a collision resolution technique.

b) Chaining
a) Open addressing
c) Division
d) Linear probing
14) On successful opening of file fopen ( ) function returns
b) SUCCESS
a) NULL
c) 1
d) Address
15) Two records that cannot occupy the same position. This situation is known
as
b) Hash collision
a) Rehashing
c) Chaining
d) None of these
16) The operation of processing each element in the list is known as
b) Merging
a) Sorting
c) Inserting
d) Traversing
17) FILE is a
a) Structure
c) Array
b) Function
d) Pointer
18) The time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by
a) Counting microseconds
b) Counting number of key operations
c) Counting the number of statements
d) Counting the kilobytes of algorithm
19) The fwrite( ) function have
a) 1 argument
c) 3 arguments
b) 2 arguments
d) 4 arguments
20) The average successful search time for sequential search on n item is
b) (n 1)/2
a) n/2
c) (n + 2)/2
d) log (n) + 1
______________________
*SLRUM198*
-5-
SLR-UM 198
Seat
No.
S.E. (CSE) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

ADVANCED C CONCEPTS
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Assume suitable data, if necessary.
Draw neat diagrams.
SECTION I
20
1) Explain with example how multiple strings are stored in one array.
2) Write a note on pointer and array.
3) Explain the use of extern variable with example.
4) Explain in short how recursion works.
5) Write a program to count the length of string without using strlen ( ) function.
6) List and explain five functions of < ctype.h> header file.
3. Explain the recursive process to find factorial of a number and WAP for same.
10
OR
Explain with example the use of clock( ) and time( ) functions in detail.
4. Write a detail note on the concept of array of pointers with example.
10
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 198
-6-
*SLRUM198*
SECTION II
5. Solve any four questions :
(45=20)
a) Write a program to copy the contents of one file to another file, character by
character.
b) Write a program for insertion sort.
c) Explain following :
1) Time complexity
2) Space complexity.
d) Sort following elements using Heap Sort by giving stepwise explanation.
25, 55, 46, 35, 10, 90, 84, 31
e) Explain following file functions.
rewind( ), fseek( ), ftell( ).
6. Explain different file opening modes in detail.
10
OR
How collision is handled using open addressing and chaining ? Differentiate
these techniques.
7. Write a menu driven program for sequential search and binary search.
_____________________
10
10
Code No. SLR-UM 213
*SLRUM213*
Seat
No.
_
_
&
&
a
M
N
r
1
o
f
C

1. Tick the correct option for following objective :
Marks : 20
20
1) Software implementation using PL introduces a new domain called

a) Application domain
b) PL domain
c) Execution domain
d) Program generator domain
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 213
*SLRUM213*
-2-
DO
W
T
O
E
T
I
R
R
HE
2) The specification language of execution domain is

a) PL itself
b) Machine language
c) Assembly language
d) None of above
3) The language preprocessor converts C++ program in to
a) Assembly language
b) Machine language
c) C language
d) C++ language
4) Symbolic reference in source statement are not processed at all during
Pass I in
a) Variant I
b) Variant III
c) Variant II
d) All above
5) A/An _______ statement indicates an action to be performed during the
execution of the assembled program.
a) Declarative
b) Imperative
c) Assembler directive
d) All of above
6) Which of the following is not an assembler directive ?
a) END
b) PRINT
c) ORIGIN
d) None of above
*SLRUM213*
SLR-UM 213
-3-
7) Consider following assembly language code

START 101
READ
PRINT
DS
01
What is equivalent machine code ?

a) 101) + 09 0, 103
102) + 10 0, 103
103)
b) 101) + 08 0, 103
102) + 10 0, 103
103)
c) 101) + 09 0, 104
102) + 11 0, 103
103)
d) 101) + 07 0, 103
102) + 10 0, 103
103)
8) Which of the following language provide built in facilities for writing macros ?
b) Ada
a) C
c) C++
d) All of above
9) A macro definition consist of
a) A macro prototype statement
b) One or more model statement
c) Macro pre-processor statement
d) All of above
10) Consider the following macro definition
INCR
&MEM_VAL,
&INCR_VAL,
&REG
MOVER &REG, & MEM_VAL

ADD
&REG, &INOR_VAL
MOVEM &REG, &MEM_VAL

MEND
Macro call for above definition will be
a) INCR A, B, AREG
b) INCR_M MEM_VAL = A, INCR_VAL = B, REG = AREG
c) INCR_M INCR_VAL = B, REG = AREG, MEM_VAL = A
d) All of above
SLR-UM 213
-4-
*SLRUM213*
11) The postfix notation for expression f + (x + y) * ((a + b) / (c d)) with

correct evaluation order and minimum register requirement is
a) xy + f*ab + cd-/
b) cd-ab+/xy+*f+
c) ab + cd-xy + *f+
d) None of these
12) A program representation called _______ is useful in optimizing compilers
b) Indirect Triples
a) Triples
c) Quadruples
d) All of these
13) Which is not a PL feature contribute semantic gap between PL domain
and execution domain ?
a) Control structure
b) Scope rules
c) Data type
d) None of these
14) Live_in and Live_out are boolean variables used in
a) Local optimization
b) Global optimization
c) Control flow anlaysis
d) None of these
15) The linker
a) is required to create a load module
b) uses source code as input
c) is always used before programs are executed
d) is same as loader
16) Binding of external reference to the link time address is called
b) Linking
a) Translation
c) Loading
d) None of these
17) Which is not a component of object module of a program ?
a) Program
b) Header
c) LINKTAB
d) NTAB
18) Binary symbolic subroutine is example of
a) Absolute loader
b) Compiler and-go loader
c) Relocation loader
d) DLL
19) In loaders, location and length of each address constant is maintained by
b) TXT
a) ESD
c) RLD
d) LDT
20) Which among the following is not valid database for loaders ?
a) GEST
b) LESA
c) Object deck
d) NMT
______________________
*SLRUM213*
-5-
SLR-UM 213
Seat
No.
T.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2014

SYSTEM PROGRAMMING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
20
a) What is binding time ? Discuss different binding times with example.
b) What is LPDT ? Explain LEX in detail.
c) List and explain advanced assembler directives with example.
d) Explain variant-II of intermediate code forms with example and memory
requirement.
e) Define macro and explain macro expansion with its algorithm.
f) Discuss different kinds of parameter passing methods in macros.
3. Explain front end and back end of toy compiler in detail.
10
OR
Explain the design of single pass assembler of Intel 8088 with details of different
tables generated.
4. Explain pass-I algorithm of two pass assembler with example.
10
SECTION II
20
a) Explain code optimizing transformation with example.
b) Explain local optimization with value number.
c) Explain execution of program written in language L. Explain translated, linked
and load origin.
d) Explain overlay structured program with example.
e) List loader function and explain general loader scheme.
f) Explain direct linking loader.
SLR-UM 213
-6-
*SLRUM213*
6. Define global optimization. Explain control flow and data flow analysis.
10
OR
Explain following terms :
a) Object module with example
b) Binary program
c) Self relocating program
7. Explain following loaders :
10
a) Absolute loader with example

b) Compile and go loader with advantages and disadvantages.
_____________________
SLR-UM 223
Code No.
*SLRUM223*
Seat
No.
&
D
&
f
C

1. Choose the correct options.
Marks : 20
20
1) The design of distributed operating system should be flexible due to

a) Sharing of information
b) Ease of modification
c) Ease of enhancement
d) Both b) and c)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 223
*SLRUM223*
-2-
DO
W
T
O
E
T
I
R
R
HE
2) Which of the following is not the issue in the design of distributed

operating system ?
a) Scalability
b) Performance
c) Resource sharing
d) Heterogeneity
3) The exactly-once call semantics uses __________ for handling duplicate

request messages in message passing system.
a) Both request identifier and reply-cache
b) Request identifier
c) Reply-cache
d) None of these
4) Which of the following features are commonly useful for distinguishing
distributed OS and network OS ?
a) System image
b) Autonomy
c) Fault tolerance capability
d) All of these
5) Which of the commonly used techniques for implementing the

Fault-detection and recovery method ?
a) Atomic transaction
b) Redundancy technique
c) Stateless servers
d) Both a) and c)
6) Which of the following field is not required in typical RPC request

message format ?
a) Message Identifier
b) Message type
c) Reply status
d) Client identifier
*SLRUM223*
SLR-UM 223
-3-
7) What is the degree of reliability requirement to implement atomic

multicast in group communication ?
a) 1-reliable
b) m-out-of-n-reliable
c) All-reliable
d) 0-reliable
8) In the inteprocess communication the finite-bound message-buffering

strategy can dealt with
a) Unsuccessful communication
b) Flow-controlled communication
c) Synchronous communication
d) Both a) and b)
9) What is the advantage of monolithic kernel model ?
a) Message passing and context switching are not required
b) It is flexible
c) Support for modular design
d) None of these
10) What is the advantage of processor-pool model ?
a) Suitable for high performance interactive application
b) Can make better utilization of available computing power
c) Cant provide greater flexibility to the user
d) None of these
11) In Nonpreemptive process migration, a process is relocated
a) Before it starts execution
b) During the course of its execution
c) After its execution
d) None of these
12) Which of the following is the drawback of kernel-level approach for
implementing thread package ?
a) Poor performance
b) Context switching is not faster
c) Lack of customized scheduling algorithm
d) Lack of clock interrupts between threads of a process
SLR-UM 223
*SLRUM223*
-4-
13) Which of the following is not the necessary condition for deadlocks ?
b) Hold-and-wait
a) Mutual exclusion
c) preemption
d) Circular-wait
14) In the file caching scheme what is the advantage of having cache
location in clients disk ?
a) Reliability against crashes
b) Support Unix-like file sharing semantics
c) Easy to keep both cached data and original file consistent
d) Both b) and c)
15) In the best case, the bully election algorithm requires only
b) 2(n 1) messages
a) n 1 messages
c) n 2 messages
d) n2 messages
16) For replicated file which of the multicopy update protocol cannot
handle the network partition problem ?
a) Read-any-write-all
b) Quorum-based
c) Available-copies
d) Both a) and c)
17) In distributed file system which is the advantage of stateless service

paradigm ?
a) Easy to detect duplicate request
b) Simplify error detection
c) Makes crash recovery very easy
d) All of these
18) The difference in time values of two clocks is called
a) Clock drift
b) Clock skew
c) Drift rate
d) None of these
19) Which version of Mach supported the microkernel model ?

a) Mach 1.0
b) Mach 2.5
c) Mach 3.0
d) Both b) and c)
20) In the centralized mutual exclusion algorithm the number of message

exchange per critical section entry/exit is
a) 2(n 1)
c) 3
b) varies from 0 to n 1
d) (n 1)
_____________
-5-
*SLRUM223*
SLR-UM 223
Seat
No.
B.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

DISTRIBUTED SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve the following (any four) :
(45=20)
A) Define distributed computing and parallel processing systems. In what respect

are distributed computing systems better than parallel processing systems ?
B) Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of the various commonly
used models for configuring distributed computing systems.
C) Describe blocking and non blocking types of IPC. Which is easier to implement
and why ?
D) What is RPC model ? Explain how RPCs differ from normal procedure calls.
E) Explain the causal-ordering of messages for ordered delivery of multicast messages
in group communication.
F) Explain the commonly used methods to improve the reliability of distributed
operating systems.
3. Solve any one :
10
A) Explain in detail the implementation of Remote Procedure Call (RPC).

B) What is transparency ? Explain in detail different aspects of transparency issue
in designing of distributed operating systems.
4. What is idempotent operation ? Explain with example exactly-once semantics for
handling of duplicate messages.
10
SLR-UM 223
-6-
*SLRUM223*
SECTION II
5. Solve the following (any four) :
(45=20)
A) List some of the potential advantages and disadvantages of process migration.

B) Explain the centralize mutual exclusion with example.
C) Explain thread scheduling in Mach.
D) Explain the file accessing models in distributed file systems.
E) Sketch and explain the UNIX emulation in Chorus.
6. Solve any one :
10
A) Explain in detail different file-sharing semantics in distributed file systems.

B) Why event ordering is required in distributed systems ? Explain the concept of
logical clocks and their importance in distributed systems.
7. Solve any one :
10
A) Write short note on :

I) Bully algorithm.
II) Message forwarding mechanism in process migration.
B) What are the design goals for Mach ? Sketch and explain the Mach system
architecture.
_____________________
SLR-UM 255
Code No.
*SLRUM255*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
_
_
f
C
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.

Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct alternative :

1) The most general phrase structured grammar is
a) Regular grammar
b) CFG
c) Context-sensitive
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 255
*SLRUM255*
-2-
DO
W
T
O
E
T
I
R
R
HE
2) Whether a given pattern constitutes of token or not depends on

a) Source language
b) Target language
c) Compiler
d) All of these
3) Symbol table can be used for

a) Checking type compatibility
b) Suppressing duplication of error messages
c) Storage allocation
d) All of these
4) Compiler can diagnose
a) Grammatical errors
b) Logical errors
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
5) Pseudo-code is a
a) Machine language
b) Assembly language
c) High-level language
d) None
6) Resolution of an externally defined symbol is performed by

a) Linker
b) Loader
c) Compiler
d) Assembler
7) In absolute loader linking is done by

a) Linker
b) Loader
c) Programmer
d) Assembler
*SLRUM255*
SLR-UM 255
-3-
8) In direct linking loader which among the following is not related to object
program
a) ESD
b) RLD
c) BSS
d) TXT
9) EXE2BIN creates
a) System file
b) Executable file
c) Object file
d) None
10) Binary symbolic subroutine loader is an example of

a) Absolute loader
b) Compile-go loader
c) Relocating loader
d) Dynamic loader
11) Table of Incomplete Instructions is used in __________ assemblers.

a) Two-pass
b) Single-pass
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
12) Which language processor bridges the execution gap but is not a language
translator ?
a) Preprocessor
b) Migrator
c) Interpreter
d) Compiler
13) The front-end performs

a) Lexical analysis and syntax analysis
b) Syntax and semantic analysis
c) Target program generation
d) Lexical, syntax and semantic analysis
14) To implement memory allocation ___________ is used in analysis phase of
assembly language.
a) DS
b) Instruction counter
c) DC
d) Location counter
15) Back-patching is used in assemblers to handle forward references in

a) Pass-I
b) Pass-II
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
SLR-UM 255
*SLRUM255*
-4-
16) Symbol table can be used for

a) Checking type compatibility
b) Suppressing duplication of error messages
c) Storage allocation
d) All of these
17) Which among the following is not a major issue in code generation from
expressions ?
a) Determining evaluation order
b) Selection of an instruction
c) Use of registers and handling partial results
18) Which of the IC variant performs the operand processing in Pass-II ?
a) Variant-I
b) Variant-II
c) Both I and II
d) None
19) Problems in single pass assembler are resolved using

a) SRT and ST
b) FRT
c) CRT
d) All of these
20) Error listing and error reporting in assembler can be done in

a) Pass-I
b) Pass-II
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
______________________
*SLRUM255*
-5-
SLR-UM 255
Seat
No.
T.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2014

SYSTEM PROGRAMMING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Answer any four of the following briefly :
(45=20)
a) What are LPDTs ? Give examples.

b) What are declarative statements ? Give examples.
c) What is a Macro ? Give a simple example.
d) How are literals different from symbols ? Give examples.
e) What are forward references ? Illustrate.
3. Design a two pass assembler and give the necessary algorithms along with
inputs and outputs for each pass.
10
OR
Develop an assembly scheme for IBM 360.
4. With respect to the gaps between application domain and execution domain
explain the language processing activities.
OR
Bring out the differences between assemblers, compilers, translators and
interpreters.
10
SLR-UM 255
-6-
*SLRUM255*
SECTION II
5. Answer any four of the following briefly :
(45=20)
a) What is frequency reduction ? Give an example.

b) What is linking ? State the conditions for relocation.
c) State the different loader schemes and compare them.
d) What is binding ? When is it done ?
e) What are the basic aspects of compilation ? How are they used ?
6. State with algorithms the basic steps to be followed in program execution.
OR
10
Give the algorithms involved in local optimization of code.

7. How is control and data flow analysis carried out in program code optimization ?
OR
How is linking carried out ? Explain the necessary algorithms.
_____________________
10
Code No. SLR-UM 265
*SLR-UM265*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
_
_

2) Figures to the right indicate marks to a questions.
1. Choose correct alternatives :
Marks : 20
20
1) Machines with fine-granularity parallelism have

a) Few no of processors
b) Large no of processors
c) Single task, single processor
d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 265
*SLR-UM265*
-2-
DO
NO
R
W
T
H
E
IT
E
R
E
2) For reading entire relation, ________ partitioning technique is more suitable.

a) Round Robin
b) Hash
c) Range
d) None of these
3) Which is/are the disadvantage of data replication ?

a) Availability
b) Increased parallelism
c) Increased overhead on update
d) All of them
4) If the relation is horizontally partitioned then original relation is constructed
using ______ operation.
a) Join
b) Intersection
c) Union
d) Projection
5) In distributed database, transaction coordinator is not responsible for
a) Starting the execution of transaction
b) Breaking transaction into number of substransactions
c) Coordinating termination of transaction
d) Maintaining log for recovery purpose
6) In multiset, an element may occur multiple times. State whether this statement
is True or False.
a) True
b) False
*SLR-UM265*
SLR-UM 265
-3-
7) The operation from finer granularity data to a coarser granularity is called

a) rollup
b) drilldown
c) slicing
d) dicing
8) Tables containing multidimensional data are called
b) Star tables
a) Dimension tables
c) Fact tables
d) Pivot table
9) Which of the following is not true equivalence ?
L1(
a)
b)
c)
L1(
1(
d) E1
L2(...(
L2(...(
2(E))
Ln(E)..)
Ln(E)..)
E2 =E 2
2(
L1(E)
Ln(E)
1(E))
E1
10) The selection operation distributes over the union, intersection and set
difference operation. Whether this statement is
a) True
b) False
11) Administrator can tune database system t three levels. Highest level is
a) Hardware
b) Buffer size and check pointing interval
c) Schema and transactions
d) None of these
12) The _______ benchmark was designed to test the core performance of
database system, along with operating system on which system runs.
b) TCP-B
a) TCP-A
c) TCP-C
d) TCP-D
13) SQL : 92 and SQL : 1999 are ________ standards.
b) De facto
a) Formal
c) Anticipatory
d) Reactionary
14) ODBC is based on the _______ standard.
b) SQL/CLI
a) SQL/Schemata
c) SQL/PSM
d) SQL/MED
15) Maps and their associated data is an example of _______ data.
b) Spatial
a) Temporal
c) Multimedia
d) None of these
SLR-UM 265
*SLR-UM265*
-4-
16) The features of OR model are

a) Multiset valued attributes
b) Structured type
c) Table inheritance
d) All
17) Workflow is an activity in which multiple tasks are executed in a

coordinated way by different
a) Processing clients
b) Processing entities
c) Processing serves
d) Processing coordinators
18) Cross-tab is also called
a) Pivot table
b) Rollup table
c) Drilldown table
d) Cube table
19) The process of selecting most efficient query evaluation plan from
many strategies is called
a) Query processing
b) Query transformation
c) Query translation
d) Query optimization
20) _________ are dominant products which are generally accepted as
standards without any formal process of recognition.
a) Formal
b) De facto
c) Anticipatory
d) Reactionary
______________________
*SLR-UM265*
SLR-UM 265
-5-
Seat
No.
B.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ADVANCED DATABASE SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) Figures to the right indicate marks to a question.
SECTION I
20
1) Explain full replication with its advantages and disadvantages.

2) How deadlock is handled in distributed database ?
3) Explain terms :
1) Interquery Parallelism
2) Intraquery Parallelism
4) Explain stepwise Range partitioning sort.

5) Explain table inheritance with example.
6) Define structured types for given E-R diagram.
Instructor
ID
Name
first_name
last_name
Address
Street
Street_number
Street_name
Apt_number
City
State
Zip
{phone_number}
Date_of_birth
Age ()
SLR-UM 265
**
-6-

1) Explain partitioning techniques and specify which types of access they support.
2) State different approaches to make object persistent.
4. Explain the working of 2 PC protocol. Why 3 PC protocol is needed ?
SECTION II
1) Draw and explain data warehouse architecture.
2) Explain following terms w.r.t. data mining.
1) Rules
2) Prediction
3) Associations
4) Clusters
3) Write down efficient relational algebra expression and evaluation plan for the
following query.
Select T.branch_name
from branch T
where T.assests > 60000 and branch_city = Brooklyn
4) Write a short note on Real-time transaction systems.
5) Discuss different levels where database administrator can tune a database
system.
6) Write a short note on database connectivity standards.
10
10
20
10
1) List Equivalence rules on relational-algebra expressions.

2)
B
u
a
Consider above relation r and find result of following query

1) Select Building, room_no, time_slot_id, count(*)
From r
Group by rollup (building, room_no, time_slot_id)
2) Select Building, room_no, time_slot_id, count(*)
From r
Group by building
7. Define Transaction Processing (TP) monitors. Draw different TP architectures.
Explain any one architecture.
10
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM 273
*SLEUM273*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
g
n
f
C
Instructions : 1) Solve all the five questions.

2) Marks are indicated to the write of questions.
3) Use un-programmable calculator.
1. Solve all 20 questions. Tick mark the correct answer :
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) Armature of d.c. machine is made up of

a) Wrought iron
b) Silicon steel
c) Cast steel
d) Soft iron
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 273
*SLEUM273*
-2-
DO
NO
R
W
T
H
E
IT
E
R
E
2) 4 pole d.c. machine has got magnetic circuits equal to

a) 2
b) 8
c) 4
d) 6
3) The greatest eddy-current loss occurs in this part of the machine

a) Field poles
b) Yoke
c) Commutating poles
d) Armature
4) Commutator pitch for simplex lap winding is equal to

a) Nos. of poles of the machine
b) Pole pairs
c) 1
d) None
5) In seperately excited d.c. generator

a) Ia = IL + Ish
b) Ia = IL Ish
c) Ia = IL
6) D.C. motor runs at 1725 RPM at full load and runs at 1775 at no load. The
speed regulation is
a) 4.7%
b) 2.9%
c) 7.6%
d) 1.5%
7) By field control methods in a d.c. shunt motor we can obtain the speeds
a) Above the rated speed
b) Below the rated speed
c) Above as well as below the rated speed
*SLEUM273*
SLR-UM 273
-3-
8) Speed control of d.c. motor can be controlled by changing

a) Its flux
b) Armature circuit resistance
c) Applied voltage
d) All of the above
9) The difference between no load speed and full load speed of d.c. shunt motor
is of the order of
a) 25%
b) 1%
c) 10%
d) 50%
10) 3 point starter is used to start
a) series motor
b) shunt motor
c) short shunt compound motor
d) all the motors
11) Transformer will work on
a) A.C. only
b) D.C. only
c) A.C. as well as on D.C.

12) Primary and secondary of a transformer are coupled
a) Electrically
b) Magnetically
c) Mechanically
d) Electrically as well as magnetically
13) Transformer transfers electrical energy from primary to secondary with a
change in
a) Frequency
b) Power
c) Voltage
14) The voltage per turn of primary is ________ the voltage per turn of secondary.
a) More than
b) Less than
c) None of the above
d) Same
SLR-UM 273
*SLEUM273*
-4-
15) Transformer does not change

a) Impedance
b) Power
c) Voltage
d) Current
16) Transformer has full load copper loss of 400 watts. The copper loss at load
is
a) 200 W
b) 100 W
c) 400 W
17) The transformer has full load iron loss of 200 W. The iron loss at load is
a) 100 W
b) 400 W
c) 300 W
d) 200 W
18) Transformer will have zero efficiency at

a) Full load
b) No load
c) Half full load
19) Approximate efficiency of a large transformer is

a) 65%
b) 50%
c) 95%
d) 80%
20) No load applied voltage to primary is 200V and no load loss recorded is
400W. Then magnetising branch resistance is
a) 200
b) 50
c) 300
d) 100
______________________
*SLEUM273*
SLR-UM 273
-5-
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL MACHINE I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Derive EMF equation of D.C. generator.

b) Explain armature reaction in D.C. machines.
c) Explain how self excited D.C. shunt generator builds up its voltage.
d) 4 pole lap connected d.c. machine has armature resistance of 0.15 . Find
the armature resistance of the machine if machine is wave connected.
e) 30 KW, 300 V d.c. shunt generator has armature and field resistances of 0.05
and 100 respectively. Calculate total power developed by armature when
it delivers full load output.
3. Solve any two :

a) Derive the torque equation of D.C. motor. Draw
i) Speed load characteristic
ii) Torque load characteristic of d.c. series motor and explain
(210=20)
b) Find
i) No load speed
ii) Full load speed
iii) Speed regulation for 4 pole, 220 V, 24 HP shunt motor having field current
of 5A, armature resistance of 0.04 , flux per pole = 40 m web, armature
conductors = 160, 2 circuit wave connection, full load current of 95 A, No
load current of 9A. Neglect armature reaction.
c) What are the various losses that occur in d.c. machines ? Explain ech of
them. Find the condition for maximum efficiency.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 273
*SLEUM273*
-6-
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Draw no load vector diagram of single phase transformer with proper

explaination. Explain now magnetising component of no load current and loss
component of no load current are evaluated from vector diagram.
b) Derive the equation for efficiency of a transformer at fraction of load, KVA
rating, and at given power factor.
c) Find the condition for maximum efficiency of the transformer.
d) 100 KVA, 2200/440V transformer has R1 = 0.3 , X1 = 1.1 , R2 = 0.01
calculate :
X2 = 0.035
i) Equivalent impedance of transformer referred to the primary
ii) Total copper loss.
e) Single phase transformer on no load takes 4.5A at power factor 0.25 lagging
when connected to 230 V 50 Hz supply. The nos. of turns on primary winding
is 250 calculate :
i) Magnetising current
ii) Core loss
iii) Maximum value of flux in the core.
5. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Starting from two winding transformer circuit explain in detail how the
equivalent circuit of tranformer referred to primary can be drawn.
b) 80 KVA, 2000/200 50 Hz single phase transformer has impedance drop of 8%
and resistance drop of 4%. Calculate the regulation of the transformer at full
load 0.8 p.f. lagging. Also find the power factor at which regulation will be
zero.
c) With neat circuit diagram and vector diagram exlplain how 3 phase voltages
can be converted into two phase voltages.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM 278
*SLRUM278*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
f
C

2) M.C.Q. must be answered in first 30 minutes only.
3) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
Marks : 20
1. Select the appropriate option :

1) For CE amplifier with field bias and without RE, Av is directly proportional to
a) C junction
b) C in and C out
c) hfe
d) hie
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 278
*SLRUM278*
-2-
DO
W
T
O
E
T
I
R
R
E
H
2) At pinch off voltage, for JFET drain current is

a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) Infinity
3) Self destruction of transistor due to overheating is called

a) Thermal runaway
b) Base width modulation
c) Biasing
d) None of these
4) The feedback factor
is
at frequency of oscillation of RC phase shift oscillator
a) 1/3
b) 3
c) 29
d) 1/29
5) The forward current gain for CE amplifier is given by

a) hie
b) hfe
c) hfb
d) hic
6) Transistor can be used as faithful amplifier in _______ region.

a) Active
b) Cutoff
c) Saturation
d) None
7) The inductance filter is mostly used for rectifiers

a) Heavy load
b) Light load
c) Medium load
d) None
*SLRUM278*
SLR-UM 278
-3-
8) Negative feedback amplifiers gain due to negative feedback

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Equal to unity
d) None
9) Voltage series feedback amplifier is called as

a) Voltage amplifier
b) Current amplifier
c) Tran resistance amplifier
d) Tran conductance amplifier
10) Doping concentration in transistor is
a) E < B < C
b) E < C < B
c) E > C > B
d) E = C > B
11) Higher power dissipation occurs at _______ region in power amplifiers.

a) Collector
b) Emitter
c) Base
d) Terminals
12) Gain of amplifier ________ due to positive feedback.

a) Remains same
b) Decreases
c) Increases
d) All of the above
13) Stability factor for _______ bias is 1 + .

a) Voltage divider
b) Fixed
c) Emitter bias
d) None
14) Cross over distortion is drawback of ______ amplifier.

a) RC coupled
b) Xr Coupled
c) Class A
d) Class B
15) Physical conduction channel does not exists in

a) D MOSFET
b) E MOSFET
c) JFET
d) None
16) Small signal amplifier is also called as ______ amplifiers.

a) Power
b) Feedback
c) Voltage
d) None
SLR-UM 278
*SLRUM278*
-4-
17) Gate current in ideal MOSFET is

a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Medium
d) Low
18) An oscillator basically is an amplifier with ______ phase shift between input
and output signal.
a) Zero
b) 90
c) 180
d) 270
19) Leakage in common base configuration _______ with increase in temperature.

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
d) None
20) Efficiency of class A power amplifier without transformer coupling is _____ %

a) 25
b) 78.5
c) 50.5
d) 100
______________________
*SLRUM278*
-5-
SLR-UM 278
Seat
No.
S.E. Electrical (New) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ELECTRONIC DEVICES AND CIRCUITS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) Answers to the two Sections should be written in one
answer book.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(44=16)
1) Explain D MOSFET with transfer characteristics.

2) Explain bias compensation techniques used in transistor amplifiers.
3) Derive relation between ICEO and ICBO of transistor.
4) Explain the effect of coupling capacitors on frequency response.
5) Draw AC and DC equivalent circuit of BJT amplifier with fixed bias with emitter
resistor.
3. Solve any three :
(83=24)
1) Design single stage RC coupled amplifier for the given data-BC 147 (transistor),
hfe = 150, hie = 2.5 k Ohm, Q point at (6V and 4mA), VBE = 0.6 V, S = 7. Av = 4,
Assume data if required.
2) Draw frequency response of BJT amplifier. Define bandwidth. Why it is drawn
on semi log paper ?
3) Explain depletion type MOSFET and enhancement type MOSFET with transfer
characteristics.
4) Derive Av, Ai, Zi, Zo by using H parameters for CE BJT fixed bias with RE
amplifier.
SLR-UM 278
-6-
*SLRUM278*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(44=16)
1) Explain capacitor and inductor filter with output waveforms for resistive load.
2) Explain the conditions for sustained oscillations in oscillator.
3) Compare voltage series with current series negative feedback amplifiers.
4) Define terms Harmonic Distortion and % conversion efficiency of power
amplifier.
5) Compare voltage amplifier with power amplifier.
5. Solve any three.
(83=24)
1) Explain effect of negative feedback on output impedance, input importance,

gain and bandwidth of voltage shunt feedback amplifier.
2) Derive the ripple factor of inductive filter with FWR.
3) Explain class AB power amplifier and compare with class B power amplifier.
4) A colpitts oscillator shown in fig below. What is approximate frequency ?
What will be the new frequency if the value of L is doubled ? What should be
value of inductance to double the frequency ?
_____________________
SLR-UM 315
Code No.
*SLRUM315*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
2
-
f
C
Instructions: 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory.

2) Attempt any 4 questions from remaining questions.
Marks : 20
1. Tick mark the correct alternative :

1) _________ is used in form of artificial teeth.
a) Alumina
b) Zirconia
c) Hydroxyapatite
d) Calcium phosphate
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 315
*SLRUM315*
-2-
DO
W
T
O
E
T
I
R
R
HE
2) _________ is the unwanted chemical reaction of metal with its environment

forming degradation to oxides.
a) Wear
b) Corrosion
c) Wood
d) Invitro
3) _________ are also known as Nylon.

a) Polychlorine
b) Polyacrylates
c) Polyamides
d) Polyesters
4) The best flurocarbon polymer is

a) Polypropylene
b) PMMA
c) Polyurethane
d) PTFE
5) Nitinol is designated as
a) Shape memory alloy
b) Thermoplastic
c) Thermosetting
d) Polymers
6) SEM is abbrivated as
a) Scanning Electric Microscope
b) Scanning Electron Microscopy
c) Scanning Electricity Microscopy
d) Scanning Elastic Micrometer
7) _________ resins can be reused and can be remoulded easily.
a) Thermosetting
b) Thermoplastic
c) Thermometer
d) Thermistor
*SLRUM315*
SLR-UM 315
-3-
8) _________ metals are those which donot contain iron as base.

a) Ferrous
b) Non ferrous
c) Furious
d) Nonfurious
9) _________ are evidely used for soft tissue applications.

a) Metallic biomaterials
b) Ceramics biomaterials
c) Polymeric biomaterials
d) Composites biomaterials
10) _________ means consisting of two or more distinct parts.

a) Ceramics
b) Compilers
c) Composites
d) Matrix
11) _________ material is used for middle ear replacements.

a) Glass
b) Bioglass
c) Grass
d) Silicon
12) _________ is a ceramic material.

a) PTFE
b) Stone
c) Hydrogel
d) Quartz
13) The most widely used silicon rubber polymer is

a) Polytrimethyl siloxane
b) Polymethyl siloxane
c) Polydimethyl siloxane
d) Polyvinyl siloxane
14) _________ protein is present in plants.

a) Collagen
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin
d) Elastin
15) Cast CoCrMo alloy is a type of

a) Ti
b) CoCr
c) Metal
d) Steel
16) An _________ is obtained by mixing silver-tin-copper alloy powder with liquid

mercury.
a) Amalgam
b) Sutures
c) Acrylic
d) Resin
SLR-UM 315
*SLRUM315*
-4-
17) Fibrinogen is the main structural component in _________ matrix.

a) Fibrin
b) Metal
c) None
d) Collagen
18) Invitro tests includes cell, tissue, organ and

a) Blood
b) Sutures
c) Enzymes
d) DNA
19) Degradable material is

a) Plastic
b) Stone
c) Hydroxyapatite
d) None
20) Dextrans are _________ consisting of glucose units.

a) Polysaccharides
b) Polymers
c) Polyesters
d) None
______________________
SLR-UM 315
*SLRUM315*
Seat
No.
S.E. (Biomedical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

BIOMATERIALS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Attempt any 4 questions.

2) Figures are must.
2. a) Mention properties of biomaterials used for soft tissue replacements and
explain any 2 groups in detail.
b) List the application of biomaterials and explain them briefly.
3. a) Classify the cobalt based alloy on the basis of their compositions and properties.
b) Explain in detail processing steps of leather.
10
10
10
10
4. a) Describe the various surface properties of Biomaterials used, with the help of
examples.
10
b) What is biological testing of Biomaterials ? Explain invitro and invivo methods
used to test biomaterials biologically.
10
5. Give the properties and applications of any 4 :
a) Biomaterials
b) PTFE
c) PMMA
d) Bioglass
e) Nitinol.
20
SLR-UM 323
Code No.
S
*SLRUM323*
&
N.B.: MCQs objective question compulsory.

MCQs/Objective Type Questions
Marks : 20
I. Tick the correct answer :

1) A device that converts one form of energy into another form is called
a) Transducer
b) Resister
c) Inductor
d) Sensor
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 323
*SLRUM323*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) A piezo electrical crystal works as a

a) Sensor
b) Inductor
c) Both a) and b)
d) Transducer
3) A transducer that do not Require energy for the conversion of quantities is called
a) Passive
b) High pass filter
c) Active
d) Filter
4) Which of the following is not a static characteristic of a Transducer

a) Resolution
b) Temperature
c) Linearity
d) Accuracy
5) The term that describe the Algebric difference between the Algebric value
and True value of measured is called
a) Resolution
b) Linearity
c) Accuracy
d) None
6) SO2(%) = ____________
a)
b)
"

T

O
d) None
c)
*SLRUM323*
SLR-UM 323
-3-
7) ODC terms as
a) Oxyheamoglobin Dissociation curve
b) Osmosis degradation curve
c) Osteoblast Deficiency curve
d) None
8) For a young adult the normal Range of PO2 in Arterial Blood is _______
a) 10 - 20 mm Hg
b) 30 - 40 mm Hg
c) 50 - 60 mm Hg
d) 90 - 100 mm Hg
9) P.H. means =
a) Log [H+]
b) -
c) -log10[H+]
d) None
[H+]
10) Normally _________ is combined with Heamoglobin with water %

a) 50%
b) 75%
c) 96%
d) 98%
11) The relation u2sin 2 = m1 sin 1 is known as

a) Marks law
b) Snells law
c) Lawrens law
d) Maxwells law
12) A Transducer that converts mechanical energy into electrical quantity is called
a) Piezo electric Transducer
b) Thermal transducer
c) Radiation Transducer
d) None
13) The skin consist of ___________ layers.

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 4
14) The Electrode in which current passes freely Across the Electrode Electrolyte
interface is called
a) Polarizable electrode
b) Standard electrode
c) Standard polarizable electrode
d) Non polarizable electrode
SLR-UM 323
*SLRUM323*
-4-
15) The Nernst equation for two aqueous solution of different concentration is
given by
a)

d)

E

L

R
c)
b)
16) The half cell potential of Ag electrode is

a) 1.680
b) 1.680
c) 0.799
d) 0.799
17) The sensor that absorb Radiation and transform it into heat
a) Radiation sensor
b) Thermal sensor
c) Quantum sensor
d) None
18) The Absorption Band for water is

a) 970 nm
b) 970 mm
c) 485 nm
d) 395 nm
19) Interference filters are formed by depositing a _______ stack of layers on

both sides of thicker
a) Refractive
b) Diffractive
c) Reflective
d) None
20) Diffraction gratings are widely employed to produce a wave length spectrum
in the
a) Thermometer
b) Spirometer
c) Spectrometer
d) Both a) and b)
______________________
*SLRUM323*
-5-
SLR-UM 323
S.E. (Part II) ( Biomedical) Examination, 2014

TRANSDUCER IN BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 80
II. Answer any four questions :
(54=20)
1) Define the following terms :

a) Accuracy
b) Precession
c) Resolution
d) Sensitivity
e) Drift.
2) With the help of figure explain Bourdon Tube.
3) Explain what do you mean by IC based temperature measurement.
4) What do you mean by Electrode skin interface ? Discuss.
5) Explain about polarizable and Non polarizable electrode.
III. Answer any two question :
(102=20)
1) Draw the Block diagram for design process of medical instruments in detail.
2) Explain about the First Order and Second Order Instrument characteristic.
3) Draw a figure of magnified section of skin showing its various layers and
explain Electrode skin interface.
IV. Solve any four question :
(54=20)
1) Explain the design of an Intravascular Blood gas monitoring system.
2) With the help of diagram explain measurement potentiometeric sensors.
3) Give the Snells law and explain total internal reflection within a fibre.
4) With a neat diagram explain photomultiplier.
5) Give the V-1 characteristic of Irradiated silicon P-N-Junction.
V. Answer any two question :
(102=20)
1) With a neat block diagram explain ISFET.
2) Explain the measurement of PCo2 and give the associated Chemical Reaction.
3) Explain Transcutaneous Co2 Tension (tcpCo2) monitoring with diagram.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 352
*SLRUM352*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E.(Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014

TRANSFORMERS AND D.C. MACHINES (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Day & Date _____________________ Language of Answer ______________________________

Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________ Section ________________________________________

Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination _________

______________ (Paper - _______)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 is compulsory.
2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
3) Non-programmable calculators are permitted.
Marks : 20
1. Objective Questions :
(120=20)
1) In D.C. generator the generated e.m.f. is directly proportional to the
a) Pole flux
b) Field current
c) Number of armature parallel paths
d) Number of dummy coils
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 352
-2-
DO
*SLRUM352*
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
T
NO
2) The shaft torque of D.C. motor is less than armature torque because of
_____________ losses.
a) Copper
b) Mechanical
c) Iron
d) Rotational
3) The armature copper losses of D.C. machine is given by

a) Ia2Ra
b) IaRa
c) IaRa2
d) Ia2Ra2
4) When a D.C. generator carries no armature current

a) MNA coincides with GNA
b) MNA is behindof GNA
c) MNA is ahead of GNA
d) None of these
5) A 4-pole D.C. machines has _____________ magnetic circuits.
a) 2
b) 8
c) 4
6) In D.C. generator armature reaction is produced due to

a) The field current
b) The armature current
c) Both a and b
*SLRUM352*
-3-
SLR-UM 352
7) A D.C. motor is still used in industrial application because it

a) Is cheap
b) Is simple in construction
c) Provides fine speed control
8) D.C. series motors are used in those applications where ____________ is
required.
a) High starting torque
b) Constant speed
c) Low no load speed
9) Which of the following motor should not be operated without load ?
a) Series
b) Shunt
c) Short shunt
d) Long shunt
10) A D.C. motor runs at 1725 r.p.m. at full load and 1775 r.p.m. at no load. The
speed regulation is
a) 4.7%
b) 2.9 %
c) 7.6%
d) 1.5%
11) Which of the following connection is best suited for three phase, 4-wire system ?
a)
b) Y Y
c) Y
d) both a and c
12) The O.C. test gives ___________ losses of transformer.

a) Iron losses
b) Copper losses
c) Both a and b
13) Primary and secondary of transformer are ___________ coupled.

a) Electrically
b) Magnetically
c) Both a and b
SLR-UM 352
*SLRUM352*
-4-
14) Transformer works on

a) D.C. only
b) A.C. only
c) Both A.C. and D.C.
15) The voltage transformation ratio is
a) V2/V1
b) V1/V2
c) V1 = V2
16) A transformer transfers electrical energy from primary to secondary usually

with a change in
a) Frequency
b) Power
c) Voltage
d) Time period
17) For ideal transformer

a) V1 = E1, V2 = E2
b) V1 = E2, V2 = E1
c) V1 > E1, V2 < E2
18) Oil in transformer is used for

a) Lubrication
b) Cooling
c) Providing additional insulation
d) None of above
19) The core type transformer has ___________ flux path.
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
20) The maximum efficiency of a 100 KVA transformer having iron loss of 900 W
and F.L. copper loss of 1600 W occurs at ___________ KVA.
a) 56.3
b) 83.3
c) 75
d) none of above
_____________________
*SLRUM352*
-5-
SLR-UM 352
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014

TRANSFORMERS AND D.C. MACHINES (Old)
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Write a short note on the following (any four) :
(54=20)
a) Speed control of d.c. shunt motor.

b) Commutation process in d.c. machines.
c) Power flow diagram of d.c. machines.
d) Losses and efficiency of d.c.. machines.
e) Brake test on d.c. shunt motor.
f) Types of d.c.. motor.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) A 250 V, 14.9 KW, 8 pole d.c. motor has single turn coils. The armature is
wave wound with 94 commutator segments. If the brushes are given a lead
of 2 commutator segment at full load. Calculate :
i) Cross-magnetizing ampere turns/pole.
ii) Demagnetizing ampere turns/pole.
iii) Total armature reaction ampere turns per pole.
Assume an efficiency of 80%.
b) i) Explain the role of compensating winding in d.c. machine and in the circuit
how their windings are connected.
ii) Explain the concept of dummy coils.
c) A 20 h.p., 220 V shunt motor takes a full load current of 82 A, speed 1000 r.p.m.,
armature resistance is 0.1 , shunt field resistance is 110 . It is to be
braked by plugging. What resistance must be placed in seriesto limit the current
to 120 A ? Find also the initial value of the braking torque.
SLR-UM 352
-6-
*SLRUM352*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Derive the expression for efficiency of transformer and find the condition for
maximum efficiency.
b) Explain and draw the Y0 and Y11 connections of three phase
transformer.
c) Explain the approximate equivalent circuit of loaded transformer.
d) What is universal motor ? Which are the application areas of universal
motor ?
e) A single phase transformer with a ratio of 6600/600 V has a load impedance
of (4 + j3) . Connected across the terminals of low voltage winding. Calculate
the KW delivered to the load. Neglecting losses in the transformer. Find the
current taken by it from the supply lines.
5. Solve the following :
(102=20)
a) Two single phase transforms with equal turns ratios have impedances of
(0.5 + j3) and (0.6 + j10) referred to secondary. If they operate in
parallel, determined their load sharing for a total load of 1000 KW at the
0.8 P.F lagging.
OR
a) A transformer has a reactive drop of 6% and a resistive drop at 2.5% .
Determined the Lagging P.F. for which regulation is maximum and the value
of this regulation.
b) How to calculate the efficiency, equivalent circuit parameters and voltage
regulation of transformer by applying O.C. and S.C. test on it ?
SLR-UM 40
Code No.
S
*SLRUM40*
&
f
C
Marks : 20
1. Objective type : Select the correct option from the 4 options given for each subquestion and tick mark () the same.
1) The most common cause of acidity in water is
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Hydrogen
d) Nitrogen
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 40
*SLRUM40*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The effective size of sand particles used in slow sand filters is

a) 0.25 to 0.35 mm
b) 0.35 to .0.60 mm
c) 0.60 to 1.00 mm
d) 1.00 to 1.80 mm
3) Which of the following methods of analysis of water distribution system is

most suitable for long and narrow pipe system ?
a) Circle method
b) Equivalent pipe method
c) Hardy cross method
d) Electrical analysis method
4) The process in which the chlorination is done beyond the break point is.
a) Pre chlorination
b) Post chlorination
c) Super chlorination
d) Break point chlorination
5) __________ is widely used as disinfectant for water.

a) Calcium and magnesium
b) Chlorine and ozone
c) Hypochlorite and alum
d) Alum
6) In India an average domestic consumption of water under normal condition is

about _________
a) 165 lit/capita/day
b) 235 lit/capita/day
c) 135 lit/capita/day
d) 185 lit/capita/day
*SLRUM40*
SLR-UM 40
-3-
7) The type of valve which is provided to control the flow of water in the distribution
system at street corners and where the pipe lines intersect is
a) Check valve
b) Sluice valve
c) Safely valve
d) Scour valve
8) The economical diameter of pipe, through which a discharge of 0.3 cumecs is

to be passed is
a) 1.2 m
b) 0.8 m
c) 0.6 m
d) 0.4 m
9) Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

a) Slow sand filter
100 to 200 1/m2/hr.
b) Rapid sand filter
3000 to 6000 1/m2/hr.
c) Double media filter
25000 to 30000 1/m2/hr.
d) Pressure filter
6000 to 15000 1/m2/hr.
10) Activated carbon can be used in water treatment for removing ________
a) Colour
b) Taste and odours
c) Turbidily
d) Oil and grease
11) __________ pipes are free from corrosion.

a) Steel
b) C.I.
c) Wrought iron
d) PVC
12) ________ causes scaling in boilers.

a) Hardness
b) Colours
c) Odours
d) Taste
SLR-UM 40
*SLRUM40*
-4-
13) A city supply of 1500 cubic meters of water per day is treated with a chlorine
dosage of 0.5 ppm. For this purpose requirement of 25% bleaching powder
per day would be
(24=8)
a) 300 kg
b) 75 kg
c) 30 Kg
d) 7.5 Kg
14) If average daily consumption of city is 1,00,000 m3 then maximum daily

consumption on peak hourly demand will be
a) 1,00,000 m3
b) 1,50,000 m3
c) 1,80,000 m3
d) 2,70,000 m3
15) The population of a town in three consecutive years are 5,000, 7,000 and
8,400 respectively. The population of town in fourth consecutive year according
to geometrical increase method is
a) 9,500
b) 9,800
c) 10,100
d) 10,920
16) Two samples of water A and B have pH values of 4.4 and 6.4 respectively. How
many times more acidic sample A is than sample B ?
a) 0
b) 50
c) 100
d) 200
______________________
*SLRUM40*
S
-5-
SLR-UM 40
T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING I
Day and Date : Thursday, 22-5-2014
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : i) Answer any three questions from Section - I and any

three question from Section - II.
ii) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
iii) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and state it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Write a note on back washing of filter.
b) Give the rates of water consumption for various purpose, also enlist the
various factors affecting water demand.
3. a) Differentiate slow sand and rapid sand filter with respect to following points.
i) Rate of filteration
ii) Coagulation
iii) Efficiency
iv) economy
v) Depreciation cost.
b) Enlist different types of coagulants. Also compare Alum and Iron salts as
coagulants.
4. a) Explain in detail Break Point Chlorination.
b) A city has water demand of 12 mld. Design a rapid sand filter and also find
depth of sand bed required of filter. Assume suitable data. (under drainage
system design is not expected)
5
5
5. Write short notes on :

a) Factors affecting rate of water demand.
b) Water softening.
c) Equivalent pipe method.
SLR-UM 40
-6-
*SLRUM40*
SECTION II
Instructions : 1) Question No. 6 compulsory.
2) Answer any two question from Q. 7, 8 and 9.
6. a) Explain the various methods of control of corrosion in water supply lines.
b) Explain the Hardy cross method of analysis of pipe network of a distribution
system.
7. a) Give drawbacks of intermittent system of water supply.
b) Explain the various components of rural water supply scheme.
8. a) Explain the various types of service reservoirs.
b) A large service reservoirs supplies water to a colony having population of
75,000. The avg. daily water consumption is 180 lit/capita/day. Max. daily
demand is 1.7 times the avg. demand. Find hydraulic gradient at which pipe
line should be laid. Use Hajen Williams C = 100.
4
8
7
7
6
9. Short notes :
a) Air relief valve.
b) Maintenance of distribution system.
c) Detecting wastage of water. (any one method)
_____________________
SLR-UM 69
*SLRUM69*
Seat
No.
S.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ANALYSIS OF MECHANICAL ELEMENTS (Old)
Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Objective Question Paper
Instructions to candidates :
1) Answer should be bubbled with black/blue pen.
2) Complete all the entries on objective answer sheet with black/blue pen.
3) All questions are compulsory and every question has only one correct answer.
4) Darken the bubble corresponding to correct answer.
5) Answer cannot be changed once it is marked.
6) Every question has one mark each.
Marks : 20
1. Strain in a direction at right angles to the direction of applied force is known as

a) Lateral strain
b) Shear strain
c) Volumetric strain
d) None of above
2. The point of contraflexure occurs only in

a) continuous beams
b) cantilever beams
c) overhang beams
d) simply supported beams
3. Shear stress distribution diagram of a beam of rectangular section, subject to

transverse loading will be
a)
b)
c)
d)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 69
*SLRUM69*
-2-
4. The thermal stress is given by

a) E
b)
-
c)
-
d)
5. The strength of beam mainly depends upon

a) Bending moment
b) C. G. of Section
c) Section modulus
d) Its weight
6. In a cantilever with uniform distributed load, the shearing force varies following a
a) Linear law
b) Parabolic law
c) Either of above
d) None of above
7. If a member is subjected to an axial load, the plane normal to the axis of loading
carries
a) minimum normal stress
b) maximum normal stress
c) maximum shear stress
d) none of above
8. In I-Section of a beam subjected to transverse shear force s the maximum

shear stress is developed
a) at the centre of web
b) at the top edge of top flange
c) at the bottom edge of top flange
d) none of above
"
9. The expression EI
@
"
at a section of a member represents
a) shearing force
b) rate of loading
c) bending moment
d) slope
10. A simply supported beam is of rectangular section. It carries U.D.L. over the
whole span. The deflection at the centre is Y. If the depth of a beam is doubled,
the deflection at the centre would be
a) 2Y
b) 4Y
c)
d)
;
&
*SLRUM69*
SLR-UM 69
-3-
11. The ratio of moment of inertia about N.A. to the distance of the most distant point
of the section from N. A. is called
a) moment of inertia
b) section modulus
c) polar moment of inertia
d) modulus of rigidity
12. The hoop of circumferential stress in a thin spherical shell, when subjected to an
internal pressure (P) is equal to
a)
2
b)
,
"
c)
F
d)
,
&
13. The equivalent length of a given column with given end conditions is the length of
column of same material and section with hinged ends having crippling load
equal to
a) two times that of a given column
b) half that of a given column
c) four times that of a given column
d) that of a given column
14. Rankines formula is an empherical formula which is used for
a) long columns
b) short column
c) both short and long columns
d) none of above
15. The circumferential strain in case of thin cylindrical shell when subjected to
internal pressure (p) is
a) more than diametral strain
b) less than diametral strain
c) equal to diametral strain
d) none of above
16. In case of solid shaft the strain energy in torsion per unit volume is equal to
a)
b)
c)
"
d)
&
SLR-UM 69
*SLRUM69*
-4-
17. The circumferential stress in a solid circular rotating disc is maximum at

a) the mean radius
b) at the outer radius
c) at the centre
d) at the square root of radius
18. Planes of maximum shear are inclined at

a) 45 to principal planes
b) 90 to principal plane
c) 45 to each other
d) 60 to principal plane
19. The strain energy stored in a body of volume V is subjected to uniform stress is
a)
b)
-
c)
d)
V
20. A simply supported beam of span ( ) carries a point load (W) at the centre. The
downward deflection at the centre will be
l
a)
9
b)
l
&
c)
!
&
d)
"
"
&
______________
*SLRUM69*
-5-
SLR-UM 69
Seat
No.

ANALYSIS OF MECHANICAL ELEMENTS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80
Solve any two questions from each Section.

Use of calculator is allowed.
Figures to the right indicates full marks.
Assume additional data, if necessary and state it clearly.
SECTION I
1.
2.
a) Derive an expression for total elongation of a bar due its own weight, when
bar is fixed at its upper end and hanging freely at lower end.
b) A bar of 20 mm diameter is tested in tension. It is observed that when a load

of 37.7 kN is applied, the extension measured over the gauge length of 200 mm
is 0.12 mm and contraction in diameter is 0.0036 mm. Find Poissons ratio
and Elastic constants E, K, G.
c) A circular pipe of external diameter 70 mm and thickness 8 mm is used as

simply supported beam over an effective span 2.5 m. Find the maximum
concentrated load that can be applied at the centre of span if permissible
stress in the tube is 150 N/mm2.
a) During tests on a sample of steel bar 25 mm in diameter, it is found that a pull of

50 kN produces extension of 0.095 mm on a length of 200 mm and a torque
200 N-m produces an angular twist of 0.9 degrees on a length of 250 mm.
Find the Poissons ratio of the steel.
b) Draw shear force and bending moment diagram for the beam as shown in
figure. Mark all significant points.
10
SLR-UM 69
*SLRUM69*
-6-
c) Define the following (one mark each) :

i) Torsional Rigidity
ii) Angle of obliquity
iii) Point of contraflexure
iv) Hooks law.
3.
a) Figure shows the cross-section of beam which is subjected to shear force of

20 kN. Draw shear stress distribution diagram across the depth marking
values at salient points.
Fig. (1.a) (Q. No. 3.a))

b) The state of stress in a two dimensionally stressed body as shown in the
Figure. Determine the principal planes, principal stresses, maximum shear
stress and their planes.
12
60 N/mm2
80 N/mm2
120 N/mm2
120 N/mm2
60 N/mm2
60 N/mm2
80 N/mm2
*SLRUM69*
SLR-UM 69
-7-
SECTION II
4. A) Using moment area method, for a beam of length L, simply supported at
ends and carrying UDL of w per unit length, find
a) the maximum deflection

b) slope at ends
c) slope at a distance x from one end
d) deflection at a distance x from one end.
5.
B) Derive an equation for deducing the strain energy due to simple shear stress.
C) A hollow tube 4 m long with external and internal diameters of 40 mm and 25 mm

respectively was found to extend 4.8 mm under a tensile load of 60 kN. Find
the buckling load for the tube with both ends pinned. Also find the safe load
on the tube, taking factors of safety as 5.
A) An I. C. engine connecting rod, 30 cm long is subjected to an axial load of 20 kN.

Using a f.o.s of 7, find the suitable value of t for the cross-section as shown
in fig. (Q. No. 5.A)). The I-Section behaves as a column fixed at ends for the
buckling in plane X-X and as a hinged column for buckling in plane Y-Y. Use
Rankine formula with buckling stress ( ) in compression as 325 MN/m2 and
constant a for hinged ends as

%
.

SLR-UM 69
6.
*SLRUM69*
-8-
B) Derive an expression to determine the change in volume of a thin cylindrical

shell subjected to an internal pressure p.
C) A simply supported beam AB of span 5 m is carrying a point load of 30 kN at

a distance of 3.75 m from left end A. Calculate slopes at A and deflection
under the load. Take EI = 26 1012 N-m.
A) A thick hollow cylinder of 150 mm outer radius and 100 mm inner radius is
subjected to an external pressure of 30 MN/m2 and internal pressure of 60 MN/m2.
Calculate the maximum shear stress in the material at the inner radius.
B) An unknown weight falls through 20 mm on a collar rigidly attached to the

lower end of the vertical bar 2 m long and 800 mm2 in cross-section. If the
maximum instantaneous extension is known to be 2 mm, what is the
corresponding stress and the value of unknown weight. Take E = 200 GPa.
C) Show that for a rotating ring or rim, the hoop stress is given by
where v is the mean peripheral speed of rim and is the mass density.
_____________________
*SLRUM69*
SLR-UM 69
Supervisors sign
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Day and Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
OBJECTIVE ANSWER SHEET
"
&
'
"
&
'
Sign and Name of

the Examiner :
>
MARKS
SLR-UM 74
Code No.
*SLRUM74*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
_
_
O
e
N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is multiple choice question and it is compulsory.

Each question carries one mark.
2) Solve any three questions from each Section.
4) Use of non-programmable calculators is allowed.
Marks : 20
1. (Tick ( ) the correct alternative :

1)
x3 is equal to

a) ex x2
b) ex x3

c)
d)

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 74
*SLRUM74*
-2-
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
DO
2) The complete solution of (D4 + 6D2 + 9)y = 0 is

a) y = (C1 + C2x) ex + (C3 + C4x)ex
b) y = (C1 + C2x) cos
c) y = (C1 + C2) cos
+ (C3 + C4x)sin
+ (C3 + C4)sin
N
d) None of these
3) The particular integral of (D2 + 16)y = cos 3x is
cos 3x
a)
N
b)
sin 3x
N
c)
cos 3x
N
d)
cos 3x
N
4) The general solution of
a) C1 cosx + C2 sinx
c) CC1 + C2 x ex
is y =
b) C1 cos (logx) + C2 sin(logx)

d) None of these
5) The particular integral of
is

a)
b)

c)
d) C1 + C2 x2
6) The solution of p + q = 1 is
a) z = ax + by + C
b) z = ax + (1 a) y + C
c) z = ax + b(1 y) + C
d) z = a(1 x) + b(1 y) + C
*SLRUM74*
SLR-UM 74
-3-
7) The solution of x2p + y2q = z2 is

a)
b)
0
8) If

b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
a) div
is called irrotational if
=0
c) curl
b) grad
=0
d)
= x3 + y3 + z3, then grad
10) If
a)
c) 3(

=0

.
b) 3(
=0
at (1, 1, 1) is

a) 0
9) A vector function
d) None of these
0
, then div
c)
d)

11) If is the mean of the sample size n drawn from the population with mean
and standard deviation then has the following distribution
N
a) Binomial
b) Poission
c) Normal
d) None
12) The standard error is the ___________ of the sampling distribution of statistic.
a) mean
b) variance
c) standard deviation
d) none
13) The t-statistic is defined as

a)
x
b)
c)
d) none
n
14) The variance of binomial distribution is

a) np
b) nq
c) npq
d) pq
SLR-UM 74
*SLRUM74*
-4-
15) If the prob. of defective bulb is 0.2, then the mean of distribution of defective
bulbs in a lot of 1000 bulbs is
a) 200
b) 160
c) 100
d) none
16) The area under S.N.C. from z =

to z =
is
a) 0
b) 1
c)
d)

17) For a binomial distribution

a) mean = variance
b) mean
c) mean < variance
d) none of these
variance
18) The value of K for which f(x, y) = x2 + 3xy + Ky2 is harmonic

a) 1
b) 1
c) 2
d) 0
19) The analytic function whose imaginary part is (3x2 1)y is

a) z3 + C
b) z3 z + C
c) z2 + C
d) z3 + z + C
z
20) If C is the circle | z | = 1, the value of
a)
i
c) 2 i
b) 0
d) none
______________________
SLR-UM 74
-5-
*SLRUM74*
Seat
No.
S.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
N.B. : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section.

3) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Solve (D2 2D + 1)y = (1 + et)2.
b) Solve (D3 + 8)y = x4 + 2x + 1.
c) Solve
OR
c) Solve
3. a) Solve
b) The differential equation of a simple pendulum is (D2 +

If initially x = 0, Dx = 0, determine the motion.
c) Solve (D + 2)2 y = e2xlogx.
)x = F0 sinw0 t.
6
4
SLR-UM 74
*SLRUM74*
-6-
4. a) Solve p2 q2 = x y.
b) Solve (x2 y2 z2) p + 2xyq = 2xz.
c) Show that the vector field defined by

irrotational. Find scalar potential
5. a) Solve the equation
"
given that u(0, y) =

b) Prove that

1
is
= grad .
by the method of separation of variable,
.
O
5
.
such that
r
H
c) A particle moves along the curve x = et cost, y = et sint, z = et. Find the
velocity and acceleration vectors and magnitude of velocity and acceleration at
time t.
SECTION II
6. a) Two researchers adopted different sampling techniques while investigating the
same group of students to find the number of students falling in different
intelligence levels. The results are as follows :
"
'
"
'
&
"
(Given 5% values of x2 for 3 d. f. and 4 d. f. are 7.82 and 9.49 respectively).
*SLRUM74*
SLR-UM 74
-7-
b) A sample of size 10 drawn from a normal population has a mean 31 and a

variance 2.25. Is it reasonable to assume that the mean of the population is 30 ?
(Use 1% level of significance given that P(| t | > 3.25) = 0.01 for 9 d. f.).
c) The average number of Articles produced by two machines per day are 200 and
250 with standard deviations 20 and 25 respectively. On the basis of records of
25 days production. Can you regard both the machines equally efficient at 1%
level of significance ?
7. a) The breaking strengths of ropes produced by a manufacturer have mean 1800 N
and standard deviation 100 N. By a new technique in the manufacturing process,
it is claimed that the breaking strength can be increased. To test this claim a
sample of 50 ropes is tested and it is found that the mean breaking strength is
1850 N. Can we support the claim at
i) 0.05 and
ii) 0.01, level of significance ?
b) A sample of heights of 6400 Englishmen has a mean of 67.85 inches and a

standard deviation of 2.56 inches while samples of heights of 1600. Austrians
has a mean of 68.55 inches and a standard deviation of 2.52 inches. Do the
data indicate that Austrians are on the average taller than Englishmen ?
c) In a certain district A, 450 persons were considered regular consumers of tea

out of a sample of 1000 persons. In another district B, 400 were regular consumers
of tea out of a sample of 800 persons.
Do these facts reveal a significant difference between the two districts as far as
tea drinking habit is concerned ? (Use 5% level of significance and use test for
difference of proportion).
8. a) A firm has two cars which it hires out day by day. The number of demands for a
car on each day is distributed as a Poisson variate with mean 1.5. Calculate
the probable number of days in a year on which
i) neither car is in demand
ii) a demand is refused.
b) Seven coins are tossed and the number of heads obtained is noted. The experiment
is repeated 128 times and the following distribution is obtained.
No. of Heads :
Frequency :
19
35
30
23
Fit a binomial distribution if coins are unbiased.

c) Find K such that
1
is analytic.
5
4
SLR-UM 74
-8-
9. a) Prove that if u = x2 y2
then both u and v satisfy Laplace equation

O
*SLRUM74*
but that u + i v is not an analytic function of z.

3
b) Evaluate :
Where C is a circle | z | = 2.
c) A random variable x takes the values 3, 2, 1, 0, 1, 2, 3. Such that
P(x < 0) = P( x=0) = P(x > 0) and P(x = 3) = P(x = 2) = P(x = 1), also
P( x = 1) = P(x = 2) = P(x = 3), obtain prob. distribution of x.
_____________________
*SLRUM89*
S
SLR-UM 89
T.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

METALLURGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Instructions to Candidates
I. General Instructions :
1) Complete all entries on objective answer sheet with black/blue ball pen.
2) Answers should be bubbled with black/blue ball pen.
3) Full marks will be given to correctly bubbled answers.
4) No negative marking.
5) Do not fold answer sheet.
II. Instructions regarding type of questions :
A) Type 1 : (Match Correct Pair type Question) : All questions are compulsory.
Column I is labelled as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 whereas column II is labeled as A, B, C, D, E.
This is straight forward matching of Column I with Column II. Here is only one
matching. (No multiple answers).If e.g. 3 matches with E,
Then
A
B
C
D
E
!
B) Type 2 : (Choose Proper Answer type question) : All questions are

compulsory. Select a proper answer given from three alternatives available
and bubble the proper circle. (No multiple answers)
If e.g. C is the answer of 1,
Then
A
B
C

C) Type 3 : (Select Proper Answer True/False type question) : All questions

are compulsory. Select a proper answer given from two alternatives which is
True/False. Bubble the proper circle.
If e.g. B is the answer of 2, Then
A
B
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 89
-2-
Time : 30 Minutes
Marks : 20
Type 1 : Match correct pairs (1 mark each) :

1. B.C.C. structure
A) Lead
2. B.C.T. structure
B) Gamma Iron
3. F.C.C. structure
C) Cementite
4. Orthorhombic str.
D)
5. H.C.P.
E) Martensite
-Iron
Type 2 : Choose proper answer (2 marks each) :

1. S.G. Iron is basically
A) High carbon high silicon iron
B) High carbon low silicon iron
C) Low carbon low silicon iron
2. Cold worked components are subjected to
A) Spherodising annealing
B) Isothermal annealing
C) Recrystallisation annealing
3.
L
ratio is important in
A) Vickers test
B) Dynamic hardeness test
C) Brinnel hardness test
4. S-N curve is related to
A) Tensile test
B) Creep test
C) Fatigue test
*SLRUM89*
*SLRUM89*
SLR-UM 89
-3-
5. Stainless steel powder of high purity is produced by

A) Carbonyl method
B) Displacement from solution method
C) Atomisation
Type 3 : Select proper answer (True/False Type) (1 mark each) :
1. Greater the ideal critical dia, higher will be the hardenability of steel.
A) True
B) False
2. Al 4% Cu alloy is wraught aluminium alloy
A) True
B) False
3. Austenitic St. Steels are magnetic in nature.
A) True
B) False
4. Hot shortness in steel is introduced due to high phosphorous content.
A) True
B) False
5. During manufacturing of cemented carbide cutting tools by
, liquid phase
P
sintering is used.
A) True
B) False
_____________
*SLRUM89*
S
-5-
SLR-UM 89

METALLURGY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from Section I and any three
questions from Section II.
2) Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it
clearly.
SECTION I
1. a) Draw Fe-Fe3C diagram. Label all the constituents and temperatures correctly.
b) Explain the significance of A1 Tempr and A3 Tempr.
c) With the help of above diagram. Explain cooling of 0.6% carbon steel and
draw the microstructure of this steel.
2. a) Compare between of the following :
i) Steels v/s Cast Irons

ii) Brasses v/s Bronzes
iii) Eutectic transformation v/s Eutectoid transformation.
b) Explain modification treatment and its effect on properties of Al alloys.
3. a) Explain the typical composition, properties and applications of Austenitic

stainless steels.
b) Cu is an essential constituent of babbitts why ?
c) Explain classification of metallic materials.
SLR-UM 89
*SLRUM89*
-6-
4. a) Give typical composition, properties and applications of any three of the

following :
i) HCHC steel
iii) Admiralty brass
ii) HSLA steel

iv) Duralumin.
b) Explain the effect of chromium and nickel on properties of steel.
SECTION II
5. a) Draw T-T-T curve for eutectoid steel.
b) Super impose cooling curves for following treatments on the above T-T-T dia.
i) Annealing
iv) Martempering
ii) Normalising
iii) Hardening
v) Austempering
vi) Patenting.
c) Compare between transformation of austenite to pearlite and austenite to

bainite.
6. a) Explain why for any three of the following :
6
3
9
i) Gas carbonitriding is preferred over gas carburising

ii) Full annealing is carried out after spheroidising annealing
iii) Gauges are subjected to subzero treatment
iv) Impact test is not recommended for Gray C.I. as well as Al and its alloy.
b) Sketch and explain mechanism of fatigue fracture.
7. a) Draw stress-strain curve for M.S. and explain the various properties with the
help of diagram.
b) Explain set up for ultrasonic test pointing out its advantages, limitations and
applications.
c) Enlist various methods of powder manufacturing in powder metallurgy.
8. a) Draw flow chart for manufacturing of cemented carbide cutting tools.
b) Compare between dye penetrant test and magnetic particle test.
c) Explain structural changes occurring during tempering of steel.
__________________
*SLRUM89*
e
SLR-UM 89
Supervisors sign
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
PART A
Marks
Marks
B
Proper
Answer True
or False
5 Marks
M
(1 Mark Each)
E
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
Total Marks :
SLR-R 8
*SLRR8*
Seat
No.
P.G.D.C.A. (Semester I) (New) Examination, 2014

WEB PROGRAMMING WITH PHP (Paper IV)
Time : 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
N.B. :
1)
2)
3)
4)
Max. Marks : 80
Q. 1 and Q. 7 are compulsory.

Solve any two questions from Q. 2 and Q. 3 and Q. 4.
Solve any one question from Q. 5 and Q. 6.
Figure to the right indicate full marks.
1. A) Choose the correct alternative :
1) PHP scripts are surrounded by delimiters, which ?

a) <? php>..<1?>
b) <? php.. ?>
c) <&> .. <1&>
d) <script>.. <1script>
2) How do you write Hello World in PHP ?

a) Helloworld
b) echo Hello World
c) document.write Hello World
d) All of the above
3) All variables in PHP start with _____________ symbol.
a) $
b) !
c) &
d) #
4) The PHP syntax is most similar to

a) Perl and C
b) Java script
c) Vbscript
d) All of above
5) How do you get information from a form that is submitted using the get
method ?
a) Request.form
b) Request.Query string
c) $_GET[ ] ;
d) Request.get
P.T.O.
SLR-R 8
*SLRR8*
-2-
6) When using the post method, variables are displayed in the URL.
a) True
b) False
7) In PHP you can use both single quotes and double quotes for string.
a) True
b) False
8) What is the correct way to create a function in PHP ?

a) Create Function ( )
b) New function ( )
c) Function my function ( )
d) None of these
B) Fill in the blanks :
1) If x + = y then ___________ will be the similar statement.

2) PHP is ____________ side scripting language.
3) ___________ statement is used to print in PHP.
4) _______________ is a extension of PHP file.
5) PHP stands for ____________
6) _____________ database is supported by PHP since the beginning.
7) _____________ is the way to add multiline comments into your PHP code.
8) SQL stands for _____________
2. a) What is PHP ? Write the history of PHP.
b) What is variable ? Explain scope of variable in PHP.
3. a) Explain looping statements in PHP with suitable examples.
b) Explain structure of HTML with suitable example.
8
8
8
8
4. a) Write a program to accept two numbers using form and print addition, subtraction,
multiplication and division.
b) Write a program to accept any three digit number using form and print only
sum of odd digits.
*SLRR8*
-3-
SLR-R 8
5. a) What is SQL ? Explain INSERT INTO, UPDATE, DELETE and SELECT

statement with suitable example.
b) Create a database in mySQL named worker and table named Empinfo with
following information and do so directed :
8
8
1) Deptno
2) DeptName
3) No_of_worker
4) Manager Name
5) Totalsalary
a) Insert any 5 records in the table
b) List all the workers whose department name is sales
c) Delete all the records whose manager name is started with s character
d) Set the primary key to the column named Deptno.
6. a) Write a PHP script to insert records in Employee database and Pinfo table
having fields (Empno. Empname, Sec and Age) using form.
b) What is relational database ? Explain primary key and foreign key with suitable
example.
8
8
16
a) Array in PHP
b) Functions in PHP
c) ODBC
d) Open source movement.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 237
*SLRUM237*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------S.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2014

DATA STRUCTURE I (Old)
Day and Date : Friday, 23-5-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m
Total Marks : 100
Day & Date __________________________ Language of Answer ___________________________

Examination _______________________ Paper No. _____________________________________
Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Each section carries 40 marks.

2) Objective type questions carries 20 marks with 30 minutes
duration.
MCQ/ Objective Type Question Paper
Marks : 20
1. Choose correct answers :
20
1) Is n++ is fast or n = n+1 is fast ?

a) n++ is fast
b) n = n + 1 is fast
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 237
*SLRUM237*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Can we apply modulus operator to float type operands ?

a) yes
b) no
3) Can we apply bitwise operators to float type operands ?

a) yes
b) no
4) Can we used string constants in switch cases ?

a) yes
b) no
5) Is it possible in C language to indicate that the array element starts from 1

instead of 0 ?
a) yes
b) no
6) Is it possible to use an integer array element as an index of another integer

array ?
a) yes
b) no
7) Can the size of operator be used to tell the size of an array passed to a
function ?
a) yes
b) no
8) A matrix.i.e. a two dimensional array which has many zeroes as its element
is called as ________________
a) adjancy matrix
b) heap
c) sparse matrix
*SLRUM237*
SLR-UM 237
-3-
9) In which of the data structure we can both add\remove at both ends but not in
the middle.
a) queue
b) list
c) De-queue
d) stack
10) Which kind of data structure would make insertion sort particular in efficient ?
a) Linked-list
b) stack
c) list
d) none of above
11) A useful tool for specifying the logical properties of a datatype is a

______________
a) encapsulation
b) abstract data type
c) boolean
d) none of above
12) Which of the following is a LIFO list ?

a) stack
b) queue
c) linked list
d) circular list
13) Which of the following is a FIFO list ?

a) priority queue
b) list
c) stack
d) queue
14) The primitive operation applied to the queue is/are

a) insert and remove and empty
b) insert only
c) remove and empty
d) empty only
15) The expression AB/C DE* + AC* is called _______________

a) Post fix
b) infix
c) Prefix
d) none
16) The declaration in (*P) (10) is ________________

a) pointer to array
b) array of pointer
c) pointer to function
SLR-UM 237
*SLRUM237*
-4-
17) The strcmp (hello, hence) return

a) True
b) False
c) 2
d) 2
18) Which function we can use to read the string NEW YORK ?
a) ScanF()
b) gets()
c) Puts ()
d) printf()
19) A pointer to character accesses the following bytes of memory.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
20) In evaluation of postfix expression stack is used to store.

a) operands
b) operators
c) both a) and b)
d) none
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM237*
SLR-UM 237
Seat
No.
S.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2014

DATA STRUCTURE I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Each section carries 40 marks.

SECTION I
2. Define the following (any five) :
(52=10)
a) Priority queue
b) Array
c) Circular linked list
d) Doubly linked list
e) Static variable
f) Data structures
g) Stack.
3. a) What is recursion ? Explain with example. State the advantages and
disadvantages of using recursion.
b) What is a string ? Write an algorithm to compare two strings without using
library function.
4. a) Write and explain an algorithm to implement towers of hanoi.
b) Explain the terms.
a) Sequential access
b) Random access.
8
7
8
7
SLR-UM 237
-6-
*SLRUM237*
SECTION II
5. Solve any four from the following :
(45=20)
a) Explain doubly circular linked list with suitable example.
b) Define circular queue and explain need for a circular queue.
c) Explain use of stack for evaluation of postfix expression with suitable example.
d) Write a C function to insert new node at the front of singly circular linked list.
e) Define queue and explain following operations on linear queue.

i) Inserting new element in a queue.
ii) Deleting an element from a queue.
f) Write a C function to push an element on stack, which is implemented by
using linked list. Explain it.
6. a) Write a C program for array implementation of stack, explain it.
5
5
10
OR
b) What is priority queue ? Write a C program for implementation of ascending
priority queue.
10
7. Explain doubly linked list and write C functions for the following operations on
doubly linked list.
i) Insertion of new node at the end
ii) deletion of a node.
10
_____________________
SLR-UM 1
*SLRUM1*
Seat
No.
Set
F.E. (Part I) Examination, 2014

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS I
Day and Date : Monday, 19-5-2014
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
N. B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first 30 minutes

in OMR sheet given. Each question carries one mark.
2) Attempt any three questions from each Section.
4) Use of calculator is allowed.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct option :
20
1) If y = log(3x + 2), then yn = __________

( 1)n n! 3n
a)
(3x + 2)n
( 1)n 1 (n 1)! 3n
b)
(3x + 2)n
( 1)n 1 (n 1)! 3n
c)
(3x + 2)n + 1
d) None of these
2) If y = cos2x, then yn = ___________
n
a) 2 cos 2x +
2
n1
b) 2 sin 2 x +
2
n1
c) 2 cos 2 x +
2
d) 2 sin 2x +
2
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 1
*SLRUM1*
-2-
3) The value of
2x 1
lim
x0
(1 + x )
a) 2 log 2
1
2
is
b) log 2
c)
1
log 2
2
d) 0
4) In the Taylors series expansion of ex + sin x about the point x = , the

coefficient of ( x )2 is
b) e + 1
a) e
5) If x = y
d) 0.5 e
y2 y3 y4
+
+ .... then y =
2
3
4
x2 x3
+
+ ....
a) 1 + x +
2! 3 !
c) x
c) e 1
x2 x 3
+
+ ....
2! 3 !
x2 x 3
+
+ ....
b) x +
2! 3 !
d) None of these
6) The modulus of (tan + i) is

a) tan
c) cot
b) sec
d) tan2
2

7) sin + i cos = _____________
3
3
2
2
a) sin + i cos
3
3
2
2
b) cos + i sin
3
3
c) cos + i sin
3
3
d) cos i sin
3
3
8) The imaginary part of ei is

a) 0
b) e
c) e
d)
Set A
*SLRUM1*
SLR-UM 1
-3-
y
9) If log [log( x + iy)] = p + iq , then the value of tan1 is
x
a) ep cos q
b) eq sin p
c) eq cos p
d) ep sin q
10) tan x = __________

a) tanhix
b) itanhix
1
0
11) The rank of the matrix
0
a) 1
b) 4
c) itanhix
2
1
0
3
2
1
d) itanix
4
3
is ______________
2
c) 2
d) 3
12) If X1, X2, X3 are linearly dependent vectors then

b) X1 = kX2 + lX3
a) X1 = X2 = X3
c) X1 = X2 = X3 = 0
d) None of these
13) If 1, 2 , 3 are eigen values of matrix A then |A| =

a) 1 2 3
1
b)
1 2 3
c) (1 2 3 )2
d)
1
(1 2 3 )2
14) If the characteristic equation of a matrix A is 2 2 = 0 then

a) A1 exists but can not be determine from data
b) A1 = 2I
c) A1 does not exists
d) A1 = 2I
15) The system AX = B where A is square matrix, has unique solution if
a) |A| = 0
b) |A| 0
c) |A| = |A|
d) None of these
Set A
SLR-UM 1
*SLRUM1*
-4-
r
16) If x = r cos y = r sin then y = _______
x
a)
r
x
b)
r
y
c)
x
r
d)
y
r
17) If u =
u
u
x3 + y3
+y
= __________
then x
x
y
x+y
a) 0
c)
b) u
u
2
d) 2u
18) The % error in area of a rectangle when an error of 1% is made in measuring

its length and breadth is equal to
a) 2%
b) 3%
c) 1%
d) 0%
19) The function x2 + y2 + 6x + 12 has _____________

a) No stationary point
b) Only one stationary point
c) Two stationary points
d) None of these
(x, y )
= ______
20) If x = a(u + v), y = b(u v) and u = r 2 cos v = r 2 sin then
(r, )
a) abr3
b) 8abr3
c) 2abr3
d) 2abr3
Set A
*SLRUM1*
SLR-UM 1
-5-
Instruction : Attempt any three questions from each Section.

SECTION I
2. a) Find the nth derivative of y =
1
.
(3x 2) ( x 3)2
b) Find the nth derivative of y = sin 2x sin 3x cos 4x.
c) If y = a cos (log x) + b sin (log x), prove that

x2yn + 2 + (2n + 1) xyn + 1 + (n2 + 1)yn = 0.
3. a) Prove that x cos ec x = 1 +
x 2 7x4
+
+ ......
6 360
1
1
.
b) Evaluate lim
x3 x 3
log( x 2)
c) Expand x5 x4 + x3 x2 + x 1, in powers of (x 1) and hence find f (0.99).
18

1 + cos 9 + i sin 9

4. a) Simplify
.
1 + cos i sin

9
9
b) Solve completely the equation x5 + 1 = 0.
c) Expand sin5 cos3 in a series of sines of multiples of .
5. a) Solve any two :
10
x a i
x
i) Show that tan1 i
= log .
x+a 2
a
ii) If sin h ( x + iy ) = ei / 3 , prove that 3 cos2y sin2 y = 4sin2y cos2y.
( )
iii) Prove that sin1 ei = cos 1 sin + i log

b) Prove that log (1 + ei ) = log 2 cos ( / 2) +
i
.
2
sin + 1 + sin .
4
Set A
SLR-UM 1
*SLRUM1*
-6-
SECTION II
6. a) Find rank of following matrix by reducing it to normal form
3
0 2
4
3
4 1 3
.
7 7 1
5
b) Solve the system of equation

7x1 + x2 2x3 = 0
x1 + 5x2 4x3 = 0
3x1 2x2 + x3 = 0
2x1 7x2 + 5x3 = 0.
c) For what value of the equations have a solution and solve them completely
in each case ?
x+y+z=
x + 2y + 4z =
x + 4y + 10z = 2
2u 2u
7. a) If u = (x y ) f (x y ) then prove that 2 + 2 = ( x 4 y 4 ) f ( x y) .
x
y
2
x2 + y 2
2u
2u
2u
b) If u = tan1
+ y2 2 = 0 .
then prove that x 2 2 + 2xy
xy
x
y
x + y
c) If z = f(x, y), x = eucosv y = eu sinv then prove that x
z
z
z
.
= e2 u
+y
v
u
y
8. a) Find maximum and minimum values of x3 + 3xy2 3x2 3y2 + 4.

b) Find the percentage error in s where s = kp
and v are respectively 2 and 1.5.
1
2
4
5
v 2 , if percentage errors in p
4
Set A
*SLRUM1*
SLR-UM 1
-7-
c) If ux = yz, vy = zx, wz = xy then prove that
(u, v, w )
is constant.
( x, y, z)
10
i) Find eigen values of matrix A, hence find eigen vector corresponding to

2
6 2
largest eigen value, where matrix A is 2
3 1 .
2 1
3
ii) Verify Cayley-Hamilton theorem and hence find A1, where

1 1 0
A = 0 0 1 .
2 1 2
iii) Find the characteristic equation of the matrix A given below and hence
find matrix represented by
2 1 1
A8 5A7 + 7A6 3A5 + A4 5A3 + 8A2 2A + I where A = 0 1 0 .
1 1 2
b) Examine whether the following vectors are linearly independent or dependent.

If dependent then find relation between them.
[2, 1, 3, 2], [1, 3, 4,2] and [3, 5, 2, 2].
________________
Set A
Code No.
SLR-UM 101
Seat
No.
*SLRUM101*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

FINITE ELEMENT METHOD
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Question No. 1 of objective question is compulsory.

Answer any two questions from each Section.
Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
Marks : 20
1. Solve the objective questions (any 20). All objective questions must be of simple
answer type.
20
1) The matrix showing relation between Strain vector and displacement
vector or Temperature vector and temperature gradient is
B) [K]
A) [D]
C) [C]
D) [B]
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 101
*SLRUM101*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The material property matrix is represented as

A) [D]
B) [K]
C) [C]
D) [B]
3) Which of the following is a Weighted Residual method ?

A) Galerkins method
B) Variational method
C) Potential energy method
D) All of the above
4) The equations defining approximate distribution are known as

interpolation functions, and can take any mathematical form, in practice
they are usually
B) Trigonometric functions
A) Polynomials
C) Exponential function
D) Hermetic function
5) Sum of all the natural coordinate of the node is

A) Zero
B) One
C) Can not predicted
D) None of the above
6) In thermal analysis problems the primary field variable is

A) Temperature
B) Heat flux
C) Temperature and heat flux
D) Elongation
7) Generally higher order formulations are carried out by
A) Carisian coordinates
B) Natural co-ordinates
C) Polar coordinates
D) Cylindrical coordinates
*SLRUM101*
SLR-UM 101
-3-
8) The order of element stiffness matrix for a beam element

B) 3 3
A) 2 2
C) 6 6
D) 4 4
9) The degree of freedom at each node for plate element is

A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
10) Natural coordinates are
A) Two dimensional
C) Dimensionless
11) Shock spectrum analysis is
A) Steady state problem
C) Transient problem
D) 6
B) Three dimensional
B) Eigen value problem
D) Static analysis
12) Two dimensional 6 noded elements is

A) Simplex element
B) Complex element
C) Multiplex element
D) None of above
13) In computer integrated manufacturing (CIM), FEM is the following phase

A) CAD
B) CAM
C) CAE
D) CAD/CAM
14) In simplex triangular distorted element the allowable angle is

A) Less than 45
B) In between 45 and 75
C) In between 75 and 90
15) The term AE/L represents
A) Stress
C) Stiffness
D) Greater than 75
B) Strain
D) Thermal conduction
16) Tetrahedron with four corner nodes relates

A) 3D simplex element
B) Complex element
C) Multiplex element
17) FEM is
A) Exact solution method
C) Both A) and B)
D) None
B) Approximate solution method
D) None
SLR-UM 101
*SLRUM101*
-4-
18) The most common material non linearities encountered are

A) Creep, plasticity, non-linear elasticity
B) Birth and death, creep, swelling
C) Swelling, plasticity, fluencies
19) A piston is fastened to the connecting rod using a gudgeon pin. What
element must be used to define the connecting between the piston and
gudgeon pin and connecting rod ?
A) Isoparametric element
B) Mass element
C) Gap or contact element
D) Axisymmetric shell
20) Element which connect two elements of different order interpolation

function is
A) Shell element
B) Gap element
C) Spar element
D) Transition element
21) The bandwidth of a matrix after node numbering where D is largest

difference between nodes in a single element and f is the number of
degrees of freedom at each node is
B) D + f
A) D f
C) (D + 1) f
D) (D 1)f
22) Elements having polynomials with constant and linear terms and nodes
are located at corners are
A) Simplex
B) Complex
C) Multiplex
23) Elements with cubic interpolation function and four constants requires
A) Two nodes
B) Three nodes
C) Four nodes
D) Six nodes
24) In finite element method the term finite stands for

A) Finite number of element
B) Finite number of nodes
C) Finite number of equations
D) Finite number of Degrees of freedom
________________
*SLRUM101*
-5-
SLR-UM 101
Seat
No.
B.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

FINITE ELEMENT METHOD
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Answer any two questions from each Section.

3) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Prove from first principle that the displacement through a one dimensional
pin-jointed bar element with a linear variation of displacement can be expressed
as
u = NiUi + NjUj
where Ni = (xj x)/L and Nj = (x xi)/L plot the shape functions at i and j node.
b) Explain finite element procedure.
c) Explain weighted residual method with detailed classification.
3. a) Derive [B] (B matrix) for one dimensional heat transfer without heat
convection. Explain it by deriving its element equation by variational approach. 7
b) Explain axisymmetric element.
c) What is FEM ? Write advantages and disadvantages of FEM.
4. Write short notes on any five :

a) Interpolation functions for 1D, 2D and 3D elements
b) Advantages of polynomials in FEM
c) Variational principle
d) Shell element
e) Descritization
f) Bandwidth and banded matrix.
(54=20)
SLR-UM 101
*SLRUM101*
-6-
SECTION II
5. a) Evaluate the following integral by long-hand and by the Gauss Quadrature
method.
1
I=
(3x 5 + 4x 4 + 9 x 2 + 15)dx
Use the following ranges of integral limits :

Degree of
Number of
Polynomials
Points ' n'
limit - 1 to 1
1
1
3
Sampling
point
Weighting
Function
0.0
2.0
0.577350
0.0
1.0
0.888889
0.774597
0.861136
0.555556
0.347855
0.339981
0.652145
b) Explain natural co-ordinates and integration.
c) Explain simplex, complex and multiplex elements.
6. a) Explain two dimensional elasticity with usual notations.
b) Explain higher order one dimensional quadratic and cubic elements.
c) Explain structural beam, plate and shell element.
7. Write short notes on (any five) :

a) An alternative formulations
b) Dynamic problems
c) Material non-linearity
d) Gap and transition elements
e) P-refinement and h-refinement
f) Model validity and accuracy.
_____________________
(54=20)
SLR-UM 102
*SLRUM102*
Seat
No.

EXPERIMENT STRESS ANALYSIS (Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Question No. 1 is compulsory.

2) Solve any two questions from each Section I and II.
3) Make necessary assumptions, if required and mention
it clearly.
4) Bubble the correct answer/answers for objective questions
in the answer sheet provided for question 1.
6) Question No. 1 should be solved in first 30 minutes.
Marks : 20
1. A) Match the pairs :
(41=4)
Column (I)
Column (II)
a) Temporary birefringence
p) Quarter wave plate
b) Permanent birefringence
q) Photoelastic model
c) Analyzer rotation
r) Polarizer
d) Use of wedge type compensator
s) Tardys method
t) Babinet soleil method
B) Match the pairs :
(41=4)
Column (I)
Column (II)
a) Same nature of stresses
p) Gauges connected in adjacent arms
b) Different nature of stresses
q) Gauges connected in opposite arms
c) Deflection type of bridge is

governed by
r) dr = kR
d) Null type of bridge is

governed by
s) e0 =
n
E K
4 S
t) dr = R
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 102
*SLRUM102*
-2-
C) Solve multiple correct answers :
(42=8)
i) Oblique incidence can be achieved by

a) Using a prism
b) Using a strain gauge
c) Reflection polariscope
d) Rotation of model
ii) Analyzer rotation causes

a) Higher order fringe to pass through the point of interest
b) Lower order fringe to pass through the point of interest
c) Increase or decrease in stress value
d) Change in strain
iii) For dynamic strain measurement, output voltage can be
b) e0 de0
a) e0
c) e0 + de0
d) None of a), b), c)
iv) In case of Wheatstone bridge, if one linear and one lateral gauge is used
a) No dummy gauge is required
b) Gauges are to be connected in adjacent arms
c) Gauges are to be connected in opposite arms
d) Dummy gauge is required
D) Solve classical objectives :
(41=4)
i) Resistance of P-type strain gauge under application of tensile load

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
ii) Resistance of N-type strain gauge under application of tensile load
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
iii) Plane polariscope contains following optical elements in between which

stressed model is kept
a) Polarizer and analyzer
b) Quarter wave plate 1
c) Quarter wave plate 2
iv) Stress difference inversely varies with
a) Fringe order
b) Material fringe value
c) Model thickness
_____________________
*SLRUM102*
-3-
SLR-UM 102
Seat
No.

EXPERIMENT STRESS ANALYSIS (Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from each Section I and II.
2) Make necessary assumptions, if required and mention
it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain the properties of photoelastic materials.
b) Derive the expression for the light intensity seen through analyser when the
stressed model is kept in the dark field circular polariscope.
12
3. a) Discuss the calibration of the photoelastic material with tensile specimen,

circular disc and a beam specimen.
10
b) A photoelastic model in the shape of a beam 1.5 cm deep and 3 mm thick is

stressed in pure bending. When a bending moment of 7N-m is applied, the
ninth fringe just appears at the outer edge. Calculate the material fringe value
of the model and material.
10
4. a) Discuss the oblique incidence method. Mention the typical cases in which
separation methods are not required.
b) Explain the Babinet Soleil method.
10
10
SLR-UM 102
-4-
*SLRUM102*
SECTION II
5. a) Discuss the various crack patterns observed in brittle coating.
10
b) Enumerate the use of strain gauges in measurement of pressure and vacuum. 10

6. a) The strain readings as measured by a T-delta rosette mounted on a steel
component shows the following strain indications.
a = 255 m/m, b = 305 m/m, c = 294 m/m, and d = 65 m/m.
Calculate the maximum principal strain direction, the principal stresses and
the maximum shear stress. Take E = 200 GPa and = 0.3.
12
b) Explain need of rosettes and various types of rosettes with schematic

sketches.
7. a) Explain various ways of initial balance of Whetstones bridge.
10
b) Derive the equation of output voltage for

i) 4-arm sensitive (2 linear and 2 lateral) combination
ii) 2-arm sensitive (1 linear and 1 lateral) combination
Comment on the output.
10
_______________
*SLRUM102*
SLR-UM 102
Supervisors sign
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
Answer Sheet For Objective/MCQ Questions

1. A) Match the pairs :
p
Marks
(41=4)
a
b
c
d
B) Match the pairs :

p
(41=4)
t
a
b
c
d
C) Solve multiple correct answers :

a
(42=8)
i
ii
iii
iv
D) Solve classical objectives :

a
(41=4)
i
ii
iii
iv
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
Total Marks :
*SLRUM103*
-1-
SLR-UM
103
SLR-UM
103
Seat
No.

Elective I : PROCESS ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Objective Type Question Paper

Time : 30 Minutes
Marks : 20
Type I : MCQ with more than one answer correct (2 marks each) (Total 10 marks) :
1) Match the pairs.
(22=4)
a) General purpose machine
p) Less investment cost
b) Special purpose machine
q) Fewer machines required

r) Single set up
s) Batch production
2) Match the pairs.
(22=4)
a) Process engineer
p) Preparation of part print
b) Product engineer
q) Correction in part print

r) Analysis of part print
s) Releasing the orders to tooling department
3) Which of the following lead to tolerance stack ?
a) Product design
b) Method of processing and gauging
c) Selection of improper machine
d) Selection of improper tooling
P.T.O.
S
SLR-UM 103
*SLRUM103*
**
-2-
Type II : MCQ with only one answer correct (1 mark each) (Total 10 marks) :
1) Match the pairs :
(12=2)
a) GPM
p) Danger of obsolescence
b) SPM
q) Versatile and flexible
(15=5)
Sequence of operation
Classification of operation
i) Forging of a blank
p) Principle process operation
ii) Machining of spur gear on milling m/c
q) Major operation
iii) Key way cutting on slotting m/c
r) Auxiliary operation
iv) Heat treatment of gear
s) Supporting operation
v) Inspection, packaging and dispatch
t) Basic process operation
(13=3)
a) Job production
p) Automatic lathe
b) Batch production
q) Centre lathe
c) Mass production
r) Capstan lathe
_____________
*SLRUM103*
-3-
SLR-UM
103
SLR-UM
103
Seat
No.

Elective I : PROCESS ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 from Section I and Q. No. 5 from Section II are

compulsory.
2) Attempt any two questions from Q. No. 2, 3, 4 in Section I
and any two questions from Q. No. 6, 7, 8 in Section II.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and state
it clearly.
SECTION I
1. Compulsory :
Prepare a process plan for manufacturing the component in Fig. I, w.r.t. data
supplied there in along following lines.
20
a) Sequence of operations indicating machine selected, holding method,
machining parameters per setup.
b) Gages and/or inspection method and instrument.
c) Tools specifications as per ISO or any standard.
d) Estimated time and remarks.
Fig. I
2. a) What are the functions of process engineer ?
b) What are the aspects taken into consideration for processing of mass type
production ?
5
5
SLR-UM 103
-4-
*SLRUM103*
3. a) What are the different factors that affect accuracy ?
b) What are the technical, economical and aspects considered in feasibility

study ?
4. Write short notes on (any two) :
5
10
a) Tolerance charts.
b) Procedure for feasibility study.
c) CAPP.
d) Factors deciding the elimination of operations.
SECTION II
5. Compulsory :
Draw the process picture sheets for any four operations planned for the
manufacture of the component in the Fig. I, w.r.t the sequence. Use standard
notations and symbols for locating, supporting, holding and material removal.
20
6. a) What are the various sources of information while selecting equipment ?
b) What is the selection criterion for selecting GPM's for processing ?
7. a) Explain the various allowances considered while calculating standard time and
production rates.
b) Explain automatic process control by in process gauging.

8. Write short notes on (any two) :
5
10
a) Process benchmarking.
b) Selection criteria for cutting tools.
c) SPM.
d) Automated part orientation.
_____________
*SLRUM103*
SLR-UM 103
-5-
Supervisors signature
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
ANSWER SHEET FOR OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

Type I : (2 marks each)
1)
a)
b)
2)
a)
b)
3)
Type II : (1 mark each)

1)
a)
b)
2)
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
v)
3)
a)
b)
c)
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
Total Marks :
Code No.
SLR-UM 104
Seat
No.
*SLRUM104*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING
Day and Date : Tuesday, 27-5-2014 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Question No. 1 objective question is compulsory.

2) Attempt any two questions from each Section.
3) Use of non-programmable calculator, steam table,
psychrometry chart and tables are allowed.
Marks : 20

1) A reversible Carnot cycle used for refrigeration comprises
A) Two isentropic and two adiabatic processes
B) Two isentropic and two constant volume processes
C) Two isentropic and two constant pressure process
D) Two isentropic and two isothermal processes

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 104
*SLRUM104*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) A boot-strap air cooling system comprises
A) Two heat exchangers

B) One heat exchanger
C) Three heat exchangers
D) It works without heat exchanger
3) The COP of a window air-conditioner compared to the COP of domestic
refrigerator is
A) Higher
B) Lower
C) Same
D) Unpredictable
4) The VCC cycle using R-12 as refrigerant gives maximum COP when
A) Suction state to compressor is in wet state

B) Suction state to compressor is in dry-saturated
C) Suction state to compressor is in superheat region
5) The effect of liquid sub-cooling in vapour compression system is
A) To reduce rate of refrigerant flow/TR

B) To reduce the volume of vapour handled by the compressor /TR
C) To reduce the power/TR
D) All of the above
6) For a given condenser and evaporator temperatures, a two stage
compressor with inter-cooling gives
A) Higher COP
B) Lower COP
C) COP remains constant
D) Unpredictable
*SLRUM104*
SLR-UM 104
-3-
7) In Lithium-bromide absorption system
A) Lithium-bromide is used as refrigerant and water as absorbent

B) Water is used as refrigerant and lithium bromide as absorbent
C) Ammonia is used as refrigerant and lithium-bromide as absorbent
8) As the clearance volume in reciprocating compressor increases, the
work done per kg of refrigerant
A) Decreases
B) Increases
C) Does not affect
9) With fixed suction pressure for a working reciprocating compressor,
an increase in delivery pressure
A) Increases volumetric efficiency

B) Decreases volumetric efficiency
C) First increases and then decreases the volumetric efficiency
D) Volumetric efficiency is independent of delivery pressure
10) A window air-conditioner uses
A) Natural convection air-cooled condenser

B) Forced convection air-cooled condenser
C) Double pipe condenser
D) Shell and coil type condenser
11) For saturated air, wet bulb depression
A) Zero
B) Positive
C) Negative
D) May be positive or negative
12) During sensible cooling, the DBT of moist air

A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains same
13) During sensible heating, the R. H. of air

A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains constant
D) May increases or decrease
SLR-UM 104
*SLRUM104*
-4-
14) Bypass factor of a heating coil decreases with

A) Increase in fin spacing and increase in rows
B) Increase in fin spacing and decrease in rows

C) Decrease in fin spacing and increase in rows
D) Decrease in fin spacing and decrease in rows
15) The curved lines on psychrometric chart represents
B) WBT
D) R.H
A) DBT
C) DPT
16) If the specific humidity of air remains same but its DBT increases,
then its DPT
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains same
D) May increase or decrease
17) The optimum ET for human comfort in an air conditioned space is
A) Higher in winter than in summer

B) Lower in winter than in summer
C) Same for summer and winter
D) Not dependent on season
18) In summer air-conditioning, at Mumbai the air is
A) Cooled and humidified
B) Heated and humidified
C) Cooled and dehumidified
D) Heated and dehumidified
19) The SHF for designing air-conditioning system for Cinema Hall is
generally taken as
A) 0.5
B) 0.75
C) 0.95
D) 0.15
20) The velocity pressure (Pv) in mm of water column is given by

V2
A)
16 .08
B)
16.08
V2
C)
240 .6
Where V is in m/min.
D)
76.1
______________
*SLRUM104*
-5-
SLR-UM 104
Seat
No.
B.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Attempt any two questions from each Section.

2) Use of non-programmable calculator, steam table,
psychrometry chart and tables are allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) A dense air refrigeration system of 10 ToR capacity works between 4 bar and
16 bar. The air leaves the cold chamber at 0C and discharges air at 25C to
the expansion cylinder after air cooler. The expansion and compression cylinders
are double acting. The mechanical efficiency of compressor and expander are
85% and 80% resp. The compressor speed is 250 rpm and has stroke of
250 mm. Determine
i) COP
ii) Power required
iii) Bore of compressor and expander.
Assume expansion and compression as isentropic.
b) Explain designation system refrigerants. Find chemical formula for R-12,
R-114 and R-123.
3. a) An ammonia ice plant operates between a condenser temperature of 35C
and evaporator temperature of 15C . It produces 10 tons of ice per day
from water at 30C to ice at 5 C. Determine
i) Capacity of refrigerant plant
ii) Mass flow rate of refrigerant
iii) Power required to drive compressor
12
8
SLR-UM 104
*SLRUM104*
-6-
iv) Dimensions of compressor for L D = 1.2 , N = 1200 rpm, v = 65 % .
14
Use following data :

T
I
P
bar
v
B
m /kg
15 2.3709 1.51 10 3
35 13.522 1.7 10 3
!
h
B
h
C
s
B
s
C
kJ/kg kJ/kgK kJ/kg K

m /kg kJ/kg
0.5080 131.27 1443.9 0.7426 5.822
0.0956 366.1 1488.57 0.566
5.21
!
Cp = 2.763 kJ/kgK.
b) Explain 2 stage compression with water intercooler on p-h diagram.
6
(45=20)
a) What is the function of following in absorption system ?

i) Rectifier
ii) Analyser.
b) Explain any expansion type evaporator.
c) Describe actual vapor compression system.
d) Explain regenerative air cooling system with heat diagram.
e) Liquid vapor heat exchanger in VCC.
SECTION II
5. a) On a particular day, the atmospheric air was found to have DBT of 30C and
WBT of 18C. The barometric pressure was observed to be 756 mm Hg.
Obtain following :
i) Relative humidity
ii) Specific humidity
iii) DPT
iv) Enthalpy of air per kg of dry air.
*SLRUM104*
-7-
SLR-UM 104
b) Define following :
i) Bypass factor
ii) ADP
iii) SHF.
c) State and explain the factors affecting human comfort.
6. a) Atmospheric air at 30C DBT and 75% RH enters a cooling coil at the rate of
200 CMM. The coil dew point temperature is 14C and bypass factor of coil is
0.1. Find :
i) Temperature of air leaving cooling coil
ii) Capacity of cooling coil in ToR.
10
b) What do you understand by cooling load and heating load ? Explain the
components of cooling load.
10
7. a) What are the different methods of duct design ? Explain velocity reduction
method in details.
12
b) Write short note on :
i) Heat pump
ii) Central air conditioning system.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
105
Seat
No.
*SLRUM105*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------B.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

INDUSTRIAL AND QUALITY MANAGEMENT
Day and Date : Saturday, 31-5-2014
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N. B. : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I.

2) Solve any three questions from Section II.
Marks : 20
1. Objective single choice:

(201)
1) In a sampling plan N = 500, n1 = 10, n2 = 8, c1 = 1, c2 = 4, if the number of
defectives in the first sample are 3, then the decision will be ____________
a) No rejection
b) Take a second sample and inspect
c) Go with production
d) Lot ok
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 105
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
*SLRUM105*
2) _____________ is the model for quality assurance in production and

installation.
a) ISO : 9000
b) ISO : 9002
c) ISO : 9001
d) ISO : 9006
3) _____________ means the intentional structure of roles in a formally

organised enterprise.
a) Informal organisation
b) Policy
c) Formal organisation
d) Code of Conduct
4) ____________ may be polluted by industrial waste such as packaging.

a) Land
b) Water
c) Society
d) Air
5) Under theory __________ average human being learn, under proper

conditions, not only to accept responsibilities but also to seek it.
a) Y
b) X
c) W
d) Z
6) _____________ is the variation in specifications for the same function

use.
a) Deviation
b) Grade
c) Difference
d) Fluctuation
7) Maslow regards _____________ as the highest needs in his hierarchy.

a) Physiological needs
b) Safety needs
c) Need for self actualisation
d) Acceptance needs
*SLRUM105*
-3-
SLR-UM 105
8) ____________ managers are the real Team managers in grid type.

a) 1.9
b) 5.5
c) 9.1
d) 9.9
9) ____________ involves establishing the amount of work to be done

and the time when each element of the work will start.
a) Planning
b) Routing
c) Scheduling
d) Organising
10) _____________ is any paid form of non personnel presentation and

promotion of goods and services or ideas by an identified sponsored.
a) Marketing
b) Selling
c) Advertising
d) None of above
11) ____________ is defined as The discipline dealing with what is good

and bad and with moral duty and obligation.
a) Rule
b) Organisation culture
c) Protocol
d) Ethics
12) ____________ involves selecting mission and objectives and the

actions to achieve them.
a) Planning
b) Mission
c) Strategy
d) Goals
13) In double sampling plan C2 is acceptance number for the __________

a) First and last combined
b) First and second combined
c) Last two combined
d) First three combined
14) AOQ stands for ________________
a) Average Outgoing Quality
b) Additional Outgoing Quality
c) Average Outward Quality
d) Advanced Outgoing Quality
SLR-UM 105
*SLRUM105*
-4-
15) The producer can decrease his risk by submitting the lots of _________
a) Same as AQL
b) Better than AQL
c) Less than AQL
d) Only AQL
16) ___________ standards gives guidelines for selection and use of

appropriate model.
a) ISO : 9000
b) ISO : 9001
c) ISO : 14000
d) ISO : 9002
17) The success of sampling inspection depends upon ___________

a) Lot size
b) Sample size
c) Acceptance number
d) All
18) The producers risk is denoted by ___________

a)
b)
c)
d)
19) In any sampling plan if C is the acceptance number, then the rejection
number is ___________
a) C
b) C 1
c) C + 2
d) C + 1
20) ISO : 9000 series of standards enables to meet the requirements of an

___________
a) Standard
b) International standard
c) Total Quality system
d) An internationally uniform quality system
__________________
*SLRUM105*
-5-
SLR-UM 105
Seat
No.

INDUSTRIAL AND QUALITY MANAGEMENT
Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

N. B. : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I.
2) Solve any three questions from Section II.
SECTION I
2. a) What are functions of management ?
b) Explain steps in planning.
6
7
3. a) What is delegation of authority and how to do it ? Also explain guidelines to

overcome weak delegation of authority.
b) What are objectives of sales promotion ? Explain sales promotion scheme.
4. a) Explain system approach to management process.
b) What are objectives and functions of PPC ?
5. a) What are appraisal criterias ? Explain appraisal process.
7
6
8
6
6
b) Explain various types of media. Explain the considerations in selecting

media.
SLR-UM 105
-6-
*SLRUM105*
SECTION II
6. a) Write note on supplier partnership.
b) In a double sampling plan, N = 5000, n1 = 100, c1 = 0, n2 = 100 and c2 = 1

i) Use Poissons table to compute the probability of acceptance of a 1%
defective lot.
ii) Assume that a lot rejected by this sampling plan will be 100% inspected.
What will be the AOQ if the submitted product is 1% defective ? Considering
both the inspections of rejected lots, what will be the average number of
articles inspected per lot if the submitted product is 1% defective ?
7. a) Name any three quality gurus and their contribution in quality.
b) Explain cause and effect diagram, scatter diagram and pareto analysis.
8. a) Write note on ISO 9001.
8
6
7
6
b) Explain actual and ideal OC curve for a sampling plan. Also explain all concepts
such as producers risk, consumers risk, AQL, LTPD, AOQL etc.
9. a) Differentiate between :
i) Cost of quality and value of quality.
7
6
ii) Quality of design and quality control.

b) Write procedure for control chart preparation. Explain it for X R chart.
_______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 106
Seat
No.
*SLRUM106*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________

MECHATRONICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 contains multiple choice type questions and is

compulsory. Tick the most appropriate answer.
2) Answer any two questions from each Section
3) Use of Scientific Calculator is allowed.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary and state it clearly.
Marks : 20
1. Tick the correct answer :
20
1) The ________ layer is responsible for node to node delivery of packets.

a) Physical
b) Transport
c) Data link
d) Application
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 106
*SLRUM106*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) _________________ defines the structure and order in which the data

is to be sent. In other words ti decides the data format, coding and
signal levels.
a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Timing
d) Blabbering
3) Which of the basic logic gates are considered as universal gates ?

a) AND gate and OR gate
b) NAND gate and NOR gate
c) AND gate and NAND gate
d) NOR gate and NAND gate
4) ______________ is a serial bus developed by Apple computers.

a) USB
b) Firewire
c) CAN bus
d) Profibus
5) The measure of sensitivity of a resistive transducer is given by

a) X factor
b) Gauge factor
c) Length factor
d) Murphys factor
6) Variable inductance transducers are based on

a) Peltier effect
b) Seebeck effect
c) Pascals law
d) Faradays law
7) In potentiometric transducers loading errors are caused by

a) noise and vibration
b) high temperature
c) input impedance of output devices
d) low temperature
*SLRUM106*
SLR-UM 106
-3-
8) Fluid power systems are preferred for continuous control because

a) Allows linear movements at high speeds over longer lengths
b) Higher bandwidth
c) Maintains system under load with excessive use of control devices
d) All of the above
9) Which of the following is not a type of stepper motor ?
a) Permanent magnet
b) Variable reluctance
c) Poly-phase Induction
d) Hybrid
10) The two serial ports available with 8051 are labelled as
a) INT 0 and INT 1
b) XTAL 1 and XTAL 2
c) RXD and TXD
d) T 0 and T 1
11) The 8051 has _______ bytes of program memory and _________ bytes
of data memory.
a) 4096, 128
b) 128, 4096
c) 4096, 2048
d) 2048, 4096
12) In order to access an external program code, in the 8051 the _______
pin must be taken low.
a) EA
b) PSEN
c) ALE
d) RST
13) In the 8051 if a port is to be used as an output port then the data must be
a) written to the port directly
b) written to the special register corresponding to the port
c) written to the accumulator
d) written to memory
14) The 8085 is ________ bit processor while the 80386 is a ______ bit
processor.
a) 16 and 32
b) 32 and 16
c) 8 and 32
d) 8 and 16
SLR-UM 106
*SLRUM106*
-4-
15) The correct register pairs for the 8085 are

a) B-C, D-E and H-L
b) B-D, C-H and E-L
c) E-C, B-D and H-L
d) A-B, C-D and E-H
16) The hexadecimal equivalent of the decimal number (434)10 is ______

a) 1A2
b) 1B2
c) 1C2
d) 1D2
17) A Sensor has a non-linear output characteristic. Which amplifier circuit

must we use to make the final output linear ?
a) Inverting
b) Difference
c) Integrating
d) Logarithmic
18) A comparator is basically an opamp with ___________

a) two feedbacks
b) only one feedback
c) no feedback
19) PLC programing is done using

a) Ladder Logic Programming
b) Snake Programming
c) G codes
d) N codes
20) The properties of an ideal Op-amp are
a) it should have zero input impedance
b) infinite open loop gain
c) it should have a zero open loop gain
__________________
*SLRUM106*
-5-
SLR-UM 106
Seat
No.

MECHATRONICS
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Answer any two questions from each Section

2) Use of Scientific Calculator is allowed.
SECTION 1
2. a) Explain how an automatic camera works. State clearly the different sensors and
actuators used. Support your explanation with the help of schematics.
b) Discuss the general classification of sensors.
8
6
c) What do you understand by the term Signal Processing ? Why is it required ? 6

3. a) Discuss the construction and working of AC motors. List its advantages,
limitations and applications.
b) Sketch the pin diagram of the 8085 microprocessor. Why is unique about the
address and data bus of the 8085 ?
c) Explain with the help of neat sketch any two temperature sensors.
4. a) Minimize the equation F(A, B, C, D) = m0 + m2 + m4 + m6 + m13 + m15

using the Karnaugh Map. Sketch the circuit diagram of the final solution.
b) Compare the advantages, limitations and applications of hydraulic and

pneumatic actuators.
c) Discuss in brief ADC and DAC.
SECTION 2
5. a) Explain with the help of sketch the application of the 8051 microcontroller as
a washing machine controller. State clearly the different sensors and actuators
used.
SLR-UM 106
-6-
*SLRUM106*
b) What is delay-on, delay-off timer and cascade timer ? Draw ladder diagram
for a devise that will switch on an output for 100 seconds and then switch it
off.
c) Discuss the OSI model for intercommunication.
6. a) Discuss sensor based machine condition monitoring.
b) Sketch the internal architecture of the 8051 microcontroller. State the function
of the ALE and EA ?
c) Sketch the ladder diagram for a circuit in a washing machine that will switch
on a pump to pump water for 50 seconds into the machine, then switch off
and switch on a heater for 50 seconds to heat the water. The heater is then
switched off and another pump is switched on to empty the water from the
machine for 50 seconds.
7. a) Discuss in brief the commonly used forms of network topologies. Discuss in

brief CSMA/CD network protocol and token ring passing.
b) Discuss micro sensor applications in mechatronics.
c) List the special features of PLCs. Devise a circuit that can be used to start a
motor and then after a delay of 50 seconds start pump. When the motor is
switched off there should be a delay of 20 seconds before the pump is switched
off.
_____________________
Code No.
*SLR-UM-107*
SLR-UM 107
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------B.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Question No. 1 of objective question is compulsory.

Duration : 30 minutes
Marks : 20
1. Solve the following objective questions :
(120=20)
1) Clutch is usually designed to transmit maximum power which is

a) 90% of maximum engine torque
b) equal to maximum engine torque
c) 150% of maximum engine torque
d) none of above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 107
*SLR-UM-107*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The inertia of the rotating parts of the clutch should be

a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Zero
d) None of above
3) Two advantages of using helical gears rather than spur gear in transmission
are
a) Strength and cost
b) Strength and less end thurst
c) Noise level and strength
d) Noise level and economy
4) The central gear of epicyclic gear set called as

a) Ring gear
b) Sun gear
c) Planet gear
d) Internal gear
5) Weight of vehicle produces in the side member of the frame

a) Vertical bending
b) Horizontal bending
c) Torsion
d) All of these
6) Air resistance is expressed as ____________

a) Kr.W
b) W/G
c) Ka .A.V2
d) None of these
7) In automatic transmission clutch used is

a) Single plate clutch
b) Cone clutch
c) Electro magnetic clutch
d) Fluid clutch
*SLR-UM-107*
SLR-UM 107
-3-
8) Gradable resistance in vehicle is

a) w sin
b) w tan
c) w cos
d) None of above
9) Speed reduction in transmission system is done in

a) Propeller shaft
b) Rear axle
c) Transmission gear box
d) Transmission gear box and rear axle
10) Function of overdrive is
a) Give stability
b) Give ride controll
c) Give high power
d) Give high speed
11) The stearing ratio for manual stearing of cars is approximately ___________
a) 5
b) 15
c) 50
d) 100
12) One purpose of a recirculating ball type stearing gear is to reduce the
___________
a) Operating friction
b) Operating cost
c) Toe-out during turns
d) Number of parts
13) Brake lining consist of ___________

a) Asbestos
b) Copper
c) Cast iron
d) Aluminium
14) Brake fade is ___________

a) Loss of pedal
b) Loss of friction
c) Loss of hydraulic fluid
d) None of above
15) The maximum disc brake run out allowed on the vehicle is generally
a) 1 mm
b) 0.5 mm
c) 0.1 mm
d) 0.01 mm
SLR-UM 107
*SLR-UM-107*
-4-
16) The capacity of battery is expressed in terms of ___________

a) current rating
b) voltage rating
c) ampare-hour rating
d) none of above
17) Automobile starting motors are ___________

a) Series wound
b) Series-shunt wound
c) Shunt wound
d) Both a) and b)
18) The frame may get distorted to parallelogram shape due to ___________
a) Weight of vehicle
b) Weight of passenger
c) Cornering force
d) Wheel impact with road obstacle
19) Out of round brake drum cause the tyre wear ___________
a) On the inside
b) on the outside
c) In single spot
d) Uniformly all round
20) Ignition timing can be adjusted by ___________

a) Accurate clock
b) Stop watch
c) Stroboscopic light
d) Vacuum gauge
______________________
*SLR-UM-107*
-5-
SLR-UM 107
Seat
No.
B.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING (Elective II)

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80
Answer any question from each Section.

Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
Assume suitable data in necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain all wheel drive layout in detain and compare this with other layout.
b) Explain working of fuel cell with the help of figure.
c) What is function of clutch ? Explain working of electromagnetic clutch with

diagram.
3. a) Describe cone clutch with neat diagram.
b) Explain necessity of differential gear box. Discuss the construction and working
of differential gear box in detail.
c) Explain with neat sketch overdrive and explain its working.
4. a) Write classification of gear box. Explain working of sliding mesh gear box
with diagram.
b) The coefficient of rolling resistance for a truck weighing 62293.5 N is 0.018
and co-efficient of air resistance is 0.0276 in formula R = K.W + Ka.A-V2,
Where A is m2 of frontal area and V the speed in km/hr. Rin N . The transmission
efficiency in top gear of 6.2 : 1 is 90% and that in the second gear of 15 : 1 is
80% . The frontal area is 5.574m2. If the truck has to have a maximum speed
88 km/hr in top gear calculate :
i) The engine BP required
ii) The engine speed if driving wheel have an effective diameter of 0.8125 m
SLR-UM 107
-6-
*SLR-UM-107*
iii) The maximum grade the truck can negotiate at the above engine speed in
second gear.
iv) The maximum draw bar pull available on level at the above speed in second
gear.
12
SECTION II
5. a) What is need of power stearing ? What are different types of power stearings ?
Explain with figure any one of them.
b) Derive the equation for correct stearing condition of stearing system in terms
of wheel base and wheel track.
c) Explain with neat sketch hydraulic breaking system. List advantages and
disadvantages of system.
6. a) A car weight 15 kN and wheel base 3 m the centre of gravity of car is 1.5 m in
front of rear axle and 0.8 m above the ground level. The car is having brakes
on all four wheels. The coefficient of adhesion between the road and the
wheels is 0.5. If the car is moving up on the road having gradient 1 : 10,
calculate
i) Load distribution between front and rear axles.

ii) Distance at which the car can stopped while going up at speed of 60 km/
hr. When only rear brakes are applied.
b) Compare independent suspension and conventional suspension system.
c) Explain with neat sketch (circuit diagram) working of side indicator.
7. Write short notes (any four) :
(45=20)
a) Automobile batteries.
b) Starting system of automobiles
c) Three wheeler layout
d) Hydro gas suspension system.
e) Hutch-kiss suspension
___________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 108
*SLRUM108*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________ For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________

Elective II : PRODUCTION MANAGEMENT
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N.B. :
1) All questions are compulsory of one mark.

2) Do not scratch or rub the answers.
3) Solve MCQ only an separate sheet provided.
4) Tick mark correct answer.
_________________________________________________________________________
Marks : 20
1) Job shop production system is characterised by

a) High variety of products and low volume
b) Less variety of products and high volume
c) High variety of products and high volume
d) Low variety of products and low volume
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 108
*SLRUM108*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The Delphi technique of forecasting is

a) Time series method
b) Judgement technique
c) Computer technique
d) None of above
3) Dispatching term indicates

a) Dispatch of finished product
b) Dispatch of sales order
c) Dispatch of work orders through shop floor
d) Dispatch of paper
4) In ABC analysis A stands for products
a) High cost less consumption
b) Low cost high consumption
c) Low cost low consumption
d) None of above
5) Payback period criteria is used for
a) Capacity planning
b) Forecasting
c) Production control
d) Investment decisions
6) Mass production system is having

a) Large volume of products
b) Special purpose machines
c) Balanced production line
d) All above
*SLRUM108*
SLR-UM 108
-3-
7) TPM is
a) Total Production Management
b) Total Preventive Management
c) Total Productive Maintenance
d) None of above
8) Shortest Processing Time (SPT) gives
a) Least priority to waiting job
b) Top priority to the waiting job whose operation time at work centre
is shortest
c) Top priority of job which come first
d) None of above
9) Time taken by the job from its arrival in the system until completion is
b) Processing time
a) Completion time
c) System time
d) Lead time
10) Forecasting is
a) Prediction of future demand by customer
b) Total products manufactured
c) Total quantity of materials
d) None of above
11) MRP stands for
a) Mean Rate of Production
b) Maximum Rate of Production
c) Material Requirement Planning
d) Maintenance Requirement Planning
12) Line balancing is associated with
a) Production planning
c) Capacity planning
b) Production control
d) Material planning
13) In inventory control, if the quantity to be ordered each time if fixed and
normally if it is equal to EOQ, then it is
a) P system
b) Q system
c) ABC system
d) None of above
SLR-UM 108
*SLRUM108*
-4-
14) JIT targets on

a) Reduce wastages
b) High quality of product
c) Zero inventory
d) All of above
15) The unit load concept is used in deciding

a) Material analysis
b) TPM
c) EOQ
d) Material handling system
16) The Kanban system aim for

a) Preventive maintenance
b) Material requirement planning
c) Dispatch on priority basis
d) None of above
17) In maintenance management availability of a production system for a
specified time is a function of
a) Running time
b) Running time and down time
c) Down time only
d) None of above
18) The EOQ is obtained when

a) Cost of holding inventory and cost of purchasing is at lowest total
cost
b) Cost of holding inventory and cost of purchasing is at highest
total cost
c) Cost of holding is highest
d) Cost of purchasing is highest
19) For material handling system design which of following technique is
most useful
a) Gantt chart
b) Activity chart
c) Travel chart
d) None of above
20) Correlation coefficient is obtained in

a) Capacity planning
b) Machine utilisation
c) Regression analysis
d) Sequencing
__________________
*SLRUM108*
-5-
SLR-UM 108
Seat
No.

Elective II : PRODUCTION MANAGEMENT
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
N.B. : 1) Attempt any two questions from each Section.

3) Figures to the right indicate marks.
SECTION I
1. a) Explain in detail moving average method of forecasting.
b) Six jobs are done on two machines M1 and M2 such that each job is first
processed on M1 and then on M2.
Determine the optimum sequence of jobs so that minimum time is elapsed .
Find Idle time on M2 machine :
Jobs
A
B
C
D
E
F
M1
5
9
4
7
8
6
M2
7
4
8
3
9
5
c) Explain in detail exponential smoothening method of forecasting.
2. a) What do you mean by dispatching and progressing methods in production

control ?
b) The data for sales of a company for various years. Fit the straight line to find
the sales of years 2012 and 2013.
No
Year
Sales in Rs. (Thousand )
1
2003
13
2
2004
20
3
2005
20
4
2006
28
5
2007
30
6
2008
32
7
2009
33
8
2010
38
9
2011
43
c) What is aggregate planning ?
6
7
SLR-UM 108
-6-
*SLRUM108*
3. a) Explain in detail jobbing, batch and continuous production processes.
b) What are the factors considered during capacity planning ?
c) What is routing function ?
6
SECTION II
4. a) Explain in detail advantages and limitations of ABC analysis of inventory

management.
b) Give broad classification of inventory models ? State limitations of EOQ model. 7

c) Suggest material handling equipment in production machine shop and justify
your answer.
5. a) What is outsourcing ? What are the risks and disadvantages of outsourcing ? 7

b) Discuss the role of human factors in production management.
c) Explain in detail types of maintenance and their applications.
6. Write short notes (five marks each) :

a) Kanban
b) Rejection analysis
c) Computer applications in production management
d) Selection criteria for material handling equipment.
_____________________
20
Code No. SLR-UM
109
*SLRUM109*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
N.B. :
For Office Use only
Code No.
1) Q. No. 1 is multiple choice question. It is compulsory. It

should be solved in first 30 minutes. Each question carries
one mark.
1. 1) The P.I. of (D3 3D + 2)y = x is
1
a) ( x + 1)
2
1
3
c) x +
2
2
Marks : 20
b) x +
3
2
d) (x + 1)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 109
*SLRUM109*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) y = (c1 + c2x)e2x + (e3 + c4x)e2x is the general solution of

a) (D2 + 2)2y = 0
b) (D2 2)2y = 0
c) (D2 + 4)2y = 0
d) (D2 4)2y = 0
3) On putting t = logx, the Cauchys differential equation with D =
a)
b)
c)
d)
(D2 4D + 1)y = et t(sint + 1)

(D2 4D 1)y = et t(sint + 1)
(D2 + 4D 1)y = et t(sint 1)
(D2 + 4D 1)y = et t(sint 1)
4) The solution of q = 3p2 is

a) z =
b
x + by + c
3
c) z = 3ax2 + by
b) z = 3ax + a2y + c
d) z = ax +
a2
y+c
3
5) The solution of px + qy = z is
a) ( x + y, y + z) = 0
x
b) ,
y
x2 y2
c) , = 0
y z
d) ( xyz, x) = 0
6) z = a(x + y) + c is the general soln of

a) p + q = 1
c) pq = 1
y
=0
z
b) p q = 1
d)
p
=1
q
d
becomes
dt
*SLRUM109*
SLR-UM 109
-3-
7) If L{f( t )} = ( s ) , then L t 2 f(t )

a) (s)
d2
b) 1 2 (s)
ds
c) (s)
d) None
8) Consider the following statements

i) L{f(t)} =
ii) L
1
{Lf(t) + f(0)}
s
{ f(u) du}= sL {f(t)}

t
a) Only i) is true
c) Both are true
b) Only ii) is true

d) Both are false
1
9) L1
=
32
(s 2)
t2
a) e
3!
2t
c) e
t3 2
b) e
52
t
d) e
2t
3
2
1
10) L1
2
(s 3) + 16
e3 t
sin 4t
a)
4
b)
c) e3 t cos 4 t
d) e 3 t cos 4t
x,
11) Fourier expansion of f(x ) =
x,
a) No cosine terms
c) Both cosine and sine terms
e 3 t
sin 4t
4
2x 0
in the interval [2, 2] has
0x2
b) No sine terms
d) None of these
12) The condition for expansion of a function in a Fourier series are known as
a) Harmonic
b) Riemann conditions
c) Periodic
d) Dirichlets conditions
SLR-UM 109
*SLRUM109*
-4-
13) The Fourier expansion of f(x) = sin2x is

a) sin x + cos x
b) 1 cos 2x
c) sin 2x + cos 2x
d)
1
(1 cos 2x)
2
14) If the complex Fourier transform of f(x) is F(s), then the complex Fourier
transform of f(x/2) is
a) F(2s)
2
b) F
s
c) 2F(2s)
d)
1 s
F
2 2
15) A vector function F is called solenoidal if

a) curl F = 0
b) div F = 0
c) grad F = 0
d) grad F 0
16) If r = ae 3t + be 2t , then at t = 0
a) a
c) 2b + 3a
dr
=
dt
b) b
d) 2a + 3b
17) If F = ( x + 3 y )i + ( y 2z ) j + ( x + az )k is solenoidal then a =

a) 2
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
18) The inverse z-transform of
a) ak
z
, |z| > a (with k 0 ) is
z+a
b) (a)k
c) ak + 1
d) (a)k + 1
19) The cosine series expansion of sinx in (0, ) the constant term
a)
1
2
b)
c)
d)
1,
20) The region of convergence of z-transform of the sequence f (k ) =
0,
a) | z | < 1
b) | z | > 1
c) z < 1
d) z = 0
__________________
k0
is
k<0
*SLRUM109*
-5-
SLR-UM 109
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
N. B. : 1) Attempt any three question from each Section.

SECTION I
2. a) Solve
d3 y
dy
4
= 2 cosh2 (2 t ) .
3
dt
dt
x
b) Solve (D2 + 3D + 2)y = ee .
d2 y
dy
2x
4y = x 2 + 2 log x .
c) Solve x
2
dx
dx
OR
c) Solve (1 + x )2
d2 y
dy
+ (1 + x )
+ y = 4 cos log(1 + x) .
2
dx
dx
d4 y
3. a) Solve 4 + 4 y = 0 .
dx
d3 y dy
= 2e t + 2t + 1 4 cos t .
b) Solve 3
dt
dt
c) The differential equation for a circuit in which self inductance and capacitance
d2i i
+ = 0 . Find the current i as a function of t
dt 2 c
given that I is maximum current, and i = 0 when t = 0.
neutralise each other is L
SLR-UM 109
*SLRUM109*
-6-
sin t sin 5t
4. a) Find L
.
t
b) Using the method of separation of variables, solve
u
u
=2
+ u where
x
t
u(x, 0) = 6e3x.
c) Solve a(p + q) = z.
5. a) Solve 9(p2z + q2) = 4.
1
b) Find L1
by convolution theorem.
4
(s 2) (s + 3)
32s
1
s
= t sin t find L1
c) If L1 2
2
2 .
2
(16s + 1)
(s + 1) 2
SECTION II
6. a) Find the Fourier series for f(x) = ex in (a, a).
b) Find the Fourier cosine transform of e2x + 4e3x.

(1 x 2 ),
7. a) Find the Fourier transform of f(x ) =
0 ,
|x|1
and hence evaluate
|x|>1
x
x cos x sin x
cos dx .
3
x
2
b) Find the unit vector tangent to the space curve x = t, y = t2, z = t3 at t = 1.

Also find the equation of tangent at t = 1.
8. a) Find the directional derivative of = 4xz 3 3x 2 y 2z at (2, 1, 2) in the direction

from this point towards the point (4, 4, 8).
b) A fluid motion is given by F = ( y + z )i + ( z + x ) j + ( x + y )k . Show that the

motion is irrotational and hence find its scalar potential.
c) Find the z-transform of 3|k|.
*SLRUM109*
-7-
SLR-UM 109
3z 2 + 2z
, 1< | z | < 2.
9. a) Find the inverse z-transform of 2
z 3z + 2
b) Find z-transform of (k + 1)ak , k 0 .
kx ,
c) Expand f(x) =
k(l x) ,
deduce that
5
4
l
2 into half range cosine series. Hence
l
<x<l
2
0<x<
2 1
1
1
= 2 + 2 + 2 + ... .
8 1
3
5
OR
r 2
c) Prove that = 3 r .
r r
_______________
SLR-UM 11
*SLRUM11*
Seat
No.
Set
F.E. (Part II) Examination, 2014

ENGINEERING PHYSICS (Group A)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions: 1) Make suitable assumptions if any.

2) Figure to the right indicate full marks.
3) Question No. 1 is compulsory and should be solved in first
30 minutes on OMR sheet given. Each question carries one
mark.
Constants : 1) Avogadros number, NA = 6.023 1026/k mol.
2) Velocity of light, C = 3 108 m/s.
3) Plancks constant, h = 6.63 1034 Js.
4) Charge of electron, e = 1.6 1019 C.
5) Mass of electron, m = 9.1 1031 kg.
Marks : 20
SECTION I
1. Attempt the following :
20
1) Mass-energy equation was proposed by

a) Newton
b) Madam Curie
c) C. V. Raman
d) Einstein
2) The first postulates of special theory of relativity

a) Says that there is no absolute reference frame
b) States that the laws of physics are same in all inertial reference systems
c) Is a reaffirmation of the Galilean principle of reactivity
d) All of these statements are true
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 11
*SLRUM11*
-2-
3) The relativistic law of addition of velocities is represented by equation

u1 + v
a) u =
u1v
1+ 2
c
c) u =
u1 v
u1v
1+ 2
c
u1 + v
b) t =
u1v
1 2
c
d) u =
u1 + v
1
v2
c2
4) Donor type semiconductor is formed by adding impurity of valency

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
5) An n-type semiconductor is
a) Positively charged
c) Neutral
d) 2
b) Negatively charged
d) None of these
6) When a pure semiconductor is heated, its resistance

a) Goes up
b) Goes down
c) Remains same
d) None of these
7) The relation of length of axes of unit cell in monoclinic system is

a) a = b = c
c) a = b c
b) a b c
d) a b = c
8) The total number of planes of symmetry for cubic crystal are

a) 9
b) 3
c) 6
d) 23
9) The ultrasonic waves exhibit

a) Large diffraction effect
b) Negligible diffraction effect
c) Very long wavelength
d) All of these
10) Sound waves having the following frequency are audible to human beings
a) 5000 Hz
b) 5 Hz
c) 30000 Hz
d) 50 kHz
Set A
*SLRUM11*
SLR-UM 11
-3-
SECTION II
11) The resolving power of a grating is _____________
a) d
b) d
c) nN d
d) d
12) In Fraunhofer diffraction, the incident wavefront should be _________

a) Elliptical
b) Plane
c) Spherical
d) Cylindrical
13) For positive crystals ___________

a) 0 = e
b) 0 < e
c) 0 > e
d) 0 e
14) Spontaneous emission process is mathematically represented by equation

____________
a) A + h A *
b) A * + h A + 2h
c) A * + h A + h
d) A * A + h
15) The life time of metastable state is ___________

a) 1 sec
c) 106 to 103 sec
b) 10 sec
d) 1010 sec
16) According to Snells law

n1 sin 1
a) n = sin
2
2
n1 sin 2
b) n = sin
2
1
n1
c) n = sin 1 + sin 2
2
n1 sin2 1
=
d)
n2 sin2 2
17) In optical fiber communication system the amplification of desired data and
filtering of undesired frequencies is done by __________
a) Detector
c) Modulator
b) Signal processor
d) Transducer
Set A
SLR-UM 11
-4-
*SLRUM11*
18) Slow neutrons are incident on a sample of uranium containing both 92 U235
and 92 U238 isotopes, ____________
a) Both isotopes will undergo fission
b) Only 92 U235 atoms undergo fission
c) Only 92 U238 atoms undergo fission
d) None of the isotopes will break up
19) Coolent is used in nuclear reactor ____________
a) To slow down the fast neutrons
b) To absorb excess neutrons
c) To increase speed of neutrons
d) To transfer the energy from core to heat exchanger
20) For helical CNT, chirality and value of is ____________
a) (a, 0) and 0
b) (a, a) and 6
c) (a, b) and 0 to 6
d) (a, a) and 0
Set A
*SLRUM11*
-5-
SLR-UM 11

Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Attempt any five of the following :
20
a) Explain classification of elements on the basis of band theory.

b) Derive an expression for time dilation.
c) Explain the methods of production of ultrasonic waves.
d) Define :
i) Co-ordination number
ii) Void space
iii) Unit cell
iv) Space lattice.
e) State the applications of ultrasonic waves.
f) A current of 50 A is established in a slab of Cu 0.5 cm thick and 2 cm wide.
The slab is placed in a magnetic field of 1.5 T. The magnetic field is
perpendicular to the plane of the slab and to the current. The free electron
concentration in copper is 8.48 1028/m3. What will be the magnitude of Hall
voltage across width of the slab ?
g) A rocket ship is 100 m long on the ground. When it is in flight, its length is 99 m
to an observer on the ground. What is its speed ?
Set A
SLR-UM 11
-6-
*SLRUM11*
3. Deduce an expression for relativistic mass variation, to show,

m=
m0
2
1 v
c2
OR
What are Miller indices ? Derive the relation between Miller indices and interplaner
spacing for cubic structure.
4. Attempt any two of the following :
8
12
a) Explain the effect of impurity concentration on shifting of Fermi level in case

of n-type and p-type semiconductor.
b) Describe the X-ray powder diffraction method used to determine crystal
structure.
c) i) What is reverberation time ? State factors on which reverberation time
depends.
ii) If resistivity and Hall coefficient of specimen are 8.93 103 m and
3.66 104 m3/c resp. then find Hall mobility.
SECTION II
20
a) State and explain Malus law.

b) Define the following terms :
i) Metastable state
ii) Pumping
iii) Population inversion and
iv) Stimulated absorption.
c) State the principle and explain the structure of optical fiber.
Set A
*SLRUM11*
-7-
SLR-UM 11
d) Distinguish between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion reaction.

e) Mention any four applications of LASER in different fields.
f) What is highest order spectrum which may be seen with light of wavelength
5000 , by means of a grating with 3000 lines/cm.
g) Calculate the power output of a nuclear reactor which consumes 10 kg of
U-235 per day. Given that the average energy released per U-235 fission in
200 MeV.
6. Define the fractional refractive index change of an optical fiber. Derive an
expression for acceptance angle and numerical aperture of fiber in terms of
refractive index of core and cladding.
8
12
a) With neat diagram explain construction and working of Laurentz half shade
polarimeter.
b) Write a note on : Semiconductor diode laser.
c) Define thermonuclear reactions. Explain carbon nitrogen cycle.
_____________
Set A
Code No.
SLR-UM 110
*SLRUM110*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ELECTRONICS CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN I (Old)
Total Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Day & Date _____________________
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________ Section ________________________________________

Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination _________

______________ (Paper - _______)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 is compulsory to be solved in first 30 minutes only.

2) Use suitable data if necessary.
3) Use of datasheet, calculator is allowed.
Marks : 20
1. Tick mark the correct answer.

1) Bridge rectifier is preferred over center tapped rectifier because of
a) Better DC o/p voltage
b) Better rectification efficiency
c) More ripple frequency
d) Better TUF
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 110
-2-
DO
*SLRUM110*
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
T
NO
2) The ideal dc output voltage of a capacitor input filter is equal to

a) The peak value of the rectified voltage
b) The average value of the rectified voltage
c) The rms value of the rectified voltage
d) Lesser than peak value of rectified voltage
3) If one of the diodes in bridge FWR opens, then the o/p voltage is approx.
a) 0V
b) One fourth the amplitude of i/p voltage
c) A half-wave rectified voltage
d) A 120Hz voltage
4) If the i/p voltage to a voltage doubler has an rms value of 12 V, the dc o/p
voltage is
a) 24 V
b) 50.9 V
c) 33.9 V
d) 32.4 V
5) If AC i/p power to a half wave rectifier is 1000W, How much power is utilized
by the transformer ?
a) 287 W
b) 500 W
c) 200 W
6) The circuit shown results to
a) negative clipper
b) positive unbiased clipper
c) clamper
d) positive biased clipper with clipping above VR
*SLRUM110*
-3-
SLR-UM 110
7) Maximum o/p and ripple frequency of a half wave doubler is

a) 2Vm, 100 Hz
b) Vm, 100 Hz
c) 2Vm, 50 Hz
d) vm/2, 100 Hz
8) A 10Vp-p sinusoidal voltage is applied across a Si diode and a series resistor.

The maximum voltage across the diode is
a) 9.3 V
b) 5 V
c) 0.7 V
d) 10 V
9) In a junction diode
a) The depletion capacitance increases with increase in reverse bias
b) The depletion capacitance decreases with increase in reverse bias
c) The diffusion capacitance increases with increase in forward bias
10) If load resistance increases then ripple __________ in a capacitor filter.
a) reduces
b) increases
c) no change
11) In common emitter if current gain varies from 74.75 to 311.5 then
corresponding common base current gain will be
a) 0.9868 to 0.9968
b) 0.9668 to 0.9668
c) 1.9868 to 1.9968
d) 1.9668 to 1.9668
12) The Emitter of transistor is generally doped the heaviest because it

a) has to dissipate maximum power
b) has to supply charge carriers
c) is the first region of transistor
d) must possess low resistances
13) The negative peak of output current signal is clipped of when Q point shifts
towards _________ region.
a) cut off
b) saturation
c) active
d) both a & b
14) The phase shift between input and output for CB & CC configuration is
a) same
b) 180
c) 0
d) both a & c
SLR-UM 110
-4-
*SLRUM110*
15) In single stage CE amplifier if bypass capacitor is removed then voltage

gain of amplifier ________
a) remains constant
b) decreases
c) increases
d) becomes zero
16) A BJT has IB = 10A, = 99 & ICBO = 1A then I C is

a) 1.09 mA
b) 0.011mA
c) 0.001091A
d) both a & c
17) In monostable multivibrator if R = 25 K & C = 1nF then quasistable duration

is
a) 173.25 s
b) 17.325 s
c) 1.7325 s
d) 17.325 ns
18) In an astable multivibrator has C1=0.01 F, C2 = 0.05 F, R1 = 2 K &

R2=10 K then frequency of oscillation is
a) 27.75 KHz
b) 277.5 KHz
c) 2.775 KHz
d) 0.2775 KHz
19) Power dissipation in series pass transistor in series regulator is

a) (Vin(max)V o(min)IC(max)
b) (Vin(min)Vo)I Cmin
c) (Vin(min) Vo(max))IC(max)
d) (Vin(max)V o(max)IC(max)
20) In the transistor shown in figure. Collector to ground voltage is +20V. Which
of the following is the probable cause of error ?
a) Collector emitter terminals are shorted
b) Emitter to ground connection is open
c) 10 K resistor is open
d) Collector base terminals are shorted
_____________________
*SLRUM110*
-5-
SLR-UM 110
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) Use suitable data if necessary.
2) Use of datasheet, calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four.
(45=20)
a) Explain the operation of circuit shown below. Draw input and output waveforms
and transfer function. Assume Vi = 12 sinwt, V1 = 3V, V2 = 2V. Assume
ideal diodes. Ref fig. 1.
b) Explain with neat circuit diagram the operation of voltage quadrupler.

c) The reverse saturation current of Si diode is 1nA. Calculate diode current for
forward bias voltage of 0.7V and 1V at 25C.
d) Define the following.
Rectification efficiency, ripple factor, PIV, TUF.
e) Draw and explain DC load line for a p-n junction diode.
SLR-UM 110
-6-
3. Solve any two.
*SLRUM110*
(102=20)
a) For the given circuit with Vz = 25V, Izm = 80 mA, RL = 10 K , Vin = 20V,
Rs = 1.2 K .
i) Determine the o/p voltage and power dissipation of Zener
ii) If i/p voltage is raised to 35V, what would be Iz and Pz Ref. fig. 2
b) Design a stabilized power supply using capacitor filter to give dc o/p voltage
of 40V at 2 K load with ripple factor not exceeding 2%.
c) Compare HWR and FWR on the basis of important performance parameters.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four.
(45=20)
1) CE configuration provides 180 phase shift between input and output. Justify
the statements.
2) Explain punch through effect and Thermal runaway of BJT.
3) Calculate Q point values ICQ & VCEQ for circuit shown in above figure.
Assume VBE = 0.7, = 100.
*SLRUM110*
-7-
SLR-UM 110
4) Why bias compensation is required ? Explain bias compensation techniques

using diode.
5) Design an Astable multivibrator for output amplitude of 12 V and square wave
of 1KHz. Use Si transistor hfe(min) = 50, Ic(max) = 6mA, VCE(sat) = 0.3V.
5. Solve any two.
(210=20)
1) Design a single stage CE amplifier for peak output voltage of 4V at 8 K ,

Bandwidth = 30 Hz to 30 KHz, Vcc = 12V, Rs = 600 . Use BC147A hfe =
115, hie = 2.7 K .
2) With suitable diagram and waveforms explain operation of monostable
multivibrator. Derive an expression of pulse width of monostable multivibrator.
3) Design a transistorized series voltage regulator to supply an output voltage
of 28 V and load current IL 1A, provided that VIN = 50 5 V
Series pass transistor Q1 2N1722, hfe = 90, hie = 20 , VBE1 = 0.7
Comparator transistor Q2 BC147B, hfe = 200, hie = 4.5 K , V BE2 = 0.7.
Code No. SLR-UM
112
*SLRUM112*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2014

DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Tick the correct alternative :
(120=20)
1) In combinational circuits, output depends on

a) Only past input
b) Present input only
c) Both present and past inputs
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 112
*SLRUM112*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) In look ahead carry adder, the carry of each stage except initial stage is a
function of
a) Carry propagate
b) Carry generate
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
3) MUX is _______________ implementation.

a) AND-OR
b) NOR-AND
c) OR-AND
d) NAND-OR
4) The binary equivalent of gray code 100 is

a) 101
b) 111
c) 100
d) 110
5) The circuit ability to tolerate noise is

a) Noise margin low level
b) Noise margin
c) Noise immunity
d) Noise margin high level
6) A logic circuit that converts data from one binary code to another is
a) Code converter
b) Max term
c) Sequential logic
d) Two level realisation
7) An array of flip-flop used to store binary information

a) Latch
b) Data
c) Counter
d) Register
8) Logic expression in the form odd OR ed forming AND ed together

a) Min term
b) Max term
c) SOP
d) POS
*SLRUM112*
SLR-UM 112
-3-
9) Logic circuit that selects one of several input lines and connects it to single
output line
a) Strobe
b) Multiplexer
c) Encoder
d) Decoder
10) The state of a flip-flop when Q = 1, Q = 0

a) Preset
b) Set
c) Reset
d) Clear
11) In a counter circuit consisting of four J-K flip-flops, all the flip-flops get triggered
simultaneously. This counter circuit
a) is a combination circuit
b) is an asynchronous circuit
c) is a synchronous circuit
d) may be a combinational or sequential circuit
12) An universal register
a) Accepts serial input
b) Accepts parallel input
c) Gives serial and parallel outputs
d) Is capable of all the above
13) A ring counter consisting of five flip-flop will have
a) 5 states
b) 10 states
c) 32 states
d) Infinite states
14) The number of states in a decade counter

a) 4
b) 8
c) 10
d) 16
15) The design of a clocked sequential circuit requires

a) The state reduction
b) The state assignment
c) The design of next state decoder
d) All of the above
SLR-UM 112
*SLRUM112*
-4-
16) The next state of mealy machine is a function of

a) Present state
b) Present input
c) Both
d) None
17) Minimization of the number of states reduce the

a) Complexity
b) Number of gates
c) Cost
d) All
18) Sequence generator can be construct using

a) Counters
b) Shift registers
c) Both using a) and b)
19) A PLA is
a) a LSI device
b) a MSI device
c) a SSI device
d) a discrete device
20) A PAL has 10 input pins, the number of inputs to each of the AND gates is
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
__________________
*SLRUM112*
-5-
SLR-UM 112
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2014

DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(44=16)
a) Describe magnitude comparator.

b) Explain gray code in details.
c) Describe race around condition.
d) Explain BCD to 7 segment decoder.
e) Describe static and dynamic hazards.
f) Minimise 4 variable logic function using K map
F = m (4, 5, 7, 12, 14, 15 ) + d (3, 8, 10 ) .
3. a) Explain conversion of SR to JK flip-flop.

b) Solve any two :
i) Implement 32 : 1 multiplexer using 4 : 1 MUX.
ii) Explain digital comparator.
iii) Explain Master Slave JK flip flop.
8
(82=16)
SLR-UM 112
-6-
*SLRUM112*
SECTION II
(44=16)
a) Explain serial in serial out shift register.

b) Explain twisted ring counter.
c) Differentiate between Moore and Mealy machine.
d) Explain IC 7490 in short.
e) Explain PROM in short.
f) Explain design procedure for clocked sequential circuit.
5. a) Design a divide by 6 counter using T flip-flop.
b) Attempt any two :
8
(28=16)
i) Design and explain 4-bit ripple counter along with waveform.

ii) Design BCD to Excess-3 code converter using PLA.
iii) Explain applications of shift registers in detail.
________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 113
*SLRUM113*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2014

DATA STRUCTURES (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Assume suitable data if necessary and state the assumptions.
Each Section carries 40 marks.
Objective type questions carries 20 marks with duration
30 minutes.
1. Choose correct alternative :
Marks : 20
20
1) __________ is not a primitive data structure.

a) int
b) char
c) stack
d) float
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 113
*SLRUM113*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) ___________ sort uses divide and conquer method.

a) insertion sort
b) merge sort
c) bubble sort
d) none of above
3) Recursion makes inefficient utilization of memory.

a) True
b) False
c) Cant say
4) Which data structure is used in recursion ?
a) Queue
b) Tree
c) Stack
d) List
5) A recursive function would results in infinite recursion, if the following

were left out ?
a) Base case
b) Recursive call
c) Substraction
d) Local variable declaration
6) Sorting is not possible by using which of the following methods ?
a) Insertion
b) Selection
c) Exchange
d) Deletion
7) Which sorting technique is best performer in all the cases ?

a) Bubble sort
b) Insertion
c) Heap sort
d) Quick sort
*SLRUM113*
SLR-UM 113
-3-
8) Number of swappings needed to sort the numbers 8, 22, 7, 9, 31, 19,

5, 13 in ascending order, using bubble sort is _________
a) 11
b) 12
c) 13
d) 14
9) To insert a node in circular list at rear position, it should be inserted at

____________ position.
a) front
b) front 1
c) rear + 1
d) none of above
10) ______________ is the common programming technique used for

hashing in all hashing functions.
a) Cloning
b) Bit shifting
c) Hash mapping
d) Listing
11) When inorder traversing a tree resulted EACKFHDBG, the preorder

traversal would return _________
a) FAEKCDBHG
b) FAEKCDHGB
c) EAFKHDCBG
d) FEAKDCHBG
12) The time complexity of linear search algorithm over an array of n

elements is _____________
a) 0(log2n)
c) 0(nlog2n)
b) 0(n)
d) 0(n2)

a) Every tree is bipartite graph
b) A tree contains cycle
c) A tree with n nodes contains n 1 edges
d) A tree is connected graph
14) A graph in which all nodes are of equal degree is called _________
a) Multigraph
b) Non regular graph
c) Regular graph
d) None
SLR-UM 113
*SLRUM113*
-4-
15) A vertex of degree one is called as ___________

a) Pendant
b) Isolated vertex
c) Null vertex
d) Coloured vertex
16) A binary tree can not have odd number of nodes.

a) True
b) False
17) The children nodes of a given parent node are called __________
a) Siblings
b) Child
c) Boys
d) Pendant
18) A node with degree ________ is called terminal node.

a) one
b) two
c) zero
d) three
19) If in the path first and last vertices are same, then it is called
a) connected graph
b) cycle
c) path
d) none
20) A graph can be represented by ____________

a) Adjacency matrix
b) Sparse matrix
c) Determinant
d) Integration
_______________
*SLRUM113*
-5-
SLR-UM 113
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

2) Assume suitable data if necessary and state the assumptions.
3) Each Section carries 40 marks.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of the following :
(45=20)
1) What is circular queue ? What are its advantages over linear queue ?
2) Write an algorithm to insert node at desired position in doubly linked list.
3) Write an algorithm for postorder traversal in tree.
4) Define B-Tree. Draw an example B-Tree and give its properties.
5) What is Heap ? Explain their applications.
6) Explain B+ trees.
(210=20)
1) Write a program to create singly linked list. Program should have options to
insert, delete, display the nodes in the list.
2) Show the steps of growth of B-Tree of order 5 for following keys.
65, 71, 70, 66, 75, 68, 72, 77, 74, 69, 83, 73, 82, 88, 67, 76, 78, 84, 85, 80.
3) What is stack ? Explain the operations on stack.
SLR-UM 113
*SLRUM113*
-6-
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) Explain merge sort with example.

b) Explain how Bubble sort work for the following :
24
36
47
35
10
90
82
31
c) Define the following terms :

i) Undirected graph
ii) Indegree/outdegree
iii) Successor/predecessor
iv) Weighted graph
v) Cycle.
d) Explain the Towers of Hanoi problem with suitable diagram.
e) What is Hashing ? Explain Hash collision.
(210=20)
a) Explain sequential search and binary search with example.

b) What are Hashing functions ? Explain in detail commonly used Hash functions.
c) What is Graph traversal ? Explain the different Graph traversal methods.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
114
*SLRUM114*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is multiple choice question. It is compulsory.

It should be solved in first 30 minutes. Each question
carries one mark.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct answers :
(20 1)
1) De
a)
c)
(c1 cos 3 x + c 2 sin 3 x) + c3 e2x is the general solution of
d 3y
dx 3
d 3y
dx
+ 4y = 0
+ 8y = 0
b)
d)
d 3y
dx 3
d 3y
dx
8y = 0
2
d 2y
dx
dy
2=0
dx
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 114
*SLRUM114*
-2-
DO
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2) The general solution of the differential equation (D4 6D3 + 12D2 8D) y = 0 is
a) y = (C1 + C 2x + C3x2 + C 4x3) e2x
b) y = (C1 + C2x) e2x + (C3 + C4x) e2x
c) y = (C1 + C2 + C3 + C4) e2x
d) y = C1 + (C2+ C3x + C4x2) e2x
3) The particular integral of (D2 + a 2) y = sin ax is,
x
x
a)
cos ax
b)
cos ax
2a
2a
ax
ax
c)
cos ax
d)
cos ax
2
2
4) The solution of p + q = pq is,
b) z = ax + a2y + c
a) z = ax + a (a 1) y + c
a
y + c
d) ax +
a 1
c) z = ax +by + c
5) The solution of ZP = x is,
a) (y, x 2 z2) = 0
b) (x, x + y) = 0
c) (2x, x2 y2) = 0
6) If L erf t =
a)
c)
s
s+4
2
2
s (s + 4 )
1
s
s +1
d) (x2 + z2, y 2) = 0
then L erf 4t =
b)
2
s (s + 4 )
4
d) s
s+4
*SLRUM114*
SLR-UM 114
-3-
7) If L { f(t )} = f (s), then : L f (u) du =

0
d
f (s )
a) ( 1)
ds
b) S f (s) f(0)
c)
f ( s) ds
8) L { + sin t} =
2s
a) 2
(s + 1)
c)
1
9) L
2s
2
(s 1)
c) eat
1
b)
1
f (s )
s
2 s2
(s 2 + 1)2
d) None
9
(s + a )
a) eat t8
10) L
d)
t8
8!
b) eat t9
d)
e at
8 ! t9
is
2
s (s + 1)
a) 1 + sin t
c) 1 sin t
b) 1 cos t
d) 1 + cos t
11) The unit tangent vector to the curve x = t2 + 1, y = 4t 3, z = 3t2 6t at t = 1 is

1
1
(i + j + k )
(i + 2 j + k)
b)
a)
3
6
1
1
(i + 2 j )
( i + 2k )
c)
d)
5
5
dr
12) If r = a e 3t + b e 2t ,then at t = 0
=
dt
a) a
c) 2b + 3a
b) b
d) 2a + 3b
13) If F = (x + 3y) i + (y 2z) j + (x + az) K is solenoidal then a =

b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
a) 2
SLR-UM 114
*SLRUM114*
-4-
1, 0 < x < a / 2
14) In the cosine series expansion of f(x) =
1, a / 2 < x < a
the constant term is
b)
c) 1
a) 1
d) 0
15) The Fourier series expansion of f(x) = sin2x is

b) 1 cos 2x
a) sin x + cos x
1
c) sin 2x + cos 2x
d)
(1 cos 2x)
2
16) Which of the following function cannot be expanded in Fourier series in the
interval ( , )
b) | x |
c) cosecx
d) x 2
a) ex
transform of F(x/2) is
2
b) F
a) F(2s)
s
1 s
c) 2 F (2s)
d) F
2 2
18) The Fourier cosine transform of f(x) = ex , x 0 is
s
1
a)
b)
1+ s 2
1+ s 2
2
1
1
c)
d) 2
2
1+ s
1+ s 2
3z
19) The z-transform of k3 k , k 0 is
. The region of convergence of
(z 3 )2
Z-transform is
a) | z | > 3
c) z = 0
b) | z | < 3
d) | z | = 3
1 ; k 0
then z {U(k)} =
20) If U (k) =
0 ; k < 0
z
a)
z 1
1
c)
z 1
1
z 1
z
d)
z 1
b)
*SLRUM114*
-5-
SLR-UM 114
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N.B. :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
d 2y
2. a) Solve:
dt 2
dy
+ y = t et sin t.
dt
OR
a) (D2 6D + 13) y = 8e3x sin 4x + zx
b)
d 2y
dx
dy
+ 4 y = x3 e2x.
dx
c) Solve : z (xp yq) = y2 x 2.
5
4
5
3. a) An e.m.f. Esinpt is applied at t = 0 to a circuit containing a capacitance C and

inductance L. The current i satisfies the equation
L
di
1
+ i dt = E sin pt,
dt
C
If P2 =
1
and initially the current i and the charge q are zero. Show that
LC
Et
the current at time t is sin pt.
2L
b) Solve : pq = xmynz2l.
SLR-UM 114
4. a) Find L
-6-
*SLRUM114*
s+4
4
.
3
2
s s + 4s 4 s
b) Show that
2 4 t
sin 2 t dt =
11
500 .
c) Express the following function in terms of unit step function

t 1 1 < t < 2
and find its Laplace transform.
f(t) =
3 t 2 < t < 3
5. a) Evaluate L
2s 5
2
9s 25
1 2
b) L1 tan .
s
c) Using Laplace transform, find the charge q (t) in the 1 c circuit. Assuming
L = 1 Henry, C =
1
Farad with e.m.f. 6 cos 3t provided q (0) = 2, & q (0)= 0. 6
9
SECTION II
6. a) Given that f(x) = x + x2 for < x < , find the Fourier expansion of f(x).
2
1
1
1
= 1 + 2 + 2 + 2 + .....
Deduce that
6
2
3
4
b) Find the Fourier cosine transform of f(x) = e2x + 4e3x.

7. a) Find the Fourier transform of
k ; | x | < a
f(x) =
0 ; | x | > a
8
5
4
*SLRUM114*
SLR-UM 114
-7-
b) Express the function

e kx
f(x) = kx
e
prove that
for x < 0
for x > 0
as Fourier integral and hence,
sin x
d = e kx if x > 0, k > 0.
2
2
2
+k
c) Find the Fourier sine series for the function f(x) = eax for 0 < x < where a
is constant.
OR
c) Prove that :
5
ar
= 0.
ii)
r
i) (a r ) = 0
8. a) Find the angle between the tangents at f = 1 and t = 2 to the curve x = t2 + 1,

y = 4t 3, z = 3t2 6t.
b) A vector field F is given by

2
F = (y sin z sin x) i + (x sin z + 2yz) j+ (xy cos z + y ) k. Prove that it is
irrotational and hence, find its scalar potential.
c) Find the z-transform of f(k) = bk, k < 0 and region of convergence.

k
+ , k 0.
9. a) Find the z-transform of cos
3
b) Find the inverse z-transform of f(z) =
z
, | z| > 2.
(z 1) (z 2)
c) Find the angle between the normals to the surfaces xy = z2 at the points
(1, 4, 2) and ( 3, 3, 3).
5
4
5
4
Code No.
SLR-UM 115
*SLRUM115*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Day & Date ____________________ _
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________ Section ________________________________________

Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination _________

______________ (Paper - _______)
For Office Use only
Code No.

3) Use of data sheet is allowed.
Marks : 20
1. 1) The function of bleeder resistor in power supply is

a) to provide discharging path for capacitor
b) it improves regulation characteristics
c) both a & b
d) is same as load resistor
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 115
-2-
DO
*SLRUM115*
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
T
NO
2) In above circuit the value of Vo is
a) 12 V
b) 0 V
c) 1.4 V
d) 13.4 V
3) In full wave rectifier voltage across full secondary winding is 20VRMS, then
PIV for each diode is
a) 20 2
c)
20
2
b) 10 V
d) 40 V
4) The RMS value of qudraplur circuit is 12 V, the dc output voltage will be

approximately
a) 67.88
b) 48
d) both a & c
c) 48 2
5) For certain 12 V zener diode, 10 mA change in zener current produces 0.1 V

change in zener voltage. The zener impedance is
a) 1
b) 0 .1
c) 10
d) 100
*SLRUM115*
SLR-UM 115
-3-
6) In the circuit shown below the output waveform is
a)
b)
c)
d)
7) Ripple factor is ________ proportional to load resistance for inductor filter

and it is __________ proportional to load resistance for capacitor filter.
a) directly, directly
b) directly, inversely
c) inversely, directly
d) inversely, inversely
8) Consider following circuit, type of circuit is
a) shunt positive clipper

c) shunt positive clamper
b) shunt negative clipper

d) shunt negative clamper
9) In power supply dc voltage drops from 44 V with no load to 42 V at full load.

Then percentage load regulation is
a) 47.6%
b) 4.76%
c) 0.476%
d) both a & c
10) For full wave rectifier employing LC filter. If R = 10 0 , f = 50 Hz, Critical

inductance will be
a)
R
6 50
b) 0.106 H
c) 1.06 H
d) both a & b
11) The Ri of an amplifier with Rs = 100, R1 = 15 K , R2 = 5 K VBE = 0.6 V,

hie = 2 K , hfe = 100 is
a) 1.692 K
b) 1.303 K
c) 1.404 K
d) none
SLR-UM 115
-4-
12) The Ri of JFET as compared to BJT is

a) less
b) equal
c) high
*SLRUM115*
d) none
13) The phase shift provided between 1/p & 0/p for CE & CC amplifier respectively
is
a) 0, 0
b) 0, 180
c) 180 , 0
d) 180 , 180
14) High freq.-response of CE amplifier is limited due to
a) CE
b) Cbe
c) Cbc
d) both (b) & (c)
15) Td, provided by one short multivibrator with R = 10 K, C = 0.01 F using BJT
is
a) 0.0693 ms
b) 0.0793 s
c) 1.02 s
d) none
16) On time of a transistor is function of
a) td
b) tf
c) tr
d) both (a) & (c)
17) For single stage RC coupled amplifier, R1 = 10 K , R2 = 2 K , RC = 10 K ,

RE = 1 K , RL = 10 K , VCC = 15V, The dc and ac Load resistances
respectively are
a) 11 K & 5 K
b) 5 K & 11 K
c) 1 K & 10 K
d) none
18) EMOSFET & DMOSFET respectively are
a) unipolar, bipolar
b) unipolar, unipolar
c) bipolar, unipolar
d) bipolar, bipolar
19) For fixed bias ckt. the ICQ = 20 mA, with VCC = 10 V, hFE = 100, VBE = 0,
RB = ?
a) 50 K
b) 25 K
c) 12.5 K
20) Early effect is also referred as

a) Pinch off voltage
c) Thermal runway
d) none
b) Base width modulation

d) both (b) & (c)
-5-
*SLRUM115*
SLR-UM 115
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

3) Use of data sheet is allowed.
SECTION I
(45=20)
a) A Voltage V = 300 cos 100 t is applied to half wave rectifier with RL = 5 K .

The rectifier may be represented by ideal diode in series with resistance of
1 K . Calculate
i) DC power
ii) Rectifier efficiency
iii) Ripple Factor
b) Using ideal diode, design a clamping circuit to perform function indicated.
c) Explain the working of half wave and full wave voltage doubler circuit.
d) Design a shunt regulator using Zener to provide 8 V output from 15 V
unregulated power supply. Assume Power dissipation = 0.4 Watt.
e) What is Critical Inductance ? Derive an expression for Critical Inductance.
SLR-UM 115
-6-
*SLRUM115*
(210)
a) Design power supply using bridge rectifier circuit to supply the dc load voltage
of 10 V to 18 load resistance having ripple factor better than 0.06. Use LC
filter.
b) Describe the operation of biased series positive and biased shunt positive
clippers with help of circuit diagrams. Sketch output waveform Vout and
transfer characteristics for following network. Vin is 16 V peak triangular
wave.
c) Explain diode switching characteristics during turn on and turn off. Describe
how diffusion capacitance and transition capacitance differ. Draw the
characteristics of transition and diffusion capacitance verses applied voltage.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Explain high freq. response of transistor amplifier.

b) Design voltage divider biasing ckt for Q point (4V, 6 mA) use transistor with
hFE = 150, VBE = 0.6 V, VCEmax = 40 V, S = 5, VCC = 15 V.
c) Derive the equation for pulse width of monostable multivibrator using
transistor.
d) Draw and explain AC equivalent ckt. of CE amplifier using h parameter model.
e) With suitable ckt. dig. explain early effect and its impact on transistor
characteristics.
5. a) Compare BJT and FET. Describe various FET parameters, derive the
relationship between them and explain FET as an Amplifier.
10
b) Design single stage RC coupled amplifier for AV = 100, Vb = 5 Vrms,

10
Rc = 5 K , freq. range = 25 Hz 20 KHz, S = 6.
OR
b) Explain with suitable circuit diagram and waveforms free running multivibrator
circuit. Derive the frequency of oscillations.
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 117
*SLRUM117*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------S.E. (Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

DIGITAL LOGIC DESIGN (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
1) The hexadecimal number system is used in digital computers and digital systems to
a) Perform arithmetic operations
b) Perform logical operations
c) Perform arithmetic and logical operations
d) Input binary data in to the system
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 117
*SLRUM117*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Let (A2C)16 = (X)8. Then X is given by

a) 7054
b) 6054
c) 5154
d) 5054
3) Demorgons Theorem states that

a) A + B = A B and AB = A + B
b) A + B = A + B and AB = A B
c) A + B = A + B and AB = A B
d) A + B = A B and A B = AB = A B
4) A + B = B + A ; AB = BA represent which laws ?
a) Commutative
b) Associative
c) Distributive
d) Idemportence
5) Each term is the standard SOP form is called _______________

a) minterm
b) maxterm
c) dont care
d) literal
6) A logic circuit that converts an n input binary code into a corresponding

single numberic output is called ______________
a) an encoder
b) a decoder
c) a code converter
d) a converter
7) The number of inputs the gate is designed to handle is called ___________

a) fan out
b) fan in
c) noise margin
d) none of these
*SLRUM117*
SLR-UM 117
-3-
8) The slowest logic family is _______________

a) TTL
b) IIL
c) MOS
d) CMOS
9) How many inputs and outputs does a full substractor circuit have ?
a) two inputs, one output
b) two inputs, two outputs
c) two inputs, three outputs
d) three inputs, two outputs
10) The logic expression = AB + A C + BC is known as

a) standard SOP form
b) SOP form
c) standard POS form
d) POS form
11) The maximum count value that can be obtained by a counter which is having
6 flip-flops is
a) 31
b) 63
c) 15
d) 127
12) In the Moore machine output depends

a) current state and input
b) only on input
c) only on current state
13) When a flip-flop is reset, its output will be

a) Q = 0, Q = 1
b) Q = 1, Q = 0
c) Q = 0, Q = 0
d) Q = 1, Q = 1
14) The characteristic equation of JK flip-flop is given by

a) Q+ = JQ + KQ
b) Q+ = JQ + K
c) Q+ = JQ + KQ
15) A 4-bit pre-settable down counter has preset input 0111. The preset operation
takes place as soon as counter becomes minimum 0000. The modulus of
counter is
a) 6
b) 7
c) 4
d) 8
16) The output frequency of a mod-16 counter, clocked by 10 KHZ clock signal is
a) 1.25 KHz
b) 625 Hz
c) 10 KHz
d) 5 KHz
SLR-UM 117
*SLRUM117*
-4-
17) The output Qn of SR flip-flop is 0. It remains same to 0 when a clock pulse

is applied. The input Sn and Rn are respectively.
a) 1 and 0
b) 0 and X
c) X and 0
d) 0 and 1
18) In a decade counter following states will never occur.

a) 1001 to 1111
b) 1010 to 1111
c) 0111 to 1111
d) 1000 to 1111
19) In a JK flip-flop, when J = K = 1 and clock is applied, the output Q will

a) not change
b) become 0
c) become 1
d) be the complement of the output before the clock was applied
20) A flip-flop is used to store
a) one bit of information
b) two bits of information
c) one byte of information
d) one nibble of information
_____________________
*SLRUM117*
-5-
SLR-UM 117
Seat
No.

DIGITAL LOGIC DESIGN (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(44=16)
a) Explain the design of full substractor.

b) Explain the following terms associated with TTL gate.
a) Fan in
b) Noise margin.
c) What is Hazard. Explain dynamic Hazards in detail.
d) Minimize the logic function in POS form and implement by using universal
gates
f (A, B, C, D) = m (0, 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8, 9, 11, 14)
e) Do the following conversions.
a) (675.625)10 to hexadecimal number
b) (2Fgn)16 to binary number.
3. a) Explain 3 : 8 line decoder. Differentiate between decoder and demultiplexer.
Construct 532 decoder with two 416 decoder with enable input.
(82=16)
i) Minimize the four variable function and implement using universal gates.
f(A, B, C, D) = (A + B + C + D ) (A + C + D ) (A + B + C + D )
(B + C ) (B + C ) (A + B ) (B + D )
ii) Compare TT L, CMOS and ECL logic family
SLR-UM 117
-6-
*SLRUM117*
iii) Minimize and implement the following multiple output function by using
K-map
f1 = m (1, 2, 3, 6, 8, 12, 14, 15)
f2 = TIM (0, 4, 9, 10, 11, 14, 15)
(44=16)
a) Show that SR flip-flop can be used as D flip-flop.

b) Prove that the characteristic equation for SR flip-flop is Q+ = S + RQ.
c) Draw and explain 4-bit serial in serial out left shift register.
d) Write a short note on PLAs.
e) Compare Melay and Moore machines.
5. a) Design a 4 bit up/down ripple counter. Draw neat circuit diagram and waveform.

(82=16)
1) Design a mod-8 asynchronous counter using T flip-flop. Draw neat circuit
diagram and waveforms.
2) Draw a T flip-flop using NAND gates. Derive state diagram and an
excitation table for T flip-flop.
3) Derive the state table and the state diagram of the sequential circuit
shown below :
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 118
*SLRUM118*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

DATA STRUCTURE
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

1.
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) NULL pointer is used to tell

a) end of linked list
b) empty pointer field of a structure
c) the linked list is empty
d) all of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 118
*SLRUM118*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) List pointer variable in linked list contains address of the

a) following node in the list
b) current node in the list
c) first node in the list
3) A data structure in which insertion and delection can take place at both the
ends is called
a) deque
b) stack
c) circular queue
4) FRONT = 0 REAR = 1 pointer refers to empty

a) stack
b) queue
c) array
5) When the element is deleted from the rear end of the queue then ____________
a) Front is increased by 1
b) Rear is increased by 1
c) Front is decreased by 1
d) Rear is decreased by 1
6) The prefix notation of the expression A/B C+D is
a) + / A BCD
b) / + AB CD
c) AB / C D +
d) ABC / D +
7) For statically implemented circular queue of six elements if Front = 1 and
Rear = 2, what will be the value of front and rear after inserting two more
elements ?
a) F = 1, R = 2
b) F = 1, R = 4
c) F = 4, R = 1
d) F = 4, R = 4
*SLRUM118*
SLR-UM 118
-3-
8) Which of the following name does relate to stacks ?

a) FIFO lists
b) LIFO list
c) Piles
d) Push-down lists
9) When inorder traversing a tree resulted E A C K F H D B G; the preorder

traversal would return
a) FAEKCDBHG
b) FAEKCDHGB
c) EAFKHDCBG
d) FEAKDCHBG
10) The complexity of linear search algorithm is

a) O(n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)
11) Which of the following data structure is not linear data structure ?
a) Arrays
b) Linked lists
c) Both of above
d) None of above
12) The complexity of Binary search algorithm is

a) O(n)
b) O(log)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)

a) Sorting
b) Merging
c) Inserting
d) Traversal
14) The depth of a complete binary tree is given by

a) Dn = n log2n
b) Dn = n log2n + 1
c) Dn = log2n
d) Dn = log2n + 1
15) Which of the following sorting algorithm is of divide-and-conquer type ?

a) Bubble sort
b) Insertion sort
c) Quick sort
d) All of above
16) The BFS uses which of the following data structure to hold the nodes ?
a) stack
b) queue
c) Tree
SLR-UM 118
*SLRUM118*
-4-
17) If every node u in G is adjacent to every other node v in G, A graph is said to

be
a) isolated
b) complete
c) finite
d) strongly connected
18) Which of the following stack operations could result in stack underflow ?
a) Is-empty
b) Pop
c) Push
19) Singly linked list can be implemented by using

a) Dynamic allocation
b) Static allocation
c) Both a) and b)
20) A (n) _____________ graph is graph in which each vertex has a connection
to every other vertex.
a) Directed
b) Cyclic
c) Acyclic
d) Fully connected
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM118*
SLR-UM 118
Seat
No.

DATA STRUCTURE
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(54=20)
1) What is stack ? Mention the algorithm that are performed to put an element
on to a stack and remove an element from a stack.
2) Define data structure and explain the different data structure.
3) Obtain the prefix expression and post fix expression for the following
((A + (B C) * D) E + F )
4) Define recursive function and explain the problems associated with recursion.
5) What is priority queue ? How, it is different from an ordinary queue.
(102=20)
1) Write a C program to implement circular queue using array.

2) What is dynamic memory allocation ? Explain the algorithm for insertion and
deletion of a node from a specified location in a linked list.
3) Write a C program to implement queue using liked list.
SECTION II
1) Write a program for bubble sort.
2) Explain linear search with an example.
(54=20)
SLR-UM 118
-6-
*SLRUM118*
3) Define binary tree and mentioned its different variation.

4) Explain an iterative function to traverse the tree in preorder with an example.
5) For the given directed graph find the linked list representation of it.
(102=20)
1) What is collision ? Explain open addressing technique in detail.

2) Explain depth first search algorithm for graph traversal with example.
3) Explain the insertion and deletion algorithm on BST with example.
_____________________
SLR-UM 119
Code No.
S
*SLRUM119*
&
_
_
f
C
Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicates full marks.

Marks : 20
1. Choose correct option :
(201=20)
1) In case of d.c.motor starting current is high because

a) Va is maximum
b) Torque is maximum
c) Ra is made of copper
d) Eb is zero
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 119
*SLRUM119*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The main cause of poor lagging power factor is due to use of

a) filament lamp
b) resistive load
c) arc lamp
d) water heater
3) KW = ___________________ cos
a) kW
b) kVA/sin
c) kVA
d) kW/cos
4) Following is the method to control speed above normal value of d.c.

series motor.
a) field diverter
b) armature rheostat control
c) armature diverter
5) In case of d.c. shunt motor speed is proportional to

a) Ia
c) 1/Ish
b) Ish
d) 1/Ia
6) According to the principle of operation of a three phase induction

motor the air gap flux is _______________
a) stationary
b) pulsating
c) synchronously rotating
d) changing
7) If slip is 0.04 and P1 is rotor input then rotor copper loss of 3 ph. I. M. is
a) 0.04 P1
c) P1/0.04
b) P1
d) (1 0.04) P1
*SLRUM119*
SLR-UM 119
-3-
8) In practice, regenerative braking is used when

a) quick motor reversal is desired
b) load has overhauling characteristics
c) controlling elevators, rolling mills and printing presses etc.
d) other methods cannot be used
9) The capacity of V-V bank is _______________ times delta-delta bank
of three phase transformer connection.
a) 0.88
b) 0.50
c) 0.66
d) 0.57
10) Running torque of 3 phase induction motor becomes maximum when

slip is = ______________
a) R2/X2
c) X2/R2
b) R2 * X2
d) R2 + X2
11) In universal motor rotor is used

a) only on d.c. supply
b) only on a.c. supply
c) on both supply
12) In a 3 ph. I.M., synchronous speed is

a) 120 f/N
b) 120 P/f
c) N/(1 + s)
d) N/(1 s)
13) Synchro is basically a _______________

a) resister
b) transducer
c) capacitor
d) inductor
14) The synchronous speed of 24 pole, 120 Hz frequency I.M.

is __________ rpm.
a) 6000
b) 600
c) 1200
d) 2400
15) In T-T connection main transformer is having __________ % tapping

on both primary and secondary winding.
a) 86.6
b) 50
c) 100
d) 76.8
SLR-UM 119
*SLRUM119*
-4-
16) ___________ is the starter used for three phase, 2 hp I.M.

a) DOL starter
b) transformer starter
c) delta-star starter
d) rotor starter
17) The power factor of a squirrel cage I.M. is

a) low at light loads only
b) low at heavy load only
c) low at light and heavy loads both
d) low at rated load only
18) The back emf of a 250 V d.c. motor with armature resistance
1 and Ia 50 (Amp) is
a) 200V
b) 230V
c) 260V
d) 180V
19) Stepper motor is basically ______________ motor.

a) D.C. shunt
b) Synchronous motor
c) Slip ring 3 phase induction
d) Reluctance
20) 3-phase to 2-phase transformation is required for _____________

a) sub-station
b) transmission
c) distribution
d) welding
______________________
*SLRUM119*
-5-
SLR-UM 119
S.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL MACHINES (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(64=24)
a) Explain servo motor with neat diagram.

b) The following readings are obtained when doing brake load test on d.c. shunt
motor spring balance reading-10 kg and 35 kg, N = 950 (rpm), V = 200 (volt),
Imotor = 30 (amp) and diameter of the brake drum is 40 cm. Calculate output
power and the efficiency.
c) Compare group drive Vs individual drive.
d) Define the term back emf.
A d.c. motor connected to 460 (volt) supply has an armature resistance of
0.15 .
Calculate :
i) Back emf if Ia = 120 (A)
ii) Armature current if Eb = 447.4 (V).
e) Explain reluctance motor with neat diagram.

(82=16)
a) Draw neat circuit diagram and explain flux control methods used for speed
control of d.c. shunt motor.
b) A d.c. series motor runs at 500 (rpm) on a certain load. Calculate the resistance
of the field diverter to raise the speed to 625 (rpm), the developed torque
remains constant. Neglect magnetic saturation and ohmic drop in field armature
circuit. Take Rf = 0.054 .
OR
c) Explain no load test carried on for d.c. shunt motor and write merits demerits
of this test.
SLR-UM 119
-6-
*SLRUM119*
SECTION II
(64=24)
a) Explain following terms :

i) Slip
ii) Rotor current frequency and
iii) Synchronous speed for three phase induction motor.
b) Compare star-star and delta-delta 3-phase transformer connection.
c) A three phase, 50 (Hz) transformer has delta connected primary and star
connected secondary, the line voltages being 11(kv) and 440 (v) respectively.
The primary line current is 2 (Amp). Determine transformation ratio, primary
and secondary phase current.
d) Explain the causes and effect of low power factor.
e) A three phase induction motor is wound for 4 pole and supplied from 50 (Hz)
3-phase a.c. supply calculate (i) synchronous speed, (ii) the rotor speed
when slip is 4%, (iii) rotor current frequency when rotor rotates at 700 (rpm).
(82=16)
a) The power input to the stator of a 440 (Volt), 8 pole, 50 (Hz) three phase
induction motor is 82 (Kw) and stator losses are 2 (Kw). The rotor emf frequency
is 100 cycles per minute. Find (i) synchronous speed, (ii) slip, (iii) rotor speed
and (iv) rotor copper loss per phase.
b) Explain with neat diagram 3-phase to two phase transformation by using T-T
connection.
c) Derive relation between starting torque and maximum torque and condition
for maximum starting torque.
_____________________
*SLRUM12*
SLR-UM
12
SLR-UM
12
-1-
Seat
No.
Set
ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY (Group B)

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : i) All MCQ are compulsory.

ii) Each question carries one mark.
iii) MCQ should be solved in first 30 min. in OMR Sheet given.
MCQ/Objective Question Paper
Marks : 20
20
1) Hard water can be softened by passing it through

A) Zeolite
B) Ion-exchange resin
C) Semipermeable membrane
D) All of these
2) Activated sludge process of sewage treatment is ____________ process.
A) Aerobic
B) Anaerobic C) Chlorination D) Disinfection
3) Which of the following is used as disinfectant ?
A) Chlorine
B) Bleaching powder
C) Chloramine
D) All of these
4) In silver-lead system, the composition at eutectic point is
A) 2% Ag ; 98% Pb
B) 4% Ag ; 96% Pb
C) 2.6% Ag ; 97.4% Pb
D) 2.6% Pb ; 97.4% Ag
5) The homogeneous mixture of different gases in atmosphere is
A) One component system
B) One phase system
C) Two component system
D) Two phase system
6) A good lubricant should have
A) Low V.I.
B) High V.I.
C) Low fire point
D) Low flash point
7) A lubricating oil with highest aniline point means the oil contains minimum
_________________
A) Aromatic hydrocarbon
B) Aliphatic hydrocarbon
C) Long chain hydrocarbon
D) None of these
P.T.O.
Set A
SLR-UM 12
*SLRUM12*
-2-
8) Thinner are added to paint to

A) Reduce cost at the paint
B) Provide main film forming constituent
C) Improve drying quality of the oil film
D) Reduce viscosity to a suitable consistency
9) In acidic corroding medium, corrosion of metal takes place by
B) O2 absorption mechanism
A) H2 evolution mechanism
D) O2 evolution mechanism
C) H2 absorption mechanism
10) At highest temperature, rate of atmospheric corrosion ___________
A) Decreases
B) Remains constant
C) Increases
D) Can not be predicted
11) Mild steel contains carbon in the range of
A) 0.15 to 1.5%
B) 0.15 to 0.30%
C) 0.30 to 0.80%
D) 0.80 to 1.5%
12) The main constituent of safety glass is
C) Vinyl Plastic D) Boron
A) CaO
B) SiO2
13) Presence of alcohol in blood is detected by a technique, known as
A) UV spectroscopy
B) pH-metry
C) Gas chromatography
D) None of these
14) The amount of nitrogen in coal is determined by
A) Proximate analysis
B) Ultimate analysis
C) Burning it in air
15) A Polymer-Polyurethane is used for
A) Heart valves
B) Blood filters
16) Wrought iron is
A) Ductile
B) Malleable
17) Solid fuel can be used

A) In internal combustion engine
C) In jet engine
C) Artificial hearts
C) Weldable
D) All of them
D) All are correct
B) In diesel engine
D) For heating boilers
18) Decrease in mass of a sample with rise in temperature is measured by

A) Thermogravimetric analysis
B) Gas chromatography
C) Colorimetry
19) A plastic which can be softened on heating and hardened on coding is called
A) Thermo elastic
B) Thermo plastic
C) Thermo setting
20) Glass with low thermal co-efficient and high chemical resistance is
A) Soda Glass
B) Hard Glass
C) Flint Glass
D) Boro silicate Glass
_______________
Set A
*SLRUM12*
-3-
SLR-UM 12
Instructions : i) Attempt all questions.

ii) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary.
iii) Figures to right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
20
a) Define reverse osmosis. Explain the process of water softening by reverse

osmosis.
b) Explain Ag-Pb system using phase diagram.
c) Write a note on semisolid lubricants (grease).
d) Define varnish. Give its types, properties and applications.
e) A sample of water on analysis was found to contain following impurities in ppm.
Impurities
Amount
Mole. wt.
Ca(HCO3)2
30
162
Mg(HCO3)2
CaCl2
20
25
146
111
MgCl2
15
95
Calculate temporary, permanent and total hardness.

3. A) i) Explain anaerobic process for domestic waste water treatment.
ii) Explain metastable equilibrium in water system.
OR
A) i) Define lubricant. Explain boundary (thin) film lubrication.
ii) Describe cathodic protection of prevention of corrosion by sacrificial
anode method.
4
4
4
4
B) Attempt any two :

1) Explain any three types of liquid lubricants.
2) a) Explain galvanization process of metallic coating for prevention of

corrosion.
b) State Gibbs phase rule.

3) a) Explain the mechanism of corrosion by oxygen absorption.
b) Define (i) Scale (ii) Sludge.
2
4
2
Set A
SLR-UM 12
*SLRUM12*
-4-
SECTION II
20
a) Write differences between Cis and trans variety of natural rubber.
b) Define a Alloy. Write any four purposes of alloying with suitable examples.
c) Explain extrusion method of moulding of plastic into articles.
d) Write chemical composition of Portland cement. Explain functions of each
component of Portland cement.
e) Define propellant. How are they classified ?
f) Following observations were made by Bomb calorimeter.
Wt. of coal burnt = 1.2 gm.
Wt. of water taken in calorimeter = 1200 gm.
Rise in temp. = 2.50C.
Fuse wire correction = 8.0 Cal.
Acid correction = 25.0 Cal.
Cooling correction = 0.022C.
Percentage of hydrogen = 6.0%.
Latent heat of steam = 580 Cal/gm.
Calculate Gross and Net Calorific value of Coal.
5. A)
i) Define Thermogravimetric Analysis (TGA). Explain its instrumentation

and applications with suitable diagram.
ii) Tetrafluoroethylene on polymerization form polytetrafluoroethylene of
mol. wt. 15,750. Calculate the degree of polymerization.
Mol. wt. CF2 = CF2 = 100

n CF2= CF2 ( CF2 CF2 )n
OR
A) i) Write differences between natural rubber and vulcanized rubber.
ii) Write a note on Fibre-reinforced plastic.
2
4
4
B) Solve any two :

1) i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of Boys calorimeter.
ii) Differentiate between Gaseous and Solid fuel.
3
3
2) i) What is the weight of NaCl required to prepare 500 ml. of 0.07 N and
0.04 M NaCl solution mol.wt. NaCl = 58.5 ?
( )
ii) Define number average mol.wt Mn .

3) i) Explain manufacture of Glass (Soda Glass) by Tank Furnace.
ii) Write only importance of proximate analysis of fuel.
____________
2
4
2
Set A
Code No. SLR-UM 120

Seat
No.
*SLRUM120*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN II (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Assume suitable data if required.
Use of data sheet allowed.
Figures to right indicate maximum marks.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct answer :
20
1) In multistage amplifier power gains of three individual stages are 100, 400
and 800 respectively. The overall power gain in dB will be __________
b) 705.05 dB
a) 75.05 dB
c) 750.5 dB
d) 0.70 dB
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 120
*SLRUM120*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) A multistage amplifier consists of 3 similar stages. If each stage has

RC = 2.4 k , Rin = 1 k , B = 60. The overall gain of amplifier AV = ________
a) 129.50
b) 12.95
c) 1295
d) 1.295
3) A power amplifier is a power converter which converts ___________ under

control of I/P signal.
a) AC power into DC power
b) DC power into AC power
c) DC power into DC power
d) AC power into AC power
4) Class AB operation is often used in power amplifiers in order to _________

a) get more efficiency
b) overcome crossover distortion
c) remove even harmonics
d) reduce collector dissipation
5) Transformer coupling provides high efficiency because
a) collector voltage is stepped up
b) dc resistance in collector circuit is low
c) collector voltage is stepped down
d) flux linkages are incomplete
6) An amplifier circuit has an overall current gain of 100 and input resistance of
10 k with RL of 1 k . The overall voltage gain of the amplifier is
a) 5 dB
b) 10 dB
c) 20 dB
d) 40 dB
7) The oscillator circuit that uses a tapped coil in a tuned circuit is

a) Colpitts oscillator
b) Hartley oscillator
c) Crystal oscillator
d) Wein-bridge
*SLRUM120*
SLR-UM 120
-3-
8) In an amplifier if you employ voltage shunt negative feedback, then

a) The gain increases
b) Bandwidth decreases
c) I/P and O/P impedance decreases
d) I/P and O/P impedance increases
9) A crystal oscillator provides very stable frequency because of
a) high stability of crystal
b) rigid crystal structure
c) low XL/R ratio of crystal
d) high Q of crystal
10) The gain of amplifier in RC phase shift oscillator should be

b) Greater than 29
a) 1
c) Less than unity
d) 1/29
11) The power supply has no load voltage and full load voltage of 25 V and
20 V resp. Then % load regulation is
a) 2.5%
b) 25%
c) 250%
d) 0.25%
12) The value of R1 to deliver the 0.5 A current to load of 10 using 7805 with
IQ = 4.3 mA.
a) 10
b) 100
c) 1 k
d) 10 k
13) Output voltage of variable voltage circuit shown below is
a) 2.754 V
b) 27.54 V
c) 275.4 V
d) 0.2754 V
14) Duty cycle of 74121 with Rint is

a) 67%
c) 0.67
b) 6.7%
d) both a) and c)
15) In 8038 peak to peak amplitude of triangular wave is

a) 0.11 Vcc
b) 0.22 Vcc
c) 0.33 Vcc
d) 3.33 Vcc
SLR-UM 120
*SLRUM120*
-4-
16) The symbol given below represents
a) N channel depletion type MOSFET

b) N channel FET
c) P channel enhancement type MOSFET
d) N channel enhancement type MOSFET
17) A JFET amplifier has gm = 2.5 m and rd = 500 k . The load resistance is
10 k . Then voltage gain of amplifier is
a) 2.45
b) 0.245
c) 245
d) 24.5
18) The value of capacitor C for getting pulse width of 100 msec and 6.1 k
resistance for monostable multivibrator using IC 555 is
a) 1.5 f
b) 15 f
c) 150 f
d) 0.15 f
19) If charging time of astable multivibrator is two times more than discharging
time. Then duty cycle D is
a) 66.67%
b) 6.67%
c) 0.67%
d) 670%
20) The drain current in pinch off region is given by the relation
a) ID = IDSS 1 + VGS
VP
V
c) ID = IDSS 1 GS
VP
VP
b) ID = IDSS 1 +
V
GS
V
d) ID = IDSS 1 P
VGS
______________
-5-
*SLRUM120*
SLR-UM 120
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

Use of data sheet allowed.
Figures to right indicate maximum marks.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Explain working of complementary symmetry push pull amplifier.

b) Draw the circuit for Hartley oscillator and derive the expression for its frequency
of oscillations.
c) An amplifier has an input of 10 mV and a gain of 200 without feedback. The
distortion produced at the output of amplifier is 10%. It is desired to reduce
the distortion to 1%, by using negative feedback. Calculate gain and O/P
voltage with feedback.
d) Explain negative feedback amplifier and derive expression for its closed loop
gain.
e) A class B push pull amplifier must deliver low of audio power to the O/P load.
i) If the output transformer is 80% efficient, what is minimum power drain on
the power supply under optimum condition.
ii) What is minimum average dissipation rating required for each transistor ?
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Design a single stage common emitter current series feedback using transistor
2N3904.
VCC = 24 V, RL = 120 k , fL = 100 Hz, hfe = 100, hie = 1 k , AV = 70 and
Rs = 600 .
b) Design a Wein bridge oscillator using transistor for fo = 10 Hz to 100 kHz with
peak output of 5 V at RL = 1 k load. Use VCC = 12 V, use BC 147 B
hfe = 330.
SLR-UM 120
-6-
*SLRUM120*
c) Determine input impedance, output impedance, voltage gain for the 1st stage,
2nd stage and overall gain in dB for two stage RC coupled amplifier shown in
fig. RL = 10 k , hie = 1.1 k hfe = 50, hre = hoe = 0.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Design a constant current source that will deliver a 0.5 A current to a 25 ,

low load.
b) Design a 555 timer as an astable multivibrator with an output signal frequency
of 800 Hz and 60% duty cycle.
c) Explain duel regulated output voltage power supply.
d) Explain the four distinct regions of the output characteristics of JFET.
e) Explain working of 8038 function generator.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Sketch the cross sectional view of an N channel enhancement mode MOSFET.

Explain its operations and characteristics. Compare enhancement type and
depletion type MOSFET.
b) Explain features thermal shutdown, short circuit protection and foldback current
limiting circuit of IC voltage regulator.
c) Draw internal block diagram of monostable multivibrator and derive expression
for output pulse width. Design a timer to control heater from the time durations
1 sec to 100 sec using relay of 12 V/150 mA.
______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 121
*SLRUM121*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ANALOG COMMUNICATION (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions : 1) All quesitons are compulsory.

Marks : 20
20
1) A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves with modulation

indices of 0.3 and 0.4 the total modulation index will be
a) 0.5
b) 0.7
c) 1
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 121
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM121*
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) In a low level amplitude modulation system, the amplifier following the modulated
stage must be
a) Linear device
b) Non linear device
c) Harmonics device
d) Class C amplifier
3) Thermal noise voltage in a resistor R is given by

a)
4RkTB
c) TBk2
b) kTB
d) None
4) Which of the noise does not occur in transistor

a) short noise
b) flicker noise
c) partition noise
d) resistance noise
5) In an amplitude modulated waveform the amplitude of side bands is ________________

a) independent of the carrier amplitude
b) independent of the modulation index
c) carrier amplitude x modulation index
d) 1/2 carrier amplitude x modulation index
6) An amplitude modulated voltage in volts is given by v = 20 (1 + 0.5 sin 6280 t)
sin(6.28 106)t, the rms value of the unmodulated carrier voltage in volts
is ______________
a) 20
b) 20/2
c) 10
d) 10/2
*SLRUM121*
-3-
SLR-UM 121
7) The relation between carrier power and total power in an AM wave is

m2
a) PC = PT 1 +
m2
b) PC = PT 1 +
m2
c) PT = PC 1 +
m2
d) PT = PC 1 +
8) In superhetrodyne receiver the frequency of local oscillator is ____________

a) higher than the incoming signal frequency
b) lower than the incoming signal frequency
c) equal to the incoming signal frequency
d) none of above
9) Other name for AM is _____________
a) Double Sideband Single carrier
b) Double Sideband Full carrier
c) Double Sideband Signal carrier
d) Double Sideband Suppressed carrier
10) In a radio receiver with simple AGC
a) the highest AGC voltage is produced between stations
b) an increase signal strength produces more AGC
c) audio stage gain is normally controlled by the AGC
d) the faster the AGC time constant, the more accurate the output
11) For broadcasting purposes full AM signal is preferred to SSB signal
because
a) it requires large bandwidth
b) it requires small bandwidth
c) generation of full AM is easier
d) detection of full AM is simpler
12) High intermediate frequency in a superhetrodyne receiver
a) increases tracking problems
b) improves selectivity
c) reduces adjacent channel rejection
d) none of these
SLR-UM 121
-4-
*SLRUM121*
13) In PM, the frequency deviation is proportional to

a) only modulating frequency
b) both amplitude and frequency
c) only amplitude of modulating signal
d) antenna height
14) Which of the following statement is not valid for Amstong modulation
system ?
a) the system is basically PM not FM
b) AFC is not needed as a crystal oscillator is used
c) frequency multiplication must be used
d) equalization is unnecessary
15) Broadcasting antenna are generally
a) omni directional antenna
b) vertical type
c) horizontal type
d) any of these
16) During day time, the ionosphere consists of

a) D, E, F layers
b) D, E, F1 layers
c) D, E, F2 layers
d) D, E, F1, F2 layers
17) The ionosphere plays a significant role in radio wave propagation at

a) high frequency
b) ultra high frequency
c) microwaves frequencies
d) optical frequencies
18) In telephone the frequency of ringing tone is

a) 33 Hz
b) 133 Hz
c) 400 Hz
d) None
19) Number of call attempts in a busy hour is called _____________

a) Busy Hour Call Attempts
b) Call Completion Rate
c) Busy Hour Calling Rate
d) Traffic Intensity
20) The important parameter for estimation of Traffic intensity are/is

a) average call arrival rate
b) average holding time per call
c) both a) and b)
d) none of these
_____________________
*SLRUM121*
-5-
SLR-UM 121
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
16
a) Why modulation is required ?

b) What are the different types of communication channels ?
c) A radio receiver with 10 kHz bandwidth has a noise figure of 30dB. Determine
the signal power required at input of receiver to achieve SNR of 30 dB.
d) Draw and explain superhetrodyne receiver.
e) Define Bandwidth. The resonant frequency of RF amplifier of a receiver is a
1MHz and its bandwidth is 10 KHz. What is the Q Factor ?
24
a) The output voltage of a transmitter is given by 400(1+0.4 sin 6280 t) sin 3.14 107 t,
this voltage is fed to a load of 600 resistance.
Determine :
(a) carrier frequency
(b) modulating frequency
(c) carrier power
(d) total power output
(e) peak power output.
b) Draw and explain the two stage IF amplifier. State the factor consider in choice of
intermediate frequency.
SLR-UM 121
-6-
*SLRUM121*
c) What is Bandwidth requirement of AM wave ? Explain with suitable diagram and

examples of -Single Modulating Signal and Voice Modulating Signal.
d) Derive an expression for noise equivalent resistance due to cascading of many
amplifiers.
SECTION II
16
a) The carrier swing of a frequency modulated signal is 70 KHz and the modulating
signal is a 7 KHz sine wave determine the modulation index of the FM signal.
b) Explain pre-emphasis and de emphasis in brief.
c) What is sidetone circuit ? Why it is required ? With suitable diagram explain it.
d) Define characteristics of antenna.
e) Explain Sky wave propagation.
5. Attempt any three :
24
a) With suitable circuit diagram explain a frequency modulation of a crystal

oscillator with a varactor diode.
b) What are the limitations of a basic slope detector are overcome by a balanced
slope detector ? Explain with a circuit diagram and characteristic curve.
c) With suitable example explain output Controlled Time Division Space Switch.
d) Explain a typical centralized SPC organization.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 122
*SLRUM122*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

LINEAR INTEGRATED CIRCUITS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
For Office Use only
Code No.
__________________ (Paper - ________)

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) For input bias current compensating resistor R OM =

a) IB1 and IB2
c) R1 and RF
XY
X and Y are
X+ Y
b) Vin and IB1

d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 122
*SLRUM122*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Output offset voltage changes with

a) Temperature
b) Time
c) Supply voltage
d) All of these
3) The gain of the op amp remains constant from 0 Hz upto _________

a) Corner frequency
b) Break frequency
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of a) and b)
4) Slew rate =
2fVX
V / S . In this equation X is _________
10 6
a) Vio
b) VP
c) Vsat
d) VEE
5) Which of below is not a block inside Op amp ?

a) Differential amplifier
b) Level shifter
c) Series resonating circuit
d) Push pull amplifier
6) If for a 741 Op Amp in open loop with appropriate supply, pin 2 is connected
to ground and pin 3 is connected to 1 V DC, the output will be
a) +Vsat
b) Vsat
c) +Vcc
d) Not sufficient data
7) Which of below is not a feature of an ideal Op Amp ?

a) Infinite slew rate
b) Infinite CMRR
c) Infinite output resistance
d) Infinite voltage gain
*SLRUM122*
SLR-UM 122
-3-
8) A current series negative feedback amplifier is

a) I to V converter
b) V to I converter
c) Inverting voltage follower
d) No such circuit exists
9) Make odd man out: UGB, small signal bandwidth, unity gain cross over
frequency, break frequency
a) UGB
b) Small signal bandwidth
c) Unity gain cross over frequency
d) Break frequency
10) In a multistage Op Amp the total gain in dB is __________ of individual stage
gains and total phase shift is ____________ of individual stage phase shift.
a) Multiplication, addition
b) Addition, addition
c) Multiplication, Multiplication
d) Addition, subtraction
11) Phase lag and phase lead are the most commonly used __________
a) Phase correctors
b) Op Amp responses
c) Compensating networks
d) None of these
12) A high frequency Op Amp equivalent circuit differs from a low frequency
Op Amp equivalent circuit by
a) Addition of resistor
b) Change of gain
c) Addition of a capacitor
d) No change
13) For 741 maximum phase shift that can occur with change in frequency is _______
a) 45
b) 90
c) 180
d) Insufficient data
14) Maximum operating frequency of 565 PLL is __________

a) 50 KHz
b) 500 KHz
c) 5 MHz
d) 50 MHz
SLR-UM 122
*SLRUM122*
-4-
15) For a first order low pass filter if fH is 1 KHz, passband gain is 2 and
C = 0.01 F, value of R is __________
a) 1.59 K
b) 1 K
c) 11.9 K
d) None of these
16) For a log amplifier, __________ can be used in a feedback path.

a) Diode
b) Transistor
c) Non linear device
d) All of these
2R1 + R 2
, we are talking about
17) If we write, T = 2RC ln
R2
a) Square wave generator

b) Third order low pass filter
c) Second order high pass filter
d) No such circuit exists
18) No other filter of equal order can have a faster transition in gain between the
passband and the stop band, for the given values of ripple than __________
filter.
a) Chebyshev
b) Butterworth
c) Elliptical
d) None of these
19) High Pass Filter is designed by interchanging __________ of low pass filter.
a) R1 and R2
b) R and C
c) Both a) and b)
20) Make odd man out : SE/NE 560, 564, 565, 566.
a) 560
b) 564
c) 565
d) 566
______________________
*SLRUM122*
-5-
SLR-UM
122
SLR-UM
122
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Draw and explain Op Amp equivalent circuit. Justify how it is useful with
an example.
OR
b) Explain source, effect and significance of each Input Bias Current, Input
offset current, Input offset voltage, Thermal drift.
c) Explain below circuit in detail. Sketch waveforms at input and output.
What are applications of this circuit ?
8
8
d) Explain ideal differentiator. What are its problems ? How they can be overcome ? 8
3. Draw and explain any four circuits of below :
a) Differential amplifier with one Op Amp.
b) Sample and hold.
c) Positive clipper.
d) Schmitt trigger.
e) Summing and scaling amplifier.
(44=16)
SLR-UM 122
-6-
*SLRUM122*
SECTION II
4. a) With suitable diagram and waveforms explain a square and triangular wave
generator.
OR
b) With suitable diagram and explain log and antilog amplifier.
c) For the circuit shown below, answer what this circuit is for ? Explain in
detail. Find out related frequency. Comment on the component value selection
and sketch waveforms at output.
d) With suitable diagram explain frequency multiplier, its applications and one
application in detail.
5. Solve any four :
(44=16)
a) Draw and explain voltage to current converter with floating load.

b) What are the two requirements for oscillations ?
c) What is all pass filter ? Where it is used ?
d) With suitable block diagram explain VCO.
e) What are the features of PLL ?
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 123
Seat
No.
*SLRUM123*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2014

SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) A zero input and zero output indicates a system to be

a) Invertible
b) Non causal
c) Linear
d) Non-linear
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 123
*SLRUM123*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) If y(n) x(n) = x(n) y(n) is the ___________ property of convolution.

a) Commutative
b) Differential
c) Integral
d) Associative
3) The integral of unit impulse signal gives

a) Impulse
b) Unit step
c) Train of impulses
d) None
4) y(t) = x(t 3) is
a) Causal
b) Invertible
c) Causal and invertible
d) Memory less
5) The basic singularity function is

a) Unit step
b) Unit impulse
c) Impulse
d) Signum function
6) For m(t) = e t, a periodic signal with T0 = 1 sec. a0 =

a) 1 + e 1
b) 1 e 1
c) 1 + e+1
d) 1 e+1
7) The relation between trigonometric and exponential Fourier series can

be given as
a) Cn C n
c) Cn + C n
b) J(Cn C n)
d) J(Cn + C n)
8) Fourier series coefficient bn indicates

a) DC component
b) Cosine components
c) Sine components
d) Variable term
*SLRUM123*
SLR-UM 123
-3-
9) In sampling, time period Ts should be

a) <
1
2Bm
b)
1
2Bm
c) >
1
2Bm
d)
1
2Bm
10) In case of Fourier transform x(t ) e
jw t
a) X(w wo )
b) X(w + wo )
c) 1X (w wo )
d) 1X (w + wo )
11) For half wave rectified signal, o =

a) 1
b) 2
c) 12
d)
12) x(n) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} has ROC
a) Except z = 0 and z =
b) Except z = 0
c) Except =
d) Z = 0 only
13) In Fourier transform
dn
[x(t)] =
dt n
a) (jw ) n X ( w )
c)
(jw)n
X(w)
b)
(jw ) n
n
d) (jw)
X( w )
X(w)
14) Interpolation is the process of

a) Reconstruction of samples
b) Sampling CT signal
c) Correlation
d) Locating poles of system
SLR-UM 123
*SLRUM123*
-4-
15) If x(n) X(z) then x (n) =
( )
a) X( z)
b) X 1z
c) 1X(z)
d) X(z)
16) The sync function can be defined as SINC (x) =

a)
sin x
x
b)
sinx
x
c)
sin x
x
sin x
d) SINC
17) IFT of unity is

a) (w)
b) (w)
c) 2(w)
d) Unit step signal
18) For a sequence having single pole on unit circle in ROC, the sequence is
a) signed decaying
b) signed growing
c) signed constant
d) growing
19) In residue method, for second order pole, we have to differentiate

a) twice
b) once
c) never
d) thrice
n
20) For x(n) = a u(n) , x(z) is
a)
z
z+a
1
c)
1 + az 1
b)
1
1 az 1
az 1
d)
1 + az 1
_____________
*SLRUM123*
-5-
SLR-UM 123
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
a) Find even and odd parts of signal and verify result :
b) Check stability of system
c) Convolve the signals given below :

x(n) = u(n)
y(n) = (0.5)n u(n) .
d) Explain the following properties of system :

1) Linear
2) Time Invariance.
e) If x(t) =
Sketch :
i) x( t ) (t 3 2 )
ii) x(t) u (3 t ) .
(45=20)
SLR-UM 123
*SLRUM123*
-6-
3. Solve any one :
(110=10)
1) The impulse response of system is given below :

h(t) = e3t u(t 1). Check causality of system and dynamicity of same.
2) Compute convolution of following sequences :
x(t) = u(t 3) u(t 5) , y(t ) = e 2 t u( t ) .
4. Solve any one :
i) A system is defined as
(110=10)
x(t ) = 0
= 1
=1
= 4 2t
for
t < 2
for 2 t 0
for 0 < t < 1
for
1< t < 2
Sketch :
i) x 4 t 2
ii) x(2t + 1).

ii) Realise the following system by canonical direct form I and II
y (n) = 3y(n 3) + 4y(n 1) + 5x(n 2) + 6x(n 4).
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Draw amplitude and phase spectrum of rectangular pulse train shown in Fig.
2) Find z transform and sketch R.O.C. of sequence

x(n) = u( n 1).
*SLRUM123*
-7-
SLR-UM 123
3) Find continuous spectrum of non periodic gate function if

(t) = 1 for 1 < t < 1
= 0 elsewhere
4) State and explain R.O.C. properties of z transform.

5) An analog signal is m(t) = 4 cos 100 t, Calculate sampling frequency, and if
signal is sampled at 75 Hz, what will be the DT signal after sampling ?
6. Solve any two :
(210=20)
i) State and prove following properties of z transform :

1) Convolution
2) Differentiation.
ii) For LTI system, input and impulse response are given as
x(t ) = e bt u( t) and h( t ) = e at u( t ) , a, b > 0, a 0 .
Find the response of system in time and frequency domain.

iii) Explain the effect of undersampling. What is the situation, it occurs ? What is
solution to overcome undersampling ? Also explain the reconstruction process
of CT signals from samples.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
124
*SLRUM124*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------S.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL MACHINES (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) In case of three phase induction motor for speeds closer to synchronism,

torque is _______________
a) Proportional to slip
b) Inversely proportional to slip
c) Independent of slip

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 124
*SLRUM124*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The power factor of the induction motor is

a) Unity
b) 0
c) Lagging
3) According to two wattmeter method formula for total active power is

a) W1 + W2
b) W1 W2
c) W1/W2
4) In _______________ braking, electrical energy is not returned back to grid.

a) Rheostat
b) Plugging
c) Both
5) According to the principle of operation of a induction motor the air gap flux
in following induction motor is not rotating.
a) Three phase
b) Two phase
c) Both
6) In Ward Leonard system of speed control is achieved by varying

a) Flux of generator
b) Speed of generator
c) Load on motor
d) Slip regulator position
7) In case of DC shunt motor speed is proportional to

a) Flux
b) Armature current
c) Armature voltage
d) Back emf
*SLRUM124*
SLR-UM 124
-3-
8) If R2 is rotor resistance and X2 is rotor reactance at standstill, then rotor

reactance at running condition is
a) S X2
c) S/X2
b) X2
d) X2/s
9) In case of auto transformer of copper saving is _______________ times weight

of two winding transformer.
a) K
b) (1 K)
c) (1 + K)
d) 1/K
10) Brake load test is

a) No load test
b) Full load test
c) O. C. test
d) S. C. test
11) Following 3-phase transformer connection is suitable for 3-phase to 2-phase

conversion
a) T-T
b) Star-delta
c) Star-star
d) Delta-delta
12) _______________ is the starter used for d.c. shunt motor when speed control
at very high speed is required.
a) 3-point starter
b) 4-point starter
c) 5-point starter
d) Drum type
13) Potential transformer is used for stepping

a) Up of low value of current
b) Up of low value of voltage
c) Down of high value of current
d) Down of high value of voltage
14) In case of DOL starter following protection is given
a) Over voltage
b) Over current
c) Both a) and b)
SLR-UM 124
*SLRUM124*
-4-
15) In case two wattmeter method power, if one wattmeter reads zero then power
factor is _______________
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) 0.8
d) 1
16) For traction following motor is used

a) DC shunt motor
b) DC series motor
c) Both a) and b)
17) The current drawn by a 200 V, four pole of d.c. series motor is 10 Amp, motor
resistance is of 1 ohm then back emf is _______________ V.
a) 195
b) 200
c) 210
d) 190
18) _______________ motor is modified as universal motor.

a) AC series
b) DC shunt
c) 1-phase induction
d) Shaded pole
19) In linear induction motor stator is

a) Round
b) Flat
c) Zig-zag
20) The two windings of a transformer are

a) Conductively linked
b) Inductively linked
c) Not linked at all
d) Electrically linked
__________________
*SLRUM124*
-5-
SLR-UM 124
Seat
No.

ELECTRICAL MACHINES (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(64=24)
a) Explain with neat diagram armature rheostat method used for speed control
of DC shunt motor.
b) Draw neat diagram and explain wind power generation.
c) Two wattmeters connected to measure the input to a balanced three phase
load indicate 5 kwatts and 1 kwatt respectively. Find power factor of the
circuit :
1) When both readings are positive and
2) When the latter reading was obtained after reversing the connection to the
current coil of wattmeter.
d) Explain dynamic braking used for d.c. series and shunt motor.
e) The following readings are obtained when doing brake load test on d.c. shunt
motor spring balance reading 10 kg and 35 kg, N = 950 (rpm), V = 200
(volt), Imotor = 30 (amp) and diameter of the brake drum is 40 cm.
Calculate output power and the efficiency.
3. a) Derive relation for armature torque. Determine torque developed in armature
of 250 (v), 4 pole series motor with 782 armature conductors wave connected
and taking 40 (amp) from mains. The flux per pole is 25 (mwb) and
Rmotor = 0.75 (ohm)
(82=16)
OR
a) Explain with neat diagram Ward Leonard speed control method used for d.c.
shunt motor.
b) Draw neat diagram and explain working of three point starter.
SLR-UM 124
-6-
*SLRUM124*
SECTION II
(64=24)
a) Compare group drive Vs individual drive.

b) Discuss disadvantages of low power factor.
c) A three phase, 50 (Hz) transformer has delta connected primary and star
connected secondary, the line voltages being 22 (kv) and 400 (v) respectively.
The primary line current is 5 (Amp). Determine transformation ratio, primary
and secondary phase current.
d) A 4 pole, 50 (Hz) three phase induction motor running with speed 1440 (rpm).
Find speed of stator flux, slip and rotor current frequency for this condition.
e) Derive the relation starting torque and maximum torque.
(82=16)
a) The power input to a 6 pole, 500 (Volt), 50 (Hz) three phase induction motor is
40 kw and speed is 975 rpm. The stator losses are 1 kw and mechanical
losses are 2 kw. Find slip, the rotor copper losses, shaft power and the
efficiency.
b) Explain with neat diagram 1-phase shaded pole induction motor.
c) Explain with diagram torque slip characteristics of three phase induction motor.
________________
Code No.
*SLR-UM-125*
SLR-UM 125
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ELECTRONICS CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN II (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions : 1) All the questions are compulsory.

2) MCQ answersheet has to be submitted after first 30 minutes.
5) Use of electronic data sheet is allowed.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 125
*SLR-UM-125*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W

Marks : 20
1. Multiple choice questions :
20
1) Consider the following statements :

Transformer coupling is preferable to R-C Coupling because it
I. Can also be made to match input and output impedances
II. Results in better frequency response
III. Reduces the amplitude distortion
IV. Reduces the no. of stages for achieving same power gain as compared to
R-C coupled stages
Of these statements :
a) I and II are correct
b) II and III are correct
c) III and IV are correct
d) I and IV are correct
2) Four CB stages were cascaded together to get an overall gain of 100. Assuming
that cascading is direct, what will be the gain per stage ?
a) 100
b) 25
c) 1001/4
d) Indeterminate
*SLR-UM-125*
SLR-UM 125
-3-
3) Using transistors
1) Class A power amplifier has a minimum efficiency of 50%
2) Class B push pull power amplifier gives rise to crossover distortion
3) Class AB push pull power amplifier has higher efficiency than class B push pull
amplifier
4) Class C power amplifier is generally used with tuned load for RF amplification
a) 1), 2), 3) and 4)
b) 2) and 4) only
c) 3) and 4) only
d) 1) and 2) only
4) The lower 3-dB frequency of an n-stage amplifier with non-interacting stages

is given by
a)
c)
fL
1
n
2 1
fL
1
n
2n
b) fL
1
n
2 1
d) f
L
1
n
2n
5) A transconductance amplifier has

a) High input impedance low output impedance
b) Low input impedance high output impedance
c) High input and output impedances
d) Low input and output impedances
SLR-UM 125
-4-
*SLR-UM-125*
6) Consider the following statements :

When darlington circuit and normal single stage emitter followers are compared
1) Both have near unity voltage gain
2) Both have equal current gain
3) Darlington circuit has higher output resistance
4) Emitter follower has lower input resistance
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
a) 1) only
b) 1) and 4) only
c) 2) and 4) only
d) 1), 2), 3) and 4)
7) The power dissipation of class C amplifier is normally _____________
a) Very low
b) Very high
c) Same as class B
d) Same as class A
8) A certain class A power amplifier has VCEQ = 12V and ICQ = 1A The
maximum signal power o/p is ___________ Watt.
a) 6
b) 12
c) 1
d) 0.707
*SLR-UM-125*
-5-
SLR-UM 125
9) In common emitter amplifier resistor is added in emitter ____________

a) To increase input resistance
b) To decrease voltage gain
c) To decrease stability
10) Negative feedback reduces distortion in an amplifier only when it ___________
a) Comes as a part of i/p signal
b) Is a part of its o/p
c) Is generated within the amplifier
d) Exceeds a certain safe level
11) Pre regulator circuit is
a) Stability improvement circuit
b) Constant current source
c) High output impedance circuit
d) All above
12) In transistorized regulator circuit darlingtion pair is used
a) For large output current
b) For stability improvement
c) Both a) and b)
d) For protection purpose
SLR-UM 125
*SLR-UM-125*
-6-
13) The output voltage of LM337 as adjustable regulator is

a) Vo = Vref 1 + RL + Iadj R2
R1
b) Vo = Vref 1 RL + Iadj RL
R1
c) Vo = Vref 1 RL Iadj R2
R1
d) Vo = Vref 1 + RL Iadj R2
R1
14) Load regulation indicates

a) Change in load voltage due to change in line voltage
b) Change in load voltage when load current changes from no load to
full load
c) Change in line voltage due to change in load voltage
d) Both a) and c)
15) In monostable multivibrator R = 10K pulse width = 10 ms then selected
value C is
a) 1 f
b) 0.01 f
c) 0.1 f
d) 1pf.
16) If charging time of astable multivibrator is two times more than discharging
time then the duty cycle = _____________
a) 50%
b) 66.67%
c) 75%
17) It is required to stretch a 100 sec pulse to duration of 5msec. An appropriate

circuit to be used for this is
a) Bistable multivibrator
b) Astable multivibrator
c) Schmitt trigger
d) Monostable multivibrator
*SLR-UM-125*
SLR-UM 125
-7-
18) If requirement of oscillation KAv 1 is met at only one particular frequency

______________ will results.
a) Sinusoidal oscillator
b) None relaxation oscillator
c) Harmonic oscillator
d) All above
19) If K = 2% and Av = 100 circuit will oscillate ?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Circuit becomes under damped
d) Circuit becomes critical damped
20) _________________ oscillator uses positive and negative feed back.
a) RC phase shift
b) Wien Bridge
c) Hartly
d) Colpits
______________________
*SLR-UM-125*
-9-
SLR-UM 125
Seat
No.

ELECTRONICS CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN II (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80
All the questions are compulsory.

Assume suitable data if necessary.
Use of electronic data sheet is allowed.
SECTION I
2. Answer the following (any four) :
(45=20)
1) Calculate the efficiency of Class B amplifier for a supply voltage of

Vcc = 24v with peak o/p voltage of
a) VL(p) = 22V
b) VL(p) = 6V.
2) Explain the essential difference between RC coupled amplifier and direct
coupled amplifier.
3) An amplifier has voltage again of 500. If a 10% negative feedback is employed
into the circuit
a) What will be the voltage gain with feedback ?
b) What should be the feedback in order to double the gain that existed in (a).
4) Discuss the effect of negative feedback on gain stability of an amplifier with
expressions.
5) Explain the following terms regarding power amplifier.
a) Collector efficiency
b) Power disspation
c) Distortion.
SLR-UM 125
-10-
*SLR-UM-125*
3. Answer the following (any two) :
(210=20)
1) What is crossover distortion ? How it can be avoided ? Explain the operation

of transformer coupled pushpull amplifier with neat circuit diagram.
2) For the two stage RC coupled amplifier shown below determine input
resistance, individual stage gains and overall voltage gain in dB. Also draw
h-equivalent circuit.
hfe=100, hie = 1k
3) Design a two stage RC coupled amplifier to meet following specifications :

Load resistance = 3K , Rs=600 , output voltage = 8Vp-p with supply
voltage of 16V and lower cut-off frequency is 50Hz. Also modify this design
to have a voltage series negative feedback with closed loop voltage gain of
80.
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Design a timer circuit to control the heater from time duration 5 sec to
50 sec using relay of 10V/120mA.
2) Explain working of missing pulse detector circuit using IC555.
3) Explain working of transistorized series voltage regulator circuit.
4) Draw neat circuit diagram transistorized RC phase shift oscillator. Derive an
expression for its frequency of oscillation.
*SLR-UM-125*
-11-
SLR-UM 125
5) Design constant current source that will deliver a 0.5A current to 250 ,
10W load. Use IC 7812.
5. Solve any two questions :
(102=20)
1) Design a wide range pulse generator for frequency of 10 Hz to 10kHz and

pulse width from 100 sec to 10msec in suitable ranges. The output pulse
amplitude should be 6V across 2k load. Assume duty cycle of 60%.
2) Explain working of Wien bridge oscillator. Derive an expression for frequency
and minimum gain for sustained oscillations in case of Wien bridge oscillator.
3) Design a dual tracking regulator using three terminal adjustable IC voltage
regulators for following specification :
i) Vo = 10V to 30V
ii) IO = 1.2 A
iii) Vin = 35 5%, use R1 = 240 , Iadj = 100 A
___________________
Code No. SLR-UM 126
*SLRUM126*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ANALOG COMMUNICATION (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

1) Communication is a Process of
a) Keeping in touch
b) Exchanging information
c) Broadcasting
d) Entertainment by electronics
Marks : 20
20
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 126
*SLRUM126*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The ultra high frequency (UHF) extends from

a) 3-30 MHz
b) 300-3000 MHz
c) 30-300 MHz
d) 3000-30000 MHz
3) For an AM signal, the bandwidth is 10 kHz and highest frequency compound

present is 705 kHz. What is the carrier frequency used for this AM signal
a) 695 kHz
b) 705 kHz
c) 700 kHz
d) 710 kHz
4) A carrier is amplitude modulated by 4 signals of 10 kHz, 15 kHz, 20 kHz and

25 kHz. What is the bandwidth of the modulated signal ?
a) 25 kHz
b) 50 kHz
c) 70 kHz
d) 140 kHz
5) Indicate the false statement regarding the advantages of SSB over double
sideband, full carrier AM
a) More channel space is available
b) Transmitter circuits must be more stable, giving better reception
c) The signal is more noise resistance
d) Much less power is required for the same signal length
6) Which of the following analog modulation scheme requires the minimum
transmitted power and minimum channel bandwidth ?
a) VSB
b) DSB-SC
c) SSB
d) AM
7) What is the assign bandwidth of the each of the channels in the AM broadcast
band ?
a) 5 kHz
b) 10 kHz
c) 15 kHz
d) 20 kHz
*SLRUM126*
SLR-UM 126
-3-
8) Fidelity in a communication receiver is provided by

a) Audio stage
b) Detector stage
c) Mixer stage
d) Combination of audio and detector stages
9) The minimum input voltage that produces specified SNR at the output of the
IF section is known as
a) Selectivity of the receiver
b) Noise figure of the receiver
c) Image rejection of the receiver
d) Sensitivity of the receiver
10) The operating point of RF amplifier in an AM receiver is normally based in
a) Class A
b) Class C
c) Class B
d) Class B-c condition
11) The output stage of TV transmitter is ____________

a) grid modulated class A amplifier
b) plate-modulated class C amplifier
c) screen modulated class C amplifier
d) grid modulated class C amplifier
12) In FM for a given frequency deviation the modulation index varies
a) inversely as the modulating frequency
b) directly as the modulating frequency
c) independent of the changes in modulating signal
d) none of above
13) A pre-emphasis circuit provides extra noise immunity by
a) converting the PM to FM
b) boosting the bass frequencies
c) pre amplifying the whole audio band
d) amplifying the higher audio frequencies
SLR-UM 126
*SLRUM126*
-4-
14) In an FM signal, the power

a) increases as M.I. increases
b) increases as M.I. decreases
c) reduces as M.I. increases
d) remain constant when M.I. increases
15) The velocity of electromagnetic wave in free space is
a) Increase with frequency increase
b) Is independent of frequency
c) Decreases with frequency increase
d) None of these
16) An electromagnetic wave incident normally on a dielectric boundary, it will be
a) Totally reflected
b) Totally absorbed
c) Totally refracted
d) Partly reflected and partly refracted
17) The ionosphere plays a significant role in radio wave propagation at
a) high frequency
b) microwaves frequencies
c) ultra high frequency
d) optical frequencies
18) Thermal noise voltage in a resistor R is given by

a)
b) kTB
4RkTB
c) TBk2
d) None
19) Which of the noise does not occur in transistor ?

a) Short noise
b) Partition noise
c) Flicker noise
d) Resistance noise
20) The ringing voltage supplied by the telephone company is

a) 20 Hz sine wave
b) 60 Hz sine wave
c) 48v DC
d) A sine wave of any audio frequency
______________
-5-
*SLRUM126*
SLR-UM 126
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

3) Assume suitable data is necessary.
SECTION I
(44=16)
a) What is multiplexing ? What are its advantages ?

b) Explain concept of bandwidth for communication with suitable applications.
c) Sketch and explain AM wave for m=1, m<1 and m>1. Which is a better case ?
Why ? What are problems with m>1 ?
d) Compare low level modulation and high level modulation.
e) With suitable diagram and waveforms explain a diode demodulator.
(38=24)
a) Prove mathematically a balanced mixer produces a DSB.

b) Explain with suitable circuit diagram and waveforms A high level Grid
modulated Class C amplifier.
c) With suitable block diagram explain superheterodyne communication receiver.
d) What is AGC ? Why it is required ? What is forward and reverse AGC ?
SLR-UM 126
-6-
*SLRUM126*
SECTION II
(44=16)
a) Explain shot noise. What are its sources ?

b) State and explain modulation index, deviation ratio, percentage of modulation
for FM.
c) What is sidetone circuit ? Why it is required ?
d) Define antenna gain and explain polarization of an antenna.
e) Explain different layers in atmosphere. How they are useful for sky wave
propagation.
(38=24)
a) Draw and explain the block diagram Armstrong method of FM generation.

Also draw the phasor diagram.
b) With suitable waveform explain slope detector principle and state its limitations.
c) Explain the time slot interchange system of telephony in brief.
d) Discuss the half dipole antenna along with its radiation pattern.
______________
Code No. SLR-UM
127
*SLRUM127*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (New) (Part II) Examination, 2014

LINEAR INTEGRATED CIRCUITS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

1) A window comparator
a) Has only one usable threshold
Marks : 20
(120=20)
b) Uses hysteresis to spend up response

c) Clamps the input positively
d) Detects an input voltage between two limits
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 127
*SLRUM127*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Common-mode gain signifies

a) The ability to reject the common mode signals
b) Increase the noise
c) Increase the distortion
d) All of the above
3) Slew rate is defined as the
a) Maximum rate of change of output voltage with time
b) Minimum rate of change of output voltage with time
c) Moderate rate of change of output voltage with time
4) Op-amp integrator uses
a) Capacitor as feedback element
b) Resistor as feedback element
c) Inductor as feedback element
d) Simple wire as feedback element
5) An ideal operational amplifier has
a) Infinite output impedance
b) Zero input impedance
c) Infinite bandwidth
d) All of the above
*SLRUM127*
SLR-UM 127
-3-
6) Another name for a unity gain amplifier is

a) Difference amplifier
b) Comparator
c) Single ended
d) Voltage follower
7) The average of the currents that flow into the input terminals of Op-amp is
called as
a) Input offset current
b) Input bias current
c) Reverse current
8) A wide band reject filter may consists of

a) High pass filter
b) Low pass filter
c) Adder
d) All of these
9) The range of frequencies over which the PLL system follows the change in
the I/P frequency, called as
a) Capture range
b) Hold range
c) Lock range
10) The algebraic difference between the currents into i/p terminals of Op-amp is
called as
a) Input offset current
b) Input bias current
c) Reverse current
11) Op-amps used as high and low pass filter circuits employ which configuraiton ?
a) Noninverting
b) Comparator
c) Open-loop
d) Inverting
12) Maximum operating frequency of 565 PLL is

a) 50 KHz
b) 500 KHz
c) 5 MHz
d) None of these
13) If ground is applied to the (+) terminal of an inverting Op-amp, the () terminal
will
a) Not need an input resistor
b) Be virtual ground
c) Have high reverse current
d) Non invert the signal
SLR-UM 127
*SLRUM127*
-4-
14) With negative feedback, the returning signal

a) Aids the input signal
b) Is proportional to output current
c) Opposes the input signal
d) Is proportional to differential voltage gain
15) What is the output waveform of schmitt trigger ?
a) Sine wave
b) Square wave
c) Sawtooth wave
d) Triangle wave
16) If a noninverting amplifier has an RIN of 1000 ohms and an RFB of 2.5 kilohms,
what is the O/p voltage when 1.42 mV is applied to the input ?
a) 3.25 mV
b) Ground
c) 1.42 mV
d) 4.97 mV
17) The VCO generates an output frequency that is directly proportional to

a) Its i/p frequency
b) Its i/p voltage
c) i/p current
18) The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier equals :

a) The ratio of the input resistance to the feedback resistance
b) The open-loop voltage gain
c) The input resistance
d) The feedback resistance divided by the input resistance
19) For frequency multiplier using 565 PLL is obtained by inserting frequency
divider between
a) Amplifier and VCO
b) LPF and VCO
c) VCO and phase comparator
d) None of these
20) A triangular waveform generator has a comparator and

a) Differentiator
b) Subtrator
c) Adder
d) Integrator
*SLRUM127*
-5-
SLR-UM 127
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (New) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Explain Op-amp as integrator with circuit diagram, derive expression for output
voltage, sketch output waveform if input is square wave.
b) Explain instrumentation amplifier with transducer bridge.
c) Draw neat circuit diagram of closed loop inverting amplifier using Op-amp and
derive expression for its voltage gain.
OR
c) Derive an expression for input bias compensating network for Op-amp with
feedback. Also comment on component section.
3. Solve any four :
(44=16)
a) Explain closed loop inverting amplifier as a :

i) Summing amplifier
ii) Scaling amplifier
iii) Averaging amplifier
b) What are the characteristics that make an ideal Op-amp ?
c) Draw and explain voltage transfer curve of an Op-amp with a comment on
significance of its slope.
SLR-UM 127
-6-
*SLRUM127*
d) What is CMRR ? Why it is significant ? How it is measured for inverting and

non inverting amplifiers ?
e) Explain voltage to current converter using Op-amps with grounded load.
SECTION II
4. a) Design, draw and explain a phase shift oscillator to generate a sinusoidal
signal of 200 Hz.
b) Explain log and antilog amplifier.
c) Explain PLL in detail with phase detector, LPF and VCO.
OR
c) Draw and explain R-2R ladder DAC. With suitable reference voltage value,
explain example input and output values.
5. Solve any four :
(44=16)
a) Explain negative clipper with waveforms for positive and negative reference
voltages.
b) Explain precision / small signal / precision diode positive half wave rectifier.
c) With typical example, draw and explain single slope ADC.
d) Explain application of PLL NE/SE 565 as a frequency multiplier.
e) Draw and explain triangular wave generator.
Code No.
SLR-UM 128
*SLRUM128*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S. E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014
SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) The impulse response of discrete time system is x[n] = (4)n u[3 n], the
system is
a) Casual
b) Stable
c) Stable and casual
d) Stable and non-casual

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 128
*SLRUM128*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) A signal x(t) is said to be even if

a) x(t) = x(t)
b) x(t) = x( t)
c) x(t) = x( t)
d) x(t) = x( t)
3) The discrete time unit impulse is the __________ of the discrete time unit
step, and the discrete time unit step is the _________ of the discrete time unit
impulse.
a) Derivative, integral
b) Integral, derivative
c) First difference, running sum
d) Running sum, first difference
4) A memoryless system is also known as _________ system.
a) Causal
b) Static
c) Dynamic
d) Non causal
5) By using convolution for a system with

[x1[n] + x2[n]] h[n] = x1[n] h[n] + x2[n] h[n]. The system possess the
property of
a) Commutative and distributive
b) Associative and distributive
c) Commutative and associative
d) Commutative, associative and distributive
*SLRUM128*
SLR-UM 128
-3-
6) A discrete time LTI system is causal if

a) h[n] = 0 for n = 0
b) h[n] = 0 for n < 0
c) h[n] = 0 for n 0
d) h[n] = 0 for n > 0
7) Given a unit step function u(t), its time-derivative is :

a) A unit impulse
b) Another step function
c) A unit ramp function
d) A sine function
8) The Fourier transform of a rectangular pulse is

a) Another rectangular pulse
b) Triangular pulse
c) Sinc function
d) Impulse
9) Fourier Transform of
dx(t )
is
dt
1
x( j)
j
a) x (j )
b)
c) j x(j )
d) e j x( j)
10) The signal e j6n is

a) Periodic
b) Aperiodic
11) An LTJ system is stable if and only if the ROC of its system function H(z)
_____________
a) Exterior to a circle
b) Interior of a circle
c) Includes unity circle
d) None of these
12) The analog signal m(t) = 4 cos 50 t + 3 sin300 t cos150 t. Then the
value of nyquist rate Fs is ___________
a) 300 Hz
b) 150 Hz
c) 200 Hz
d) 100 Hz
SLR-UM 128
*SLRUM128*
-4-
13) Z transform of (n k) is __________

a) Z K
b) ZK
c) Z 1 / k
d) 1
14) If x(t) signal is multiplied with train of impulses, the process is _________
a) Convolution
b) Z transform
c) Sampling
d) Laplace transform
15) The ROC of x(t) = e 3t u(t) + e 2t u(t) is ____________

a) S < 2
b) S > 2
c) S < 3
d) S > 3
16) For two independent events P(A B) is equal to __________

a) P(A) + P(B)
b) P(A)
c) P(B)
d) P(A) P(B)
17) CDF function is __________

a) Decreasing
b) Non decreasing
c) Constant
d) None of these
18) For uniformly distributed random variable in between (a, b), the mean value is
_______________
a)
a+b
c) ab 2
b) b a 2
d) None of these
19) The autocorrelation function is _________________

a) Even
b) Odd
c) Both
d) None of these
20) The PSD of white noise is __________

a) 1
b) 0
c) Infinity
d) None of these
______________________
*SLRUM128*
-5-
SLR-UM 128
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
a) Explain with suitable examples, system with and without memory.
b) Find the even and odd parts of a CT signal x(t) and verify the result.
c) Check the following system for linearity :

t
i) y(t) = x
2
ii) y(t) = ex(t)

d) Explain with proof the convolution property of Fourier Transform.
(46=24)
SLR-UM 128
-6-
*SLRUM128*
e) Determine whether the following CT-LTI system is stable or not :
(28=16)
a) Obtain the convolution of two DT sequences given below and also sketch the
result.
y[n] = 1,
= 0,
for 0 n 2
elsewhere
x[n] = 1,
for 0 n 2
= 1,
for 3 n 5
=0,
elsewhere.
b) Using Trigonometric Fourier series, find the amplitude and phase spectrum of
periodic time domain signal x(t) shown in figure.
c) i) An impulse response of the RC circuit is given as h(t) =
1 t / RC
e
u( t ) .
RC
Find the step response of the circuit.

ii) Find whether LTI system impulse response h(t) = e 3 t u(t 1) is causal
or not.
*SLRUM128*
-7-
SLR-UM 128
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Write note on sampling in frequency domain.

2) State axioms of probability. Define and explain the concept of conditional
probability.
3) Discuss the properties of autocorrelation function with the help of suitable
example.
4) Two fair six sided dice are thrown, find the probability of
1) Throwing a pair of equal outcomes
2) Throwing a sum of faces equals to seven
5) For an analog signal m(t) = 4 cos100 t, calculate minimum sampling rate.
Also for 1) fs = 200 Hz 2) fs = 75 Hz, what will be the discrete signal after
sampling.
(210=20)
1) A continuous random variable has pdf defined by

fx(x) = kx e x
x 0
=0
x<0
Determine,
1) Value of K
2) Mean
3) Variance
2) Two jointly processes have sample functions of the form
x(t) = A cos (wot+ ) and y(t) = B cos (wot+ + ) where 0 is uniformly
distributed betn(0, 2 ) and A, B and are const.
a) Find the cross correlation function Rxy( )
b) For what values of , x(t) and y(t) are orthogonal.
3) State and explain Wiener Khinchin theorem of system and also derive the
relation between z transform and Laplace transform.
___________________
Code No. SLR-UM
129
*SLRUM129*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2014

CONTROL SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) The systems with forward path gain G1, G2 and G3 are connected in cascade,
then the overall transfer function for the above system is
a) G1+ G2 + G3
b) G1+ G2 G3
c) G1 G2 G3
d) G1 G2 G3
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 129
*SLRUM129*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) A synchro can also be known as

a) Synchronous motor
c) Selsyn
b) Synchronous condenser
d) Synchronising potentiometer
3) In a separately excited d.c. Motor, if the supply to field winding is reversed,

rotation will be
a) Remains same
b) Reversed
c) The speed will reduce
d) The speed may increase
4) The Laplace transform of a parabolic signal is

a) A/S3
b) A/2S3
c) 2A/S3
d) A2/2S3
5) In a signal flow graph representation a loop consisting of a single branch and

a single node is known as
a) Non-touching loop
b) Touching loop
c) Self loop
d) Mixed
6) In a mechanical translational system if x represents the displacement and m

represents the mass, then inertia force is given by
a) m dx/dt
b) mx
c) mx2
d) m d2x / dt
*SLRUM129*
SLR-UM 129
-3-
7) Following statement is true for any open loop system

a) This is much simpler
b) There is no feedback from output
c) It is less expensive
d) All of the above
8) An ac servomotor is
a) Single phase motor
b) Two phase motor
c) Three phase motor
d) None of these
9) The Routh-Hurwitz criterion gives _______________ stability.
a) Absolute
b) Relative
c) Comparative stability
d) Specific stability
10) Find the transfer function of the system whose dynamics is represented by
the following differential equation d2 y / dt2+ 3dy / dt + 2y = dx / dt + x
a) (S + 1) / (S2 + 3S + 2)
b) S / (S2 + 3S + 2)
c) 1 / (S2 + 3S + 2)
d) (S + 1) / (S + 3S + 2)
11) Angle of departure in the root locus is given by _____________

a) d = 180 ( p z )
b) d = 180 ( z p )
c) d = ( z p ) 180
d) d = ( p z ) 180
12) In frequency domain analysis the resonant frequency for IInd order system is
given by
n
r =
2
a) r = n 1 2
b)
1 2 2
c) r =
1 2 2
n
d) r = n (1 2 2 )
13) Lead compensation is used to _________________

a) Improve transient response
b) Improve gain and phase margin
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
SLR-UM 129
*SLRUM129*
-4-
14) Damped frequency of 2nd order system is given by _____________

b) d = n 1 2
a) d = n (1 2 )
c) d =
n (1 2 )
d) d =
n (1 2 )
15) While plotting the root locus for the following system whose transfer function is
G(S) =
K
the centroid is at _____________
s (s + 1) (s + 2) (s + 3 )
a) 1.5
b) 1.5
c) 1.0
d) 1.0
16) f(t) = A (t) is this equation, unit impulse occurs when A is _____________
a) 0
b) 1
c) > 1
d) <1
17) In root locus the order of characteristics equation gives number of _________
a) Root loci
b) Poles
c) Zeros
d) Both a) and b)
18) In frequency domain analysis the input is ___________

a) Sine wave with variable frequency
b) Step signal
c) Ramp signal
d) Parabolic signal
19) Series compensation is also called as ____________
a) Parallel compensation
b) Feedback compensation
c) Cascade compensation
20) In type 0 system _______________
a) No pole is at origin
c) Two poles are at origin
d) Series parallel compensation

b) One pole is at origin
d) None of these
*SLRUM129*
-5-
SLR-UM 129
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2014

CONTROL SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(64=24)
a) Obtain transfer function of R-C series circuit.

b) Determine stability of the system represented by following characteristic
equation by using Hurwitzs criterion .S3 + S2 + S + 4 = 0.
c) Construct signal flow graph by using following set of linear equation
Vi = 2V1 + 3V2, V 2 = 4V1 + 5V3 + 2V2, V3 = 5V2 + V0 & V0 = 6V3.
d) Explain with diagram Missile Launching system.
e) Explain block diagram reduction roles for shifting summing point, take off
point behind block and blocks in parallel.
3. a) Derive the transfer function of armature controlled d.c. servo motor.
b) Convert following block diagram into signal flow graph and obtain
OR
(82=16)
C(s)
.
R(s )
SLR-UM 129
-6-
*SLRUM129*
c) Using Rouths criterion determine the stability of system for following

characteristic equation and find the number of roots of equation that are in the
right half of the s-plane S4 + 2S3 + 10S 2 + 20S + 5 = 0.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(46=24)
a) Explain concept of transportation lag

b) Explain different standard test signals.
c) State frequency response specifications.
d) What is compensator ? What is the need of compensator ? Explain different
types in short.
e) Write a short note on PLC and its types.
5. Solve any two :
(28=16)
a) Sketch the bode plot and determine the gain cross over frequency and phase
cross over frequency for the system.
G(s) =
10
s (1 + 0. 5 s)(1+ 0, 1s )
b) For unity feedback control system, whose open loop transfer function is
G(s) =
25
and H(s) = 1 calculate damping factor, damping frequency,
s ( s + 6)
rise time, peak time and settling time.

c) State the rules for construction of root locus.
Code No. SLR-UM 13
*SLRUM13*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

FLUID MECHANICS I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct answer.

20
1) The property of fluid which determines its resistance to shear stress is called
a) viscosity
b) compressibility
c) surface tension
d) none
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 13
*SLRUM13*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The printers ink is an example of

a) Newtonian fluid
b) Non Newtonian
c) Thixotropic
d) Elastic
3) Surface tension is expressed in

a) N/m
b) N/m2
c) N2/m
d) N/m3
4) The pressure of liquid on a surface will always act __________ to the surface.
a) Parallel
b) Normal
c) 45
d) 60
5) Any pressure measured above the absolute zero of pressure is termed as

a) atmospheric pressure
b) gauge pressure
c) either of the above
d) none
6) The intensity of pressure P is related to the specific weight w of the liquid

and vertical depth h of the point by the equation.
a) h = Pw
b) P = wh2
c) P = wh3
d) P = wh
7) Centre of pressure (h ) incase of an inclined immersed surface is given by

a) h =
IG sin
+X
AX
b) h =
c) h =
I2 G sin 2
+X
AX
d) h =
IG sin
A2X
+X
IG sin 2
+X
AX
*SLRUM13*
SLR-UM 13
-3-
8) The magnitude of the buoyant force can be determined by

a) Newtons second law of motion
b) Archimedes principle
c) Principle of moments
d) None
9) A floating body is in stable equilibrium when
a) the metacentre is below CG
b) the metacentre is above CG
c) the metacentric height is zero
d) the CG is below the centre of buoyancy
10) In a steady flow the velocity.
a) does not change from place to place
b) at a given point does not change with time
c) may change its direction but magnitude remains same
d) none
11) If the Reynolds number is less than 2000 then the flow in the pipe is
a) laminar flow
b) turbulent flow
c) transition flow
d) none
12) The path followed by a fluid particle in motion is called as

a) stream line
b) path line
c) streak line
d) none
13) In which of the following measuring devices Bernoullis equation is used ?

a) Venturimeter
b) Orificemeter
c) Pitot tube
d) All
14) Pitot tube is used for measuring

a) velocity of flow
b) pressure of flow
c) flow rate
d) total energy
15) Coefficient of contraction (CC) is equal to

a) ac/a
b) a/ac
c) a ac
d)
ac a
SLR-UM 13
*SLRUM13*
-4-
16) Which of the following is an example of laminar flow ?

a) underground flow
b) flow past tiny bodies
c) flow of oil in measuring instruments
d) all
e) none
17) ___________ studied the laminar flow through a circular tube experimentally.
a) Prandtl
b) Pascal
c) Hagen and poiseuille
d) None
18) Loss of head due to sudden enlargement is given as

a)
(v 1 v 2 )3
c)
v 21 v 22
2g
2g
b)
d)
(v 1 v 2 )2
2g
v 1 v 2 2g
19) Head loss due to friction is calculated from the equation

a) Chezys equation
b) Mannings equation
c) Darcy-Weisbach equation
d) Prandtls equation
20) On account of which of the following boundary layer exists ?

a) Surface tension
b) Gravitational effect
c) Viscosity of fluid
d) None
______________
-5-
*SLRUM13*
SLR-UM 13
Seat
No.

FLUID MECHANICS I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 2 from Section I is compulsory. Attempt any two

questions from Q. No. 3 to Q. No. 5. Q. No. 6 from Section II is
compulsory attempt any two questions from Q. 7 to Q. 9.
2) Assume correct data wherever necessary.
3) Use of non-programmable calculator is permitted.
SECTION I
2. a) Calculate the specific weight, specific mass, specific volume and specific
gravity of a liquid having volume of 7 m3 and weight of 50 N.
b) A plate having an area of 0.6 m2 is sliding down the inclined plane at 30 to

the horizontal with velocity 0.40 m/s. There is a fluid of thickness 2 mm in
between the plane and plate, calculate viscosity of the fluid if weight of the
plate is 300 N.
c) Define the following and state their units.

1) Dynamic viscosity
2) Surface tension.
3. a) Fig. 1 show a differential manometer connected at two points P and Q at P air

pressure is 100 kN/m2. Find the absolute pressure at Q.
Figure 1 Q. No. 3 (a)
SLR-UM 13
-6-
*SLRUM13*
b) Derive and explain following terms with figure :
1) Metacentre
2) Metacentric height.
4. a) Derive an expression for the depth of centre of pressure from the free surface
of liquid for vertically immersed body.
b) A circular plate 1.5 m diameter is submerged in water, with its top and bottom
depths below the free surface are 0.5 m and 1.75 m respectively.
Calculate :
1) Total pressure on one face of the plate
2) The position of centre of pressure.
5. a) Derive the expression for the theoretical discharge through venturimeter with
neat sketch.
6
6
b) A pipe 200 meter long slopes down at 1 : 100 and tapers from 500 mm dia to
250 mm dia., from higher end to lower end and which carries discharge of
120 lit/sec. of oil (SPGr. (=0.8))6. If the pressure gauge at the higher end
reads 70 kN/m2. Calculate :
1) velocities at two ends
2) pressure at lower end, neglect all losses.
OR
b) For the following stream functions calculate velocity at a point (1, 2).
1) = 4xy
2) y = 3x2y y3.
SECTION II
6. a) Derive an expression for the head loss due to friction in pipes-with neat sketch. 4
b) What do you understand by turbulent flow ? Which factors decides the type of
flow in pipes ?
c) Explain the following terms with sketch
1) HGL
2) TEL.
d) A pipe of 110 mm diameter is carrying water if the velocity at the pipe centre
and 35 mm from the pipe centre are 2.25 m/s and 1.75 m/s and the flow is
turbulent. Calculate wall shearing stress.
*SLRUM13*
-7-
SLR-UM 13
7. a) Explain the terms with figure (any two) :

1) Displacement thickness
2) Equivalent length and equivalent diameter of pipe
3) Hydrodynamically smooth and rough boundaries.
b) Two reservoirs are connected by a pipe line consisting of two pipes, one is
20 cm dia and 7 meter long and other is 28 cm dia and 18 m long. If difference
in water level of two reservoirs is 7 meters. Calculate the discharge, take
f = 0.04 (show the energy gralient line).
8. a) Write a short note on :
Moodys charts and nomograms.
6
4
u 3 y 1 y2
,
b) The velocity distribution in the boundary layer is given by =
v 2 2 2
where is boundary layer thickness, calculate ratio of displacement thickness
( )
to boundary layer thickness and momentum thickness to boundary

layer thickness ( ) .
9. a) For laminar flow in circular pipe prove that maximum velocity is two times
the average velocity.
OR
a) Explain the concept water hammer and syphon pipe with sketch.
b) Calculate discharge in each pipe of the network by Hardy cross method,

take hf = rQ2, sec Fig. No. 2.
Figure 2 Q. No. 9 (b)

______________
SLR-UM 132
Code No.
S
*SLRUM132*
&
,
y
f
C

Marks : 20
1. Objective :
1) The divergence of
-
is ___________
a) scalar
b) vector
c) both a) and b)
d) none
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 132
*SLRUM132*
-2-
T
O
N
DO
2) Two vectors
)
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
"
,
*
a) 40
b) 36
c) 0
d) none
. Find
)
3) Gausss law is very useful to find out ____________

a) Electric field intensity
b) Force
c) Charge
d) Flux
4) The work done in moving the charge from a to b can be expressed

as _____________
>
>
a)
q
b)
l
c) both a) and b)
5) Express the gradient v in cylindrical co-ordinates

a)
b)
c)
d)
*SLRUM132*
SLR-UM 132
-3-
6) Coulombs force is proportional to

b) r 2
a) r
c)
d)

H
H
7) The line integral of about any closed path is exactly equal to the
enclosed by that path
0
a) field
b) current
c) potential
d) none
8) Poynting vector is a measure of the rate of energy flow per unit area
and is given by
a) P = EH
c)
2
b)
2
d) None
0
9) The skin depth in a good conducting medium is (

a)
c)
b)
,
d)
10) The force on a straight current conductor in a magnetic field is given

by | F | = ___________
a)
B
b)
c) a) or b)
11) If E is a vector, then
d) none
is
a) 0
b) 1
c) does not exist
d) none
12) For free space

b)
a)
c)
d)
SLR-UM 132
*SLRUM132*
-4-
13) The direction of propagation of an EM wave is given by

a) the direction of E
b) the direction of H
c) the direction of E H
d) the direction of
14) The intrinsic impedance of the medium whose

a)
c)
"
b)
d)
'
is
15) Depth of penetration in free space is

a) infinity
b)
c) 0
d) small
16) If maximum and minimum voltages on a transmission line are 4V and

2V respectively, VSWR is
a) 0.5
b) 2
c) 1
d) 8
17) A 100 km long transmission line has a capacitance of 20 nF. Its

distributed capacitance per meter is
a) 0.20 PF
b) 20 PF
c) 20 nH
d) 0.20 nF
18) Effective length of half wave dipole is

a)
c)
0
b)
d)
19) Input resistance of an antenna is

a) Rr
b) RL
c) Rr + RL
d) Rr RL
20) The unit of scalar magnetic potential is
a) Ampere
b) Volt
c) Amp/m
d) Volt/m
____________
*SLRUM132*
S
SLR-UM 132
-5-
T.E. (Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGG.
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(54=20)
1) Derive magnetic field intensity due to infinite length current carrying filament.
2) State and explain Gausss law.
3) Convert point p into spherical co-ordinate P( 3, 2, 1).
4) Derive Electric flux density.
5) If
D
determine
(210=20)
1) Verify divergence theorem for
where
2) Derive different Maxwells equation for harmonically time varying field.

3) Find
-
at point P(1, 5, 2) in free space if point charge of

is located at
(0, 0, 1) and a uniform line charge of 180 nc/m lies along x axis and uniform
sheet charge of 25 nc/m2 lies in the plane z = 1.
SLR-UM 132
*SLRUM132*
-6-
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Derive the transmission line equation from circuit theory.

2) Derive the wave equation for wave in dielectric medium.
3) What is polarisation of wave ? Explain its types.
4) Short note on Dipole antenna.
5) Write a note on group velocity, phase constant for uniform wave.
(210=20)
1) Derive the impedance at distance x from load for terminated uniform

transmission line.
2) A 1 MHz uniform plane wave with an amplitude of 25 V/m is propagating in a
material for which
a) Find
9 and
= 0 propagation is in the
=
direction
b) Find E(t) if Ey = 25 v/m at p (10, 10,10) at 107 s and Ez (x, y, z, t) = 0.
c) Find H(t).
3) At a frequency of 80 MHz, a lossless transmission line has a characteristic

impedance of 300 and a wavelength of 2.5 m
a) Find L, C.
b) If the line is terminated with the parallel combination of 200
determine reflection coefficient and VSWR.
_____________________
and 5pF,
Code No. SLR-UM
134
*SLR-UM-134*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2014

OPERATING SYSTEM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
(1 20=20)
1) _______________ page replacement suffers from Beladys anomaly.

a) FIFO
b) Optimal
c) LRU

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 134
*SLR-UM-134*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The device communicates with the machine via a connection point, called
a) Bus
b) Port
c) Processor
d) None
3) The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in
a) Process register
b) Program counter
c) Process table
d) Process unit
4) A single thread of control allows the process to perform
a) Only one task at a time
b) Multiple tasks at a time
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
5) If all processes I/O bound, the ready queue will almost always be ____________,
and the short term schedular will have a _____________ to do.
a) Full, little
b) Full, lot
c) Empty, little
d) Empty, lot
6) In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is

completed, the process goes from the running state to the
a) Blocked state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state
7) Which of the following need not necessarily be saved on a context switch

between processes ?
a) General purpose registers
b) Translation look-aside buffer
c) Program counter
d) All of these
*SLR-UM-134*
SLR-UM 134
-3-
8) Which one of the following is a synchronization tool ?

a) Thread
b) Pipe
c) Semaphore
d) Socket
9) Mutual exclusion can be provided by the

a) Mutex locks
b) Binary semaphores
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the mentioned
10) A monitor is a module that encapsulates

a) Shared data structures
b) Procedures that operate on shared data structure
c) Synchronization between concurrent procedure invocation
d) All of the mentioned
11) Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm ?
a) Bankers algorithm
b) Round-robin algorithm
c) Elevator algorithm
d) Karns algorithm
12) What is compaction ?

a) A technique for overcoming internal fragmentation
b) A paging technique
c) A technique for overcoming external fragmentation
d) A technique for overcoming fatal error
13) The address of a page table in memory is pointed by
a) Stack pointer
b) Page table base register
c) Page register
d) Program counter
14) The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion
is termed as
a) Waiting time
b) Turnaround time
c) Response time
d) Throughput
SLR-UM 134
*SLR-UM-134*
-4-
15) Time quantum is defined in

a) Shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) Round robin scheduling algorithm
c) Priority scheduling algorithm
d) Multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
16) Concurrent access to shared data may result in
a) Data consistency
b) Data insecurity
c) Data inconsistency
d) None of these
17) The most optimal scheduling algorithm is

a) FCFS First Come First Served
b) SJF Shortest Job First
c) RR Round Robin
d) None of these
18) Which of the following condition is required for deadlock to be possible ?
a) Mutual exclusion
b) A process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of
other resources
c) No resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
19) The _______________ swaps processes in and out of the memory.
a) Memory manager
b) CPU
c) CPU manager
d) User
20) The run time mapping from virtual to physical addresses is done by a hardware
device called the
a) Virtual to physical mapper
b) Memory management unit
c) Memory mapping unit
d) None of these
*SLR-UM-134*
SLR-UM 134
-5-
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics) (Part - II) Examination, 2014

OPERATING SYSTEM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(64=24)
a) Describe the shortest job first scheduling algorithm with one example ?
b) Write a note on thread.
c) With neat sketch explain different states of process.
d) What is binary semaphore ? Explain how binary semaphore is used to avoid
mutual exclusion.
e) Explain bounded buffer problem as classical problems of synchronization.
(82=16)
a) Consider the following set of process and CPU burst times. Calculate the
average waiting time, average response time and average turnaround time
for FCFS, RR(time quantum = 3).
Process Name
Burst Time
Priority
P1
P2
12
P3
16
P4
18
P5
SLR-UM 134
-6-
*SLR-UM-134*
b) What is critical section problem ? How semaphore is used as synchronization

tool to handle it ?
c) Explain process creation and termination operations in detail.
SECTION II
(64=24)
a) What is deadlock ? Explain the characteristics of deadlock.

b) Draw and explain demand paging.
c) Write a note on swapping.
d) Explain optimal page replacement algorithm with one example.
e) Explain direct memory access.
(82=16)
a) What is contiguous memory allocation ? Explain first fit, best fit and worst fit
memory allocation strategies.
b) Describe deadlock prevention in detail.
c) What is page fault ? Describe the steps in handling page fault.
Code No. SLR-UM
135
*SLRUM135*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

DIGITAL COMMUNICAITON
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) Quantization noise can be reduced by increasing

a) Number of quantization steps
b) Sampling rate
c) Increasing bandwidth
d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 135
*SLRUM135*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) A PWM signal can be generated by

a) Astable multivibrator
b) Monostable multivibrator
c) Integrating PPM
d) Adding PPM to flat pulses
3) The demodulation of the delta modulated signal can be achieved by

a) Integration
b) Differentiating
c) Low pass filtering
d) Sampling
4) Which of the below is not a digital modulation ?

a) PCM
b) PWM
c) QAM
d) DM
5) Make odd man out : PWM, PDM, PLM, PPM

a) PWM
b) PDM
c) PLM
d) PPM
6) With increase in order of holding circuit in a PAM demodulator

a) Output signal is more smooth
b) Distortion decreases
c) Complexity increases
d) All of these
*SLRUM135*
SLR-UM 135
-3-
7) In ________________ information about baseband signal lies in only trailing

edge of the pulse _____________
a) PCM
b) PPM
c) PWM
d) PAM
8) If f is the frequency of baseband signal then aliasing occurs when Nyquist

rate is
a) 2f
b) 3f
c) 2.5f
d) 1.2f
9) Entropy is _______________ when uncertainty is ____________

a) Less, less
b) Less, more
c) More, less
d) Average, less
10) Make odd man out : mutual information, transferred information,

transinformation, joint information
a) Mutual information
b) Transferred information
c) Transinformation
d) Joint information
11) As the bandwidth approaches infinity, the channel capacity becomes

a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) 1.44S/
d) Unity
12) If the original sequence can be reconstructed perfectly from the encoded
binary sequence, then code used is called ______________
a) Fixed
b) Prefixfree
c) Distinct
d) Uniquely decodable
13) Make odd man out : source coding, block coding, convolution coding, cyclic
coding
a) Source coding
b) Block coding
c) Convolution coding
d) Cyclic coding
SLR-UM 135
*SLRUM135*
-4-
14) If a convolution coder has 3 shift registers and 3 modulo 3 adder, then a 4 bit
message generates ____________________bit code.
a) 3
b) 7
c) 21
d) 24
15) When the receiver uses knowledge of the carriers phase to detect the signal,
the detection is called
a) Non coherent detection
b) Coherent detection
c) Envelope detection
d) Detection with memory
16) Equation si(t) =
A
[1+ mdi (t )] cos (2 fc t ) represent
2
a) ASK
b) BASK
c) FSK
d) BFSK
17) A phase modulation with continuous phase is called

a) QPSK
b) M ary PSK
c) MSK
d) QAM
18) Make odd man out : Quadrature Amplitude Modulation, Amplitude Phase
Keying, Minimum Shift Keying, Quadrature Amplitude Shift Keying
a) Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
b) Amplitude Phase Keying
c) Minimum Shift Keying
d) Quadrature Amplitude Shift Keying
19) Which of below is a technique for demodulation of PAM ?
a) Equalizer
b) Holding circuit
c) Envelope detector
d) All of above
20) Maximum quantization error in uniform quantizer is _____________

a)
b) /2
c) 2
d) 2/2
*SLRUM135*
-5-
SLR-UM 135
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

DIGITAL COMMUNICATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(83=24)
a) Define quantization error. How signal to noise ratio can be improved with the
help of a non-uniform quantization ?
b) What is inter symbol interference ? What is its effect ? How it can be estimated
using eye diagram ?
c) Explain PPM. Explain how IC 555 can be used to generate PPM.
d) With suitable example and diagram explain midtread and midrise uniform
quantization.
3. Solve any four :
(44=16)
a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of digital communication system

over analog communication system ?
b) State Shannon Hartley theorem for channel capacity. What is the increase in
channel capacity, if the bandwidth of the channel is doubled ? Justify your
answer.
c) A continuous signal is band limited to 5 KHz. The signal is quantized in
8 levels of a PCM system with probabilities 0.25, 0.2, 0.2, 0.1, 0.1, 0.05, 0.05
and 0.05. Calculate the entropy and the rate of information.
d) Justify with example there is lot of scope to remove redundancy in a PCM
signal. Also explain how it leads to DPCM.
e) Explain the drawbacks of delta modulation.
SLR-UM 135
-6-
*SLRUM135*
SECTION II
4. a) Generate a (7, 4) block code for a message vector of [1101] using suitable
generator matrix G. Explain below situations at receiver with respect to
syndrome vector, error detection and correction.
I) There is no error in transmission
II) There is an error in transmission and message received is [1111]. What are
the conditions to form generator matrix for this generator matrix G ?
8
b) Design an encoder for the (7, 4) systematic cyclic code generated by
g(x) = 1 + x + x3. Also show its operation for message word 1101.
c) Draw, explain and compare coherent and non coherent FSK detection.
OR
d) What is continuous frequency BFSK ? What are its advantages ? Compare it

with simple FSK ?
5. Solve any four :
(44=16)
a) What is orthogonal tone spacing ? What are its applications ?

b) What is DBPSK ? What are its advantages and disadvantages ?
c) With suitable block diagram and waveforms explain QPSK.
d) Explain non linear clock recovery.
e) Why coding is required in communication systems ? What are different types
of coding ? What are their purposes ?
Code No. SLR-UM
136
*SLRUM136*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2014

MICROCONTROLLERS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

3) Question No.1 is compulsory.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) In 8051, serial communication mode 0, the baud rate will be _______________

a) variable
b) fosc/164
c) fosc/32
d) fosc/12
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 136
*SLRUM136*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The assembler of 8051 requires _______________ extension file as an input.

a) hex
b) asm
c) obj
d) bin
3) In 8051 an Timer 1 interrupt vector address is of _______________

a) 000 Bh
b) 001 Bh
c) 0013 h
d) 0023 h
4) Which of the following signal(s) of 8051 must be used in accessing external

data RAM ?
a) RD
b) WR
c) PSEN
d) Both a) and b)
5) The 8051 supports a maximum of _______________ K bytes of program

memory space.
a) 4
b) 64
c) 16
d) 32
6) Which of the following signal(s) of 8051 must be used in fetching data from
external data ROM ?
a) RD
b) WR
c) PSEN
d) Both a) and b)
7) The 8051 microcontroller is of _______________ pin package as a

_______________ processor.
a) 30, 1 byte
b) 20, 1 byte
c) 40, 8 bit
d) 40, 8 byte
*SLRUM136*
SLR-UM 136
-3-
8) In 8051 which interrupt has highest priority ?

a) IE 1
b) TF 0
c) IE 0
d) TF 1
9) In modes 2 and 3, if _______________ bit of SCON bit is set will causes

enable multiprocessor communication.
a) SM 1
b) TB 8
c) SM 2
d) SM 0
10) When 8051 is powered up, stack begin at _______________

a) 07 h
b) 70 h
c) 08 h
d) 80 h
11) The _______________ pins can become the I/O control inputs for the parallel
slave port.
a) PORT A
b) PORT B
c) PORT E
d) PORT D
12) Operating CCP2 module in PWM mode, PWM period can be set by writing to
_______________ register.
a) PR 1
b) TMR 2
c) PR 2
d) CCP 1 RL
13) The program counter in PIC 16F877 is _______________ bit wide.

a) 10
b) 12
c) 13
d) 14
14) In PIC 16F877 the _______________ module is with prescaler and postscaler.
a) Timer 0
b) Timer 2
c) Timer 1
d) Timer 3
15) In PIC 16F877 the Timer 1 module increments on every _______________

edge of the external clock input.
a) Falling
b) Rising
c) Falling/rising
d) None of above
SLR-UM 136
*SLRUM136*
-4-
16) In PIC 16F877 _______________ port can be configured as parallel slave

port.
a) PORT A
b) PORT C
c) PORT D
d) PORT E
17) Timer 1 of the PIC 16F877 is _______________ bit, accessed as

_______________
a) 8, timer/counter
b) 16, timer/counter
c) 8, timer
d) 8, counter
18) In PIC to make Port B an output port, we must place _______________ in

register _______________.
a) 00 h, PORTB
b) FF h, PORTB
c) 00 h, TRISB
d) FF h, TRISB
19) The PIC 16F877 has _______________ bit, maximum _______________

analog inputs AD converter module.
a) 8, 8
b) 10, 8
c) 8,10
d) 10,10
20) The PIC 16F877 has _______________ I/O ports.

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 3
__________________
*SLRUM136*
-5-
SLR-UM 136
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2014

MICROCONTROLLERS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Explain 8051 memory organization.

b) Draw and explain bit format of SCON register.
c) Explain the function of ALU, PSEN, EA, TXD and RXD pins of 8051.
d) Explain Port 0 structure in detail.
e) Write 8051 assembly program to toggle P 2.0 by a delay of 500 msec. Use
Timer 1. Assume crystal (XTAL) = 11.0592 MHZ.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Draw and explain interfacing of a unipolar stepper motor to 8051 and write a
program to rotate the stepper motor in anticlockwise direction continuously.
b) Draw and explain interfacing of ADC 0808/09 to 8051. Write a program to
convert analog voltage on channel 2 to digital.
c) Draw and explain interfacing of 16 K 8 Data RAM to 8051. Write a assembly
program to read 50 bytes of data from P1 and save the data in external
starting at RAM location 1000 h.
SLR-UM 136
-6-
*SLRUM136*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(64=24)
a) With block diagram explain Timer-1 module used in PIC microcontroller.

b) Explain features of PIC 16F877.
c) Explain addressing modes in PIC 16F877.
d) Write PIC program to clear memory location 20 h to 2F h with indirect
addressing mode. Also explain meaning of each used instructions.
e) Write the steps to reading the EEPROM data memory in PIC and write a
program for the same.
5. Solve any two :
(82=16)
a) Explain ADC module in PIC and write a program to initialize the ADC module.
b) Draw and explain interfacing of LCD to PIC 8051. Write a program to display
NO on LCD.
c) Explain the following instructions with their syntax :
1) BTFSS
2) DECFSZ
3) RETLW
4) IORWF.
________________
Code No. SLR-UM
137
*SLRUM137*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2014

INDUSTRIAL ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1) In SCR angle of conduction can be varied by changing

a) Anode voltage
b) Anode current
c) Forward current rating
d) Gate current
2) It is preferable to use train of pulse of high frequency for gate triggering of

SCR in order to reduce
a) dv/dt problem
b) di/dt problem
c) size of pulse transformer
d) complexity of circuit
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 137
*SLRUM137*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
3) As compared to UJT, SUS

a) Switched at fixed voltage determined by its internal avalanche diode
b) Switching current Is much higher than UJT
c) Need definite polarity of applied voltage
d) All above
4) In single phase fully controlled converter with highly inductive load without free
wheeling diode. If load current is constant 20 A, then supply rms current is
a) 20 A
b) 28.28 A
c) 14.14 A
d) 10 A
5) A single phase fully controlled bridge converter supplies an inductive load. If

= 60 supply voltage is 230 V, 50 Hz then PIV is ____________
b) 325.26
a) 163.6
c) 230
d) 650.53
6) A single phase semiconverter is operated from 230 V, 60 Hz supply, then

maximum possible output voltage is
a) 207 V
b) 103.5 V
c) 73.21 V
d) 270 V
7) An Si UJT has interbase resistance 8 K & RBI = 5 K , then intrinsic stand

off ratio is
a) 0.625
b) 1.6
c) 0.0625
d) 0.5
*SLRUM137*
SLR-UM 137
-3-
8) A GTO
a) Requires special turn off circuitry like thyristors
b) Can be turned off by removing the gate pulse
c) Can be turned off by negative current pulse at the gate
d) Can be turned off by positive current pulse at the gate
9) The body layer is connected to source terminal in a MOSFET in order to
a) Reduce power dissipation
b) Increase speed of operation
c) Reduce noise interference
d) To avoid latch up in a MOSFET
10) The sensitivity of TRIAC to gate current is greatest during __________

quadrant.
a) I and II
b) II and IV
c) I and IV
d) III and IV
11) An optocoupler is ____________

a) Combination of light source and light detector
b) Provides isolation between power circuit and control circuit
c) Provides dielectric isolation up to 50 KV
d) All above
12) In UPS, load is always fed through inverter.
a) Continuous type
b) ON-line
c) Both a) and b)
d) OFF line
13) Data acquisition system is used for

a) Data processing, data transmission and storage
b) To acquire necessary data at correct speed and at correct time
c) To monitor complete plant operation
d) All above
SLR-UM 137
*SLRUM137*
-4-
14) What is the primary function of sample and hold gates in data acquisition system ?
a) To block unwanted input signals
b) To allow all the inputs to be sampled simultaneously
c) To prevent ADC from distorting I/P signals
d) To buffer input signals
15) In ladder diagram, pressure limit switches
a) Operate under pressure
b)
c)
d) Both a) and b)
16) _____________ used to provide isolation between control circuit and power
circuit.
a) Opto isolator
b) Pulse transformer
c) Both a) and b)
d) Thyractor
17) For modulation of DC signal ________________ is used.

a) Photo chopper
b) Photodiode
c) LASCR
d) Photo darlington
18) When photodiode operated without reverse bias it operates as__________ device.
a) Photovoltaic
b) Photoconductive
c) Both a) and b)
d) Off
19) In ladder diagram, thermal overload switches represented by

a)
b)
c) Both a) and b)
d)
20) In case of photo transistor ___________junction is photosensitive.

a) Base emitter
b) Base collector
c) Collector emitter
d) Both b) and c)
*SLRUM137*
-5-
SLR-UM 137
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics) (Part - II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
1) Explain the various mechanisms by which thyristors may be turn on.

2) Explain Class E external pulse commutation and Class F AC line commutation.
3) Sketch V-I characteristics of DIAC and explain its working.
4) Explain switching characteristics of GTO during turn on & turn off process.
5) A single phase fully controlled converter with highly inductive load. Assuming
that IL is constant 10 A. Calculate average dc voltage and rms supply current
if supply voltage is 230 V, 50 Hz and firing angle 40 .
(210=20)
1) Describe design consideration of snubber network for dc circuits.

2) Sketch the cross sectional view of N channel Enhancement type MOSFET
explain its operation and switching characteristics.
3) Derive an expression for average output voltage and RMS voltage in single
phase half controlled bridge converter with inductive load and freewheling
diode. Sketch associated voltage and current waveforms.
A single phase semiconverter is operated from 120 V, 50 Hz AC supply. The
load resistance is 20 . If the average output voltage is 25% of the maximum
possible output voltage. Determine:
a) Firing angle
b) Average output current
c) RMS output current
d) Draw associated waveforms.
SLR-UM 137
-6-
*SLRUM137*
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Explain working of digital two position controller with suitable circuit diagram.
2) Draw a circuit diagram of analog ON-OFF controller with dead band and
explain its working.
3) Design digital temperature indicator to indicate process temperature in the
range of 0 to 350C. Sensor to be used is J type thermocouple with
sensitivity = 51 V/C. Display used is 31/2 digit.
4) Explain working principle and operation of constant voltage transformer.
5) Draw ladder diagram for above control system. A small electric furnace has
three heating elements when switched on, first element starts and after five
minutes second starts and after two minutes third elements starts. Ten minutes
are required to reach desired temperature. At high temperature thermal overload
switch opens and red light turns on.
(210=20)
1) Explain working of solid state stabilizer using power device and AC servo
controlled voltage stabilizer using servo motor.
2) With suitable circuit diagram explain working of proportional position control
and proportional integral control for robotic system.
3) Describe construction, working and spectral response of the following :
i) Photo diode
ii) Photo transistor
iii) LASCR.
Code No.
SLR-UM 138
Seat
No.
*SLRUM138*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2014

VLSI DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) The logic expressions for full adder implementation ___________

a) S = A B C = A B
b) S = A B C = A B
. B C = A B
c) S = A O
d) S = A O. B C = A B
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 138
*SLRUM138*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The exclusive Oring of even number is always ___________

a) one
b) ten
c) zero
d) odd
3) Std_ulogic is a __________ valued logic system.

a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 9
4) A process can not have a sensitivity list when a/an ______ is employed.
a) Wait
b) IF
c) Loop
d) Generate
5) The circuit may produce a short pulse at its output is called as ______
a) Static zero pulse
b) Static one pulse
c) Glitch
6) ____________ is a resource library used for VHDL design environment.

a) std
b) work
c) ieee
7) A single entity can have _________________

a) One architecture
b) Multiple architecture
c) Multiple libraries
8) In CMOS circuit pullup network consists of _____________

a) PMOS transistor
b) NMOS transistor
c) Both a) and b)
*SLRUM138*
SLR-UM 138
-3-
9) For NAND gate fan in for K i/p is defined with propagation delay as
_______
a) tp/K
b) tp/K2
c) tp K
10) Gate capacitance contributed by each transistors as cg = ____________

a) W L Cox
b) W L Cox
c) W LCox
11) Path sensitivity is used for deriving test set for

a) Combinational circuit
b) Sequential circuit
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
12) Consider the circuit
Input W1 W3 W4 to sensitize W2 c f path is

a) 001
b) 000
c) 100
d) 111
13) In built in self test, pseudorandom tests are generated by using

a) Counter
b) LFSR
c) Shift register
d) Sequence generator
14) The clock skew is a phenomenon in

a) Synchronous circuit
b) Asynchronous circuit
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
15) _____________ occurs if a system uses a synchronizer output while

the output is still in metastable state.
a) Skew
b) Clock jitter
c) Synchronization failure
d) None of these
SLR-UM 138
*SLRUM138*
-4-
16) Macrocells whose outputs are usable only internally are sometimes
called ___________ macrocells.
a) Internal
b) Burried
c) Self
d) None of these
17) The programmable logic block in Xilinx XC4000E family FPGA is called
_____________
a) Configurable logic block
b) LUT
c) PLD
d) Programmable interconnect
18) The critical path in the circuit is usually ______ during synthesis.
a) Factored
b) Flattened
c) Mapped to gates
d) None of these
19) Inputs to synthesis process are

a) RTL description
b) Circuit constraints
c) Technology library
d) All above
20) _______________ are used to specify the design environment.

a) Constraints
b) RTL description
c) Variables
d) Attributes
________________
*SLRUM138*
-5-
SLR-UM 138
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2014

VLSI DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Develop CMOS circuit for

F(A, B, C) = (1, 2, 4, 6).
b) Explain in detail about transmission gate.
c) For CMOS inverter, assume c = 100 FF and F = 70 MHz. Calculate dynamic
power dissipation. If a chip contains 10,000 inverters and on an average 10%
of gates changes values at any given time then calculate total amount of
dynamic power consumed.
d) Write a VHDL code for 3 : 8 decoder using with select statement.
e) Explain in detail about transport and inertial delays.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Write a VHDL code two digit counter with seven segment display which
displays count from 00 99 00.
b) Write a VHDL code for RAM whose capacity is 16 words of length 8 bit each.
c) Explain the characteristics of digital circuit in detail.
SLR-UM 138
-6-
*SLRUM138*
SECTION II
(46=24)
a) Write note on : Synchronizer failure and metastability.

b) Explain in brief constraints w.r.t. VHDL synthesis.
c) Explain CLBs in FPGA.
d) Explain with example, fault detection using path sensitizing.
e) Write VHDL code for 3 bit LFSR counter.
f) Explain flattening and factoring used for optimization.
(28=16)
a) Explain following w.r.t. Xilinx CPLD.

i) Macrocell
ii) Product term allocator.
b) Draw the scan path arrangement for testing sequential circuit and explain the
procedure for testing flipflops and combination ckt.
c) Derive the Moore state table for detecting sequence 101. Also write VHDL
code.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 14
*SLRUM14*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Day & Date ____________________ _
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Section ________________________________________
__________ Examination _________
______________ (Paper - _______)
Examiner
For Office Use only
Code No.

2) All questions carry equal marks.
Marks : 20
1. Tick the correct answer.

1) The Particular integral of (D2 + D + 1) = cos2x is
a)
1
(2 sin 2 x + 3 cos 2 x )
13
c)
1
(3 sin 2 x + 2 cos 2x )
5
b)
1
( 2 sin 2x + 3 cos 2 x )
13
1
d) ( 2 sin 2x + 3 cos 2 x)
5
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 14
DO
2)
*SLRUM14*
-2-
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
1
f(x ) = ?
D+a
a)
f( x ) e
ax
dx
b)
c) eax f( x)e ax dx
ax
f(x) e
dx
d) e ax f( x) e ax dx
3) The general solution of (x2D2 3xD + 5) y = 0 is

b) c1.coslogx + c2 sinlogx
a) x2(c1coslogx + c2 sinlogx)
c) x.(c1coslogx + c2 sinlogx)
d) None of these
4) The general solution of (D2 + 2D + 1) y = 2.e3x is

a) c1e x + c 2e x +
e3x
8
c) (c1 cos x + c 2 sin x) +
e3 x
16
b) (c1 + c 2 x )e x +
e3x
8
d) (c1 + c 2 x )e x +
e3x
16
5) Solution of 2p+3q = 1 is
a) (3x + 2y, y + 3z) = 0
b) (3 x 2 y, y 3z) = 0
c) (3x + 2y, y 3z) = 0
d) (3x 2y, y + 3z) = 0
6) If L {f(t)} = (s) then L {f(at)} = ?

a) (s a)
c)
1
(s a)
a
b)
1 s

s a
d) (s a)
*SLRUM14*
SLR-UM 14
-3-
7) L {t. sint} = ?
a) 2s
s2 + 1
c)
2s
s +1
2
b)
d)
2s
(s
(s
2s
2
+1
+1
s+2
1
=?
8) L
2
(s + 2) 25
a) e2t .cosh5t
b) e2t .cosh 25t
c) e2t. cosh5t
d) e2t . cosh5t
9) The general solution of partial diff. equation pq = p+q is

a) (b 1) z = bx + b (b 1)y + c
b) (1 b) z = bx + b (1 b)y + c
c) (b 1) z = bx + b (b + 1)y + c
d) None of these
10) On putting x = ez, the transformed D.E. of (x2D2 3xD + 4) y = 2x2 is
a) (D2 4D + D) y = 2.e2z
b) (D2 3D + D) y = 2.e2x
c) (D2 4D + 4) y = 2x2
d) (D2 3D + 4)y = 2x2
11) If x + 2y = 5 and 2x + 3y = 8 are two lines of regression then x = ..... and

y = .......
a) 2, 1
c) 1,
b) 1, 2
2
d)
2,1
12) If the correlation coefficient is 0, the two regression lines are

a) parallel
b) perpendicular
c) coincident
d) inclined at 45 to each
13) The equations of lines of regression are 6y = 5x + 90 and 15x = 8y + 130 then
the correlation coefficient r is equal to
a)
3
2
b)
3
2
c)
2
3
d)
2
3
SLR-UM 14
*SLRUM14*
-4-
14) If f (x) = x < x < 0

x
0<x<
then f (x) is
a) odd
b) even
c) odd and even
d) neither even nor odd
15) One of the Dirichlets condition is the function f(x) should be

a) single valued
b) multi-valued
c) real-valued
d) none of these
16) In the Fourier series expansion of f (x) = x3 in (1, 1)

a) Only sine terms are present
b) Only cosine terms are present
c) Constant term is present
d) Both sine and cosine terms are present
17) The unit vector tangent to the space curve x = t, y = t2 and z = t3 at t = 1 is
2
a) ti + 2 tj + 3t k
14
b) i + 2 j + 3k
14
c) i + 2 j + 3k
13
d)
ti 2 tj 3t 2k
13
18) If a is a constant vector and r = xi + yj + zk then (a r ) =

a) r
c) a2
b) a
d) None of these
19) The variance of the binomial distribution is

a) np
b) nq
c) npq
d) pq
20) The average number of phone calls per minute coming into a switch board of a
company is 2.5. Then the probability during a minute that there will be no
phone call is
a) 0.8208
b) 0.08208
c) 8.208
d) 0.008208
______________
-5-
*SLRUM14*
SLR-UM 14
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.

SECTION I
2. a) Solve (D2 + 13 D + 36) y = e4x + sin hx.
b) Solve (x2D2 + xD + 1) y = logx. sin (logx).
t sinu
L
du .
c) Find
0 u
3. a) Solve,
d2 y
dy
(1 + x ) 2 + (1 + x )
+ y = 2 sin log(1 + x )
dx
dx
2
s + 29
b) Find L1
.
2
+
+
(
s
4
)(
s
9
)
c) Solve partial diff. equation 3
4
u
u
+2
= 0 where u (x, 0) = 4ex by the method
x
y
of separation of variables.
4. a) Solve : (D2 2D + 1)y = x.ex.sinx.

1
b) Solve (D3 3D2 + 3D 1)y = x 2 .e x .
c) Solve (x + y) (p + q)2 + (x y) (p q)2 = 1.
SLR-UM 14
-6-
*SLRUM14*
5. a) The differential equation of a beam uniformaly loaded with one end fixed and
second subjected to a compressive force is given by,
dy
d2 y
1
=0
EI 2 + Py = Wx 2 where, E, I, P and W are constants If y = 0 and
dx
2
dx
at x = 0, prove that
y=
W
W 2 2
P
cos nx
x 2 where n2 = .
2
2P
Pn
n
EI
b) Find L (t 2 + 1)2 .e2t .
c) Solve, z (p2 q2) = x y.
OR
c) Solve,
p (1 + q2) = q (z ).
4
SECTION II
6. a) Find the equations of lines of regression from the following data and also find y
when x = 13
x:
12
14
y:
10
11
12
b) Find the angle between the tangents to the curve

r = ( t 2 + 1) i + (4t 3) j + (3 t 2 6t ) k at t = 1 and t = 2.
r 2
c) Prove 2 2 = 4 .
r r
7. a) Obtain Fourier series for f (x) = xsinx in ( , ) .

b) Find the directional derivative of = x 2 y 2 + y 2 z2 + z 2 x 2 at (1, 1, 2) in the
direction of tangent to the curve x = et y = 2sint + 1 and z = t cost at t = 0.
4
4
8
*SLRUM14*
SLR-UM 14
-7-
8. a) A firm has two cars which it hires out day by day. The number of demands for
a car on each day is distributed as a Poisson variate with mean 1.5. Calculate
the probable number of days in a year on which
i) neither car is in demand.

ii) a demand is refused.
b) Fit a second degree parabola to the following data :
x:
y:
10
11
11
10
c) Find the value of k if the following function is a probability density function,

f(x ) =
k
< x < .
1+ x 2
9. a) Obtain half range sine series for f(x ) = x x 2 0 x l .
3
2
2
b) Find a, b, c if F = (axy + bz ) i + (3 x cz) j + (3 xz y )k is irrotational.
c) Monthly salaries of 1000 workers have a normal distribution with mean of

Rs. 575 and a standard deviation of Rs. 75. Find the number of workers
having salaries between Rs. 500 and 625 p.m. Also find the minimum salary of
highest paid 200 workers. (Given : S.N.V. area between z = 0 and z = 1 is
0.3413, area between z = 0 and z = 0.67 is 0.2486, area between z = 0 and
z = 0.84 is 0.3).
_____________________
Code No.
*SLR-UM-144*
SLR-UM 144
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------B.E. (Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

IMAGE PROCESSING (Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Multiple choice questions. Choose correct option from given options.
(201=20)
1) Digitizing the amplitude values is called _______________

a) quantization
b) sampling
c) thresholding
d) filtering
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 144
*SLR-UM-144*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The effect caused by use of insufficient number of gray levels in smooth

areas of digital image is
a) false pattern
b) low contrast
c) low resolution
d) false contouring
3) Low contrast image can result from

a) poor illumination
b) lack of dynamic range in the imaging sensor
c) wrong setting of lens aperture
d) all above a), b) and c)
4) Which of the following transform is based on statistical properties of vector
representations ?
a) Hotelling
b) DCT
c) Walsh
d) Hadamard
5) Smoothing filters are used for

a) blurring
b) noise reduction
c) both blurring and noise reduction
d) none of these
*SLR-UM-144*
SLR-UM 144
-3-
6) With F(u, v) representing the DFT of an image F(0, 0) is sometimes called

a) average value of an image
b) dc component
c) ac component
d) none of these
7) High frequencies in the DFT of an images are related to

a) dark regions in an image
b) light regions in an image
c) sharp transitions in an intensity
d) slowly varying intensity components in an image
8) A high pass filter is obtained from given low pass filter HLP(u, v) using
a) HHP(u, v) = HLP(u, v) 1
b) HHP(u, v) = 1/HLP(u, v)
c) HHP(u, v) = 1 HLP(u, v)
d) HHP(u, v) = 1/(1 HLP(u, v))
9) Intensity range of an 8 bit pixel image is

a) 0 to 7
b) 0 to 15
c) 0 to 31
d) 0 to 255
10) Which of the following transform take only binary values 1 ?

a) Fourier transform
b) Hadamard transform
c) K-L transform
d) DCT
11) The signature obtained by plotting the distance from the centroid to the
boundary as a function of angle is
a) invariant to translation
b) do not depend on rotation
c) do not depend on scaling
d) constant
12) The skeleton of a region may be obtained via

a) polygon approximation
b) chain code
c) matrix multiplication
d) medial axis transformation
13) Region growing technique of segmentation is based on ____________ property

of intensity values.
a) discontinuity
b) similarity
c) similarity and discontinuity
d) darkness
SLR-UM 144
*SLR-UM-144*
-4-
14) The response of the mask used for derivative operation in the region of constant
intensity is
a) zero
b) constant
c) high
d) low
15) Which of the following produces double edge response at the ramp and step
transitions in intensity ?
a) First derivative
b) Second derivative
c) First and second derivative
d) None of these
16) ________________ is an approach used most frequently for segmenting the

images based on abrupt changes in intensity.
a) Edge detection
b) Thresholding
c) Region growing
d) Point operation
17) Which of the following transform is suitable for image data compression ?
a) DCT
b) Hadamard
c) Walsh
d) All of these a), b) and c)
18) Knowing image _______________, information redundancy can be determined.

a) quality
b) entropy
c) DCT
d) format
19) The advantage of moments over other methods in descriptors is

a) Easy to calculate
b) Carry physical interpretation of boundary shape
c) Sensitive to rotation
d) None of these
20) ________________ can be used to determine whether an edge pixel lies on
the dark or light side of an edge.
a) Sign of the first derivative
b) Sign of the second derivative
c) Magnitude of the first derivative
d) Magnitude of the second derivative
______________________
*SLR-UM-144*
-5-
SLR-UM 144
Seat
No.
B.E. (Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(46=24)
a) Explain how the negative of an image can be obtained, illustrate with the
corresponding transformation function. Mention one of its uses.
b) Write short note on intensity level slicing.
c) The images shown below have same histograms. Suppose that each image
is blurred with a 3 3 averaging mask.
I) Would the histogram of blurred images still be equal. Explain.
II) If your answer is NO, sketch the two histograms.
SLR-UM 144
-6-
*SLR-UM-144*
d) Explain the following terms with respect to digital image capturing.

I) Sampling
II) Quantization.
e) Explain following properties of DFT of images.
I) Rotation and Translation
II) Periodicity.
f) What is Hadamard Transform ? Explain properties of Hadamard Transform.
(28=16)
a) Explain in brief following order statistic filters.

I) Median filters
II) Min and Max filters
III) Midpoint point filter.
b) Explain different techniques to sharpen the image in frequency domain.
c) What do you mean by Digital Image Processing ? Discuss the different
application areas of Digital Image Processing.
SECTION II
(46=24)
a) Define image segmentation. Classify different segmentation techniques.

b) Define data compression, entropy, relative data redundancy and compression
ratio.
c) What is shape number ? Draw all shapes of order 8 along with 4 directional
chain code and shape number.
*SLR-UM-144*
-7-
SLR-UM 144
d) How boundary can be represented with signature ? Explain with examples.

e) Explain the process of edge detection using gradient operators.
f) Draw the medial axis of
I) Circle
II) Square.
(28=16)
a) Explain edge linking by Hough transform. State the problem associated with
Hough transform when the slope intercept form of equation of straight line is
considered. Why is the problem reduced when normal form is considered ?
b) Explain following techniques for boundary approximations using polygon.
I) Minimum perimeter polygon
II) Splitting techniques.
c) Discuss in detail the discrete image transforms used in image compression.
___________________
Code No. SLR-UM
145
*SLRUM145*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014
ADVANCED COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) Waveguides are pressurised above normal atmospheric pressure for _____
a) Increasing their power handling capacity
b) Improving the conductivity of their walls
c) Preventing higher order modes from propagating
d) Varying the wave impedance
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 145
*SLRUM145*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) In TM both electric and magnetic field are

a) E = 0 H = 0
b) E 0 H = 0
c) E = 0 H 0
d) E 0 H 0
3) In the given magnetic field B, the radius of the path of electron is
given by,
vB
em
a) R =
mv
eB
b) R =
c) R =
eV
G
m
d) None
4) H-plane Tee junction is formed by cutting a rectangular a slot along

a) The breadth of main waveguide
b) The width of main waveguide
c) Both a) and b)
5) What MESFETS stands for ?
a) Metaloxide Semi Conductor Field Effect Transistor
b) Metal Semi Conductor Field Effect Transistor
c) Metal Electron Semi Conductor Field Effect Transistor
d) Magnetic Semi Conductor Field Effect Transistor
6) In monostatic radar the function of radar is ____________
a) To isolate transmitter and receiver during transmission and
reception
b) To protect the receiver from high power transmitter
c) To help use a single transmitter and receiver antenna
d) All above
*SLRUM145*
-3-
SLR-UM 145
7) In cavity Magnetron the electric field is __________

a) Axial
b) Radial
c) Either a) or b)
d) None
8) The optimum transit time in case of Reflex Klystron is
a) T = n + 3/2
b) T = 3n + 1/2
c) T = n + 3/4
d) T = 3n + 1/4
9) In BWO the total phase shift around the loop is ___________
a) 2 rad
b) /2 rad
c) 2 n rad
d) /2n rad
10) Drawback of continuous wave radar is _________
a) They cannot measure temperature
b) They cannot measure range
c) They cannot measure speed
d) They cannot measure phase
11) Track RADAR system is based on ____________
a) Installation environment
b) Functional characteristics
c) Transmission characteristics
d) Operating frequency band
12) ___________ is most widely used for generating microwave frequencies for
RADAR.
a) Magnetron
b) Reflex klystron
c) TWT
d) Klystron
13) Free space Radar Range equation implies that increase in a frequency,
___________ the range ; depending on BW of antenna because antenna
width is ____________ to wavelength.
a) Decreases, directly proportional
b) Increases, directly proportional
c) Decreases, inversely proportional
14) The 3 axes of satellite are
a) Pitch, roll and yaw
c) Only a)
b) Pitch, map and roll

d) Only b)
SLR-UM 145
-4-
*SLRUM145*
15) To prevent excessive signal attenuation and noise in atmosphere, satellite

angle of elevation should be less than
a) 6 degree
b) 90 degree
c) 45 degree
d) 5 degree
16) The co-ordinates to which earth station antenna must be pointed to
communicate with satellite are called
a) Latitude angle
b) Longitude angle
c) Look angle
d) North angle
17) Which of the following has largest traffic capacity ?
a) Communication sub-system
b) Power sub-system
c) Altitude and orbit control sub-system
d) None
18) ____________ measures transmission capacity of optical fiber links.
a) Bit-rate-distance product
b) Bit-rate product
c) None of these
d) Both
19) A _____________ is non-dispersive pulse that makes use of nonlinear
dispersion properties in a fiber to cancel out chromatic dispersion effects.
a) Soliton
b) Stimulated
c) Spontaneous
d) None of these
20) The angle b/w incident ray and normal to the plane is ___________
a) Angle of reflection
b) Angle of incident
c) Angle of coefficient
d) None of these
__________________
*SLRUM145*
-5-
SLR-UM 145
Seat
No.
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ADVANCED COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(38=24)
a) Explain construction and working of Reflex Klystron. State its performance

parameters.
b) Draw block diagram of Pulse radar system and explain its working Principal.
c) A rectangular waveguide has dimensions 2.5 5 cms. Determine the guide
wavelength, phase constant and phase velocity Vp at a wavelength of
4.5 cms for the dominant mode.
d) Explain principle of operation Tunnel diode and list its applications.
a) What are the difference between TWT and Klystron ?
b) State and explain properties of scattering matrix.
c) Write a note on FM-CW Radar.
d) Explain construction and working of PIN diode.
e) Write a note on Phased array Radar.
(44=16)
SLR-UM 145
-6-
*SLRUM145*
SECTION II
(38=24)
a) With suitable block diagrams explain telemetry, tracking and command

(TT and C) subsystem of satellite.
b) Derive the expression for up-link and down link design.
c) Explain construction and working of LASER.
d) Draw and explain block diagram of earth station.
(44=16)
a) Draw and explain different types of optical fiber.

b) What is meant by geostationary satellite ?
c) Compare Demand assigned multiple access and pre assigned multiple access.
d) Explain bending losses in optical fiber.
e) Write a note on station keeping.
_______________
Code No.
*SLR-UM-146*
SLR-UM 146
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

AUDIO VIDEO ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Tick mark the correct option :
20
1) The groove depth of coarse-groove is around

a) 75 micron
b) 25 micron
c) 10 micron
d) 50 micron
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 146
*SLR-UM-146*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) _______________ is low frequency distortion caused by mechanical vibrations

of motor body or capstan.
a) wow
b) flutter
c) rumble
d) hissing noise
3) The method used for compression, achieved by suppressing the signal by

a) Non-linear PCM
b) DPCM
c) ADPCM
d) All of these
4) If a gap-width is 6 microns and speed of tape is 4.75 cm/s, the maximum

frequency for recording is
a) 4 kHz
b) 6 kHz
c) 8 kHz
d) 10 kHz
5) The nominal duration of the horizontal line (PAL system) is

a) 52 s
b) 12 s
c) 64 s
d) 4.8 s
6) As per CUVR- B standard the interlace ratio is

a) 1 : 2
b) 2 : 1
c) 3 : 1
d) 3 : 2
7) The sync pulses are added at ______________% level called the blanking
level with negative modulation.
a) 72
b) 75
c) 52
d) 12.5
*SLR-UM-146*
SLR-UM 146
-3-
8) The vertical syncs are separated using

a) clipper
b) limiter
c) integrator
d) differentiator
9) The picture details of first field carried by

a) 18th 2nd -half to 310
b) 311, 312 and 313th Ist-half
c) 331 to 1st-half of 623rd
d) 318th 2nd half to 330
10) The image orthicon works on principle _____________ effects.

a) photo conductivity
b) photo emission
c) primary
d) dynamic
11) When the polarity of modulating video signal is so chosen that sync tips lie at
100 percent level of carrier amplitude is called
a) amplitude modulation
b) positive modulation
c) negative modulation
d) hybrid modulation
12) For colour signal transmission _______________ colour difference signals

are transmitted.
a) R-Y, G-Y
b) R-Y, B-Y
c) G-Y-B-Y
d) None of these
13) _________________ is the spectral purity of the colour light.

a) Saturation
b) Brightness
c) Luminance
d) Hue
14) The number of scanning lines used in standard ____________ system is

1125.
a) Colour TV
b) Digital TV
c) HDTV
d) Cable TV
15) The function of balun in VHF tuner is

a) Impedance matching
b) AGC
c) AFC
d) AFT
SLR-UM 146
*SLR-UM-146*
-4-
16) The colour killer circuit becomes on and disable ____________ amplifier
during monochrome reception.
a) RF
b) Video
c) Chroma band pass
d) Sound
17) In NTSC I signal is expressed as

a) 0.48 (R Y) + 0.41 (B Y)
b) 0.27 (B Y) 0.74 (R Y)
c) 0.74 (R Y) 0.27 (B Y)
d) 0.41 (R Y) + 0.48 (B Y)
18) The serrated pulses are part of

a) Vertical sync
b) Horizontal sync
c) Interleaving process
d) Sub carrier
19) The problem of differential phase errors has been successfully overcome in
the ____________ system.
a) SECAM
b) NTSC
c) PAL
d) Both a) and b)
20) In delta gun picture tube the ratio of electronics passing through the holes to
those reaching the shadow mark is only about ____________ percent.
a) 20
b) 25
c) 30
d) 50
______________________
*SLR-UM-146*
-5-
SLR-UM 146
Seat
No.

AUDIO VIDEO ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Answer any four :
(54=20)
a) With diagram explain the principle and working of disc reproduction system.
b) Explain the effect of frequency and gap-width on the output during playback
of magnetic reproduction system.
c) Explain audio capture. How does MIDI play a role in a multimedia system ?
d) What is multimedia ? Why it is essential, explain in detail.
e) What are the advantages and disadvantages of VSB transmission ?
3. a) i) What are the types of optical recording of sound ? Explain methods of
optical recording of sound on film.
ii) List the characteristics of camera tube.
b) i) With suitable sketch explain in detail the tape transport mechanism.
ii) Describe the applications of multimedia.
6
4
6
4
OR
b) i) With block diagram explain working of low level transmitter, used for
television transmission. What are its advantages ?
ii) Describe video compression methods.
6
4
SLR-UM 146
-6-
*SLR-UM-146*
SECTION II
(54=20)
a) What are the different attributes of colour ? Explain chromaticity diagram.

b) With block diagram explain how luminance and chrominance signals are
generated.
c) List the comparison points of analog TV and HDTV.
d) With block diagram explain working of remote control system.
e) What is the working principle of SECAM system ? List its advantages and
disadvantages.
5. a) i) What are the major drawbacks of NTSC system ? How those are over
come in PAL system ?
ii) Briefly explain working of cable television system.
b) i) With block diagram explain working of digital television system.
ii) What is AFT ? Why it is essential in colour receiver.
6
4
6
4
OR
b) i) Draw the general block diagram of colour receiver. Explain the fucntion of
each block.
ii) Briefly explain about DTH system.
___________________
6
4
Code No. SLR-UM 147
*SLRUM147*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------B.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2014

EMBEDDED SYSTEM
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instruction : Question No. 1 is compulsory.

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) The ARM register ___________ is called link register.

a) R12
b) R13
c) R14
d) R15
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 147
*SLRUM147*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The cache memory is placed between ____________

a) ROM and RAM
b) Main memory and core
c) Main memory and secondary memory
d) All of above
3) ARM uses the thumb _____________ bit instruction set to improve code
density.
a) 32
b) 8
c) 64
d) 16
4) The vector address of IRQ interrupt is _____________

a) 0 0000001C
b) 0 00000010
c) 0 00000018
d) 0 00000014
5) The ARM7TDMI-S supports ___________, ___________ and __________ data

types.
a) char, int, float
b) char, int, byte
c) byte, half-word, word
d) int, char, word
6) Let r0 = 0 00000000 and r1 = 0 00000005. What will be the content of r0

after execution of instruction ADD r0, r1, r1, LSL#1 ?
a) 0 00000000
b) 0 00000005
c) 0 0000000a
d) 0 0000000f
*SLRUM147*
SLR-UM 147
-3-
7) Let r5 = 5 and r7 = 8. What will be the content of r7 after execution of instruction

MOV r7, r5, LSL#2 ?
a) 14
b) 20
c) 5
d) 8
8) The ____________ directive allows the programmer to specify the memory

locations where programs, subroutines or the data will resides.
a) ALIGN
b) AREA
c) ENTRY
d) END
9) In ARM7TDMI-S S stands for ____________

a) Synthesizable
b) Synthesis
c) Small
10) ____________ exception is having the lowest priority.
a) Reset
b) Supervisor
c) System
d) Undefined instruction
11) LPC2148s maximum operating frequency is ____________ MHz.

a) 100
b) 80
c) 50
d) 60
12) In LPC2148 pin select register ____________ is used to configure functions

of port pins P1.16 to P1.31.
a) PINSEL2
b) PINSEL0
c) IODIR2
d) IOSET0
13) To force logic 1 on port pin P0.15, ___________ register is used in LPC2148.
a) IOSET0
b) IOSET1
c) IOCLR0
d) IODIR3
14) In LPC2148 ___________ register is used to control on-chip PLL0.

a) PLLCON0
b) PLLCFG0
c) PLLCON1
d) PINSEL0
SLR-UM 147
*SLRUM147*
-4-
15) VIC stands for ___________

a) VLSI Input Control
b) Vector Input Controller
c) Vectored Interrupt Controller
16) A ___________ is software for controlling, receiving and sending a byte or
stream of bytes from or to device.
a) Kernel
b) Shell
c) Processor
d) Device Driver
17) __________ software allows the system activities to be divided into multiple
independent elements called tasks.
a) Kernel
b) Shell
c) Processor
d) Device driver
18) In 12C ____________ device/s exchange data during one conversation.

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) More than two
d) All of above
19) CAN stands for ____________

a) Controller Area Network
b) Cascaded Area Network
c) Control Area Network
d) Communication Area Network
20) Using USB up to ___________ devices may be connected to a single host
controller.
a) 2
b) 64
c) 127
d) 256
______________
-5-
*SLRUM147*
SLR-UM 147
Seat
No.
B.E. (Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2014

EMBEDDED SYSTEM
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(46=24)
a) Explain Time-to-Market design metrics in detail.

b) Explain the working of following instructions. (R7=000004000)
1) LDMIA
R7,
{R0, R2-R4}
2) LDMDB
R7!,
{R0, R2-R4}
3) STMIA
R7!,
{R1-R3}
c) Define context, interrupt latency, interrupt response time and interrupt recovery
time.
d) Write an ARM assembly program to find length of null terminated string.
e) Explain operating modes of ARM7 core.
3. Solve any two :
(28=16)
a) Write an ARM ASM code to find largest number from a series of 16 bit
numbers.
b) Explain hardware and software architecture of embedded system.
c) Draw and explain ARM core data flow model.
SLR-UM 147
-6-
*SLRUM147*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(46=24)
a) Explain embedded communication using SPI.

b) Explain queue, mailbox and pipes.
c) Define Task. Explain its states.
d) Define RTOS. Explain its function.
e) Draw and explain block diagram of digital camera.
5. Solve any two :
(28=16)
a) Interface a stepper motor with LPC2148 for the following specifications

i) The motor is connected to port pins P0.4, P0.5, P0.6 and P0.7
ii) Rotate motor in clockwise direction.
Draw a neat circuit diagram and write an embedded C program.
b) Explain three alternatives for RTOS to respond the interrupt.
c) Draw and explain interfacing of 16 2 LCD with LPC2148 for following
specifications.
i) Use P0.5 and P0.6 as RS and En respectively (Control Bus).
ii) Use P1.16 to P1.23 as data bus (D0-D7).
Write an embedded C program to display Welcome!!
______________
Code No. SLR-UM 148

Seat
No.
*SLRUM148*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

BROADBAND COMMUNICATION (Ele. II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Multiple choice questions should be solved in first 30 minutes.

Marks : 20
1. Multiple choice question. Each correct solution carries one mark.

20
1) Which statement about Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is false ?
a) An ISDN connection uses terminal adapter (TA)
b) BRI has two B channels and one D channel for a throughput total of
192 Kbps
c) PRI has 23 B channels and 1 D channel for a total throughput of
1.544 Mbps
d) ISDN consists of end-to-end high-speed analog lines
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 148
*SLRUM148*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) X.25 provides a virtual high-quality digital network at

b) High cost
a) Low cost
c) Medium cost
d) All of these
3) In X.25, A host connected at 56 kbps and communicating with numerous
remote sites can be linked with cheaper ___________ lines.
a) 18.2 kbps
b) 19.2 kbps
c) 20.2 kbps
d) 22.2 kbps
4) The channel grouping in X.25 are known as

a) Logical Channel Group Number (LCGN)
b) Logical Channel Number (LCN)
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
5) Maximum packet sizes in X.25 vary from
a) 64 bytes to 128 bytes
b) 64 bytes to 4096 bytes
c) 64 bytes to 256 bytes
d) 32 bytes to 64 bytes
6) Logical channels are identified by a number referred by

a) DLCI (Data Link Connection Identifier)
b) VLCI (Very Large Connection Identifier)
c) HDLC (High Level Data Link Control)
d) QLLC
*SLRUM148*
SLR-UM 148
-3-
7) Frame relay indicates network congestion using two flags namely _________
bits in data frames.
a) Forward Explicit Congestion Notification (FECN)
b) Backward Explicit Congestion Notification (BECN)
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
8) The ISDN internetworking equipment devices are
a) Terminal Adapters (TAs)
b) ISDN Bridges
c) ISDN Routers
d) All of these
9) The B-channel is capable of carrying

a) Voice
b) Data
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
10) Frame relay operates in ___________ layer.

a) Physical
b) Data link
c) Physical and data link layers
d) Physical, data link and network layers
11) Cell relay is data transmission services that uses transmission technology
referred to as
a) ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode)
b) BTM
c) STM
d) DTM
12) Disadvantages of cell relay are
a) Cell discarding occurs with congestion
b) High cost
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
SLR-UM 148
*SLRUM148*
-4-
13) In cell relay these logical channels are represented as

a) Virtual Channels (VCs)
b) Virtual Paths (VPs)
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
14) Identifiers are called _____________ are used to identify VPs and VCs.
a) VCIs
b) VIPs
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
15) ATM networks are

a) Connectionless
b) Interconnected
c) Connection oriented
d) None of these
16) ATM cell has a fixed length of ______________

a) 52 bytes
b) 53 bytes
c) 54 bytes
d) 55 bytes
17) ATM is specifically designed as _____________ technology for voice, video

and data.
a) Single
b) Double
c) Multiple
d) None of these
18) The characteristics of ATM are as follows

a) The transport speeds of most ATM applications are most often 155 Mbps
and 622 Mbps
b) ATM is a flexible service made possible by the size of the
packets (cells)
c) The small cell size allows a variety of applications to run on ATM
networks including voice, video and data
d) All of these
19) SONETs __________ layer transfers signal across the physical line.
a) Path
b) Line
c) Section
d) Photonic
20) A ___________ field on a cell header in ATM layer determines whether a cell
can be dropped.
a) VPI
b) VCI
c) CLP
d) GFC
______________
*SLRUM148*
-5-
SLR-UM 148
Seat
No.

BROADBAND COMMUNICATION (Ele. II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
1) What is difference between connection oriented and connectionless data

transfer ? Discuss various issues that can be modified to make communication
faster.
2) Explain advantages of packet switching over circuit switching. Explain datagram
and virtual circuit approach. What modifications are necessary to be made in
basic telephone system to support data communication at large speed ?
3) Draw and explain the frame formats for LAP-D. How error and flow control is
addressed in X.25 ?
4) What ISDN architecture protocol in detail ? Explain ISDN channel structure.
5) Write and explain different frame relay parameters.
(210=20)
1) Compare between analog and digital switching. What is intelligent network ?

Explain various ISDN channel structures.
2) How information and control data is forwarded in X.25 ? Draw and explain
X.25 packet format in detail.
3) Draw and explain LAPF frame format. What is extended address in frame
relay ? Draw various address formats in frame relay.
SLR-UM 148
-6-
*SLRUM148*
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Explain generic flow control mechanism to control congestion.

2) Define the terms virtual path and virtual circuit related to ATM networks.
Discuss call establishment process using virtual paths.
3) What is coded mark inversion (CMI) coding related to line coding for electric
interface in ATM network ? Explain HEC operation at receiver at ATM receiver.
4) How an ATM cell is processed in ATM switch ?
5) Explain conversational services in BISDN.
5. 1) What are add-drop multiplexers ? Draw and explain SONET system hierarchy. 10
2) Explain AAL 1 protocol in detail.
10
OR
2) Explain generic ATM switch element. Explain performance aspect of buffering
in ATM switching.
10
______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 149
*SLRUM149*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------B.E. (Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

PLC AND INDUSTRIAL CONTROLLERS (Elective II )
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

2) Figures to right hand side indicate maximum marks.
Marks : 20
1. Select correct alternatives :
20
1) Proportional band of a controller is defined as the range of
a) Measured variable to the set variable
b) Air output as the measured variable varies from maximum to minimum
c) Measured variables through which the air output varies from maximum
to minimum
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 149
*SLRUM149*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Proportional band of the controller is expressed as

a) Gain
b) Ratio
c) Percentage
d) Range of control variables
3) The term reset control refers to

a) Proportional
b) Integral
c) Derivative
4) The integral control

a) Increases the steady state error
b) Decreases the steady state error
c) Increases the noise and stability
d) Decreases the damping coefficient
5) In a proportional temperature controller, if the quantity under the heater
increases the offset will
a) Increase
b) Reduce
c) Remain un effected
6) When derivative action is included in a proportional controller, the proportional

band
a) Increases
b) Reduces
c) Remains unchanged
7) The number of operational amplifiers require for designing of electronic PID

controller is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
*SLRUM149*
SLR-UM 149
-3-
8) Which of the following system provides excellent transient and steady state
response ?
a) Proportional action
b) Proportional + Integral action
c) Proportional + Differential action
d) Proportional + Integral + Differential action
9) In a PID controller, the offset has increased. The integral time constant has
to be _______________ so as to reduce offset.
a) Reduced
b) Increased
c) Reduced to zero
10) In a PID controller, the overshoots has increased. The derivative time constant
has to be ___________ so as to reduce the overshoots.
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Reduced to zero
11) Which sensor is semiconductor sensor ?

a) RTD
b) PT100
c) LM35
12) Which sensor is self generating type sensor ?

a) PT100
b) Thermocouple
c) RTD
d) Thermostat
13) Ladder diagram shown below is
a) NAND
b) NOR
c) XOR
d) XNOR
SLR-UM 149
*SLRUM149*
-4-
14) Scan time in PLC depends on

a) SMPS
b) Linear power supply
c) Number of rows in ladder
15) PLC is universal controller

a) YES
b) NO
c) Both
16) Which device provides maximum Isolation ?

a) Pulse Transformer
b) Normal Transformer
c) Opto Isolator
17) Word address in PLC not includes

a) SMPS
b) Input
c) OUTPUT
d) Rack number
18) PT100 has sensitivity of

a) 51uV/0c
b) 40uV/0c
c) 0.0039Ohm/0c
d) None of these
19) Mico PLC stands for

a) I/O upto 4
b) I/O upto 8
c) I/O between 4 to 8
d) I/O between 8 to 16
20) Dead Band in Controller

a) Increases the accuracy
b) Decrease the accuracy
c) Decreases the linearity
d) None of these
_____________________
*SLRUM149*
-5-
SLR-UM 149
Seat
No.
B.E. (Electronics Engineering) ( Part II) Examination, 2014

PLC AND INDUSTRIAL CONTROLLERS (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) Figures to right hand side indicate maximum marks.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
20
a) What are different components of PLC ?

b) What is programming language used in PLC ? Explain with example.
c) Write a short note on PLC Architecture.
d) What is SCAN in PLC ?
e) Advantage of PLCs than Hard Wired Relay ?
3. Solve any two :
a) Fluid from storage tank is pumped in to a pressure tank for use in a chemical
process. The following automatic control should be incorporated.
Narrative Statements :
1) Fill the storage tank for 10 minutes.
2) LLS1 shows low level in the storage tank.
3) When LLS2 shows low level in the pressure tank, the pump should become
ON automatically.
4) When LLS3 shows high level in the pressure tank, the pump should
become OFF automatically.
20
SLR-UM 149
-6-
*SLRUM149*
5) If pressure in the pressure tank is low the solenoid valve should be

operated by pressure limit switch PL1 and air with high pressure is inlet
in the pressure tank and the system should become OFF.
6) Provide over current trip with thermal overload to the pump.
7) The manual control could be used in the automatic system fails.
b) Develop a ladder diagram for an overhead crane. Crane has two motors one
is for moving the object up and down another is for moving crane in forward
and backward direction.
1) DOWN PB is pressed hook comes down and stops when STOP PB is
pushed.
2) UP PB is pressed hook goes upwards and stops when STOP PB is
pushed.
3) FORWARD PB is pressed crane goes in forward direction and stops
when STOP PB is pushed.
4) BACK WARD PB is pressed crane goes in backward direction and stops
when STOP PB is pushed.
c) Develop a ladder diagram for preparing ice in a factory.
1) Fill the tank with water
2) Start the compressor
3) Ensure that the ice has been ready or not
4) Wait for 1 minute
5) Open the door.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
a) Write a short note on pressure sensor.
b) Write a short on pneumatics actuators.
c) Design Converter for conversion of 0V to 5V into 4mA to 20mA using floating
load.
d) Design converter for conversion 4mA to 20mA into 0V to + 2V using floating
input.
e) Write a note on flow sensors.
20
*SLRUM149*
-7-
SLR-UM 149
5. Solve any two :
20
a) Design analog proportional Integral controller for following specification :

i) Process variable range 100C to 900C
ii) Set point 400C to 500C
iii) Use K type thermocouple with sensitivity 7 micro V/C
iv) Proportional band 60%
v) Integral Constant 3
vi) Assume suitable data
b) Design analog proportional derivative controller for following specification :
i) Process variable range 0to 800C
ii) Set point 200C to 300C
iii) Use R type thermocouple with sensitivity 40microV/C
iv) Proportional band 60%
v) Derivative Constant 2
vi) Assume suitable data
c) Explain Data Acquisition System (DAS) in detail.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
150
*SLRUM150*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (E & TC Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
N.B. :
For Office Use only
Code No.

one mark.
1. 1) The P.I. of (D3 3D + 2)y = x is
1
a) ( x + 1)
2
1
3
c) x +
2
2
Marks : 20
b) x +
3
2
d) (x + 1)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 150
*SLRUM150*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W

a) (D2 + 2)2y = 0
b) (D2 2)2y = 0
c) (D2 + 4)2y = 0
d) (D2 4)2y = 0
a)
b)
c)
d)
(D2 4D + 1)y = et t(sint + 1)

(D2 4D 1)y = et t(sint + 1)
(D2 + 4D 1)y = et t(sint 1)
(D2 + 4D 1)y = et t(sint 1)

a) z =
b
x + by + c
3
c) z = 3ax2 + by
b) z = 3ax + a2y + c
d) z = ax +
a2
y+c
3
a) ( x + y, y + z) = 0
x
b) ,
y
x2 y2
c) , = 0
y z
d) ( xyz, x) = 0

a) p + q = 1
c) pq = 1
y
=0
z
b) p q = 1
d)
p
=1
q
d
becomes
dt
*SLRUM150*
SLR-UM 150
-3-
7) If L{f( t )} = ( s ) , then L t 2 f(t )

a) (s)
d2
b) 1 2 (s)
ds
c) (s)
d) None

i) L{f(t)} =
ii) L
1
{Lf(t) + f(0)}
s
{ f(u) du}= sL {f(t)}

t
a) Only i) is true
c) Both are true
b) Only ii) is true

d) Both are false
1
9) L1
=
32
(s 2)
t2
a) e
3!
2t
c) e
t3 2
b) e
52
t
d) e
2t
3
2
1
10) L1
2
(s 3) + 16
e3 t
sin 4t
a)
4
b)
c) e3 t cos 4 t
d) e 3 t cos 4t
x,
x,
a) No cosine terms
e 3 t
sin 4t
4
2x 0
0x2
b) No sine terms
d) None of these
a) Harmonic
c) Periodic
SLR-UM 150
*SLRUM150*
-4-

a) sin x + cos x
b) 1 cos 2x
c) sin 2x + cos 2x
d)
1
(1 cos 2x)
2
a) F(2s)
2
b) F
s
c) 2F(2s)
d)
1 s
F
2 2

a) curl F = 0
b) div F = 0
c) grad F = 0
d) grad F 0
a) a
c) 2b + 3a
dr
=
dt
b) b
d) 2a + 3b

a) 2
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
a) ak
z
, |z| > a (with k 0 ) is
z+a
b) (a)k
c) ak + 1
d) (a)k + 1
a)
1
2
b)
c)
d)
1,
0,
a) | z | < 1
b) | z | > 1
c) z < 1
d) z = 0
__________________
k0
is
k<0
*SLRUM150*
-5-
SLR-UM 150
Seat
No.
S.E. (E & TC Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
d3 y
dy
= 2 cosh2 (2 t ) .
2. a) Solve 3 4
dt
dt
x
b) Solve (D2 + 3D + 2)y = ee .
d2 y
dy
2x
4y = x 2 + 2 log x .
c) Solve x
2
dx
dx
OR
d2 y
dy
c) Solve (1 + x )
+ (1 + x )
+ y = 4 cos log(1 + x) .
2
dx
dx
2
3. a) Solve
b) Solve
d4 y
+ 4y = 0 .
dx 4
d3 y dy
= 2e t + 2t + 1 4 cos t .
3
dt
dt
d2i i
dt 2 c
SLR-UM 150
*SLRUM150*
-6-
sin t sin 5t
4. a) Find L
.
t
u
u
=2
+ u where
x
t
u(x, 0) = 6e3x.
5. a) Solve 9(p2z + q2) = 4.
1
b) Find L1
4
(s 2) (s + 3)
32s
1
s
= t sin t find L1
c) If L1 2
2
2 .
2
(16s + 1)
(s + 1) 2
SECTION II

(1 x 2 ),
0 ,
|x|1
and hence evaluate
|x|>1
x
x cos x sin x
cos dx .
3
x
2



*SLRUM150*
-7-
SLR-UM 150
3z 2 + 2z
, 1< | z | < 2.
z 3z + 2
kx ,
c) Expand f(x) =
k(l x) ,
deduce that
5
4
l
l
<x<l
2
0<x<
2 1
1
1
= 2 + 2 + 2 + ... .
8 1
3
5
OR
r 2
r r
_______________
Code No. SLR-UM 152
*SLRUM152*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
O
e
a
M
(
P
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 is objective type of 20 marks.

2) Use of Data Sheet is allowed.
3) Assume suitable data, if required.
1. Tick the correct option.
Marks : 20
20
1) The maximum efficiency of a full wave rectification is

a) 40.6 %
b) 100 %
c) 81.2 %
d) 85.6 %
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 152
*SLRUM152*
-2-
DO
NO
R
W
T
H
E
IT
E
R
E
2) For a full wave bridge rectifier PIV is

a) Vm
b) 2 Vm
c) Vm/2
d) Zero
3) The RC time constant is clamper is kept
a) small
b) large
c) zero
d) both a) and c)
4) Zener diode is _________ temperature coefficient.
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Both a) and b)
d) Zero
5) Ripple factor for Halfwave rectifier without filter is
b) 12.1
a) 1.21
c) .121
d) .0121
6) The critical value of inductance in choke input filter is
b) RL/3w
a) 3 w/RL
c) 3 wRL
d) RL
*SLRUM152*
SLR-UM 152
-3-
7) The average value for FW rectifier is

a) Im/
c) Im
b) 2 Im/
d) 2 Im
8) The TUF for H.W. rectifier is

a) .48
c) .81
b) 1.21
d) .28
9) The ripple factor is directly proportional to load resistance is

a) LC filter
b) L filter
c) C filter
d) filter
10) The ripple factor is independent to load resistance in

b) C filter
a) L filter
c) LC filter
d) filter
11) Compensation technique uses

a) Capacitor
c) Thermistor
b) Inductor
d) S.C.R.
12) The bias condition of a transistor for being used as an amplifier is

a) Forward-Forward
b) Forward-reverse
c) reverse-reverse
d) reverse-forward
13) If
is 100, the value of

a) 100/99
is
b)

c) 101
14) The saturation value of VCE is
a) Vcc
c) .7V
d) 100
b) 0V
d) Vcc/2
SLR-UM 152
*SLRUM152*
-4-
15) The correct statement is

a) Emitter is heavily doped than collector
b) Collector is heavily doped than emitter
c) Base is heavily doped than emitter
16) The voltage with by pass capacitor is __________ than without by pass
capacitor.
b) Same
a) Less
c) Greater
d) Both a) and c)
17) The correct statement is
a) Monostable converts sine to square wave
b) Astable converts square to sine wave
c) Schmitt trigger converts sine to square wave
d) Bistable converts sine to square wave
18) The maximum current gain of an amplifier is unity. It is
a) CB
b) CC
c) CE
d) None
19) The input and output resistance of CC is
b) High and Low
a) Low and Low
c) High and High
d) Low and High
20) In a CE amp RC = 1 K , RE = 200
, re = 16 and
completely by passed at operating plug the voltage gain is
a) 4
b) 5
c) 63
d) 75
______________________
= 75. RE is
*SLRUM152*
-5-
SLR-UM 152
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering) (Part I)

Examination, 2014
Total Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Draw neat diagrams.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Draw and explain voltage doubler circuit.

b) Define Ripple factor, TUF and PIV.
c) A germanium diode carries a current of 1 mA of room temperature when a
forward of .15V is applied. Estimate the reverse saturation current at room
temperature.
d) Sketch the output waveform
e) Why is Zener diode used as a voltage regulator ?

f) What is clamper circuit and draw negative clamper.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 152
*SLRUM152*
-6-
3. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) The forward resistance of diode is 20 . This diode is used in a half wave

rectifier circuit. The applied input voltage is u = 50 sinwt and load resistance
RL is 800 . Determine :
i) Im, Idc, Irms
ii) AC power input
iii) DC power output
iv) Output DC voltage
v) Rectification efficiency.
b) Derive the ripple factor equation for capacitor and inductor filter.
c) Design a power supply using a , filter to give dc output of 30 V, 100 mA with
a ripple not encoding .01% use a full wave circuit.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
a) Why CE configuration is most popular in amplifier circuits ?
b) What is stability factor ? Why compensation technique is needed ?
c) What is thermal runaway and what is its effect on transistor ?
d) Draw and explain the monostable multi vibrator.
e) Write few applications of BJT.
f) Derive the hybrid equation for CE configuration.
5. Solve any two :
(45=20)
(210=20)
a) Design a single stage CE amplifies to give a voltage gain of 100 with stability
factor 10 and output voltage of 2 Vrms. (hfe = 125, hie = 2.7 K ).
b) Design a series voltage regulator for output voltage in the range of 10 to 15 V

at 50 mA. Input is 25 5 V. (Assume necessary data).
c) For the given circuit find :

i) ICQ
ii) VCEQ
iii) AV
hfe = 50
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 153
*SLRUM153*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 is compulsory, to be solved in first 30 minutes in

separately provided answer sheet. This answer sheet would
be withdraw after first 30 minutes.
1. Tick the correct alternative for the following :
Marks : 20
20
1) Empty condition of queue is

a) Front = 1
b) Rear = 1
c) Front > rear
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 153
*SLRUM153*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Overflow condition of stack is

a) front = rear = max 1
b) front = rear = 0
c) top = max 1
3) The conversion of A * (B + C) * D expression to postfix is

a) ABC + * D *
c) * AB + C * D
b) A + BC * D *
4) Data structure tree is a

a) Non-linear
b) Linear
c) LIFO
d) FIFO
5) The pointer which is travelling along the linked list is called as

a) External pointer
b) Internal pointer
c) Traversal pointer
6) Node of doubly linked list contains following fields

a) info, next
b) info, next, back
c) front, rear
7) Avail list is nothing but

a) Finite pool of available nodes
b) No. of nodes of linked list
c) Containing zero nodes
*SLRUM153*
SLR-UM 153
-3-
8) Input restricted DEQUE allows insertion at only

a) one end
b) both end
c) second end
9) The node is called as interior node

a) if they dont posses children
b) if they posses children
c) if root is their parent
10) The pre-order traversal method travels first
a) left subtree
b) right subtree
c) root
11) A graph consist of set of

a) Nodes and vertices
b) Arcs and edges
c) Nodes and Arcs
12) The degree of node is

a) the number of arcs incident on it
b) the number of arcs that have node as head
c) the number of arcs that have node as tail
13) Which of the following term is not related to graph ?
a) Indegree
b) Outdegree
c) Depth
d) Cycle
14) The function that transform key into table index is called a
a) Internal hash function
b) External hash function
c) Hash function
d) Hash of key function
15) A two records that can occupy the same position this situation is
called as
a) Rehashing
b) Hash Collision
c) Chaining
SLR-UM 153
*SLRUM153*
-4-
16) The process used to find entry is called a

a) Sequential search
b) Search
c) Internal search
17) The sort based on values of actual digits in positional representation
of numbers being sorted is known as
a) Quick sort
b) Partition exchange sort
c) Radix sort
18) Recursive function can be implemented using queue data structure.
b) False
a) True
19) Graph is __________ data structure.
a) Linear data structure
b) Non-linear data structure
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
20) The adjacency list representation of graph, requires advance knowledge

of the number of nodes.
a) True
b) Flase
______________
*SLRUM153*
-5-
SLR-UM 153
Seat
No.
S.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(54=20)
1) What is linear queue ? What are the drawbacks of linear queue and how they
are overcome ?
2) Differentiate between static memory allocation and dynamic memory allocation.
3) Convert the following infix expression to postfix.
B * C D + E / F/ (G + H)
4) Explain the Josephus problem and draw a circular linked list with 5 nodes.
5) Write a algorithm to insert a node in a tree.
3. a) Solve any one :
(110=10)
1) Write a program of stack using array, with the following functions :

clear stack, push, pop, empty stack, full stack, display.
2) Write a program of implementation of singly linked list using dynamic
memory allocation with the following functions :
inset, delete, display.
b) Explain what are the different operations which can be performed on tree.
Explain searching operation with algorithm.
(110=10)
SLR-UM 153
-6-
*SLRUM153*
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Explain the process of recursion with the help of one example.

2) Explain the bubble sort technique for sorting an array of ten elements.
3) Sort the following file using merge sort :
4, 8, 89, 30, 42, 92, 64, 4, 21, 56
4) Define graph. Explain the following terms with respect to graph :
a) Directed graph
b) Undirected graph
c) Weighted graph
d) Cycle.
5) What is difference between linear and binary search. Explain with example ?
6) Give the properties of good hash function. Explain modulus hash function.
(110=10)
a) What is graph ? Explain two storage representation of graph with example.

OR
Explain the following collision resolution techniques with example.
a) Open hashing
b) Closed hashing.
b) Sort the following elements using Radix sort. Show the status after each
step :
163, 328, 567, 498, 345, 209, 124.
_____________________
(110=10)
Code No.
SLR-UM 154
*SLRUM154*
Seat
No.

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2014

DIGITAL TECHNIQUES (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

3) Assume suitable data wherever required.
Marks : 20

1) A comparison between serial and parallel adder reveals that serial
adder ___________
b) Is faster
a) Is slower
c) Operates at the same speed
d) Is more complicated
2) The following logic family has maximum fan out capacity.
a) ECL
b) TTL
c) RTL
20
d) CMOS
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 154
*SLRUM154*
-2-
DO
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
3) A flip-flop can store

a) 1 bit of data
b) 2 bit of data
c) 3 bits of data
d) 4 bit of data
4) The flip-flop which operates in synchronism with external clock pulses

are known as
a) Synchronous
b) Asynchronous
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
5) Power is drawn by a CMOS only when

a) Its output is high
b) Its output is low
c) It switches logic levels
d) In static state
6) In a 4 variable k-map, the function contains all minters then the

minimal expression is
a) A
b) 1
c) 0
d) Dont care
7) The given maxterm is A + B + C, its equivalent binary represented is

a) 101
b) 010
c) 111
d) 000
8) The complement of Minterm 4 (m4)

a) Maxterm 4
b) Minterm 0
c) Minterm 13
d) Maxterm 13
9) A decoder with n-inputs produces maximum of ___________ number

of minterms.
a) 2n
b) 2n 1
c) 2n1
d) 2n
10) IC 7448 is used as ___________

a) ALU
b) Adder
c) Comparater
d) BCD to 7 segment decoder
*SLRUM154*
SLR-UM 154
-3-
11) The logic ecalized by the circuit shown in figure below is
a) A + B + C
b) A + B + C
c) A B
d) A . B
12) Which of the following is an invalid state of BCD counter ?

b) 0101
c) 1000
d) 1100
a) 0010
13) A synchronous binary counter
a) Receives clock at flip-flop representing LSB
b) Receives clock at flip-flop representing MSB
c) Receives clock at all flip-flops
14) A PLA can be used
a) To realize a combinational logic
b) To realize a sequential logic
c) As a memory
d) As a microprocessor
15) Maxterm corresponding to decimal number 8 is ___________
b) A + B + C + D
a) A + B + C + d
c) A + B + C + D
d) A + B + C + D
16) For the figure given below what will be the output of each flip-flop
after application of 4th clock pulse. Assume initially output of each
flip-flop is 1111.
a) 0000
b) 1111
c) 1001
d) 1000
SLR-UM 154
*SLRUM154*
-4-
17) Match the logic gates in Column A their equivalents in column B

Column A
Column B
1.
2.
3.
4.
a) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
b) P-4. Q-2. R-1. S-3
c) P-Z, Q-4, R-3, S-1
d) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
18) For the circuit shown below, what is the required input condition
(A, B, C) to make output X = 1 ?
a) 1, 0, 1
b) 0, 0, 1
c) 1, 1, 1
d) 0, 1, 1
19) A MOD-3 counter must have

a) 2 flip-flops
b) 3 flip-flops
c) 1 flip-flops
d) None of these
20) While converting the SR flip-flop into D flip-flop, the SR inputs are
a) S = D , R = D
b) S = D , R = D
c) S = R = D
d) S = R = D
_____________________
*SLRUM154*
-5-
SLR-UM 154
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
16
a) Write short note on IC 7447.

b) Implement 1:8 Demux using 1:4 demux.
c) Explain the concept of tri-state logic in detail.
d) Explain the race around condition. How it is eliminated ?
e) Write a short note on Gray code (for 4-bit).
3. a) Compare between TTL and TTL subfamilies.
16
i) Convert the SR flip-flop to J-K flip-flop.

ii) Explain ALU (IC74181) in detail.
iii) Explain the design of 2-bit magnitude comparator.
SECTION II
(44=16)
i) Design MOD-6 counter using IC7490.

ii) A sequential circuit has two JK flip-flops P and Q and input Z. The circuit is
described by following flip-flop input equations
JP = Z, KP = Q
JQ = Z, KQ = P
a) Derive the state equations p (t + 1) and Q (t + 1).
b) Draw the state diagram of the circuit.
SLR-UM 154
-6-
*SLRUM154*
iii) Explain the architecture of ROM in brief.

iv) Draw the waveforms to shift the data 1101 to left in 4-bit serial in serial out
shift register.
v) Draw the state diagrams of T and D flip-flops.
vi) Design MOD-3 asynchronous counter.
5. a) Design clocked sequential circuit for the state diagram using J-K flipflop.
(28=16)
i) A combinational circuit has four inputs A, B, C, D and two outputs F1 and

F2. The output F1 gives high output when input combination is greater
than equal to 1000, otherwise low. The output F2 gives high out put when
the input combination is less than 1000 otherwise the output F2 is low.
Prepare truth table and implement it using PLA.
ii) Design 3-bit synchronous up-down counter using T flipflop.
iii) Design a sequential circuit with two D flip-flops P and Q, one input W.
when W = 0, the state of circuit remains same. when W = 1 the
circuit passes through the state transitions from 00 to 01 to 11 to 10 and
back to 00 and repeats.
_______________
Code No. SLR-UM
155
*SLRUM155*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (E&T.C. Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is multiple choice question. It is compulsory.

It should be solved in first 30 minutes. Each question
carries one mark.
Marks : 20
(20 1)
1) De
a)
c)
(c1 cos 3 x + c 2 sin 3 x) + c3 e2x is the general solution of
d 3y
dx 3
d 3y
dx
+ 4y = 0
+ 8y = 0
b)
d)
d 3y
dx 3
d 3y
dx
8y = 0
2
d 2y
dx
dy
2=0
dx
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 155
*SLRUM155*
-2-
DO
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2) The general solution of the differential equation (D4 6D3 + 12D2 8D) y = 0 is
a) y = (C1 + C 2x + C3x2 + C 4x3) e2x
b) y = (C1 + C2x) e2x + (C3 + C4x) e2x
c) y = (C1 + C2 + C3 + C4) e2x
d) y = C1 + (C2+ C3x + C4x2) e2x
3) The particular integral of (D2 + a 2) y = sin ax is,
x
x
a)
cos ax
b)
cos ax
2a
2a
ax
ax
c)
cos ax
d)
cos ax
2
2
4) The solution of p + q = pq is,
b) z = ax + a2y + c
a) z = ax + a (a 1) y + c
a
y + c
d) ax +
a 1
c) z = ax +by + c
5) The solution of ZP = x is,
a) (y, x 2 z2) = 0
b) (x, x + y) = 0
c) (2x, x2 y2) = 0
6) If L erf t =
a)
c)
s
s+4
2
2
s (s + 4 )
1
s
s +1
d) (x2 + z2, y 2) = 0
then L erf 4t =
b)
2
s (s + 4 )
4
d) s
s+4
*SLRUM155*
SLR-UM 155
-3-
7) If L { f(t )} = f (s), then : L f (u) du =

0
d
f (s )
a) ( 1)
ds
b) S f (s) f(0)
c)
f ( s) ds
8) L { + sin t} =
2s
a) 2
(s + 1)
c)
1
9) L
2s
2
(s 1)
c) eat
1
b)
1
f (s )
s
2 s2
(s 2 + 1)2
d) None
9
(s + a )
a) eat t8
10) L
d)
t8
8!
b) eat t9
d)
e at
8 ! t9
is
2
s (s + 1)
a) 1 + sin t
c) 1 sin t
b) 1 cos t
d) 1 + cos t
11) The unit tangent vector to the curve x = t2 + 1, y = 4t 3, z = 3t2 6t at t = 1 is

1
1
(i + j + k )
(i + 2 j + k)
b)
a)
3
6
1
1
(i + 2 j )
( i + 2k )
c)
d)
5
5
dr
12) If r = a e 3t + b e 2t ,then at t = 0
=
dt
a) a
c) 2b + 3a
b) b
d) 2a + 3b
13) If F = (x + 3y) i + (y 2z) j + (x + az) K is solenoidal then a =

b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
a) 2
SLR-UM 155
*SLRUM155*
-4-
1, 0 < x < a / 2
14) In the cosine series expansion of f(x) =
1, a / 2 < x < a
the constant term is
b)
c) 1
a) 1
d) 0
15) The Fourier series expansion of f(x) = sin2x is

b) 1 cos 2x
a) sin x + cos x
1
c) sin 2x + cos 2x
d)
(1 cos 2x)
2
16) Which of the following function cannot be expanded in Fourier series in the
interval ( , )
b) | x |
c) cosecx
d) x 2
a) ex
transform of F(x/2) is
2
b) F
a) F(2s)
s
1 s
c) 2 F (2s)
d) F
2 2
18) The Fourier cosine transform of f(x) = ex , x 0 is
s
1
a)
b)
1+ s 2
1+ s 2
2
1
1
c)
d) 2
2
1+ s
1+ s 2
3z
19) The z-transform of k3 k , k 0 is
. The region of convergence of
(z 3 )2
Z-transform is
a) | z | > 3
c) z = 0
b) | z | < 3
d) | z | = 3
1 ; k 0
then z {U(k)} =
20) If U (k) =
0 ; k < 0
z
a)
z 1
1
c)
z 1
1
z 1
z
d)
z 1
b)
*SLRUM155*
-5-
SLR-UM 155
Seat
No.
S.E. (E&T.C. Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N.B. :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
d 2y
2. a) Solve:
dt 2
dy
+ y = t et sin t.
dt
OR
a) (D2 6D + 13) y = 8e3x sin 4x + zx
b)
d 2y
dx
dy
+ 4 y = x3 e2x.
dx
c) Solve : z (xp yq) = y2 x 2.
5
4
5
3. a) An e.m.f. Esinpt is applied at t = 0 to a circuit containing a capacitance C and

inductance L. The current i satisfies the equation
L
di
1
+ i dt = E sin pt,
dt
C
If P2 =
1
and initially the current i and the charge q are zero. Show that
LC
Et
the current at time t is sin pt.
2L
b) Solve : pq = xmynz2l.
SLR-UM 155
4. a) Find L
-6-
*SLRUM155*
s+4
4
.
3
2
s s + 4s 4 s
b) Show that
2 4 t
sin 2 t dt =
11
500 .
c) Express the following function in terms of unit step function

t 1 1 < t < 2
and find its Laplace transform.
f(t) =
3 t 2 < t < 3
5. a) Evaluate L
2s 5
2
9s 25
1 2
b) L1 tan .
s
c) Using Laplace transform, find the charge q (t) in the 1 c circuit. Assuming
L = 1 Henry, C =
1
Farad with e.m.f. 6 cos 3t provided q (0) = 2, & q (0)= 0. 6
9
SECTION II
6. a) Given that f(x) = x + x2 for < x < , find the Fourier expansion of f(x).
2
1
1
1
= 1 + 2 + 2 + 2 + .....
Deduce that
6
2
3
4
b) Find the Fourier cosine transform of f(x) = e2x + 4e3x.

7. a) Find the Fourier transform of
k ; | x | < a
f(x) =
0 ; | x | > a
8
5
4
*SLRUM155*
SLR-UM 155
-7-
b) Express the function

e kx
f(x) = kx
e
prove that
for x < 0
for x > 0
as Fourier integral and hence,
sin x
d = e kx if x > 0, k > 0.
2
2
2
+k
c) Find the Fourier sine series for the function f(x) = eax for 0 < x < where a
is constant.
OR
c) Prove that :
5
ar
= 0.
ii)
r
i) (a r ) = 0
8. a) Find the angle between the tangents at f = 1 and t = 2 to the curve x = t2 + 1,

y = 4t 3, z = 3t2 6t.
b) A vector field F is given by

2
F = (y sin z sin x) i + (x sin z + 2yz) j+ (xy cos z + y ) k. Prove that it is
irrotational and hence, find its scalar potential.
c) Find the z-transform of f(k) = bk, k < 0 and region of convergence.

k
+ , k 0.
9. a) Find the z-transform of cos
3
b) Find the inverse z-transform of f(z) =
z
, | z| > 2.
(z 1) (z 2)
c) Find the angle between the normals to the surfaces xy = z2 at the points
(1, 4, 2) and ( 3, 3, 3).
5
4
5
4
Code No.
SLR-UM 156
*SLRUM156*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (E & TC) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Day & Date ____________________ _
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________ Section ________________________________________

Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination _________

______________ (Paper - _______)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Note : 1) All questions are compulsory.

2) MCQ must be answered in first 30 minutes only.
Marks : 20
(1 20=20)
1) The low frequency response of an transistor amplifier affects due to

a) Cbe
b) Ce
c) CC1 and CC2
d) Both b and c
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 156
-2-
DO
*SLRUM156*
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
T
NO
2) The circuit which provides best thermal stability is _______ bias.

a) Voltage divider
b) Fixed
c) Collector to base
d) Both b and c
3) The input voltage of 10 v at 0 is applied to emitter follower circuit. The
output is given by
a) 10 V at 180
b) 10 V at 0
c) 20 V at 0
d) 20 V at 180
4) H parameter model is valid for

a) DC only
b) Up to mid frequency range only
c) At very high frequency only
d) None
5) The forward current gain for CB amplifier is given by
a) Hie
b) hfe
c) Hfb
d) hic
*SLRUM156*
-3-
SLR-UM 156
6) For CE amplifier circuit with RE properly by passed

R1 = 10 k, R2 = 2K, hie = 2k, hoe = 10uS, Rs = 0 Ohm. Then input resistance
of circuit will be
a) 2 k
b) 0.909 k
c) 0.808 k
d) None
7) For fixed bias circuit, component values are Vcc = 10V, hfe = 100, Vbe = 0V,
Rb = 50 k. The value of quiescent current is
a) 10 mA
b) 20 mA
c) 25 mA
d) None
8) Depletion layer width of PN junction diode with forward bias

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) None
9) For proper bypassing of emitter current the design equation is

a) XCE = Re
b) XCE >>Re
c) XCE << Re
d) None
10) For amplifier the component values are hfe = 200, Rc = 50 k, RL = 10k,
hie = 1k, Rs = 0. The voltage gain is
a) 2000.09
b) 1768.86
c) 1666.66
d) None
11) In CE configuration collector current at IB = 0 will be

a) ICBO
b) ICEO
c) Zero
d) IE
12) H parameter calculated from output characteristics of transistor is

a) hie
b) hfe
c) Hoe
d) Both b and c
13) Stability factor for ________ bias is (1 + ).

a) Voltage divider
b) Fixed
c) Emitter bias
d) None
SLR-UM 156
-4-
*SLRUM156*
14) Leakage current in diode will ________ during reverse bias if temperature
increases.
a) Increases
b) Decrease
c) Remains same
d) Becomes zero
15) To operate transistor as a switch operating regions are restricted to

a) Active only
b) Saturation and active
c) Saturation and cut off
d) Cutoff only
16) Small signal amplifier is also called as _______ amplifiers.
a) Power
b) Feedback
c) Voltage
d) None
17) Thermal run away is related with

a) Uncontrolled lc due to temperature
b) High voltage across device
c) Low power dissipation
d) None
18) Gate current in ideal MOSFET is
a) Zero
b) One
c) Infinite
d) Low
19) For JFET

a) = RD/gm
b) = RD + gm
c) = RD * gm
d) = RD gm
20) Ripple factor in capacitor filter is inversely proportional to

a) RL
b) Fin
c) C
d) All of a, b, c
_____________________
SLR-UM 156
-5-
*SLRUM156*
Seat
No.
S.E. (E & TC) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
16
a) With suitable circuit diagram explain the function of bleeder resistor used in
LC filter.
b) Ge diode operated at junction temperature of 27 deg. C. for a forward current
of 10 mA, Vd is found to be 0.3 V.
Find :
i) Forward current if Vd = 0.4 V
ii) Reverse saturation current.
c) Find transfer characteristics for clipping circuit shown below.
+
Rs
10sin t
+
3V
RL
Vout
d) What are diffusion capacitance and depletion capacitance. State its

significance.
e) Describe the physical mechanism for zener break down. Find the voltage
drop across Rs resistance.
1 k
Rs
50 V
10 V
RL 5 k
SLR-UM 156
*SLRUM156*
-6-
24
a) For the circuit shown below obtain the transfer characteristics and explain it.
C
+
20sin t
4V
RL
Vout
b) Derive the expression for the ripple factor for C filter with neat circuit diagram
and related waveform.
c) Design full wave centre tapped rectifier with LC filter for output voltage of
10 V DC and load current of 50 mA and ripple factor equal to 6%. State
specification of different components.
d) With suitable circuit diagram explain voltage doubler and voltage tripler
circuit.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
a) Design fixed bias circuit for operating point at (5V, 5mA). Use transistor
with hfe = 100, Vbe = 0.6 V and Vcc = 12 V.
b) Describe high frequency response of transistor amplifier using hybrid
PI model.
c) Compare BJT and FET. Give some applications.
d) Draw hybrid model for CE configuration with fixed bias with emitter resistor
and calculate input resistance of circuit.
e) Derive the expression for stability factor for collector to base bias circuit.
16
*SLRUM156*
-7-
5. Solve :
SLR-UM 156
(83=24)
a) Design common emitter amplifier for voltage gain of 4, Q point at Ic = 4 mA

and Vce at 6 V, Stability not exceeding 5. The device parameter are as
hfe = 100, hie = 2 K ohm and hoe = 10 uS.
b) Draw the practical setup for plotting IO characteristics of transistor used in
CE configuration and calculate h parameters from characteristics.
OR
b) Explain n channel MOSFET transfer characteristics. Explain MOSFET as
switch.
c) Derive the expression for current gain, voltage gain, Ri, Ro of single stage
RC coupled amplifier using equivalent circuit method.
Code No. SLR-UM
157
*SLRUM157*
Seat
No.
&
&

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 157
*SLRUM157*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W

1) Vac in the circuit shown will be
a) 3 V
c) 10 V
b) 12 V
d) None
2) In the circuit shown Rab in k
2k
4
is
4k
12k
4k
a) 10
c) 18
b) 16
d) None
3) Two capacitors, C1 = 2 F and C2 = 10 F, are connected in series

then the equivalent capacitance in F is
b) 1.67
a) 12
c) 2
d) None
Marks : 20
*SLRUM157*
SLR-UM 157
-3-
4) The node method of circuit analysis is based on

b) KCL and KVL
a) KVL and Ohms law
c) KCL, KVL and Ohms law
d) KCL and Ohms law
5) The super-position theorem is applicable to
a) current only
b) voltage only
c) both current and voltage
d) current, voltage and power
6) In a parallel RLC circuit, which value may always be used as a
vector reference ?
a) current
b) reactance
c) resistance
d) voltage
7) What is the range between f1 and f2 of an RLC circuit that resonates at
150 kHz and has a Q of 30 ?
b) 147.5 kHz to 152.5 kHz
a) 100.0 kHz to 155.0 kHz
c) 4500 kHz to 295.5 kHz
d) 149,970 Hz to 150,030 Hz
8) How much current will flow in a series RLC circuit when VT = 100 V, XL = 160
XC = 80
and R = 60
?
a) 1 A
b) 1 mA
c) 6.28 A
d) 10 A
9) When two port networks are connected in parallel the resultant ?

a) Z parameters are the sum of individual parameters
b) Y parameters are the sum of individual parameters
c) Both a) and b)
d) Neither a) nor b)
10) In H parameter equivalent circuit of two port network the output port
can be represented as
b) Signal generator
a) Voltage source
c) Nortan equivalent
d) None
11) The switch is closed at t = 0, with capacitor uncharged, the value of
current at t = 0+ is
1 F
a) 0 A
c) 0.01 A
b) 0.1 A
d)
SLR-UM 157
-4*SLRUM157*
12) The transient current in a loss free LC circuit when excited from an ac
source is an ___________ sine wave.
b) overdamped
a) undamped
c) underdamped
d) critically damped
13) The time constant of series RC circuit is
a)
b)

d) eRC
c) RC
14) Inductor does not allows sudden change in

a) current
b) voltage
c) both a) and b)
d) none
15) The inverse Laplace transform of

$
"
is
b) t2
a) 3
c) t3
d) 3t
An ideal filter should have
a) Zero attenuation in pass band
b) infinite attenuation in pass band
c) zero attenuation in attenuation band
d) none of above
In m-derived low pass filter the resonant frequency is to be chosen so
that it is
a) below cut-off frequency
b) above cut-off frequency
c) at center of lower cut-off frequency
d) none of above
The function is said to be having simple poles and zeros, only if
a) the poles are not repeated
b) zeros are not repeated
c) both poles and zeros are not repeated
d) poles are complex conjugate
Laplace transform of capacitance C Farad is
5
16)
17)
18)
19)
a)
b) CS
+
c)
d) CS2
20) If Zoc = 120

a) 30
c) 60
and Zsc = 30
, the characteristic impedance is

b) 120
d) 150
______________________
*SLRUM157*
-5-
SLR-UM 157
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering) (Part I)

Examination, 2014
CIRCUITS AND NETWORKS (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

(45=20)
1) In the network shown find Vo using superposition.
2) Find the value of the load RL in the network shown that will achieve maximum
power transfer and determine the value of the maximum power.
3) Derive the expression for H parameters in terms of z parameters.
SLR-UM 157
-6-
*SLRUM157*
4) Draw and explain parallel connection of 2 two port network.

5) Explain magnification in series and parallel resonance.
6) Derive the expression for resonant frequency of series RLC circuit. How the
value of R will affect on bandwidth and selectivity ?
(210=20)
1) Obtain the Thevenin and Norton equivalent circuits at terminals ab for the
network of Fig.
2) Derive the expression for driving point impedance at the output port with
source impedance at input port in terms of Z parameters and Y parameters.
3) What is parallel resonance ? Derive the expression for resonant frequency of
Tank Circuit. Find the resonant frequency of the circuit shown below.
*SLRUM157*
SLR-UM 157
-7-
(45=20)
a) What is filter ? What are applications of filter ? Explain types of filter with its
ideal attenuation characteristics.
b) Design
type attenuator to operate with load resistance of 600

and
20 dB attenuation.
c) Find driving point impedance for network shown in figure. Plot its pole zero
plot.
1F
d) Explain step voltage response for series RC circuit.

e) Determine current in the circuit when switch is closed at t = 0. Assume there
is no initial charge on capacitor or current in inductor.
2
1H
1F

a) Design band stop filter (T and
(102=20)
type) having design impedance of 250
and cut-off frequencies f1 = 2kHz and f2 = 8kHz.
SLR-UM 157
*SLRUM157*
-8-
b) For circuit shown in figure below. The switch K is thrown from position a to b
at t = 0. The initial conditions are i(0 ) = 2A Vc(0 ) = 2V. Find i(t).
Assume L = 1H, R = 3
C = 0.5 F V1 = 5V.
a
V
C
V1
c) Write short note on complex frequency. Define pole, zero, driving point function
and transfer function.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
158
*SLRUM158*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (E & TC) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014
DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20

1) In a 4-variable K-map, the function contains all minterms then the minimal
expression is ______________
a) A
b) 1
c) 0
d) Dont care
20
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 158
*SLRUM158*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The logic expression for Y(A, B, C) = m(0, 2, 3, 6) is equivalent to _________

a) M(0, 2, 3, 6)
b) m(1, 4, 5, 7)
c) M(1, 4, 5, 7)
d) None of these
3) Excess-3 code is also known as

a) Weighted code
b) Cyclic redundancy code
c) Self complementing code
d) Algebraic code
4) Multiplexer is represented by _______________
a) AND-OR
b) OR-AND
c) NAND-OR
d) NOR-AND
5) The Fan-out for TTL family is

a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
6) A flip flop can store

a) 1 bit of data
b) 2 bits of data
c) 3 bits of data
d) 4 bits of data
7) What is the number of inputs, outputs of a decoder that accepts 64 different

input combination ?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 64
d) 8
*SLRUM158*
-3-
SLR-UM 158
8) The next state of D-flip flop is

a) Same as input
b) Compliment of input
c) Independent of input
d) None
9) The following TTL sub-family has maximum speed

a) Standard TTL
b) Schottky-clamped TTL
c) High speed TTL
d) Low power TTL
10) IC 7483 works as _____________
a) Comparator
b) Adder
c) Decoder
d) Shift register
11) Clock signals are used in sequential logic circuits

a) To tell current time
b) To tell how propagation delay
c) To carry serial data signals
d) To synchronize events in various parts of the system
12) A mod-2 counter followed by a mod-5 counter is
a) Same as a mod-5 counter followed by a mod-2 counter
b) A mod-7 counter
c) A decade counter
d) A BCD counter
13) In a 4 bit Ripple counter if output of last flip flop is 4 KHz what will be the input
frequency ?
a) 32 KHz
b) 64 KHz
c) 8 KHz
d) 16 KHz
14) Determine the output frequency for a frequency division circuit that contains
12 flip-flops with an input clock frequency of 20.48 MHz.
a) 10.24 kHz
b) 5 kHz
c) 30.24 kHz
d) 15 kHz
SLR-UM 158
*SLRUM158*
-4-
15) How many flip-flops are required to produce a divide-by-128 device ?

a) 1
b) 4
c) 6
d) 7
16) The terminal count of a modulus-11 binary counter is _________

a) 1010
b) 1000
c) 1001
d) 1100
17) The delay time of synchronous construction of a counter is equivalent to the

delay of
a) All flip-flops and gates
b) All flip-flops and gates after a 3 count
c) A single gate
d) A single flip-flop and a gates
18) When two counters are cascaded, the overall MOD number is equal to the
___________ of their individual MOD numbers.
a) Product
b) Sum
c) Log
d) Reciprocal
19) The memory which is programmed at the time it is manufactured is

a) ROM
b) RAM
c) PROM
d) EPROM
20) A 4-bit shift register that receives 4 bits of parallel data will shift to the
__________ by ________ position(s) for each clock pulse.
a) Right, one
b) Right, two
c) Left, one
d) Left, three
__________________
*SLRUM158*
-5-
SLR-UM 158
Seat
No.
S.E. (E & TC) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
16
a) Write a short note on Gray Codes.

b) Design and explain 1-bit magnitude comparator.
c) Explain substractor using adder.
d) Implement CMOS 3-input Nand and Nor gate.
e) Explain flip-flop as 1-bit latch.
3. Design gray to binary code converter.
4. Attempt any two:
16
a) Explain static and dynamic hazards in detail.

b) Explain SR flip flop along with clock, preset and clear. Also derive the
characteristic table and characteristic equation.
c) Explain the CMOS-TTL interfacing in detail.
SECTION II
(44=16)
a) What are different modes of operation of shift register ? Explain any one of it.
b) Draw and explain twisted ring counter.
SLR-UM 158
-6-
*SLRUM158*
c) Compare PROM, PAL and PLA.

d) Write a note on Moore and Mealy machines.
e) Design MOD-7 counter using IC 7490.
f) Explain state diagram, state table, and excitation table for D flip-flop.
6. a) Design a sequential circuit specified by state diagram shown below. Use
D flip-flop.
(82=16)
i) Implement a combinational logic function having 3 inputs and 4 outputs

using PLA for the following :
Y1 = m (0, 2, 3, 7)
Y2 = m (1, 2, 3, 4)
Y3 = m (0, 1, 6, 7)
Y4 = m (4, 5, 6, 7)
ii) Design a counter which counts in the given sequence (0, 3, 2, 7, 5, 0)
using JK flip flop.
iii) Explain universal shift register using IC 7495.
iv) Design a sequence generator to generate a sequence 1100 by using shift
register method.
________________
Code No. SLR-UM 159
*SLRUM159*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2014

DATA STRUCTURES USING 'C' (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20

1) To implement stack the best data type is
a) Union
b) Array
c) File
d) Structure
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 159
*SLRUM159*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The postfix equivalent of the infix (a + b) * (c d) is

a) ab + cd *
b) ab * + cd
c) ab + cd *
d) ab + * cd
3) Queue follows algorithm

a) FIFO
b) LIFO
c) RANDOM
d) LILO
4) ____________ linked list is mostly used in implementation of a queue.

a) Singly
b) Adjacent
c) Doubly
d) Circular
5) A ___________ node will not contain any data.

a) head
b) first
c) NULL
d) last
6) Head node is modified if the ____________ node is to be deleted.

a) second
b) last
c) third
d) first
7) ___________ contains address of first in a singly linked list.

a) Second node
b) First node
c) Header node
d) Last node
8) Consider a linked list of n elements. What is the time taken to insert an

element after an element is pointed by some pointers.
a) 0(1)
b) 0(log n)
c) 0(n)
d) 0(n log n)
*SLRUM159*
SLR-UM 159
-3-
9) In the worst case the number of comparisons needed to search a singly

linked list of length n for a given element is
a) log n
b) n/2
c) log n-1
d) n
10) Recursively the bib(6) is

a) 2
b) 8
c) 5
d) 9
11) If every node u in G is adjacent to every other node v in G. A graph is said

to be
a) Isolated
b) Complete
c) Finite
d) Strongly connected
12) In a graph if e = [u, v] then u and v are called

a) end points of e
b) adjacent nodes
c) neighbours
d) all of above
13) The inorder traversal of tree will yield a sorted listing of elements of tree in
a) Binary tree
b) Binary search tree
c) Heaps
d) All of the above
14) The depth of a complete binary tree is given by
a) Dn = n log2 n
b) Dn = n log2 n + 1
c) Dn = log2 n
d) Dn = log2 n + 1
15) Any node in the path from the root to the node is called
a) Successor node
b) Ancestor node
c) Internal node
16) The number of swapping needed to sort numbers 8, 22, 7, 9, 31, 19, 5, 13 in
ascending order using bubble sort is
a) 11
b) 12
c) 13
d) 14
SLR-UM 159
*SLRUM159*
-4-
17) Let P be a quick sort program to sort numbers in ascending order. Let t1 and
t2 be the time taken by the program for the inputs [1 2 3 4 5] and [5 4 3 2 1]
respectively. Which of the following holds ?
a) t1 = t2
c) t1 < t2
b) t1 > t2
d) t1 = t2 + 5 log 5
18) State true or false

i) A node is a parent if it has successor nodes.
ii) A node is a child node if outdegree is one.
a) True, True
b) True, False
c) False, True
d) False, False
19) What is the number of swaps required to sort n elements using selection sort
in the worst case ?
a) 0(n)
b) 0(n log n)
c) 0(n2)
d) 0(n2 log n)
20) The searching technique that takes 0(1) time to find a data is
a) Linear search
b) Binary search
c) Hashing
d) Tree search
______________
-5-
*SLRUM159*
SLR-UM 159
Seat
No.

DATA STRUCTURES USING C (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) What is Queue ? Write an algorithm of push operation of Queue ?

b) Convert the following infix expression into postfix expression
i) (A + B) * (C D)
ii) A + B C
c) Explain the representation of queue with example.
d) Explain the singly linked list and doubly linked list with neat diagram.
e) Write a C program to finding the GCD of two numbers with recursive functions.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Evaluate the following postfix expression

i) 823 $ / 23 * + 51 *
ii) 24 * 95 +
b) What are the implementation of stack and queue ?
c) What is recursive ? Write a C program to finding the factorial of number with
recursive functions.
SLR-UM 159
-6-
*SLRUM159*
(45=20)
a) Describe Radix sort. Sort the given data 42, 23, 74, 11, 65, 54 using radix
sort.
b) Define binary search true. Show all three traversal order for following search
tree.
c) Explain closed addressing technique to resolve hash clashes.

d) Describe the adjacency matrix representation of a graph with example.
e) Describe the concept of binary search technique. Is it efficient than sequential
search ?
(210=20)
a) What are the graph traversal methods ? Explain any one traversal method
with flow chart and example.
b) Explain different hashing functions with example.
c) Explain the algorithm for insertion and deletion into binary search tree.
______________
Code No. SLR-UM
16
*SLRUM16*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Civil Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

BUILDING CONSTRUCTION AND DRAWING (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to. 7.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : Question No. 1 is a Objective question paper cum answer

book and issued separately along with regular question
paper. Time alloted for this question is 30 minutes at the
beginning of the total time of 4 clock hours alloted to the
paper. After the end of this 30 minutes time period
Objective question paper cum answer book is to be
handed over to invigilator by the students.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 16
-2-
DO
T
NO
*SLRUM16*
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
MCQ/Objective Type Questions (Compulsory)

Marks : 20
1. Say following statements correct or wrong (write in words in the window

provided) :
1) Laterite is basically igneous but not completely metamorphic
2) Vertical joints on the face of the brick wall are called perpends
3) The basic requirement of DPC is that, it should be porus
4) For one brick thick wall in English bond it is required to place
king closure in alternate courses to break vertical joint
5) PVC doors are resistant to rust, rot, water and termite
6) Water absorption of good stone for masonry should be about 15%
of its weight
7) Dressing is the art of shaping stones for use in the masonry
8) Style is the element of shutter
9) Thudor Arch have two centres
20
*SLRUM16*
-3-
10) Dholpur stone is sedimentary rock

11) Lime is a harmful constituent in brick
12) Concrete is liable for vermin attack when in contact with sea water
13) King closure is the highest element of the arch
14) Is Brick size is 9090200
15) Tandur and Kota are famous for fine furniture wood
16) Arcade is a row of steps
17) The main constituent in Basalt Rock is silica
18) OPC means Oxide Portland Cement
19) Glazed files are manufactured from OPC
20) Lean to Roof have slopes in all four directions
SLR-UM 16
*SLRUM16*
-5-
SLR-UM 16
Seat
No.
S.E. (Civil Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

BUILDING CONSTRUCTION AND DRAWING (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to. 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions :1) Section I to be written in the answer book.

2) Section II to be drawn on drawing sheet.
3) Use of both sides of the drawing sheet allowed.
5) Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it.
6) Figures on right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
2. Answer any five of the following :
a) Write a note on strength and stability as the functional requirements of a
building.
b) What are the requirements of good brick work ?
c) Compare English Bond with Flemish Bond.
d) Draw neat sketch for plan and elevation for a combined R.C.C. footing.
e) Draw neat sketch for Mangalore Tile Roof and name all parts.
f) Make a list of door fittings and draw a neat sketch for any two types of Hinges.
g) Draw neat sketches for following arches :

i) Four centered Tudor arch
ii) Three centered elliptical arch
iii) Bulls Eye and segmental arch.
SLR-UM 16
-6-
*SLRUM16*
SECTION II
3. Draw to scale 1:10 plan and sectional elevation for RCC isolated rectangular
footing. Refer following data :
1) Size of column = (250300)mm
2) Size of footing = (9001200)mm
3) Thickness of footing
D = 600 mm near column
d = 300 mm at edges
4) PCC pad below footing
Plan area = (12001500) mm
Thickness = 150 mm
Column is centrally placed on the footing.
20
4. Draw to a suitable scale (1:20) the plan of a open newel stair with rectangular
well for an educational building. Refer following data :
1) Inside dimension of a staircase = 6m 4.5m
2) Height between the floors = 3.75m
3) Thickness of a floor slab = 150 mm
4) Width of stair = 1500 mm
5) Select suitable value for Riser and Tread .
10
5. Draw to scale 1:20 cross section of a wooden floor with wooden flooring blocks
laid on mastic asphalt. Refer following data and dimensions. Section to include
supporting wall.
1) Main wooden beams
= (150200) mm cross section
2) Rafter across the beam
= (60100) mm cross section at 600 mm c/c
3) Wooden floor planks across rafter= (15030) mm cross section

4) Mastic asphalt layer
= 30 mm thick
5) Wooden floor tiles/blocks
= 200 mm 200 mm 15 mm thick
6) Wall thickness
OR
= 450 mm.
10
Draw to scale 1:10 plan and elevation for L shaped brick masonry wall portion
of 200 mm thick,1200 mm height. Use following data :
1) Brick size 100 mm 100 mm 200 mm
2) Header bond
Draw plan and elevation for courses 1, 3, 5.... and plan for courses 2, 4, 6...
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 160
Seat
No.
*SLRUM160*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S.E. (E & TC) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
N.B. :
1)
2)
3)
4)
For Office Use only
Code No.

MCQ should be solved in first 30 minutes on separately
provided answer sheet. Supervisor should collect the answer
sheet after 30 minutes.

Marks : 20
20
1) For generating variable frequency in the range 10 kHz 100 kHz. Using Wein
bridge oscillator with R = 10 k . The value of capacitor range required is
a) 200.08 F 250.07 F
b) 157.08 F 1570.79 F
c) 602.07 F 903.08 F
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 160
*SLRUM160*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) RC coupled amplifier with emitter resistor partially unbypassed results to

a) Voltage series feedback
b) Voltage shunt feedback
c) Current series feedback
d) Current shunt feedback
3) For basic amplifier AVMF = 100, B.W. = 40 kHz new gain and bandwidth
respectively results with addition of 5% negative feedback will be
a) 166.66 and 244 kHz
b) 200.12 and 246 kHz
c) 303.33 and 304 kHz
d) 16.66 and 240 kHz
4) For single ended class A power amplifier PB = 10 W and transformer efficiency

is 80%, how much is the power delivered to primary of the transformer ?
a) 6.25 watts
b) 7.02 watts
c) 5.16 watts
d) 4.19 watts
5) For using JFET as VVR the operating area is

a) Cutoff
b) Saturation
c) Ohmic
d) Both a) and c)
6) For three stages RC coupled amplifier, individual stage gains are 50 dB,
60 dB, 70 dB. For first stage R1 = 20 k , R2 = 4 k , Rs = 100 , hie = 4 k .
The values of overall voltage gain and input impedance respectively are
a) 180 dB and 1918.18
b) 180 dB and 191
c) 180 dB and 40
7) Cross over distortion exist in

a) Class A push pull amplifier
b) Class B push pull amplifier
c) Both a) and b)
d) Class AB push pull amplifier
*SLRUM160*
SLR-UM 160
-3-
8) High frequency response characteristics of RC coupled amplifiers are restricted

because of
b) hie and hre
a) CE and CC
c) Cbe and Cbc
d) Both a) and c)
9) Effect of cascading the amplifier stages results to
a) Increase in gain and bandwidth
b) Decrease in gain and bandwidth
c) Increase in gain and decrease in bandwidth
d) No effect on gain and bandwidth
10) Direct coupled amplifier is used
a) For impedance matching
b) For amplifying very low frequency signal
c) Both a) and b)
11) What is the function of comparator in the 555 timer circuit ?
a) To compare the output voltages to internal voltage divider
b) To compare the input voltages to internal voltage divider
c) To compare the output voltages to the external voltage divider
d) To compare input voltages to the external voltage divider
12) What is the difference between an astable and monostable multivibrator ?
a) The astable is free running
b) The astable needs to be clocked
c) The monostable is free running
d) None of above
13) What is the duty cycle of the waveform at the output of the circuit given below
a) 78%
c) 50%
b) 56%
d) 44%
SLR-UM 160
*SLRUM160*
-4-
14) IC 74123 is __________ and IC 74121 is _________ monostable multivibrator.

a) Nonretriggerable, retriggerable
b) Retriggerable, retriggerable
c) Nonretriggerable, Nonretriggerable
d) Retriggerable, nonretriggerable
15) The drain source voltage at which drain current become nearly constant is
called
b) Breakdown voltage
a) Barrier voltage
c) Pinck off voltage
d) Pinch off voltage
16) The MOSFET in its on state may be considered equivalent to
b) Inductor
a) Resistor
c) Capacitor
d) Battery
17) FET are _________ and __________ controlled device.
a) Unipolar and current controlled
b) Bipolar and voltage controlled
c) Unipolar and voltage controlled
d) None of these
18) Output voltage of variable voltage regulator shown below is
a) 13.87 V
c) 25 V
19) Vref for IC LM 317 is
a) 1.25 mV
c) 12.5 V
b) 13.99 V
d) None of these
b) 1.25 V
d) None of these
20) IC regulator has

a) Internal thermal protection circuit
b) Internal short circuit protection circuit
c) Internal current boosting circuit
d) Both a) and b)
______________________
*SLRUM160*
-5-
SLR-UM 160
Seat
No.
S.E. (E & TC) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2. Solve any four :
20
a) Three stage amplifier circuit is supplied with 0.05 VPP input voltage. The
resulting output voltage is 150 VPP. The voltage gain of the first stage is 20
and input to the 3rd stage is 15VPP. Calculate
i) overall volt. gain
ii) volt.gain of 2nd and 3rd stage
iii) input voltage of 2nd stage.
b) Describe the criterion for generating sustained oscillations and draw the
waveforms for different loop gain conditions.
c) Compare RC coupled, transformer coupled amplifier and direct coupled
amplifiers.
d) Derive the equations for Rif and Rof for voltage series negative feedback
using block diagram.
e) Explain the terms f , f and f and represent them on current gain v/s
frequency graph.
3. a) With suitable diagram explain RC phase shift oscillator. Derive the equation for
frequency of oscillations using AC analysis.
10
b) Design Wein bridge oscillator for generating 100 kHz frequency using
transistor BC 547. Use 15 V power supply.
OR
10
SLR-UM 160
-6-
*SLRUM160*
c) Design two stage RC coupled amplifier for providing individual stage gains
greater than 100. Calculate overall voltage gain. Modify the above circuit for
overall gain 150.
Given BC 547 transistors Vcc = 20 V
ICQ = 10 mA.
10
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) With suitable diagram explain foldback current limiting protection circuit.

b) Design a 0.5 amp. current source using 7805. Assume RL = 10 .
c) Draw transfer characteristics of enhancement mode and depletion mode
N channel MOSFET. Explain the difference between them.
d) What are different JFET parameters and derive the relation among the
parameters of JFET.
e) Design a timer circuit to control the heater for time duration 1 Sec. to 100 Sec.
using relay of 12 V/150 mA.
f) Explain with neat circuit diagram operation of voltage controlled oscillator
using 555.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Design a wide range pulse generator for frequency range of 10 Hz to 10 kHz

and pulse width from 100 sec. to 10 sec. in ranges as 10Hz to 100 Hz,
100 Hz to 1 kHz and 1 kHz to 10 kHz. The output pulse amplitude should be
5 V across 1 k load resistance.
b) What are advantages of JFET over BJT ? Define pinch off voltage, amplification
factor and drain resistance of FET. Explain how FET can be used as voltage
dependent resistor.
c) Why regulator is required in power supply ? Draw and explain the power
supply design with regulator ICs for + 12 V and 12 V o/p voltage
simultaneously.
___________________
Code No. SLR-UM
161
*SLRUM161*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

1. Choose the correct options from the following :
Marks : 20
20
1) A 60 kHz carrier is amplitude modulated by speech band 300 to 3000 Hz. The
range of lower side bands will be
a) 60.3 to 63 kHz
b) 60 to 59.7 kHz
c) 59.7 to 57 kHz
d) 56.7 to 56.3 kHz

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 161
*SLRUM161*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Johnson noise is
a) Always white
c) Never white
b) White for all practical purposes

d) Depends upon temperature
3) If the resistance value is doubled and temperature maintained constant, the

available thermal noise power per unit bandwidth will
a) Increase two-fold
b) Increase four fold
c) Remain unchanged
d) Decrease to half
4) Which of the following is the most reliable measurement for comparing amplifier
noise characteristics ?
a) SNR
b) Noise factor
c) Shot noise
d) Thermal agitation noise
5) If modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1 the transmitted

power
a) Increases by 50%
b) Increases by 75%
c) Increases by 100%
d) Remains unaffected
6) Amplitude modulation is the process of ,
a) Superimposing a low frequency on a high frequency
b) Superimposing a high frequency on a low frequency
c) Carrier interruption
d) Frequency shift and phase shift
*SLRUM161*
SLR-UM 161
-3-
7) A superheterodyne receiver with an IF of 450 kHz is tuned to a signal at

1200 kHz. The image frequency is
a) 750 kHz
b) 900 kHz
c) 1650 kHz
d) 2100 kHz
8) One of the following is not used for generation of SSB SC

a) Filter method
b) Balanced modulator
c) Phase shift method
d) Third method
9) A carrier is amplitude modulation to a depth of 40%. The increase in power is

a) 40%
b) 20%
c) 16%
d) 8%
10) The main advantage of superheterodyne receiver is

a) Simple circuit
b) Better tracking
c) Improvement in selectivity and sensitivity
d) Better alignment
11) The amplitudes of sidebands in FM signal are dependent upon mathematical
process known as
a) Gaussian function
b) Fourier function
c) Bessel function
d) Shannons theorem
12) A pre emphasis circuit is a

a) Low pass filter
b) Band pass filter
c) High pass filter
d) Band reject filter
13) Modulation index in FM is given by

a) d/fm
b) Em/Ec
c) Ec/Em
d) Mf/deviation
SLR-UM 161
*SLRUM161*
-4-
14) The 5 MHz carrier is deviated by10 kHz by 4 kHz signal then modulation
index is
a) 10
b) 5
c) 7.5
d) 2.5
15) Indirect method of FM generation is

a) Reactance modulator
b) Varactor diode modulator
c) Transistorised modulator
d) Armstrong modulator
16) Frequency of busy tone is

a) 133 Hz
b) 400 Hz
c) 33 Hz
d) 100 Hz
17) A telephone is using modular plug known as

a) BVC
b) F connector
c) RJ 11
d) RJ 45
18) World wide radio communication is possible due to____________ transmission.

a) Single hop
b) Dual hop
c) Multi hop
d) None of these
19) The feed impedance of dipole antenna is ________________ .

a) 50
b) 37
c) 73
d) 80
20) An antenna that radiates well equally in all directions is said to be

a) Multidirectional
b) Unidirectional
c) Omni directional
d) Bidirectional
*SLRUM161*
-5-
SLR-UM 161
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part - II) Examination, 2014

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Explain with the help of block diagram communication system.

b) Show that the equivalent noise temperature.
Teq = To (F 1)
c) Define noise. Explain the different types of noise present inside the receiver.
d) What are performance governing parameters of radio receiver ? Explain them
in briefly.
e) Draw the amplitude modulated wave for M < 1 and derive the expression for
modulation index.
3. a) What are generation and detection techniques of SSB SC ? Explain any one
of them briefly.
10
b) Find the various frequency components and their amplitudes in the voltage
given below :
V = 50 ( 1+ 0.7 cos 5000 t + 0.3 cos 1000 t) sin 5 106t.
Draw the single-sided spectrum. Also evaluate the modulated and sideband
powers.
OR
10
SLR-UM 161
-6-
*SLRUM161*
b) i) Explain with the help of block diagram low level AM transmitter.
ii) A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 50 has an

equivalent noise resistance of 30 . Calculate the receivers noise figure in
decibels and its equivalent noise temperature.
5
SECTION II
20
a) With the help of neat circuit diagram, explain balanced slope detector.
b) Compare and contrast narrow band and wide band FM.
c) List and define the different tones used in an automatic telephone exchanges.
Also give their frequencies.
d) Explain the non blocking network of cross bar exchange. Also give its
advantages.
e) What is folded dipole and conical antenna ?
20
a) Explain Armstrong method of FM generation with the help of vector diagrams.

b) Define and explain the terms :
i) Telephone traffic
ii) Grade of service
iii) Average traffic
iv) Erlange formulae
c) What are different characteristics of an antenna ? Explain each in brief.
SLR-UM 162
Code No.
S
*SLRUM162*
&
&
_
_
f
C

Marks : 20

1) In force-voltage analogy, moment of inertia is analogons to
a) capacitance
b) inverse capacitance
c) inductance
d) inverse inductance
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 162
*SLRUM162*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The transfer function of system can be used to study its

a) transient behaviour only
b) steady state behaviour only
c) transient and steady state behaviour
3) A system is called absolutely stable if any oscillations set up in the
systems are
a) damped out
b) self sustaining
c) negative peaked only
d) none of these
4) For the characteristic equation

S4 + 5S3 + 5S2 + 4S + K = 0 the system is stable if K lie in range
b) 2 > K > 0
a) 4 > K > 0
c)
8
d)
8
5) If a system has some poles lying on the imaginary axis it is

a) absolutely stable
b) unstable
c) conditionally stable
d) marginally stable
6) The routh criteria tells us the number of roots lying

a) In the left hand half S-plane
b) In the right hand half S-plane
c) On the origin of S-plan
d) None of above
*SLRUM162*
SLR-UM 162
-3-
7) The control components in a control system ideally drawn

a) zero current
b) small current
c) zero voltage
d) constant voltage
8) The block diagram given below is equivalent to
a)
b)
c)
d)
9) Synchro-transmitter acts like

a) induction motor
b) a transformer
c) an alternator
d) a rectifier
10) A dynamic system is characterized by a change of state

a) with parameter variation
b) with input excitation variation
c) with time
d) due to any parameter
11) If the phase angle at the gain cross over point is . Then phase margin
a)
b) 180
c) 180 +
d)
12) A type-1, system under steady state will have position error when there is
a) step input
b) ramp input
c) either a) or b)
d) none
13) The transfer function of a system is given as

I
&
&
a) underdamped
b) overdamped
c) undamped
SLR-UM 162
*SLRUM162*
-4-
14) The bode plot is applicable to

a) minimum phase network
b) maximum phase network
c) all phase network
d) none of these
15) A phase-lag compensation will

a) improve relative stability
b) increase the speed of response
c) increase band width
d) increase overshoot
16) Root locus diagram can be used to determine
a) absolute stability
b) relative stability
c) conditional stability
17) A phase ________________ compensator increases the bandwidth mostly.

a) lag
b) lead
c) lag-lead
d) none of these
18) The breakaway points of the root locus occurs at

a) real axis
b) imaginary axis
c) multiple roots of characteristic equation
d) none of these
19) The acceleration error constant is defined as
a)
l
c)
5
b)

d)
20) Frequency domain analysis sinusoidal signals considered have ____________

frequency.
a) logarithamic
b) differential
c) either a) or b)
d) none of these
______________________
*SLRUM162*
SLR-UM 162
-5-
S.E. (E&TC) (Part II) Examination, 2014

CONTROL SYSTEMS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
20
a) Write a short note on steeper motor.

b) Derive the transfer function for RLC circuit.
c) What are the applications of Rouths array ?
d) What are the properties of signal flow graph ?
e) Explain position control system.
3. Determine the overall transfer function by using Masons gain formula.
10
10
a) Explain Missile launching and guidance system in detail.

b) For unity feedback system
find range of values

K
of K, marginal K and frequency of sustained oscillations.
SLR-UM 162
-6-
*SLRUM162*
SECTION II
5. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Derive an expression and plot the response of first order system for the unit
ramp input.
b) What is a phase-lag compensator ? Obtain the transfer function of a phase-lag
compensator and draw the pole-zero plot.
c) Determine the co-relation between time and frequency response for second
order system.
d) Explain the following terms in reference to root locus with suitable example.
i) Asymptotes and centroid
ii) Angle of departure and arrival.
e) Define :
i) Phase crossover frequency
ii) Gain crossover frequency
iii) Phase margin
iv) Gain margin.
6. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Plot the root locus for the closed loop control system with
K
b) Find Kp, Kv and Ka for the system whose open loop transfer function is given by

and also determine the steady state error of the system when inputs are (i) 5t
(ii) 7t2.
c) Sketch bode plot for the following transfer function and determine the system
gain K for the gain cross over frequency to be 5 rad/sec.

K

0

0
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
163
*SLRUM163*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

1) Vio and Iio varies with
a) Temperature
c) Time
Marks : 20
b) Power supply
d) All
2) An averaging amplifier with five inputs must have ratio of Rf / RI

a) 5
b) 0.5
c) 0.2
d) 2
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 163
*SLRUM163*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
3) Which of the following circuits are called as wave shaping circuits ?

a) Clipper
b) Clamper
c) Peak detector
d) a) and b)
4) Following circuit is known as dc restorer

a) Precision rectifier
b) Peak detector
c) Clamper
d) Clipper
5) Input resistance of inverting amplifier is approximately

a) RI
b) Rf
c) Ri(1 + AB)
d) Ri(1 AB)
6) Which circuit can be used for diode match finder ?

a) V-F converter
b) I V converter
c) IA
d) V I converter
7) Window comparator detects unknown voltage

a) Between two thresholds
b) Above Vut
c) Below VIt
d) b) and c)
8) UGB is ______________phenomenon.
a) Small signal
b) High frequency
c) Both a) and b)
d) Large signal
*SLRUM163*
SLR-UM 163
-3-
9) Slew rate is measured by applying _________input.

a) Square
b) Step
c) Sine
d) None
10) 741 has following features

a) No latch up
b) Low power consumption
c) Offset null
d) All
11) In ON OFF controller comparator chip acts as________________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Constant
d) Cannot say
12) Which controller having discontinuous mode of operation.

a) ON OFF controller
b) Proportional controller
c) PI controller
d) PD controller
13) The dynamic range of logger is ________________

i1 max
a) logb i min
1
i1 max
c) logb v max
i
v i max
b) logb v min
i
d) V0 logb (1 + p)
14) The frequency of oscillation for wein bridge oscillator at resonance is given
by ____________
a)
c)
1
2 6RC
1
2 RC
b)
d)
1
2 RC
1
2 LC
15) Which one is the sinusoidal oscillator ________________

a) Wein bridge
b) Phase shift
c) Quadrature
d) All of above
SLR-UM 163
*SLRUM163*
-4-
16) Analog multipliers are available as _____________

a) One quadrant
b) Two quadrant
c) Four quadrant
d) All above
17) Using log amplifier we can perform _____________

a) logn(x)
b) log10(x)
c) sinh(x)
d) all above
18) VCO is also called as _____________

a) Voltage to frequency convertor
b) Voltage to current convertor
c) Current to voltage convertor
d) None of these
19) In phase shift oscillator the gain Av must be at least _____________
a) 1
b) 3
c) 19
d) 29
20) Which of the following function is done by PLL ?

a) Free running
b) Capture
c) Phase lock
d) All of above
*SLRUM163*
-5-
SLR-UM 163
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication (Part - II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Draw and explain transconductance amplifier.

b) Explain negative peak detector with necessary waveforms.
c) Explain sine to square wave generator.
d) Compare Dual input balanced output and dual input unbalanced output
differential amplifiers.
e) Explain sample and hold circuit with applications.
3. a) Explain Integrator with output waveforms. What are the limitations of integrator ?
How they are overcome ? Explain frequency response of integrator.
10
b) With proof prove that Opamp can be used as adder, scaling and averaging
amplifier.
10
OR
c) Explain in detail the block diagram of Opamp with parameters contributed by
each block.
10
SLR-UM 163
-6-
*SLRUM163*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Draw and explain quadrature oscillator.

b) Draw and explain operation of VCO.
c) Draw block diagram of IC 565 PLL.
d) Explain two applications of PLL.
e) Explain log amplifier.
f) Explain classification of controller and write a short note on ON OFF controller.
5. a) Explain function diagram of IC 8038 and its applications.
10
b) Solve any one :

(101=10)
1) Draw and explain proportional temperature controller.
2) Explain how triangular wave can be generated from square wave.
SLR-UM 164
Code No.
S
*SLRUM164*
&
_
_
e
o
f
C
&
N. B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) Let x(t) be a signal with x(t) = 0, for t < 3. The value of t for which
x(1 t) + x(2 t), is guaranteed to be zero is
a) t > 2
b) t > 1
c) t < 1
d)
J
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 164
*SLRUM164*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) If a total energy of the signal satisfies the condition 0 < E <

signal is
b) energy signal
a) power signal
c) primary signal
d) periodic signal
3) Convolution of x(t + 5) with impulse function
a) x (t 12)
c) x (t 2)
, then the
is equal to
b) x (t + 12)
d) x (t + 2)
4) If an input signal is applied to two LTI system with impulse responses

h(t) and 3h (t 2), then the response of the second system is the response
of the first with _______________
a) amplitude scaled by 3 and delayed by 2
b) amplitude scaled by 2 and delayed by 3
c) amplitude scaled by 2 and delayed by 2
d) none of these
5) Which of the following systems are non-linear ?
a) y (t) = 2x (t 1) 3x (t 2) + x (t 3)
b) y (t) = 5x (t)
c) y (t) = 2x (t 1) x(t 2) x (t 4)
d) y (t) = 2x (t) + 3.6
6) The product of two even signals is _______________ signal.
b) odd
a) even
c) neither even nor odd
d) none of these
*SLRUM164*
SLR-UM 164
-3-
7) If a signal f(t) has energy, E, the energy of the signal f(2t), is equal to
b) E/2
a) E
c) 2E
d) 4E
8) Consider the following statements regarding a discrete system with the
output input relationship y[n] = x[n] + 3. The system is
1) linear
2) causal
3) have bounded i/p for bounded o/p
4) is non-realisable
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct

d) 2 and 3 are correct
9) If f(t)*g(t) = (t), then

f(at)* g(at) = _______________
a)

b)
=

c)
d)

=
=
10) If x1(t) = x2(t) = u(t), then

x1(t)* x2(t) is
a) u(t)
c) t.u(t)
b) u(t2)
d)
J
11) Reconstruction of original signal can be obtained by

a) taking product of sampled signal xs(t) and impulse response
h(t) of filter
b) taking convolution of sampled signal xs(t) and impulse response
h(t) of filter
c) passing xs(t) through high pass filter with frequency response h(t)
d) none of these
12) For a signal x(t) = 1 + cos 20 t + cos 70 t the Nyquist rate is
a) 45 Hz
b) 40 Hz
c) 140 Hz
d) 70 Hz
13) The Fourier series expansion of an even periodic function contains

b) only cosine terms
a) only sine terms
c) only cosine with constant
d) both sine and cosine
SLR-UM 164
*SLRUM164*
-4-
14) For a Fourier series representation, the condition that, in any finite interval
of time, there are only a finite number of discontinuities exists
a) True
b) False
15) For a continuous-time periodic signal, x(t) then if x(t)
.
a) x*(t)
.
c) x*(t)
ak
b) x*(t)
ak then
d) x*(t)
ak
16) For LTI system with impulse response h(t) = eat (t) ; a > 0 ; also input
signal x(t) = ebt (t), b > 0, then y(j ) is given as
a)
b)
1
c)
17) If x(n)
a)
d)
=
( n 1) ROC is
b)
=
X(z), then for x(n) = nan

c)
d)
1
18) For a causal and stable LTI system, function should converge for
a)
z
c)
19)
b)
1
d)
1
a)
b)
c)
d)
20) If
entire z-plane
entire z-plane with except z = 0
entire z-plane except z =
entire z-plane except z = 0 and z =
{1, 2, 3, 2}, ROC is
a) X(e j )
c) X*(ej )*
for x*(n) the F.T. is given as

b) X*(ej )
d) None of these
______________________
*SLRUM164*
-5-
SLR-UM 164
S.E. (E&TC) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Determine fundamental period of the signal

i) x(t) = 2cos (10t + 1) sin (4t 1)
ii)
b) A discrete time signal x[n] is shown in fig. sketch and label carefully each of
the following signals.
Fig.
i)
x
ii) x [3n + 1].

c) Find whether the following signal is energy signal or power signal, or neither
energy nor power signal,
SLR-UM 164
*SLRUM164*
-6-
d) For each of the following system, determine whether the system is time invariant
or time variant.
i) y(t) = x(t2)
ii) y[n] = x[n] + n.x[n 1].
e) Prove that the multiplication of two even signals is even signal and multiplication
of two odd signals is a even signal.
(210=20)
a) For a system given, y(t) = 10.x(t) + 5, check whether the system is

i) Static or dynamic
ii) Linear or non-linear
iii) Causal or non-causal
iv) Time invariant or time variant.
b) Find convolution sum of the two signals given below.
y[n] = 1
for 0
=0
n
2
elsewhere
x[n] =1
for 0
n
2
= 1
for 3
=0
elsewhere.
5
c) Find the convolution integral of two CT signals.

y(t) = t
for 0 < t < 2
=0
elsewhere
x(t) = 1
for 0 < t < 1
=0
elsewhere.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any 4 :
(45=20)
a) What do you mean by under sampling ? How do we overcome it ?

b) Find z-transform and sketch ROC for the sequence given as
x(n) = 2n.
(n 1).
c) Find inverse z-transform for

x
.
z
*SLRUM164*
SLR-UM 164
-7-
d) Find the Fourier transform of unit gate function for

t
Draw amplitude spectrum.

n
e) Prove ;
d
5. Answer any 2 :
(210=20)
a) Find the exponential Fourier series and plot the magnitude and phase spectrum
of periodic signal
x(t) = t ; 0
1 ; where T = 1sec.
10
b) i) The analog signal m(t) is given as m(t) = 2cos (2000 t) + 3sin (6000 t) +
8cos (1200 t) if Fs = 5000 Hz. Find
Nyquist sampling rate and also find the discrete time signal obtained after
sampling.
ii) Explain the convolution property of Fourier transform.
4
6
c) State and explain in brief the necessary and sufficient conditions of existence
of Fourier series representation for a signal in detail.
10
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 165
*SLRUM165*
Seat
No.

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014
ELECTRONICS CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

MCQ answer sheet has to be submitted after first 30 minutes.
Use of datasheet and calculator is allowed.
Marks : 20
1. Multiple Choice Questions :
20
1) The push pull amplifier is free from ___________

a) Noise
b) Second harmonic distortion
c) Saturation
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 165
-2-
DO
*SLRUM165*
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2) The efficiency of class AB push pull amplifier is __________ class B

push pull amplifiers is
a) Equal to
b) Not equal
c) More than
d) Lower than
3) Introduction of an inductor in place of RC in Class A power amplifier

a) Increases its efficiency
b) Decreases its efficiency
c) Does not affect its efficiency
d) Decreases distortion
4) The phase shift oscillator can produce

a) Rectangular wave shapes
b) Sine waves
c) Irregular wave shapes
d) DC voltages
5) Crystal oscillator is preferred because

a) It works at very high frequency
b) It produces very highly stable oscillations
c) If produces high o/p swing
d) None of these
6) Four CB stages were cascaded together to get an overall gain of
1000. Assuming that cascading is direct, what will be the gain per
stage ?
a) 100
b) 25
c) 10001/4
d) Indeterminate
7) Which of the following statements is true

a) An unbypassed RE introduces negative feedback
b) An unbypassed RE provides gain reduction
c) An unbypassed RE decreases stability
d) Option a) and b)
*SLRUM165*
-3-
SLR-UM 165
8) The start up gain of an oscillator must be ___________ one.

a) Equal to
b) Less than
c) Greater than
d) None of these
9) The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency

response is ___________
a) Direct vcoupling
b) Impedance coupling
c) RC coupling
d) Transformer coupling
10) A common emitter transistor amplifier employing an un bypassed

series emitter resistor is a case of ___________
a) Current series feedback
b) Voltage shunt feedback
c) Voltage series feedback
d) Current shunt feedback
11) For IC555 a stable multivibrator 10K resistance is connected

between power supply and pin no. 7. Other timing components are
10K and 0.05 F. What is the frequency of oscillation ?
a) 2.4 KHz
b) 1.8 KHz
c) 3.6 KHz
d) 962 Hz
12) IC74121 is
a) Dual retriggerable monoshot
b) Non-retriggerable
c) Single retriggerable
d) None
13) Reset pin and control voltage pin of IC555 are generally connected
respectively as
a) Open and shorted to ground
b) Grounded and shorted to ground through capacitor
c) Shorted to ground and open
d) Connected to Vcc and ground through capacitor
14) To introduce a delay of 5 seconds using IC 555 with R = 1 K the
capacitance value required is ,
a) 4.54 F
b) 4.54 mF
c) 0.45 F
d) None of these
SLR-UM 165
-4-
*SLRUM165*
15) The value of R1 to deliver 0.2 amp current to the load of 10 using
7805 with IQ = 4.3 mA. is
a) 10
b) 1k
c) 100
16) A stable multivibrator can be used as

a) Square wave converter
b) Square wave generator
c) Voltage to frequency converter
d) Both b) and c)
17) A power supply has load regulation of 5%. If no load voltage is 20 V
what is full load voltage ?
a) 19 V
b) 15.7 V
c) 19.6 V
18) Commutating capacitors are used

a) To improve the switching speed
b) Stabilize the circuit
c) Circuit will not operate without these capacitors
d) Both a) and b)
19) Transistor used in series regulator has to be a power transistor
because
a) It caries entire load current
b) It is connected in series with the load
c) Both a) and b)
20) Power dissipation calculations are must in the design of
a) Small signal amplifiers
b) Large signal amplifier
c) Power supply design
d) Both b) and c)
_____________________
*SLRUM165*
-5-
SLR-UM 165
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering) (Part II)

(New) Examination, 2014
ELECTRONICS CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

Use of datasheet and calculator is allowed.
SECTION I

(45=20)
1) Compare voltage series, current series, current shunt and voltage shunt
feedback amplifier.
2) Explain frequency response of transformer coupled amplifier.
3) Derive the expression of collector efficiency of Class A amplifier.
4) Explain Darlington Emitter follower circuit and its characteristics.
5) State Barkhausens criterion to generate oscillations and derive frequency of
oscillations for wein bridge oscillator.
(210=20)
1) For the two stage RC coupled amplifier shown below determine input resistance
Ri, individual stage current gains, individual stage gains and overall voltage
gain in dB. Also draw h-equivalent circuit.
Assume hfe = 50, hie = 1.1K, hre and hoe are negligible.
Vi
SLR-UM 165
-6-
*SLRUM165*
2) What is cross over distortion ? How it can be avoided ? Explain the circuit in
detail which is free from this distortion.
3) Design RC phase shift oscillator for 16 KHz frequency with 10Vp-p output
across 10 K load resistor.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Design adjustable voltage regulator using LM317 for V0 = 5-10V at IA. Assume
Iadj = 100 A.
b) Design delay circuit using IC555 to introduce a delay of 5 seconds.
c) Describe the functional pin configuration and internal block diagram of IC555.
d) Design dual regulated power supply for +12 V and 12 V.
e) With suitable circuit diagram, explain the protection circuits for voltage
regulator.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Draw the circuit diagram of transistorized a stable multivibrator. Explain its

operation by plotting the waveforms at different test points. Derive the equation
for frequency of square wave.
b) Design series voltage regulator with pre regulator for the following
specifications V0 = 15 V Vin = 20 30 V IL = 500 mA
Assume suitable data.
c) With suitable circuit diagram explain the following circuits.
i) Schmitt trigger using transistor
ii) Schmitt trigger using IC5555.
_______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 166
*SLRUM166*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S.E. (E & TC) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct options :
(120=20)
1) Amplitude modulation is the process of

a) Superimposing a low frequency on a high frequency
b) Superimposing a high frequency on a low frequency
c) Carrier interruption
d) Frequency and phase shift
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 166
*SLRUM166*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Modulation is done so that

a) Height of the antenna is reduced
b) Multiplexing is achieved
c) Narrow banding is achieved
d) All of above
3) Thermal noise is present in
a) Inductors
b) Capacitors
c) Resistors
d) All passive devices
4) Space noise generally covers a wide frequency spectrum, but the strongest
interference occurs
a) Between 8 MHz and 1.43 GHz
b) Below 20 MHz
c) Between 20 to 120 MHz
d) Above 1.5 GHz
5) The modulation index of an AM wave is increased from 0 to 1. The transmitted
power is
a) Unchanged
b) Halved
c) Doubled
d) Increased by 50%
6) In a low level AM system, amplifiers following the modulated stage must be

a) Linear devices
b) Harmonic devices
c) Class C amplifiers
d) Non linear devices
*SLRUM166*
SLR-UM 166
-3-
7) Flywheel effect of a tuned circuit works best with

a) A tuned circuit whose Q is not too low
b) A tuned circuit whose Q is not too high
c) A tuned circuit whose Q is any value
8) Most popular value of intermediate frequency for AM receivers is
a) 438 MHz
b) 465 KHz
c) 455 MHz
d) 350 KHz
9) FM receivers are different from AM receivers in the sense that

a) FM receivers have much higher operating frequencies
b) FM receivers have different methods of obtaining AGC
c) Totally different methods of demodulation
d) All of above
10) In a radio receiver with simple AGC,
a) An increase in signal strength produces more AGC
b) The audio stage gain is normally controlled by the AGC
c) The faster the AGC time constant, the more accurate the output
d) The highest AGC output is produced between the stations
11) The process of tuning the local oscillator to a predetermined frequency for
each station throughout the AM band is known as
a) Low side injection
b) Tracking
c) Automatic Frequency Control (AFC)
12) Ground waves have the following characteristic
a) Progress along the surface of earth
b) Must be vertically polarized
c) Lies down and dies at some distance from the antenna
d) All of the above
SLR-UM 166
*SLRUM166*
-4-
13) A non resonant antenna __________

a) Produces no standing waves
b) Is unidirectional
c) Has all transmitted power dissipated in the terminating resistance
d) All of above
14) A folded dipole consists of
a) Single element
b) Two elements
c) Four elements
d) Three elements
15) FM produced by PM is called

a) FM
b) PM
c) Direct FM
d) Indirect FM
16) In FM, higher frequencies are boosted by ___________

a) Pre emphasis circuit
b) Deemphasis circuit
c) Amplitude limiter
d) Amplifier
17) A busy tone in a telephone system has a frequency of

a) Bursty 400 Hz
b) Continuous 400 Hz
c) Bursty 133 Hz
d) Continuous 133 Hz
18) The Sun caused disturbances in the ionosphere is /are __________

a) Sudden ionospheric disturbances (SIDs)
b) Dellinger Dropouts
c) Ionospheric storms
d) All of above
19) The band width of AM system
a) Fm
b) 0.5 Fm
c) 2 fm
d) 4 fm
20) The biggest disadvantage of FM is its excessive use of

a) Amplitude
b) Spectrum space
c) Complexity
d) None of these
______________________
*SLRUM166*
-5-
SLR-UM 166
Seat
No.
S.E. (E & TC) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
1) Explain how noise can be calculated in different cascading amplifying stage ?

2) Draw and explain envelope detector used for amplitude demodulation.
3) Explain the characteristics of AM receiver.
4) Define modulation and modulation index. Why modulation is necessary ?
5) Describe the functional block schematic diagram of an electronics
communication system.
(210=20)
1) Draw and explain super heterodyne receiver. What are its advantages and
disadvantages over TRF receiver ?
2) Derive the expression for the total power in the modulated wave and show
that 33.33% of the total power is used for information transmission.
3) An AM signal has a peak unmodulated carrier voltage, Vc = 100 V, a load
resistance RL = 50 and a modulation index, ma = 1.
Determine the following :
a) The carrier power
b) The lower side band and upper side band power
c) Total side band power
d) Total power of the modulated AM signal
e) Sketch the AM power spectrum.
SLR-UM 166
-6-
*SLRUM166*
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Compare AM and FM.

2) Explain direct method of FM generation.
3) Explain the operation of a balanced slope detector using circuit diagram.
4) Describe the tones used in automatic exchange.
5) Explain different characteristics of an Antenna.
(210=20)
1) Explain contrast Strowger and Crossbar switching systems.

2) Compare and contrast the performance of various FM demodulators.
3) Explain ionospheric wave propagation. Define virtual height, critical frequency
and maximum usable frequency.
___________________
Code No. SLR-UM 167
*SLRUM167*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014
CONTROL SYSTEM (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20

1) The synchronous widely used in
a) encoders and decoders
b) speed measurement
c) torque measurement
d) resistance measurement
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 167
*SLRUM167*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) One of the following method can be used to determine the relative stability of
a control system
a) Rouths stability criterion
b) Root locus method
c) Bode plot
d) None of these
3) The inductance is not being used to fabricate lag network

a) it has high reactance
b) it produces time delay and hysteresis loss
c) its size is big
d) none of these
4) Marginally stable systems
a) are also classed as unstable system
b) have one of the pole lying on RHP of S-plane
c) equal no. of poles and zeros
d) none of these
5) The damping factor is unity, the system is
a) overdamped
b) underdamped
c) critical damped
d) undamped
6) In F-V analogy the electrical resistance is analogous to

a) friction
b) spring
c) mass
d) none of these
*SLRUM167*
SLR-UM 167
-3-
7) The transfer function is the ratio of

a) Output to input
b) Laplace transform of output to the Laplace transform input
c) Laplace transform of input to the Laplace transform output
d) None of these
8) The output of feedback control system should be a function of
a) reference and output
b) input
c) feedback signal
d) all of above
9) The phase shift of G(S) =
1
s2
a) 90
b) 90
c) 180
d) 180
10) The phase cross over frequency at which the phase angle is
a) 90
b) 90
c) 180
d) 180
11) The angle of departure is d = ?

a) 180
b) 90
c) 180
d) 180 +
12) The resonant peak is given by

a) Mr =
c) Mr =
b) Mr =
2 1 2
1
1+
1 2
d) None
13) For the transfer function G(S) =
s s 2 + 6s + 10
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
asymptotes are
14) Tachometers are used to generate electrical output proportional to

a) flow
b) pressure
c) speed
d) none
SLR-UM 167
*SLRUM167*
-4-
15) The signal flow graph is a

a) topological representation of non-linear differential equation
b) schematic graph
c) special type of graph for analysis of modern control system
d) plot between frequency and magnitude
16) AC control system has advantages of
a) availability of rugged power amplifiers
b) smaller frame size of AC components
c) both a) and b)
d) none
17) A lag network for compensation normally consist of
a) R only
b) R and C elements
c) R and L elements
d) R, L and C elements
18) The positional error co-efficient is given by

a) K P = lim G(S ) H(S )
b) K P = lim S.G(S ) H(S )
c) K P = lim S 2 .G(S ) H(S )
d) None
s0
s0
s0
19) The bandwidth of a system can be increased by

a) Phase lead compensator
b) Phase lag compensator
c) Phase lag-lead compensator
d) all of these
20) Root locus method is used for the analysis of

a) transient response
b) frequency response
c) stady state response
d) both a) and c)
______________
-5-
*SLRUM167*
SLR-UM 167
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engg.)

(Part II) Examination, 2014
CONTROL SYSTEM (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Explain transient response specifications.

b) Explain closed loop system with suitable block diagram.
c) For a system with characteristic equation S6 + 3S5 + 4S4 + 6S3 + 5S2 + 3S + 2 = 0
examine the stability.
d) Find transfer function of following signal flow graph.
e) Define :
1) Gain margin
2) Phase margin
3) Gain cross over frequency
4) Phase cross over frequency.
SLR-UM 167
*SLRUM167*
-6-
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Derive the formula for bandwidth.

b) Explain the effect of feedback on various parameters. Explain atleast four
parameters.
c) Explain the effect of on second order system performance.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Explain lag compensator.

b) Explain mechanical system elements.
c) Explain AC tachometer.
d) Explain any five rules of block diagram reduction rules.
e) Explain signal flow graph terminology.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Draw a bode plot for following system G(S ) H(S ) =
800 (s + 2 )
s (s + 10 ) (s + 40 )
2
comment on stability.
b) Explain synchros in detail.
c) Draw a root locus for following system G(S ) H(S ) =
______________
(s
K (s + 5 )
+ 4s + 20
Code No. SLR-UM
168
*SLRUM168*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (E & TC) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
N. B. :
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. 1) Voltage gain of the circuit given below is
a) 5 to 10
b) 5 to 10
c) 5 to 10
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 168
*SLRUM168*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Voltage equation (V0) for the circuit given below is
a) V0 =
c)
1
(V1 + V2 ) dt
RC
1 d
(V1 + V2 )
RC dt
b) V0 =
d)
1
(V1 V2 ) dt
RC
1 d
( V1 V2 )
RC dt
3) Inverting amplifier is an example of

a) Voltage series f.b.
b) Current series f.b.
c) Volt-shunt f.b.
d) Both a) and c)
4) OP-AMP 741 has Vio = 6 mV if Rf = 10 k , R1 = 2 k output offset voltage

caused due to Vio for inverting and noninverting amplifier respectively are
a) 6 mV, 6 mV
b) 36 mV, 6 mV
c) 6 mV, 36 mV
d) 36 mV, 36 mV
5) Input noise in differentiator circuit

a) Decreases
b) Remains constant
c) Increases
d) None
*SLRUM168*
-3-
SLR-UM 168
6) Differential gain for DIBO configuration with RC = 1 k , IE = 10 mA is

a) 400.4
b) 380.5
c) 384.6
d) None
7) VOOT varies with variations in

a) Temp
c) Power supply
b) Time
d) All
8) OP-AMP has limited range of applications in

a) Closed loop
b) Open loop
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
9) Practical and theoretical o/p voltage of the given circuit respectively is
a) Vsat and 50 V
c) Vsat and 55 V
b) Vsat and 55 V
d) None
10) V I converter can be designed with

b) Floating load noninverting
a) Floating load inverting
c) Grounded load
d) All
11) ZCD is a special case of ______________

a) Basic comparator
b) Squaring circuit
c) Window detector
d) None
12) _____________ circuit converts irregular shape into square wave or pulse.
a) Squaring
b) Window detector
c) Comparator
d) None
13) Circuit which identifies the unknown voltage between two references is
called as
b) Window detector
a) Schmitt trigger
c) IA
d) None
SLR-UM 168
*SLRUM168*
-4-
14) The gain required for quadrature oscillator is

a) 3
b) 29
c) 1.66
d) 1.41
15) For wein bridge oscillator if f0 = 965 Hz and C = 0.05 F then R = ___ .
a) 2.2 k
b) 2.7 k
c) 3.3 k
d) 330
16) Triangular wave generator has duty cycle of __________ %.

a) 33
b) 67
c) 50
d) 100
17) The centre frequency font of PLL is _____________ Hz.

1.2
a) 4R C
1 1
1.2
b) 2R C
1 1
1.2
c) 2R C
1 1
1.2
d) 2 R C
1 1
18) Analog multipliers are available as __________ quadrant.

a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) All
19) Butterworth filter is also known as ___________ filter.

a) Flat-flat
b) Ripple-flat
c) Flat-ripple
d) Ripple-ripple
20) The output voltage of first order HPF is a function of lower cut off
frequency.
a) False
b) True
c) Partially true
d) None
__________________
*SLRUM168*
-5-
SLR-UM 168
Seat
No.
S.E. (E & TC) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N.B. :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Design non inverting amplifier for variable gain of 10 15.

b) Design an instrumentation amplifier using three OP-AMPS for variable gain of
2 to 4.
c) What are different reasons for output offset voltage ? Derive the equation for
output offset voltage caused by bias current.
d) Explain grounded load V I convertor and derive the equation for load
current.
e) Define slew rate. Derive the equation and explain how slew rate limits the
operating frequency.
3. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) What is DIBO ? Calculate operating point values and derive the equation for
Ad, Ri and Ro.
b) Define following parameters of IC 7416. State its ideal and typical values.
i) PSRR
ii) CMRR
iii) Vio
iv) Ci
v) S.R.
SLR-UM 168
-6-
*SLRUM168*
c) Design single OP-AMP circuit for producing the required outputs.

i) V0 = 2V1 3V2 6V3
ii) V0 = 5V1 + 6V2 3V3
V1, V2 and V3 are external input signals.
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Write a short note on Schmitt trigger.

2) Explain full wave precision rectifier with neat diagram.
3) Design a second order low pass butterworth filter with fH = 1.5 kHz.
4) Explain S/H circuit in detail.
5) Explain square wave generator.
5. a) Draw and explain wein bridge oscillator with a proof of f0 =
and RF = 2R1.
b) What is PLL and explain its blocks and discuss any one its
application.
OR
b) Explain in detail log and antilog amplifier.
_____________
1
2RC
(110=10)
(110=10)
Code No. SLR-UM 169
*SLRUM169*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part II) Examination, 2014
SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Tick the correct option :
20
1) If x(t) is an odd signal then

a) x(t) is even
b) x2(t) is even
c) x2(t) is odd
d) x2(t) is odd
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 169
*SLRUM169*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The system with impulse response h1(t) is inverse of system with impulse
response h(t) when
a) h1(t) * (t) = h(t)
b) h(t) * (t) = h1(t)
c) h(t) * h1(t) = (t)
d) None of these
3) x(n) = 2n u(2 n) is
a) causal
b) non causal
c) anti causal
d) none of these
4) Consider x(t) = eat, where a is any real number it is

a) energy signal
b) power signal
c) neither energy nor power signal
d) both a) and b)
5) The discrete time system y(n) = x(n2) is
a) causal, linear and time variant
b) non-causal, linear and time variant
c) causal, linear and time invariant
d) non-causal, linear and time invariant
6) The product of even and odd signal is
a) even signal
b) odd signal
c) even and odd signal
d) none of these
*SLRUM169*
SLR-UM 169
-3-
7) The system y(n) = x(n) + 4 x (n 1) is

a) stable, causal
b) stable, non-causal
c) unstable, causal
d) unstable, non-causal
8) If h1(n) is impulse response of invertible system and h2(n) is impulse response

of its inverse system then h1(n) + h2(n) is
a) (t)
b) (n)
c) u(n)
d) (n 1)
9) The convolution integral of x(t) * (t) is

a) u(t)
b) (t)
c) x(t)
d) none of these
10) Given sequence x1(n) = (1, 2, 3, 1) and x2(n) = (2, 3, 2) then convolution
y(n) is
a) (2, 7, 10, 7)
b) (2, 7, 10, 3, 9, 2)
c) (10, 7, 9, 2)
d) (2, 7, 10, 7, 9)
11) If a periodic signal has odd symmetry then Fourier series

a) Only sine terms
b) Only cosine terms
c) Both sine and cosine terms
d) None
12) The periodic signal said to be have half-symmetry when

a) x(t) = x(t + T/2)
b) x(t) = x(t T/2)
c) x(t) = x (t T/2)
d) x(t) = x (t T/2)
13) The Fourier transform of u(t) is

a)
1
j
c) j
b)
1
1 + j
d) () +
1
j
14) The ROC of the Z-transform of a unit step function is

a) /z/>1
b) /z/<1
c) (real part of z)>0
d) (real part of z)<0
SLR-UM 169
*SLRUM169*
-4-
15) For x(n) = u(n 1); then ROC is

a) /z/>1
b) /z/<1
c) /z/>0
d) /z/<0
16) When the system has poles inside the unit circle in Z-domain ?
a) The system is stable and its impulse response is a decaying function
b) Time domain behavior will be exponentially rising signal
c) The system is unstable
d) The impulse response is marginally constant
17) For a signal x(t) = 1 + cos 10 t + cos 40 t then nyquist rate is
a) 10 Hz
b) 20 Hz
c) 25 Hz
d) 40 Hz
18) If x(n) = u(n) u(n 3) then ROC is

a) Entire Z-plane, except z = 0
b) Entire Z-plane, except z =
c) Entire Z-plane
d) Entire Z-plane, except z = 0 and z =
19) Fourier transform of x(t) can be given as
a) x (j) =
x(t ) e
jt
dt
b) x (j) =
jnt
x(t ) e dt
c) x (j) =
jt
x(t ) e dt
d) None
20) Aliasing occurs when a signal of band width W is sampled with sampling
frequency F
a) Greater than W
b) Less than W
c) Greater than 2W
d) Less than 2W
______________
*SLRUM169*
-5-
SLR-UM 169
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part II) Examination, 2014

SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
a) Sketch even and odd parts of following DT sequences.
b) Check whether following system is static or dynamic and causal or

non-causal.
y(n) = x(n) x (n 1)
c) Sketch and label the following signals.
i) x(t 2)
ii) x (3 t/2)
d) Find whether following signal is energy signal or power signal
x(t) = e3t u(t)
e) Find the fundamental period of signal if given signals are periodic
i) e(1+j)t
ii) 2 cos (n 4 ) + sin (n 8 )
(45=20)
SLR-UM 169
*SLRUM169*
-6-
(210=20)
a) Obtain the convolution of following CT signals

y(t) = t
for 0 < t < 2
= 0
otherwise
h(t) = 1
for 0 < t < 1
= 0
otherwise
b) Check whether following system y(t) = odd [x(t)] is
i) static or dynamic
ii) linear or non-linear
iii) causal or non-causal
iv) time variant or time invariant.
c) Find the step response of the following system h(t) = t u(t). Justify also
whether the LTI system is stable or unstable.
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Explain in detail reconstruction of signal from its samples.

2) Define Aliasing error. Explain how it can be avoided ?
3) Find inverse Z transform of X(z ) =
z
2
2z 3z + 1
4) Find Fourier transform of x(t) = coswot . u(t).
where ROC /z/>1.
5) Find Z transform of x(n) = {1, 2, 1, 0, 1, 2}.

(210=20)
1) Find the Fourier series for signal x(t) = t for 0 < t < 1 and repeats every 1 sec
and plot its magnitude spectrum ?
2) Consider the analog signal x(t) = 3 cos 2000 t + 5 sin 6000 t + 10 cos
1000 t
a) What is sampling rate ?
b) For this signal assuming that the signal assuming that the signal is sampled
using fs = 5000 Hz. What is DT signal ?
3) Obtain the convolution of following using convolution property of Fourier
transform x(t) = ebt . u(t) where b > 0 and h(t) = eat . u(t) where a > 0.
______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 17
*SLRUM17*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S. E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ENGINEERING GEOLOGY(Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m.to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

2) Attempt any three questions from Section I and any three
from Section II.
4) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary.
Marks : 20
1. Select the correct one :
20
1) Exfoliation is due to ____________

a) Chemical change
b) Excessive heating
c) Leaching action

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 17
*SLRUM17*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Slate is formed due to __________ metamorphism.

a) Thermal
b) Cataclastic
c) Dynamothermal
d) Plutonic
3) When water descends over a step like structure it is called as ________

a) Water fall
b) Cascades
c) Steptoe
d) All the above
4) Conarads discontinuity is present between

a) Sial and Sima
b) Crust and Mantle
c) Mantle and Core
d) Outer core and Inner core
5) Normal fault having low angle dip is _______ type.

a) Wrench
b) Gravity
c) Detachment
d) Pivot
6) Which of the following is hydrated silica ?

a) Tridamite
b) Opal
c) Quartz
d) Jasper
7) The most favourable evidence that indicate rejuvenation is __________

a) Flood plain
b) Levees
c) Incised meander
d) All the above
8) The average thickness of crust is __________

a) 65 km
b) 70 km
c) 33 km
d) 25 km
*SLRUM17*
SLR-UM 17
-3-
9) The younger rocks are surrounded by older rocks is called ________

a) Outlier
b) Inlier
c) Overlap
d) All the above
10) Earthdam fails due to ____________

a) Velocity of water
b) Percolation of water
c) Overtapping of insufficient height
d) Water table fluctuation
11) Sahyadri is __________ type of mountain.
a) Relict
b) Fold
c) Faulted
d) None of above
12) The lowest point to which a stream can erode its channel is known as _____
a) Base level
b) Water level
c) Sea level
13) The load capacity of rock Slabs can be predicted by its ________
a) Texture
b) Structure
c) Flexural strength
d) Joints and cracks
14) Dunite rock contain ________ % of silica.

a) > 66%
b) 66 54%
c) 54 45%
d) < 45%
15) In the Bowens reaction series ___________ is the second crystallised mineral.
a) Olivine
b) Pyroxene
c) Mica
d) Quartz
16) The purple colour of amethyst is due to ___________

a) Ti
b) Fe
c) Mn
d) Cr
SLR-UM 17
*SLRUM17*
-4-
17) Sedimentary rock shows ___________ texture.

a) Porphyritic
b) Ophitic
c) Granitic
d) Clastic
18) Road cut parallel to strike of bed is ____________

a) Favourable
b) unfavourable
c) Reasonable
d) All above
19) The granite is __________ type of rock.

a) Volcanic
b) Plutonic
c) Hypabyssal
d) All the above
20) Oldest type of drilling is ___________

a) Rotatory
b) Calyx
c) Auger
d) Percussion
______________________
*SLRUM17*
-5-
SLR-UM 17
Seat
No.

ENGINEERING GEOLOGY (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) Attempt any three questions from Section I and any three
from Section II.
4) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain the geological work carried out by river.
b) Describe any four structures of igneous rocks with geological significance.
3. a) Classification of sedimentary rocks.
b) Scope of Engineering geology.
4. a) Agents and types of metamorphism.
8
5
8
5
8
b) Classification of igneous rocks on the basis of,

a) Silica percentage
b) Feldspar content
c) Colour index.
5. Write notes on any four of the following :
a) Porphyritic texture
b) Gneissose and schistose structures
c) Discordant igneous intrusion
d) Types of joints
e) Hydrologic cycle.
6
12
SLR-UM 17
-6-
*SLRUM17*
SECTION II
6. a) Construction of seismograph.
b) Favourable and unfavourable sites for the alignment of tunnel.
7. a) Write about the mass movement with examples.
b) Selection of the reservoir site.
8. Write notes on any four of the following :
8
6
8
5
12
a) RQD
b) Exploratory drilling
c) Zones of ground water
d) Grouting
e) Types of bridges.
9. a) What are the various steps taken for the selection of the dam site ?
b) Scope of geology for the selection of bridge site.
___________________
8
5
Code No.
SLR-UM 170
*SLRUM170*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------T. E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGG. AND RADIATING SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

2) Assume suitable data if necessary
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) Which of the following is not a valid at point (0, 4, 0) ?

a) a = a x
b) a = a z
c) a r = 4 a y
d) a = ay
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 170
*SLRUM170*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
2) Which of the following is zero ?

a) grad div
c) curl grad
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
b) div grad
d) curl curl
3) Work done by the force F = 4ax 3ay + 2 a z (N) in giving in C charge a

displacement of 10 a x + 2 a y 7 a z (m) is
a) 103 nJ
c) 20 nJ
b) 60 nJ
d) None of these
4) If a pair of +ve and ve charges of 0.5 C separated by 5 m then the magnitude

of dipole moment is __________
a) 5C m
b) 2.5 C m
c) 2C m
d) 25 C m
5) A is _________
a) H
c) B
b) J
d) I
6) Two point charges Q1 = 1C, Q2 = 1C are seperated by 1m. The force on

Q1 is
b) 9 N
a) 9 10 9 N
c) 9 109 N
d) None of these
7) If charge density of 10nc m2 is distributed on a plane z = 5m, the electric
field intensity at origin is
a) 180 a z
b) 180 a z
c) 360 a z
d) None of these
*SLRUM170*
SLR-UM 170
-3-
8) Laplaces equation has _________

a) Two solutions
b) solutions
c) No solutions
d) Only one solution
9) The | E | at a point (1, 2, 2) due to (1/9) nc charge located at (0, 0, 0) is

__________ (v/m).
a) 9
b) 1/9
c) 1/9 10 9
d) None of these
10) Electric potential is defined as ___________

a) Work done
b) Work done per unit charge
c) Electric field intensity per unit charge
d) None of these
11) In elliptical polarization, Ex and Ey are
a) In-phase
b) Not in-phase
c) Both a) and b)
12) The intrinsic impedance of any media is

a)
b)
c)
0
0
d)
0
0
13) For sinusoidally time varying fields

a) B = r
b) E = 0
c) B = 0
d) H = 0
14) The shape of radiation pattern does not depend on the radius r provided
a) radius =
b) r <<
c) r << 2
d) r >>
SLR-UM 170
*SLRUM170*
-4-
15) The ratio of the radiation intensity in a direction to the average radiated power
is
a) Directive gain
b) Antenna gain
c) Power gain
d) Directivity
16) The directivity is related with beam solid angle (A ) as

a) D = 4 A
c) D =
b) D =
4
A
A
4
d) None of these
17) The radiation resistance of a centre fed half dipole is approximately

a) 37
b) 36.5
c) 292
d) 73
18) The measure of solid angle is

a) Degrees
b) Radians
c) Steradian
d) None of these
19) The directivity of end-fire array is D =

a)
4L
b)
4
L
c)
2L
d)
8L
20) If the spacing between each element in an array is not identical then it can be
considered as
a) Linear array
b) Non-linear array
c) May be a) or b)
________________
*SLRUM170*
-5-
SLR-UM 170
Seat
No.
T.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGG. AND RADIATING SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Derive magnetic boundary conditions.

b) Derive expression for energy density in electrostatic field due to point charges.
c) State and prove strokes theorem.
d) A parallel plate capacitor utilizes plates of area 0.06 m2 and 0.4 mm seperation.
Determine capacitance, If 10 V dc is applied across capacitor find the energy
stored.
e) A point charge Q1 = 10 c is located at P1(1,2,3) in free space while
Q2 = 5 c is located at P2(1, 2, 10). Find the co-ordinates of P3 at which a
point charge Q3 experiences no force.
[Note : P3 is Qn the same line of P1 and P2].
(210=20)
a) A line charge density l = 15 pc/m is located in free space on he line. y = 3,

x = 4 and a point charge Q = 2nC located at origin. Find E due to
i) Line charge at P2(8, 9, 10)
ii) Point charge at P2(8, 9, 10)
iii) Line and point charge at P2(8, 9, 10)
b) Derive point form of Amperes law and write it in three different co-ordinates.
c) Let H = 2 sin2 a + 2 cos 2 a + 2z 2 az Evaluate both sides of strokes
theorem. If 0 2 and 1 z 3 .
SLR-UM 170
-6-
*SLRUM170*
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) An area of 0.65 m2 in the z = 0 plane encloses a filamentary conductor. Find

the induced voltage if
a y + a z
( T) .
B = 0.05 cos 10 3 t
z
b) What values of A and are required of two fields ?
) ( m) and H = A . cos (106 t x ) az (A m)
E = 120 cos 10 6 t x ay v
satisfy Maxwells equation in a medium where r = r = 4 and = 0.

c) Write note on parabolic dish antenna.
d) Find the radiation resistance of a Hertzian dipole of length 40 , 60 , 80 .
e) If the radius of a small loop is 0.035 , find its physical area and maximum
effective aperture.
(102=20)
a) Explain slot antennas with different feed points and types of slots.
b) For end fire array consisting of several half wavelength long isotropic radiators
is to have a directive gain of 30. Find the array length and width of the major
lobe i.e. BWFN. What will be these values for broadside array ?
A
c) The displacement current density 5.cos(2108 t kz) ax
for which
m2
= 0 and = 5 0 and = 4 0 . Find,
i) D
ii) E
iii) B
iv) H .
___________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 171
*SLRUM171*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Day & Date ____________________ _
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________ Section ________________________________________

Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination _________

______________ (Paper - _______)
For Office Use only
Code No.

I. Choose one of the correct alternatives :
Marks : 20
20
1) Companding is used to
a) eliminate quantizing noise in PCM
b) allow amplitude limiting in the PCM receivers
c) improve S/N ratio for small signals in PCM
d) overcome impulse noise in PCM receiver
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 171
-2-
DO
*SLRUY19*
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
T
NO
2) Channel capacity
a) Restricts the rate at which information is transmitted
b) Gives the no. of signals that can be tansmitted simultaneously
c) Is not at all dependent upon the channel noise
d) None of these
3) PPM is a
a) Linear modulation technique
b) Analog modulation technique
c) Digital modulation technique
d) None of these
4) In PCM system, the number of quantization levels are 16 and the maximum
signal frequency is 4 KHz, the bit transmission rate is
b) 16 Kbps
a) 64 bps
c) 32 Kbps
d) 32 bps
5) Entropy H of a message
a) Is the rate at which the information is transmitted
b) Is given as bits/symbol
c) Should be low in a good channel
d) None of these
6) In DM system, the granular noise occurs when the modulating signal is
a) Rapidly increasing
b) Weak
c) Constant
d) None of these
*SLRUM171*
SLR-UM 171
-3-
7) Consider the following statements comparing delta modulation with PCM

systems DM requires
b) a higher sampling rate
a) a lower sampling rate
c) a large bandwidth
d) simpler hardware
8) The main advantage of TDM over FDM is

a) needs less power
b) needs less bandwidth
c) needs simple circuitry
d) gives better S/N ratio
9) Which of the below is the technique for demodulation of PAM ?

a) equalizer
b) holding circuit
c) envelope detector
d) all of the above
10) If the two events are statistically independent, then P(AB) = ___
a) P(A)
b) P(B/A) P(A)
c) P(A) P(B)
d) P(A) + P(B)
11) Coherent demodulation of FSK signal can be effected using

a) Correlation receiver
b) Band pass filters and envelope detectors
c) Matched filter
d) Discriminator
12) The bit stream 01001 is differentially encoded using Delay and EXOR scheme
for DPSK transmission. Assuming the reference bit as 1 and assigning
phases of 0 and for 1s and 0s, respectively in the encoded sequence,
the transmitted phase sequence becomes
b) 0 0 0
a) 0 0
c) 0 0
d) 0
13) Which of the following gives maximum probability of error ?

a) ASK
b) FSK
c) PSK
d) DPSK
14) For the same Pe, PSK, DPSK and QPSK when compared, QPSK requires
a) Larger power
b) Equal power
c) Least power
d) None of these
SLR-UM 171
-4-
*SLRUY19*
15) Multichannel signal transmission is commonly used on time-varying channels

to overcome the effects of
a) Attenuation
b) Signal fading
c) Amplification
d) Phase shift
16) Non coherent FSK demodulation uses

a) Square law device
b) LPF
c) Envelope detector
d) All of the above
17) I-coding efficiency is called

a) average codeword length
b) entropy coding
c) coding probability
d) coding redundancy
18) Which of the techniques provides security in digital communication
a) source coding
b) multiplexing
c) carrier modulation
d) spread spectrum
19) In QAM, both identities are varied

a) Amplitude and Phase
b) Frequency and phase
c) Bit rate and phase
d) Amplitude frequency
20) Design principle of matched filter is to have maximum ___________ at a
sampling time T.
a) Power
b) PSD
c) SNR
d) all of the above
SLR-UM 171
-5-
*SLRUY19*
Seat
No.
T.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
II. a) Answer any three :
12
i) Define Entropy and derive expression for Entropy.

ii) Compare and contrast the uniform and non-uniform quantization.
iii) List the advantages of M-ary signaling schemes over binary signaling schemes.
iv) With a block diagram explain DPCM system.
b) A DMS has an alphabet of 7 symbols with probability for its output as
described in table.
Symbol
Probability
S0
S1
S2
0.25 0.25 0.125
S3
S4
S5
S6
0.125
0.125
0.625
0.625
Calculate average length of code and its efficiency. Assume m = 2.

(Apply Huffman coding Algorithm).
III. a) Answer any two :
8
12
i) With the help of circuit diagram explain PPM modulator and demodulator.
ii) Explain with a block diagram ADM. List its advantages and disadvantages.
iii) Show that as the bandwidth approaches to the maximum information
rate Rmax = S/N log2e = 1.44 S/N.
b) Explain how ISI is controlled in Duo binary baseband PAM system.
SLR-UM 171
-6-
*SLRUY19*
SECTION II
IV. a) Answer any three :
12
i) Compare different digital modulation techniques.

ii) Explain Costas loop method of carrier recovery.
iii) Write a note on M-ary signaling schemes. What are its advantages over
binary signaling Schemes ?
iv) What is significance of Multicarrier communication system ?
b) Explain M-ary differential PSK modulation and demodulation in detail.
V. a) Answer any two :
8
12
i) Write a note on Matched filter.

ii) Write a note on minimizing peak to average power ratio in multicarrier
system.
iii) What are different symbol synchronization methods ? Explain any one in
detail.
b) What is drawback of M-ary PSK signaling scheme for high values of M ? How
it is overcome in QAM ? Explain QAM modulation and demodulation in detail.
Code No. SLR-UM 172
*SLRUM172*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
m
a
_
_
f
C
&

1. Tick correct options :
Marks : 20
20
1) Detail study of each activity is carried out in

a) waterfall model
b) spiral model
c) V model
d) none of above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 172
*SLRUM172*
-2-
DO
NO
R
W
T
H
E
IT
E
R
E
2) Software Engineering primarily aims at developing

a) Reliable software
b) Cost effective software
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
3) Release testing is also known as
a) Functional testing
b) Regression testing
c) Alfa testing
d) None of above
4) Functional requirement specification of a system should be
a) Complete
b) Consistent
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
5) Software specification is the process of
a) Understanding and defining services which are required
b) Identifying constraints on system
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
*SLRUM172*
SLR-UM 172
-3-
6) In user requirements shall is used

a) For mandatory requirement
b) For desirable requirement
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above
7) The most widely known standard for requirement document is
b) IEEE 810
a) IEEE 802
c) IEEE 830
d) IEEE 850
8) Good of software testing leads to
a) Defect testing
c) Both a) and b)
b) Validation testing
d) None of above
9) The data flow model mainly shows

a) the underlying data and relationship among them
b) processing requirement and flow of data
c) decision and control information
d) communication structure
10) In object oriented design of software object have
a) attributes and names
b) attributes and operations
c) attributes, names and operation
d) none of above
11) Which of below feature makes software project different ?
b) Complexity
a) Invisibility
c) Flexibility
d) All of above
12) Software, manual etc. are called
a) infrastructure
b) deliverables
c) tasks
d) all of above
13) Which of below is risk identification approach ?
b) Network analysis
a) Check list
c) Forward tracking
d) All of above
SLR-UM 172
-4-
*SLRUM172*
14) The highest level in a typical project reporting structure is

b) Steering Committee
a) Project Manager
c) Team Leader
d) Human Resource Officer
15) The activity standard deviation is proportional to
a) optimistic and pessimistic estimates
b) critical time
c) expected duration
d) most likely time
16) The chart showing the way in which targets have changed throughout the
duration and project is
b) Time line
a) Ball chart
c) Slip chart
d) Gantt chart
17) Causal maps represents
a) Progress of project
b) Scheduling
c) Cause and effect
d) Risk assessment
18) The diagram showing for each product which other products are required as
input is called ___________ diagram.
a) Product based
b) Precedence
c) Product driven
d) Project process
19) The usual effect of shortening critical path is
a) more slippage
b) risk mitigation
c) some other path become critical
d) free float
20) In a precedence network which of below have duration
b) loop
a) link
c) node
d) critical path
______________________
*SLRUM172*
-5-
SLR-UM 172
Seat
No.
T.E. (E&TC) (Part I) Examination, 2014

SOFTWARE ENGINEERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Draw neat diagrams.
SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Write attributes of good software.

b) Write briefly about software specification with suitable diagram.
c) Write briefly about inheritance model.
d) Explain integration testing with neat diagram.
e) List various advantages of incremental development process.
3. a) Explain RUP (Rational Unified Process) in detail.
(81=8)
OR
a) Explain CASE (Computer Aided Software Engg.) in detail.
b) Explain non-functional with all types.
(81=8)
c) Explain path testing in short.
(41=4)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 172
-6-
*SLRUM172*
SECTION II
4. A) Attempt any two :
(26=12)
i) Explain different substages in identifying project scope and objectives.

ii) Explain in brief different activities covered under software project
management.
iii) What are different categories of risk ?
B) Solve all :
(24=8)
i) List rules and conventions for activity on node network.

ii) Explain objectives of activity planning.
5. A) Solve any one :
a) What are different methods to visualize the progress of a project ?
(18=8)
b) What are different steps for constructing precedence network model ?

B) Attempt all :
i) Explain risk analysis.
ii) Write short note on cost benefit evaluation techniques.
iii) Explain PERT technique and its uses.
_____________________
(34=12)
Code No.
SLR-UM 173
*SLRUM173*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) Sine wave signal is

a) An energy signal
b) A power signal
c) A short lived signal
d) Neither energy nor power signal
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 173
*SLRUM173*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) When aliasing occurs

a) Low frequency become high frequency
b) High frequency become mid frequency
c) High frequency above signal bandwidth become low frequency below
signal bandwidth.
d) None
3) FFT algorithm calculates
a) DTFT
c) DFT
b) DCT
d) DST
4) Bit reversing is required for which algorithm from following.

b) DIF
a) DIT
c) a) and b) both
d) None
5) If X(k) consists of N-number of frequency samples, then its discrete

frequency locations are given by
a) fk =
k.Fs
N
k.N
c) fk = F
s
b) fk =
Fs
N
d) fk = N
6) In an N-point sequence, if N = 16, the total number of complex additions

and multiplications using Radix-2 FFT are
b) 80 and 64
a) 64 and 80
c) 64 and 32
d) 24 and 12
*SLRUM173*
SLR-UM 173
-3-
7) In IIR system, which of the following structure will give direct relation
between time domain and z-domain.
b) Direct form II
a) Direct form I
c) Cascade form
d) Parallel form
8) The linear phase realisation is used in FIR system, mainly to minimise

a) Multipliers
b) Memory
c) Delays
d) Adders
9) The factor that influence the choice of realisation of structure is

a) Memory requirement
b) Computational complexity
c) Parallel processing
d) All the above
10) In overlap save method, the convolution of various sections are

performed by
a) Zero padding
b) Linear convolution
c) Circular convolution
d) Both b) and c)
11) FIR filter is also known as _______________ filter.

a) Cascade
b) Transversal
c) ARMA
d) AR
12) The quantisation noise can be reduced by

a) Increasing step size
b) Reducing step size
c) Reducing number of bits used for quantisation
d) None
13) Poles of butter worth filter lies on
a) Ellipse
c) Parabola
b) Circle
d) None of these
14) The ideal filter has an impulse response of

a) Finite duration
b) Infinite duration between 0 and
c) Infinite duration between and +
d) Finite duration between Q and + Q
SLR-UM 173
*SLRUM173*
-4-
15) Convolution of ideal filter response and sync function results in

a) Side lobes oscillations
b) Main lobe oscillations
c) Sharpening of transition width
d) Decrease in main lobe width
16) The selected frequency points in frequency sampling method are
a) Fourier transform coefficient
b) DTFT coefficients
c) DFT coefficients
d) None
17) The IIR filter design is based on
a) Analog filter design
c) Digital filter design
b) DT filter design
d) None
18) For BLT method, we execute pre-warping using the equation
)
( T 2)
(
= tan(
)
T )
4
a) A = tan D T 2
b) A = tan D T 4
c) A = tan1
d) jA
19) MAC function increments sample data pointer by

a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 6
20) Impulse invariant method uses transformation

a) z = e sT
c) z = eT
b) z = e sT
d) z = e jT
___________________
*SLRUM173*
SLR-UM 173
-5-
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(54=20)
a) Find the cross correlation of two finite length sequences

x(n) = {1, 1, 1, 2}
h(n) = {1, 2, 1, 1}.
n1
1
b) Find z-transform of the sequence x(n) =
u(n 1).
3
c) Find circular convolution of following sequences
x(n) = {1, 1, 1, 2}
y(n) = {1, 2, 3, 2}
d) Realise the system in cascade form

1
1+ z1
2
H(z) =
1
1 2
1
2
1
1 z + z 1 z + z
4
2
e) State and prove linearity property and time reversal of the sequence
property of DFT.
(102=20)
a) Find DFT of the sequence x(n) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 4, 3, 2, 1} using DIT algorithm.

b) Find the linear convolution of sequences
x(n) = {1, 2, 1, 2, 3, 2, 3, 1, 1, 1, 2, 1} and h(n) = {1, 2} using overlap
save method.
c) Perform the following :
i) Find IDFT of X(k) = {50, 2 j2, 2, 2 + j2)
ii) Find DFT of x(n) = {0, 2, 4, 6}.
SLR-UM 173
-6-
*SLRUM173*
SECTION II
(54=20)
1) Explain windowing technique for designing FIR filter.

2) Explain the application of DSP in image processing.
3) Draw and explain VLIW architecture.
4) Explain difference between FIR filter and IIR filter.
5) Explain pre warping effect for designing IIR filter.
(102=20)
1) Design an ideal high pass filter whose desired frequency response
( )
Hd e j = 1
| |
=0
otherwise
Using Hanning window, determine

1) The impulse response for N = 9.
2) H(z).
2) Explain with block diagram TMS 320C 54X digital signal processor in detail.
3) Convert the given analog transfer function into equivalent digital transfer
function using impulse invariant transformation technique
Ha(s) =
s + 0 .1
(s + 0.1)2 + 9 .
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 174
*SLRUM174*
Seat
No.

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part I) Examination, 2014

MICROPROCESSORS AND PERIPHERALS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) How many flag bits are there in 8085 ?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 174
*SLRUM174*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The RAM of 2k 4 is required to be designed from available RAM

capacity of 256 4. How many memory chips of size 256 4 are
needed ?
a) 7
b) 6
c) 8
d) 5
3) What type of memory is the stack ?

a) LIFO
b) FIFO
c) Sequential
d) Random
4) ALE is used for latching ___________

a) 16-bit address
b) Lower byte address
c) Higher byte address
5) IC 74LS244 is a
a) Latch
b) Encoder
c) Buffer
d) Decoder
6) What is width of databus of 8085 ?

a) 4 bit
b) 8 bit
c) 16 bit
d) 32 bit
7) Which one of the following instruction loads the contents of HL register

pair into SP ?
a) PCHL
b) XTHL
c) SPHL
d) All of the above
*SLRUM174*
SLR-UM 174
-3-
8) Which of the following memory requires refreshing ?

a) ROM
b) SRAM
c) DRAM
d) EPROM
9) Which of the following has lowest priority ?

a) RST 5.5
b) RST 7.5
c) TRAP
d) INTR
10) How many machine cycles are needed to execute DCRM instruction ?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
11) The no. of address lines required for 8255 to select the ports are
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
12) The control word for 8255 to configured all ports output in mode 0 is
a) 20H
b) 60H
c) 88H
13) Control word format for mode 0 of 8253 for counter 0, Read/Load LSB
data byte only and BCD counter is
a) 10H
b) 12H
c) 11H
14) Synchronous baud rate for 8251 is

a) DC to 8K
b) DC 16K
c) DC 64K
d) DC 128K
15) Which of the following port is 8255 is used in BSR mode ?

a) Port A
b) Port B
c) Port C only
d) Port A and Port C
16) Power supply voltage range for DAC 0808 is

a) 4.5V to 18V
b) 4.5V to 18V
c) 5V to 15V
SLR-UM 174
*SLRUM174*
-4-
17) ADC 0808 IC is having

a) 30 pin package
b) 14 pin package
c) 28 pin package
d) none
18) The no. of address lines required to interface 8KB memory with 8085
are
a) 10
b) 11
c) 15
19) The fastest ADC available is

a) Counter type
b) Successive approximation type
c) Flash type
d) All of the above
20) Key debouncing can be obtained thro.
a) Only software
b) Only hardware
c) Both hardwared and software
________________
*SLRUM174*
-5-
SLR-UM 174
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part I) Examination, 2014

MICROPROCESSORS AND PERIPHERALS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Explain basic memory cell of EPROM.

b) Draw the logic diagram to generate control signals.
c) Draw the timing diagram of DAD B instruction.
d) Explain single cycle execution in 8085.
e) Explain different hardware interrupts of 8085.
3. a) Write a subroutine to generate delay of 1 second. (Assume clock period of
320 ns).
b) Explain and compare memory mapped I/O and I/O mapped I/O.
10
10
OR
b) Draw and explain interrupt structure of 8085 microprocessor.
10
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) Describe the features of PPI 8255.

b) With suitable timing diagram explain MODE-3 of timer-counter IC 8253.
c) Describe mode word format of USART 8251.
i) Asynchronous mode
ii) Synchronous mode.
SLR-UM 174
-6-
*SLRUM174*
d) Write ALP for generating square wave at PC3 of 8255 in BSR mode. Use
appropriate delay and comment.
e) With suitable circuit diagram explain counter type ADC.
5. a) Interface DAC with 8085 thro. 8255. Comment on the port addresses. Write
an ALP with comments to generate :
i) Square wave with duty cycle 50%
ii) Triangular wave.
b) Interface memory chips with 8085 and comment for the address maps :
i) one 2k 8 ROM chip
10
10
ii) two 1k 8 RAM chips.

OR
b) Interface seven segment LED display with 8085. Using lookup table method,
write an ALP to display the numbers from 0 to 9 with appropriate delay between
the two successive digits.
10
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 175
*SLRUM175*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------T. E. (Electronics & Telecommunication Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014
RADAR AND MICROWAVE ENGG.
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
MCQ/Objective Questions
Marks : 20
1. Tick the correct options :
20
1) Power transmission through rectangular waveguide is calculated using _____

a) Maxwells equations
b) Poynting theorem
c) Helmholz equation
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 175
*SLRUM175*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Smith chart can be used to determine __________

a) Unknown load impedance
b) VSWR
c) Reflection coefficient
d) All of the above
3) Distilled water has =0, r = 81 and r = 1 then phase velocity = _______

a) 9
b) 1/81
c) 1/9
d) None of these
4) The waveguide acts as ____________

a) Low pass filter
b) Band pass filter
c) Band reject filter
d) High pass filter
5) For a transmission line if reflection co-efficient is equal to 0.7/_45 then its

VSWR is
a) 5.67
b) 0.1765/_45
c) 0.0523
d) None of these
6) __________ mode do not exist in rectangular waveguide

a) TE01
b) TE00
c) TE11
d) TE21
7) The amount of power coupler to auxiliary waveguide of directional coupler is

measured by
a) Isolation
b) Insertion loss
c) Coupling factor
d) Directivity
*SLRUM175*
SLR-UM 175
-3-
8) Isolator is a _______________
a) Reciprocal device
b) Non reciprocal device
c) Reciprocating device
d) Reverse device
9) Primary constants of Transmission Line are ____________

a) R, L, C, G
b) , , L, C
c) Zo,
d) None of these
10) __________ dominant mode in circular waveguide.

a) TE10
b) TE21
c) TE11
d) None of these
11) The semiconductor diode which can be used in switching circuits at microwave
range is
a) PIN diode
b) Varactor diode
c) Tunnel diode
d) Gunn diode
12) If the minimum range is to be doubled in a radar, the peak power has to be
increased by a factor of
a) Two
b) Four
c) Eight
d) Sixteen
13) In cavity magnetron, strapping is used to

a) Prevent cathode back heating
b) Prevent mode jumping
c) Ensure bunching
d) Improve the phase focussing effect
14) The blind speed of an MTI radar can be avoided by changing the
a) Carrier frequency
b) Antenna rotation rate
c) Pulse repetition frequency
d) Transmitted power
SLR-UM 175
*SLRUM175*
-4-
15) Which one of the following can be used for amplification of microwave energy ?
a) Travelling wave tube
b) Magnetron
c) Reflex klystron
d) Gunn diode
16) Which of the following is not a O-type tube ?

a) Klystron
b) Reflex klystron
c) TWT
d) Magnetron
17) The major advantage of a TWT over a klystron lies in its

a) Higher frequency
b) Higher gain
c) Higher bandwidth
d) Higher output
18) A cavity magnetron employs dc magnetic field to ensure that

a) The oscillations are pulsed
b) Electrons will orbit around the cathode
c) Anode current in absence of oscillations is prevented
d) None of above
19) PIN diode can be used as a
a) Switch
b) Amplitude modulator
c) Phase shifter
d) All of above
20) A cavity is a
a) Low pass filter
b) High pass filter
c) Band pass filter
d) Band stop filter

______________________
*SLRUM175*
-5-
SLR-UM 175
Seat
No .
T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engg.) (Part II)

Examination, 2014
RADAR AND MICROWAVE ENGG.
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
Marks : 80

Draw the neat figures wherever necessary.
SECTION I

(45=20)
a) Derive transmission line equations from field equations.
b) Explain the working of two hole directional coupler.
c) What is meant by dominant mode in waveguide ? List the dominant TE and
TM modes in rectangular and in circular waveguides.
d) Find the reflection coefficient and VSWR of a transmission line having
characteristic impedance 70 + j 0.05 ohms and terminated in a load impedance
of 65 j 30 ohms.
e) What are the different parameters that can be determined using Smith chart ?
Explain in short.
3. a) i) List the properties of S matrix.
ii) Derive S matrix for magic TEE.
b) An air filled circular waveguide having inner diameter 5 cms. For TM dominant
mode of operation determine following at the frequency of 3 GHz.
(Given Pnm = 2.405)
10
1) Cut-off wavelength
2) Cut-off frequency
3) Guide wavelength
4) Characteristic wave impedance.
OR
b) Derive the expression for phase velocity and group velocity. Also explain what
is its relation with free space velocity.
10
SLR-UM 175
*SLRUM175*
-6-
SECTION II
20
a) Explain with neat diagram CW radar.

b) Explain any one method for the measurement of microwave impedance.
c) Derive the equation for mutual conductance and voltage gain for two cavity
klystron.
d) Write the note on IMPATT diode.
e) A two cavity klystron amplifier has the following characteristics :
Voltage gain = 15 dB
Input power = 5 mW
Rsh of input cavity = 30 kohm
Rsh of output cavity = 40 kohm
RI load impedence = 40 kohm

Determine i) The input rms voltage
ii) The output rms voltage
iii) The power delivered to the load.
a) Explain with neat diagram the bunching of electronics in reflex klystron.
b) Compare TWT and cavity klystron. Explain in detail working of TWT and need
of slow wave structures.
c) Explain various methods for the measurement of power.
___________________
20
Code No.
SLR-UM 176
*SLRUM176*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part II) Examination, 2014

MICROCONTROLLERS AND APPLICATIONS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instruction : Return the MCQ paper in first half an hour.

MCQ/ Objective Type Questions
Marks : 20
1. 1) The 8051 microcontroller is of _____________ pin package as ____________

processor
a) 30, 1 byte
b) 20, 1 byte
c) 40, 8 bit
d) 40, 8 byte
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 176
*SLRUM176*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) The SP is of _______________ wide register. And this may be defined

anywhere in the _________________
a) 8 byte, on-chip 128 byte RAM
b) 8 bit, on chip 256 byte RAM
c) 16 bit, on-chip 128 byte ROM
d) 8 bit, on chip 128 byte RAM
3) What is the address range of SFR register bank ?
a) 00H-77H
b) 40H-80H
c) 80H-7FH
d) 80H-FFH
4) Which of the following are invalid instructions ?

a) SUB A, # 40H
b) DEC DPTR
c) MOV A, @ A + DPTR
d) INC DPTR
5) The pins related with WR and TXD functions respectively are

a) p3.0 and p3.6
b) p 3.6 and p3.1
c) p3.2 and p3.3
d) p3.6 and p3.7
6) Serial port interrupt is generated if ____________ bits are set.

a) IE
b) RI, IE
c) IP, TI
d) RI, TI
7) In 8051 which interrupt has the highest priority.

a) IE1
b) TF0
c) IE0
d) TF1
*SLRUM176*
SLR-UM 176
-3-
8) Which of the following is of bit operations ?

i) SP
ii) PZ
iii) TMOD
iv) SBUF
a) ii and v only
b) ii, iv, v only
c) i, v only
d) iii, ii only
9) Mode 0 of timer counter section of 8051 is

a) 8 bit auto reload
b) Split timer mode
c) 13 bit timer mode
d) 16 bit timer mode
10) OV flag will set for

a) Carry from D6 to D7 but no carry out of D7
b) Carry from D5 to D6
c) No carry from D6 to D7 with C7 = 0
d) Carry from D6 to D7 with C7 = 1
11) INDF stands for
a) Indirect through FSR
b) Indirect through SFR
c) Indirect through file Reg.
d) None
12) 16F877 has data memory of

a) 368 8 RAM, 2568 EEPROM
b) 256 8 RAM, 3688 EEPROM
c) 368 8 RAM only
d) 256 8 RAM and EEPROM
13) MCLR pin of 16F877 is also used as
a) CLK iN
b) VPP
c) THV
d) Both b) and c)
14) 16F877 has __________ channel ____________ bit ADC.

a) 5,10
b) 5, 8
c) 8, 10
d) 10, 8
15) If POR is 1 then ____________ occurred

a) No power on reset
b) Power on reset
c) Invalid bit
d) Reset
v) IP
SLR-UM 176
*SLRUM176*
-4-
16) Bank O of 16F877 is ranged from

a) 01 7FH
b) 81H FFH
c) 01 FFH
d) 100H 17FH
17) ADFM bit of ADCON1 register set to 1 results in

a) Let justified
b) No change
c) Right justified
d) A/D module interrupt
18) If BRGH = 0 in USART then band rate is for

a) High speed
b) Medium speed
c) Low speed
d) None
19) For START condition ____________ bit in SSPCON2 must be set

a) SSPIF
b) SEN
c) PEN
d) GCEN
20) SSPSTAT register UA is used for

a) 8 bit I2C mode
b) 12 bit I2C mode
c) 10 bit I2C mode
d) I2C mode
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM176*
SLR-UM 176
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part II) Examination, 2014

MICROCONTROLLERS AND APPLICATIONS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Explain the following program and state when TFO flag is raised. Given
XTAL = 16 MHz.
MOV TMOD,# 01H
MOV TLO,#12H
MOV THO,#1CH
SETB TRO
b) Write ALP with comments to generate 50% duty cycle square wave on P1.2.
Timer 0 is used to generate time relay.
c) Explain the following pins of 8051
i) P3.0 P3.7
ii) PSEN
iii) EA .
d) Explain the internal memory structure of 8051.
e) XTAL = 11.0592 MHz. Find TH1 value needed to have the following baud
rates :
i) 9600
ii) 2400
iii) 1200.
SLR-UM 176
-6-
*SLRUM176*
3. a) Draw an interfacing circuit to interface 8 bit ADC to 8051 thro 8255. Write
ALP to convert analog input given at channel 5, store the result at internal
memory location 40H.
10
b) With suitable example explain various addressing modes of 8051. Write ALP
to substract two 16 bit nos. Assume memory locations for the two nos. and
the result.
10
OR
b) Interface the following devices to 8051 :
i) 4KB EPROM
ii) One 8255.
State memory map and add. range for the various ports and 8255.
10
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Write a program to toggle all bits of SFR port B every 1 sec. assuming crystal
frequency of 10 MHz.
b) Draw the interfacing of LED and relay to PIC 16F877.
c) Explain A/D conversion in PIC 16F877.
d) Explain different addressing modes of 16F877.
e) Explain how data is transferred using Inter integrated circuit bus.
f) Explain in detail SSPCON2 format.
5. A) Interface flex keyboard to PIC 16F877 and write program for the same to test
valid key.
(110=10)
B) Explain PCON, option-reg, status registers of 16F877 and explain memory
mapping in it.
(110=10)
OR
B) Explain capture, compare and PWM modules in PIC.
_____________________
10
Code No.
*SLR-UM-177*
SLR-UM 177
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) The time duration for which commutation circuit is able to provide reverse
voltage across a SCR after the forward current has fallen to zero is called
a) SCR turn-off time
b) Circuit turn-off time
c) Turn-on time
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 177
*SLR-UM-177*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) In case of class-D commutation, discharge current of capacitor is having

sinusoidal nature since ________________
a) L and C in path
b) R in the path
c) diode in the path
d) Auxiliary SCR in the path
3) If addition of 1 and 2 reaches unity then anode current will reach

(w.r.t. two transistor analogy of SCR) _____________
a) zero
b) infinity
c) negative
d) none
4) Maximum switching frequency of MOSFET is around

a) 2 MHz
b) 1 MHz
c) 30 kHz
d) 1 kHz
5) DIAC can be used as triggering device

a) True
b) False
6) TRIAC is rated for

a) 1 kHz
b) 10 kHz
c) 400 Hz
d) 4 kHz
7) To transfer the power from load to source in case of inductive load, what
should be the firing angle ?
a) equal to 45
b) equal to 90
c) less than 90
d) greater than 90
*SLR-UM-177*
SLR-UM 177
-3-
8) For 1-phase halfwave converter with R load Vdc max is

a) Vm/2
b) Vm
c) Vm/3
d) Vm/
9) We get Vdc max in case of converter for

a) < 0
b) = 0
c) > 0
d) none
10) For discontinuous load current and extinction angle > , in a 1-phase full
converter each SCR conducts for
a)
b)
c)
d) +
11) A class E chopper

a) Can operate in second quadrant only
b) Can operate in first or third quadrant
c) Can operate in all the four quadrant
d) Can operate in second or third quadrant
12) Which chopper circuit uses saturable reactor ?
a) Auxiliary commutated
b) Jones chopper
c) Morgan chopper
d) Load commutated
13) In a series inverter

a) The commutating elements carry full load current
b) The commutating elements carry up to 50% of load current
c) The commutating elements do not carry load current
d) Any of the above
14) The P.F. at input terminals of a cyclo converter is
a) low and leading
b) low and lagging
c) high and leading
d) high and lagging
SLR-UM 177
*SLR-UM-177*
-4-
15) Step up cyclo converter uses

a) Natural commutation
b) Forced commutation
c) Both a) and b)
d) Either a) or b)
16) A 1 full bridge inverter can operate in load commutation mode in case load
consists of
a) RLC under damped
b) RLC over damped
c) RLC critically damped
d) None
17) Back up time for off line UPS depends on

a) Load
b) AH of battery
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
18) For 3 , inverter using 120 conduction mode, the utility factor is
a) 1/2
b) 1/ 3
c) 1/2 3
d)
2 /3
19) For DC separately excited motor, power develop is

a) Pd = UaIa
b) Pd = Td Lw
c) Pd = Tdw
d) Pd = Ta2w2
20) The cycloconverter is used in

a) AC drive
b) DC drive
c) Both
d) None
______________________
*SLR-UM-177*
-5-
SLR-UM 177
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication Engg.) (Part II)

Examination, 2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
16
a) What will happen if inductor is replaced by resistor in the class-D commutation

circuit ?
b) Enlist advantages of free wheeling diode.
c) Compare MOSFET and IGBT.
d) Draw V-I characteristics of SCR and mention different operating states.
e) Explain power integrated circuit.
f) Why full wave controlled rectifier preferred over half wave controlled rectifier ?
24
a) What do you mean by over current, over voltage, dv/dt and thermal protection
of SCR ?
b) Draw construction, characteristics of TRIAC and explain it.
c) A 1-phase half wave converter with rms value of ac input is 120 V and firing
angle is maintained at /6 with a purely resistive load of 10 . Find out
i) Average output voltage
ii) rms output voltage
iii) efficiency of converter
iv) PIV of SCR.
d) Draw circuit diagram, waveforms and explain 3-phase half wave converter
with R load.
SLR-UM 177
-6-
*SLR-UM-177*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(44=16)
a) Why is forced commutation necessary for choppers ? Why natural commutation

is not possible ?
b) Explain the terms related with batteries of UPS
a) Capacity of battery
b) Efficiency of battery.
c) Draw and explain single phase to single phase step down cycloconverter.
d) What are different voltage control techniques related to inverter circuits ?
e) Explain induction heating principle.
f) Explain static DC circuit breaker.
(38=24)
a) Explain with suitable circuit diagram and waveform 120 mode, resistive load
three phase inverter circuit.
b) Discuss the classification of inverters and explain parallel inverter in mode I
and mode II.
c) What are chopper circuits ? Explain with suitable circuit diagram Jones and
Morgan chopper.
d) Select a suitable battery for following specification
Rating of UPS 10 kW
Type of load Inductive with .8 PF
Back up time 30 min
Efficiency of Inverter 90%
Type of battery Pb acid.
___________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 178
*SLRUM178*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------T.E. (E&TC) (Part II) Examination, 2014

OPTICAL COMMUNICATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Tick mark the correct options :

1) The requirement of detector is
a) High fidelity
b) Larger size
c) More numerical aperture
d) All of above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 178
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM178*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) N.A. is useful measure of

a) Light gathering capability
b) Light scattering capability
c) Attenuation
d) Dispersion
3) Multimode graded index fibers tend to have ___________ core diameters

than multimode step index fibers.
a) Smaller
b) Greater
c) Varying
d) Constant
4) Stimulated emission occur in semiconductor when following condition is

satisfied
a) Efc Efv = 0
b) Efc Efv > Eg
c) hf > Eg
d) Efc Efv < hf > Eg
5) An optical fiber is a
a) Metallic waveguide
b) Rectangular dielectric waveguide
c) Circular dielectric waveguide
d) Dielectric wave on a metallic substrate
6) The optical power generated internally by LED is
a) Pint = int (i / e )hf
b) Pint = int (ci / e )
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
7) The light sources used in fiber optic communication are

a) LEDs
b) Semiconductor lasers
c) Phototransistors
d) Both a) and b)
*SLRUM178*
SLR-UM 178
-3-
8) Acceptance angle is defined as the ____________ angle of incidence at the

end face of an optical fiber, for which the ray can be propagated in the optical
fiber, is
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Either a) or b)
9) The core diameter of single mode step index fiber is about.

a) 60 to 70 m
b) 8 to 10 m
c) 100 to 250 m
d) 50 to 200 m
10) In multimode graded index fiber, light rays travel ____________ in different
parts of the fiber.
a) At different speeds
b) With same speed
c) Both a) and b)
11) Optical 3 dB points occurs when the ratio of output current to input current is
a) 2
b)
c) 0.707
d) 1/0.707
1
2
12) LEDs are not generally affected by the

a) Gradual degradation
b) Rapid Degradation
c) Catastrophic degradation mechanism
d) Slow degradation
13) The requirement of detectors is
a) High fidelity
b) Large size
c) More numerical aperture
d) All the above
14) ____________ is the semiconductor photodiode with internal gain.
a) p-n photodiode
b) Ge photodiode
c) p-i-n photodiode
d) Avalanche photodiode
SLR-UM 178
-4-
*SLRUM178*
15) The Silicon reach through APD provides carrier multiplication with ________
a) Excess noise
b) Minimum gain
c) Minimum noise
d) Excess gain
16) In APD gain ____________ with temperature.

a) Varies
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Both a) and b)
17) Coupling efficiency in LED is given by ____________

1/ 2
a) c = (NA )
3
b) c = (NA )
2
c) c = (NA )
d) c = (1 / NA )2
18) The frequency domain measurement is the preferred method for acquiring the
____________ of multimode optical fiber.
a) Frequency
b) Bandwidth
c) Dispersion
d) Wavelength
19) Super luminescent LED means

a) SLED
b) SLD
c) SLLED
d) ELED
20) Refracted near field method is the most commonly used technique for the
determination of the fiber ____________
a) R.I. Profile
b) Inner diameter
c) Outer diameter
d) None of these
______________________
*SLRUM178*
-5-
SLR-UM
178
SLR-UM
178
Seat
No.
T.E. (E&TC) (Part II) Examination, 2014

OPTICAL COMMUNICATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. A) Solve any three :
12
i) Using simple ray theory, describe the mechanism for the transmission of
light within an optical fiber.
ii) What are different couplers ? Briefly write about the function of each
couplers.
iii) Explain working principle of Laser.
iv) A 15 km optical fiber link uses fiber with a loss of 1.5 db/km. The fiber is
joined every kilometer with connectors which give an attenuation of 0.8 db
each. Determine the minimum mean optical power which must be launched
into the fiber in order to maintain a mean optical power level of 0.3 micro-watt
at the detector.
B) When the mean optical power launched into an 8 km length of fiber is 120
micro-watt, the mean optical power at the fiber output is 3 micro-watt ?
Determine.
a) The overall signal attenuation or loss in decibels through the fiber assuming
there are no connectors or splices;
b) The signal attenuation per kilometer for the fiber;
c) The overall signal attenuation for a 10 km optical link using the same fiber
with splices at 1 km intervals, each giving an attenuation of 1 db;
d) The numerical input/output power ratio in (c).
SLR-UM 178
-6-
*SLRUM178*
3. A) Solve any two :
12
i) With suitable diagrams explain the fusion splicing of single optical fiber.
ii) Explain material absorption losses in silica glass fiber.
iii) Compare dispersion in different types of optical fiber.
B) A multimode step index fiber has a relative refractive index difference of 1%
and a core refractive index of 1.5. The number of modes propagating at a
wavelength of 1.3 m is 1100. Estimate the diameter of the fiber core.
SECTION II
4. a) Solve any three questions :
12
i) Explain the principle of operation of double hetero junction LED.

ii) Derive the expression for responsivity.
iii) Briefly write about WDM.
iv) What are the requirements of optical detectors ?
b) When 3 1011 photons each with a wavelength of 0.85 m are incident on a
photodiode, on average 1.2 1011 electrons are collected at the terminals of
the device ? Determine the quantum efficiency and the responsivity of the
photodiode at 0.85 m.
5. a) Solve any two questions :

12
i) List the different Fiber Refractive Index profile measurement techniques.
Explain any one in detail.
ii) Explain detection process in p-n photodiode. Compare the device with
p-i-n photodiode.
iii) Explain the concept of optical time division multiplexing.
b) A n-p-n InGaAsP/InP hetero junction photo transistor has a collector current
of 154 mA when the incident optical power at a wavelength of 1.26 m is
125 W. Estimate :
a) The optical gain of the device under the above operating conditions;
b) The common emitter current gain if the quantum efficiency of the base
collector photodiode at a wavelength of 1.26 m is 40%.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 179
*SLRUM179*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------T.E. (E & TC) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ELECTRONIC SYSTEM DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Tick mark correct option :
20
1) Dual slope ADC is generally

a) V to I converter
b) I to V converter
c) V to F converter
d) F to V converter
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 179
*SLRUM179*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) In IC XR-2240 if both trigger and reset signal are applied simultaneously then
a) trigger activated
b) reset activated
c) both a) and b) are activated
d) cant say
3) In IC 74C 926, segment output lines have current sourcing capability of

a) 140 mA
b) 120 mA
c) 80 mA
d) 40 mA
4) A high level signal on display select input, displays output of

a) latches
b) counters
c) both a) and b)
d) none of these
5) IC XR-2240 can be used in

a) Monostable mode
b) Astable mode
c) Both a) and b)
d) Bistable mode
6) The number of displays required to count 10 KHz frequency with 0.1 Hz

resolution using IC 74C926 are
a) 5
b) 6
c) 4
d) 2
7) In dual slope ADC de-integrating ramp output has

a) Varying slope
b) Constant slope depends on magnitude of input signal voltage
c) Constant slope depends on magnitude of reference voltage
d) Constant slope depends on frequency of input signal voltage
*SLRUM179*
SLR-UM 179
-3-
8) IC LM 1596 is a
a) PLL
b) ADC
c) Mixer
d) Balanced Modulator/Demodulator
9) Divide by 2 network is used in the path of low frequency signal in which of
following measurement ?
a) frequency
b) time period
c) both a) and b)
d) none of these
10) Which of following application can be implemented using PLL

a) PSK demodulator
b) FSK demodulator
c) FM detector
d) All of these
11) The relay logic controllers do not have

a) Memory
b) ALU
c) Both a) and b)
12) Which of the following is first cycle of washing machine ?

a) Rinse
b) Wash
c) Spin
d) Drain
13) The first stage of an Instrumentation amplifier offers ___________ input

impedance
a) Very low
b) Very high
c) Medium
d) Low
14) A zero and span converter can be made using

a) Integrater
b) Instrumentation amplifier
c) Inverting adder
d) Differentiator
15) RTD is a temperature sensor with ______________ temperature coefficient

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Logarithmic
SLR-UM 179
*SLRUM179*
-4-
16) Which of the following is most prefered voltage-to-current converter ?

a) Floating load
b) Grounded load
c) Both a) and b)
17) Microstrip antennas are implemented using

a) Metal sheets
b) Semiconductors
c) Both a) and b)
18) ASM charts are realised using

a) PLC
b) Relays
c) ROM
19) Zero error output of proportional controller is generally ____________

of full scale output
a) 25%
b) 75%
c) 100%
d) 50%
20) Which of the following transducer requires reference temperature ?

a) Thermocouple
b) Thermister
c) RTD
d) All of the above
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM179*
SLR-UM 179
Seat
No.
T.E. (E & TC) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ELECTRONIC SYSTEM DESIGN
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(53=15)
a) Draw internal block diagram of IC 565. Explain its working. How PLL is suitable
for frequency synthesis ?
b) Explain working principle of balanced modulator.
c) Design a proper input interface circuit for 3
1
digit DVM to measure resistance
2
from 2k to 200 k .
d) Explain with flow chart product design stages.
(101=10)
a) Draw the block diagram of LM2240. Give the design of timer using LM2240
for 100 sec.
b) Design frequency counter to measure frequency of mains with 0.01 Hz
resolution. Use IC 74C926.
4. Design frequency synthesizer using PLL 565 to obtain frequency 1KHz to
2000 KHz.
15
SLR-UM 179
-6-
*SLRUM179*
(35=15)
a) Design zero and span circuit to convert 1.6V 2.75 V to 0 5V.

b) Explain frequency measurement using 8051.
c) Compare analog and digital controllers.
d) Explain beamforming.
10
a) Design an analog proportional controller to control water level in the range of

0.5 m to 5 m. The set point is at 4m and proportional band of 10%. The
sensitivity of level sensor is 100mv/m.
b) Draw and explain ladder diagram for washing machine.
7. Draw an ASM chart for traffic light controller. Allocate 50% more time for traffic
on South-North than East-West. Realise it using ROM.
15
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
18
*SLRUM18*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

STRUCTURAL MECHANICS I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) The internal resistance which the body offers to meet the load or external
force is called as
a) Stress
b) Strain
c) Pressure
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 18
*SLRUM18*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The ratio between the change in volume and original volume of the body is
called ___________ strain.
a) Tensile
b) Compressive
c) Shear
d) Volumetric
3) Simple stress is often called

a) Direct stress
b) Transverse stress
c) Total stress
d) Any one of above
4) In a cantilever with uniformly distributed load the shearing force varies

following a
a) Linear law
b) Parabolic law
c) Either of the above
5) Bending moment at supports in case of simply supported beam is always

a) Less than unity
b) More than unity
c) Zero
6) The point of contraflexure is also called

a) The point of inflection
b) A virtual hinge
7) The strength of beam mainly depends on
a) Bending moment
b) C.g. of the section
c) Section modulas
d) Its weight
*SLRUM18*
SLR-UM 18
-3-
8) The bending equation is written as

I
E
= =
a)
M Y R
c)
M E
= =
I Y R
M 2 E2
=
=
b)
I
Y R2
d)
M2 2 E 2
=
=
I
Y
R
9) In case of circular section the section modulas is given by

a)
Md 2
16
b)
Md 3
c)
32
Md 3
16
Md 4
d)
64
10) In case of rectangular section

a) max =
1
mean
2
b) max = min
c) max =
2
mean
3
d) max =
4
mean
3
11) In case of circular section maximum shear stress is _________ percent

more than the mean shear stress.
a) 10
b) 20
c) 33.33
d) 66.66
12) In the case of an I-section beam maximum shear stress is at

a) The junction of the top flange and web
b) Middle of the web
c) Either a) or b)
13) In a thin shell circumferential stress ( c ) is given by
Pd
a) 2t
l
Pd
b) 2
c
Pd
c)
l
Pd2
d)
e c
SLR-UM 18
*SLRUM18*
-4-
14) Longitudinal stresses act ____________ to the longitudinal axis of the shell.
a) Parallel
b) Perpendicular
15) Shafts are designed on the basis of

a) Strength
b) Rigidity
d) Both a) and b)
16) The angle of twist is ____________ proportional to the twisting moment.

a) Directly
b) Inversely
c) Either a) or b)
17) The strength of a hollow shaft for the same length, material and weight is
__________ a solid shaft.
a) Less than
b) More than
c) Equal to
18) The total strain energy stored in body is known as

a) Impact energy
b) Resilience
c) Proof resilience
d) Modulas of resilience
19) The strain energy stored in a body, when the load is gradually applied, is
equal to
2
V
a)
2E
2
V
b)
E
2
E
c)
2V
2
E
d)
V
20) The stress in a body if suddenly loaded is __________ the stress induced,
when the same load is applied gradually.
a) One-half
b) Equal to
c) Twice
d) Four times
__________________
*SLRUM18*
-5-
SLR-UM 18
Seat
No.

STRUCTURAL MECHANICS I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : i) In Section I question 2 is compulsory. Solve any two of

remaining.
ii) In Section II solve any three questions.
iv) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(44=16)
a) Define :
i) Complementary shear stress
ii) Point of contraflexure.
b) Which are the stresses developed in thin cylindrical shells ? Derive the
expression for them.
c) Explain in detail stress strain curve for mild steel with all significant points.
d) What is Poissons ratio ? Give relationship between E, C and K.
e) Explain St. Venants principle.
3. A rigid beam ABCD with negligible mass is pinned at C and attached to vertical
road as shown in fig. Assuming that the rod initially stress free. What maximum
load can be applied without exceeding stress 150 MPa in steel rod and 70 MPa in
a bronze rod.
12
SLR-UM 18
-6-
*SLRUM18*
4. An overhang beam subjected to loading as shown in fig. Find shear force and
bending moment. Draw SFD and BMD. Find point of contraflexure if any.
5. a) Write note on wire wound cylinders.

b) A cylindrical vessel whose ends are closed by means of rigid flange plates is
made of steel plate 3 mm thick. The internal length and diameter of vessel are
50 cm and 25 cm respectively. Determine the longitudinal and circumferential
stresses in the cylindrical shell due to an internal fluid pressure of 3 MN/m2.
Also calculate increase in length, diameter and volume of the vessel.
Take E = 200 GN/m2, and 1/m = 0.3.
12
SECTION II
6. a) Write note on simple bending.
b) A cantilever beam subjected to a force and couple as shown in fig. Determine

maximum tensile and compressive bending stress developed in the beam.
Also draw stress distribution dig.
11
*SLRUM18*
-7-
7. a) Draw shear stress distribution diagram for,

i) Rectangle
SLR-UM 18
3
ii) T-Section
iii) Symmetrical I section.
b) A simply supported beam carries udl of intensity 2.5 kN/m over its span of
5 metres. The cross section of beam is a T-section having the dimensions as
shown. Calculate maximum shear stress for the section of the beam.
10
8. a) Derive expression for stress due to suddenly applied load.
b) A bar 1.2 cm diameter gets stretched by 0.3 cm under a steady load of 8 kN.
What stress would be produced in the same bar by a weight of 0.8 kN which
falls freely vertically through a distance of 8 cm to a rigid collar attached at its
end.
Take : E = 200 GN/m2.
10
9. a) Assumption based on Torsional theory.
b) A solid steel shaft has to transmit 75 kW at 200 rpm. Taking allowable shear
stress as 70 MN/m2, find suitable diameter for the shaft. If the maximum
torque transmitted on each revolution exceeds the mean by 30%.
10
_______________
SLR-UM 180
Code No.
S
*SLRUM180*
&
_
n
_
_
f
C
Marks : 20

1) When documenting a clients wide area network, you discover that every
physical location has a dedicated link to every other physical location. Which
of the following wiring topologies does this describe ?
A) Bus
B) Star
C) Ring
D) Mesh
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 180
-2-
DO
T
NO
*SLRUM180*
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) In the OSI model, which of the following is an application layer service ?

A) network virtual terminal
B) file transfer, access and management
C) mail service
D) all of the above
3) The Class B address range for the first octet is _______________
A) 1 127
B) 128 191
C) 192 223
D) 224 255
4) A subnet mask separates _______________

A) Network ID and Host ID
B) Work groups from each other
C) Host ID
D) All the above
5) An organization has been granted a class B address. If the organization has

64 subnets, how many addresses are available in each subnet (including
special addresses)
A) 65,534
B) 1024
C) 256
D) none of the above
6) Which of the following is a MAC address ?

A) 199.165.217.45
B) 00076A : 01A5BBA7FF60
C) 01:A5:BB:A7:FF:60
D) 311S.Park St.
*SLRUM180*
-3-
SLR-UM 180
7) What port number and application does a DNS query use ?

A) 53, TCP
B) 69, UDP
C) 520, UDP
D) 53, UDP
8) TCP has all of the following characteristics except which ?

A) Connection-oriented
B) Windowing
C) Best-effort delivery
D) Reordering packets
9) In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC ?

A) The divisor
B) The quotient
C) The dividend
D) The remainder
10) INCORRECT The source port address on the UDP user datagram
header defines ______________
A) the sending computer
B) the receiving computer
C) the process running on the sending computer
D) none of the choices are correct
11) _____________ is a dynamic mapping protocol in which a logical
address is found for a given physical address.
A) ARP
B) RARP
C) Both A) and B)
12) The main advantage of the TCP/IP protocol is _____________

A) Ease of setup
B) Interfaces without regard to operating system
C) Not routable
D) Can be exported to other countries
13) Which of the following is true about ICMP messages ?
A) An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error
message
B) An ICMP error message may be generated only for each fragment
C) No ICMP error message will be generated for a datagram having
a special address such as 127.0.0.0 or 0.0.0.0.
D) None is true
SLR-UM 180
-4-
*SLRUM180*
14) An IGMP packet is carried in an _____________ packet.

A) UDP
B) IP
C) Ethernet frame
15) The main problem that must be solved in providing mobile communication
using the IP protocol is ________________
A) connecting
B) forwarding
C) addressing
16) In ____________ resolution, the resolver expects the server to supply

the final answer.
A) iterative
B) recursive
C) straight
17) In FTP, ______________ is the service type used by the IP protocol

because this is an interactive connection between a user (human)
and a server.
A) maximize throughput
B) minimize delay
C) minimize error
18) In HTTP, a _______________ server is a computer that keeps

copies of responses to recent requests.
A) regular
B) proxy
C) both A) and B)
19) IPv6 allows _______________ security provisions than IPv4.

A) more
B) less
C) the same level
20) A proxy firewall filters at the _________________ layer.

A) transport
B) network
C) application

______________________
*SLRUM180*
SLR-UM 180
-5-
B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part I) Examination, 2014

COMPUTER COMMUNICATION NETWORK
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) Illustrate your answers with neat sketches wherever
necessary.
SECTION I
(54=20)
1) Compare the OSI reference model with TCP/IP network model.

2) Give Shannons theorem for the maximum data rate of a noisy channel. What
is signal to Noise Ratio required to achieve channel capacity of 20 Mbps with
3MHz Bandwidth ?
3) Obtain 4bit CRC code word for data bit sequence 100110111 (Leftmost bit is
least significant bit) using generator polynomial
"
4) What is Modem ? Draw block diagram of modem and explain NULL modem.
5) Explain different classes of IP addresses along with their address ranges.
Enlist four special IP address.
6) How the execution of several internet applications takes place over a single
IPaddress ?
(102=20)
1) Explain link state routing in detail. Compare it with Distance vector Routing.
2) What is framing ? Draw frame format for Ethernet LAN. Explain different
framing techniques. Compare different farming methods with their advantages
and disadvantages.
3) Draw TCP segment format. Explain various fields in it. Explain how TCP
establishes connection by three way handsheking.
SLR-UM 180
-6-
*SLRUM180*
SECTION II
(54=20)
1) What is SMTP ? How does it useful to send e-mails ?

2) Describe the importance of ARP.
3) With the help of FTP process model explain file transfer protocol.
4) What is firewall ? Explain packet level filter for Firewall.
5) Explain the two-crossing problem in Mobile IP.
6) Explain encryption and decryption with public key and private key.
(102=20)
1) Explain in detail ICMP along with its different message types.

2) Draw and explain header format for DHCP. Explain various features of DHCP.
3) What is use of TELNET ? How remote login differs from local login. Explain
use of NVT and different TELNET options.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 181
*SLRUM181*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (E&TC) (Part I) Examination, 2014

VLSI DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Day & Date _____________________
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________ Section ________________________________________

Out of
Marks Signature of
__________ Examination _________

______________ (Paper - _______)
Examiner
For Office Use only
Code No.
N.B. : 1) All questions are compulsory.

2) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.
Marks : 20
1. Tick mark the correct answer for following MCQs.

1) Std-logic is a ____________ valued logic system.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 9
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 181
*SLRUM181*
-2-
DO
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
T
NO
2) If A = 110, B 111 then A & not B is

a) 110111
b) 100111
c) 110000
d) None of above
3) A binary decoder is a logic circuit with

a) 2n inputs, n outputs
b) 2n outputs, n inputs
c) 2n inputs, 2n outputs
d) None of above
4) The block of code which defines the relationship between input, output and
internal signals or variables in VHDL design is the
a) Architecture
b) Package
c) Entity
d) Library
5) Process in VHDL becomes active, when

a) change in clock statement
b) there is change in value of signal in sensitivity list
c) change in reset signal
d) none of above
6) In an entity statement buffer is
a) signal type
b) signal port
c) signal mode
d) concurrent statement
*SLRUM181*
SLR-UM 181
-3-
7) The symbol __________ is the signal assignment operator.

a) =
b)
c)
d) none of above
8) Sequential circuits often have external inputs that are asynchronous, input
changes can cause temporary false values called ________ at the output
and next states.
a) Glitches
b) Clock skew
c) Hazard
d) None of above
9) Multidimensional array types are known as

a) record
b) array
c) matrices
d) None of above
10) In std-logic forcing unknown is represented by

a) Z
b) U
c) W
d) X
11) PAL contains _____________ array programmable and array fixed.

a) NAND, OR
b) AND, OR
c) OR, AND
d) AND, NOR
12) To implement 3 input NOR gate using CMOS logic requires _________ number
of MOSFETS.
a) 6
b) 8
c) 10
d) 4
13) Static power dissipation in CMOS logic circuits depend on

a) Leakage current
b) Supply voltage
c) Number of MOSFETS
d) All of the above
SLR-UM 181
*SLRUM181*
-4-
14) Noise margin of CMOS inverter is not function of

a) W
b) Bn Bp
of MOS
c) tox
d) none of above
15) ALTERA FLEX 10 K series of CPLD contains EAB. Each EAB contains
__________ bits of RAM memory.
a) 1024
b) 2048
c) 512
d) None of above
16) CPLD is an IC that consists of a number of ________ like logic blocks

together with programmable interconnect matrix.
a) PAL
b) PLA
c) PAL or PLA
d) None of above
17) Examples of SPLD are

a) PROM
b) PLA
c) GAL
d) All of above
18) Which of the following programming method is used for FPGA ?

a) Static RAM programming
b) Fuse
c) Both a and b
d) None of above
19) Synthesis means

a) checking correctness of design
b) implement design into target technology
c) conversion of the design to circuit description
d) none of above
20) JTAG stands for
a) Joint Test Action Group
b) Joint Target Act Group
c) Joint Target Acted Group
d) None of above
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM181*
SLR-UM 181
Seat
No.
B.E. (E&TC) (Part I) Examination, 2014

VLSI DESIGN
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

2) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four.
(44=16)
a) Explain attributes in VHDL.

b) Compare signal and variables used in VHDL.
c) Write syntax for case statement and explain with suitable example.
d) Write VHDL code for 8 : 1 MUX using VHDL.
e) Write VHDL code for JK flip flop with negative edge triggered clock.
f) Write VHDL code for latch with synchronous clear.
3. Solve any three.
(83=24)
a) Design full adder using half adder as component using VHDL.

b) Design BCD to seven segment decoder with common cathode displays using
VHDL.
c) Explain static and dynamic hazards in logic systems.
d) Design a multiplier using VHDL for multiplication of two 4 bit unsigned binary
numbers.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
a) Implement two input NAND gate using CMOS logic.
b) Explain static power dissipation in CMOS logic.
(44=16)
SLR-UM 181
-6-
*SLRUM181*
c) Implement sum of full adder using PLA.

d) Explain synthesis with suitable example.
e) Explain testing of combinational logic circuits.
(83=24)
a) Explain in detail testing of sequential circuits.

b) Explain the architecture of CPLD with suitable example.
c) Explain static load MOS inverter in detail.
d) Explain boundary scan testing in detail.
Code No. SLR-UM 182
*SLRUM182*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
f
C

2) Figures to the right indicate full marks
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) Ad hoc mode is also called as

a) peer-to-peer mode
b) independent basic service set
c) both (a) & (b)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 182
*SLRUM182*
-2-
DO
NO
R
W
T
H
E
IT
E
R
E
2) HIPERLAN is defined by the

a) IEEE
b) ETSI
c) both (a) & (b)
3) Which of the following is a permanent address that is assigned to a mobile
node ?
a) Home address
b) Permanent address
c) Visitor address
4) The four different cell sizes in GSM are
a) Macro and umbrella
b) Micro & pico
c) Both (a) & (b)
5) GPRS supports 3 types of mobile station
a) Class A, B & C
b) Class D, E & F
c) Class X, Y & Z
6) _________ is a second-generation cellular phone system used in Europe.
a) GSM
b) D-AMPS
c) IS-95
7) In a ________ handoff, a mobile station only communicates with one base station.
a) Hard
b) Soft
c) Medium
*SLRUM182*
-3-
SLR-UM 182
8) IS-95 uses the ISM __________ band.

a) 800 MHz
b) 1900 MHz
9) The uplink and downlink frequencies are made different in satellite links to
a) Reduce transmitter power
b) Increase isolation between satellite transmitter-receiver
c) Reduce antenna size
10) A communication satellite is a repeater between
a) A transmitting station and a receiving station
b) A transmitting station and many receiving station
c) Many transmitting station and one receiving station
11) The distance of a synchronous satellite from the earth surface is
a) 300 km
b) 10,000 km
c) 35,900 km
12) In an IS-95 system, the frequency-reuse factor is normally ______ .
a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
13) The line joining the satellite and centre of earth spans equal areas in equal
intervals of time is the statement contained in
a) Keplers first law
b) Keplers second law
c) Keplers third law
14) For global communication the number of satellites needed is
a) 1
b) 3
c) 10
SLR-UM 182
-4-
*SLRUM182*
15) Synchronous satellites orbit the earth once in

a) 24 hours
b) 12 hours
c) 1 hour
16) For satellite communications, the frequency should be __________ critical
frequency of the ionosphere.
a) Less than
b) More than
c) Equal to
17) Ionosphere consists of
a) Negatively charged layers
b) Positively charged layers
c) Neutral layers
18) Skybridge is an example of _________ satellite system.
a) GEO
b) MEO
c) LEO
19) The expression for the orbital period is
a) T2 = (4p3a2)/m
b) T2 = (4p2a3)/m
c) T = (4p2a3)/m
20) The acceleration force induced by the moon on a geo stationary satellite is
about __________ as that of the sun.
a) One half
b) Twice
c) Thrice
*SLRUM182*
-5-
SLR-UM 182
Seat
No.
B.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Part I) Examination, 2014

MOBILE AND SATELLITE COMMUNICATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(44=16)
a) Explain authentication and equipment identification register in GSM.

b) What are the functions of mobile switching centre for cellular system operation.
c) What is handover ? What are the different requirements have been set up for
handover ?
d) With suitable diagram explain an IP encapsulation.
e) Explain mobile call origination sequences in GSM.
(38=24)
a) Explain advantages and disadvantages of wireless LAN.

b) Explain architecture of IEEE 802.11 based on infrastructure and adhoc network.
c) Define mobile and personal communication system and wireless
communication system. Explain its need and application.
d) Explain different types of handoff in GSM.
SLR-UM 182
-6-
*SLRUM182*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(44=16)
a) With the help of block diagram explain working of transponder.

b) Define sun-synchronous orbit.
c) Write note on Expandable Launch Vehicle (ELV).
d) What is meant by geostationary satellite ?
e) Explain the procedure of locating the satellite in the orbit.
(38=24)
a) A low earth orbit satellite is in a circular polar orbit with an altitude h of 1000
km. A transmitter on the satellite has a frequency of 2.65 GHz. Find the velocity
of the satellite in orbit. (Assume mean earth radius value as 6378 km.)
b) What is meant by one way and two implementation in VSAT network
architecture ?
c) Compare TDMA and FDMA system in detail.
d) Explain in detail Attitude and orbit control system (AOCS).
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 183
*SLRUM183*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------B. E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2014

RANDOM SIGNAL THEORY AND CODING
Day and Date : Thursday, 22-5-2014 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) A random variable that takes on finite number of value is known as ____

random variable
a) Continuous
b) Discrete
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 183
*SLRUM183*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The code rate is given by

a)
c)
b)
(k n)
d) (n k )
3) If a random process is _________ then it is also stationary

a) Linear
b) Ergodic
c) Non linear
d) Constant
4) A card is drawn at random from an ordinary deck of 52 playing cards. Find the
probability of its being a six, or a heart
a) 113
b) 4 13
c) 2 13
d) 5 13
5) Poisson distribution is for ______ random variable.

a) Continuous
b) Discrete
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
6) If n is the minimum distance of a block code then _________ errors can be

corrected if n is odd.
a)
n2
2
b)
n
2
c)
n 1
2
d)
n+1
2
*SLRUM183*
SLR-UM 183
-3-
7) The order of generator matrix of linear block code is

a) k n
b) nk
c) (n k)n
d) n(n k)
8) Convolutional codes are easily generated with

a) And gates
b) Counters
c) Shift registers
d) Arithmetic Logic Unit
9) The set of all binary n tupuls, vn is called a ________ over the binary field of
two elements 0 and 1.
a) Vector space
b) Vector subspace
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
10) Which one is correct relation of coding gain ?

a) coding gain < 10log10(rdf)
b) coding gain 10log10(rdf)
c) coding gain > 10log10(rdf)
d) coding gain 10log2(rdf)
11) For the function

c( x 1) 1 < x < 4
f(x ) =
otherwise
0
is a density function. If the value of C is 2/9 , find P(2 < X < 3)

a)
1
2
b)
1
3
c)
1
4
d)
1
5
12) In Binomial distribution if n is large and P is ___________, then if can be

approximated by Poisson distribution.
a) 1
b) Infinity
c) 2
d) Zero
SLR-UM 183
*SLRUM183*
-4-
13) The distance between X = 1010 and Y = 1100 code words is

a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 0
14) The starting point on the code tree is at the __________ and corresponds to
the situation before the arrival of the first menage bit.
a) Extreme right
b) Extreme left
c) Middle
d) Bottom
15) A convolutions encoder belongs to a class of devices known as

a) Finite-state machines
b) Finite machines
c) Electronic device
d) None of these
16) The tree diagram adds the dimensions of

a) Bit rate
b) Data rate
c) Time
d) Distance
17) The _________ performs maximum likelihood decoding and is therefore

optional.
a) Viterbi decoding algorithm
b) Convolutional of decoding
c) Cyclic decoding
d) Sequential decoding
18) The minimum distance in the set of all arbitrarily long paths that diverge and
remerge, called the
a) Minimum free distance
b) Free distance
c) Either a) or b)
d) Neither a) or b)
19) A blank convolutional code is one in which the input k-tuple appears as port of
the output branch word n-tuple associated with that k-tuple.
a) Systematic
b) Non-systematic
c) Sequential
d) Continuous
20) A catastrophic error is defined as an event whereby finite number of code

symbol errors cause _________ number of decoded data bit errors.
a) Finite
b) Constant
c) Infinite
d) Random
______________________
*SLRUM183*
-5-
SLR-UM 183
Seat
No.
B.E. (E & TC) (Part I) Examination, 2014

RANDOM SIGNAL THEORY AND CODING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. A) Answer any three :
12
a) Describe the matrix of linear block code.

b) Explain the properties stationarity and ergodicity of random process.
c) With suitable example explain weight and distance of a code.
d) The generator polynomial of (6, 3) cyclic order g(x) = 1 + x2. Find all the
code words.
B) Design an encoder for the (7, 4) binary cyclic code generated by
g(x) = 1 + x +x3 and verify its operation using the message vector (0 1 0 1).
8
3. A) Answer any two :
a) With diagram explain working of cyclic decoder.

b) With example explain discrete random variable.
c) What are error detection and error correction capabilities of block code.
B) a) With suitable example explain how syndrome used for error detection in
linear block code. What are its limitation ?
b) List the properties of Poisson probability distribution.
8
4
SLR-UM 183
*SLRUM183*
-6-
SECTION II
4. A) Answer any three :
12
a) Explain working of turbo code generator.

b) Define i) coding gain
ii) freedistance of code
c) Draw convolutional coder with k = 3, rate
1
. Find output sequence for
2
data input 110.

d) Explain state diagram.
B) Draw the Trellis diagram for the k = 3, rate
1
code generated by
3
g1(x) = 1 + x
g2(x) = x + x2
g3(x) = 1 + x + x2
5. A) Answer any two :
a) Compare systematic and nonsystematic convolutional code.

b) List the properties of convolutional code.
c) Differentiate hard-decision and soft decision viterbi decoding technique.
B) a) For a given convolution encoder Fig.1 construct code tree and find the
output sequence for message 1101.
b) Draw state diagram for convolution encoder shown in Fig1.

___________________
Code No. SLR-UM
184
*SLRUM184*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------B.E. (E and TC) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) Full color image mean

a) 8-bit image
b) 24-bit image
c) 16-bit image
d) 4-bit image
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 184
*SLRUM184*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The smallest descendible detail in an image is called

a) Spatial resolution
b) Gray level resolution
c) Multi-resolution
d) None
3) Image function is characterized by

a) Reflectance component
b) Illumination component
c) Both
d) None
4) Digitizing the amplitude value of continuous image is called

a) Quantization
b) Sensing the image
c) Acquisition
d) Sampling
5) The value in filter sub image are referred as

a) Pixel
b) Pel
c) Coefficients
d) Kernel
6) For a 1024 1024 image, DFT requires

a) 1.1 1012 operations
b) 0 operations
c) 106 operations
d) None
7) i) Spatial domain refers to the image plane itself and in this technique direct
manipulation of pixels in an image takes place for enhancement
ii) Frequency domain techniques based on modifying the Fourier transform
of an image
a) Only i) True
b) Only ii) True
c) Both false
d) Both true
*SLRUM184*
SLR-UM 184
-3-
8) The graph showing no. of occurrence of pixels of Kth gray level of an image is
nothing but
a) Plot
b) Histogram
c) Probability
d) Bar chart
9) Images of higher contrast can be produced by darkening the gray levels

below threshold and brightening the levels above threshold is called
a) Contrast stretching
b) Contrast reduction
c) Restoration
d) None
10) The process used to correct the power law response is called
a) Log correction
b) Negative correction
c) Gamma correction
d) Contrast correction
11) An image restoration process is process

a) Subjective
b) Objective
c) Both of these
d) None of these
12) In general compression model the encoder block is _______________ the

channel block.
a) Before
b) After
c) Upside
d) Downside
13) When the Fourier spectrum of noise is constant, the noise usually is called
_______________
a) White noise
b) Gaussian noise
c) Gamma noise
d) Uniform noise
14) Currently image compression is recognized as an _______________

technology.
a) Enabling
b) Disabling
c) Both
d) None
15) The second order derivatives are obtained using _______________ mask.
a) Laplacian
b) Sobel
c) Prewitt
d) Robert
SLR-UM 184
*SLRUM184*
-4-
16) Segmentation should stop when the _______________ of interest is an

application has been isolated.
a) Subject
b) Object
c) Point
d) Line
17) The chain code of a boundary depends on the _______________ point.

a) Start
b) End
c) Middle
d) Last
18) In lossless image compression the data reduction is acceptable in many

applications, due to
a) Loss is desirable
b) Not desirable
c) Both
d) None
19) In morphology X-OR operation of original image and structuring element is

known
a) Dilation
b) Erosion
c) Opening
d) Closing
20) In morphology Dilation of Erosion means

a) Dilation
b) Erosion
c) Opening
d) Closing
__________________
*SLRUM184*
-5-
SLR-UM 184
Seat
No.
B.E. (E and TC) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
i) What do you mean by sampling and quantization ?

ii) Define 2D-DFT of an image of size M N and explain its properties.
iii) What do you mean by power law transformation ?
iv) What do you mean by HSI model ?
v) State Laplacian mask for four neighbors and also state effect of Laplacian
operator.
3. i) What is sharpening by spatial filters ? Explain first order and second order
Derivative Operators used for sharpening in image enhancement.
ii) Derive a 4 4 Haar matrix.
10
10
OR
ii) Define spatial resolution, gray level resolution, histogram, city block distance,
connectivity of pixels.
10
SLR-UM 184
-6-
*SLRUM184*
SECTION II
4. Sole any four from the following :
(54=20)
i) Explain Inverse filter.

ii) Explain the least square filtering in image restoration.
iii) Explain the operation of dilation and erosion with an example of binary.
iv) Explain the operation of opening and closing with an example of binary image.
v) Explain the thinning a morphological process with an example.
5. i) Explain the Huffman coding with an example.
10
ii) Explain the chain coding with an example.
10
OR
ii) Explain the role of first and second order derivatives in relation with edge
detection.
10
________________
Code No. SLR-UM
185
*SLRUM185*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (E&TC) (Part II) Examination, 2014

BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
N.B. :
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1) Typically ________ is controlleld by entries in a connection table based on DLCI.
a) Routing
b) Signaling
c) Error
d) Bit error
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 185
*SLRUM185*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) ISDN supports
a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
3) ___________ is an ineractive information retrieval service.

a) Teletex
b) Video tex
c) Telephony
d) Facsimile
4) I-300 series for uses on the

a) Network aspects and functioning
b) Interface between the user and network
c) Cover the functions and characteristics of ATM equipment
d) None of these
5) The control field is absent in the _____________case frame format.
a) LAPF
b) LAPP
c) LAPB
d) DLCI
6) In ____________ transmission is at a rate of one page in 2 seconds

at 9.6 Kbps.
a) Teletex
b) Videotex
c) Telephony
d) Facsimile
*SLRUM185*
SLR-UM 185
-3-
7) A network termination forms a boundary between

a) Network and other switching device
b) NT1 and TE
c) Network and network
d) Customer and network
8) ________________ testing is used in J-600 series for testing.
a) Flow
b) Error
c) a) and b)
d) Loopback
9) ________________ is the average number of frame mode information

field bits transferred per second.
a) Bit rate
b) Throughput
c) Data rate
d) Efficiency
10) Flow control and error control in X.25 are implemented using __________
a) Sequence numbers
b) Random number
c) Integer numbers
d) Floating number
11) ______________ is the time it takes for a transmitter to send out a block of
data.
a) Node delay
b) Transmission time
c) Propagation delay
d) Discrete time
12) Reference point _____________ correspond to the interface of individual

ISDN terminals.
a) U
b) R
c) S
d) T
13) ___________ includes function that may be regarded as belonging to OSI

layer 1.
a) NT1
b) NT2
c) TE
d) TA
SLR-UM 185
*SLRUM185*
-4-
14) A data rate of ______________ can certainly support all of the narrowband
ISDN services
a) 64 kbps
b) 92 kpps
c) 155.52 mbps
d) 622.08 mbps
15) ______________ includes only physical medium dependent function.

a) Transmission convergence sublayer
b) Physical medium sublayer
c) Physical layer
d) ATM layer
16) ______________ layer creates the basic SONET frames.
a) Photonic
b) Section
c) Line
d) Path
17) VPI is ________________ bits at the network-network interface.

a) 4
b) 8
c) 12
d) 16
18) The initial specification of AAL type ___________ and ______ were very
similar in terms of PDU format and functionality.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 3, 4
d) 4,5
19) ________________ are intended for application that have bursty

characteristics and do not have light constraints on delay and delay
variations.
a) Constant bit rate
b) Real time variable bit rate
c) Non-real time variable bit rate
d) Unspecified bit rate
20) The maximum burst size is the maximum number of cells that can be sent
continuously at the
a) Peak cell rate
b) Sustainable cell rate
c) Maximum cell rate
d) None of them
*SLRUM185*
-5-
SLR-UM 185
Seat
No.
B.E. (E&TC) (Part - II) Examination, 2014

BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

N.B.:

SECTION I
20
a) Explain external and internal virtual circuit operation.

b) What are the principles of ISDN ?
c) What different services are provided with ISDN ? What are its benefits ?
d) Differentiate single stage and two stage interworking.
e) Explain the structure of ISDN address. What is the advantage of direct dialing
in DDI ?
3. Answer any two :
a) i) Explain protocol architecture at the user-network interface of the ISDN.
ii) List the function of NT1 and TE functional groups of ISDN.
b) i) Compare X.25 and frame relay protocol stacks.
ii) With diagram explain structure of the I-series recommendation.
c) i) With neat sketch explain the flow of data across packet-switching network.
What are its advantages and disadvantages ?
ii) Describe the objectives of ISDN.
20
6
4
6
4
6
4
SLR-UM 185
-6-
*SLRUM185*
SECTION II
20
a) Explain block diagram of broadband ISDN user network interface.

b) Describe header format of cell.
c) Explain cell delineation state diagram.
d) Briefly write on ATM switching principle.
e) With flowchart explain cell establishment using virtual path.
5.
A) i) Describe performance aspects of buffering in ATM switching.

ii) What are the functions of transmission convergence sub layer of physical
layer of ATM protocol architecture ?
B) i) With suitable diagram explain ATM cell format.
ii) List services provided by AAL.
OR
B) i) What different types of services provided with B-ISDN ? What are its
applications in real life ?
ii) Explain matrix type of switch used in ATM.
6
4
8
2
6
4
Code No. SLR-UM 186

Seat
No.
*SLRUM186*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------B.E. (E&TC) (Part II) Examination, 2014

AUDIO-VIDEO ENGG. (New)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20

1) ___________ is an industry standard connection for computer and digital
control of musical instruments.
a) MPEG-1
b) MIDI
c) MPEG-2
d) CD-I
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 186
*SLRUM186*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) _________ coding method is used for compression of audio signal.

a) DPCM
b) ADPCM
c) Non-linear PCM
d) All of the above
3) Video capture means __________

a) Creating video on the desktop
b) Converting video for the computer
c) Real time video
d) All of the above
4) Stylus tip is made up of ___________
a) Cu
b) Diamond
c) Brass
d) Gold
5) Magnet cartridge works on the principle of __________

a) electrostatic effect
b) electromagnetic induction
c) piezoelectric effect
d) none of these
6) AC biasing is required for tape recording to __________

a) Decrease nonlinearity
b) Decrease linearity
c) Decrease frequency
d) Decrease wavelength
7) In interlaced scanning ____________ scanning lines are lost per frame as

blanked lines during retrace interval of each field.
a) 20
b) 25
c) 40
d) 24
*SLRUM186*
SLR-UM 186
-3-
8) Hissing noise in tape reproduction system is produced due to __________

a) Speed variations
b) Mechanical vibrations of motor
c) Supply variations
d) Irregularities in tape coating
9) ___________ control in TV is actually gain control of video amplifier.
a) brightness
b) hue
c) contrast
d) saturation
10) In VSB transmission for 625 line system lower sideband is upto __________
is allowed.
a) 5.5 MHz
b) 7 MHz
c) 1.25 MHz
d) 0.75 MHz
11) In chromaticity diagram the saturated colours are represented ___________

a) At the corners of the curve
b) Along the perimeter of the curve
c) Towards center of the curve
12) __________ means demagnetizing iron and steel parts of picture tube mounting.
a) Purity
b) Degaussing
c) Static convergence
d) Dynamic convergence
13) In PAL-D colour TV system the delay line used is of __________

a) 20 ms
b) 63.943 s
c) 64.5 s
d) 15625 s
14) In NTSC colour TV system the I signal is derived as _________

a) 0.21 R 0.52 G + 0.31 B
b) 0.21 R + 0.52 G 0.31 B
c) 0.6 R 0.28 G + 0.32 B
d) 0.6 R 0.28 G 0.32 B
SLR-UM 186
*SLRUM186*
-4-
15) The colour subcarrier frequency in NTSC system has an exact value equal to
__________
a) 3.575495 MHz
b) 3.579545 MHz
c) 3.597545 MHz
d) 3.58 MHz
16) In the following colour TV system these is no need for use of Q. A. M. at the
transmitter
a) PAL
b) PAL-D
c) SECAM
d) NTSC
17) In chromaticity diagram brightness is represented by ___________ axis.

a) x
b) y
c) z
d) all of the above
18) Delta gun colour picture tube was first developed by

a) R.C.A.
b) R.S.C.
c) R.A.C.
d) P.I.L.
19) Sound carrier is located at ___________ from picture carrier.

a) 5.5 MHz
b) 5 MHz
c) 7 MHz
d) 5.2 MHz
20) The size of chromacity diagram ____________ as brightness reduces.

a) remains constant
b) increases
c) reduces
d) none of these
______________
-5-
*SLRUM186*
SLR-UM 186
Seat
No.
B.E. (E&TC) (Part II) Examination, 2014

AUDIO-VIDEO ENGG. (New)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
a) With the block diagram explain working of disc recording system.

b) What is aspect ratio ? Compare horizontal and vertical resolution.
c) Why VSB modulation technique is used for TV transmission ? What are the
drawbacks of VSB modulation ?
d) Explain the principle of operation of Vidicon camera tube.
e) Explain interlaced scanning used in TV system.
(210=20)
a) i) What is the principle of working of image orthicon camera tube ? With neat
diagram explain working of image orthicon.
ii) Explain the terms :
6
4
i) Dark current
ii) Photo transfer characteristics of camera tube.
b) Define multimedia. Why do we need multimedia ? What are its applications ? 10
c) Explain vertical and horizontal resolution. Derive expression for highest
modulating frequency for 625 line system. What is Keil factor ?
10
SLR-UM 186
-6-
*SLRUM186*
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) What is compatibility in TV system ? What are its requirements ?

b) What are the advantages of HDTV over analog TV system ? What are its
different types ?
c) Briefly explain how cable TV works.
d) Explain how phase error correction happens in PAL.
e) Draw and explain colour killer circuit.
(210=20)
a) Draw and explain NTSC coder and decoder.
10
b) i) Explain how by frequency interleaving the colour information is

accommodated within the same channel bandwidth of 7 MHz.
ii) What is meant by colour burst ? Why it is needed ?
c) i) With neat block diagram explain working of satellite receiver.
ii) Explain the significance of chromacity diagram.
______________
6
4
6
4
Code No. SLR-UM 187
*SLRUM187*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------B.E. (Electronics and Telecomm.) (Part II) Examination, 2014
EMBEDDED SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Draw neat diagram whenever necessary.
Figures to right indicate full marks.
Marks : 20
1. Tick (9) the correct answer (one each) :
(120=20)
1) The ARM register __________ is the program counter.

a) R12
b) R13
c) R14
d) R15
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 187
*SLRUM187*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) ________ vector is used when the processor cannot decode an instruction ?

a) Undefined
b) Abort
c) Reset
d) Data Abort
3) ____________ exception is having highest priority.

a) Reset
b) Supervisor
c) System
d) Interrupt request
4) In ARM 7TDM I-SM stands for

a) Multiplier
b) Multiplication
c) Maximum
5) LPC 2148s maximum operating frequency is ___________ MHz.
a) 100
b) 80
c) 50
d) 60
6) ARM7 architecture support total ____________ interrupt sources.

a) 20
b) 30
c) 32
d) 10
7) I2C Bus implemented in LPC 2148 supports bit rate upto

a) 100 kbps
b) 200 kbps
c) 400 kbps
d) 800 kbps
*SLRUM187*
SLR-UM 187
-3-
8) Total number of available ADC input for LPC 2148 is

a) 06
b) 08
c) 14
d) 10
9) The bit pattern of user mode in CPSR can be shown as

a) 10000
b) 10111
c) 10001
d) 11011
10) Incase of LPC 2148, all PWM output occur at

a) Different repetition rate
b) Depends upon design
c) Same repetition rate
11) In ___________ OS, the response time is very critical.
a) Multitasking
b) Batch
c) Online
d) Real time
12) TCB stands for

a) Task control block
b) Task condition block
c) Task communication block
13) Which is the core of the OS ?
a) Shell
b) Kernell
c) Commands
d) Scripts
14) Which is true regarding pipes ?

a) half duplex
b) full duplex
c) message boundaries
d) unordered data
15) What command is used to display the characteristic of process ?

a) au
b) ps
c) du
d) P z d
SLR-UM 187
*SLRUM187*
-4-
16) Which of the following command is used to mount NFS file system ?
a) nfs mount
b) knfsd
c) mount
d) all of the above
17) A process is referenced by its what ?

a) Process taken
b) Process identifier
c) Process name
d) Process handle
18) What is the highest syslog priority ?
a) Critical
b) Emerg
c) Syswarm
d) Alert
19) Inter process communication can be done through ___________

a) Mails
b) Messages
c) System calls
d) Traps
20) In regard to memory management which is the basic unit at memory

a) block
b) mega byte
c) page
d) sector
______________
-5-
*SLRUM187*
SLR-UM 187
Seat
No.
B.E. (Electronics and Telecomm.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

EMBEDDED SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) Draw neat diagram whenever necessary.
(54=20)
1) HW/SW design process for embedded system

2) CAN Bus
3) Concept of PLL used in LPC 2148
4) Characteristics of embedded system
5) Communication protocol SPI.
(102=20)
1) Draw and describe the architecture of typical ARM7 controller (LPC 2148).
2) Draw the block diagram of interfacing of input device as keyboard with ARM
processor. Also draw block diagram of interfacing of LCD with LPC 2148.
Explain in detail.
3) Explain with example pipe line concept used in ARM7 processor.
SLR-UM 187
-6-
*SLRUM187*
(54=20)
1) Concept of ISR used in RTOS

2) Function related to pipes used for IPC
3) Features of RTOS COS-II
4) Linux file system
5) Event functions in RTOS.
(102=20)
1) Explain concept of ROOT file system used in linux. Explain in detail types of
Root File System.
2) Explain concept of message queue for IPC. Explain various function associated
with message queue. Show with example.
3) List the features of p and v semaphores and how these are used as resource
key as counting semaphore and as a mutex.
______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 188
*SLRUM188*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------B.E. (E&TC) (Part II) Examination, 2014

PATTERN RECOGNITION (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20

1) Gaussian density is also known as
a) Estimation density
c) Normal density
20
b) Parameter density
d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 188
*SLRUM188*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Which of the following are frequently nearly identical ?

a) Bayesian, HMM
b) HMM, Maximum likelihood
c) Newton descent
d) Bayesian, Maximum likelihood
3) In decision theory an expected loss is called a risk and ( i|x) is called the
_________
a) Conditional risk
b) Joint risk
c) Marginal risk
4) Squared Mahalanobis distance from x to is given by

a)
b)
c)
d)
r2 = (x )t 1(x )
r2 = (x + )t 1(x )
r2 = (x + )t 1(x + )
None of the above
5) Suppose we have an HMM, complete with transition probabilities aij and bjk,
determine the probability that a particular sequence of visible states VT was
generated by that model is known as
a) The decoding problem
b) The learning problem
c) The evaluation problem
6) What are the problems of dimensionality ?
a) Accuracy
b) Dimension
c) Over fitting
d) All of the above
*SLRUM188*
SLR-UM 188
-3-
7) A generalized linear discriminant function is given by

a) g(x) = ay
b) g(x) = aty
c) g(x) = ayt
8) The decision region for a parzon window classifier depend upon the choice of
b) Window function
a) Window name
c) Window width
9) The probability density function for x, given that the state of nature is w
is denoted by
a) p(x|w)
b) p(w|x)
c) p(w)
d) p(x)
10) The density estimation in which the volume Vn is shrinked according to

1
is called
n
Kn-nearest neighbor
Bayesian estimation
Parzen window
All of the above
function Vn =
a)
b)
c)
d)
11) The representation of hierarchical clustering in a tree form is called

a) Graph
b) Binary tree
c) Dendrogram
d) None of these
12) The location of decision surface represented by linear discriminant function

is given by
a) Weight vector (w)
b) Threshold vector (w0)
c) Initial vector (w1)
d) All of these
13) In minimum squared-error procedure, the problem of finding solution to linear

inequality is reduced to
a) Linear equation solution
b) Differential equation solution
c) Matrix solution
d) All of these
14) Hierarchical clustering procedure belong to
a) Supervised method
b) Unsupervised method
c) Both a) and b)
SLR-UM 188
*SLRUM188*
-4-
15) Which of the following criterion function measures the clustering quality ?
a) Perceptron criterion function
b) Sum of squared-error function
c) Linear discriminant function
d) None of these
16) A cell labeled by the same category of the training points is called
b) Reflexivity
a) Symmetry
c) Voronoi tessellation
17) A well formed cluster has

a) Compact cloud
b) Dispersed cloud
c) Less cloud
d) None of these
18) Triangle in equality is given by __________

a) D(a, b) + D(b, c) < D(a, c)
b) D(a, b) + D(b, c) = D(a, c)
c) D(a, b) + D(b, c) > D(a, c)
d) D(a, b) D(b, c) > D(a, c)
19) In k-means clustering, k refers to
a) The no. of sample points
c) Samples in the cluster
20) In posterior density
b) The no. of clusters

d) None of these
is called
a) Weight vector
b) Threshold vector
c) Parameter vector
d) All of these
______________________
*SLRUM188*
-5-
SLR-UM
188
SLR-UM
188
Seat
No.

PATTERN RECOGNITION (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
24
a) Define :
i) Density estimation.
ii) Feature extraction.
b) Differentiate between supervised learning and unsupervised learning.
c) Describe univariate density.
d) Mention and explain sources of classification error.
e) Obtain an expression for linear discriminant function for two category case.
a) Explain risk factor in Bayes decision theory.
b) Explain minimum error rate classification and minimax criteria.
c) Explain Hidden Markov Models (HMM) and give HMM forward algorithm.
16
SECTION II
24
a) What are the properties of metrics ? Write an expression for Euclidean distance.
b) Explain kn nearest neighbor estimation. Illustrate with diagrams.
c) Explain hierarchical clustering.
d) Explain determinant criteria for clustering.
e) Explain k-means clustering algorithm.
16
a) Derive an expression for linear discriminant function for two category case.
b) Starting from fundamental explain unsupervised bayers classifier.
c) Explain relaxation procedure as a criterion function for classifier design.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
189
*SLRUM189*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------B.E. (E&TC) (Part II) Examination, 2014

FUZZY LOGIC (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

1. Select correct option :
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) Collection of elements within universe are called __________

b) Set
a) Subset
c) Whole set
2) In fuzzy logic all truths are ___________
b) Partial
a) Precise
c) Logical preposition
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 189
*SLRUM189*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
3) The support of a fuzzy set A within a universal set X is the crisp set that
contain all elements of X that have ___________
a) Non zero membership grade in A
b) Infinite membership grade in A
c) Zero membership grade in A
4) Method is simply derived from the capacity of humans to develop membership
function through their own innate intelligence and understanding _________
a) Intuition
b) Rank ordering
c) Neutral network
d) Inductive reasoning
5) Fuzzy relation R based on, IF A, THEN B known as ___________

a) Fuzzy max-min
b) Fuzzy max-product
c) Fuzzy implication
6) The vertex method is based on ____________

a) cut levels
b) Std. Interval analysis
c) Both a) and b)
7) the classification can be done using __________
a) Equivalence relation
b) Crisp relation
c) Fuzzy relation
*SLRUM189*
SLR-UM 189
-3-
8) In the nearest center classifier, each of the data points is assigned to the
class i.e. dik _________
a)
min
{dik }
jC
min
c) max
{dik }
j C
b)
min
{ dik }
jC
9) Transformation T1 for the membership values of brightness for an image is

__________
2
a) 2mn
b) 1 2(1 mn )2
c) Both a) and b)
10) The hard C means algorithm uses the objective function JM as _________
a) ni = 1 kc = 1 xik(dik )2
b) nk = 1 ic= 1 xik(dik )2
c) ni =11 kc = 1 xik(dik )2
11) The uncertainty in rank arises because of _____________

a) Random variable
b) Imprecision
c) Ambiguity
12) The physical system under control is called ___________

a) Close loop control system
b) Open loop control system
c) Plant
13) Fuzzy regression analysis uses ___________ to represent the coefficient.
a) Fuzzy number
b) Fuzzy coefficient
c) Fuzzy function
14) The physicians medical knowledge is represented as a fuzzy relation between

____________ c.
a) Symptoms and patient
b) Disease and patient
c) None of these
d) All of the above
SLR-UM 189
*SLRUM189*
-4-
15) Interval valued fuzzy sets can further be generalized as _________

a) Type II fuzzy sets
b) Ordinary fuzzy sets
c) Fuzzy power sets
16) In fuzzy neuro system ____________

a) Neuro is embedded in fuzzy
b) Fuzzy is embedded in neuro
c) Both a) and b)
17) In fuzzy expert systems, the knowledge is usually represented by the set
of _____________
a) Fuzzy nos.
b) Fuzzy production rules
c) Fuzzy coefficients
18) A common SPC technique uses _________ charts for measurement data.
a) P
b) X R
c) X R
19) Scalar measure of degree of preference is produced from individual

_________ of those in the decision group.
a) Preferences
b) Consensus
c) Both a) and b)
20) Cognitive maps can be used for ___________

a) Strategic planning
b) Prediction
c) Engineering concept development
d) All of the above
__________________
*SLRUM189*
SLR-UM 189
-5-
Seat
No.

FUZZY LOGIC (Elective II)
Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Explain methods of membership value assignment-intuition and inference.

b) Explain image enhancement using fuzzy.
c) Consider fuzzy relations.
0.7
R=
0.8
0.6
0.3
0.8
S=
0.1
0.5
0.6
0.4
0.7
Find the relation T = R S using max-min composition.

d) Given the following fuzzy members and using Zadehs extension principle,
6 is nonconvex :
calculate K = I J and explain (or show) why ~
~ ~ ~
0.2 1 0.1
I =3=
+ +
~ ~
2
3
4
0 .1 1 0 .3
J=2=
+ +
~ ~
1
2
3
e) We have two discrete fuzzy sets,

1 0.5 0.3 0.2
0.5 0.7 0.2 0.4
A= +
+
+
B=
+
+
+
3
4
5
2
3
4
2
1
Calculate difference and De Morgans principle of fuzzy sets.
SLR-UM 189
-6-
*SLRUM189*
(210=20)
a) In a magneto encephalography (MEG) experiment, we attempt to partition the

space of dipole model order versus reduced chi-square value for the dipole
fit. This could be useful to an MEG researcher in determining any trends in
his or her data-fitting procedures. Typical ranges for these parameters would
be as follows :
Dipole model order = (1, 2, ..., 6) = x1i
2
Reduced (1, 3) = x 2i
Suppose we have three MEG data points, xi = (x1i, x2i), i = 1, 2, 3, to classify
into two classes. The data are
x1 = (2, 1.5)
x2 = (3, 2.2)
x3 = (4, 2)
Find the optimum fuzzy 2-partition using the following initial partition :
1 0 0
( 0)
U =
(Use m = 2.0 and L < 0.01).
~
0 1 1
b) Let us consider the function y = x(2 + x), and another nonlinear, 1D expression
of the form y = x/(2 + x), where we again use the fuzzy input variable shown
in Fig. below in both functions. In interval calculations we can represent the
scalar value 2 by the interval [2, 2]. The -cut interval calculations using the
restricted DSW calculations are now as follows :
c) What is defuzzification ? Explain methods of defuzzification.

SECTION II
(210=20)
a) An aircraft control system is a totally nonlinear system when the final approach
and landing of an aircraft are considered. It involves maneuvering flight in an
appropriate course to the airport and then along the optimum glide path
trajectory to the runway. We know that this path is usually provided by an
instrument landing system, which transmits two radio signals to the aircraft
as a navigational aid. These orthogonal radio beams are known as the localizer
and the glide slope and are transmitted from the ends of the runway in order
to provide the approaching aircraft with the correct trajectory for landing. The
pilot executing such a landing must monitor cockpit instruments that display
*SLRUM189*
-7-
SLR-UM 189
the position of the aircraft relative to the desired flight path and make
appropriate corrections to the controls. Presume that four positions are available
to the pilot and that four corrections P1, P2, P3 and P4 from the actual position
P are required to put the aircraft on the correct course. The pairwise
comparisons for the four positions are as follows :
fP1 (P1) = 1 fP1(P2 ) = 0.5 fP1(P3 ) = 0.6 fP1(P4 ) = 0.8
fP2 (P1) = 0.3 fP2 (P2 ) = 1 fP2 (P3 ) = 0.4 fP2 (P4 ) = 0.3
fP3 (P1) = 0.6 fP3 (P2 ) = 0.4 fP3 (P3 ) = 1 fP3 (P4 ) = 0.6
fP4 (P1) = 0 fP4 (P2 ) = 0.3 fP4 (P3 ) = 0.6 fP4 (P4 ) = 1
Now, from these values, compute the comparison matrix, and determine the
overall ranking.
b) The basic mechanical system behind clocks that are enclosed in glass domes
is the torsional pendulum. The general equation that describes the torsional
d2( t)
d(t )
= (t ) B
k( t ) .
pendulum is J
2
dt
dt
The moment of inertia of the pendulum bob is represented by J, the elasticity
of the brass suspension strip is represented by k, and the friction between
the bob and the air is represented by B. The controlling torque ( t ) is applied
at the bob. When this device is used in clocks the actual torque is not applied
at the bob but is applied through a complex mechanism at the main spring.
The foregoing differential equation is the sum of the torques of the pendulum
bob. The numerical values are J = 1 kgm2, k = 5 Nm/rad, and B = 2 Nms/rad.
The final differential equation with the foregoing constants incorporated is
d2(t )
d( t )
+2
+ 5(t ) = (t )
2
dt
dt
The state variables are
x = ( t ) and x (t ) = (t )
given by
x 1 = ( t ) and x 2 (t ) = (t )
Rewriting the differential equation using state variables, we have
x 2 ( t ) = ( t ) 2x 2 (t ) 5 x1(t )
x 1( t ) = x 2 ( t)
Using these equations,
x 1( t ) = x 1(k + 1) x 1(k )
x 2 ( t ) = x 2 (k + 1) x 2 (k )
SLR-UM 189
*SLRUM189*
-8-
Rewriting the equations in terms of and in matrix form, we have

(k + 1) (k ) + (k ) 0
+
(k + 1) =
5(k ) (k ) (k )
The membership values for , , and are shown in Fig. below. The rules
for the control system are summarized in the accompanying FAM table.
P
Z
N
Positive
NB
Z
Z

Zero
N
Z
P
Negative
Z
Z
PB
The initial conditions are given as

(0) = 0.7
( 0) = 0.2 rad / s
i) Preference and consensus
ii) Fuzzy ordering.
a) Write a short note on fuzzy equivalence relationship.
b) Explain with example fuzzy in process control.
c) Explain Fuzzy Cognitive Map.
d) What is fuzzy linear programming.
e) Explain application of Fuzzy for diagnosis in medicine.
______________
(45=20)
Code No. SLR-UM
19
*SLRUM19*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------S.E. (Civil) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Note :

2) Q. No. 1 is MCQ which shall be solved in first 30 minutes.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and state it
clearly.
Marks : 20
1) During manufacturing process of OPC gypsum is added
a) To increase strength of cement
b) To modify the color of cement
c) To adjust setting of cement
d) To reduce heat of hydration
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 19
*SLRUM19*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) For the repair of road

a) Low heat cement is used
b) Rapid hardening cement is used
c) High alumina cement is used
d) Sulphate resisting cement is used
3) The workability of concrete by slump test is expressed as
a) mm2/Hr
b) mm/Hr
c) mm
d) mm3/Hr
4) An aggregate generally not preferred for use in concrete is one which has
following surface texture
a) Smooth
b) Rough
c) Glassy
d) Granular
5) True slump shows characteristic of

a) Homogeneous material
b) Non-cohesive material
c) Segregation
d) Bleeding
6) Which of the following is a effect of creep ?

a) Due to creep there is a volume changes in concrete
b) Creep increases the deflection of structure with time
c) Creep will lead to buckling
d) None of above
7) Fineness of cement is done by the sieve
a) 600
b) 300
c) 150
d) 90
*SLRUM19*
SLR-UM 19
-3-
8) A compacting factor of 0.88 for a fresh concrete sample indicate a mix of

a) Low workability
b) Medium workability
c) High workability
d) Cannot say
9) Modulus of elasticity of concrete can be assumed as

a) 5000 f ck
b) 0.7 f ck
c) 200 kN/mm2
d) 0.27 f ck
10) Which of the following is not a composition of cement ?

a) Tricalcium Silicate
b) Dicalcium Silicate
c) Tricalcium Aluminate
d) Dicalcium Aluminate
11) Bulk density of standard material (water) is

a) 1
b) 1 kg/m3
c) 1 g/cm3
d) 1 kg/cm3
12) Initial setting time of cement is

a) Minimum 30 min.
b) Maximum 30 min.
c) Minimum 600 min.
d) Maximum 600 min.
13) The standard consistency of a cement paste is define as

a) Consistency which will permit vicat plunger to penetrate to a depth of
33 to 35 mm from the top of the mould
b) Consistency which will permit vicat plunger to penetrate to a depth of
05 to 07 mm from the top of the mould
c) Consistency which will permit vicat plunger to penetrate to a depth of
33 to 35 mm from the bottom of the mould
d) None of above
14) Volume of one bag of cement is taken as
a) 35 liters
b) 70 liters
c) 35 m3
d) 70 m3
15) Aggregate which are suitable for making the concrete may have the angularity
no. from
a) 1 to 11
b) 11 to 111
c) 0 to 11
d) 0 to 100
SLR-UM 19
*SLRUM19*
-4-
16) For concrete mix pH value of water shall not be less than
a) 7
b) 6
c) 8
d) 9
17) IS provision for concrete mix design is given in

a) IS : 4031 1968
b) IS : 383 1970
c) IS : 456 2000
d) IS : 10262 2009
18) Which of the following statement is true ?

A) Lower aggregate cement ratio gives lower workability
B) Higher water cement ratio gives higher compressive strength of concrete
C) For higher compressive strength of concrete reduced water cement ratio
as possible as
D) Round shape aggregate provide better workability than the angular
aggregate and flaky aggregate
a) A) and C)
b) C) and D)
c) A) and D)
d) Only C)
19) To calculate tensile strength of concrete from the compressive strength, the
following formula may be used
a) 5000 f ck
b) 0.7 f ck
c) 200 kN/mm2
d) 0.27 f ck
20) The characteristic strength of concrete is define as the strength of the concrete
below which not more than _______________ of the test result are expected
to fall.
a) 20%
b) 10%
c) 5%
d) 0%
__________________
*SLRUM19*
-5-
SLR-UM 19
Seat
No.
S.E. (Civil) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Note :
Marks : 80

2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and state it
clearly.
SECTION I
2. Answer any four of following :
(45=20)
a) Enumerate different physical properties of cement and explain any one of

them in detail.
b) Write on PPC and quick setting cement.
c) Write on specifications of water to be used for concrete making.
d) What do you mean by workability of concrete ? Explain compaction factor
test for measuring workability.
e) Write on bleeding and segregation of concrete.
(45=20)
a) Enumerate different types of admixtures and construction chemical used in

concrete. Explain retarder in brief.
b) Write on tensile and flexure strength of concrete.
c) Write on impermeability and characteristics strength of concrete.
d) Enlist different methods of curing for concrete and explain any one in detail.
e) Write on superplasticizers.
SLR-UM 19
-6-
*SLRUM19*
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) Write on factors affecting creep of concrete.

b) Write on minimum and maximum cement content to be used from durability
consideration of concrete.
c) Write on sulphate and chloride attack on concrete.
d) Write on gap graded concrete.
e) Write on quality control of concrete.
5. Design a concrete mix of grade M25 as per IS 10262-2009.
20

Concrete is to be used for R.C.C. columns
Exposure condition Moderate
Cement to be used OPC 43 grade
Workability required 75 mm Slump
Method of concrete placing Manual (Pumping is not required)
Max. size of aggregate 20 mm (crushed angular)
Fine aggregate is confirming to Zone II
Test Data for material
a) Specific gravity of cement = 3.15, FA = 2.65 and CA = 2.80
b) Bulk Densities in kg/lit of cement = 1.45, CA = 1.60 and FA = 1.70
c) Water absorption of FA = 2% and CA = 1%
d) Moisture content of CA = Nil and FA = 2%
Refer Fig. 1, Table 1, 2, 3 and 4.
OR
a) Enumerate different methods of Concrete Mix Design and explain road note
four method in detail.
10
b) Differentiate between design mix and nominal mix concrete along with the
factors governing mix design.
10
*SLRUM19*
-7-
SLR-UM 19
28-Day Strength of Cement, Tested According to IS 4031-1968

A = 31.9 36.8 N/mm2
C = 41.7 46.6 N/mm2
B = 36.8 41.7 N/mm2

D = 46.6 51.5 N/mm2
E = 51.5 56.4 N/mm2
F = 56.4 61.3 N/mm2
Fig. 1 Relationship between Free Water-Cement Ratio and Concrete Strength for
Different Cement Strengths (Ref : IS 10262-1982)
SLR-UM 19
*SLRUM19*
-8-
Table 1 Assumed Standard Deviation

(Ref : IS 456-2002)
Sl. No.
Grade of
Concrete
M 10
M 15
M 20
M 25
M 30
M 35
M 40
M 45
M 50
10
M 55
Assumed Standard
Deviation (N/mm2)
3.50
4.0
5.00
*SLRUM19*
-9-
________________
SLR-UM 19
Code No. SLR-UM
191
*SLRUM191*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2014

APPLIED MATHEMATICS I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Tick (9) the correct alternative :
20
1) The particular integral of (D2 + 2D + 1)y = 2e3 x is

3x
a) e
16
3x
b) e
8
2 3x
c) x e
8
3x
d) xe
16
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 191
*SLRUM191*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The general solution of the diff. equation (D + 1)2 (D 2)y = 0 is
3)
a) (c1 + c 2 x )e x + c 3e2 x
b) (c1 + c 2 x )e x + c 3e 2 x
c) c1 cos x + c 2 sin x + c 3e2 x
d) c1e x + c 2e x + c 3e 2 x
1
X = _____________
Da
a) e ax e ax Xdx
c) eax e ax Xdx
b) X e ax dx
d) None of these
4) The P.I. of ( x 2D2 2xD + 2)y = x 1 is

x
a) 6
x
b) e
6
c) 6x
d) 1
6x
5) The solution of q = ep is
a) z = ax + epy + c
c) z = ax + eay + c
b) z = ax + by + c
d) None of these
6) The partial diff. equation z2(p2 + q2 + 1) = 1 is

a) Linear
b) Non-linear
c) Homogeneous
d) Non-homogeneous
7) L e 3 t cos 3t = __________
s+3
a) s 2 + 6s + 18
s3
c) s 2 6s 18
s+3
b) s 2 6s + 18
s3
d) s 2 + 6s 18
*SLRUM191*
1
1
= ____________
8) L 2
s
16
a) sinh4t
c) sinh 4t
4
SLR-UM 191
-3-
b) cosh4t
d) cosh 4 t
4
9) If L{f( t )} = (s) then L{f(at )} is

a) (s a )
b) a1 (a s )
c) s1 (s a )
d) a1 (s a )
L
cosh
udu
= _________
10)
0
s
a) s 2 1
1
b) s 2 1
s
c) s 2 + 1
1
d) s 2 + 1
11) If y = x + 1 and x = 3y 7 are the two lines of regression then x and y

are ____________
a) 3, 2
b)
3, 2
c) 2, 3
d)
2, 3
12) The minimum value of correlation coefficient is

a) 0
b) 1
c) 1
d) None of these
13) One of the Dirichlets condition is the function f(x) should be ______
a) Single valued
b) Multi-valued
c) Real-valued
d) None of these
14) Fourier expansion of an odd function f(x) in ( , ) has
a) Only sine terms
d) None of these
SLR-UM 191
*SLRUM191*
-4-
15) The period of cos3x is

a) 3
b) 2
d) 2
3
c) 6
16) If r = xi + yj + zk then curl r is
a) r
c) O
b) r
d) r 2
17) The maximum rate of change of = xy 2 + yz + zx 2 at the point (1, 1, 1) is

b) 0
d) None of these
a) 11
c) 3
k
z
18) If z{a } = z a then z{k a k } = _________
z
a) (z a)2
z
b) (z a)2
a
c) (z a)2
az
d) (z a)2
19) If z{xk} = f(z) then z{K xk} = ?

d
a) z F(z)
dz
c)
d
F(z)
dz
b)
1 d
f(z)
z dz
d)
d
[z f(z)]
dz
20) Which of the following is not true ?
a) z K xk = z f(z) , where z{xk} = f(z)

dz
b) z{xk} = 1 where xk = 1 k 0
0 k<0
c) z-transform is linear function
d) z-transform operates on sequence of discrete functions
__________________
*SLRUM191*
-5-
SLR-UM 191
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Solve (D4 + 8D2 + 16)y = sin2 x .
b) Solve (D3 + 8)y = x 4 + 2x 2 + 1.
c) Solve q2 = z 2p 2 (1 p 2 ) .
3. a) Find L te 2 t sinh 4t .
s(s 2 + 2)
b) Find L
.
2
2
(s + 1) (s + 1)
1
4
4
c) Solve the diff. equation by Laplace transform method.

d2 x
dx
+5
+ 6x = 5e t ,
2
dt
dt
x(0) = 2, x(0) = 1.
4. a) Solve (z 2 2 yz y 2 )p + ( xy + xz )q = xy zx .
5
5
b) Solve z 2 (p 2 + xq2 ) = x .
c) Solve (x 2D2 + xD + 1)y = (log x )2 + x sin(log x ) .
SLR-UM 191
*SLRUM191*
-6-
5. a) Attempt any two :
10
i) Solve (D3 D2 + 3D + 5)y = e x cos 3x .

ii) Solve (2x + 1)2
d2 y
dy
2
(
2
x
+
1
)
12 y = 6x .
dx
dx 2
u
u
=2
+ u , given u(x, 0) = 6e3x by the
x
t
method of separation of variables.
iii) Solve the following P.D.E.
e 2 t sin3 t
b) Find L
.
t
SECTION II
6. a) Find the two lines of regression and coefficient of correlation for the following
data :
x:
150
152
155 157
160
161 164
y:
154
156
158
160
162
159
166
161 164

x:
y:
1250 1400 1650 1950 2300
x2
7. a) Find Fourier series of the function f(x ) = x +
when < x < and
4
2
1
1
1
1
= 2 2 + 2 2 + ....
f(x + 2) = f( x ) . Hence or otherwise show that
12 1
2
3
4
b) Find the directional derivative of = xy(x y + z) at (1, 2, 1) in the direction

normal to the surface x 2 + y 2 + z = 3 at (1, 1, 1).
*SLRUM191*
-7-
SLR-UM 191
2z 2 10z + 13
when 2 < | z | < 3.
8. a) Obtain inverse z-transform of
(z 3)2 (z 2)
b) Find div ( ) at (1, 1, 1) where = xy 2z 3 and = xy 2 + y 2z + z 2 x .

c) Obtain z-transform of xk =
1
4k
k 0.
9. a) Find half-range sine series for

f(x ) = x
x
0<x
<x<
2

r = ( t 3 + 2) i + (4 t 5)j + (2 t 2 6 t) k at t = 0 and t = 2.
c) Obtain z-transform of sin k, k 0 .

________________
4
4
Code No.
SLR-UM 192
*SLRUM192*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2014

DISCRETE MATHEMATICAL STRUCTURES (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Day & Date _____________________
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________ Section ________________________________________

Out of
Marks Signature of
__________ Examination _________

______________ (Paper - _______)
Examiner
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Select correct alternative.

1) The valid conclusion from the premises P Q, Q R, P M, M is
a) P (Q R)
b) P (Q R)
c) R (P Q )
d) Q (P R )
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 192
-2-
DO
*SLRUM192*
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
T
NO
2) Which is the correct prefix formula ?

a) P QR S
b) P QRS
c) PQ QR PR
d)
P Q QSP
3) Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}. Which of the following is false ?

a) x A : (x + 3 10 )
b) x A : ( x + 3 < 10)
c) x A : (x + 3 6 )
d) x A : ( x + 3 8)
4) Consider the implications
a) P Q Q R
b) P Q Q R
c) P Q Q R
d) P Q Q R
If P is true while Q and R are both false. Which one is false ?
*SLRUM192*
SLR-UM 192
-3-
5) Which of the following is not equivalent to P Q R ?

a) Q R P
b) P R Q
c) P Q R
d) P Q R
6) Which one of the following is tautology ?

a) Q P P
b) P Q R
c) P (P Q )
d) P Q (P Q )
7) If X, Y, Z are sets such that X Y and Y Z then

a) X Y = Z
b) X Y = Z
c) X Y Z = Z
d) None of these
8) The relation R defined on set A = {1, 2, 3, 4} be R = { 1, 1 , 2, 2 , 3, 3

a) Reflexive
b) Symmetric
c) Transitive
d) None of these
9) The number of equivalence relations on the set {1, 2, 3, 4} is

a) 4
b) 15
c) 16
d) 25
10) If A = {x, y}, then power set of A is

a)
c)
{{x}, {y}}
{ {x}, {y}}
b)
{{}, {x, y}}
d) None of these
11) If every element of a group G is its own inverse then G is

a) Finite
b) Infinite
c) Cyclic
d) Abelian
12) If G, is a group such that (a b)2 = a 2 b2, a, b G, then G is

a) commutative semigroup
b) abelian group
c) nonabelian group
d) none of these
} is
SLR-UM 192
*SLRUM192*
-4-
13) In the group G = {2, 4, 6, 8} under the multiplication modulo 10, the identity
element is
a) 6
b) 8
c) 4
d) 2
14) A partition of {1, 2, 4, 3, 5} is the family,

a)
c)
{{1, 2}, {3, 4}, {3, 5}}

{{1, 2, 3}, {5}}
b)
d)
{ , {1, 2}, {3, 4}, {5}}

{{1, 2}, {3, 4, 5}}
15) Match the following.

A) Groups
I) Associativity
B) Semi groups
II) Identity
C) Monoids
III) Commutative
D) Abelian Groups
IV) Left inverse
16) Every finite subset of lattice has

a) A LUB and a GLB
b) Many LUBs and a GLB
c) Many LUBs and Many GLBs
d) None of these
17) Rank of well formed formula is always
a) 0
b) greater than zero
c) less than 1
d) 1
_____________________
*SLRUM192*
-5-
SLR-UM 192
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four.
(45=20)
a) What is monoid ? Define the following w.r.t. monoids.

1) Homomorphism
2) Isomorphism
3) Monomorphism
b) Define principle conjunctive normal form and obtain PCNF of the following
formulas.
1) (P Q)
2) (P Q) .
c) Without constructing the truth table, find PDNF of

( p q ) (p
q)
d) Determine whether the conclusion C follows logically form the premises

H1 and H2.
H1 : P, H2 : P
Q , C : (P Q ) .
e) Prove that
(x) (P(x) Q(x)) (x) P(x) (x) Q ( x) .

3. Solve any one.
a) Discuss about the representation of discrete structures with the help of
I) Batches
II) Vectors
III) Plexes.
10
SLR-UM 192
-6-
*SLRUM192*
b) Let f : R R and g : R R where R is the set of real numbers. Find fog, g of

where
f(x) = x2 2 and g(x) = x + 4.
State whether these functions are injective, surjective and bijective.
10
4. Show the equivalences without constructing Truth Tables.
10
1) (P Q) P Q
2) (P Q ) P Q
SECTION II
5. Solve any four.
(45=20)
a) Define lattice as POSET. Give different properties of lattice with example.

b) What is distributive lattice ? Show whether the following lattice is distributive
or not
c) Explain the communication model and basic notions of error correction.

d) Find all subgroups of S4 generated by the permutations
1 2
1 3
3 4
and
2 4
1 2
1 3
3 4
4 2
e) What is Kernal homomorphism ? Show that Kernal of homomorphism g from

group G, to H, is subgroup of G, .
*SLRUM192*
-7-
SLR-UM 192
6. Solve any one.
10
a) Explain the scheme of conversion of infix string to reverse polish. Convert

(a + b c d) (e + f d) into reverse polish.
b) Devise a single-error correcting group code and associated decoding table

for m = 3, n = 7.
7. Give representation of Boolean function f = x + y + z in following forms :
i) Circuit
ii) K-map
iii) Truth Table
iv) Cube.
________________
10
Code No. SLR-UM 194
*SLRUM194*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2014

SWITCHING THEORY AND LOGIC DESIGN (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Draw neat diagrams.
Marks : 20
20
1) The AND operation can be produced with

a) two NAND gates
b) three NAND gates
c) two NOR gates
d) one NOR gates

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 194
*SLRUM194*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Which of the following Boolean algebra rule is correct.

a) A . A = 1
b) A + A . B = A + B
c) A + A B = A + B
d) A (A + B) = B
3) In k-map, the gray code is used to number

a) only rows
b) only column
c) both rows and column
d) the diagonal element
4) The m-bit parallel adder consists of

a) m + 1 full adder
b) m/2 full adder
c) (m 1) full adder
d) m full adder
5) A binary number B can be subtracted from another binary number A by

a) adding A and B and taking 2s complement of sum
b) adding A with 2s complement of B
c) adding 2s complement of A with B
d) adding 2s complement of both A and B
6) A feature that distinguishes the J K. flip flop from an S.R. flip flop is the
a) toggle condition
b) preset i/p
c) type of clock
d) clear i/p
7) The following is not a sequential circuit

a) J. K. flip flop
b) Counter
c) Full adder
d) Shift register
*SLRUM194*
SLR-UM 194
-3-
8) An asynchronous counter differs from a synchronous counter in

a) the MOD number
b) the method of clocking
c) the type of flip flop used
d) the number of states in a sequence
9) The MOD number of a counter is
a) the maximum possible number of states
b) the actual number of states in a sequence
c) the number of flip flops
d) the number of times it recycles in a second
10) To parallely load a byte of data into a shift register, three must be
a) one c/k pulse
b) eight c/k pulses
c) one c/k pulse for each 1 in the data
d) one c/k pulse for each 0 in the data
11) Demultiplexer is represented by ____________
a) 2n 1
b) 2n n
c) n 2n
d) 1 2n
12) Which of the following is an example of non-volafile memory ?

a) Statis RAM
b) Dynamic RAM
c) ROM
d) Cache memory
13) Data selector is basically same as ___________

a) decoder
b) demultiplexer
c) multiplexer
d) encoder
14) What is the size of ROM to implement 13 CD to Excess-3 code converter ?

a) 9 4
b) 10 4
c) 16 4
d) 12 4
15) While specifying the memory size, the letter k stands for __________
a) 1024
b) 2048
c) 1000
d) 100
SLR-UM 194
*SLRUM194*
-4-
16) Electrically alterable read only memory is called ___________

a) EPROM
b) EAROM
c) PROM
d) ROM
17) A logic circuit that produces coded binary output from uncoded inputs is
called _____________
a) driver
b) decoder
c) encoder
d) comparator
18) 74151 is ___________

a) 16 : 1 multiplexer
b) 8 : 1 multiplexer
c) 3 : 8 decoder
d) 4 : 16 decoder
19) Which of the following level is concern of the hardware designer ?
a) Processor level
b) Gate level
c) Register level
d) None of above
20) The number of full adders in 4 bit parallel adder is __________

a) one
b) two
c) four
d) sixteen
______________
-5-
*SLRUM194*
SLR-UM 194
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

Draw neat diagrams.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Simplify the given expression by using k-map

F = A B C D + A B CD + A B C D + A B C D + A BC D + A B C D + ABC D
+ AB C D + A B CD + A B C D
b) Design a combinational logic circuit with three input variables that will produce
a logic 1 out put when more than one input variable is at logic 1.
c) Write a short note on ALU.
d) Perform the following subtraction using 2s complement method and check
the answer by using binary subtraction method
i) (23)10 (48)10
e) Draw and explain MS-JK flip flop.
f) With neat diagram and waveforms explain 4-bit ring counter.
3. Design a MOD-5 asynchronous counter using T flip flop.
10
4. a) What is adder ? Explain carry look ahead adder in detain.
10
OR
b) With the neat diagram and waveforms explain 3-bit asynchronous up-down
counter.
SLR-UM 194
-6-
*SLRUM194*
SECTION II
(54=20)
a) Implement the expression using a multiplexer.

f(A, B, C, D) = m(0, 2, 3, 6, 8, 9, 12, 14)
b) Implement full substractor using decoder.
c) What are the components of register level design ? Explain register level
design with examples.
d) Write a short note on Problems with MSI circuits.
e) Design 40 : 1 multiplexer using 8 : 1 multiplexer.
(210=20)
a) Explain gate level design, register level design and processor level design in
detail.
b) Explain sequence of operation performed to read a data word from memory.
Also draw the waveforms.
c) Give the classification of memory. Explain RAM and ROM in detail. Design
2048 8 memory using 256 8 memory.
______________
Code No. SLR-UM 195

Seat
No.
*SLRUM195*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2014

COMPUTER GRAPHICS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

2) Q. 1 is objective type question and should be solved and
submitted in first 30 minutes.
Marks : 20
20
1) __________ is the smallest unit of computer graphics.

a) Pixel
b) Point
c) Dot
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 195
*SLRUM195*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) ____________ is an input device.

a) Printer
b) Tablet
c) Microphone
d) All
3) DDA line drawing algorithm stands for ____________

a) Differential Dot Analyzer
b) Differential Digital Analyzer
c) Digital Differential Analyzer
d) None of these
4) The process of determining which pixels provide the best approximation to
the desired line is properly known as ____________
a) digitization
b) rasterization
c) approximation
d) differentiation
5) The distance between the actual line of the nearest grid locations is called as
___________
a) differentiator
b) error
c) slope
d) all
6) Only one ___________ of the circle need be generated in Bresenhams circle

generation algorithm.
a) quadrant
b) semicircle
c) octant
d) all
*SLRUM195*
SLR-UM 195
-3-
7) In Bresenhams circle generation algorithm are variables are assumed

___________
a) floats
b) doubles
c) reals
d) integers
8) The inverse matrix of the general rotation matrix [T] is its ___________
a) Inverse
b) Cumulative
c) Transpose
d) All
9) In scaling if sx=2 and sy=2 then this scaling is called as ___________

a) Uniform scaling
b) Non uniform scaling
c) Enlarged scaling
d) None of these
10) In a reflection through the xy plane, only the _____________ co-ordinate

values of the objects position vectors change.
a) x
b) y
c) z
d) All
11) Super sampling is a technique of ___________

a) Shading
b) Masking
c) Anti-aliasing
d) None of these
12) Unit of display file is ____________

a) Segment
b) Viewport
c) Window
d) None of these
13) ____________ removes the segment from the refresh cycle.

a) Post segment
b) Unpost segment
c) Delete segment
d) Append segment
14) The Warnock algorithm attempts to take an advantage of ___________

a) area coherence
b) image coherence
c) pre-processing
d) none of these
15) A Bezier curve is determined by defining a polygon known as ____________

a) approximation
b) interpolation
c) plottings
d) convex null
SLR-UM 195
*SLRUM195*
-4-
16) A line with end point code 0000 and 0000 is ____________
a) Completely visible
b) Partially visible
c) Invisible
d) None of these
17) For windowing the co-ordinate system is defined as ____________ co-ordinate

system.
a) Screen
b) World
c) Homogeneous
d) All
18) Curve is represented as a collection of ____________

a) points
b) lines
c) polygans
d) nodes
19) ____________ are curve properties.

a) lines and points
b) slope and radius
c) curvature and center
d) all curve points
20) y = f(x) is an ____________ non parametric form of the curve.
a) Explicit
b) implicit
c) interpolation
d) none of these
______________
-5-
*SLRUM195*
SLR-UM 195
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
1) List and explain applications of computer graphics.

2) With the help of diagram explain the working of CRT.
3) Explain raster scan system with diagram.
4) Explain Bresenhams general line generation algorithm in detail.
5) Explain difference between edge fill algorithm and edge flag algorithm.
6) Explain two dimensional scaling transformation in detail.
3. Attempt any two (each carries 6 marks) :
12
a) Compute the intermediate points generated by Bresenhams line drawing

algorithm for a line (0, 0) to (5, 5).
b) Explain 2D translation and rotation with an example in detail.
c) Explain fence fill algorithm with suitable examples.
4. Explain all input devices used in computer graphics along with their working and
applications.
SLR-UM 195
-6-
*SLRUM195*
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Explain display file compilation.

2) Write note on antialiasing.
3) Explain the concept of back-face removal algorithm.
4) Explain mid-point-subdivision line clipping algorithm.
5) Explain parametric curve representation.
6) Write note on window transformations.
12
a) Explain Z-buffer algorithm in detail.

b) Differentiate between curve fitting techniques and curve fairing techniques.
c) Explain posting and unposting of a segment.
7. Explain Warnocks algorithm in detail.
______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 196
*SLRUM196*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------S.E. (CSE) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

APPLIED MATHEMATICS I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory and it should be solved in

first 30 minutes.
1)
1
2
D + a2
a)
c)
Marks : 20
20
sinax = ______________
x
sin ax
2a
x
cos ax
2a
b)
d)
x
cos ax
2a
x
sin ax
2a
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 196
DO
2)
3)
*SLRUM196*
-2-
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
1
1
log x + = _____________
D +1
x
a) ex
c) x
b) log x
d) 1
1
X = _____________
Da
a)
ax
b) e ax eax Xdx
X dx
c) eax X dx
{ }
d) e ax e a x Xdx
4) If L{f( t )} = (s) then L tnf( t ) = _______________

n +1
a) ( 1)
dn
dsn
(s)
c) (s) ds
b)
dn
dsn
(s)
n
d) ( 1)
dn
dsn
5) The Laplace transform of tet is

1
a)
(s + 1)2
b)
c)
(s + 1)2
d)
1
(s + 1)2
s
(s + 1)2
(s)
*SLRUM196*
SLR-UM 196
-3-
6) If L{f( t )} = (s) then L{f(at )} = ______________

1 a

a s
a)
1
(s )
s
b)
c)
1 s

a a
d) None of these
1
k=0
7) If (k ) = 0
otherwise then Z{(k )} = _______________
a) 0
b) z
c) 1
d)
1
z
8) If Z {xk} = F(z) then Z{akxk} = _______________

a
a) F
z
c)
1 z
F
a a
z
b) F
a
d) None of these
9) For a constant function f(x) which of the following statement is correct.

a) f(x) is an even function
b) f(x) is an odd function
c) f(x) is neither even nor odd function
d) None of these
10) If a function f(x) is defined in the interval Kx < 1 then its period is
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 1
11) A particle moves along the curve x = et, y = 2 coszt z = 2 sinzt where t is
the time. Then the magnitude of velocity vector at t = 0 is ____________
a)
73
b)
37
c)
76
d)
79
12) 2 (log r) = ____________

a)
1
r
b)
1
r
c)
1
r2
d)
1
r2
SLR-UM 196
*SLRUM196*
-4-
13) Curl (a r ) = ___________

a) a
c) r
b) 2 a
d) 2 r
Where a is a constant vector and r is any vector.

14) If bxy = 0.6, r = 0.8, variance of x = 9 variance of y will be ___________
a) 16
b) 4
c) 9
d) 3
15) The equations of regression lines are y = 0.5x + 9 and x = 0.4 y + b. Then the
correlation coefficient is given by
a) 0.45
b) 0.45
c)
d) 0 .2
0. 2
16) If a Poisson distribution is such that P(x = 2) = P(x = 3).Then mean is __________
b) 4
a) 2
c) 3
17) A normal distribution is given by
d) 9
1
1 x 15
e 2
.The mean and variance are respectively _________
y=
4 2
4
a) 15,4
b) 15,16
c) 16,15
d) None
18) From a box containing 100 transistors 20 of which are defective, 10 are
selected at random. The probability that all will be defective is _________
a) 0.3217
b) 0.1074
c) Approximately zero
d) 0.5532
19) A waiting customer leaves a queue due to impatience. This behaviour is
known as ______________
b) Balking
a) Reneging
c) Jockeying
d) Selection
20) Average length of non-empty queue in (M/M/1) : ( /FcFs) model is given by
___________
a)
c)
b)
d)
_____________________
*SLRUM196*
SLR-UM 196
-5-
Seat
No.
S.E. (CSE) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Solve (D2 4D + 4) y = e2x. x2.
b) Solve (D2 5D + 6) y= sin3x.
c) Solve (D4 + D3 + D2)y = x2 + cosx.
3. a) Find Inverse Laplace transform of cot1(s +1).
b) Find the Laplace transform 1 sin t .
5
s
c) Find the inverse Laplace transform of
(s + a 2 )2
by using convolution theorem.
OR
c) Given f(t ) = t + 1 0 t 2
=3 t>2
find L {f (t )}.
4. a) Find the Z-transform of

x k = cosh k , k 0 .
b) Find the inverse z-transform of

F(z) =
z
,|z | > 2.
(z 1) (z 2)
SLR-UM 196
*SLRUM196*
-6-
c) Find the z-transform of

xk = 5k
=0
for k < 0
for k 0 .
5. a) Find the Fourier expansion of f(x) = x2, x and hence prove that
2
1
= 2
6 n=1 n
b) Expand x x 2 as a sine series in (0, ).
SECTION II
6. a) Find the value of constants a, b and c for which vector
v = (x + y + az) i + (bx + 3 y z) j + (3x + cy + z) k is irrotational.
2
r
b) i) Prove that =
r.
3
r
ii) Find the directional derivative of ( x, y, z) = xy 2 + yz 3 at the point (2, 1, 1)

in the direction of the vector (i + 2j + 2k).
c) Find the tangential and normal components of acceleration of a particle moving

on the curve given by x = t3 + 1, y = t2 and z = t at t = 1, where t is time.
7. a) Heights of fathers and sons are given below in cms :
Height of father (x) :
150
152
155
157
160
161
164
166
Height of son (y) :
154
156
158
159
160
162
161
164
Find the equations of two lines of regression and calculate expected height of
son when height of father is 154 cms.
*SLRUM196*
-7-
SLR-UM 196

x:
y:
1.8
1.3
2.5
6.3
and
Find the difference between the actual value and estimated value of y when
x = 2.
8. a) In a certain factory producing cycle tyres there is a small probability of 1 in
500 for any tyre to be defective. The tyres are supplied in lots of 20. Using
Poisson distribution calculate approximately number of lots containing :
i) no defective
ii) one defective and
iii) two defective tyres in 1000 such lots.
b) Diameters of ball bearings are normally distributed with mean 0.498 cms and
standard deviation 0.002 cms. If specifications allow a variation in the range
from 0.496 to 0.504 cms. in diameter, calculate what percentage of production
will be rejected ? (Given : For S. N. V. Z. area from z = 0 to z = 1 is 0.3413
and that from z = 0 to z = 3 is 0.4987).
c) Two manufacturers A and B are competing with each other in a restricted

market. Over the years As customers have exhibited a high degree of loyalty
as measured by the fact that customers using As product 80% of the time.
Also former customers purchasing product from B have switched back to As
60% of the time. Construct and interpret the state transition matrix in terms of
i) retention and loss
ii) retention and gain.
OR
c) Six dice are thrown 729 times. How many times do you expect at least three
dice to show a 5 or 6.
SLR-UM 196
-8-
*SLRUM196*
9. a) Explain the notations (M/M/1) : ( /FCFS) with reference to Queuing Models. 3

b) Arrival rate of telephone calls at a telephone booth are according to Poisson
distribution with an average time of 10 minutes between two consecutive
arrivals. The length of telephone call is assumed to be exponentially distributed
with mean 3 minutes.
a) Determine the probability that a person arriving at the booth will have to
wait.
b) What is the average queue length that is formed from time to time ?
c) Probability that the telephone booth is idle.
(Underlying model is (M/M/I) : ( /FCFS).
c) If for a period of 2 hours in the day (8 a.m. to 10 a.m.) trains arrive at the yard
every 20 minutes but the service time continues to remain 36 minutes. It is
given that the line capacity of the yard is limited to N = 4 trains only, calculate
for this period
a) the probability that yard is empty
b) the average number of trains in the system.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 199
Seat
No.
*SLRUM199*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014
DIGITAL TECHNIQUES (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) How many AND gates are required to realize Y = CD + EF + G ?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 3
d) 2
2) In a positive logic system, logic state 1 corresponds to
b) Higher voltage level
a) Positive voltage
c) Zero voltage level
d) Lower voltage level
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 199
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM199*
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
3) A canonical SOP logic expression of 4 variables contains each term with

_____________ literals.
b) 3
a) 2
c) 5
d) 4
4) A K-map of n-variables contains _____________ cells.
b) n2
a) 2n
c) n
d) 2n
5) How many flip-flops are required to construct mod 30 counter ?
b) 6
a) 5
c) 4
d) 8
6) The output of SR flip flop when S = 1, R = 0 is
b) 0
a) 1
c) No change
d) High impedance
7) Karnaugh map is used for the purpose of
a) Reducing the electronic circuits used
b) To map the given Boolean logic function
c) To minimize the terms in a Boolean expression
d) To maximize the terms of a given a Boolean expression
8) The gates required to build a half adder are
a) EX-OR gate and NOR gate
b) EX-OR gate and OR gate
c) EX-OR gate and AND gate
d) Four NAND gates
*SLRUM199*
SLR-UM 199
-3-
9) A device which converts BCD to Seven Segment is called

a) Encoder
b) Decoder
c) Multiplexer
d) Demultiplexer
10) The full adder logic circuit will have
a) Two inputs and one output
b) Three inputs and three outputs
c) Two inputs and two outputs
d) Three inputs and two outputs
11) What is the number of inputs, outputs of a decoder that accepts 64 different
input combination ?
b) 6
a) 5
c) 64
d) 8
12) A device which converts BCD to seven segments is called _____________
b) decoder
a) encoder
c) multiplexer
d) none of these
13) Multiplexer is represented by
a) 2n 1
c) n 2n
b) 2n n
d) 1 2n
14) IC 74151 is works as ____________

a) Encoder
b) Decoder
c) Multiplexer
d) Demultiplexer
15) A memory in which the present contents must be erased before the new
information can be stored in
b) PROM
a) ROM
c) EAROM
d) RAM
16) The memory has 16-bit address bus. The numbers of location in this
memory are
b) 32
a) 16
c) 1024
d) 65536
SLR-UM 199
-4-
*SLRUM199*
17) The data bus width of a memory is size 2048 8 bits is

a) 8
b) 10
c) 11
d) 16
18) In an Entity statement, BUFFER is an example of
a) Signal type
b) Signal port
c) Signal mode
d) Concurrent statement
19) In a VHDL code, statements that are placed inside a/an _____________ are
executed sequentially.
a) Entity
b) Library
c) Process
d) None of these
20) Which of the following is not a VHDL data object ?
a) Signal
b) Wire
c) Constant
d) Variable
______________________
*SLRUM199*
-5-
SLR-UM
199
SLR-UM
199
Seat
No.
S.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four questions.
(45=20)
a) Simplify the following expression into sum of products using Karnaugh map
F(A, B, C, D) = m (0, 3, 5, 6, 9, 10, 12, 15).
b) Minimize the following logic function using K-maps and realize using gates.
F(A, B, C, D) = m( 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 13) + d(3, 11).
c) What is a full-adder ? Explain a full-adder with the help of truth-table and
logic diagram.
d) Explain 4-bit even parity checker and its operation.
e) Explain the applications of Shift register.
3. Attempt any two questions.
(210=20)
a) Explain the working of Asynchronous counter with suitable diagram and truth
table.
b) Distinguish between combinational logic circuits and sequential logic circuits.
How are the design requirements of combinational circuits specified ?
c) Explain the working of BCD-to-7 Segment Decoder.
SLR-UM 199
-6-
*SLRUM199*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four.
20
a) Explain the sequence of operation for writing a word in particular memory

location.
b) Explain the concept of multiplexer tree.
c) Implement full substractor using Demultiplexer.
d) Explain about expansion of word capacity.
e) Write a VHDL code for 1:2 demultiplexer.
5. Attempt any two.
20
a) What is decoder ? Explain decoder for 7 segment display using IC7447.

b) Draw the write cycle waveforms and explain the timing characteristics of
write cycle.
c) Explain VHDL data objects along with syntax and example.
___________________
SLR-UM 2
*SLRUM2*
Seat
No.
Set A
BASIC MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Use black ink ball pen only.

2) All questions carry one mark each.
Marks : 20
1. Water turbine generates

a) Mechanical Energy
b) Electrical Energy
c) Magnetic Energy
d) None of above
2. A surge tank is used to
a) Increase pressure energy of water
b) Increase kinetic energy of water
c) Prevent water hammer effect
d) None of above
3. For an impulse turbine which of the following statement is correct ?
a) It makes use of draft tube
b) It is not exposed to atmosphere
c) It is most suited for low heat installation
d) It operates with complete conversion of pressure head to velocity head
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 2
-2-
*SLRUM2*
4. A control volume refers to

a) A fixed region in space
b) A specified mass
c) An isolated system
d) Reversible process on
5. Multistage compressors are used to
a) Increase volume flow
b) Increase gas pressure
c) Increase velocity of gas
d) None of above
6. A compressor is used in
a) Gas turbine power plant
b) Refrigeration system
c) For spray painting application
d) All of above
7. Change in internal energy and change in enthalpy is zero in
a) Isochoric process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isothermal process
d) Adiabatic process
8. Heat transfer during polytropic process is given by

a) ( n) / 1 Work done
b) ( n) / + 1 Work done
c) (n ) / 1 Work done
d) ( 1) / n 1 Work done
9. A refrigerant should have
a) High specific heat
b) High specific volume
c) High latent heat
d) High boiling point

Set A
*SLRUM2*
-3-
SLR-UM 2
10. In VCRS, the condition of refrigerant entering in the expansion valve is

a) Wet vapours
b) Dry vapours
c) High pressure saturated liquid
d) Low pressure saturated liquid
11. For same rpm, number of power strokes obtained in a two stroke cycle engine as
compared to four stroke cycle engine is
a) equal
b) three times
c) half
d) double
12. Drives which are used to transmit power from one shaft to another shaft at
medium distance
a) coupling
b) gears
c) chain drive
d) none
13. In a gear train consisting of 6 gears, the motion of first driver and last follower
will be in the
a) same direction
b) opposite direction
c) not necessary
d) none
14. For transmitting power in the same direction from driver pulley to driven, we can
use
a) crossed belt drive
b) open belt drive
c) both of these
d) none of these
15. Resistance to scratch or abrasion is called as

a) toughness
b) ductility
c) malleability
d) hardness
16. Factor of safety is defined as

a) minimum/maximum stress
b) maximum stress/minimum stress
c) minimum stress/allowable stress
d) maximum stress/allowable or working stress
Set A
SLR-UM 2
-4-
*SLRUM2*
17. The power/weight ratio of diesel engine as compared to petrol engine is

a) less
b) more
c) equal
d) none
18. Otto cycle is also known as

a) constant pressure cycle
b) constant volume cycle
c) constant temperature cycle
19. Method of joining two work piece made of two dissimilar material above 450C is
called
a) welding
b) brazing
c) soldering
d) none
20. Drilling of work piece can be carried out by

a) lathe
b) drilling machine
c) both
d) none
_______________
Set A
*SLRUM2*
-5-
SLR-UM 2
Descriptive Questions
Duration : 2 Hours 30 Minutes
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Q. 1 and Q. 3 are short answer type questions.
Q. 2 and Q. 4 are long answer type questions.
Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
Make suitable assumptions if necessary and mention them
clearly.
SECTION I
1. Answer any five of the following.
(54=20)
a) Explain types of thermodynamic systems and give example of each.

b) State and explain steady flow energy equation.
c) Derive an expression of work done and internal energy for isothermal process.
d) Draw neat sketch of window air conditioner. How it differ from split air
conditioner ?
e) State applications of pumps and compressors.
f) Compare BWR and PWR.
g) Explain in brief working of double acting reciprocating pump.
2. Answer any three of the following.
20
a) Explain with neat sketch the working of PWR.
b) Explain the working of centrifugal pump with the help of neat sketch. What is
priming ?
c) 0.5 kg air is compressed adiabatically from 160 KPa pressure and 60C
temperature to 0.8 Mpa pressure. It is then expanded at constant pressure
to reach its original volume. Find the gross heat transfer and work transfer.
Assume CP = 1.005 and CV = 0.71 KJ/Kg K.
7
Set A
SLR-UM 2
*SLRUM2*
-6-
d) Air at 100 kPa and 280K is compressed steadily to 600 kPa and 400K. The
mass flow rate of air is 0.02 kg/s and heat loss of 16 kJ/kg takes place
during the process. Calculate necessary power input to the compressor.
Assume enthalpy of air at inlet and exit as 280 kJ/kg and 400 kJ/kg
respectively.
e) A closed system undergoes a thermodynamic cycle consisting of

4 processes. The following data gives the work and heat transfer for each of
the process.
Process
Heat transfer in
KJ/min
Work transfer in
KJ/min
1 2
Nil
10000
2 3
10000
Nil
3 4
2000
14000
4 1
6000
2000
Show that the data is consistent with First law of thermodynamics and
determine
i) Net rate of work output
ii) Efficiency of cycle
iii) Change in internal energy.
SECTION II
3. Answer any 5 of the following.
20
a) Write short note on Slip and creep of belt.

b) Differentiate between belt drive and chain drive.
c) Enlist different operations carried out on lathe machine. Explain in brief facing
operation.
d) Explain with neat sketch Oxy-acetylene gas welding.
e) Write the difference between two stroke and four stroke engine.
f) With a neat sketch, explain working of a two stroke petrol engine.
g) Write a note on aesthetic considerations in design.
Set A
*SLRUM2*
-7-
SLR-UM 2
4. Answer any 3 of the following.
20
a) Two pulley one 450 mm diameter and other 250 mm diameter are on parallel
shaft are 2.5 meter apart are connected by cross belt drive. Find length of
belt required and angle of contact between belt and pulley. What power can
be transmitted when larger pulley rotates at 200 rpm, if maximum permissible
tension is 1.5 kN and coefficient of friction between belt and pulley is 0.28 ?
b) An engine working on otto cycle has a compression ratio of 9. Compression

begins at 1 bar and 300 K. The heat supplied is 1900 kJ/kg. Determine thermal
efficiency of cycle and work done per cycle for fuel supply of 3 kg/cycle.
c) Explain step by step design procedure for a mechanical component.
d) Explain with neat sketch brazing process. State its advantages, limitations
and application.
________________
Set A
Code No.
SLR-UM 20
*SLRUM20*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------S.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

STRUCTURAL MECHANICS I (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions : i) Figures to right indicate full marks.

ii) Write appropriate option in the box provided infront of each
question.
Marks : 20
1. 1) The stress at which elongation of a material is quite large as compared to the

increase in load is known as
a) Ultimate point
b) Yield point
c) Elastic limit
d) Rupture point
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 20
*SLRUM20*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) The ratio of lateral strain to linear strain is known as

a) Modulas of rigidity
b) Elastic limit
c) Poissons ratio
d) Modulas of elasticity
3) The modulas of eleasticity in terms of bulk modulas is given by

a) 3K/(1 + 2V)
b) 3K (1 + 2V)
c) 3K/(1 2V)
d) 3K (1 2V)
4) The maximum eccentricity of a load on a circular section to have same

type of stress is
a) one-eighth of diameter
b) one-sixth of diameter
c) one-fourth of diameter
d) one-third of diameter
5) The maximum stress intensity at the base of a square column of area A and
side b subjected to load W at an eccentricity e is equal to
a)
W 2e
1 +
A
b
b)
W 4e
1
A
b
c)
W 6e
1 +
b
A
d)
W 8e
1 +
b
A
6) Maximum bending moment in a contilever carrying a point load at the free

end occurs at the
a) Free end
b) Mid-span
c) Fixed end
d) none of above
*SLRUM20*
SLR-UM 20
-3-
7) Variation of bending moment in a Contilever carrying a load the intensity of

which varies uniformly from zero at the free end to W per unit run at the
fixed end is by
a) cubic law
b) parabolic law
c) linear law
d) none of these
8) The point of contraflexure lies where
a) Shear force changes sign

b) Shear force is zero
c) Bending moment is zero or changes sign
d) Bending moment is maximum
9) Neutral axis in beams carries ______________ bending stress.
a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) None of above
10) In a transversally loaded beam, the maximum compressive stress occurs

at the
a) TOP edge
b) Bottom edge
c) Neutral axis
d) None of above
11) Shear stress at any point across a cross section of rectangular beam is
inversely proportional to
a) Shear force
b) Cross sectional area
c) Moment of Inertia
d) Length of beam
12) Shear stress is maximum at
a) Extreme fibres
b) Neutral axis
c) Halfway between N.A. and extreme fibre
d) Anywhere
13) The strain at the common surface of a composite beam is
a) same
b) different
c) maximum
d) minimum
SLR-UM 20
*SLRUM20*
-4-
14) Polar moment of inertia of a solid circular shaft of diameter D is equal to

D3
a)
32
D4
b)
32
D3
c)
64
D4
d)
64
15) A hollow shaft of the same cross sectional area as that of a solid shaft can
a) Resist less torque
b) Resist more torque
c) Resist equal torque
d) Resist double torque
16) For a solid shaft, strain energy due to torsion is given by

2
volume
a)
4
c)
volume
b)
4c
2
volume
d) All of the above
17) The maximum strain energy stored in a body is known as

a) Proof resilience
b) Resilience
c) Modulus of resilience
d) All above
18) A cylindrical vessel is assumed as thin if its internal diameter to wall thickness
ratio is
a) less than 20
b) equal to 20
c) more than 20
d) more than 50
19) The stress due to suddenly applied load as compared to the stress due to the
same load gradually applied is
a) half
b) same
c) double
d) three times
20) Winding strong steel wire under tension on the walls of the cylinders, reduces
a) Circumferential stress
b) Lingitudinal stress
c) Any of the above

_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM20*
SLR-UM 20
Seat
No.

STRUCTURAL MECHANICS I (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : i) In Section I question 2 is compulsory. Solve any two of

remaining.
ii) In Section II solve any three questions.
iv) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(44=16)
a) Give assumptions made in theory of simple bending.

b) Explain the term moment of resistance.
c) Explain stress-strain curve for mild steel with all significant points.
d) Conditions to avoid tension in the masonry of the dam at its base.
e) Explain significance of point of contra flexure with suitable sketch.
8m
6m
5m
3. Three wires of the same material and cross section supports a rigid bar which
further supports a weight of 5kN. The length of the wires is 5m, 8m and 6m in
order. The spacing between the wires is 2m and the weight acts at 1.6 m from
the first wire. Determine the load carried by each wire.
12
SLR-UM 20
-6-
*SLRUM20*
4. A 14 meter long simply supported beam is as shown in fig. It carries a load of 12

kN applied through a bracket and also a uniformly distributed load for 8m of
length from right end. Beam over hangs at right end. Draw S.F.D. and B.M.D.
12
5. A masonry trapezoidal dam 4m high, 1m wide at its top and 3m wide at its bottom
retains water on its vertical face. Determine the maximum and minimum stresses
at the base :
i) When the reservoir is full
ii) When the reservoir is empty.
Take weight of water as 10 kN/m3 and that of masonry as 24 kN/m3.
12
SECTION II
6. a) A simply supported wooden beam of span 1.3m having a cross section 150 mm
wide by 250 mm deep carries a point load W at the centre.
The permissible stress are 7 N/mm2 in bending and 1N/mm2 in shearing.
Calculate safe load W.
W
2
10
W
2
b) Draw shear stress distribution diagram for :

i) Circular Section
ii) Rectangular Section
Show important stresses.
*SLRUM20*
-7-
SLR-UM 20
7. a) A flitched beam consists of a wooden joist 200 mm wide and 400 mm deep
strengthened by a steel plate 12mm thick and 400mm deep on either side of
the joist. If the maximum stress in the wooden joist is 7N/mm2, find the
corresponding maximum stress attained in steel. Find also the moment of
resistance of the complete section.
10
Take E for steel = 2105 N/mm2and for wood = 1 104 N/mm2
b) Explain the term : Equivalent section.
8. A solid cylindrical shaft is to transmit 300 kW power at 100 r.p.m.

i) If the shear stress is not to exceed 80 N/mm2, find its diameter.
ii) What percent saving in weight would be obtained if this shaft is replaced by a
hollow one whose internal diameter equals to 0.6 of the external diameter,
the length, the material and maximum shear stress being the same ?
13
9. a) A beam of cross section 100 mm 200 mm and span 6 m is subjected to
uniformly distributed load of 50 N/m for the whole span. Find the strain energy
10
stored due to bending if modulus of elasticity is 2 105 N/mm2.
b) Define the terms : Proof resilience and modules of resilience.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 200
*SLRUM200*
Seat
No.

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2014

COMPUTER GRAPHICS (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instruction : All questions are compulsory.

Marks : 20
20
1) Reflection about line Y = X is T =

a)
c)
1 0
0
0 1
1 0
b)
0 1
1 0
d) None of above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 200
-2-
DO
*SLRUM200*
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2) Which of the following are transformation ?

a) Translation
b) Shearing
c) Rotation
d) All of above
3) Edge fill algo for each scan line intersecting a polygon edge at
(X 1 Y 1 ) complement all pixels whose midpoints lie to the
___________ of (X1 Y1).
a) Left
b) Right
c) Both side
d) None of above
4) A simple seed fill algo. for boundary defined region can be developed
using a ___________
a) Queue
b) Array
c) Stack
d) All of the above
5) In Bresenhams algo. error term is initialized to ___________

a) Zero
b) One
c) 1/2
d) None of above
6) Touch Panels are ___________ in nature.

a) Electrical
b) Optical
c) Acoustic
d) All of the above
7) To accomplish rotation about an arbitrary point, firstly arbitrary point

has to be
a) Translated to the centre
b) Rotated by given angle
c) a) and then b)
d) b) and then a)
*SLRUM200*
-3-
SLR-UM 200
8) Run length encoding specifies only the number of successive pixels

on a given scan line with a given
a) Intensity
b) Length
c) Both
d) None
9) The transformation of object which results in distortion of shape of

object is ___________
a) Translation
c) Shearing
10) Reflection matrix
b) Rotation
0 1
1 0
d) Reflection
is used for
a) Y = X
b) Y = X
c) X = 0
d) Y = 0
11) Z-buffer algorithm was originally proposed by

a) Wornock
b) Catmull
c) Boehn
d) Jacobson
12) Z-buffer algorithm basically use.

a) Object space method
b) Image space method
c) Global space method
13) A window defines

a) What is to be viewed
b) Where is to be viewed
c) How is to be viewed
14) Cohen-Sutherland algorithm divides our 2D-space into

a) 8 parts
b) 9 parts
c) 10 parts
d) 12 parts
15) An outcode is another name for

a) Region code
b) Postal code
c) Pin code
d) None of above
SLR-UM 200
-4-
*SLRUM200*
16) Which of the following cannot be exactly represented with a bezill

curve
a) Circle
b) Square
c) Rectangle
d) None of above
17) Depth adjacent areas on a surface have same or similar depth.

a) Face coherence
b) Depth coherence
c) Frane coherence
d) Edge coherence
18) Multimedia is
a) Text + video + sound
b) Text + video + sound + graphics + Animation
c) Text + animation
d) Video + sound
19) Bitonal images have ___________ intensity values.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) None
20) The process of distortion of information due to low frequency sampling

or under sampling is called as ___________
a) Sampling
b) Aliasing
c) Antialising
d) None of above
_____________________
*SLRUM200*
-5-
SLR-UM 200
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
(54=20)
A) Explain different applications of computer graphics.

B) Explain Random scan display.
C) Write note on color CRT monitors.
D) Explain 2D reflection with example.
E) Write note on combined transformations.
F) Explain 2D translation with example.
3. Explain following polygon filling algos.
10
i) Edge fill
ii) Edge flag
iii) Seed fill.
4. Explain all 3D transformations in detail.
OR
What is error term ? Write and explain generalized Bresenhams line drawing
algo. Plot intermediate points for a line from (3, 2) to (3, 1).
10
SLR-UM 200
-6-
*SLRUM200*
SECTION II
5. Attempt any four (each carries 5 marks) :
20
1) Describe posting and unposting of segment with an example.

2) Describe curve representation in detail.
3) Write a note on halftoning ?
4) Briefly explain the steps used in Cohen-Sutherland line clipping algorithm.
5) Explain Bezier curve in detail.
6) Write note on image and applications.
6. Write note on multimedia.
10
OR
What is segment ? Explain segmented display files in detail with all its functions.
7. Explain in detail about Wornock algorithm ? Also draw the flow chart and quad
free data structure used in Wornock algorithm.
_______________
10
SLR-UM 201
Code No.
S
*SLRUM201*
S
N
&
p
a
Instructions : 1) Que. No. 1 is compulsory and it should be completed in

first 30 minutes.
4) Use of nonprogrammable calculator is allowed.
1. Tick the correct alternatives :
Marks : 20
1) A waiting customer leaves the queue due to impatience is called

a) priorities
b) reneging
c) jockeying
d) balking
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 201
*SLRUM201*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) While solving an assignment problem an activity is assigned to a resource

with zero opportunity cost because the objective is to
a) reduce the cost of assignment to zero
b) minimize total cost of an assignment
c) reduce the cost of that particular assignment to minimum
d) none of these
3) The method of solving assignment problem is called
b) Reduced matrix method
a) MODI method
c) Hungarian method
d) None of these
4) If x denote the binomial variate, the mean of the distribution is given by
a)
p
b)
x
c)
x
d) none of these
p
5) In Poisson distribution p (x = 2) = p (x = 3) then p (x = 4) is

b) 3
a) 0.168
c) 0.186
d) none of these
6) A necessary and sufficient condition for a basic feasible solution for
minimization LPP to be optimum (for all j)
b) zj cj 0
a) zj cj 0
c) zj cj = 0
d) zj cj < 0
7) In order to convert type constraints to = type, we need to add _________

variable on L.H.S. of the inequality
b) decision
a) slack
c) surplus
d) none of these
*SLRUM201*
SLR-UM 201
-3-
8) The dummy source or destination in a transportation problem is added to

a) satisfy rim conditions
b) prevent solutions from being degenerate
c) ensure that cost does not exceed a limit
d) none of these
9) The number of non-negative variables in a basic feasible solution to a
m n transportation problem is
b) mn
a) m + n
c) m + n 1
d) m + n + 1
!
10) If
is probability density function then the value of k is ________________

b)
a) 4
"
c)
d) 2

11) For the fuzzy set

A(x) =
0
B(x) =
then
5
is
*
c)
b)
a)
d) None of these
12) Which of the following is true ?
a)
c)
b)
d)
SLR-UM 201
*SLRUM201*
-4-
13) The fuzzy cardinality of fuzzy set A is defined as
where
is an element of
a) normal set
c) subnormal set

)
b) index set
d) none of these
14) The height of fuzzy set is less than one then that set is called
b) normal set
a) index set
c) subnormal set
d) none of these
a)
b)
B
c)
d)
16) Let A, B
a)
c)
F (x), then for

the set
]
b)
d)
is equal to
17) A fuzzy set A defined on X is the crisp set that contains all the elements
of X, that have membership grade one in A is
a) Core
b) Boundary
c) Support
d) None of these
18) If A is a fuzzy set defined on universal set X. Let x X such that
then x is called as
A (x) =
a) special point
b) middle point
c) point of intersection
d) equilibrium point
19) The scalar cardinality of set
a) 2.543
c) 3.534
x
N
{0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} is
b) 3.543
d) 3.453
20) The number of arrivals n in time t follows the Poisson distribution

is given by

n
a)
(

(
c)

n
d)
e
b)
e
______________________
*SLRUM201*
-5-
SLR-UM 201
S.E. (Part II) (CSE) Examination, 2014

APPLIED MATHEMATICS II (Old)
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. a) Customers arrive at one-window drive according to a Poisson distribution with
mean of 10 min and service time per customer is exponential with mean of 6
minutes. The space in front of the window can accommodate only three vehicles
including the serviced one, other vehicles have wait outside the space.
Calculate :
i) Probability that an arriving customer can drive directly to the space in

front of window.
ii) Probability that an arriving customer will have to wait outside the directed
space.
iii) How long is an arriving customer expected to wait before starting service ?
b) Maximize z = 3x1 + 5x2 + 4x3
subject to 2x1 + 3x2
2x2 + 5x3
8
10
5x1 + 2x2 + 4x3

x1, x2, x3
0.
15
SLR-UM 201
*SLRUM201*
-6-
3. a) Out of 320 families with 5 children each, find expected no. of families having
0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 boys, assuming boys and girls are equally likely.
b) Monthly salaries of 1000 workers have a normal distribution with mean

Rs. 575 and a std. deviation is of Rs. 75. Find the no. of workers having
salaries between Rs. 500 and Rs. 625 per month. Also find the minimum
salary of highest paid 200 workers.
(Given : Area between t = 0 to t = 1 is 0.3413 area between t = 0 to t = 0.67 is

0.2486 area between t = 0 to t = 0.84 is 0.3).
c) It is one in 1000 that an article is defective. There are in a box of 100 articles
of this type assuming Poisson distribution. Find the prob. that box contain
one or more defective article.
4. a) Solve the following assignment problem :
I
II
III
IV
11
10
10
3
6
b) Obtain initial basic feasible solution for the following transportation problem
using
i) North-west corner method
ii) Lowest cost entry method and comment on the result.

D1
D2
D3
D4
Supply
O1
27
23
31
69
150
O2
10
45
40
32
40
O3
30
54
35
57
80
Demand 90
70
50
60
270
5. a) Customers arrive at a box office window being managed by a single individual

according to Poisson input process with a mean rate of 20 per hour. The time
required to serve a customer has an exponential distribution with a mean of
90 seconds. Find the average waiting time of a customer. Also determine the
average number of customer in the system and average queue length.
*SLRUM201*
-7-
SLR-UM 201
b) The sales manager has to assign 4 salesman to 4 different places the possible
profit for each sales-man at every place is given below.
I
II
III
IV
35
27
28
37
28
37
29
40
Salesman C
35
24
32
33
24
32
25
28
Find assignment that maximizes the profit.

SECTION II
6. a) Define -cuts and strong
between them ?
-cuts in fuzzy set theory. What is difference

b) Let A and B are fuzzy sets defined on universal set X = Z (set of integers) as
0
9
2
A function F : X X
X is defined as f (x1, x2) = 2x1 + x2.

7. a) Calculate MIN (A, B) and MAX (A, B) where

x
A
B(x) = x 3
'
3<x
4<x
otherwise
SLR-UM 201
*SLRUM201*
-8-
b) Find S(B, A) where A and B are fuzzy sets as
{0, 1, 2, ..., 10}.

8. a) Prove that the set F(x) forms Demorgans algebra with standard fuzzy operation
but not a boolean algebra.
b) Order the following fuzzy sets defined by following membership functions

assuming x 0 by the inclusion relation.
,

N

9. a) Find fuzzy numbers (A + B) and (A B) where the fuzzy numbers A and B are
given as
N
"
"
=0
N
otherwise
=0
otherwise
b) Explain fuzzy system.
4
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
202
*SLRUM202*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------S.E. (Comp. Sci. and Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014
FORMAL SYSTEMS AND AUTOMATA (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Solve all questions.

Marks : 20
1. Select the correct alternative :

20
1) Consider the regular language L = {111 + 11111}*. The minimum number of
states in any DFA accepting the language is _______________
a) 3
b) 5
c) 8
d) 9
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 202
*SLRUM202*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The value of 13 +33 + 53 + ...... + (2n 1)3 is

b) n (n + 1) (2n + 1)/6
a) n (n + 1) (n + 2)/6
c) n (n + 1) (2n + 2)/6
d) n (n + 1) (n + 2)/3
3) Which of the following regular expression all possible combinations over
alphabet {a, b} ?
b) (a | b)*
a) a* b*
c) (a b)*
d) (a | b*)
4) The grammar with the productions A AB , AB BC , b a is called
a) Context sensitive
b) Semi-thur grammar
c) Context free grammar
d) Regular grammar
5) Consider S SS | a . What is the number of different derivation trees for
aaaaa ?
b) 5
a) 3
c) 7
d) 14
6) The regular expression (a + b) (a + b) denotes the set
b) {a, b, ba, bb}
a) {a, b, ab, aa}
c) {a, b}
d) {aa, ab, ba, bb}
7) Language is accepted by FA iff it is _______________
b) Context sensitive
a) Context free
c) Recursive
d) Right linear
8) Following Finite Automata accepts the language ______________
a) (a + b)* (a + b)
b) (a + b)* a
c) (a + b)*
d) a* b
*SLRUM202*
SLR-UM 202
-3-
9) The value of 2 + 4 + 6 + ... + 2n is

a) n (n + 1)
b) n (n 1)
c) n
d) n2
10) Consider the CFG with productions - A AB AB BC BC CD CD a

The language L generated by CFG is said to be _______________
a) Type 0
b) Type 1
c) Type 2
d) Type 3
11) Regarding the power of recognition of languages, which of the following

statement is false ?
a) The NDFA are equivalent to DFA
b) NPDA are equivalent to DPDA
c) NDTM are equivalent to DTMs
d) Multitape TMs are equivalent to single tape TMs
12) A single tape TM M has two states q0 and q1, of which q0 is the starting state.
The tape alphabet of M is (0, 1, b} and input alphabet is {0, 1}. The symbol b is
blank symbol used to indicate end of input string. The transition function of M
is described in the following table :
0
q0
(q1, 1, R)
(q1, 1, R)
Halt
q1
(q1, 1, R)
(q0, 1, L)
(q0, b, L)
Which of the following statements is true ?

a) M does not halt on any string (0 + 1)+
b) M does not halt on any string (00 + 1)*
c) M halts on all strings ending in a 0
d) M halts on all strings ending in a 1
13) Which one of the following is not decidable ?
a) Given a TM M, a string S and an integer K, M accepts S with in K steps
b) Equivalence of two given TMs
c) Language accepted by a given FSM is non-empty
d) Language generated by a CFG is not empty
SLR-UM 202
*SLRUM202*
-4-
14) Which of the following is the strongest correct statement about a finite language
over some finite alphabet E ?
a) It could be undecidable
b) It is TM recognizable
c) It is a regular language
15) The language accepted by a PDA in which the stack is limited to 10 items is
best described as,
a) Context free
b) Regular
c) Deterministic context free
d) Recursive
16) Let L denote the language generated by the grammar S OSO / 00

which of the following is true ?
a) L = 0+
b) L is regular but not 0+
c) L is context free but not regular
d) L is not context free
17) The following CFG
S aB / bA A a / aS / bAA B b / bS / aBB
Generate the string of terminals that have
a) Equal no. of as and bs
b) Odd no. of as and odd no. of bs
c) Even no. of as and even no. of bs
d) Odd no. of as and even bs
18) Choose the correct statements
a) The power of DFSM and NDFSM are same
b) The power of DFSM and NDFSM are different
c) The power of DPDM and NDPDM are different
d) The power of DPDM and NDPDM are same
19) Choose the correct statements
a) All languages can be generated by CFG
b) Any regular language has an equivalent CFG
c) Some non-regular languages cant be generated by any CFG
d) Some regular languages cant be generated by any CFG
20) The statement A TM cannot solve halting problem is,
a) True
b) False
c) Still an open question

__________________
*SLRUM202*
-5-
SLR-UM 202
Seat
No.
S.E. (Comp. Sci. and Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
a) Prove that 102n 1 is divisible by 11 for all n 0.
b) For CFG with the productions
(45=20)
S S + T | T , T T F | F , F (s) | a derive CFG by eliminating unit

productions.
c) Give the applications of Finite Automata (any 5).

d) Draw Finite Automata that accepts language of strings ending with 101.
e) Define for NFA- ^. Explain how to calculate ^ closure of state with
example.
3. Solve any one :
a) Show that the grammar -
10
S A |B
A aAb | ab
B abB | ^
is ambiguous.
Find the CFG with unambiguous grammar.
b) Convert the following NFA-^ in to FA :
^
SLR-UM 202
*SLRUM202*
-6-
4. Find minimum state Finite Automata for the following given Finite Automata.
Explain stepwise.
10
SECTION II
5. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Explain the concept of PDA with an illustration.

b) State and prove pumping Lemma for CFLs.
c) Prove that L = {an bn cn | n 1} is not CFL.
d) Describe the basic model of Turing machines.
e) What is bottom up parsing ? Explain with suitable example.
f) How do TMs with infinite tape works ?
6. Design a TM that computes the function F (x) = x + 1 for each x N.
10
OR
Explain UTM. Encode the following TM.
10
7. State the variations that can be developed in basic TM.

________________
10
Code No. SLR-UM
203
*SLRUM203*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2014

MICROPROCESSORS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Multiple choice questions. Each carry 1 mark.
20
1) Which of the following information holds the information before going to the
decoder ?
a) Control register
b) Data register
c) Accumulator
d) Address register
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 203
*SLRUM203*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The bus which is used to transfer data from main memory to peripheral
device is
a) Data bus
b) Input bus
c) DMA bus
d) Output bus
3) An interrupt can be temporarily ignored by the counter is called

a) Vectored interrupt
b) Non-maskable interrupt
c) Maskable interrupt
d) Low priority interrupt
4) Binary information can be stored in a

a) Flip flop
b) Latch
c) Register
d) All of these
5) Read cycle must be followed by

a) Random access memory
b) Write cycle
c) ROM cycle
d) Any of these
6) In 8085 microprocessor, the value of the most significant bit of the

result following the execution of any arithmetic or Boolean instruction
is stored in the
a) Carry status flag
b) Auxiliary carry status flag
c) Sign status flag
d) Zero status flag
7) Number of machine cycles required for RET instruction in 8085

microprocessor is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
*SLRUM203*
-3-
SLR-UM 203
8) Which of the following addressing modes permits relocation without any change
whatsoever in the code ?
a) Indirect addressing
b) Indexed addressing
c) Base register addressing
d) PC relative addressing
9) The 8085 microprocessor responds to the presence of an interrupt

a) As soon as the TRAP pin becomes high
b) By checking the TRAP pin for high status at the end of each
instruction fetch
c) By checking the TRAP pin for high status at the end of the
execution of each instruction
d) By checking the TRAP pin for high status at regular intervals
10) Which of the following statements is true ?
a) ROM is a read/write memory
b) PC points to the last instruction that was executed
c) Stack works on the principle of LIFO
d) All instructions affect the flags
11) In case of 8259, the direction of data bus buffer is set by
a) Data bus buffer
b) Read/write logic
c) In service register
d) Interrupt request register
12) All pending interrupt requests are stored in

a) In service register
b) Priority resolver
c) Interrupt mask register
d) Interrupt request register
13) Opcode of RSTO instruction is

a) C7
b) CF
c) D7
d) DF
14) Control register of 8255 is selected if

a) CS = 0, A1 = 1, A0 = 0
b) CS = 0, A1 = 0, A0 = 1
c) CS = 1, A1 = 1, A0 = 1
d) CS = 0, A1 = 1, A0 = 1
SLR-UM 203
*SLRUM203*
-4-
15) If control word format of 8255 is 0000 0 111 = 07 H, then which bit is set ?
a) PC3
b) PC4
c) PC6
d) PC7
16) Which control word is required to initialize the 8254 for counter 2 in mode 0 ?
a) 0BH
b) 0AH
c) A0H
d) B0H
17) 8255 require

a) +10 V
b) +15 V
c) +5 V
d) +20 V
18) In instrumentation, which type of converter is used ?

a) Successive approximation A/D converter
b) Integrator type converter
c) Voltage to frequency type converter
d) Flash type converter
19) Digital to analog converter can be classified into
a) Two categories
b) Four categories
c) Five categories
d) Three categories
20) 8251 is having

a) 28 pin
b) 40 pin
c) 20 pin
d) 48 pin
__________________
*SLRUM203*
-5-
SLR-UM 203
Seat
No.
S.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Attempt any 4 :
(44=16)
a) Explain organization of a microprocessor based system with suitable diagram.

b) List and explain classification of instructions according to word size or byte
size.
c) Explain single step and single cycle execution.
d) Illustrate the interfacing of ROM of 4096 X 8 with 8085 microprocessor.
e) Write 8085 ALP to shift 16 bits of number one bit right.
3. Attempt any 3 :
(83=24)
a) Why do we need to de-multiplex AD0 AD7 ? Explain demultiplexing operation

done with the help of suitable diagram.
b) Explain timing diagram of IN instruction.
c) Explain with the example :
i) XCHG
ii) SHLD
iii) SPHL
iv) CNC.
d) Write 8085 ALP to perform delay operation of 10 ms. Show the calculations.
SLR-UM 203
-6-
*SLRUM203*
SECTION II
(44=16)
1) Differentiate maskable and non-maskable interrupts.

2) Explain four interrupt instructions.
3) List out the features of 8255.
4) Draw the block diagram of 8253.
5) Explain the concept of serial I/O.
(83=24)
1) Mention highest and lowest priority interrupt.

Mention level triggered sensitive interrupt.
Mention maskable and non maskable interrupts.
Mention the different software interrupts.
2) Explain the use of HOLD and HLDA pins for DMA transfer.
3) Interface two thumbwheel switches to port A of 8255 and display its contents
on 7 segment LED display connected to port B. Write an assembly language
program to display contents of thumbwheel switch. Use the switch position
as initial count and implement down counter. When counter reaches 0, read
the switch contents and restart the counter.
4) With the block diagram, explain successive approximation A/D converter.
________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 204
*SLRUM204*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------S.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014
DATA STRUCTURE II (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. 1) The space factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by

a) Counting the maximum memory needed by the algorithm
b) Counting the minimum memory needed by the algorithm
c) Counting the average memory needed by the algorithm
d) Counting the maximum disk space needed by the algorithm
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 204
*SLRUM204*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are

a) Processor and memory
b) Complexity and capacity
c) Time and space
d) Data and space
3) Which of the following sorting algorithm is of divide-and-conquer type ?
a) Bubble sort
b) Insertion sort
c) Quick sort
d) All of above
4) Which of the following is not a limitation of binary search algorithm ?

a) Must use a sorted array
b) Requirement of sorted array is expensive when a lot of insertion and
deletions are needed
c) There must be a mechanism to access middle element directly
d) Binary search algorithm is not efficient when the data elements
are more than 1000
5) The complexity of merge sort algorithm is
a) O(n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)

a) Sorting
b) Merging
c) Inserting
d) Traversal
*SLRUM204*
SLR-UM 204
-3-
7) Collision is caused when the same hash value is given by

a) More than one distinct keys
b) Different hash functions
c) Equal keys
d) Different locations
8) Rehashing is also called as _________________
a) Open addressing
b) Close addressing
c) Direct addressing
d) Non-linear probing
9) The post order traversal of a binary tree is DEBFCA. Find out the pre order
traversal
a) ABFCDE
b) ADBFEC
c) ABDECF
d) ABDCEF
10) To represent hierarchical relationship between elements, which data structure

is suitable ?
a) Deque
b) Priority
c) Tree
d) All of above
11) A graph which contains a cycle is called

a) Acyclic graph
b) Bi connected graph
c) Cycle graph
12) A tree in which all leaves arrive at same level is called

a) B tree
b) B+ Tree
c) Both a) and b)
13) _____________ is used for computer representation of a graph.

a) Adjacency matrix
b) Adjacency list
c) Both a) and b)
14) A balance factor is associated with every node in

a) B-Tree
b) B+ Tree
c) AVL tree
d) All the above
SLR-UM 204
*SLRUM204*
-4-
15) The depth first traversal of the following graph is
a) 0 1 2 4 5 3
b) 0 1 2 5 4 3
c) 0 1 2 5 4 1
d) Both a) and b)
16) Dijkstras algorithm is a
a) Single source and all destination shortest path algorithm
b) All pairs shortest path algorithm
c) Both a) and b)
17) B-Tree is
a) Binary tree
b) Balanced binary tree
c) Balanced multiway tree
d) None of these
18) When first and last nodes of the path are same, such a path is known as
a) Open path
b) Closed path
c) Critical path
19) An undirected graph contains the edges equal to

a) n(n 1) 2
b) n(n 1)
c) n/2
d) n(n + 1) 2
20) A balance factor is associated with every node in

a) B-Tree
b) B+ Tree
c) AVL Tree
d) Binary Tree
______________________
*SLRUM204*
-5-
SLR-UM
204
SLR-UM
204
Seat
No.
S.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

DATA STRUCTURE II (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Give short answer to following questions (any 4) :
20
A) What is time complexity and space complexity ? Explain with example.

B) Explain in short analysis and compression of insertion sort, deletion sort.
C) Give comparison of open addressing and chaining.
D) Explain with neat example Binary Search Trees and its application.
E) What is Omega Notation ? What it represents ? Explain with example.
F) Sort the following list of numbers using Quick sort in ascending order.
12, 56, 8, 37, 99, 14, 46, 6, 29, 16 (show steps).
3. Write short note on :
10
A) Collision Resolution with open addressing.

B) Insertion in a Threaded Tree.
4. Explain with example Heap sort and asymptotic analysis of this sorting
technique.
10
OR
4. Explain with suitable example linked implementation of Binary Trees.
10
SLR-UM 204
-6-
*SLRUM204*
SECTION II
20
1) Define AVL tree and explain the concept of Balance factor.

2) Define the following terminologies of graph with examples.
a) Directed graph
b) DAG
c) Complete graph
d) Spanning tree
e) Order of graph.
3) Explain B+ tree with example.
4) List the properties of B tree.
5) Explain topological sorting of directed graph with example.
6. Answer any one :
10
1) Define graph and explain its computer representation methods.

2) Explain types of Rotation in AVL tree and show the insertion of following
elements in AVL tree.
Tuesday, Monday, Thursday, Saturday, Sunday, Friday, Wednesday.
7. Write C functions for implementation of traversal techniques in graph.
_____________________
10
Code No. SLR-UM
205
*SLRUM205*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2014

COMPUTER NETWORK I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions :1) Q. 1 is of objective type and must be submitted in first

30 minutes.
Marks : 20
20
1) Unguided media, are also called as ____________

A) None guided
B) Wireless
C) Connectionless
D) Connection-oriented
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 205
*SLRUM205*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) ________________ is the maximum value or strength of the signal over time.

A) Peak amplitude
B) Frequency
C) Phase
D) Hertz
3) ________________ noise is generated from a variety of causes, including

external electromagnetic disturbances such as lighting and faults or flows in
the communication system
A) Thermal
B) Cross talk
C) Impulse
D) White
4) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is used in ________________layer of TCP/IP

protocol.
A) Transport
B) Internet
C) Application
D) Host-to-network
5) The ________________ defines which primitive operations and services the

lower layer offer to the upper layer.
A) Interface
B) Protocol stack
C) Network
D) Physical medium
*SLRUM205*
SLR-UM 205
-3-
6) In a 53-byts of ATM cell, header is of ________________bytes long.

A) 48
B) 5
C) 8
D) 16
7) DLL provides________________ connectionless service to its upper layer.

A) Unacknowledged
B) Acknowledged
C) Both A) and B)
D) None of above
8) Which of the following is invalid generator for CRC ?

A) 1001
B) 1100
C) 111
D) 1111
9) After receiving error frame, all next correct frames are buffered by DLL in
_______________
A) Go back n
B) Selective repeat
C) Stop-and wait
D) None of above
10) Which of the following is a function of DLL ?

A) Framing
B) Error control
C) Flow control
D) All
11) Which of the following protocol is collision free protocol ?

A) Slotted ALOHA
B) CSMA/CD
C) Bit-Map
D) None
12) Encryption and decryption are the function of _______________ layer.

A) Application
B) Presentation
C) Transport
D) Session
13) MAC address is of _______________bits.

A) 32
B) 64
C) 48
D) 6
SLR-UM 205
*SLRUM205*
-4-
14) Distance vector is _______________ type of algorithm.

A) Static
B) Dynamic
C) Link
D) None
15) _______________is mapping in which physical address is found for a given

logical address.
A) RARP
B) ICMP
C) ARP
D) SMTP
16) Preamble field of IEEE Std 802.3 contains a bit pattern.

A) 11001100
B) 10101010
C) 11110000
D) 00001111
17) The IP address 128.5.20.30 is of _______________ class.

A) B
B) C
C) D
D) None
18) OSPF stands for_______________

A) Objective System Path First
B) Open Shortest Path First
C) Open Shortest Program First
D) None
19) _______________ is used between autonomous system for routing.
A) BGP
B) OSPF
C) RIP
D) CSMA
20) Shortest path routing is _______________ type of algorithm.

A) Static
B) Dynamic
C) Both A) and B)
D) None
*SLRUM205*
-5-
SLR-UM 205
Seat
No.
S.E. (CSE) (Part - II) Examination, 2014

COMPUTER NETWORK- I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
20
a) Describe Time-domain concept.

b) Draw encoding diagram of NRZ L and Bipolar AMI for data 1010111001.
c) Write a note on WAN.
d) Describe TCP/IP protocol.
e) Explain an unrestricted simplex protocol.
f) Find values of check bits using Hamming code for data : 10101111.
3. Describe Co-axial cable with the help of its physical description. Applications
and transmission characteristics.
10
OR
Describe ATM reference model in detail.
4. Describe following sliding window protocols :
i) A one bit sliding window protocol
ii) A protocol using Go back n.
10
10
SLR-UM 205
-6-
*SLRUM205*
SECTION II
5. Solve any four (each carries 5 marks).
20
a) Explain multiple access protocol with ALOHA.

b) Describe IEEE Std 802.4 with frame format.
c) Explain shortest path routing algorithm.
d) Explain choke packet congestion control algorithm.
e) Describe BGP in detail.
6. What is Bridge ? Explain different types of bridges.
10
OR
What is adaptive and non-adaptive routing ? Explain hierarchical routing in detail. 10
7. What is IP protocol ? Explain with header format.
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 206
*SLRUM206*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------S.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2014

APPLIED MATHEMATICS II (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N. B. : 1) Question No. 1 is compulsory.

2) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
Marks : 20
1. Tick (9) the correct alternative (one mark each) :

20
1) The generalised Newtons-Raphson iterative formula to obtain multiple root of
the equation f(x) = 0 is
f (x n )
f (x n )
a) xn+1 = x n + m
b) xn+1 = x n m f (x )
f (x n )
n
c) xn+1 = x n m
f (x n )
f (x n )

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 206
*SLRUM206*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) This method is known as method of Chord

a) Regula-Falsi method
b) Bisection method
c) N-R method
d) Mullers method
3) Using Bisection method, a second approximation to the root of equation
x3 4x 9 = 0 between 2 and 3 is
a) 2.7
b) 2.75
c) 2.25
d) 2.5
1
4) The Eigen values for the matrix
1
a) 1 i
c) 1 2i
2
are
3
b) 4, 2
d) 2 i
5) In Newton-cotes formula, if f(x) is interpolated at equally spaced nodes

by a polynomial of degree 2 then it represents
a) Trapezoidal rule
3
c) Simpsons
8
1
b) Simpsons
3
rd
rule
th
rule
d) Weddles rule
6) In solving simultaneous linear equations which method reduces the

coefficient matrix to a diagonal matrix ?
a) Gauss-Jordan
b) Jacobis
c) Gauss-Elimination
d) Crouts
*SLRUM206*
SLR-UM 206
-3-
7) Which of the following is Gaussian 3 point formula ?

5
8 3 8 3
+ f
+
f
f
(
0
)
a) I = 9
9 5 9 5
b) I =
8
5 3
3
+ f
f(0) + f
9
9 5
5
c) I =
8
5 3
3
+ f
f(0) + f
9
9 5
5
d) I =
3
5
8 3
+ f
f(0) + f
9
9 5
5
8) Error in Weddles rule is of the order

a) h2
b) h7
c) h
d) h4
9) The use of Rombergs method is ____________

a) To solve simultaneous linear equations
b) To find root of the equation
c) To evaluate definite integration
d) To find eigen values
10) For the given data :
x
0.5
0.8
0.5
The value of I = y dx by trapezoidal rule is

0
a) 0.275
b) 0.575
c) 0.755
d) 0.775
11) Extension principle is used for

a) Converting fuzzy set to crisp set
b) Identifying fuzzy number
c) Generalising crisp set to fuzzy-set
d) Finding fuzzy cardinality
12) The scalar cardinality of the set A(x) = 1
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
x
, x {0, 1, 2, 3, 4} is
10
d) 4
SLR-UM 206
-4-
*SLRUM206*
13) If , then consider the two statements

i) A A and
ii) + A + A , , (0, 1]
a) only (i) holds
b) only (ii) holds
c) both (i) and (ii) hold
d) neither (i) nor (ii) hold
14) The solution of fuzzy equation AX = B exists if cut of X is subset
of -cut of X and the 2nd condition is
b1 b 2
b1 b2
a)
b)
a1 a 2
a1 a 2
b b2
c) 1 =
d) none
a1 a2
2
, x { 0.2, 0.5, 0.8, 1} the equilibrium point is
4X
a) 0.5
b) 0.8
c) 1
d) does not exist
16) Consider the fuzzy set D(x) = e|x|.x R then the level set of the fuzzy set
D(x) is the interval
a) [1, 1]
b) (0, 1)
c) [0, 1]
d) (0, 1]
15) For the fuzzy set A(X) =
17) For any fuzzy set A on universal set X strong 1-cut of A is

a) X
b) empty set
c) 0
d) (0, )
18) Consider the fuzzy proposition P : Vis Fis S representing Tina is
young is very true is
a) conditional and qualified
b) conditional and unqualified
c) unconditional and qualified
d) unconditional and unqualified
19) The crisp rule p q is called
p
q
a) modus tollens
c) disjunction
b) modus ponens
d) disjunctive syllogism
20) Support of A is the set of all those elements of X which have

a) zero membership grade in A
b) non-zero membership grade in A
c) membership grade greater than 0 in A
d) none
______________________
*SLRUM206*
SLR-UM
206
SLR-UM
206
-5-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Find the positive real root of the equation 4x3 2x 6 = 0 correct to three
decimal places by using Bisection method. (perform 6 iterations).
b) Use Mullers method to find an approximate root of the equation
x3 x 1 = 0. (perform 1 iteration).
c) Determine the largest eigen value and the corresponding eigen vector of the
0
1
2
2
1 by using power method.
matrix A = 1
0
2
1
3. a) Perform two iterations of the Newton-Raphson method to solve non-linear
equations x2 + y = 11 and y2 x = 7 starting with initial conditions as x0 = 3.5,
y0 = 1.8.
b) Solve the system of equations by LU decomposition method
10x + y + z = 12
2x + 10y + z = 13
2x + 2y + 10z = 14.
1. 2
4. a) Use Rombergs method to evaluate
dx
by taking h = 0.6, 0.3, 0.15.
1+ x
4
4
7
6
2dx
.
2
x
+
3
1
c) Find the positive real root of the equation 3x = cos x + 1 correct to 3 decimal
places by using N-R method.
b) Using Gaussian quadrature two-point formula evaluate
3
4
SLR-UM 206
55
5. a) Apply Trapezoidal rule to evaluate
11
b) Evaluate
*SLRUM206*
-6-
dx dy
x2 + y2
taking h = k = 2.
rd
cos d taking n = 6 using Simpsons 1

3 and Simpsons
th
3
rule.
8
c) Using Gauss-Seidal method solve the set of linear equations.
20x + y 2z = 17
3x + 20y z = 18
2x 3y + 20z = 25.
6
4
OR
c) Using Gauss Elimination method. Solve the set of linear equations
2x + y + z = 10, 3x + 2y + 3z = 18, x + 4y + 9z = 16.
SECTION II
6. a) Find -cuts and strong -cuts for the following fuzzy sets for = 0.2, 0.5
and 1 where A(x) = 1
x
; B(x) = 3x; x [0, 10].
10
b) Calculate the following fuzzy operations on the intervals.

i) [1, 2] + [1, 3]
ii) [2, 4] [3, 6]
iii) [1, 1] . [2, 0.5]
iv) [4, 10] / [1, 2].
c) Illustrate the concept of fuzziness and fuzzy sets. Define (i) support of a
fuzzy set (ii) concept of height of fuzzy set.
7. a) Write down the conditions for a fuzzy set to qualify as a fuzzy number.
Determine which of the following functions are fuzzy numbers.
sin( x)
i) A(x) =
0
x
B(x) =
0
for 0 x
otherwise
for 0 x 1
otherwise
min(1, x )
C(x) =
0
for x 0
otherwise
*SLRUM206*
SLR-UM 206
-7-
b) Calculate fuzzy numbers A B and B A with the membership functions as

( x 1) 3
A(x) = (7 x ) 3
0
0
B(x) = ( x 7 ) 3
(13 x )
13
for
1< x 4
for
4<x7
x>7
,x 1
for
x 7, x > 13
for
7 < x 10
for
10 < x 13.
8. a) Explain in your words (i) unconditional and unqualified (ii) unconditional and
qualified fuzzy proposition and their role.
b) Calculate the standard composition of two binary fuzzy relations given in the
form of matrix of their membership functions such that R = A B.
0.3
A= 0
0.4
0.5
0.7
0.6
0.8
1 B=
0.5
0.9
0.3
0.5
0.7
0.2
0.5
0.7
0.9 .
0.5
c) Solve the fuzzy equation A + X = B where A and B are the following

triangular-shape fuzzy numbers
0
A(x) = x 3
5 x
0
x 12
B(x) =
18
32 x
12
for
x 3, x > 5
for
3<x4
for
4<x5
for
x 12, x 32
for
12 < x 20
for
20 < x 32 .
SLR-UM 206
-8-
*SLRUM206*
9. a) Let X = {4, 3, 2, 1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4}
Y = {0, 1, 4, 9, 16}
Let A be the fuzzy set defined on X such that
0.6
1
0.4 0.45 0.75 0.81 0.34 1 0.17
and f : x y
+
+
+
+
+
+
+ +
4 3 2
1
0
1
2
3
4
defined by f(x) = x2, find f(A).
A=
x 4
b) Consider A( x) = 6 x
0
( x 10) / 10
B(x ) = (35 x ) / 15
for
4<x5
for
5<x6
otherwise
for
10 < x 20
for
20 < x 35
otherwise
Calculate the fuzzy number (A B) (x).
OR
b) Explain the concept of fuzzy quantifiers and their types.
c) Plot the graphs of fuzzy sets A, B and C defined by A(x) = 2x B(x) =
C(x) =
1
; x {1, 2, 3,...., 10 }.
1 + 10( x 2)2
_____________________
5
x
x+ 2
Code No.
SLR-UM 207
*SLRUM207*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------S.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

THEORY OF COMPUTATION (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Multiple choice questions. Choose the correct answer to the following questions :
1) The regular expression for the given FA is
a) a*b(ab)*
c) (a+b)*a*b
b) a*b(a+b)*
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 207
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM207*
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) The grammar for the given FA is (Consider q0 as S, q1 as A and q2 as B)
a) S->aS |bA, A->bA|aB, B-> aB |bB

b) S->aS |bA, A-> bA|aB, B->aB
c) S-> aS |bA, A->bA|aB, B->aB | bB |
d) S-> aS, A-> bA|aB, B->aB | bB |
3) The language of all string ending with 100 over alphabet {1, 0} is represented
by the regular expression
a) 100 (1 + 0)*
b) (1 + 0)* 100
c) (1 + 0)* 100(1 + 0)*
d) (10)* 100(10)*
4) Which of the following production are in Chomsky Normal form ?
a) S->B, S->a
b) S->AB, S->a
c) S->AB
d) S->aB, S->a
*SLRUM207*
-3-
SLR-UM 207
5) The procedure to convert CFG to CNF consist of

a) Eliminating null production
b) Eliminating unit production
c) Eliminating useless variable
d) All of above
6) The CFG S aSa |bSb|a|b is equivalent to regular expression
a) Even Palindrome
b) Odd Palindrome
c) String containing equal number of as and bs
d) None
7) Which of the following grammar is/are ambiguous grammar ?
a) E E + E |E E| (E)| id
b) E E + T|T
T T*F|F
F (E)| id
c) S iEtS | iEtSeS|b
d) Both a) and c)
8) If R1 and R2 are regular expressions then which of these are regular
expression
i) R1 + R2
ii) R*R2
iii) R1*
iv) R1.R2
a) i), ii), iii)
b) i), ii), iv)
c) i), iii), iv)
d) ii), iii), iv)
SLR-UM 207
-4-
*SLRUM207*
9) Suppose M1 = (Q1, , q1, A1, 1) and M2 = (Q2, , q2, A2, 2) accept the
language L1 and L2 respectively. Let M = (Q, , q, A, ). Which of the following
languages will be accepted by M ?
i) L1 L 2
ii) L1 L2
iii) L1 L2
iv) L1 + L2
a) i), ii), iii)
b) i), ii), iv)
c) i), iii), iv)
d) ii), iii), iv)
10) Consider the grammar S-> ASB | , A->aAS|a, B->SbS|A|bb
After eliminating unit productions from above grammar, the resultant grammar
will be
a) S-> ASB|AB, A->aAS|aA|a, B->SbS |A|bb
b) S->ASB|AB, A->aAS|aA|a, B->SbS|Sb|bS|b|aAS|aA|a|bb
c) S-> ASB AB , A->aAS|aA|a, B->SbS|Sb|bS|b|A|bb

d) None
11) Which of the following languages over {a, b, c} is accepted by a DPDA ?
a) {wcwR | w { a, b} *}
b) {wwR | w {a, b, c } *}
c) anbncn | n 0
d) {w|w is a palindrome over {a, b, c}}
*SLRUM207*
-5-
SLR-UM 207
12) What is the language accepted by the following PDA ?

(q0,1, Z0) = {(q0, XZ0)}
(q0, , Z0) = {(q0, )}
(q0,1, X) = {(q0, XX)}
(q1,1, X ) = {(q1, )}
(q0,0, X ) = {(q1, X)}
(q1,0, Z0) = {(q0, Z0)}
a) {0n10n1|n>1}
b) {1n01n|n>1}
c) {1n01n0|n>1}
d) {1n01n01n|n>1}
13) If L1 and L2 are context free languages and R is a regular set, one of the
languages below is not necessarily a context-free language. Which one ?
a) L1 L2
b) L1 L2
c) L1 R
d) L1 L 2
14) The set {anbn|n = 1, 2, 3, ...} can be generated by the CFG.
a) S ab|aSb
b) S aaSbb|ab
c) S ab aSb
d) S aaSbb|ab|aabb
SLR-UM 207
-6-
*SLRUM207*
15) Any string of terminals that can by generated by the following CFG.
S XY
X aX|bX|a
Y Ya|Yb|a
a) Has at least one b
b) Should end in a a
c) Has no consecutive as or bs
d) Has at least two as
16) Consider the following grammar productions
S AB
A BB|a
B AB|a
a) aabbb can be derived from the above grammar
b) aabb can be derived from the above grammar
c) ababab can be derived from the above grammar
d) aaabb can be derived from the above grammar
17) TM is more powerful than FA because
a) Tape movement is confined to one direction
b) It has not finite state control
c) It has the capability to remember arbitrary long sequences of input
symbols
18) Pick the correct answers : Universal TM influenced the concept of
a) Stored program computers
b) Interpretive implementation of programming languages
c) Computability
*SLRUM207*
SLR-UM 207
-7-
19) A single tape TM M has two states q0 and q1, of which q0 is the starting
state. The tape alphabet of M is {0, 1, B} and its input alphabet is {0, 1}. The
symbol B is the blank symbol used to indicate end of an input string. The
transition function of M is described in the following table.
States
* q0
(q1, 1 R)
(q1, 1, R)
Halt
q1
(q1, 1, R)
(q0, 1, L)
( q0, B,L)
(* indicates final state)

Which of the following statements is true about M ?
a) M does not halt on any string in (0 + 1)*
b) M does not halt on any string (00 + 1)*
c) M halts on all strings ending in a 0
d) M halts on all strings ending in a 1
20) The number of internal states of a UTM should be at least
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
_____________________
*SLRUM207*
-9-
SLR-UM 207
Seat
No.

THEORY OF COMPUTATION (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Using subset construction algorithm, draw an finite automata accepting the

same language.
b) Write Context Free Grammar generating the language L = { aib jck | j = i + k } .

c) Write regular expression for the following language over = (a, b) .
i) The language of all strings in which the number of as is multiple of 5.
ii) The language of all strings of odd length.
iii) The language of all strings that starts with ab and ends with aa.
iv) The language of all strings that starts and ends with same character.
v) The language of all strings which start with a and has odd length or start
with b and has even length.
d) In the following grammar, what is the language generated by the Context
Free Language
a) S->SaS |b
b) S->aS |bS|a.
SLR-UM 207
-10-
*SLRUM207*
e) Eliminate null production and unit production from the following grammar
S->ABA, A-> aA | , B-> bB |
f) Construct finite automata equivalent to the following regular sets using Kleens
Thm (Use stepwise procedure) b + (a + bb)b*a.
3. Let M1 and M2 be finite automata pictured in the following diagram recognizing L1
and L2 respectively
10
M1 :
M2 :
Draw finite automata recognizing the language L1 L 2, L1 L 2 and L1 L2.

OR
3. Convert NFA to FA for the following diagram.
10
4. Prove that if L1 and L2 are Context Free Languages then the language L1 L 2 ,
10
L1 L2 and L1 L2 are also Context Free Language.
*SLRUM207*
SLR-UM 207
-11-
SECTION II
5. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Construct a PDA accepting the set of all even length palindromes over {a, b}.
b) Construct a TM to accept the set of all strings over {0, 1} ending with 010.
c) Show that 0i1i | i 1 is not regular.

d) Write a short note on multitape TM.
e) State and explain non-deterministic TM.
f) State and explain pumping lemma for regular languages.
6. State and explain pumping lemma for CFLs. Show that L = {anbnc n | n 1} is not
context free.
10
OR
6. Consider the Turing machine M described by the transition table given in following
table. Describe the processing (a) 011, (b) 0011, (c) 001 using IDs. Which of the
above strings are accepted by M ?
Present
State
q1
Tape Symbols
0
(q2,x,R)
(q5,b,R)
q2
(q2,0,R) (q3,y,L)
q3
(q4,0,L)
(q5,x,R) (q3,y,L)
q4
(q4,0,L)
(q1,x,R)
q5
(q2,y,R)
(q5,y,R)
(q6,b,R)
*q6
(* indicates final state)

7. Show that the power of variants of TM is equivalent to the standard TM.
1) Equivalence of single tape TM with multi tape TM.
2) Equivalence of two way infinite tape with one way infinite tape.
3) Equivalence of single tape TM with multihead TM.
4) Equivalence of TM with stay option with single tape TM.
_____________________
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 208
*SLRUM208*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------S.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014
MICROPROCESSOR (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20

1) LDA is a _______________ byte instruction.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 208
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM208*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The predefined location of RST 7.5 is _______________

a) 0024 H
b) 002C H
c) 0034 H
d) 003C H
3) 8085 Microprocessor provides _______________ bytes of memory.

a) 64 K
b) 64 M
c) 128 M
d) None
4) _______________ is an output signal, used to give information of AD0 AD7

contents.
a) IO/M
b) ALE
c) S1 and S0
d) None
5) The maximum clock frequency is _______________

a) 3 MHz
b) 3 KHz
c) 3 GHz
d) None
6) The register in the 8085 A that is used to keep track of the memory
address of the next op-code to be run in the program is the
a) stack pointer
b) program counter
c) instruction pointer
d) accumulator
*SLRUM208*
-3-
SLR-UM 208
7) Which bus is a bidirectional bus ?

a) address bus
b) data bus
c) address bus and data bus
8) The 8085 microprocessor has _______________ number of flag register.
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 5
9) Which one of the following is data transfer operation ?

a) ADD B
b) SUB B
c) CMA
d) MOV A,B
10) Ready pin of a microprocessor is used

a) to indicate that the microprocessor is ready to receive inputs
b) to indicate that the microprocessor is ready to receive outputs
c) to introduce wait states
d) to provide direct memory access
11) Software interrupt is
a) Synchronous event
b) Asynchronous event
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
12) Which one of the following is DMA controller IC ?

a) 8253
b) 8257
c) 8251
d) 8255
13) Vector location of Trap interrupt is

a) 0024 H
b) 002C H
c) 0034 H
d) 003C H
14) What is the bit position of SFNM is ICW4 of 8259A ?

a) D4
b) D4
c) D0
d) D1
SLR-UM 208
-4-
15) Which is not interrupt logic control instruction ?

a) EI
b) INTR
c) DI
d) RIM
16) ISR address of RST6.5 interrupt is

a) 0034 H
b) 0024 H
c) 002C H
d) 003C H
17) HOLD and HLDA are of the following types of signal

a) RESET signal
b) Serial I/O signal
c) DMA signal
d) Status signal
18) One of the following interrupt is non-vectored interrupt

a) Trap
b) RST 7.5
c) RST 6.5
d) INTR
19) How many flags are there in 8086 ?

a) 9
b) 8
c) 10
d) 7
20) Which IC is used for USART ?

a) 8279
b) 8255
c) 8251
d) 8253
______________________
*SLRUM208*
*SLRUM208*
-5-
SLR-UM
208
SLR-UM
208
Seat
No.

MICROPROCESSOR (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Answer the following :
(44=16)
a) Draw the timing diagram for execution of instruction MVI A, 30H.

b) Write a program to add 2 numbers stored at memory address 4000 H and
4001 H. The sum should be stored at 4002 H.
c) Explain the following instruction of 8085.
1) RET
2) SIM
d) Explain the addressing modes of 8085 microprocessor.
(83=24)
a) Explain the working of following instruction of 8085

1) PUSH B
2) SPHL
3) PCHL
4) LDAX B.
b) Explain the classification of the instruction set of 8085 microprocessor with
suitable examples.
c) Draw and explain timing diagram of 80 H.
d) Draw the pin diagram of Intel 8085 and explain the various pins of 8085.
SLR-UM 208
-6-
*SLRUM208*
SECTION II
(44=16)
a) Explain ICW4 of 8259 PIC.

b) Write a short note on DMA transfer.
c) What is BSR mode ? Write a program to set D7 bit of port C.
d) State the features of 80386.
e) Differentiate between software interrupts and hardware interrupts.
(83=24)
a) Explain interrupt control logic instructions EI, DI, RIM and SIM.
b) Draw and explain block diagram of 8251 USART.
c) Draw and explain control word format of 8255 of I/O mode and BSR mode.
d) Draw internal architecture of 8086 and explain in brief.
_____________________
SLR-UM 209
Code No.
S
*SLRUM209*
&
_
_

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) Stack can be implemented using _____________ and ______________

a) Queue and Graph
b) Array and Graph
c) Tree and Linked List
d) Array and Linked List

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 209
*SLRUM209*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The result of evaluating the postfix expression 123* + 4 is

a) 6
b) 3
c) 10
d) 7
3) If the characters D, C, B, A are placed in a queue (in that order), then

removed one at a time, in what order will they be removed ?
a) ABCD
b) ABDC
c) DCAB
d) DCBA
4) A _______________ queue is a queue in which the element next

to the last element is the first element.
a) Dequeue
b) Circular
c) Linked List
d) Heap
5) Which of the following operations is performed more efficiently by doubly

linked list than by singly linked list ?
a) Deleting a node whose location is given
b) Searching of an unsorted list for a given item
c) Inserting a new node after node whose location is given
d) All above
6) Which of the following operations is not efficiently supported by a
singly-linked list ?
a) accessing the element in the current position
b) insertion after the current position
c) insertion before the current position
d) all above
*SLRUM209*
SLR-UM 209
-3-
7) A full binary tree with n leaves contains

a) n nodes
b) log n nodes
c) 2n-1 nodes
d) 2n nodes
8) In _____________ tree, all the null pointers are replaced by their

corresponding threads that point back to their inorder successor in the
binary tree.
a) Binary Tree
b) B-Tree
c) Bs-Tree
d) Binary Threaded
9) In _______________ Tree, all the null pointers are replaced by special

nodes then resulting tree is called as
a) Binary Tree
b) Extended Binary Tree
c) B+ Tree
d) Full Binary Tree
10) A binary search tree in which the nodes have been inserted in
following order :
25, 15, 35, 10, 20, 30, 40. Which of the following is the result of a
preorder traversal of the original tree ?
a) 25 10 15 20 30 35 40
b) 25 15 10 20 35 30 40
c) 10 15 20 25 30 35 40
d) 40 35 30 25 20 15 10
11) How does a Binary Search Tree grow ?

a) at its root
b) at its leaves
c) at both root as well as leaves
d) none of these
12) Binary tree which holds the maximum number of nodes at each and
every level is called as
a) almost complete binary tree
b) full tree
c) strict binary tree
d) complete binary tree
13) Maximum possible height of an AVL tree with 7 nodes is
a) 5
b) 4
c) 2
d) 3 and

SLR-UM 209
*SLRUM209*
-4-
14) Data structure used for Depth First Traversal is

a) stack
b) link list
c) queue
d) tree
15) Graph in which every nodes is a adjacent to same number of nodes is

called as
a) adjacency graph
b) regular graph
c) connected graph
d) sub graph
16) If number nodes in a graph are n, then numbers of edges in a complete

undirected graph are
a) n (n 1)/2
b) n (n 1)
c) n (n 2)/2
d) n (n 2)
17) Which of the following traversal technique lists the nodes of a binary
tree in ascending order ?
a) postorder
b) inorder
c) preorder
d) none
18) In ________________, the heights of two child subtree of any node differ
by at most one.
a) Binary tree
b) B+ tree
c) B tree
d) AVL tree
19) If unbalanced occurred to due to insertion in the left subtree of a right

child of a node in an AVL tree, then to rebalance it ________________
rotation is required.
a) LR
b) RR
c) RL
d) LL
20) In a B Tree of order n

S1 : All leaf nodes are at the same level
S2 : All data is stored at leaves and internal nodes guides searching
S3 : All internal nodes have at most n non empty children and at least
n/2 non-empty children
a) all are true
b) only S1 is true
c) only S1 and S3 are true

d) only S2 and S3 are true
______________________
*SLRUM209*
-5-
SLR-UM 209

DATA STRUCTURES (New)
Day and Date :Tuesday, 3-6-2014
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Answer following questions (any four) :
(45=20)
a) Explain stack with its operations.

b) Write a C function to insert a node in priority queue.
c) Explain doubly linked list with its insertion operation.
d) Create a Binary Search Tree from following keys :
50, 30, 60, 38, 35, 55, 22, 59, 94.
e) Write a short note on Red Black Tree.
3. Solve any one :
a) Define Binary tree. Suppose the following sequences list the nodes of a binary
tree T in preorder and inorder, respectively.
10
Preorder : G, B, Q, A, C, K, F, P, D, E, R, H
Inorder :
Q, B, K, C, F, A, G, P, E, D, H, R
Create the diagram of tree and also write its postorder.

b) Write a C program for evaluation of postfix expressions.
10
4. Write a C program to implement insertion operation of Singly Linked List as follows :

a) insertion after a given node
b) insertion before a given node.
10
SLR-UM 209
-6-
*SLRUM209*
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) List the properties of B tree of order M. What is the advantage of B tree over
multiway tree ?
b) For the following sequence of keys construct B-Tree and of order 3 with
stepwise explanation.
20, 30, 35, 85,10, 55, 60, 25.
c) Write an algorithm for Breadth First Search Traversal. Find BFS traversal for
the following graph starting with node 1 :
d) Define AVL Tree. Discuss LL and RR rotations.

e) Write a short note on Topological sorting of a graph with example.
6. Define following terminologies with example :
i) Complete graph
ii) Acyclic graph
iii) Strongly connected graph.
Write a program to represent a given graph using adjacency matrix representation. 10
OR
Discuss different cases of deletion of a node in Binary Search Tree with examples.
7. Show different stages during the building of AVL tree for the following sequence
of keys :
A, Z, B, Y, C, X, D, E, V, F, M, R
In each case show the balance factor of all nodes and name the type of rotation
used for balancing.
10
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 21
Seat
No.
*SLRUM21*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

SURVEYING I (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N. B. : 1) Q. 1 is compulsory. (Multiple Choice Question).

2) Q. 2 from Section I and Q. 6 from Section II are
compulsory.
3) Solve any two remaining questions from Section I
and Section II.
Marks : 20
1. 1) The operation of levelling from any Bm to the starting point of any project is
known as
a) Longitudinal levelling
b) Fly levelling
c) Continuous levelling
d) Check levelling
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 21
-2-
DO
*SLRUM21*
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2) By arithmatical check, we can ensure the accuracy of
a) Field work
b) Calculation
c) Both field work and calculation
d) None of above
3) The sensitiveness of the bubble tube is directly related to
a) The length of bubble tube

b) The radius of curvature of the bubble tube
c) The cross section of the bubble tube
d) All the above
4) Sounding means determining
a) Level of sound
b) Depth of point below water
c) Width of river
d) Length of river
5) To eliminate collimation error, the levelling instrument must be placed
a) Near BS
b) Near FS
c) At the IS
d) Exactly midway between BS and FS
6) For which of the following permanent adjustment of a theodolite the
spire test is used.
a) Adjustments of plate levels
b) Adjustments of line of sight
c) Horizontal axis perpendicular to vertical axis
d) Adjustment of altitude bubble
*SLRUM21*
SLR-UM 21
-3-
7) The principle of reversal states that the apparent error is

a) Equal to actual error
b) Double the actual error
c) Half the actual error
d) Four times the actual error
8) In a corrected theodolite traverse the summation of
a) included angle = (2n 4) 90

b) latitude = 0
c) departure = 0
d) All the above
9) Fine adjustment in theodolite is done by
a) Focussing screw
b) Tangent screw
c) Clamp screw
d) All the above
10) For improved accuracy the included angle is measured by

a) Reiteration method
b) Repetition method
c) Deflection angle method
d) All above
11) The area of an oblique triangle ABC of base b and perpendicular

height h is
a)
b)
c)
1
bh
2
s(s a) (s b) (s c ) where s =
a+b+c
2
1
bc sinA
2
d) All the above

12) One hectare of an area is equivalent to
a) 102m2
b) 104m2
c) 106m2
d) 109m2
13) Volume of earthwork can be calculated by

a) Mid ordinates
b) Average ordinates
c) Prismoidal rule
d) Hunds rule
SLR-UM 21
*SLRUM21*
-4-
14) Match List I will List II and select the correct answer using codes
given below lists
List I
List II
A) Contour
B) Line of collimation
1) Line joining magnetic north and south

2) Line joining subsidiary stations on the main line
C) Tie line
3) Line joining points of same elevation
D) Magnetic meridian
4) Line joining optical centre of the objective lens

with point of intersection of crosswires
Codes :
A
a)
b)
c)
d)
15) The through compass in plane table survey is used for obtaining
a) Centering
b) Levelling
c) Orientation
d) All the above
16) To locate the position of an inaccessible point the method used is

a) Resection
b) Radiation
c) Intersection
d) None of these
17) In the total station survey, determining the height of inaccessible

points is known as
a) REM
b) Stake out
c) File management
d) Freestationing
18) Following is not the type of EDM.
a) Microwave
b) Infrared
c) Xray
d) Visible light
_____________________
*SLRUM21*
-5-
SLR-UM 21
Seat
No.

SURVEYING I (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 80
N. B. : 1) Q. 2 from Section I and Q. 6 from Section II are

compulsory.
2) Solve any two remaining questions from Section I
and Section II.
SECTION I
2. a) A dumpy level was setup exactly midway between two pegs A and B 80 m
apart. The readings on the staff when held on the pegs A and B were 1.865
and 1.780 respectively. The instrument was then moved and setup at C on
the line BA produced and 16 m from A. The respective staff readings on A and
B were 1.620 and 1.550. Calculate the staff readings on A and B to give the
horizontal line of sight.
b) Explain the principle of balancing back sight and fore sight.
3. a) Following are the lengths and bearing of a traverse ABCDEA.
Line
Length in meter
Bearing
AB
229.00
19859
BC
131.35
28214
CD
80.00
32013
DE
199.25
3513
Calculate the length and bearing of the line EA which could not be surveyed
due to obstruction in the way.
b) Describe the process of measuring the magnetic bearing of a survey line by
theodolite.
SLR-UM 21
*SLRUM21*
-6-
4. a) Calculate latitude, departures and closing error for the following traverse.
Line Length(m)
W.C.B.
AB
89.31
4510
BC
219.76
7205
CD
151.18
161 52
DE
159.10
22843
EA
232.26
300 42
b) Write short note on (any one) :
1) Trigonometric levelling
2) Sounding
3) Abney level.
5. a) The following notes refer to the reciprocal levels taken with one level.
Instrument
station
Staff reading on
A
Remarks
1.03
1.630
0.95
1.540
Distance AB = 800 m
RL of A = 400 m
Find :
i) The true RL of B
ii) Combined correction for curvature and refraction
iii) The error in collimation adjustment of the instrument.
b) Define sensitiveness. How it is expressed ? What are the factors affecting
sensitiveness of the bubble tube ?
*SLRUM21*
-7-
SLR-UM 21
SECTION II
6. a) One month after the completion of a plane table survey. It is detected that one
important object was not plotted. How will you plot the object on going to the
field ? Explain any one method in detail.
b) What are the disadvantages in plane table surveying ?
8
6
7. a) The following particulars were noted while measuring the area of a figure with
a planimeter.
i) IR = 8.652 FR = 6.798 C = 20.
ii) Natural scale used to set the tracing arm.
iii) The zero of the dial passed the index mark once in the anticlockwise
direction.
iv) Scale of the map is 1 cm = 10 m.
v) The anchor point was inside the fig.
Calculate area of the figure on map and ground.
b) Write in detail applications of contour map.
8. a) Explain temporary adjustment of total station.
b) Explain properties of electromagnetic waves.
9. a) While deciding the contour interval which factors do you consider. How does
it relate to the contour interval.
b) Make a note on :
i) Trapezoidal rule in area calculation.
ii) Advantages of total station over conventional survey instruments.
_______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 210
*SLRUM210*
Seat
No.

Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S. E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2014

DATA COMMUNICATION (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. For a correct/most appropriate answer to a MCQ tick mark(9) in [ ] at right side. 20

1) ______________ guided transmission medium is suitable for long distance
communication.
A) Twisted pair
] B) Fiber optic
C) Co-axial cable
] D) None of above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 210
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM210*
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) _________ is referred as white noise.

A) Thermal noise
] B) Impulse noise
C) Intermodulation
] D) Crosstalk
3) The ATM cells are __________ bytes long.

A) 64
] B) 128
C) 32
] D) 53
4) A set of layers and protocols is called as ___________

A) Protocol
] B) Services
C) Interface
] D) Network architecture
5) ___________ converts analog signal into digital signal.

A) Modem
] B) Digital transreceiver
C) Codec
] D) None of above
6) In __________ receiving station temporarily delays acknowledgement so that

acknowledgement can be hooked onto the next outgoing data frame for source
station.
A) Pipelining
] B) Framing
C) Piggybacking
] D) All above
7) When sender transmit frames faster than receiver can accept frames then
there is a need of ____________
A) Framing
] B) Error control
C) Flow control
] D) None of above
*SLRUM210*
-3-
SLR-UM 210
8) __________ signals represent data with continuously varying electromagnetic

wave.
A) Analog
] B) Hybrid
C) Digital
] D) None of above
A) Synchronization
B) Node-to-node packet delivery
C) None of above
D) Process-to-process communication
9) Which of the following is the main function of transport layer ?
10) An n-bit unit containing data and check bits is called as ________
A) Word
] B) Codeword
C) Checksum
] D) Parity
11) LANs can be connected by a device called _________ which operate in the
data link layer.
A) Repeater
] B) Router
C) Bridge
] D) Gateway
12) Which of the following protocols is collision-free protocol ?

A) Binary countdown
] B) Pure ALOHA
C) CSMA/CD
] D) CSMA
13) In IEEE 802.4 LAN standard stations logically operate in ___________

A) Bus
] B) Mesh
C) Ring
] D) Star
14) ________ routing algorithms change their routing decisions to reflect changes
in the topology or traffic.
A) Static
] B) Adaptive
C) Non-adaptive
] D) None of the above
15) _________ packets are the warning packets to reduce transmission rate and
traffic
A) Datagram
] B) Warning
C) Choke
] D) VC
SLR-UM 210
-4-
*SLRUM210*
16) __________ is used when router cannot handle congestion.

A) Jitter
] B) Chock packet
C) Load shedding
] D) Flooding
17) For outgoing traffic NAT box converts private IP address to companys public
IP address ___________
A) True
] B) Cant say
C) False
] D) None of the above
18) IPv4 address is ______________ bit long.

A) 64
] B) 128
C) 32
] D) 48
19) In _________ class IP address 16 bits used for host id.

A) A
] B) B
C) C
] D) D
20) Same IP address can be assigned to two nodes on the same LAN ______
A) True
] B) False
C) Cant say
] D) None of above
______________________
*SLRUM210*
-5-
SLR-UM 210
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Write answer to any four questions (5 marks for each question) :
20
A) Calculate capacity (C) in bps of a noise free channel whos bandwidth (B) is
3100 Hz for a signal having 8 number of discrete signals or voltage levels (M).
B) Draw NRZ-L and NRZI type digital signal encoding format for 010011 bit
stream.
C) Write a short note on uses of computer networks for business applications.
D) Draw the diagram of TCP/IP reference model and explain in short the
communication functions of each layer.
E) Describe different framing methods.
F) Write code template for unrestricted simplex protocol.
3. A) Explain in detail with suitable example hamming code method used for
correcting a single bit error.
10
OR
B) Explain in detail with suitable example CRC method used for bit error-detection. 10
4. Draw the diagram of OSI reference model and explain in detail the
communication functions of each layer.
10
SLR-UM 210
-6-
*SLRUM210*
SECTION II
5. Write answer to any four questions (5 marks for each question) :
20
A) Describe pure and slotted ALOHA type of multiple access protocols.

B) Describe 1-persistent and nonpersistent type of CSMA.
C) Describe the basic bit-map collision free protocol.
D) Describe IEEE 802.6(DQDB) standard for MAN.
E) What is flooding in a subnet ? State its advantages, applications and
disadvantages. Describe one technique for damping the packet flooding in
subnet.
F) Describe tunneling method used in internetworking.
6. A) With a suitable example of weighted, undirected graph explain the concept of

shortest path routing.
10
OR
B) Explain the concept of hierarchical routing with a suitable example of a
subnet in each five regions and routing table entries for router 1A.
10
7. What is the internet ? What is the need of IP address in the internet ? Who
allocates IP addresses to internet service provider ? Explain with formats the
different classful IP addresses. Explain with formats the special IP addresses.
10
___________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 211
Seat
No.
*SLRUM211*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Computer Sci. and Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

COMPUTER NETWORK II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

2) Q. No. 1 is objective type question and should be solved
and submitted within 30 minutes.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) The ports ranging from 1,024 to 49,151 are called __________ ports.
B) registered
A) well known
C) dynamic
D) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 211
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM211*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Which of the following functions does UDP perform ?

A) process-to-process communication
B) host-to-host communication
C) end-to-end reliable data delivery
D) none of the choices are correct
3) When the IP layer of a receiving host receives a datagram, ___________
A) Delivery is complete
B) A transport layer protocol takes over
C) A header is added
D) None of the choices are correct
4) TCP sliding windows are _________ oriented.
A) Packet
B) Segment
C) Byte
5) In TCP, the size of the send window is the _______ of rwnd and cwnd.
A) Maximum
B) Sum of
C) Minimum
6) Which of the following does UDP guarantee ?
A) Flow control
B) Connection-oriented delivery
C) Error control
D) None of the choices
*SLRUM211*
SLR-UM 211
-3-
7) In the ___________ algorithm the size of the congestion window

increases exponentially until it reaches a threshold.
A) Congestion avoidance
B) Congestion detection
C) Slow start
8) A special segment called a probe is sent by a sending TCP when the
___________ timer goes off.
A) Transmission
B) Persistence
C) Keep alive
D) None of these
9) Information in a computer is stored in _________ byte order.

A) Host
B) Network
C) Server
D) None of these
10) An interface is a set of _______________ designed to facilitate

interaction between two entities.
A) Programs
B) Instructions
C) Rules
D) None of these
11) If DHCP client and server are on different networks, there is a need for
an intermediary called a ____________
B) Primary server
A) Second client
C) Relay agent
D) None of these
12) NVT uses two sets of characters, one for ________ and one for ______
A) Sending; receiving
B) Request; reply
C) Data; control
D) None of these
13) To distinguish data from control characters, each sequence of control

characters is preceded by a special control character called _________
A) ICA
B) IAC
C) AIC
D) None of these
14) After sending the DHCPDISCOVER message, the client goes to the
______ state.
A) Selecting
B) Init
C) Requesting
D) None of these
SLR-UM 211
*SLRUM211*
-4-
15) In the __________ mode, each character typed is sent by the client to
the server.
A) Default
B) Character
C) Line
D) None of these
16) In the DNS, the names are defined in _________ structure.

B) An inverted-tree
A) A linear list
C) A graph
D) None of these
17) For control connection, FTP uses the _________ character set.
A) Regular ASCII
B) EBCDIC
C) NVT ASCII
D) None of these
18) In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define an attribute called ______
B) Data structure
A) File type
C) Transmission mode
D) None of these
19) When the sender is connected to the mail server via a LAN or a WAN,
we need only ___________
A) Two MTA
B) Two UAs and two pairs of MTAs
C) Two UAs and a pair of MTAs
D) None of these
20) ____________ is more powerful and complex than __________
A) POP3 ; IMAP4
B) IMAP4 ; POP3
C) SMTP ; POP3
D) None of these
____________
*SLRUM211*
-5-
SLR-UM 211
Seat
No.
T.E. (Computer Sci. and Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

COMPUTER NETWORK II
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

3) Draw neat and legible figures wherever required.
SECTION I
2. Answer any four from the following :
(45=20)
1) Explain what are DHCP and DHCP packet formats and operations of DHCP ?
2) Explain the concept of Connection Oriented Concurrent Server.
3) Explain three-way handshaking in TCP connection.
4) Describe DNS Query and DNS response message in detail.
5) Describe following system calls :
a) Bind
b) Accept
c) Listen
d) Connect.
3. Answer any one from the following :
(110=10)
1) What is DHCP ? What is need of it ? Explain concept of DHCP with transition

diagram.
2) Draw TCP segment format. Explain each field in detail.
(110=10)
1) What is congestion window ? Explain all congestion control policies used by

TCP.
SLR-UM 211
-6-
*SLRUM211*
SECTION II
5. Answer any four from the following :
(45=20)
1) Explain different OPTIONS provided by TELNET.

2) Explain Out Of Band Signalling and Escape characters concept of TELNET.
3) List out in detail the 3 steps of FTP.
4) Describe the following :
A) Label
B) Domain Name
C) Domain
D) Zone
E) Root Server.
5) Write a note on TFTP.
6. Answer any one from the following :
(110=10)
1) Explain the architecture of Email along with neat diagrams of all scenarios.
2) Explain all file systems of windows NT or Windows 2000.
7. Answer the following question :
1) Describe Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).
_____________________
(110=10)
Code No.
SLR-UM 212
*SLRUM212*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2014

COMPUTER ORGANIZATION
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Day & Date ____________________ _
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________ Section ________________________________________

Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination _________

______________ (Paper - _______)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Objective questions. Each question carry one mark.
20
1) Microprogramming, parallel processing was introduced in

a) First Generation
b) Second Generation
c) Third Generation
d) Fourth Generation
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 212
*SLRUM212*
-2-
DO
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
T
NO
2) The different ways that a processor can access data are referred to as
a) Memory addressing modes
b) Addressing modes
c) Instruction types
d) All of the above
3) Group of bits that tell the computer to perform specific operation is known as
a) Instruction code
b) Microoperation
c) Accumulator
d) Register
4) Von Neumann Architecture is

a) SISD
b) SIMD
c) MIMD
d) MISD
5) In a program using subroutine call instruction it is necessary to

a) Initialize the program counter
b) Clear the Accumulator
c) Reset the Microprocessor
d) Clear the Instruction Register
6) If the value V(X) of the target operand is contained in the address field itself
then X is called as
a) Direct operand
b) Indirect operand
c) Immediate operand
d) None of these
*SLRUM212*
SLR-UM 212
-3-
7) ___________ consists of memory cells that resemble the flipflop used in

processor design.
a) DRAM
b) SRAM
c) ROM
d) RAM
8) In a single precision floating point representation if the number requires an

exponent is less than 126 to represent its normalized form is called as
a) overflow
b) underflow
c) invalid
d) cant say
9) If the hit Ratio is Low an excessive amount of swapping between memory

levels occurs which is known as
a) Memory allocation
b) Thrashing
c) Memory management unit
d) None
10) If effective address is determined by the index mode using program counter
in place of the general purpose processor or register known as
a) Index mode
b) Relative mode
c) Direct mode
d) None
11) Cache serves as buffer between

a) Main and secondary memory
b) CPU and main memory
c) Both a and b
d) None
12) Memory management system of cache-main memory is implemented by

a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Both a and b
d) None
13) Processor has direct access to

a) Cache memory
b) Main memory
c) Both a and b
d) Secondary memory
14) Which memory replacement policy is very easy to implement ?

a) FIFO
b) LRU
c) OPT
d) None
SLR-UM 212
-4-
*SLRUM212*
15) The component of the K map in Cm* are

a) Map bus
b) Lin C
c) Pmap
d) All of the above
16) Which function is provided by Kmap with in the system ?

a) Address mapping
b) Communication
c) Synchronization
d) All of these
17) Two Kmaps are connected through

a) Map bus
b) Intercluster bus
c) LSI II bus
d) All of these
18) Computer module has

a) Processor and I/O
b) Local memory
c) Channel and arbiter switch
d) All of these
19) Consider two instructions i and j, with i occurring before j. If j tries to write an
operand before it is written by i. Then the type of hazard is
a) RAW
b) WAW
c) WAR
d) None
20) If hazard arises from the pipelining of branches and other instructions that
change the PC. Then the type of hazard is
a) Control hazard
b) Structural hazard
c) Data hazard
d) None
-5-
*SLRUM212*
SLR-UM 212
Seat
No.

COMPUTER ORGANIZATION
Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(45=20)
1) Write a short note on fourth generation of computer.

2) Explain IEEE standard for floating point number.
3) Explain with neat diagram 8 bit 2s complement adder subtractor.
4) Explain the working of data processing unit and control unit of control unit
design.
5) Explain with example direct and indirect addressing mode.
6) Write a short note on carry look ahead adder.
3. A) What is virtual memory and what are the advantages of virtual memory ?
B) Explain the generation of end control signal and zin control signal in detail.
10
10
OR
B) Perform 97 10 using restoring and non-restoring division algorithm.
10
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Differentiate cache-main and main-secondary memory hierarchies.

2) What are the major variables on which hit ratio depends ? Explain LRU
policy with example.
3) Explain how the speed of memory can be increased ?
SLR-UM 212
-6-
*SLRUM212*
4) Explain I/O-processor interconnection network.

5) What is hazard ? Write a note on control hazard.
6) Consider two instructions i and j, with i occurring before j. Explain the possible
data hazard.
5. A) What are the steps involved in an inter cluster memory access ?
B) How the cache execution of write operation takes place ?
10
10
OR
Explain the look aside and look through system organization for cache.
10
Code No. SLR-UM
214
*SLRUM214*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------T.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014
OPERATING SYSTEM I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

2) Q. 1 is of objective type and must submitted in first 30
minutes.
Marks : 20
20
1) Which of the following referred as loosely coupled systems ?

b) Distributed
a) Parallel
c) Both a) and b)
d) Time-sharing
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 214
*SLRUM214*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) _______________ provides an interface to the services made available

by OS.
a) Process
b) System calls
c) Cant say
d) None of above
3) Operating system can be viewed as _______________

a) Resource allocator
b) I/O operation controller
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
4) Whenever a process enters the system, first they are put on _______________
queue.
a) Job
b) Ready
c) Device
d) None of above
5) _______________ Scheduler controls the degree of multiprogramming.

a) Long-term
b) Short-term
c) Medium-term
d) None of above
6) Context-switch time is purely a overhead

a) True
b) False
c) Cant say
d) None of these
7) In _______________ communication, the messages are send to and received

from mailboxes.
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Synchronous
d) All
*SLRUM214*
SLR-UM 214
-3-
8) The time required for dispatcher to stop one process and start another running
is knows as _______________
a) Dispatch timing
b) Seek time
c) Dispatch latency
d) Disk latency
9) The No. of processes completed execution per time unit is _______________

a) CPU utilization
b) Throughput
c) Turn around time
d) All
10) Each process has a segment of code, in which the process may be changing
common variables, updating table, writing files is _______________
a) Mutual exclusion
b) Critical section
c) Synchronization
d) Exit section
11) Need matrix is given by formula

a) Need = Max Allocation
b) Need = Max + Allocation
c) Need = Max Allocation
12) Which of the page replacement algorithms suffer from Beladys anomaly ?
a) Optional Replacement
b) FIFO
c) LRU
d) Both a) and b)
13) Very high paging activity is known as

a) Demand Paging
b) Demand Segmentation
c) Thrashing
14) Page size are always powers of

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) Cant say
15) A set of resource allocation such that system can allocate resources to each
process in some order and still avoid a deadlock is called
a) Unsafe state
b) Safe state
c) Starvation
d) Greedy allocation
SLR-UM 214
*SLRUM214*
-4-
16) Thrashing
a) Reduces page I/O
b) Implies excessive page I/O
c) Decreases degree of multiprogramming
d) Improves system performance
17) Sharing is possible in
a) Paging
b) Segmentation
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above
18) The Purpose of Resource Allocation graph is

a) To represent deadlocks
b) To avoid deadlocks
c) To detect deadlocks
d) To prevent deadlocks
19) A cycle in the RAG is necessary and sufficient condition for deadlocks
in a system with
a) Single Instance Resources
b) Multiple Instance Resources
c) Two Instance Resources
d) Both a) and b)
20) Compaction is the solution for
a) Internal fragmentation
b) External Fragmentation
c) Both a) and b)
__________________
*SLRUM214*
-5-
SLR-UM 214
Seat
No.
T.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

OPERATING SYSTEM I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt the following (any four) :
20
A) Describe parallel systems in detail.

B) What is system call ? List different types of system calls.
C) Write a note on Threads.
D) Describe multi-level feedback queue scheduling.
E) Explain synchronization hardware.
F) List and explain different process scheduling criteria.
3. What is semaphores ? Explain. Provide solution of bounded buffer problem using
semaphore.
10
OR
Describe following scheduling algorithms with example. Also specify their
merits and demerits.
i) SJF
ii) RR.
4. What is process scheduler ? Describe long-term, short-term and medium-term
scheduler in detail.
10
SLR-UM 214
-6-
*SLRUM214*
SECTION II
5. Write short notes on any four :
(45=20)
a) LRU Page Replacement

b) Segmentation
c) Fragmentation
d) Mutual Exclusion
e) Thrashing and its effects on system performance.
6. Answer any one :
10
1) What is Deadlock ? Explain Deadlock Prevention.

2) Explain Memory allocation Algorithms with example.
7. Explain Bankers Algorithm in detail.
________________
10
Code No. SLR-UM 215
*SLRUM215*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------T.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2014

DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHM
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

3) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct alternatives for the following :

1) The best average behavior is given by
a) Quick sort
b) Merge sort
c) Heap sort
d) Insertion sort
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 215
*SLRUM215*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The following strategies complexity function generally is in the form of

recurrence relation.
a) Dynamic
b) Divide and conquer
c) a) and b) both
d) None of these
3) For a linear search, if maximum number of comparisons needed are n, then

for binary search number of comparisons needed are
a) n
b) 2n
c) n/2
d) log n
4) For job sequencing with deadline problem, the execution time required for job
with deadline 3 is
a) 3
b) anytime less than 3
c) 1
d) 2
5) Average no. of comparisons in sequential search is

a) n2
c)
n(n + 1)
2
b)
d)
n(n 1)
2
(n + 1)
2
6) The time required to search element in list of length n is

a) 0(logn)
b) 0(n)
c) 0(1)
d) 0(n2)
*SLRUM215*
SLR-UM 215
-3-
7) As average case considered which of the following sorting technique is efficient ?

a) Bubble sort
b) Quick sort
c) Selection sort
d) Insertion sort
8) This sort does not use divide and conquer methodology.

a) Merge sort
b) Quick sort
c) Bubble sort
d) None of these
9) The worst-case complexity is

a) Function defined by maximum number of steps taken
b) Function defined by average number of steps taken
c) Function defined by minimum number of steps taken
d) All of above
10) For knapsack problem, where n = 3, m = 20, (P1, P2, P3) = (25, 24, 15) and
(w1, w2, w3) = (18, 15, 10). The feasible solution is
a) 24.25
b) 28.5
c) 25.25
d) 24
11) Sum of subset problems can have one of the following solution.
a) Fixed sized tuple
b) Variable sized tuple
c) n-sized tuple
d) both a) and b)
12) Two queens are placed at positions (i, j) and (k, l), then they are at same
diagonal if
a) i j = k l
b) i + j = k + l
c) j l = i k
d) All of above
13) Hamiltonian cycles are equal to traveling sales person problem if

a) Cost of edges are in increasing order
b) Cost of all edges is n
c) Cost of all edges is 2n
d) Both b) and c)
14) A graph can be made biconnected by
a) Finding connected components from the graph
b) By adding edges between any vertices of graphs
c) By removal of articulation point
d) All of above
SLR-UM 215
*SLRUM215*
-4-
15) Which one of the following algorithm design techniques is used in finding all
pairs of shortest distance in graph ?
a) Dynamic programming
b) Backtracking
c) Greedy method
d) Divide and conquer
16) In a complete binary tree, number of terminals or leaf nodes is 10. The number
of nodes with two children is
a) 9
b) 11
c) 15
d) None of these
17) A binary tree T has n leaf nodes, the number of nodes of degree 2 in T is
a) log2n
b) (n 1)
c) n
d) 2n
18) State generation method in which E-node remains the E-node until it is dead,
lead to ___________ method.
a) Dynamic programming
b) Greedy method
c) Backtracking
d) Branch and bound
19) The application of reliability design is

a) Switching circuits
b) Electric circuits
c) Kirchoffs circuits
d) Linear circuits
20) In dynamic programming an optimal sequence of decision is obtained by

making explicit appeal to the
a) Sequence decisions
b) Principle of optimality
c) Optimal merge
d) Both a) and c)
______________
-5-
*SLRUM215*
SLR-UM 215
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(54=20)
1) Explain different algorithm specifications in detail.

2) Plot graph of function log n, n, n.log n, n2 and 2n.
3) Explain divide and conquer algorithm design techniques with its control
abstraction.
4) Compare between merge sort and quick sort.
5) Write a short note on : Optimal merge pattern.
6) Explain greedy methods control abstraction for subset paradigm.
(110=10)
1) Find optimal placement for 13 programs on 3 tapes T0, T1 and T2 where

programs are of lengths.
12, 5, 8, 32, 7, 5, 18, 26, 4, 3, 11, 10 and 6. Also, find total retrieval time.
OR
1) Write a short note on :
i) Performance analysis
ii) Huffman codes.
4. Prove that comparisons required for maximum and minimum finding algorithm
are
3n
2.
2
(110=10)
SLR-UM 215
-6-
*SLRUM215*
SECTION II
(54=20)
1) State principle of optimality. Explain steps to solve problems by using dynamic
programming.
2) Write a short note on : Reliability design.
3) Explain following terms w.r.t. Flow shop scheduling.
i) Preemptive scheduling
ii) Non-preemptive scheduling
iii) Mean-Flow time (MFT)
iv) Finish time.
4) Write a short note on : AND/OR graphs.
5) Draw a permutation tree organisation of a 4-queen problem solution space
using BFS.
6) Define and explain following terms :
i) Solution states
ii) Answer states
iii) Dynamic tree
iv) Static tree
v) State space tree.
6. 1) Write an algorithm for sum of subset problem using backtracking.
OR
2) Explain following terms with suitable examples :
i) Techniques for binary tree
ii) Game tree.
7. Find all pairs shortest path for following diagraph using dynamic programming.
Also find minimum-cost matrix.
1 k 4
______________
12
Code No.
SLR-UM 216
*SLRUM216*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------T.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

DATABASE ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Each Section carries 40 Marks.

2) MCQ carries 20 marks with duration 30 Minutes.
SECTION I
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) Database is a collection of _______________ data.

a) related
b) different
c) interrelated
d) none
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 216
*SLRUM216*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Database management systems are intended to _______________

a) eliminate data redundancy
b) establish relationship among records in different field
c) manage file access
d) maintain data integrity
e) all of the above
3) The highest level in the hierarchy of data organization is called _________
a) data bank
b) data file
c) data record
d) database
4) Which of the following fields in a student file can be used as a primary key ?
a) Class
b) Social Security Number (SSN)
c) GPA
d) Major
5) Which of the following levels of data abstraction involves the views of data ?
a) External level
b) Physical level
c) Conceptual
d) None
6) Logical level describes ______________ data are stored in the DB.

a) Which
b) Where
c) What
d) When
*SLRUM216*
SLR-UM 216
-3-
7) Physical level describes _______________ the data are actually stored.

a) how
b) who
c) when
d) none
8) The function of database is ____________

a) to check all input data
b) to check all spelling
c) to collect and organize input data
d) to output data
9) What is the language used by most of the DBMSs for helping their users
to access data ?
a) High level language
b) Low level language
c) Query language
d) None
10) A command that lets you change one or more fields in a record is ____________
a) delete
b) modify
c) look up
d) none of these
SECTION II
11) ____________ is a constraint between two sets of attributes from the database.
a) Cover
b) Functional dependency
c) BCNF
d) None
12) Static hashing scheme has _____________ hash address space.

a) fixed
b) not fixed
c) mixed
d) none
13) If file records are physically ordered on a nonkey field which does not have a
distinct value for each record that field is called _____________
a) Clustering field
b) Primary key
c) Dense
d) None
14) _____________ index has an index entry for every search key value in the data file.
a) Sparse
b) Dense
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
SLR-UM 216
*SLRUM216*
-4-
15) A transactions can be neither read or write an item X until the last transaction
that write X has committed.
a) strict schedule
b) simple schedule
c) complete schedule
d) none
16) Which of the log is not in transaction state ?

a) Roll back
b) Start
c) Commit
17) Transactions should posses several Properties.

a) ACIE
b) ACID
c) ADC
d) AIM
18) Atomicity transaction is an ____________ unit of processing.

a) begin
b) atomic
c) both a) and b)
d) none of above
19) One of the cause of failure of file system.

a) data availability
b) fixed records
c) sequential records
d) lock of security
20) A large collection of files are called ____________

a) fields
b) records
c) database
d) sectors
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM216*
SLR-UM 216
Seat
No.
T.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
a) Define DBMS and its applications.
b) Explain select operation in relation algebra with example.
c) Give the formal definition of tuple relational calculus.
d) Explain the cardinality ratio.
e) Discuss concept of functional dependency.
(45=20)
3. a) Explain the decomposition of relation using functional dependency.
10
OR
b) Explain outer join operations.
4. Draw the E-R diagram for student database.
10
SECTION II
5. Solve any four :
a) Explain ACID properties ?
b) Write a short note on transaction state.
c) Explain binary locks.
d) Explain the concept of shadow paging.
e) Write a note on multiple key access.
(45=20)
6. Solve any one :

a) List and explain various types of failures that may occur in a system. Give
example for each.
10
OR
b) Explain in detail the concept of check points in recovery systems.
7. What is view serializable schedule ? Explain the steps to test schedule is view
serializable schedule.
10
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 217
Seat
No.
*SLRUM217*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

COMPILER CONSTRUCTION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

1. Select correct alternative :
Marks : 20
20
1) The _____________ determines the hierarchical structure of the

source program.
b) Syntax analysis
a) Lexical analysis
c) Semantic analysis
d) Synthesis analysis
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 217
*SLRUM217*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The specification given to scanner generators are in the form of

a) Context free grammar
b) Sensitive grammar
c) Regular expression
d) Ambiguous grammar
3) Set of rules that describing tokens

a) Lexemes
b) Token
c) Sentenels
d) Patterns
4) [^ab] Character class denotes

a) One of ^, a, b
b) Anything except a, b
c) ^ab
d) One or more ab
5) Which of the following parser can parse any grammar ?

a) Top down
b) Bottom Up
c) Universal
d) CFG
6) Parser discards input symbols one at a time until a synchronize token

is found
a) Phrase level
b) Panic Mode
c) Error production
d) Global correction
7) Parsing table of a predictive parser is

a) Two dimensional array
b) One dimensional array
c) Stack
d) Queue
8) If X is terminal then FIRST(X) is

a) X
b)
c) $
d)
*SLRUM217*
SLR-UM 217
-3-
9) Easiest but least powerful parser

a) LR
b) SLR
c) LALR
10) A syntax directed definition is a generalization of CFG in which each

grammar symbol has
a) Synthesized attribute
b) Inherited attributes
c) Both a) and b)
11) Static scope rules define the scope of a name in terms of syntactic
structure of program.
a) True
b) False
12) In control flow representation the value of Boolean expression is

represented by a position in
a) Three address code
b) DFG
c) CFG
13) Peephole optimization is an effective technique for ________ improving

the target code.
a) Locally
b) Globally
c) Both a) and b)
14) Which of the following expression have no l-value ?

a) a[i + 1]
b) a
c) 3
d) * a
15) A garbage is ______________

a) Unallocated storage
b) Allocated storage with all access paths to it destroyed
c) Allocated storage
d) Unutilized storage
SLR-UM 217
*SLRUM217*
-4-
16) A pictorial representation of the value computed by each statement in

the basic block is
a) Tree
b) DAG
c) Graph
17) A block B generates an expression X op Y iff

a) it assigns to either X or Y
b) it assigns to both X and Y
c) it evaluates X op Y and does not subsequently redefine X or Y
18) Which of the following is not a peephole optimization ?
a) removal of unreachable code
b) elimination of multiple jumps
c) elimination of loop invariant computations
19) Which field is not present in block format for implicit allocation ?
a) Optional mark
b) Optional control link
c) Optional block size
d) User information
20) Use of control stack is for

a) Use track of executed procedures
b) Keep track of live procedure activations
c) Both a) and b)
__________________
*SLRUM217*
-5-
SLR-UM 217
Seat
No.
T.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) What is Lexical analyzer ? Explain role of Lexical analyzer in compiler

model.
b) Describe various compiler construction tools.
c) Explain error recovery strategy in parser.
d) What is left recursion ? Eliminate left recursion from the following grammar.
E E + T | T , T T F | F, F id | (E)
e) What is syntax directed translation ? State L-attributed definitions.

3. Solve any one :
10
a) With a neat block diagram, explain various phases, Symbol Table Management
and Error Handler of a compiler.
b) What are S-attributed definition for syntax directed translation ? Illustrate the
Bottom-Up evaluation of these with the help of suitable example.
4. Explain the predictive parsing for LL(1) grammar with the help of suitable example. 10
SLR-UM 217
-6-
*SLRUM217*
SECTION II
5. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Explain declarations of intermediate code generation.

b) Explain syntax directed translation of case statements.
c) Explain run time addresses for names.
d) Explain data flow analysis schema.
e) Explain data flow algorithms.
6. a) Explain heap management in detail.
10
OR
b) Explain various code improving transformation and alises.
7. Write algorithm for converting three address code into basic block and convert
following program fragment into intermediate code and basic block.
Fact (X)
{
int F = 1 ;
for ( i = 2; i< = x; i + +)
F=F*i;
return (f) ;
}
_____________________
10
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 218
*SLRUM218*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------T.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2014

OPERATING SYSTEM II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Attempt all questions.

2) Assume data if necessary.
1. Attempt the following multiple choice questions :
1) Consider following statements
S1 : Every peripheral device in Unix is treated as file.
S2 : Unix treats data within file as byte stream.
A) Only S1 is true
B) Only S2 is true
C) Both are true
D) Both are false
Marks : 20
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 218
*SLRUM218*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Which of the following are building block primitives of Unix ?

i) redirect I/O
ii) pipe
iii) bash
iv) shell scripts
A) i and ii only
B) all of above
C) none of above
D) iii and iv only
3) Which of the following is not part of the process control subsystem ?

A) inter-process communication
B) scheduler
C) memory management
D) device driver
4) Unix internally recognize a special user called ____________
A) Superuser
B) Special user
C) Administrator
D) Shell user
5) getblk algorithm is used for ______________
A) writing disk block to disk
B) allocate buffer from pool
C) to search for free block
D) reading block to buffer
*SLRUM218*
SLR-UM 218
-3-
6) Which of the following correctly describes second scenario of getblk algorithm ?

A) the kernel searches the hash queue that should contain the block but
fails to find it
B) the kernel has to allocate a buffer from free list
C) the kernel searches the hash queue that should contain the block
and find it
D) the kernel searches the hash queue that should contain the block and
race condition occurs
7) Directory is special file which contains ________________
A) path to file separated by
B) inode number and file names
C) another directories
D) disk block numbers
8) ialloc algorithm is used for ______________
A) allocation of inverted block
B) allocation of memory for inode
C) assigning a inode number to directory
D) assigning a disk inode to a newly created file
9) PIPES in Unix are _______________
i) used to transfer of data between processes.
ii) may also allow synchronization of process execution.
B) only i is true
A) both are true
C) only ii is true
D) none are true
10) The ______________ system call connects the file system in a specified
section of a disk to the existing file system hierarchy.
B) umount
A) dup
C) mount
D) Iseek
11) Processes uses which system call to send signal to each other
B) brk
A) Exec
C) kill
D) exit
12) Which system calls deal with global system time ?
B) stime, time
A) time, times
C) times, alarm
D) stime, alarm
SLR-UM 218
*SLRUM218*
-4-
13) The _______________ bit indicates whether a process recently referenced a

page.
A) modify
B) reference
C) protection
D) age
14) If the page is on swap device, the _____________ contains the logical number
and block number containing the page contents.
A) Disk block descriptor
B) Page table entry
C) Region table
D) Page frame data table
15) User can profile execution of processes at user level with the ____________
system call.
A) profile
B) profiling
C) profil
D) all
16) The Kernel adjust the priority of the process that returns from __________
A) Kernel to user mode
B) User to Kernel mode
C) Kernel to Kernel
D) User to user
17) Which is not the function of clock interrupt handler ?

A) restart the clock
B) keep track of time
C) control process scheduling
D) set a global kernel variable
18) _______________ translates a file system address, consisting of a logical

device number and block number, to a particular sector on the disk.
A) Stream
B) Disk Driver
C) Strategy Interface
D) Kernel
19) System call dealing with Synchronization is _____________

A) wait
B) fork
C) exec
D) none
20) The process is ready to run, but ______________ must swap the process
into main memory before execution.
A) Kernel
B) Swapper
C) Scheduler
D) Process
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM218*
SLR-UM 218
Seat
No.
T.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2014

OPERATING SYSTEM II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Attempt all questions.

SECTION I
2. Explain following terms in the light of system architecture of Unix OS :
10
A) User stack
B) Kernel Stack
C) Context of a process
D) Context Switch
E) Process State.
3. Explain with neat diagram the second, third and fourth scenario for allocation
buffer by getblk algorithm.
10
OR
3. Explain in details the algorithm for conversion of a path name to an inode.
4. Write a short note on (any four) :
A) Link system call
B) Super block of file system
C) History of Unix OS
D) Unnamed pipes
E) File system abstraction
F) Assumption about hardware in unix.
(54=20)
SLR-UM 218
-6-
*SLRUM218*
SECTION II
5. Write and explain algorithm that handles the signal.
10
6. What is validity page fault ? How it is handled by Kernel ?
10
OR
6. Describe context of a process in detail.
10
(45=20)
A) What is U area ? Describe with memory map of U area in Kernel.

B) In which cases kernel removes the entries for sticky-bit text regions ?
C) Describe system calls for time.
D) Write short note on protection fault Handler.
E) Describe strategy interface.
F) Explain kernel to driver interface with help of block device switch table and
character device switch table.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
219
*SLRUM219*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------T.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2014

SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N.B. : Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Marks : 20
1. Choosing the correct alternative :

1) Specialize class can be generated from _______________ class.
a) Child class
b) Generalize class
c) Sub class
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 219
*SLRUM219*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Which model is used for cost estimation

a) Waterfall model
b) COCOMO
c) Spiral model
d) EAF
3) SCM is discipline for

a) Identifying and defining the items in the system
b) Controlling the changes in items
c) Recording and reporting the status of items
d) All the above
4) Black box testing is also called
a) Behavioural testing
b) Both a) and c)
c) Structural testing
d) None of above
5) Internal logic of a programme is tested using

a) White box testing
b) Black box testing
c) Both
d) None of above
6) In CMM, _______________ level focus on continuously improvement in

process.
a) Initial level
b) Manage level
c) Optimizing level
d) Repeatable level
*SLRUM219*
SLR-UM 219
-3-
7) MAOs (most abstract o/p data element) mince

a) Starts from the output in the DFD and travelling toward the input
b) Starts from input and travelling towards the output
c) Both above
d) None of above
8) In Testing level first level of testing is called as _______________
a) Unit testing
b) System testing
c) Acceptance testing
d) Integration testing
9) S/W testing is nothing else but

a) Verification
b) Both a) and c)
c) Validation
d) None of above
10) KPA stands for

a) Key process area
b) Key principal area
c) Key product area
11) In DFD external records/files are shown by

a) Rectangle
b) Arrow
c) Circle
d) Labelled straight line
12) In COCOMO total cost can calculated by formula

a) E = EAF * Ei
b) All above
c) E = a * (KDLOC)
d) None of above
13) The most mandatory task in project work is

a) Closing
b) Controlling
c) Implementation
d) Planning
14) _______________ module perform the function of more than one type of
modules.
a) Composite module
b) Transform module
c) Co-ordinate module
d) I/P and O/P module
SLR-UM 219
*SLRUM219*
-4-
15) Total number of levels in CMM are

a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 7
16) LOC stands for _______________

a) Line of Code
b) Line of Compiler
c) Line of Composite
d) All above
17) The aim of static analysis is to detect _______________

a) Warning
b) Error
c) Linkers
d) None of these
18) Classes and objects are building blocks of an _______________

a) OOM
b) OOD
c) OOA
d) None of these
19) What information does data dictionary contain ?

a) Data type
b) Both a) and c)
c) Interface
d) None of above
20) In this model requirements of system are not frozen before the design phase
a) Waterfall model
b) Prototyping model
c) 4th generation model
d) All above
__________________
*SLRUM219*
-5-
SLR-UM 219
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
N.B. : Figures to the right indicate full marks.

SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Explain characteristics of software process in detail.

b) List work products and limitations of waterfall model.
c) Explain DFD in detail with example.
d) What is SRS ? Explain characteristics of SRS.
e) Explain COCOMO model in detail.
f) Write a short note on Abstraction.
1) Explain structure design methodology in detail.
10
OR
2) List out effort estimation techniques used in S/W engg and explain it in detail. 10
4. Write a short note on (any two)
a) Data dictionary
b) Team structure
c) Risk management.
(25=10)
SLR-UM 219
-6-
*SLRUM219*
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) List out UML diagrams in object oriented design. Explain class diagram with
example.
b) Explain level of testing.
c) Explain CMM in detail.
d) Write a short note on Test plan in testing process.
e) What is SEPG in project ?
f) Explain Object Oriented Analysis concepts.
6. 1) Explain black box testing in detail.
10
OR
2) What is configuration measurement in configuration management ?
7. Explain the review process in detail in project execution and closure.
________________
10
10
Code No. SLR-UM
22
*SLRUM22*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Civil) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

BUILDING CONSTRUCTION AND DRAWING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to. 7.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

2) Section II to be drawn on half imperial drawing sheet.
Use both sides of the sheet.
3) Section I to be written in answer book.
5) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly.
6) Retain all projection / construction lines on drawing sheet.
7) Question number one is MCQ / objective type question
and first 30 minutes of total time are reserved for this. After
end of 30 minutes return the objective question paper cum
answer sheet to the supervisor.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 22
-2-
DO
T
NO
*SLRUM22*
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W

Marks : 20
1. State whether following statement is correct or incorrect in the box given :

1) Construction of load bearing structures takes lesser time as compared
to framed structure for construction of high rise building.
2) Stepped footing may be used for load bearing structures.
3) In strap footing columns are connected by a beam.
4) The exterior angle or corner of a wall is known as quoins.
5) Stretcher is shortest face of brick.
6) Extrados is inner curve of an arch.
7) Impost is provided in doors and windows.
8) Going of a stair is always equals to flight width.
9) Gable roof slopes in two directions.
10) In case of roofs water flows from ridge to valley.
20
*SLRUM22*
-3-
11) Horns are provided on doors and window frames.

12) Jamb is horizontal portion of door.
13) The properties of rocks depend on its components.
14) Igneous rocks are formed by cooling of lava.
15) Back flap hinges are used for lighter shutters.
16) In brick masonry frogs are pointing towards ground level.
17) The surfaces and edges of the class II bricks are sharp, square,
smooth and straight.
18) A good brick earth should contain about 80% to 90% of alumina.
19) Rise is the vertical distance between the top of the ridge and the
wall plate.
20) Winders are needed for swinging of doors.
SLR-UM 22
*SLRUM22*
-5-
SLR-UM 22
Seat
No.

BUILDING CONSTRUCTION AND DRAWING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to. 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) Section II to be drawn on half imperial drawing sheet.
Use both sides of the sheet.
3) Section I to be written in answer book.
5) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it clearly.
6) Retain all projection / construction lines on drawing sheet.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any five questions :
(85=40)
a) Draw a detailed labeled diagram of arch. Also define : Extrados, Intrados,

Crown and Voussoirs.
b) Differentiate between stone masonry and brick masonry.
c) Draw sketches for :
1) Flat arch
2) Segmental arch
3) Relieving arch
4) Horse shoe shaped arch.
d) Write detailed note on Different types stone as a building material.
e) Discuss requirements of Good stair.
f) Describe with neat sketches procedure for fixing AC sheets to angle purlin.
g) Draw a standard brick and also draw all types of bats and closers.
h) Draw a sketch of a door frame. Explain different terminologies related to door
frame.
SLR-UM 22
-6-
*SLRUM22*
SECTION II
3. A) Draw to a scale of 1:10, detailed section, front elevation and sectional elevation
for T.W. window frame with partly glazed and partly panelled shutter. Use
following data (All dimensions are in mm).
a) Clear operating = 1000 1200
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Cross section of frame = 100 60

Vertical styles = 100 35
Top rails = 100 35
Glass = 100 35
Bottom rail = 100 35
g) Glass = 5 mm thick
h) Panels = 2 numbers (25 mm thick)
i) Show various fixtures at proper location.
OR
Draw plan of alternate courses and elevation of one brick and one and half
brick wall in Flemish B.B. Masonry to the scale of 1:10. Assume standard
brick size and mortar joint thickness as 10 cm 10 cm 20 cm.
20
B) Design and draw to scale 1:30, plan and vertical section for L-shaped (Quarter
turn) R.C.C. staircase for a bungalow.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Height to be climbed = 3000 mm

Width of flight = 1000 mm
R.C. C. parapet railing 80 mm thick
Reinforcement details are not necessary.
One winder is provided at landing.
(Write step by step calculation on sheet with pencil only)
OR
Draw to scale 1 : 10 :
a) Horizontal section.
b) Front elevation.
For solid core flush door of overall size of 750 mm 2100 mm.
1) Frame : Wooden section 75 mm 120 mm only 2 post members and one
Head member.
2) Shutter : Solid core factory manufactured flush door shutter with 4 mm
plywood facia on both sides. Shutter thickness 35 mm.
20
Code No. SLR-UM
220
*SLRUM220*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------T.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) What is underlying assumption about intelligence model ?

a) Availability of physical symbol system
b) Availability of expert system
c) Availability of production system
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 220
*SLRUM220*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Who will provide a way of solving complex problems by exploiting the structures
of the objects that are involved ?
a) Search
b) Use of knowledge
c) Abstraction
d) None of these
3) Futility value is used in following search

a) Best first search
b) A* Algorithm
c) AO* algorithm
d) Agenda driven search
4) Following is an example of not partially commutative monotonic systems

a) Theorem proving
b) Robot navigation
c) Chemical synthesis
d) Bridge
5) Decomposition of problem in smaller set of problem is the key of

a) BSF
b) DFS
c) Generate and test
d) Problem reduction
6) _______________ is the AI program is infer the structure of organic compounds

using mass spectrum and NMR.
a) MYCIN
b) DENTRAL
c) PROLOG
d) None of these
7) _______________ is the system which based on a specific set of cognitively

motivated hypothesis about the nature of problem solving.
a) OPS5
b) SOAR
c) GPS
d) ADAB
*SLRUM220*
SLR-UM 220
-3-
8) A state that is better than all its neighbors but is not better than some other
state further away is called as
a) Plateau
b) Local maxima
c) Ridge
d) None of these
9) _______________ level at which facts are described.

a) Knowledge
b) Symbol
c) Both a) and b)
d) View level
10) The ability to represent all of the kinds of knowledge that are needed in that
domain is
a) Representational adequacy properties
b) Inferential adequacy properties
c) Inferential efficiency properties
d) Acquisitional efficiency properties
11) Following is one of the logic of non-monotonic reasoning
a) Semantical
b) Monotonic
c) Logical
d) Abduction
12) Playing games is

a) Expert task
b) Mundane task
c) Simple task
d) All above
13) System that provides a basis for default reasoning is called _______________
logic.
a) Monotonic
b) Non-monotonic
c) Both
d) None of these
14) _______________ programs has been used successfully to help to locate

deposits of several minerals, including copper and uranium.
a) PROLOG
b) MYCIN
c) DENDRAL
d) PROSPECTOR
SLR-UM 220
*SLRUM220*
-4-
15) In forward reasoning, begin from the _______________ states.

a) Goal
b) Start
c) Intermediate
d) None of these
16) A simple kind of _______________ reasoning is suggested by the Closed

World Assumption.
a) Default
b) Minimalist
c) Non-monotonic
d) All of these
17) _______________ in which we preserve the formalism and rely instead on

the modularity of the world we are trying to model.
a) Bayes Network
b) Dempster-Shafer Network
c) Bayesian Network
d) None of these
18) MYCIN represents most of its diagnostic _______________ as a set of rules.

a) Facts
b) Knowledge
c) Information
d) Predicates
19) A _______________ is a structure that describes a stereotyped sequence of

events in a particular context.
a) Conceptual dependency
b) Non-monotonic logic
c) Scripts
d) All of these
20) The first expert system to be completed was DENDRAL, developed at Stanford
University in late _______________
a) 1960
b) 1980
c) 1990
d) 1947
__________________
*SLRUM220*
-5-
SLR-UM 220
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
(45=20)
1) Write short note on AI problem.

2) Explain the level of model concept in AI.
3) Differentiate between Depth-first search and breadth first search.
4) Write short note on simulated annealing.
5) Write a algorithm for agenda-driven search.
6) Explain frame problem.
3. Explain the approaches to knowledge representation in detail.
10
OR
List out the problem characteristics of AI and explain following two properties in
detail :
a) Is the problem decomposable
b) Is good solution absolute or relative.
4. Explain constraint satisfaction heuristic search technique in detail.
10
SLR-UM 220
-6-
*SLRUM220*
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Explain representation of simple facts in predicate logic along with examples

in detail.
2) What is resolution in knowledge representation technique ?
3) Write a short note on non-monotonic reasoning.
4) Explain probability and Bayes Theorem along with examples in detail.
5) Explain all characteristics features of expert system in detail.
(102=20)
1) Define and describe frames in slot and filler structures in detail with suitable
examples.
2) Write short notes on :
a) Bayesian Network
b) Natural deduction.
OR
a) Logic programming in knowledge representation techniques
b) CYC.
________________
Code No.
*SLR-UM-221*
SLR-UM 221
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014
ADVANCED COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Code No.
Q. 1 is objective type.
Answers to Section I and II should be written in the same
answer book.

Marks : 20
1.
20
1) Register renaming resolution method for artificial dependence is used in
a) Scoreboarding
b) Tomasulos algorithm
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 221
*SLR-UM-221*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Bubble in a pipeline
a) Stalls the pipeline
b) Slows down the clock
c) Increases the efficiency of pipeline
d) Decreases hardware
3) BTB is used for resolving
a) Data hazard
c) Structural hazard
4) True dependence means
a) WAR
c) RAW
b) Control hazard
d) None
b) WAW
d) RAR
5) The function of control unit of array processor is to

a) Execute scalar instructions
b) Initiate vector instruction execution
c) Perform I/O operations
d) All above
6) Vector length means
a) Length of each element of vector
b) Number of bytes vector occupies in memory
c) Total number of elements in vector
d) None of these
7) 2-bit counter is following type of control resolution method.
a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Both
d) None
*SLR-UM-221*
8) CPI of pipeline increases with
a) Data hazard
c) Structural hazard
SLR-UM 221
-3-
b) Control hazard
d) All of these
9) Scoreboarding technique resolves following artificial dependences

a) WAR and WAW
b) Only WAR
c) Only WAW
d) None
10) Data forwarding technique resolves

a) RAW
b) WAR
c) WAW
d) All
11) Which of the following is true in case of tightly coupled multiprocessor systems.
1) In tightly coupled multiprocessor systems the rate at which data can
communicate from one processor to the other is on the order of the
bandwidth of the memory.
2) Tightly coupled systems may be used when the real-time processing is
desired.
a) only 1)
b) only 2)
c) both 1) and 2)
d) None
12) Which of the following is true in case of static data flow machines ?
1) It uses tagged tokens.
2) It allows multiple tokens to appear simultaneously on any input arc of an
operator node.
3) Control tokens are needed to acknowledge the proper timing in transferring
data tokens from node to node.
a) 1) and 2)
b) only 3)
c) 1) and 3)
d) 1), 2) and 3)
13) In tightly coupled multiprocessor architecture PMIN stands for

a) Program Memory Interconnection Network
b) Processor Memory Interconnection Network
c) Program Memory Interrupt Network
d) None of these
SLR-UM 221
*SLR-UM-221*
-4-
14) The Kmap is a processor that is responsible for

a) Mapping addresses
b) Routing data between Slocals
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
15) Distributed shared memory architecture is sometimes referred as non uniform

memory access architecture because
a) Distance of memory form all processors is same
b) Access time depends on the location of a data word in memory
c) Memory is distributed among all processors
d) None of these
16) Relaxing the W R ordering yields a model known as
a) Processor consistency model
b) Weak consistency model
c) Sequential consistency model
d) Release consistency model
17) Ring data flow architecture is
a) Static
c) Both
b) Dynamic
d) None
18) Compiler cannot be used for two level branch prediction because
a) Compiler can only be used for static branch prediction
b) This technique has to be resolved at run time
c) Both a) and b)
d) It is very difficult to be used by compiler
19) Atomic operation means
a) Operation is performed automatically
b) Operation is performed without any interruptions
c) Operation is performed with interruptions
d) Interrupts are accepted while performing the operations
20) Pipelining is mostly implemented in
a) RISC
c) Both a) and b)
b) CISC
d) None
______________________
*SLR-UM-221*
-5-
SLR-UM 221
Seat
No.
B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

3) Answers to Section I and II should be written in the same
answer book.
SECTION I
(54=20)
1) What is static branch prediction ? Explain any one method.

2) What is loop carried dependence ?
3) What is basic principle of software pipelining ?
4) Compare vector and pipelined processors.
5) Explain 2 bit saturating counter method used for predicting branch outcome.
10
a) Discuss how scoreboarding technique is used as a dynamic scheduling method

to reduce stalls.
b) What is Branch Target Buffer (BTB) ? Draw flowchart for its functioning.
Explain.
4. Write a short note on any one :
a) Tomasulos algorithm
b) Vector architecture.
10
SLR-UM 221
-6-
*SLR-UM-221*
SECTION II
(54=20)
1) Draw and explain dynamic dataflow computer organization.

2) Explain write update scheme for maintaining cache coherence with example.
3) Explain spin lock.
4) Compare between shared and distributed memory architectures.
5) Write short note on tightly coupled multiprocessors.
10
a) For 8 input omega networks, decide whether the following permutation is

possible in a single pass. If not, then how many passes are required ?
A = {1, 4, 6} {5, 7}
b) Centralized shared memory multiprocessor architectures with inclusion of
private cache memories will face the problem of cache coherence. Which
protocol is used to avoid the problem ? Explain in detail.
7. Discuss intercluster communication in CM*.
___________________
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 222
*SLRUM222*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2014

NETWORK SECURITY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Day & Date _____________________
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________ Section ________________________________________

Out of
Marks Signature of
__________ Examination _________

______________ (Paper - _______)
Examiner
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. A) Tick correct answer

15
1) A process that is designed to detect, prevent or recover from security
attack is
a) Security
b) Security mechanism
c) Security services
d) Treat
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 222
*SLRUM222*
-2-
DO
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
T
NO
2) _________ involves the passive capture of a data unit and its subsequent
retransmission to produce an unauthorized effect.
a) Masquerade
b) Reply
c) Modification of msg.
d) Denial of Service
3) The assurance that data received are exactly as sent by an authorized

entity is
a) Authentication
b) Access control
c) Data confidentiality
d) Data Integrity
4) _________ enables selection of particular physically secure routes for

certain data.
a) Encipherement
b) Digital signature
c) Access control
d) Routing control
5) The area of cryptography and cryptoanalysis together are called

a) Cryptology
b) Security
c) Law
d) All of the above
6) Most systems, referred to as ___________ involve multiple stages of

substitution and transpositions.
a) Security system
b) Product system
c) Matrix system
d) Control system
*SLRUM222*
SLR-UM 222
-3-
7) The attacker tries every possible key on a peice of cipher text until an
intelligible translation into plaintext is obtained.
a) Birthday attack
b) Man-in middle
c) Brute-force attack
d) Paradox
8) A ___________ in which the plaintext is written down as a sequence of

diagonals and then read off as a sequence of rows.
a) Rail fence
b) Matrix
c) Tense
d) Fence
9) ____________ attack rely on the nature of algorithm plus perhaps some

knowledge of the general characteristic of plaintext.
a) Cryptanalysis
b) Brute force
c) Natural
d) Artificial
10) An encryption scheme is ___________ if the ciphertext generated by the

scheme does not contain enough information to determine uniquely the
corresponding plaintext
a) Conditionally secure
b) Unconditionally secure
c) Oneway secure
d) Two way secure
11) In kerberos to provide more secured authentication dialogue ___________

is used.
a) Ticket grant server
b) Authentication server
c) Server
d) Hash value
12) In X.509, forward certificates are generated by

a) Other CA
b) The sender
c) The receiver
d) All of above
13) MIME is
a) Multinetwork Internet Mail Extension
b) Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
c) Multipurpose Internet Mail Encryption
d) Multikey Internet Mail Extension
SLR-UM 222
*SLRUM222*
-4-
14) PGP can be used for email because it provides service of

a) Converting raw 8 bit binary stream to ASCII characters
b) Authentication
c) Confidentiality
d) Segmentation
15) Which of the following parameter defines session state ?
a) Session identifier
b) Compression method
c) Peer Certificate
d) All
B) Match the following.

PGP Services
5
Algorithms
1) Digital Signature
a) Radix-64
2) Message encryption
b) Zip
3) Compression
c) CAST
4) E-mail compactibility
d) RSA/SHA
5) Segmentation
e) 50,000 octets
f) 8 bit
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM222*
SLR-UM 222
Seat
No.
B.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2014

NETWORK SECURITY
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Write a short note on (any four).
1) Rotor Machine
2) Mill Cipher
3) RSA algorithm
4) Application of cryptographic Hash function
5) Message authentication code.
3. What are types of attacks ? Explain in detail.
OR
20
10
What is public key cryptography ? Explain its component in detail.

4. Explain any three substitution techniques with examples.
SECTION II
5. Write a short note on (any four) :
1) Simple authentication dialogue of kerberos
2) SET key features
3) Worms
4) Distribution of public keys
5) Bastion Host
6. What is X-509 authentication service ? Explain in detail X.509 certificate.
OR
10
20
10
Draw the format of ESP header of IPsec and explain.

7. Explain virus with their structure, type and nature in detail.
10
Code No. SLR-UM 225

Seat
No.
*SLRUM225*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014
Elective I : OBJECT ORIENTED MODELING AND DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Question number 1 is MCQ type and is compulsory.

Marks : 20
1. Attempt the following multiple choice type question :
20
1) Which of the following statements are true for activity diagrams ?

A) can be used to depict workflow for a particular business activity
B) can be used to explore/discover parallel activities
C) do not tell you who does what and are difficult to trace back to object
models
D) all of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 225
-2-
DO
T
NO
*SLRUM225*
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W

A) Aggregation is a special kind of association
B) Both aggregation and composition are part-of relationship
C) When the whole is deleted, parts in aggregation are also removed
D) All of the above
3) Which of the following statements are true ?
A) State diagrams are good at describing the behavior of an object
across several use cases
B) To describe behavior that involves a number of objects in a use case,
use interaction diagrams
C) To describe behavior that involves a number of objects in several
use cases, use activity diagrams
D) All of the above
4) Which of the following statements are false about Association ?
A) From a conceptual perspective associations represent conceptual
relationships between classes
B) From the specification perspective associations represent
responsibilities. These responsibilities imply data structure
C) From the implementation perspective associations represent
references between the related classes
D) All of them
*SLRUM225*
-3-
SLR-UM 225
5) Which statements are not correct about objects ?

A) An object is an instance of a class
B) Objects can access both instance and static data
C) All classes extend the object class
D) Objects do not permit encapsulation
6) Which diagram is NOT commonly used for illustrating use cases ?
A) System sequence diagram
B) Activity diagram
C) Use case diagram
D) Collaboration diagram
7) What is a true statement about the following packages ?
A) If package C changes, package B must be inspected for necessary changes,

and if there are any, package A may have to be adapted as well
B) If package B changes, package A and package C must be inspected for
necessary changes
C) Packages should be designed so that a change in one package does not
have an effect to other packages
D) If package C changes, package A has to be examined (as well as B),
because dependencies are transitive
8) (A/An) ____________ is a contract in the form of a collection of method and
constant declarations. When a class implements (a/an) __________, it
promises to implement all of the methods declared in that __________ .
Select the best word to complete this sentence.
A) Class
B) Interface
C) Object
D) Exception
SLR-UM 225
-4-
*SLRUM225*
9) The following diagram indicates :
A) A student can take exactly 5 subjects

B) A student can take zero or up to 5 subjects
C) A subject can be taken by zero or up to 5 students
D) A subject can be taken by 0 or more students
E) B and D
10) Which is true about the method doIt() ?
A) The method doIt() must be implemented by Thing3 and possibly also by

Thing4
B) The method doIt() must be implemented only by Thing5
C) The method doIt() must be implemented by Thing2, Thing3, Thing4 and
Thing5
D) There is no need for any class to implement doIt(), because it is already
implemented by Thing1
*SLRUM225*
-5-
SLR-UM 225
11) Which of the following can be used to represent the architectural design of a
piece of software ?
A) Dynamic models
B) Functional models
C) Structural models
D) All of the above
12) The data flow diagram
A) depicts relationships between data objects
B) depicts functions that transform the data flow
C) indicates how data are transformed by the system
D) both B) and C)
13) Identity of an object means
A) data is quantized into discrete, distinguishable entities
B) object with same structure and behavior are grouped together
C) ability to behave differently on different classes
14) What is the correct order of phases of OMT methodology ?
A) analysis system design object design implementation
B) analysis object design system design implementation
C) object design analysis implementation system design
D) object design analysis system design implementation
SLR-UM 225
-6-
*SLRUM225*
15) In a DFD external entities are represented by

A) rectangle
B) ellipse
C) diamond shaped box
D) circle
16) Which one is the correct pairing for the following ?
P) Object model
i) Static aspect
Q) Dynamic model
ii) Temporal aspect
R) Functional model
iii) Transformational aspect
A) P-ii, Q-i, R-iii

B) P-i, Q-iii, R-ii
C) P-i, Q-ii, R-iii
D) P-iii, Q-i, R-ii
17) Links are implemented as _____________ in programming languages.
A) Functions
B) Data types
C) Structures
D) Pointers
*SLRUM225*
-7-
SLR-UM 225
18) Inheritance in OOD means

A) data is quantized into discrete, distinguishable entities
B) object with same structure and behavior are grouped together
C) sharing of attributes and operation based on relationship
D) ability to behave differently on different classes
19) Which of the following statements are True about Use Cases ?
A) Use case diagram are the primary tool to document requirements
B) A fully-dressed use case should include both whats and hows so that
they are ready for realization
C) A use case is an interaction between a user and a system
D) Use case models the structure of system
20) At conceptual level, a class can consist attributes of
A) Primitive data type
B) Value object data type e.g. Date, Money
C) Complex data type e.g. Customer, Account, Inventory
D) Both A) and B)
___________________
-9-
*SLRUM225*
SLR-UM 225
Seat
No.

Elective I : OBJECT ORIENTED MODELING AND DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instruction : Figures to right indicate full marks.

SECTION I
2. Attempt the following questions (any four) :
(54=20)
A) Explain in brief object modeling technique.

B) What are links ? How they differ from associations ?
C) Explain in brief the data flow diagram.
D) Explain in brief features of object oriented programming language.
E) Write a short note on OSCAR system.
3. Prepare the object diagram showing at least 10 relationships among the following
objects classes include association, aggregation and generalization. Show
multiplicity balls and qualified association. You DO NOT need to show attributes
or operations. Use association names where needed.
a) school, playground, principal, school board, classroom, book, student, teacher,
cafeteria, rest room, computer, desk, chair, ruler, door, swing.
4. Explain in details with example object oriented development.
10
10
OR
4. Explain with example state diagrams and also how operations are specified ?
10
SLR-UM 225
-10-
*SLRUM225*
SECTION II
5. Attempt the following questions (any four) :
(54=20)
A) Explain four common mechanisms in UML.

B) Explain with example modeling simple collaborations.
C) Companies may employ many people, and people may work for many
companies. Every employee in a company has a manager who may manage
many subordinate employees. Show the relationship between the employee
and company class in UML.
D) What is sequence diagram ? When is it appropriate to use this diagram ?
E) Explain activity diagram in brief with example.
6. What are classes and objects ? Explain in details class diagram with examples. 10
7. Explain in details deployment diagram.
OR
7. Identify the primary modeling elements appearing in a use-case diagram and
provide a short explanation for each. Does the actor always represent a human
user ? If not, then give examples of what the actor might represent.
__________________
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 226
*SLRUM226*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Elective I : INFORMATION RETRIEVAL
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) An important meta data format is

a) CARC
b) MARC
c) FARC
d) DARC
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 226
*SLRM226*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Phrase is a sequence of _________ queries.

a) Double word
b) Single word
c) Boolean
d) Vector
3) An information retrieval model is a __________

a) Single
b) Double
c) Quadruple
d) None of these
4) The use of IR is more concerned with retrieving

a) Information
b) Data
c) Words
d) None of these
5) An inverted file is a _________ oriented mechanism.

a) Sentence
b) Data
c) Word
d) Letter
6) Recall is the fraction of relevant documents which has been

a) Deleted
b) Modified
c) Retrieved
d) Inserted
7) Crawlers are __________ that traverse the sending new or updated

pages to main server where they are indexed.
a) Algorithms
b) Programs
c) Data
d) Information
8) Harvest uses a ______________ architecture.

a) Client/Server
b) Centralized
c) Distributed
d) None of these
*SLRM226*
SLR-UM 226
-3-
9) GEMINI stands for

a) Generic Many Indexing Approach
b) Generic Model Indexing Approach
c) Generic Multimedia Object Indexing Approach
d) None of these
10) MARC stands for
a) Machine Access Record Catalog
b) Machine Readable Cataloging Record
c) Machine Auto Record Catalog
d) None of these
11) A pattern is a set of syntactic features that must occur in a _______
a) Word
b) Text
c) Letter
d) Sentence
12) The protocol intended to query bibliographical information using standard

interface between client and server is __________
a) WAIS
b) Z39.50
c) CCL
d) SFQL
13) ____________ is a faction of the retrieved documents which is relevant.

a) Precision
b) Recall
c) Performance
d) None of these
14) ______________ is a sequence of single word queries.

a) Proximity
b) Phrase
c) Context
d) None of above
15) If a mail archive is to be searched for a keyword football in subject

field then such type of query is called ______ query.
a) Hypertext
b) Hierarchical
c) Fixed structure
d) None of above
SLR-UM 226
*SLRM226*
-4-
16) ___________ attempts to capture the distribution of frequencies of the

words in the text.
a) Uclidean distance
b) Manhatten law
c) Zipfs law
d) BibTex law
17) The edit distance between survey and surgery is __________

a) One
b) Two
c) Four
d) Five
18) The LCS of the strings survey and surgery is ________

a) Sug
b) Surey
c) Gery
d) Rvey
19) Long form of RDF is

a) Resource Description Format
b) Redundancy Definition Format
c) Range Definition Format
d) Range Description Format
20) Trying all possible pattern in the text is __________ algorithm.
a) KMP
b) Boyer-Moore family
c) Brute Force
d) None of these
______________
*SLRM226*
-5-
SLR-UM 226
Seat
No.
B.E. (CSE) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Elective I : INFORMATION RETRIEVAL
Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Answer any two of the following :
1) With diagram explain the process of retrieval of information.
2) Write a note on structural queries.
3) Explain in detail multimedia data formats and textual images.
3. Explain the following two methods of sequential searching :
a) Boyer-Moore family
b) Shift-Or.
4. Write notes on any two of the following :
a) Formal characterization of IR models.
b) Adhoc Retrieval and Filtering
c) Context Queries.
(210=20)
10
(52=10)
SECTION II
5. Write in detail note on architecture Search Engines.
10
6. Explain in detail A Generic Multimedia Indexing Approach.
10
7. Write short notes on any four of the following :

a) MULTOS Data Model
b) Web Query Languages
c) Crawling
d) Digital libraries
e) Automatic feature extraction.
_____________________
(45=20)
Code No.
SLR-UM 227
*SLRUM227*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014
Elective I : HUMAN COMPUTER INTERFACE
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

1. Choose the correct answer (Each 1 mark) :
Marks : 20
20
1) Which one of the following is not the element of the WIMP interface ?
a) Icons
b) Menus
c) Pointers
d) Buttons
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 227
*SLRUM227*
-2-
DO
T
NO
E
R
E
H
ITE
R
W
2) Which is/are goal/s of evaluation ?

a) To assess the extent and accessibility of the systems functionality
b) To assess users experience of the interaction
c) To identify any specific problem with the systems
d) All above
3) Which one of the following is Evaluation through user participation ?
a) Query techniques
b) Heuristic evaluation
c) Model-based evaluation
d) All above
4) Which refers to the users ability to adjust the form of input and output ?
a) Adaptability
b) Predictability
c) Customizability
d) None
5) In what memory information remains very briefly, in the order of 0.5 seconds ?
a) Short term memory
b) Long term memory
c) Iconic memory
d) None
6) Pitch is frequency
a) Sound
b) Light
c) Intensity
d) Noise
7) Reasoning types
a) Reason, understand, inference
b) Deductive, inductive, abductive
c) Cumulative, assimilative, conclusive
*SLRUM227*
SLR-UM 227
-3-
8) Colour is regarded to be made of three components

a) Red, Green, Blue
b) Cyan, Magenta, Yellow
c) Hue, intensity, saturation
9) Waterfall model, in which each step must be completed before the next
step can be started is a type of
a) Incremental model
b) Linear model
c) Iterative model
d) Analytical model
10) Design phase usually

a) Top-down
b) Bottom-up
c) Random
11) What is the ability of a person to perceive fine detail ?

a) Vision
b) Visual acuity
c) Perception
d) None
12) What is the distance between the physical presentation of the system
state and the expectation of the user ?
a) Interaction framework
b) Interactive cycle
c) Gulf of evaluation
d) None
13) What was the first interactive dialog style to be commonly used ?
a) Menus
b) WIMP
c) Spreadsheets
d) Command line interface
14) Virtual reality is the example of

a) WIMP
b) 3D i/f
c) Both
d) None
15) Which are used quite successfully to teach new concepts in terms of once
which are already understood ?
a) Personal computing
b) Prog toolkit
c) The metaphor
d) None
16) Saturation is the amount of

a) Whiteness in colour
b) Grayness in colour
c) Mix of white and gray
SLR-UM 227
*SLRUM227*
-4-
17) GOMS model is

a) Government, ordinances, modes, systems
b) Goals, operations, method, selections
c) System of converting usability standards
18) Which of these are attributes of usability ?
a) Usefulness
b) Learnability
c) Generalisability
d) Efficiency
19) In a heuristic evaluation

a) A group of usability experts judges an interface with a detailed
checklist of guidelines
b) Group of test users conducts a formal experiment
c) Group of psychologists administers a questionnaire
d) A group of usability experts reviews a user interface according
to a small set of general principles
20) Wizard is
a) Tool that allocates software link in an application
b) Tool that finds information
c) Tool that leads user step by step using information supplied by user
______________________
*SLRUM227*
-5-
SLR-UM
227
SLR-UM
227
Seat
No.

Elective I : HUMAN COMPUTER INTERFACE
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any five questions from each Section.

2) Each question carries 8 marks.
SECTION I
1. Explain elements of WIMP interface.
2. What is interaction framework ?
3. Explain importance of mental model in interface design.
4. What are limitations on interactive performance ?
5. Explain screen design and layout.
6. Explain storage formats and standards.
SECTION II
7. Explain designing for users with disabilities.
8. State and explain Shneidermans 8 golden rules of interface or design.
9. Explain Heuristic evaluation.
10. What are HCI patterns ?
11. Explain GOMS.
12. Explain Cognitive walkthrough.
8
___________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 228
*SLRUM228*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------B.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ADVANCE DATABASE SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m. Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

I. Choose the correct alternative :
Marks : 20
20
1) The architecture of a database system is greatly influenced by

a) Networking
b) Parallelism
c) Distribution
d) All the above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 228
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM228*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Which is not provided by the back end of data functionality ?

a) Access structures
b) Query evaluation and optimisation
c) Concurrency control
d) Report writers
3) The system is said to demonstrate linear scale up on task Q it
b) TL < TS
a) TL = TS
c) TL > TS
d) TL TS = 1
4) In horizontal fragmentation
a) ri = Ri (r )
b) r = r1 r2 r3 rn
c) R = R1 R 2 ... R n
d) r = r1 r2 ... rn
5) In lock de-escalation
a) Server requests its clients to transfer back locks on perfected
items
b) Client request server to grant the locks
c) Server grants lock to its clients
d) Clients release locks on items
6) NUMA is an example of _____________ architecture.
a) Shared memory
b) Shared disk
c) Shared nothing
d) Hierarchical
*SLRUM228*
-3-
SLR-UM 228
7) _____________ protocol has the advantage of imposing less overhead

on read operation.
a) Majority protocol
b) Quorum sensus protocol
c) Biased protocol
d) All the above
8) Multi database systems are also called

a) Spatial databases
b) Heterogenous databases
c) Homogenous databases
d) Multimedia databases
9) _____________ Architecture requires full back end functionality at
the clients.
a) Transaction server
b) Data server
c) Both a) and b)
10) Rollup (color, size) generates _____________ groups.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
11) Cube operation generates _____________ groups for n attributes.

a) n2
b) log n
c) n 1
d) 2n
12) _____________ Partitioning technique is best suited for point queries.

b) Range partitioning
a) Round Robin
c) Hash partitioning
d) All the above
13) ROLAP systems use

a) Multidimensional arrays
b) Relational database
c) Reliable database
d) Relocatable database
14) Database management system which is implemented on tightly coupled
microprocessors is known as
a) Distributed database
b) Parallel database
c) Client server database
d) Centralised database
SLR-UM 228
-4-
15) SQL 1999 does not support

a) Arrays
c) CLOB
*SLRUM228*
b) Sets
d) BLOB
16) Parallel execution of multiple queries generated by concurrent

transactions is called _____________ parallelism.
a) Inter operation
b) Intra operation
c) Inter query
d) Intra query
17) The process by which best execution strategy for a given query is
found from among a set of alternatives is called _____________
a) Query evolution
b) Query processing
c) Query optimisation
d) Query transformation
18) The operation of grouping the records of multiple individual in a house,

so that only one mailing is sent to each house is called
a) Data cleansing
b) Merge-purge operation
c) House holding
19) An activity is which multiple tasks are executed in a coordinated way

by different processing entities is called
a) Transactional RPC
b) Multisystem application
c) Work slow
20) SQL 1999 supports
a) Single inheritance
c) Both a) and b)

b) Multiple inheritance
______________________
*SLRUM228*
-5-
SLR-UM
228
SLR-UM
228
Seat
No.
B.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ADVANCE DATABASE SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
II. Solve any four :
(45=20)
1) Explain the features of client-server systems.

2) With graph explain linear speedup, sub linear speedup, linear scaleup and
sub linear scaleup along with the equations.
3) What is data fragmentation ? Explain its two techniques with example.
4) Draw the interconnecting network architectures of (a) Mesh (b) Hypercube
used in parallel systems and explain its features.
5) Explain type inheritance, table inheritance and consistency requirements for
sub tables in object relational databases.
III. Solve any one :
10
1) Explain the transaction server, its architecture and its components with
diagram.
2) Explain the following locking protocols
a) Distributed Lock Manager.
b) Majority Protocol.
c) Biased Protocol.
d) Quorum Consensus Protocol.
IV. With diagram, explain the different architectures of parallel systems.
10
SLR-UM 228
-6-
*SLRUM228*
SECTION II
V. Solve any four :
(45=20)
1) What is datacube and crosstab ? Explain its operations pivoting, rollup,

drill down.
2) Write the queries for :
i) cube
ii) rollup
iii) rank ( )
iv) dence_rank ( )
v) ntile ( )
3) Explain the applications of data mining
a) Associations
b) Classification
4) Explain the key properties of long duration transactions.
5) With diagram, explain the steps in query processing.
VI. Solve any one :
10
1) What are TP monitors ? Explain the different architectures of TP monitors.

2) Explain the features of main-memory database. Also mention the optimizations
provided by main-memory databases.
VII. What is data warehousing ? Explain its architecture and discuss the issues.
i) When and how to gather data ?
ii) Data cleansing.
___________________
10
Code No. SLR-UM 229

Seat
No.
*SLRUM229*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014
MOBILE COMPUTING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Q. 1 is objective type.
Answers to two Sections should be written in the same
answer book.
Marks : 20

1) Reason for using small cells is
a) Frequency reuse
b) Handover frequency more
c) It is expensive
d) All above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 229
-2-
DO
T
NO
*SLRUM229*
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The use of high frequency is advisable in antennas in wireless communication

because
a) Errors are reduced due to high frequency
b) Data can be transferred with high rate
c) The size of antenna becomes smaller
d) All above
3) Which of the following is true related to logical channels of GSM ?
a) Broadcast control channel is unidirectional
b) Common control channel is bidirectional
c) All above
d) None above
4) CSMA/CA scheme in wired medium does not work as it is in wireless medium
a) Carrier is sensed at transmitter
b) Carrier is sensed at receiver
c) Carrier is sensed either at transmitter or at receiver
d) None above
5) For sending SMS in GSM,
a) Channel is reserved by BSC
b) Channel is reserved by MSC
c) Channel is reserved by BTS
d) Channel is not reserved at all
*SLRUM229*
SLR-UM 229
-3-
6) Mechanism used in M-TCP is

a) Splits TCP connection in to two
b) Splits TCP connection, chokes sender
c) Snoops data
d) Snoops data and acknowledgement
7) In M-TCP, the sender goes in to which mode, when sender window size is set
to zero.
a) Persistent
b) Supervisory
c) Slow start
d) None of above
8) Current location of MN is defined by

a) Care of Address (CoA)
b) Foreign Agent (FA)
c) Home Network (HN)
d) Home Agent (HA)
9) End-to-end TCP semantic is preserved in

a) Snooping TCP
b) Indirect TCP
c) Wireless TCP
d) None of above
10) Fragmentation of data is used in wireless transmission because

a) Possibility of full data loss in transmission without fragmentation
b) Possibility of increase of error in transmission without fragmentation
c) Both above
d) None above
11) The meaning of each address from 1 to 4 of MAC frame is depends on
___________ bit.
b) retry bit
a) more fragment bit
c) DS bit
d) none of above
12) Roaming is
a) association and reassociation between AP
b) changing AP
c) scanning for AP
d) all the above
13) M-TCP requires new network element ____________
a) mobile node
b) persistent mode
c) bandwidth manager
d) foreign agent
SLR-UM 229
*SLRUM229*
-4-
14) In FDM/FDD scheme of GSM, channel reservation is done for

b) Downlink channel
a) Uplink channel
c) Both a) and b)
d) None above
15) Static schemes in TDM are useful for

a) Light load
c) Bursty data
b) Heavy load
d) All above
16) p-persistent TDM in wireless medium is characterized by

a) Fast rate of data transmission
b) Least collisions
c) Higher error rate
d) All above
17) Packet reservation multiple access is
a) Explicit reservation scheme
b) Integrated reservation scheme
c) Implicit reservation scheme
d) None above
18) MACA TDMA scheme is used in wireless medium for
a) Reduce the errors
b) Increase data transmission rate
c) Reliable data transmission
d) All above
19) Autocorrelation means
a) Comparing a vector with itself for finding out similarity
b) Comparing two vectors for finding out similarity
c) Comparing three vectors for finding out similarity
d) Comparing many vectors for finding out similarity
20) In wireless medium, due to Inter Symbol Interference
a) Data rate increases
b) Error rate decreases
c) Decreases upper frequency limit
d) Energy separation between two pulses increases
______________
-5-
*SLRUM229*
SLR-UM 229
Seat
No.
B.E. (Computer Science and Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

MOBILE COMPUTING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

3) Answers to two Sections should be written in the same
answer book.
SECTION I
2. Write any four :
(45=20)
1) FDM/FDD in GSM
2) Advanced FSK
3) Direct sequence spread spectrum
4) Dynamic demand driven MACA scheme
5) BSC in GSM.
3. Why bearer services in GSM are not provided end to end ? With a schematic,
explain GSM services.
10
OR
What is digital modulation ? What are its different applications ? What are its
different types ? Explain its basic schemes and compare.
4. What are the different components in operation sub system of GSM ? Discuss
each component.
10
10
OR
What are different reservation schemes in dynamic TDM ? Discuss any one in
detail.
10
SLR-UM 229
-6-
*SLRUM229*
SECTION II
5. Solve any four :
(45=20)
1) Explain goal of WLAN. Also explain advantages and disadvantages of WLAN.

2) Tunneling and encapsulation in mobile network layer.
3) What are basic access mechanism in IEEE 802.11 ? Discuss in brief.
4) Explain agent advertisement method of agent discovery in mobile network
layer.
5) Congestion control in mobile TCP.
6. Solve any one :
a) i) How transaction-oriented TCP reduces overhead for connection setup and
connection release ?
ii) Explain the need of optimization in mobile network layer.
b) Discuss MAC frame in WLAN IEEE 802.11 in detail.
6
4
10
7. Solve any one :

a) Explain bluetooth technology.
10
b) Explain Indirect-TCP with its advantages and disadvantages.
10
______________
Code No.
*SLR-UM-23*
SLR-UM 23
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S.E. (Civil) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

FLUID MECHANICS I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

2) Assume suitable additional data, if necessary.
3) Solve all MCQ / objective type questions within 30 minutes.
Marks : 20
1. MCQ (Objective Type Questions) :
(201=20)
1) The ratio of the specific weight of the liquid to the specific weight of a standard
liquid is known as
a) Specific volume
b) Weight density
c) Specific gravity
d) Viscosity
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 23
*SLR-UM-23*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The printers ink is an example of
a) Newtonian fluid
b) Non-Newtonian
c) Thyxotropic substance
d) Elastic solid
3) Which of the following is an example of phenomenon of surface tension ?

a) Rain drops
b) Rise of sap in a tree
c) Break up of liquid jets
d) All of the above
4) The pressure of a liquid on a surface will always act ____________ to the

surface.
a) Parallel
b) Normal
c) 45
d) 60
5) Piezometers measure ____________ pressure only.

a) Absolute
b) Gauge
c) Atmospheric
d) Any of the above
6) The intensity of pressure p is related to specific weight w of the liquid and

vertical depth h of the point by the equation.
a) p = wh
b) h = pw
c) p = wh2
d) p = wh3
7) A floating body is in stable equilibrium when

a) The metacenter is below its centre of gravity
b) The metacenter is above its centre of gravity
c) The metacentric height is zero
d) Its centre of gravity is below the centre of buoyancy
*SLR-UM-23*
SLR-UM 23
-3-
8) In a steady flow the velocity
a) Does not change from place to place

b) At a given point does not change with time
c) May change its direction but the magnitude remains unchanged
9) The flow in a river during the period of heavy rainfall is
a) Steady, non-uniform and three-dimensional

b) Steady, uniform, two-dimensional
c) Unsteady, uniform, three-dimensional
d) Unsteady, non-uniform and three-dimensional
10) The path followed by fluid particle in motion is called a
a) Stream line
b) Path line
c) Streak line
11) Velocity head is given by
v
a)
g
v2
b)
2g
v3
c)
2g
v2
d)
2g2
12) In which of the following measuring devices Bernoullis equation is used

a) Venturi meter
b) Orifice meter
c) Pitot-tube
d) All the above
13) The total energy line is always higher than the hydraulic gradient line, the
vertical distance between the two representing
a) The pressure head
b) The piezometric head
c) The velocity head
14) Co-efficient of contraction (Cc) is equal to
a) ac/a
b) a/ac
c) a ac
d)
ac / c
SLR-UM 23
*SLR-UM-23*
-4-
15) The flow is said to be turbulent when Reynolds number is

a) Less than 1000
b) Equal to 2000
c) Greater than 4000
d) Between 1000 to 4000
16) Darcy-Weisbach equation is used to find loss of head due to

a) Sudden enlargement
b) Sudden-contraction
c) Friction
17) Loss of head due to sudden enlargement is given as

V1 V2
a)
2g
V1 V2
b)
2g
V12 V22
c)
2g
V1 V2
2g
d)
18) Due to which of the following phenomena water hammer is caused ?
a) In compressibility of fluid
b) Sudden opening of a valve in a pipeline
c) The material of the pipe being elastic
d) Sudden closure (partial or complete) of a valve in pipe flow
19) Loss of head at entrance to a pipe is given as
v2
a)
2g
b)
v2
c) 0.5
2g
v3
d)
2g
v
g
20) Momentum thickness is given by

a)
c)
1 U .dy
b)
u u2
1
.dy
U U2
u
u
1 dy
U U
______________________
*SLR-UM-23*
-5-
SLR-UM 23
Seat
No.

FLUID MECHANICS I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory. Solve any two questions

from Q. 3 to Q. 5 and from Q. 7 to Q. 9.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks
3) Assume correct data, wherever necessary.
4) Use of non-programmable calculator is permitted.
SECTION I
2. a) Define :
1) Viscosity
2) Capillarity
3) Surface tension
4) Vapour pressure.
b) Determine the mass density. Specific volume and specific weight of a liquid
whose specific gravity is 0.85.
c) A plate has an area of 1 m2. It slides down an inclined plane, having angle of
inclination 45 to the horizontal, with a velocity of 0.5 m/s. The thickness of
oil film between the plane and the plate is 1 mm. Find the viscosity of the fluid
if the weight of the plate is 70.72 N.
3. a) State and prove Pascals law.

b) A U-tube manometer is used to measure the pressure of oil of specific gravity
0.85 flowing in a pipe line. Its left end is connected to the pipe and the right
limb is open to the atmosphere. The centre of the pipe is 100 mm below the
level of mercury (sp.gr. = 13.6) in the right limb. If the difference of mercury
level in the two limbs is 160 mm, determine the absolute pressure of the oil in
the pipe.
SLR-UM 23
-6-
*SLR-UM-23*
4. a) Derive an expression for the depth of centre of pressure from free surface
of liquid of an inclined plane surface submerged in the fluid.
b) A solid cylinder 2 m in diameter and 2 m high is floating in water with its axis
vertical. If the sp. gravity of the material of cylinder is 0.65 find its metacentric
height. State also whether the equilibrium is stable or unstable.
5. a) Define :
6
6
1) Steady flow
2) Uniform flow
3) Rotational flow
4) Laminar flow
5) Path line
6) Stream line.
b) The velocity potential function ( ) is given by an expression
xy 3
x3y
2
x +
+ y2 .
=
3
3
i) Find the velocity components in x and y directions.

ii) Show that represents a possible case of flow.
SECTION II
6. a) Derive Bernoullis theorem for steady flow of an incompressible fluid and
state assumptions made for the derivation.
b) A 300 mm 150 mm venturimeter is provided in a vertical pipeline carrying

oil of specific gravity 0.9, flow being upward. The difference in elevation of the
throat section and entrance section of the venturimeter is 300 mm. The
differential U-tube mercury manometer shows a gauge deflection of 250 mm.
Calculate :
i) The discharge of oil and
ii) The pressure difference between the entrance section and the throat
section.
Take the coefficient of meter as 0.98 and specific gravity of mercury as 13.6. 8
*SLR-UM-23*
-7-
SLR-UM 23
7. a) Using Hagen-Poiselles equation obtain the expression for friction factor in

terms of Reynolds number.
b) In a pipe of dia. 350 mm and length 75 m water is flowing at a velocity of 2.8 m/s.
Find the head lost due to friction using :
i) Darcy-Weisbach formula.
ii) Chezys formula for which C = 55.
Assume kinematic viscosity of water as 0.012 stoke.
8. a) How do you determine the size of equivalent pipe ?
8
4
b) Two sharp ended pipes of diameters 50 mm and 100 mm respectively, each

of length 100 m resp., are connected in parallel between two reservoirs which
have a difference of level of 10 m. If the friction factor for each pipe is 0.32,
calculate :
i) Rate of flow for each pipe and
ii) The dia. of a single pipe 100 m long which would give the same discharge,
if it were substituted for the original two pipes.
9. a) Explain the Hardy Cross Method of solving pipe network.
b) Find the displacement thickness, momentum thickness and energy thickness

u y
= where u is
U
the velocity at a dist. y from the plate and u = U at y = where = boundary
layer thickness.
for the velocity distribution in the boundary layer given by,
Also calculate
*
.
___________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 230
Seat
No.
*SLRUM230*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2014

PRINCIPLES OF MANAGEMENT AND ENGINEERING ECONOMICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N.B. : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

2) First Question is objective type.
Marks : 20
20
1) Which of the following functions requires recruiting and placing

qualified personal needed for the organization so that if may achieve
its objectives and goals ?
a) planing
b) staffing
c) organizing
d) controlling
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 230
*SLRUM230*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Equity theory of motivation focuses on

a) people expectation of the different outcomes for a given action
b) peoples perception of how fairly they have been treated in
comparison with other
c) the motivational force involved in a persons actions at work
d) peoples perception of how they should perform in a given
situation at work
3) The clearing house is managed by which of the following Bank ?
b) Co-operative Bank
a) State Bank of India
c) Commercial Banks
d) Reserve Bank of India
4) People demand more of product X when the price of product Y decreases.

This means X and Y are
a) complements
b) substitutes
c) not related
d) both inexpensive
5) In the second stage of group development

a) the group demonstrates cohesiveness
b) close relationship are developed
c) intergroup conflict often occurs
d) the job/task is performed
6) Organizational chart are useful because they can
a) help to explain organization to new staff
b) help plan management training and succession
c) indicate apparent weakness in structure
d) all of above
*SLRUM230*
SLR-UM 230
-3-
7) The maximum no. of membership in private limited companies ____

a) 100
b) unlimited
c) 50
d) 10
8) If original price (p) and quantity (q) are Rs. 10 and 50 and change in
price 12 and 45 resp. Compute price elasticity.
a) 3
b) 0.5
c) 2
d) 1
9) An increase in the cost of computer memory chips will __________

the equilibrium price and __________ the equilibrium quantity of
personal computers.
a) increase, decrease
b) increase, increase
c) decrease, decrease
d) decrease, increase
10) Which of the following is not a determinant of price elasticity of demand ?

a) The availability of substitutes
b) The availability of disposable income
c) The relative importance of the good in the budget
d) The amount of time required to adjust the budget
e) All of the above
11) A co-operative society works on the principal of self help as well as
___________
a) mutual profit
b) mutual help
c) mutual gain
d) mutual loss
12) According to Herzberg which of the following is a maintenance factor ?

a) salary
b) work itself
c) responsibility
d) recognition
13) The break even point can be defined as

a) the level of activity where cash flow is zero
b) the level of activity where profit equal fixed cost
c) the level of activity where there is no profit no loss
d) the level of activity where variable cost covered by sales revenue
SLR-UM 230
*SLRUM230*
-4-
14) According to law of demand

a) there is positive relationship between quantity demanded and price
b) as the price rises, demand will shift to the left
c) there is negative relationship between quantity demanded and price
d) as price rises, demand will shift to the right
15) What is the key word in understanding organization structure ?
a) control
b) change
c) process
d) delegation
16) Consumers Co-operative Society help to eliminate _________ in the

process of distribution of goods.
a) distributor
b) middlemen
c) partners
d) owner
17) The margin of safety can be expressed as

a) the difference between the actual output and break even point
b) the defference between actual and budgeted output
c) the excess of stock held over the expected demand
d) the excess of selling price over cost of sales
18) The more substitutes available for a product
a) the larger is its income elasticity of demand
b) the smaller is its income elasticity of demand
c) the smaller is its price elasticity of demand
d) the larger is its the price elasticity of demand
19) Communication begins with ______________
b) idea origination
a) encoding
c) decoding
d) channel selection
20) Co-ordination in an organization means

1) Complete control of the activities of the employees
2) To secure harmony among different units of organization
3) Removal of conflict and overlapping in the organization
codes :
b) 1 and 3
a) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
____________
*SLRUM230*
-5-
SLR-UM 230
Seat
No.

PRINCIPLES OF MANAGEMENT AND ENGINEERING ECONOMICS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
N.B. : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any 4 :
20
1) Define staffing. Explain steps involved in staffing process.

2) Explain line and staff organization structure with example.
3) What is process theories of work motivation explain Vrooms expectancy
theory of work motivation ?
4) Explain stages of group development.
5) What is partnership organization ? Its advantages and disadvantages.
3. Attempt any 2 :
10
1) Define :
a) Direction of labour
b) Span of control
c) Lateral relationship
d) Leadership
e) Work team.
2) Committee organization explain.
3) Short note on organization chart.
4. Attempt any 2 :
1) Oral and written communication differentiate.
2) Group norms.
3) Herzbergs 2 factor theory of work motivation explain.
10
SLR-UM 230
-6-
*SLRUM230*
SECTION II
5. Attempt any 4 :
20
1) Explain cross elasticity demand with example.

2) Explain graphical method of calculating Break Even Point.
3) Banks in our country.
4) Write short note on elasticity of demand.
5) Application of break even analysis.
6. Vijaya company submitted following information :
10
selling price Rs. 40 p.u.

variable cost Rs. 30 p.u.
fixed cost Rs. 30,000
Find out :
1) BEP in Rs. and in outputs
2) Profit volume ratio
3) Selling price if BEP reduces to 500 units.
OR
6. Attempt any 2 :
10
1) Define :
a) Supply price
b) Law of demand
c) Elasticity of supply
d) Equilibrium price
e) Supply schedule .
2) What is capital ? What are its types explain ?
3) Short note on cheque :
7. 1) Sales 6,00,000, Variable cost 3,00,000, Fixed cost 1,50,000. Find BEP and
PVR.
2) Short note on duties and funn of bank.
3) Labour and its types.
_____________________
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 231
*SLRUM231*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------B.E. CSE (Part II) Examination, 2014

Elective II : DATA MINING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. 1) Data preprocessing includes data cleaning, data integration, data reduction

and _________
a) Data transformation
b) Data normalization
c) Both
d) None of these
20
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 231
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM231*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) __________ routine can be used to fill in missing values, smooth noisy data,
identify outliers and correct data in consistencies.
a) Data cleaning
b) Data integration
c) Data transformation
d) Data normalization
3) ____________ routines convert the data into appropriate forms of mining.

a) Data cleaning
b) Data integration
4) Data cube aggregation is a technique of

a) Data reduction
b) Data integration
5) Arrange the stages of data mining in order A) selection B) transformation

C) data mining D) preprocessing E) interpretation.
a) ABCDE
b) ADBEC
c) DABEC
d) ADBCE
6) ______________ method smooth a sorted data value by consulting the values

around it.
a) Clustering
b) Binning
c) Regression
7) ______________ are extreme observations that are inconsistent with respect

to other observations.
a) Noise
b) Outliers
c) Both
d) None of these
*SLRUM231*
-3-
SLR-UM 231
8) Regression is ______________ learning.

a) Supervised
b) Unsupervised
c) KDD
9) ______________ , which works to remove the noise from data.

a) Aggregation
b) Generalization
c) Normalization
d) Smoothing
10) ___________ can be used as data reduction technique since it allows a large
data set to be represented by a much smaller random subset of data.
a) Clustering
b) Sampling
c) Histograms
d) Smoothing
11) Which is not a type of concept hierarchy

a) Schema hierarchy
b) Set-grouping hierarchy
c) Operation-derived hierarchy
d) Generalized hierarchy
12) Measures of association Rules are
a) t-weight and d-weight
b) entropy
c) support
13) A provi contains two steps as,

a) Search and Join
b) Search and Prune
c) Join and Prune
d) None of these
14) Classification is used to prediction are two forms of
a) Data analysis
b) Data description
c) Data characterization
d) Describing data classes
SLR-UM 231
-4-
*SLRUM231*
15) Construction and use of a model to answer the class of an unlabelled sample
is referred as,
a) Clustering
b) Association
c) Prediction
d) None of these
16) The basic Greedy Algorithm for Decision tree Induction constructs decision
trees in
a) Level wise approach
b) Bottom-up approach
c) Top-down approach
d) None of these
17) Bayesian classifiers are

a) Statistical classifiers
b) Classifier attributes
c) Both a) and b)
18) In decision tree, if the splitting attribute is numeric, then the splitting
test is an ____________ test.
a) Equality
b) Inequality
c) Both a) and b)
19) To improve the accuracy and efficiency of classification/prediction process ;

following preprocessing is applied,
a) Data reduction
b) Data compression
c) Relevance analysis
d) All above
20) Classification is used to predict the class label at

a) Numeric value
b) Continuous value
c) Categorical value
______________________
*SLRUM231*
-5-
SLR-UM
231
SLR-UM
231
Seat
No.
B.E. CSE (Part II) Examination, 2014

Elective II : DATA MINING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Explain the KDD process in detail.

b) Enlist and focus on the tools used for data mining.
c) Explain the need of data pre-processing in data mining.
d) Write short note on Discretization and concept hierarchy generation.
e) Explain the issues in classification technique of data mining.
3. With suitable example explain the
Bayes classification algorithm.
10
OR
3. Explain the K-nearest neighbors classification algorithm with suitable example.
10
4. Explain the generating rules covering algorithm without DT with suitable example. 10
SECTION II
5. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Write an algorithm to generate association rules from large itemsets.

b) Explain BIRCH algorithm for clustering.
c) Write a note on crawlers.
d) Explain spatial queries in detail.
e) Write a note on time series analysis.
6. What is dendrogram ? Write an agglomerative clustering algorithm with example. 10
7. Explain any five data mining applications in detail.
_____________________
10
Code No. SLR-UM
232
*SLRUM232*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------B.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2014

SOFTWARE TESTING AND QUALITY ASSURANCE (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) ___________ activities aim at confirming that a product meets its customer

expectations.
a) Validation
b) Verification
c) Confirmation
d) Design
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 232
*SLRUM232*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) A ____________ is the adjudged cause of an error.

a) Failure
b) Fault
c) Defect
d) Error
3) PDCA cycle is also called as ___________

a) Edward cycle
b) Juse cycle
c) Shewhart cycle
d) Software life cycle
4) A error is a ____________ of the system.

a) Defect
b) Wrong interpretation
c) Failure
d) State
5) ___________ describes the collection of techniques that apply an engineering

approach to the construction and support of software products.
a) Software Engineering
b) Software Testing
c) Software Maintenance
d) None of these
6) ____________ encourages us to improve our processes and products.
a) Software Review
b) Measurement
c) Scalability
d) All
7) __________ are a special type of failure, where the system ceases to

function.
a) Anomalies
b) Bugs
c) Crashes
d) Defects
*SLRUM232*
-3-
SLR-UM 232
8) ____________ is the physical size of the product.

a) Complexity
b) Measurement
c) Functionality
d) Length
9) ____________ reusable software system none of the code comes

from a previously constructed unit.
a) New
b) Old
c) Recent
d) All
10) Complexity of a problem means the amount of ___________ required

for an optimal solution to the problem.
a) Resources
b) Products
c) Quality
d) All
11) In _____________ a program unit is tested in isolation.

a) Acceptance testing
b) Unit testing
c) Integration testing
d) System testing
12) ____________ are a description of the needs or desires of users that a

system is supposed to implement.
a) Requirements
b) Designs
c) Programs
d) None of these
13) Function calls are a mechanism to provide _______ in program design.

a) Encapsulation
b) Abstraction
c) Modularity
d) Complexity
14) A _____________ is a graphical representation of program unit.

a) CFG
b) CFS
c) COF
d) None of these
15) The ____________ for a software system is the actual time spent by a
processor in executing the instructions of the software system.
a) Calendar time
b) Compile time
c) Execution time
d) Testing time
SLR-UM 232
*SLRUM232*
-4-
16) ____________ is a measure of the reliability of a software system

operating in a given environment.
a) Failure intensity
b) Error intensity
c) Fault intensity
d) Defect intensity
17) An operation profile can be represented in a __________ form in

software reliability.
a) Mathematical
b) Logical
c) Tabular
d) None of these
18) Transcendental view is one of the view of ____________

a) Software reliability
b) Software quality
c) Software maintainability
d) None of these
19) Correctness McCalls equality factor is categorized in _________

category.
a) Product operation
b) Product revision
c) Product transition
d) All
20) Customer focus is a principle of ___________ quality standard.

a) ISO 9000 : 2000
b) McCalls quality criteria standard
c) ISO 9126 quality standards
d) ISO 9000
__________________
*SLRUM232*
-5-
SLR-UM 232
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
(45=20)
1) Explain the differences between software validation and verification.

2) Explain software quality revolution in detail.
3) Explain objectives for software measurement in software engineering.
4) Define the notion of error, fault and failure in software.
5) What are the different aspects of software size in software engineering
measurement ?
6) Explain coupling and cohesion in modularity of software design.
3. Explain all the object oriented metrics and use of data structure in software
engineering measurement.
10
4. Write short notes on (any three) :
10
a) Role of Testing
b) Notion of software reliability
c) Objectives of testing
d) Software measurement validation
e) Overview of statistical test.
SLR-UM 232
-6-
*SLRUM232*
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Explain concept of unit testing in detail.

2) What are the five view of software quality ?
3) Give different definitions of software reliability along with an examples. Compare
the definitions of software reliability.
4) Explain software quality assurance group in detail for providing software
reliability.
5) Explain software acceptance testing in detail.
6) Explain all the ISO 9001 : 2000 requirements of software quality standards.
6. What are the different McCalls quality factors ? Explain in detail with an examples.
Also explain categorization of McCalls quality factors in detail. Give brief
information about quality criterions.
10
a) Domain testing
b) Functional testing
c) Test groups
d) Team building
e) Characteristics for recruiting test engineer.
______________
10
Code No. SLR-UM
233
*SLRUM233*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) The particular integral of (D2 + 2D + 1)y = 2e3 x is

3x
a) e
16
3x
b) e
8
2 3x
c) x e
8
3x
d) xe
16
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 233
*SLRUM233*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The general solution of the diff. equation (D + 1)2 (D 2)y = 0 is
3)
a) (c1 + c 2 x )e x + c 3e2 x
b) (c1 + c 2 x )e x + c 3e 2 x
c) c1 cos x + c 2 sin x + c 3e2 x
d) c1e x + c 2e x + c 3e 2 x
1
X = _____________
Da
a) e ax e ax Xdx
c) eax e ax Xdx
b) X e ax dx
d) None of these
4) The P.I. of ( x 2D2 2xD + 2)y = x 1 is

x
a) 6
x
b) e
6
c) 6x
d) 1
6x
5) The solution of q = ep is
a) z = ax + epy + c
c) z = ax + eay + c
b) z = ax + by + c
d) None of these
6) The partial diff. equation z2(p2 + q2 + 1) = 1 is

a) Linear
b) Non-linear
c) Homogeneous
d) Non-homogeneous
7) L e 3 t cos 3t = __________
s+3
a) s 2 + 6s + 18
s3
c) s 2 6s 18
s+3
b) s 2 6s + 18
s3
d) s 2 + 6s 18
*SLRUM233*
1
1
= ____________
8) L 2
s
16
a) sinh4t
c) sinh 4t
4
SLR-UM 233
-3-
b) cosh4t
d) cosh 4 t
4
9) If L{f( t )} = (s) then L{f(at )} is

a) (s a )
b) a1 (a s )
c) s1 (s a )
d) a1 (s a )
L
cosh
udu
= _________
10)
0
s
a) s 2 1
1
b) s 2 1
s
c) s 2 + 1
1
d) s 2 + 1
11) If y = x + 1 and x = 3y 7 are the two lines of regression then x and y

are ____________
a) 3, 2
b)
3, 2
c) 2, 3
d)
2, 3
12) The minimum value of correlation coefficient is

a) 0
b) 1
c) 1
d) None of these
13) One of the Dirichlets condition is the function f(x) should be ______
a) Single valued
b) Multi-valued
c) Real-valued
d) None of these
14) Fourier expansion of an odd function f(x) in ( , ) has
a) Only sine terms
d) None of these
SLR-UM 233
*SLRUM233*
-4-
15) The period of cos3x is

a) 3
b) 2
d) 2
3
c) 6
16) If r = xi + yj + zk then curl r is
a) r
c) O
b) r
d) r 2
17) The maximum rate of change of = xy 2 + yz + zx 2 at the point (1, 1, 1) is

b) 0
d) None of these
a) 11
c) 3
k
z
18) If z{a } = z a then z{k a k } = _________
z
a) (z a)2
z
b) (z a)2
a
c) (z a)2
az
d) (z a)2
19) If z{xk} = f(z) then z{K xk} = ?

d
a) z F(z)
dz
c)
d
F(z)
dz
b)
1 d
f(z)
z dz
d)
d
[z f(z)]
dz
a) z K xk = z f(z) , where z{xk} = f(z)

dz
b) z{xk} = 1 where xk = 1 k 0
0 k<0
c) z-transform is linear function
d) z-transform operates on sequence of discrete functions
__________________
*SLRUM233*
-5-
SLR-UM 233
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Solve (D4 + 8D2 + 16)y = sin2 x .
b) Solve (D3 + 8)y = x 4 + 2x 2 + 1.
c) Solve q2 = z 2p 2 (1 p 2 ) .
3. a) Find L te 2 t sinh 4t .
s(s 2 + 2)
b) Find L
.
2
2
(s + 1) (s + 1)
1
4
4
c) Solve the diff. equation by Laplace transform method.

d2 x
dx
+5
+ 6x = 5e t ,
2
dt
dt
x(0) = 2, x(0) = 1.
4. a) Solve (z 2 2 yz y 2 )p + ( xy + xz )q = xy zx .
5
5
b) Solve z 2 (p 2 + xq2 ) = x .
c) Solve (x 2D2 + xD + 1)y = (log x )2 + x sin(log x ) .
SLR-UM 233
*SLRUM233*
-6-
5. a) Attempt any two :
10
i) Solve (D3 D2 + 3D + 5)y = e x cos 3x .

ii) Solve (2x + 1)2
d2 y
dy
2
(
2
x
+
1
)
12 y = 6x .
dx
dx 2
u
u
=2
+ u , given u(x, 0) = 6e3x by the
x
t
method of separation of variables.
iii) Solve the following P.D.E.
e 2 t sin3 t
b) Find L
.
t
SECTION II
6. a) Find the two lines of regression and coefficient of correlation for the following
data :
x:
150
152
155 157
160
161 164
y:
154
156
158
160
162
159
166
161 164

x:
y:
1250 1400 1650 1950 2300
x2
7. a) Find Fourier series of the function f(x ) = x +
when < x < and
4
2
1
1
1
1
= 2 2 + 2 2 + ....
f(x + 2) = f( x ) . Hence or otherwise show that
12 1
2
3
4
b) Find the directional derivative of = xy(x y + z) at (1, 2, 1) in the direction

normal to the surface x 2 + y 2 + z = 3 at (1, 1, 1).
*SLRUM233*
-7-
SLR-UM 233
2z 2 10z + 13
when 2 < | z | < 3.
8. a) Obtain inverse z-transform of
(z 3)2 (z 2)
b) Find div ( ) at (1, 1, 1) where = xy 2z 3 and = xy 2 + y 2z + z 2 x .

c) Obtain z-transform of xk =
1
4k
k 0.
9. a) Find half-range sine series for

f(x ) = x
x
0<x
<x<
2

r = ( t 3 + 2) i + (4 t 5)j + (2 t 2 6 t) k at t = 0 and t = 2.
c) Obtain z-transform of sin k, k 0 .

________________
4
4
Code No.
SLR-UM 234
*SLRUM234*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Day & Date ____________________ _
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Section ________________________________________
__________ Examination _________
______________ (Paper - _______)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. 1) Expression in English the statement P Q where P : The sun is shining

today Q : 2 + 7 > 4 is
a) 2 + 7 < 4
b) 2 + 7 4
c) 2 + 7 > 4
d) 2 + 7 4
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 234
*SLRUM234*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) The dual value of (P Q ) T is

a) (P Q ) T
b) (P Q ) F
c) (P Q) F
d) None of above
3) The relation PQ QP is
a) Anti-symmetric
b) Symmetric
c) Associative
d) Distributive
4) A statement that is true for all possible values of its propositional variables is
a) contradiction
b) absurdity
c) contingency
d) tautology
5) If A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {x : x is positive integer with x2 < 20} then

a) A > B
b) A B
c) A = B
d) A B
6) Which of the following statement is correct ?

a) Every set is a subset of itself
b) Two sets A and B are equal iff A B and B A
c) The null set is a subset of every set A
d) All above statements are true
7) The value of A B is
a) {x : x A or x B}
b) {x : x A and x B}
c) {x : x A or x B}
d) {x : x A or x B}
*SLRUM234*
SLR-UM 234
-3-
8) For any two sets A and B following relation is wrong

a) A B = A B
b) A B = A (A B )
c) A (A B ) = A B
d) None of these
9) P Q is equivalent to
a) P Q
b) P Q
c) P Q
d) None of these
10) A mapping F : x y is called on to if

a) Rf = x
c) Df = y
b) Rf = y
d) None of these
11) Algebraic system satisfying properties associatives, commutative, inverse

element is called
a) Monoid
b) Group
c) Abelian group
d) None of these
12) Let G1 and G2 are subgroups of group G then

a) G1 G2 is subgroup of G
b) G1 G2 is sometimes subgroup of G
c) G1 G2 is never subgroup of G
d) a and c are true
13) A self-complemented, distributive lattice is called
a) Boolean Algebra
b) Modular lattice
c) Complete lattice
d) Self dual lattice
14) Property of associativity and _____ is preserved under monoid homomorphism.

a) Commutativity
b) Identity
c) Inverse
d) All of above
15) How many truth tables can be made from one function table ?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 8
SLR-UM 234
**
-4-
16) Every chain is a ____ lattice.

a) Complemented
b) dual
c) distributive
d) none of these
17) If the lattice (c, ) is complemented chain, then

a) |c| 1
b) |c| 2
c) |c| >1
d) c doesnt exist
18) Kernel of homomorphism g from group G, to H, is

a) is a subgroup of G, ,
b) Is a subgroup of H,
c) is a subgroup of G,
d) All of above
19) Principle fo duality is defined as

a) is replaced by
b) LUB becomes GLB
c) All properties not altered when is replaced by
d) All properties not altered when is replaced by other than 0 and
1 element
20) The Boolean expression A + BC equals
a) ( A + B) (A + C)
b) (A+B) (A+C)
c) (A + B) (A + C)
*SLRUM234*
-5-
SLR-UM 234
Seat
No.
S.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four.
20
a) What is tautological implication ? Show following implication without truth table.

(P (Q R)) (P Q) (P R)
b) Describe the sequential allocation of discrete structures in memory of computer.

c) Obtain PDNF of Q (P Q ) .
d) Write a note on principal conjunction normal form with example.
e) Write a note on partion and covering of a set.
3. Solve any one.
10
a) Define with example operations on sets.

b) Explain the concept of theory of inference for statement calculus and show
P can be derived from the following 3 premises
(P Q), Q R, R .
4. Solve any one.

a) Define and explain with example properties of Binary relations in a set.
b) Define POSET. Draw the Hasse diagram of following sets under partial order
relation.
1) {1, 2, 3, 6, 12}
2) {3, 9, 27, 54}.
10
SLR-UM 234
*SLRUM234*
-6-
SECTION II
5. Attempt any four (5 marks each) :
20
a) Let s = {a, b, c}. Draw the diagram of p(s), .

b) What is monoid ? Define epimorphism, mono-morphism and isomorphism
with respect to monoid.
c) Define group as an algebraic system.
d) Derive the reverse polish (suffix) expression for the infix expression
ii) a + b c (e + f | d)
i) a b (c + d) (e h)
e) In the given diagram show that lattices are not distributive.

1
a2
a1
b1
a3
b3
0
f) Define lattice as POSET. Give different properties of lattice with example.
10
A) N, + is an algebraic system where N = {, 1, 2, ...} and operation + is addition.

z 4 , + 4 is another algebraic system where z 4 { [] , [1][2] , [3] } and +4 is
modulo 4 addition. Show that z 4 , + 4 is homomorphic image of N, + . Prove

that mapping preserves identity.
B) What is Kernel of homomorphism ? Show that Kernel of homomorphism g from
group G, to H, is subgroup of G, .
7. X = {2, 3, 6,12, 24, 36} R on X = {( x, y) R, x divides y}
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Construct Hasse diagram.

Maximal and minimal element.
Give chain and antichain.
Maximum length of chain.
Is POSET a lattice ?
____________________
10
Code No. SLR-UM 235
*SLRUM235*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
f
C
Marks : 20

1) If X is boolean variable then choose the correct statement
a) 0 + X = X
b) 1 + X = X
c) X + X1 = X
d) X + X1 = 0
2) Which of the following operation produce output as O if inputs are 1, 1 and 0

respectively
a) OR
b) AND
c) EX OR
d) EX NOR
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 235
*SLRUM235*
-2-
DO
NO
R
W
T
H
E
IT
E
R
E
3) If X, Y, Z are boolean variables then which of the following is not true ?

a) X.X1 = 0
b) X(Y + Z) = (X + Y) (X + Z)
c) X + XZ = X
d) X + Y.Z = (X + Y) (X + Z)
4) Boolean expression X +
:
Y equals
a) X + Y
b) X + XY
c) Y + YX
d)
:
Y+
;
5) Which of the following is register ?

a) accumulator
b) stack pointer
c) program counter
d) buffer
6) Which statement is not true for half adder ?

a) It adds 2 bits
b) Full adder involves 2 half adders
c) It does half work of full adder
d) It takes 2 inputs and generates 2 outputs
7) Binary equivalent of decimal number 0.4375 is
a) 0.0111
b) 0.1011
c) 0.1100
d) 0.1010
8) Minimum number of gates required to implement boolean expression

)
is
a) 1 AND & 1 OR gate
b) 2 NAND gates
c) 3 AND, 1 NOT & 1 OR gate
d) 1 OR gate
*SLRUM235*
SLR-UM 235
-3-
9) In positive edge triggered JK F-F low J and low K produces

a) high state
b) Low state
c) toggle state
d) no change
10) How many flip-flops are needed to design divide by 16 counter ?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
11) Which is true statement for PLA ?

a) It produces SOP as output
b) It produces POS as output
c) It can produce both POS and SOP as output
d) None of these
12) FFFF will be last memory location in a memory of size ?
a) 1 K
b) 16 K
c) 32 K
d) 64 K
13) If 8K 4 memory chip is expanded to 16K 8 memory size then number of

chips used during design are
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
14) If expansion takes place from 4K 2 to 8K 2 then which decoder is used ?

a) 1 : 2 decoder
b) 1 : 4 decoder
c) 1 : 8 decoder
d) 1 : 16 decoder
15) If memory size of chip is M N then M stands for

a) number of words
b) length of word
c) size of word
d) none
16) In 16 : 1 MUX number of select lines used are

a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
17) If single input is given and multiple outputs are taken then this circuit is called as
a) decoder
b) demultiplexer
c) encoder
d) both a) and b)
SLR-UM 235
*SLRUM235*
-4-
18) For 7-segment display which of the following IC is used ?

a) IC 7447
b) IC 74148
c) IC 74154
d) IC 74151
19) If we want to generate 16 : 1 MUX using 4 : 1 MUX then total number of MUX
needed are
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 3
20) IC 74151 can be used as

a) Multiplexer
b) Demultiplexer
c) Decoder
d) Encoder
*SLRUM235*
-5-
SLR-UM 235
Seat
No.
S.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Explain arithmetic logic unit.

b) Design full adder using half adder.
c) Realize the function using NAND gates.
f = Sm (0, 2, 5, 7, 8 10, 13, 15).
d) Minimize the function using K-map
f = Sm (0, 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11).
e) Explain SOP and POS with example.
3. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Explain 4 bit carry look ahead in detail. Explain its advantage.

b) Design mod 10 counter using T-flip-flop.
c) Explain J-K flip-flop. How J-K flip; flop is designed using SR flip flop ? What is
race-around condition.
SLR-UM 235
-6-
*SLRUM235*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Design 8 : 1 MUX using 4 : 1 MUX.

b) Explain RAM and ROM in detail.
c) Design full subtractor using proper digital circuit.
d) Explain about the components of register level.
e) Implement the expression using 4 : 1 multiplexer.
Y = f(A, B, C) = Sm (1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7).
5. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Explain 7 - segment display for common cathode. Explain its working using
IC 7447.
b) Design 1024 8 memory using 256 8 memory. Draw the circuit diagram.
c) Explain PLA in detail. Explain its working for expression ABC + ABC. Draw
the circuit of PLA and state its advantages.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
236
*SLRUM236*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

1. Choose the correct alternatives from the following :
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) A 512 512 raster requires ___________ bits in a bit plane.

a) 212
b) 218
c) 210
d) 28
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 236
*SLRUM236*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) RGB stands for

a) Resolution Global Bright
b) Resolution of green and blue
c) Red Green Blue
d) None of these
3) In a 3-bit plane frame buffer the color magenta is represented by _______
a) 101
b) 100
c) 111
d) 011
4) Which of the following algorithm can be used for circle generation ?

a) DDA
b) Bresenhams
c) Cohen Sutherland
d) None of these
5) In the Bresenhams algorithm error term is initialized to
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 0.5
6) The transformation of object which results in a distortion of shape of object is

_______________
a) Translation
b) Shearing
c) Rotation
d) Reflection
*SLRUM236*
SLR-UM 236
-3-
7) The two dimensional matrix transformation for reflection of a point with respect
to y-axis is ____________
1
0
a)
0
1
1
c)
0
1
0
0
0
0
0
1
1
0
b)
0
0
0
1
1
0
d)
0
0
0
1
1
0
0
1
0
0
0
1
8) The 3D matrix transformation for rotation with an angle with respect to

z-axis in the positive direction is
cos
sin
a) 0
0
1
0
c) 0
sin
cos
0
0
0
1
cos
sin
0
sin
cos
1
0
0
0
cos
cos
b) 0
sin
sin
0
0
0
1
0
0
0
cos
sin
d) 0
sin
cos
0
0
0
1
0
0
0
1
0
0
0
9) Aliasing means
a) Rendering effect
b) Shading effect
c) Staircase effect
d) Cueng effect
10) The look-up table technique _________ the number of intensity levels.
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Removes
d) Gives no effect on
11) In clipping procedure, if a point is within the clipping rectangle the region
code will be
a) 1001
b) 0110
c) 0000
d) 0001
SLR-UM 236
*SLRUM236*
-4-
12) The Sutherland-Hodgmans Polygon-Clipping algorithm uses a ___________

strategy.
a) Binary Tree
b) Divide and Conquer
c) Merge Sort
d) Quick Sort
13) Curve clipping, if the rectangle is determined to be completely outside the
window, we ___________ the object.
a) Discard
b) Save
c) Divide
d) None of above
14) WCA means
a) Window Co-ordinate Area
c) World Clipping Area
b) Window Clipping Area

d) World Co-ordinate Area
15) Back Face Detection, if the dot product is +ve, the polygon faces __________
the viewer.
a) Outside
b) Towards
c) Top
d) Bottom
16) Dpi stands for
a) Dots per image
c) Dots per inch
b) Depth per inch

d) Depth per image
17) Segment is
a) Collection of display file instruction
b) Collection of picture
c) Logical unit of display file
d) Both a) and c)
18) Bezier curve lies entirely with in the convex hull formed by _________ points.
a) Two control
b) Four control
c) Eight control
d) Nine control
19) Unpost segment function is used to
a) Invisible a segment
c) Remove a segment
b) Visible a segment
d) Append a segment
20) The spacing between the knot values are constant, the resulting curve is
called a ___________ B-spline.
a) Open uniform
b) Non-uniform
c) Uniform
d) Closed uniform
__________________
*SLRUM236*
-5-
SLR-UM 236
Seat
No.

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Answer any two :
12
a) Explain the input device-light pen.

b) How overall scaling of object is achieved in 3D ? Explain with example.
c) Write a note on Area Image Compression.
12
a) Compute intermediate points generated by Bresenhams line drawing algorithm

for a line (0, 0) to (5, 5).
b) Explain Edge till algorithm with suitable example.
c) Write transformation matrix used for 2D transformation, scaling, rotation,
reflection and shearing.
4. a) Explain 3D rotation about x-axis and y-axis with suitable example.
b) Explain Raster scan system with diagram.
8
8
SLR-UM 236
-6-
*SLRUM236*
SECTION II
5. Answer any two :
(62=12)
a) Explain different segments related functions.

b) Write short note on Z-buffer algorithm.
c) Explain parametric curve representation with an example.
6. Answer any two :
(82=16)
a) Explain Windows to viewport transportation.

b) Explain halftoning with one method of it.
c) Explain Push-jump and Pop-jump instruction in display file structure.
7. Explain Back face removal algorithm with a neat diagram.
12
OR
Explain Warnock algorithm with example.
__________________
12
Code No.
SLR-UM 238
*SLRUM238*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------S.E. (IT) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory and it should be solved in

first 30 minutes.
1)
1
2
D + a2
a)
c)
Marks : 20
20
sinax = ______________
x
sin ax
2a
x
cos ax
2a
b)
d)
x
cos ax
2a
x
sin ax
2a
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 238
DO
2)
3)
*SLRUM238*
-2-
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
1
1
log x + = _____________
D +1
x
a) ex
c) x
b) log x
d) 1
1
X = _____________
Da
a)
ax
b) e ax eax Xdx
X dx
c) eax X dx
{ }
d) e ax e a x Xdx
4) If L{f( t )} = (s) then L tnf( t ) = _______________

n +1
a) ( 1)
dn
dsn
(s)
c) (s) ds
b)
dn
dsn
(s)
n
d) ( 1)
dn
dsn
5) The Laplace transform of tet is

1
a)
(s + 1)2
b)
c)
(s + 1)2
d)
1
(s + 1)2
s
(s + 1)2
(s)
*SLRUM238*
SLR-UM 238
-3-
6) If L{f( t )} = (s) then L{f(at )} = ______________

1 a

a s
a)
1
(s )
s
b)
c)
1 s

a a
d) None of these
1
k=0
7) If (k ) = 0
otherwise then Z{(k )} = _______________
a) 0
b) z
c) 1
d)
1
z
8) If Z {xk} = F(z) then Z{akxk} = _______________

a
a) F
z
c)
1 z
F
a a
z
b) F
a
d) None of these
9) For a constant function f(x) which of the following statement is correct.

d) None of these
10) If a function f(x) is defined in the interval Kx < 1 then its period is
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) 1
11) A particle moves along the curve x = et, y = 2 coszt z = 2 sinzt where t is
the time. Then the magnitude of velocity vector at t = 0 is ____________
a)
73
b)
37
c)
76
d)
79
12) 2 (log r) = ____________

a)
1
r
b)
1
r
c)
1
r2
d)
1
r2
SLR-UM 238
*SLRUM238*
-4-
13) Curl (a r ) = ___________

a) a
c) r
b) 2 a
d) 2 r
Where a is a constant vector and r is any vector.

14) If bxy = 0.6, r = 0.8, variance of x = 9 variance of y will be ___________
a) 16
b) 4
c) 9
d) 3
15) The equations of regression lines are y = 0.5x + 9 and x = 0.4 y + b. Then the
correlation coefficient is given by
a) 0.45
b) 0.45
c)
d) 0 .2
0. 2
16) If a Poisson distribution is such that P(x = 2) = P(x = 3).Then mean is __________
b) 4
a) 2
c) 3
17) A normal distribution is given by
d) 9
1
1 x 15
e 2
.The mean and variance are respectively _________
y=
4 2
4
a) 15,4
b) 15,16
c) 16,15
d) None
18) From a box containing 100 transistors 20 of which are defective, 10 are
selected at random. The probability that all will be defective is _________
a) 0.3217
b) 0.1074
c) Approximately zero
d) 0.5532
19) A waiting customer leaves a queue due to impatience. This behaviour is
known as ______________
b) Balking
a) Reneging
c) Jockeying
d) Selection
20) Average length of non-empty queue in (M/M/1) : ( /FcFs) model is given by
___________
a)
c)
b)
d)
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM238*
SLR-UM 238
Seat
No.
S.E. (IT) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Solve (D2 4D + 4) y = e2x. x2.
b) Solve (D2 5D + 6) y= sin3x.
c) Solve (D4 + D3 + D2)y = x2 + cosx.
3. a) Find Inverse Laplace transform of cot1(s +1).
b) Find the Laplace transform 1 sin t .
5
s
c) Find the inverse Laplace transform of
(s + a 2 )2
OR
c) Given f(t ) = t + 1 0 t 2
=3 t>2
find L {f (t )}.
4. a) Find the Z-transform of

x k = cosh k , k 0 .
b) Find the inverse z-transform of

F(z) =
z
,|z | > 2.
(z 1) (z 2)
SLR-UM 238
*SLRUM238*
-6-
c) Find the z-transform of

xk = 5k
=0
for k < 0
for k 0 .
5. a) Find the Fourier expansion of f(x) = x2, x and hence prove that
2
1
= 2
6 n=1 n
b) Expand x x 2 as a sine series in (0, ).
SECTION II
6. a) Find the value of constants a, b and c for which vector
v = (x + y + az) i + (bx + 3 y z) j + (3x + cy + z) k is irrotational.
2
r
b) i) Prove that =
r.
3
r
ii) Find the directional derivative of ( x, y, z) = xy 2 + yz 3 at the point (2, 1, 1)

in the direction of the vector (i + 2j + 2k).
c) Find the tangential and normal components of acceleration of a particle moving

on the curve given by x = t3 + 1, y = t2 and z = t at t = 1, where t is time.
7. a) Heights of fathers and sons are given below in cms :
Height of father (x) :
150
152
155
157
160
161
164
166
Height of son (y) :
154
156
158
159
160
162
161
164
Find the equations of two lines of regression and calculate expected height of
son when height of father is 154 cms.
*SLRUM238*
-7-
SLR-UM 238

x:
y:
1.8
1.3
2.5
6.3
and
Find the difference between the actual value and estimated value of y when
x = 2.
8. a) In a certain factory producing cycle tyres there is a small probability of 1 in
500 for any tyre to be defective. The tyres are supplied in lots of 20. Using
Poisson distribution calculate approximately number of lots containing :
i) no defective
ii) one defective and
iii) two defective tyres in 1000 such lots.
b) Diameters of ball bearings are normally distributed with mean 0.498 cms and
standard deviation 0.002 cms. If specifications allow a variation in the range
from 0.496 to 0.504 cms. in diameter, calculate what percentage of production
will be rejected ? (Given : For S. N. V. Z. area from z = 0 to z = 1 is 0.3413
and that from z = 0 to z = 3 is 0.4987).
c) Two manufacturers A and B are competing with each other in a restricted

market. Over the years As customers have exhibited a high degree of loyalty
as measured by the fact that customers using As product 80% of the time.
Also former customers purchasing product from B have switched back to As
60% of the time. Construct and interpret the state transition matrix in terms of
i) retention and loss
ii) retention and gain.
OR
c) Six dice are thrown 729 times. How many times do you expect at least three
dice to show a 5 or 6.
SLR-UM 238
-8-
*SLRUM238*
9. a) Explain the notations (M/M/1) : ( /FCFS) with reference to Queuing Models. 3

b) Arrival rate of telephone calls at a telephone booth are according to Poisson
distribution with an average time of 10 minutes between two consecutive
arrivals. The length of telephone call is assumed to be exponentially distributed
with mean 3 minutes.
a) Determine the probability that a person arriving at the booth will have to
wait.
b) What is the average queue length that is formed from time to time ?
c) Probability that the telephone booth is idle.
(Underlying model is (M/M/I) : ( /FCFS).
c) If for a period of 2 hours in the day (8 a.m. to 10 a.m.) trains arrive at the yard
every 20 minutes but the service time continues to remain 36 minutes. It is
given that the line capacity of the yard is limited to N = 4 trains only, calculate
for this period
a) the probability that yard is empty
b) the average number of trains in the system.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 239
Seat
No.
*SLRUM239*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------S.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2014

DISCRETE MATHEMATICAL STRUCTURE (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
Choose the correct answer :
20
1. 1) Which of the following statements is the contrapositive of the statement,
You win the game if you know the rules but are not overconfident.
a) If you lose the game then you dont know the rules or you are
overconfident
b) A sufficient condition that you win the game is that you know the rules
or you are not over confident
c) If you dont know the rules or are overconfident you lose the game
d) If you know the rules and are overconfident then you win the game
e) A necessary condition that you know the rules or you are not
overconfident is that you win the game
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 239
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Let S = {a, b, c} partition set are

a)
b)
c)
{{a}, {b, c}}

{{a}, {b}, {c}}
{{a, b, c}}
d) All of above
3) The contra positive of P Q is equivalent to
a) P Q
b)
PQ
c)
PQ
d)
Q P
4) The statement form (p r ) (q r ) is equivalent to

a)
b)
c)
d)
[(~ p r ) (p ~ r )] ~ [(~ q r ) (q ~ r )]
~ [(~ p r ) (p ~ r )] [(~ q r ) (q ~ r )]
[(~ p r ) (p ~ r )] [(~ q r) (q ~ r)]
~ [(~ p r ) (p ~ r )] [(~ p r ) (q ~ r )]
5) Implication of R (P P) is
a) true
b) false
*SLRUM239*
*SLRUM239*
6) Write prefix of A (B
C)
a) A B C
c)
SLR-UM 239
-3-
ABC
b) AB C
d) None
7) For set A = {1, 2, 3, 4} not antisymmetric set

a)
b)
c)
{(1,1) (1,2 ) (2,3) (1,3) (1,4 )}

{(1,1) (1,2 ) (2,1) (2,2 ) (3,3) (4,4 )}
{(1,3) (2,1)}
d) o/
8) Shade the Venn diagram to represent the set.
a)
b)
c)
d) None
SLR-UM 239
-4-
*SLRUM239*
9) Consider the following assertion : The two statements

1) x D, (P( x ) Q( x )) and
2) (x D, P(x )) (x D, Q( x )) have the same
truth value. Which of the following is correct ?
a) This assertion is false. A counter example is D = N, P(x) = x is divisible by
6, Q(x) = x is divisible by 3
b) This assertion is true. The proof follows from the distributive law for
c) This assertion is false. A counter example is D = Z, P(x) = x < 0,
Q(x) = x 0 .
d) This assertion is true. To see why, let D = N,P(x) = x is divisible by 6,
Q(x)= x is divisible by 3. If x = 6, then x is divisible by both 3 and 6
so both statements in the assertion have the same truth value for this x.
10) Use the union rule to answer the question.
If n(A) = 24, n(B) = 69, and n(A B ) = 81; what is n(A B ) ?
a) 36
b) 12
c) 6
d) 14
11) Complemented and distributive lattice is called
a) Complemented lattice
b) Boolean function
c) Boolean algebra
d) Bounded lattice
*SLRUM239*
-5-
SLR-UM 239
12) Absorption law is defined as

a) a*(a*b) = b
b) a*(a*b) = a
c) a*(b*b) = b
13) Let D100 = {1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20, 25, 50, 100} and let the relation be partial
ordering on D100 is /. The all lower bounds of 10 and 20 are ___________
a) 1, 2, 4, 10
b) 1, 2, 5, 10
c) 1, 2, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 5, 20
14) The function f : N N defined by f(n) = 3n + 4 is (N is the set of natural
numbers)
a) Surjective
b) Injective
c) Bijective
15) If there are 4 elements in the set S, then what is the degree of permutation
group <S4, *>
a) 4
b) 24
c) 16
SLR-UM 239
-6-
*SLRUM239*
16) If function f : X Y and g : Y X the g is called as inverse of f iff

a) f g = Ix and g f = Iy
b) f g = Ix and g f = Ix
c) f g = Iy and g f = Ix
d) f g = Iy and g f = Iy
17) Range of the function f : X Y is
a) Rf always proper subset of Y
b) Rf always equal to Y
c) Rf is subset of Y
18) Domain of the function f : X Y is
a) Df always proper subset of X
b) Df always equal to X
c) Df is subset of X
19) Let < G, * > be given group, H is subset of G and aH = Ha for all a G , then
_______________ is called normal group.
a) < G, * >
b) < H, * >
c) Both a) and b)
*SLRUM239*
-7-
SLR-UM 239
20) Following is the given lattice. How many complements does the e have
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 5
_____________________
-9-
*SLRUM239*
SLR-UM 239
Seat
No.
S.E. (Information Technology (Part I) Examination, 2014

DISCRETE MATHEMATICAL STRUCTURE (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Obtain the PCNF and PDNF
(P Q ) (
P Q R)
b) Convert in prefix format
(P ((C R) S))
c) Explain concept of equality of set and proper set.
d) Explain following terms :
a) PCNF
b) Tautology
c) Biconditional.
e) Show implications :
i) (P Q ) Q P Q
ii) (P Q ) (P Q)
3. a) Define and explain with suitable example, different operations on sets in
detail.
b) Define properties of binary relation in a sets.
10
10
OR
b) Let A be set of factors at particular positive integer m and let be relation
divides i.e. = {< x, y > | x A y A (x divides y)} Draw Hasse diagram for
m =12 and m = 45.
10
SLR-UM 239
-10-
*SLRUM239*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
20
a) Define Lattice as a POSET with example and state the properties of the
lattice.
b) Explain composition of the function. State the condition when the composition
of two relations will be empty.
c) Explain subsemigroup and submonoid with example.
d) Define cylic group and prove that every cyclic group is abelian group but
every abelian group is not cyclic group.
e) Explain the different types of the homomorphism.
10
a) Define group with respect to algebraic system. Explain the direct product of
the two groups. Let < G,* > be a group of order 2 in which G = {e, a}.
Find < G G, > if the composition table of <G,*> as
*
e
a
e
b) Convert the following infix expressions into reverse polish notaiton by using
stack
1) (a * b ) c d /(e + h)
2) (a + b * c ) / (h / e d )
6. What is a function ? Explain different types of the function. Let f : R R be
given by f(x) = x3 2. Find f1.
_____________________
10
Code No. SLR-UM
24
*SLRUM24*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ENGINEERING GEOLOGY (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
F or Offic e U se o nly
Code No.
N.B. : 1) Question No.1 is compulsory.

2) Attempt any two questions from Section I Q. 2, Q. 3 and Q. 4.
3) Attempt any two questions from Section II Q. No. 6, Q. No.7 and
Q. No. 8.
4) Q. No. 5 and Q. No. 9 are compulsory.
Marks : 20
1. Select the correct answer :
20
1) Marble is formed by _______________ metamorphism of limestone.
a) Thermal
c) Dynamothermal
b) Cataclastic
d) Plutonic
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 24
*SLRUM24*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The lustre of mica is _______________

a) Silky
b) Subvitreous
c) Pearly
3) The horizontal displacement of faulted block is known as _______________

a) Heave
b) Hade
c) Throw
d) Dip
4) The surface of non-deposition is called as _______________

a) Fold
b) Fault
c) Unconformity
d) Joint
5) The hardness of talc mineral is _______________

a) Four
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
6) The depressions of different dimensions developed in the river bed are known
as _______________
a) Pot hole
b) Waterfall
c) Valley
d) Gorge
*SLRUM24*
SLR-UM 24
-3-
7) Himalaya is the best example of_______________ mountain.

a) Fold
b) Fault
c) Relict
8) In cold climate rocks are disintegrated by _______________

a) Frost action
b) Thermal action
c) Exfoliation
9) Bauxite is _______________ sedimentary rock.

a) Rudaceous
b) Residual
c) Argillaceous
d) Chemical
10) The _______________ is the channel through which the volcanic material
transfers on the earth surface.
a) Conduit
b) Cone
c) Crater
11) The capacity of rock material to transmit water through it is called as

_______________
a) Porosity
b) Permeability
c) Aquifer
12) Earth dam fails due to _______________

a) Velocity of water
b) Percolation of water
c) Overtapping due to insufficient height
13) The _______________ type of waves can easily pass through all media..
a) P Waves
b) S waves
c) L Waves
SLR-UM 24
*SLRUM24*
-4-
14) Slopping surface of valley upon which dam rests is known as _______________
a) Side wall
b) Pier
c) Abutment
d) Relief surface
15) Confined aquifer is also known as _______________

a) Pheratic aquifer
b) Non-artesian aquifer
c) Artesian aquifer
d) Free aquifer
16) Crashing strength is dependent upon _______________

a) Mode of formation-texture-moisture
b) Mode of formation and texture
c) Mode of formation-composition-texture-moisture content-weathering
17) Tunnel cut parallel to dip direction of the bed is _______________
a) Safe situation
b) Reasonable site
c) Unsafe situation
18) The name of oldest type of drilling is _______________

a) Rotatory
b) Calyx
c) Auger
d) Percussion
19) Bulk density is the weight per unit volume of the rock with _______________
a) Pores fill with water
b) Natural moisture
c) Oven dried sample
d) All of the above
20) The instrument records earthquake wave is called _______________

a) Seismograph
b) Seismogram
c) Seismometer
*SLRUM24*
-5-
SLR-UM 24
Seat
No.

ENGINEERING GEOLOGY (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions :1) Attempt any two questions from Section I Q. 2, Q. 3 and

Q. 4.
2) Attempt any two questions from Section II Q. No. 6, Q. No.7 and
Q. No. 8.
4) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
SECTION I
40
2. A) Define fold. Describe any three types of fold.
B) What are sedimentary rocks ? Describe any three structures of sedimentary

rocks.
3. A) Describe in detail internal structure of earth.
B) Define mineral. Describe in detail telspar group of minerals.
4. A) Classify the igneous rocks on the basis of :
a) Mode of occurrence
b) Silica percentage
B) Describe in detail any three depositional features formed by river.
5. Write notes on (any four) :
a) Strike and dip joints
b) Forms of mineral
c) Amygdaloidal structure
d) Sill and dyke
e) Spheroidal weathering.
7
7
7
7
7
12
SLR-UM 24
-6-
*SLRUM24*
SECTION II
6. A) Define landslide. Describe different causes of landslides.
B) Define ground water. Describe different zones of ground water.
7. A) Describe various types of dams with geological significance.
B) What are building stones ? Describe good qualities of building stones.
40
7
7
7
7
8. A) Describe suitable and unsuitable conditions of tunnel alignment through folds. 8

B) Define earthquake. Describe different causes of earthquake.
9. Write notes on (any four) :
a) Reservoir Induced Seismicity (RIS)
b) Rock Quality Designation (RQD)
c) Intensity scale of earthquake
d) Siltation process
e) Artesian well.
6
12
Code No.
SLR-UM 240
*SLRUM240*
Seat
No.

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (I.T.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ADVANCED C CONCEPTS (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

2) Figures to right indicate marks.
3) Assume necessary data if required.
Marks : 20
1. Attempt following multiple choice questions :
20
1) Float *p; what sizeof(*p) function will return ?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 240
-2-
DO
*SLRUM240*
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2) The operator is used to get value at address stored in a pointer

variable is
a) | |
b) *
c) &
d) &&
3) A string constant is terminated with

a) \0
b) /0
c) 0
d) /
4) By default all the variable are

a) Unsigned
b) Signed
c) Long
5) Array elements are stored in

a) Contiguous
b) Random
c) Tree
d) None of these
6) Recursion uses what among the followings in implementation

a) Queue
b) Stack
c) Tree
d) Graph
7) What strcmp (s1, s2) returns when s1 and s2 are equal ?

a) 1
b) 1
c) 0
d) None of these
8) Char name []= Solapur, what character will be at name[7] ?

a) r
b) /0
c) Error
d) None of these
*SLRUM240*
-3-
SLR-UM 240
9) What is output of main(){printf(%c,7[SUNDARAM]);}

a) A
b) M
c) R
d) Error
10) How will you free the allocated memory ?

a) Remove(var_name)
b) free(var_name)
c) Delete (var_name)
d) dealloc(var_name)
11) For binary files, a __________ must be appended to the mode string.
a) Nothing
b) b
c) binary
d) 01
12) If there is any error while opening a file, fopen will return
a) Nothing
b) EOF
c) NULL
d) Depends on compiler
13) What is meant by a in the following operation ?

fp = fopen (Random.txt, a);
a) Attach
b) Append
c) Apprehend
d) Add
14) The complexity of merge sort is

a) O(n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)
15) The searching technique that takes O(1) time to find a data is
a) Linear search
b) Binary search
c) Hashing
16) The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is

a) O(n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)
SLR-UM 240
-4-
*SLRUM240*
17) Finding the location of the element with a given value is

a) Traversal
b) Search
c) Sort
18) The time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is

measured by
a) Counting microseconds
b) Counting the number of key operations
c) Counting the number of statements
d) Counting the kilobytes of algorithm
19) The complexity of Binary search algorithm is
a) O(n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)
20) Which of the following is not the required condition for binary search
algorithm ?
a) The list must be sorted
b) There should be the direct access to the middle element in
any sublist
c) There must be mechanism to delete and/or insert elements in list
d) None of above
_____________________
*SLRUM240*
-5-
SLR-UM 240
Seat
No.
S.E. (I.T.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ADVANCED C CONCEPTS (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
N. B. : 1) Figures to right indicate marks.

2) Assume necessary data if required.
SECTION I
(54=20)
a) List and explain any five string library functions with a simple program.
b) Explain Array of pointer to function with a simple program.
c) Explain Fibonacci sequence, factorial using recursion.
d) Explain the rules for usage of different classes storage.
e) Write about malloc(),calloc(),free(),realloc() with simple code.
a) Explain and write an algorithm of Tower of Hanoi problem.
b) What is pointer ? Explain array of pointer with example.
10
4. List and explain all storage class with simple code of each.
10
SECTION II
5. Solve any four :
a) Explain difference between text file and binary file.
b) Explain time and space complexity of an algorithm.
c) Write a C program to perform bubble sort ?
d) Explain the function fopen() in detail.
e) Write down all the iteration of selection sort on the following data :
12 34 5 62 16 43 25 18 19 13
(45=20)

10
a) What is hashing ? Explain different method of collision resolution technique ?
b) Write a C program to copy the content of one file into another file ?
7. Write an algorithm for quick sort ? Explain with example up to two iteration.
_______________
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 241
*SLRUM241*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2014

DIGITAL TECHNIQUE (New)
Time : 3.00 m. to 6.00 .m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20

20
1) Which of the following respectively represent commutative law, associative
law and distributive law ?
I. A.(B.C) = (A.B).C
II. A.(B+C) = A.B + A.C
III. A + B = B + A
a) I, III and II
c) III, II and I
b) II, I and III

d) III, I and II
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 241
*SLRUM241*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Simplified form of the Boolean expression (X+Y+XY) (X+Z) is

a) X+Y+Z
b) XY+YZ
c) X+YZ
d) XZ+Y
3) How is a J-K flip-flop made to toggle ?

a) J = 0, K = 0
b) J = 1, K = 0
c) J = 0, K = 1
d) J = 1, K = 1
4) On a positive edge-triggered SR-flip flop the output reflect the input condition
when ___________
a) The clock pulse is LOW
b) The clock pulse is HIGH
c) The clock pulse transitions from LOW to HIGH
d) The clock pulse transitions from HIGH to LOW
5) The final output of a modulus 8 counter occurs one time for every ______
a) 8 clock pulses
b) 16 clock pulses
c) 24 clock pulses
d) 32 clock pulses
6) The terminal count of a 3-bit binary counter in the DOWN mode is

a) 000
b) 111
c) 101
d) 010
*SLRUM241*
SLR-UM 241
-3-
7) The minimum number of NAND gates required to implement the Boolean

function y = A + A B + A B C is equal to
a) Zero
b) 1
c) 4
d) 7
8) A K-map of n-variable contains _____________ cells.

a) 2n
b) 2n1
c) 21 n
d) 2 + 2n1
9) A four variable K-map has

a) 8 min terms
b) 12 min terms
c) 32 min terms
d) None of these
10) The logic expression for y(A, B, C) = m (0, 2, 3, 6) is equivalent to ______

a)
m (0, 3, 5, 6)
c) M(1, 4, 5, 7)
b)
m (1, 4, 5, 7)
d) None of these
11) IC 74152 is a multiplexes having

a) 1 : 8 lines
b) 1 : 32 lines
c) 8 : 1 lines
d) 16 : 1 lines
12) For conserving power in multiplexed display in 7447 following pin is used
a) RBO
b) RBI
c) BI
d) LT
13) A dynamic RAM is fabricated using ___________ Technology.

a) MOS
b) NFET
c) FET
d) None of these
14) Which segments of a seven-segment display would be required to be active

to display the decimal digit 2 ?
a) a, b, d, e and g
b) a, b, c, d and g
c) a, c, d, f and g
d) a, b, c, d, e and f
SLR-UM 241
*SLRUM241*
-4-
15) A ___________ is a logic circuit that accept one data input and distributes it
over several outputs.
a) Demultiplexes
b) Multiplexes
c) Data comparator
d) None of these
16) The types of DRAMs are

a) FPM DRAM
b) EDO DRAM
c) BEDO DRAM
d) All the above
17) In Demultiplexs, the number of output lines is n and the number of select lines
is m, where n = ___________
a) 2 m
b) 2m
c) 2m n
d) m2
18) VHDL stands for _________

a) Very Fast HDL
b) V-Very Fast HDL
c) VHSIC Hardware Description Language
d) VHSIPP Language
19) __________ specifies the behaviour of a circuit to be designed.
a) Architecture Body
b) Entity
c) Class
d) VHSIC
20) An operator used for signal assignment is ______________

a) < =
b) > =
c) = =
d) ! =
_________________
*SLRUM241*
-5-
SLR-UM 241
Seat
No.

DIGITAL TECHNIQUE (New)
Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Convert the following expression into canonical SOP form

i) Y = AB + A C + BC
ii) A B C + B D
b) Simplify the following three variable expression
Y = M (1, 3, 5)
c) What are the types of flip-flops ? Draw and explain JK-flip flop.
d) Design 2-bit comparator using K-map and implement it using basic gates.
e) Realize the following functions using NAND gates
Y=
m (0, 1, 2, 3, 11, 12, 14, 15)
3. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Draw and explain operation of cauy look ahead adder. Obtain the expression
for carry at each stage for 4-bit adder.
b) What is synchronous counter ? Explain with example and design
Asynchronous decade counter with circuit diagram and waveforms.
c) Design, explain 4-bit bi-directional shift register.
SLR-UM 241
-6-
*SLRUM241*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Implement the expression using 4 : 1 multiplexes

Y = F(A, B, C) = (1, 3, 5, 6)
b) Write a short note on 74148 IC.
c) Explain different types of memories in detail.
d) Explain entity and architecture declaration of VHDL with example.
e) Write a VHDL code for full adder with output waveform.
5. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Explain expanding word capacity and obtain a 8K 8 ROM using 2K 8
ROM ICs.
b) Design and explain driver for 7 segment display.
c) Explain the concepts of De-Multiplexer tree concept with example and obtain
8 line to 256 line decoder using 4 line to 16 line decoder tree.
___________________
SLR-UM 242
Code No.
S
*SLRUM242*
&
f
C

Marks : 20

1) An area on a display device to which a window is mapped is called
a) Window
b) View port
c) Monitor
d) Workstation
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 242
*SLRUM242*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Which of the following is a cause of aliasing effect ?

a) Jagged Edges
b) Undersampling
c) Flicker
d) Both a) and c)
3) The process to determine which pixel provides the best approximation to

shape the object is called as
a) Rasterization
b) Scan-conversion
c) Transformation
d) a) and b)
4) A transformation in which the direction of one axis is reversed is

a) Shearing
b) Reflection
c) Translation
d) Both a) and b)
5) Unit of display file is

a) Viewport
b) Segment
c) Byte
d) Window
6) The Z-Buffer algorithm

a) Finds the largest depth value Z
b) Finds the smallest depth value Z
c) Finds the average of the frame buffer
d) Calculates the intensity at (x, y)
7) Supersampling is also known as
a) Prefiltering
b) Post filtering
c) Aera filtering
d) All of above
*SLRUM242*
SLR-UM 242
-3-
8) Which of the following technique is used in Mid point subdivision algorithm ?

a) Binary search
b) Bubble sort
c) Sequential search
d) Linear search
9) The transformation which converts the picture from world co-ordinate system
to screen co-ordinate is
a) Viewing
b) Windowing
c) Translation
d) Rotation
10) RGB stands for

a) Resolution-Global-Bright
b) Resolution of Green and Blue
c) Red-Green-Blue
11) If the Logical _________________ of end codes of the line segment in Cohen
sutherland line clipping is not zero the line is totally invisible.
a) OR
b) NOT
c) AND
d) XOR
12) The original data can be recovered without loss in

a) Image compression
b) Lossless compression
c) Zero compression
d) All of the above
13) The line segment is visible if both end points codes are
a) 0000
b) 11 11
c) 0101
d) 1010
14) Which of the following is a type of boundary fill algorithm ?

a) Edge fill
b) Fence fill
c) Seed fill
d) Both a) and b)
15) Which data structure is used in simple seed fill algorithm ?

a) Queue
b) Tree
c) Stack
SLR-UM 242
-4-
*SLRUM242*
16) The basic 7-bit standard for character coding is known as

a) ASCII
b) ISO
c) TIFF
d) CGM
17) Cubic Bezier curves are generated by what number of control points ?
a) 6
b) 4
c) 5
d) 2
18) Back face removal is an example of

a) Object space method
b) Image space method
c) Combination of both
19) In Warnock algorithm the polygon is called as surrounding if it is completely

________________ the window.
a) Inside
b) Surrounds
c) Intersects
d) None of these
20) ________________ transformation results in distortion of the shape of the

object.
a) Scaling
b) Shearing
c) Reflection
d) Rotation
______________________
*SLRUM242*
-5-
SLR-UM 242

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
1) Explain the following input devices in detail

a) Joy Stick
b) Light pen
c) Tablets.
2) Explain seedfill algorithm in detail.
3) Explain DDA line generation algorithm with example.
4) State difference between Random scan and Raster scan system.
5) Write transformation matrix used for 2D Translation, Scaling, Rotation,
Reflection and Shearing.
6) Explain RLE. How to overcome in good RLE method ?
3. What is interactive and non-interactive computer graphics ? Describe applications
of computer graphics in detail.
10
OR
3. Describe Bresenhams circle generation algorithm in detail.
4. Explain the following with respect to 3D-Transformation
a) Rotation
b) Reflection
c) Translation
d) Rotation about axis parallel to coordinate axis.
10
SLR-UM 242
-6-
*SLRUM242*
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Explain image compression in detail.

2) Explain display file compilation.
3) Short note on Bezier curve with example.
4) What is Antialiasing ? Explain in detail the cause and effect of antialiasing.
5) State the elements and Need of multimedia.
6) Explain the steps used in sutherland cohen line clipping algorithm.
6. Explain Z-buffer algorithm with suitable example. State its advantage and
disadvantages.
10
OR
State and explain in detail types of compression and standards for images.
7. Describe midpoint subdivision algorithm with its procedure and example. Compare
it with Cohen-Sutherland 2D line clipping.
_____________________
10
SLR-UM 243
Code No.
S
*SLRUM243*
.
S
&
r
u
f
C
Instructions : 1) Que. No. 1 is compulsory and it should be completed in

first 30 minutes.
1. Tick the correct alternatives :
Marks : 20
1) A waiting customer leaves the queue due to impatience is called

a) priorities
b) reneging
c) jockeying
d) balking
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 243
*SLRUM243*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) While solving an assignment problem an activity is assigned to a resource

with zero opportunity cost because the objective is to
a) reduce the cost of assignment to zero
b) minimize total cost of an assignment
c) reduce the cost of that particular assignment to minimum
d) none of these
3) The method of solving assignment problem is called
b) Reduced matrix method
a) MODI method
c) Hungarian method
d) None of these
4) If x denote the binomial variate, the mean of the distribution is given by
a)
p
b)
x
c)
x
d) none of these
p
5) In Poisson distribution p (x = 2) = p (x = 3) then p (x = 4) is

b) 3
a) 0.168
c) 0.186
d) none of these
6) A necessary and sufficient condition for a basic feasible solution for
minimization LPP to be optimum (for all j)
b) zj cj 0
a) zj cj 0
c) zj cj = 0
d) zj cj < 0
7) In order to convert type constraints to = type, we need to add _________

variable on L.H.S. of the inequality
b) decision
a) slack
c) surplus
d) none of these
*SLRUM243*
SLR-UM 243
-3-
8) The dummy source or destination in a transportation problem is added to

a) satisfy rim conditions
b) prevent solutions from being degenerate
c) ensure that cost does not exceed a limit
d) none of these
9) The number of non-negative variables in a basic feasible solution to a
m n transportation problem is
b) mn
a) m + n
c) m + n 1
d) m + n + 1
!
10) If
is probability density function then the value of k is ________________

b)
a) 4
"
c)
d) 2

11) For the fuzzy set

A(x) =
0
B(x) =
then
5
is
*
c)
b)
a)
d) None of these
12) Which of the following is true ?
a)
c)
b)
d)
SLR-UM 243
*SLRUM243*
-4-
13) The fuzzy cardinality of fuzzy set A is defined as
where
is an element of
a) normal set
c) subnormal set

)
b) index set
d) none of these
14) The height of fuzzy set is less than one then that set is called
b) normal set
a) index set
c) subnormal set
d) none of these
a)
b)
B
c)
d)
16) Let A, B
a)
c)
F (x), then for

the set
]
b)
d)
is equal to
17) A fuzzy set A defined on X is the crisp set that contains all the elements
of X, that have membership grade one in A is
a) Core
b) Boundary
c) Support
d) None of these
18) If A is a fuzzy set defined on universal set X. Let x X such that
then x is called as
A (x) =
a) special point
b) middle point
c) point of intersection
d) equilibrium point
19) The scalar cardinality of set
a) 2.543
c) 3.534
x
N
{0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} is
b) 3.543
d) 3.453
20) The number of arrivals n in time t follows the Poisson distribution

is given by

n
a)
(

(
c)

n
d)
e
b)
e
______________________
*SLRUM243*
-5-
SLR-UM 243
S.E. (Part II) (IT) Examination, 2014

APPLIED MATHEMATICS II (Old)
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. a) Customers arrive at one-window drive according to a Poisson distribution with
mean of 10 min and service time per customer is exponential with mean of 6
minutes. The space in front of the window can accommodate only three vehicles
including the serviced one, other vehicles have wait outside the space.
Calculate :
i) Probability that an arriving customer can drive directly to the space in

front of window.
ii) Probability that an arriving customer will have to wait outside the directed
space.
iii) How long is an arriving customer expected to wait before starting service ?
b) Maximize z = 3x1 + 5x2 + 4x3
subject to 2x1 + 3x2
2x2 + 5x3
8
10
5x1 + 2x2 + 4x3

x1, x2, x3
0.
15
SLR-UM 243
*SLRUM243*
-6-
3. a) Out of 320 families with 5 children each, find expected no. of families having
0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 boys, assuming boys and girls are equally likely.
b) Monthly salaries of 1000 workers have a normal distribution with mean

Rs. 575 and a std. deviation is of Rs. 75. Find the no. of workers having
salaries between Rs. 500 and Rs. 625 per month. Also find the minimum
salary of highest paid 200 workers.
(Given : Area between t = 0 to t = 1 is 0.3413 area between t = 0 to t = 0.67 is

0.2486 area between t = 0 to t = 0.84 is 0.3).
c) It is one in 1000 that an article is defective. There are in a box of 100 articles
of this type assuming Poisson distribution. Find the prob. that box contain
one or more defective article.
4. a) Solve the following assignment problem :
I
II
III
IV
11
10
10
3
6
b) Obtain initial basic feasible solution for the following transportation problem
using
i) North-west corner method
ii) Lowest cost entry method and comment on the result.

D1
D2
D3
D4
Supply
O1
27
23
31
69
150
O2
10
45
40
32
40
O3
30
54
35
57
80
Demand 90
70
50
60
270
5. a) Customers arrive at a box office window being managed by a single individual

according to Poisson input process with a mean rate of 20 per hour. The time
required to serve a customer has an exponential distribution with a mean of
90 seconds. Find the average waiting time of a customer. Also determine the
average number of customer in the system and average queue length.
*SLRUM243*
-7-
SLR-UM 243
b) The sales manager has to assign 4 salesman to 4 different places the possible
profit for each sales-man at every place is given below.
I
II
III
IV
35
27
28
37
28
37
29
40
Salesman C
35
24
32
33
24
32
25
28
Find assignment that maximizes the profit.

SECTION II
6. a) Define -cuts and strong
between them ?
-cuts in fuzzy set theory. What is difference

b) Let A and B are fuzzy sets defined on universal set X = Z (set of integers) as
0
9
2
A function F : X X
X is defined as f (x1, x2) = 2x1 + x2.

7. a) Calculate MIN (A, B) and MAX (A, B) where

x
A
B(x) = x 3
'
3<x
4<x
otherwise
SLR-UM 243
*SLRUM243*
-8-
b) Find S(B, A) where A and B are fuzzy sets as
{0, 1, 2, ..., 10}.

8. a) Prove that the set F(x) forms Demorgans algebra with standard fuzzy operation
but not a boolean algebra.
b) Order the following fuzzy sets defined by following membership functions

assuming x 0 by the inclusion relation.
,

N

9. a) Find fuzzy numbers (A + B) and (A B) where the fuzzy numbers A and B are
given as
N
"
"
=0
N
otherwise
=0
otherwise
b) Explain fuzzy system.
4
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM 244

Seat
No.
*SLRUM244*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

1. Select the correct alternative.
Marks : 20
20
1) Productions in CNF are

a) A , B C where a and A, B, C V
b) A , A BC where a and A, B, C V
c) A , B BC, A where a and A, B, C V
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 244
*SLRUM244*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Output transition function of NFA- is always

a) Single state
b) Initial state
c) Set of states
d) Accepting state
3) The grammar G, S aS | bS | a | b generates the language

a) (a + b)+
b) (a + b) (a + b)*
c) (a + b)* (a + b)
d) all the above
4) An ambiguous grammar generates
a) One leftmost derivation
b) One rightmost derivation
c) Two leftmost or two rightmost derivations
d) One leftmost and one right most derivations
5) Which of the following is used to recognize a regular language ?
a) FA
b) PDA
c) TM
d) None of these
6) An NFA rejects an input string w if

a) There is computation for w ending in an accepting state
b) There is computation for w ending in an non accepting state
c) All computations for w end in a non accepting state or get stuck
d) There is no computation for string w
*SLRUM244*
SLR-UM 244
-3-
7) The regular expression for all strings containing at least two zeros is given by
a) 1*01*01
b) (0 + 1)*0(0 + 1)*0(0+1)*
c) 1*001*
d) all of these
8) The CFGS aB | bA, A aS | a, B bS | b generates
a) Odd numbers of as and bs
b) Equal number of as and bs
c) Even numbers of as and bs
d) Even numbers of as and odd numbers of bs
9) The palindrome cannot be recognized by FA because
a) FA cannot determine mid-point of palindrome
b) FA cannot remember its previous input
c) A FA head has read only capability and cannot move in both directions
d) a) and b)
10) The value of R is
a) R
b)
c)
d) R*
11) The difference between finite automata and PDA

a) Input symbol
b) Memory
c) Both
d) None
12) Which is true for mechanical diagram of PDA ?
a) Contains a stack
b) The head reads as well as writes
c) The head moves from left to right
d) Input string is surrounded by infinite number of blank in both side
SLR-UM 244
*SLRUM244*
-4-
13) Pumping lemma is generally used for proving that

a) Given grammar is regular
b) Given grammar is not regular
c) Two given expression are equivalent or not
d) None
14) CFL are closed under
a) Star
b) Union
c) Concatenation
d) All above
15) PDA can recognise ____________

a) L = {an cn bn}
b) L = {an cn}
c) Both
d) None
16) PDA is accepted by

a) empty stack
b) null input
c) both
d) none
Fill in the blanks :

17) Turing machines is defined as _____________ language.
18) The read write used scan in ___________ directions.
19) In Turing machine scanning is done by ___________
20) All types of languages are accepted by ____________
______________
*SLRUM244*
-5-
SLR-UM 244
Seat
No.
S.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

a) By using mathematical induction prove that for n 1,
n
1
n
i (i + 1) = n + 1 .
i =1
b) Draw the finite Automata for the following language
L = {110} {0, 1} * {11}.
c) Give the regular expression for the following languages.
i) Language L over = {0, 1} that do not end with 11.
ii) Language L over = {0, 1} that containing the substring 111 or 01 and
ends with 11.
d) Consider the NFA- given below.
Calculate (q0, 0110). Is string accepted ?
20
SLR-UM 244
-6-
*SLRUM244*
e) Find the CFG for following languages.

i) L = {ai bj ck | j=i+k}.
ii) Language L of palindromes over = {a, b}.
3. Solve any one :
10
a) Apply the subset construction method for following NFA. Draw transition
diagram.
b) Give the steps to conert the CFG into CNF.
10
Find the CNF of the following CFG.

S aAa | bBb |
A C|a
B C|b
C CDE |
D A | B ab
4. Give an algorithm to minimize the steps in finite automata.
Find the minimum state finite automata for the following FA.
10
*SLRUM244*
SLR-UM 244
-7-
5. Solve any four :
(45=20)
1) What is PDA ? Explain with example.

2) State and explain pumping lemma for regular language.
3) Explain the concept of basic Turing machine model.
4) Obtain a TM to accept the language containing string of 0s and 1s and
ending with 011.
5) Explain deterministic pushdown automata with example.
6. Answer any one :
10
1) Design a Turing Machine to accept the language L = a nb n 1 . Show an ID

for the string aaabbb with tape symbols.
2) Construct a PDA to accept a given language L by empty stack and final state
both where L = (anbn, where n 1) with transition and string aaabbb.
7. Obtain a TM to accept a palindrome consisting of as and bs for odd and
even length.
10
______________
Code No. SLR-UM
245
*SLRUM245*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2014
DATA STRUCTURES II (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Tick the correct alternatives for the following :
20
1) Which of the following factor does not affect running time of algorithm ?
a) Speed of machine
b) Efficiency of compiler
c) Size of input
d) Name of algorithm
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 245
*SLRUM245*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) An algorithm consists of two modules X1, X2. Their order is f(n) and g(n),
respectively. The order of algorithm is
a) Max(f(n), g(n))
b) Max(f(n), g(n))
c) f(n) g(n)
d) f(n) g(n)
3) Consider following code

int i = 0
while (i < n )
{
printf(%d, i);
i++;
}
If n = 5 and every statement require 1 unit of time to execute, how
much total unit time require to execute the code.
b) 17
a) 4
c) 16
d) 8
4) Which of the following notations specify both lower and upper bound
(average case) on the running time of the algorithm ?
a) Big O notation
b) Omega notation
c) Theta notation
d) None
5) The best average behavior is shown by
a) Quick sort
b) Merge sort
c) Insertion sort
d) Heap sort
*SLRUM245*
-3-
SLR-UM 245
6) Consider that n elements are to be sorted. What is the worst case time
complexity of Bubble sort ?
a) O(1)
b) O(log2n)
c) O(n)
d) O(n2)
7) A characteristic of the data that binary search uses but the linear search
ignores is
a) Order of the elements of the list
b) Length of the list
c) Maximum value in list
d) Type of elements of the list
8) In order to get the information stored in a Binary Search Tree in the
ascending order, one should traverse it in which of the following order ?
a) Left, root, right
b) Root, left, right
c) Right, root, left
9) A technique for direct search is
a) Binary search
c) Tree search
d) Right, left, root

b) Linear search
d) Hashing
10) A binary tree of depth d is an almost complete binary tree if

a) Each leaf in the tree is either at level d or at level d 1
b) For any node n in the tree with a right descendent at level d all
the left descendents of n that are leaves, are also at level d
c) Both a) and b)
11) One of the major drawback of B-Tree is the difficulty of traversing the
keys sequentially.
a) True
b) False
c) Not possible
d) None of above
12) Which is not true about B and B+ tree in following

a) All leaves are at same level
b) When node is full it is split at middle
c) All leaf nodes are connected
d) Both are multiway search trees
SLR-UM 245
*SLRUM245*
-4-
13) In a balance binary tree the height of two sub trees of every node can not
differ by more than
a) 2
b) 1
c) 0
d) 3
14) If h is any hashing function and is used to hash n keys in to a table of

size m, where n<=m, the expected number of collisions involving a
particular key x is
a) Less than 1
b) Less than n
c) Less than m
d) Less than n/2
15) Which of the following is a hash function ?

a) Quadratic probing
b) Chaining
c) Open addressing
d) Folding
16) In Depth First Search of Graph, which of the following data structure is
used ?
b) Queue
a) Stack
c) Linked list
17) The number of edges incident on a vertex is called

a) Path
b) Indegree
c) Degree
d) Length
18) The time required to find shortest path in a graph with n vertices and
e edges
a) O(e)
b) O(n)
c) O(e2)
d) O(n2)
19) A vertex of degree one is called

a) Pendant
c) Null vertex
b) Isolated vertex
d) Coloured vertex
20) Maximum possible height of a AVL tree with 7 nodes is

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) None of above
__________________
*SLRUM245*
-5-
SLR-UM 245
Seat
No.
S.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2014

DATA STRUCTURES II (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(54=20)
1) What do you mean by analysis of algorithm ? Illustrate with example.

2) Give the difference between Linear and Binary Search. Which is better ?
3) Explain any two Hash functions with example.
4) Write a short note on Threaded Binary Tree.
5) Give algorithms of all 3 traversal techniques in Binary tree.
6) Sort following numbers using Bubble sort.
56, 57, 92, 38, 44, 90, 61, 73, 52.
3. Answer any one :
10
1) What is sorting ? Explain merge sort with its analysis. Sort following numbers
using Merge sort.
10, 1, 9, 11, 46, 20, 15, 0, 72, 2.
2) Write a C code to implement Binary Search tree to perform insertion, deletion
and display of data.
4. What is Hashing ? Why it is better than Linear and Binary Search ? Explain Open
Addressing technique in detail to resolve Hash collision.
10
SLR-UM 245
-6-
*SLRUM245*
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) The following data are to be inserted in an AVL tree in the following order
6, 3, 1, 2, 4, 5, 9, 7, 8, 11, 10, 12. Draw the tree after balancing.
2) Explain following terms w.r.t. Graph.
a) Cycle
b) Connected graph
c) Weighted graph.
3) Write a short note on Depth First Search.
4) Give the difference between B tree and B+ tree. Which is better ?
5) Write adjacency matrix representation of the following Graphs.
6. Answer any one :
10
1) Write a C code to perform insertion and deletion of a node in AVL tree.

2) Explain shortest path technique. Give one example with neat diagram.
7. What is Multiway Search Tree ? Give properties of B tree. Construct a B tree of
order 5 for following values.
10, 20, 30, 40, 15, 25, 35, 45, 48, 50, 52, 54, 56, 58, 60, 55, 57, 8.
10
________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 246
*SLRUM246*
Seat
No.

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N. B. : All questions are compulsory.

MCQ/Objective Type
Marks : 20
1. 1) 8085 can access ___________ bytes of memory.
(120=20)
a) 8 k bytes
b) 16 k bytes
c) 32 k bytes
d) 64 k bytes
2) Which signal is input to 8085 ?

a) ALE
b) IO/ M
c) READY
d) SOD
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 246
-2-
DO
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
3) MVI Reg, Data requires how many M-cycles ?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 7
4) The operand field of LDAX instruction is

a) BC
b) HL
c) AF
d) SP
5) ADD Reg requires how many T-states ?

a) 3
b) 4
c) 7
d) 9
6) Example of 2-byte instruction is

a) ADD B
b) CMA
c) MVI A, 32 H
d) LDA 2500 H
7) Example of indirect addressing mode is

a) MOV M, R
b) MOV Rd, Rs
c) IN 08 H
d) LDA .16 bit add
8) The device address in memory mapped I/O is

a) 8 bit
b) 16 bit
c) 32 bit
d) 64 bit
9) Data transfer is possible between accumulator and I/O in

a) Memory mapped I/O
b) I/O mapped I/O
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
*SLRUM246*
*SLRUM246*
-3-
SLR-UM 246
10) The size of increment/decrement address latch is

a) 8 bit
b) 16 bit
c) 32 bit
d) 64 bit
11) SIM stands for

a) Set Interrupt Mask
b) Serial Interrupt Mask
c) Synchronous Interrupt Mask
d) Send Interrupt Mask
12) In the BSR mode of 8255, to set the PC3 bit the command word
should be ___________
a) 01
b) 06
c) 07
d) 00
13) Which of the following interrupt has highest priority ?

a) INTR
b) TRAP
c) RST 7.5
d) RST 6.5
14) How many modes are there is 8253 ?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Six
15) Mode 1 of 8255 is

a) Simple I/O
b) Strobed I/O
c) Strobed I/O biductional
d) Multiple I/O
16) 8251 IC is a parallel communication interface IC

a) TRUE
b) FALSE
SLR-UM 246
-4-
*SLRUM246*
17) Match the following :

A) 8253
i) Serial communication
B) 8255
ii) Timer/Counter
C) 8251
iii) Programmable peripheral
a) A i, B ii, C iii
b) A ii, B iii, C i
c) A iii, B ii, C i
d) A ii, B i, C iii
18) When A1 = 1, A0 = 1 which of the following in 8255 is selected ?

a) Port B
b) Port C
c) Port A
d) CWR
19) 0809 IC is
a) ADC
b) DAC
c) None of these
d) a) and b)
20) MVI, A, 40 H
SIM
The above instructions will
a) Transmit 0 on SOD
b) Transmit 1 on SOD
c) Receive 0 from SID
d) Receive 1 from SID

_____________________
*SLRUM246*
-5-
SLR-UM 246
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
(44=16)
a) What are the functions of following pins ?

ALE, SO, X1 and X2, RESET IN and HOLD.
b) Differentiate between fetch cycle and execution cycle.
c) With an example, describe LDAX Rp and INX instruction.
d) With an example, explain one byte, two byte and three byte instructions.
e) Draw the neat diagram for interfacing keyboard and thumbwheel switches.
(83=24)
a) With neat diagram, explain the functional blocks of 8085 architecture.

b) Describe the following instructions with example and effect of flags.
XTHL, PUSH, SPH and POP.
c) Draw and explain the timing diagram of OUT instruction.
d) Explain how to introduce WAIT, State, with an example.
SECTION II
a) Explain Mode 0 of 8255.
b) Explain in detail operation of R-2R ladder type of DAC.
(44=16)
SLR-UM 246
-6-
*SLRUM246*
c) Explain INTR and INTA signals of 8085.

d) Write a short note on USART.
e) Explain Mode 0 of 8253 with proper timing diagram.
(83=24)
a) Draw and explain the block diagram of 8255.

b) With neat diagram of interrupt structure, explain the hardware interrupts of
8085.
c) Draw and explain successive approximation type ADC.
d) Compare asynchronous and synchronous format of serial data transfer.
_______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 247
*SLRUM247*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------S.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

COMPUTER NETWORKS I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 is of objective type and should be submitted in first 30

minutes.
2) All quesitons are compulsory.
3) Figures to right indicate having marks.
1) DNS and FTP protocols are used in _____________ layer of TCP/IP.
a) Internet
b) Application
c) Transport
d) Host to Host
Marks : 20
20
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 247
*SLRUM247*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) An n-bit unit containing data and check bits is referred as _______________

a) Remainder
b) Message
c) Codeword
d) None
3) ______________ noise consisting of irregular pulses or noise spikes of short

duration.
a) cross talk
b) thermal
c) impulse
d) intermodulation
4) ______________ is a rate at which signal repeats

a) Peak amplitude
b) Frequency
c) Wavelength
d) None
5) Strength of signal falls off with distance, this effect is called as __________
a) Delay distortion
b) Impulse noise
c) Crosstalk
d) Attenuation
6) Between each pair of adjacent layers is an ______________

a) Interlace
b) Interface
c) Protocol
d) Medium
7) Example of acknowledged datagram service is ______________

a) sequence of pages
b) remote login
c) digitized voice
d) registered mail
8) A service is formally specified by a set of _______________

a) Primitives
b) Protocols
c) Numbers
d) None
*SLRUM247*
SLR-UM 247
-3-
9) CRC stands for

a) Cyclick Resolution check
b) Cyclick reverse check
c) Cyclick Redundancy check
d) None
10) In sliding window protocol senders window size is controlled by ____________
a) sender
b) receiver
c) cant say
d) none
11) Which is the default subnet mask for a class B network ?

a) 127.0.0.1
b) 255.255.0.0
c) 255.0.0.0
d) 255.255.255.0
12) _______________ is used for routing between two different networks

(Autonomous system).
a) BGP
b) OSPF
c) RIP
13) _______________ is known as broadcast address.

a) 127.0.0.1
b) 255.0.0.0
c) 255.255.0.0
d) 255.255.255.255
14) Which of the following is/are impairments in transmission ?

a) Attenuation
b) Dispersion
c) Delay Distortion
d) All the above
15) CRC is known as ____________

a) Error detection technique
b) Data verification technique
c) Both a) and b)
d) Only a)
16) which of the following device works on layer 1 ?
a) Hub
b) Repeater
c) Both a) and b)
d) Only b)
SLR-UM 247
*SLRUM247*
-4-
17) Which of the following is/are function of network layer ?

a) Host addressing
b) Message forwarding
c) Data encapsulation
d) All the above
18) Cumulative ACK is used in _______________

a) Go back n
b) Selective Repeat
c) Both a) and b)
19) In CRC, there is no error if the remainder at the receiver is _____________

a) Equal to the remainder at the sender
b) Zero
c) Non zero
d) The quotient at the sender.
20) Which of the following layer in OSI is responsible for bit conversion ?
a) Data link layer
b) Physical layer
c) Network layer
d) Transport layer
_____________________
*SLRUM247*
-5-
SLR-UM 247
Seat
No.
S.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

COMPUTER NETWORKS I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) Figures to right indicate having marks.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four (each carries 5 marks) :
20
a) Describe uses of computer networks

b) Explain Go back N protocol.
c) Explain CRC with suitable example.
d) Explain character count method of framing.
e) Describe unrestricted simplex protocol.
f) Describe transmission characteristics of twisted pair cable.
3. Explain optical fiber cable with different modes.
10
OR
Give Digital signal encoding of following string 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 1
i) NRZ-L
ii) NRZI
iii) Bipolar AMI
iv) Pseudoternary
v) Manchester
vi) Differential Manchester.
4. Give short note :
i) Channel capacity
ii) Delay Distortion.
10
SLR-UM 247
-6-
*SLRUM247*
SECTION II
20
a) Explain class A and class B IP addresses.

b) Explain shortest path routing with example.
c) Explain RARP in detail.
d) Explain slotted Aloha with diagram.
e) Explain bridges in detail.
6. What is collision ? Explain CSMA/CD.
10
OR
Explain OSPF and BGP routing protocols.
7. Write short note (any two) :
10
1) ICMP
2) IEE E 802
3) Flow control.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 248
*SLRUM248*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------S.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N. B. : 1) Question No. 1 is compulsory.

Marks : 20
1. Tick (9) the correct alternative (one mark each) :

20
1) The generalised Newtons-Raphson iterative formula to obtain multiple root of
the equation f(x) = 0 is
f (x n )
f (x n )
a) xn+1 = x n + m
b) xn+1 = x n m f (x )
f (x n )
n
c) xn+1 = x n m
f (x n )
f (x n )

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 248
*SLRUM248*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) This method is known as method of Chord

a) Regula-Falsi method
b) Bisection method
c) N-R method
d) Mullers method
a) 2.7
b) 2.75
c) 2.25
d) 2.5
1
4) The Eigen values for the matrix
1
a) 1 i
c) 1 2i
2
are
3
b) 4, 2
d) 2 i
5) In Newton-cotes formula, if f(x) is interpolated at equally spaced nodes

by a polynomial of degree 2 then it represents
a) Trapezoidal rule
3
c) Simpsons
8
1
b) Simpsons
3
rd
rule
th
rule
d) Weddles rule
6) In solving simultaneous linear equations which method reduces the

a) Gauss-Jordan
b) Jacobis
c) Gauss-Elimination
d) Crouts
*SLRUM248*
SLR-UM 248
-3-
7) Which of the following is Gaussian 3 point formula ?

5
8 3 8 3
+ f
+
f
f
(
0
)
a) I = 9
9 5 9 5
b) I =
8
5 3
3
+ f
f(0) + f
9
9 5
5
c) I =
8
5 3
3
+ f
f(0) + f
9
9 5
5
d) I =
3
5
8 3
+ f
f(0) + f
9
9 5
5
8) Error in Weddles rule is of the order

a) h2
b) h7
c) h
d) h4
9) The use of Rombergs method is ____________

a) To solve simultaneous linear equations
b) To find root of the equation
c) To evaluate definite integration
d) To find eigen values
10) For the given data :
x
0.5
0.8
0.5
The value of I = y dx by trapezoidal rule is

0
a) 0.275
b) 0.575
c) 0.755
d) 0.775
11) Extension principle is used for

a) Converting fuzzy set to crisp set
b) Identifying fuzzy number
c) Generalising crisp set to fuzzy-set
d) Finding fuzzy cardinality
12) The scalar cardinality of the set A(x) = 1
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
x
, x {0, 1, 2, 3, 4} is
10
d) 4
SLR-UM 248
-4-
*SLRUM248*
13) If , then consider the two statements

i) A A and
ii) + A + A , , (0, 1]
a) only (i) holds
b) only (ii) holds
c) both (i) and (ii) hold
d) neither (i) nor (ii) hold
14) The solution of fuzzy equation AX = B exists if cut of X is subset
of -cut of X and the 2nd condition is
b1 b 2
b1 b2
a)
b)
a1 a 2
a1 a 2
b b2
c) 1 =
d) none
a1 a2
2
, x { 0.2, 0.5, 0.8, 1} the equilibrium point is
4X
a) 0.5
b) 0.8
c) 1
d) does not exist
16) Consider the fuzzy set D(x) = e|x|.x R then the level set of the fuzzy set
D(x) is the interval
a) [1, 1]
b) (0, 1)
c) [0, 1]
d) (0, 1]
15) For the fuzzy set A(X) =
17) For any fuzzy set A on universal set X strong 1-cut of A is

a) X
b) empty set
c) 0
d) (0, )
18) Consider the fuzzy proposition P : Vis Fis S representing Tina is
young is very true is
a) conditional and qualified
b) conditional and unqualified
c) unconditional and qualified
d) unconditional and unqualified
19) The crisp rule p q is called
p
q
a) modus tollens
c) disjunction
b) modus ponens
d) disjunctive syllogism
20) Support of A is the set of all those elements of X which have

a) zero membership grade in A
b) non-zero membership grade in A
c) membership grade greater than 0 in A
d) none
______________________
*SLRUM248*
SLR-UM
248
SLR-UM
248
-5-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Find the positive real root of the equation 4x3 2x 6 = 0 correct to three
decimal places by using Bisection method. (perform 6 iterations).
b) Use Mullers method to find an approximate root of the equation
x3 x 1 = 0. (perform 1 iteration).
c) Determine the largest eigen value and the corresponding eigen vector of the
0
1
2
2
1 by using power method.
matrix A = 1
0
2
1
3. a) Perform two iterations of the Newton-Raphson method to solve non-linear
equations x2 + y = 11 and y2 x = 7 starting with initial conditions as x0 = 3.5,
y0 = 1.8.
b) Solve the system of equations by LU decomposition method
10x + y + z = 12
2x + 10y + z = 13
2x + 2y + 10z = 14.
1. 2
4. a) Use Rombergs method to evaluate
dx
by taking h = 0.6, 0.3, 0.15.
1+ x
4
4
7
6
2dx
.
2
x
+
3
1
c) Find the positive real root of the equation 3x = cos x + 1 correct to 3 decimal
places by using N-R method.
b) Using Gaussian quadrature two-point formula evaluate
3
4
SLR-UM 248
55
5. a) Apply Trapezoidal rule to evaluate
11
b) Evaluate
*SLRUM248*
-6-
dx dy
x2 + y2
taking h = k = 2.
rd
cos d taking n = 6 using Simpsons 1

3 and Simpsons
th
3
rule.
8
c) Using Gauss-Seidal method solve the set of linear equations.
20x + y 2z = 17
3x + 20y z = 18
2x 3y + 20z = 25.
6
4
OR
c) Using Gauss Elimination method. Solve the set of linear equations
2x + y + z = 10, 3x + 2y + 3z = 18, x + 4y + 9z = 16.
SECTION II
6. a) Find -cuts and strong -cuts for the following fuzzy sets for = 0.2, 0.5
and 1 where A(x) = 1
x
; B(x) = 3x; x [0, 10].
10
b) Calculate the following fuzzy operations on the intervals.

i) [1, 2] + [1, 3]
ii) [2, 4] [3, 6]
iii) [1, 1] . [2, 0.5]
iv) [4, 10] / [1, 2].
c) Illustrate the concept of fuzziness and fuzzy sets. Define (i) support of a
fuzzy set (ii) concept of height of fuzzy set.
7. a) Write down the conditions for a fuzzy set to qualify as a fuzzy number.
Determine which of the following functions are fuzzy numbers.
sin( x)
i) A(x) =
0
x
B(x) =
0
for 0 x
otherwise
for 0 x 1
otherwise
min(1, x )
C(x) =
0
for x 0
otherwise
*SLRUM248*
SLR-UM 248
-7-
b) Calculate fuzzy numbers A B and B A with the membership functions as

( x 1) 3
A(x) = (7 x ) 3
0
0
B(x) = ( x 7 ) 3
(13 x )
13
for
1< x 4
for
4<x7
x>7
,x 1
for
x 7, x > 13
for
7 < x 10
for
10 < x 13.
8. a) Explain in your words (i) unconditional and unqualified (ii) unconditional and
qualified fuzzy proposition and their role.
b) Calculate the standard composition of two binary fuzzy relations given in the
form of matrix of their membership functions such that R = A B.
0.3
A= 0
0.4
0.5
0.7
0.6
0.8
1 B=
0.5
0.9
0.3
0.5
0.7
0.2
0.5
0.7
0.9 .
0.5
c) Solve the fuzzy equation A + X = B where A and B are the following

triangular-shape fuzzy numbers
0
A(x) = x 3
5 x
0
x 12
B(x) =
18
32 x
12
for
x 3, x > 5
for
3<x4
for
4<x5
for
x 12, x 32
for
12 < x 20
for
20 < x 32 .
SLR-UM 248
-8-
*SLRUM248*
9. a) Let X = {4, 3, 2, 1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4}
Y = {0, 1, 4, 9, 16}
Let A be the fuzzy set defined on X such that
0.6
1
0.4 0.45 0.75 0.81 0.34 1 0.17
and f : x y
+
+
+
+
+
+
+ +
4 3 2
1
0
1
2
3
4
defined by f(x) = x2, find f(A).
A=
x 4
b) Consider A( x) = 6 x
0
( x 10) / 10
B(x ) = (35 x ) / 15
for
4<x5
for
5<x6
otherwise
for
10 < x 20
for
20 < x 35
otherwise
Calculate the fuzzy number (A B) (x).
OR
b) Explain the concept of fuzzy quantifiers and their types.
c) Plot the graphs of fuzzy sets A, B and C defined by A(x) = 2x B(x) =
C(x) =
1
; x {1, 2, 3,...., 10 }.
1 + 10( x 2)2
_____________________
5
x
x+ 2
SLR-UM 249
Code No.
S
*SLRUM249*
&
_
_
f
C
_
_
p
a
Marks : 20
20
1) A regular language over an alphabet is one that can be obtained from basic
languages using the operations of _____________
a) Union, concatenation and Kleene

b) Union, intersection and Kleene
c) And, or and conjunction
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 249
*SLRUM249*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The corresponding regular expression for the language {0} U {10} is

a) 010
b) 0 + 10
c) 01 + 0
d) none of these
3) A finite automation is a 5-tuple (Q,

is a _____________
, q0, A, ) where
a) finite set
b) input symbols
c) transition function
d) accepting state
4) If a language is not accepted by any finite automaton then it is

termed as ______________
a) regular
b) regulatory
c) not regular
d) none of these
5) Consider the FA. The interpretation of the FA is
a) DFA which accepts any number of bs followed by any number

of as
b) DFA which accepts any number of bs followed by any number
of abs
c) DFA which accepts any number of as followed by a string of
ba and followed by a string of as and bs
d) None of these
*SLRUM249*
SLR-UM 249
-3-
6) Compared to NFA, DFA has

a) Less power
b) More characteristics
c) Deterministic transition
d) None of these
7) A grammar that is both left and right recursive for a non terminal symbol is
a) Ambiguous (confusing)
b) Unambiguous
c) Infinite
d) Not possible
8) Let M = (Q, , q0, A, ) be an NFA-^ and let S be any subset of Q. Then for
the set ^(S), for ^-Closure of S the true statement is
a) Every statement of S is an element of ^(S)

b) Every statement of S is not an element of ^(S)
c) Every statement of S is partially an element of ^(S)
d) None of these
9) For any alphabet and the language L C
are ______________
* then the below three statements
1) L can be recognized by FA
2) L can be recognized by NFA
3) L can be recognized by NFA-^
a) non equivalent
b) non compatible
c) unrealizable
d) equivalent
10) Let M be an NFA accepting language {0}* {01}*{0} given by
Then the equivalent NFA is
a)
b)
c)
d) None of these
SLR-UM 249
*SLRUM249*
-4-
11) Statement is true

a) The tape of Turing machine is infinite
b) The tape of Turing machine is finite
c) The tape of Turing machine is infinite when the language is regular
d) The tape of Turing machine is finite when the language is nonregular
12) L = (anbn where n
a) TM
c) Both
1) can be recognise by
b) PDA
d) None
13) PDA can also be non-deterministic

a) True
b) False
14) CFL are closed under

a) Star
c) Concatenation
b) Union
d) All above
15) PDA accepts string by stack with

a) empty stack
c) both
b) null input
d) none
16) Which is not true for mechanical diagram of Turing Machine ?

a) The head moves in both directions
b) The head reads as well as writes
c) Input string is surrounded by infinite number of blank in both side
d) Some symbols are pushed into the stack
17) Which is true for mechanical diagram of PDA ?
a) contains a stack
b) the head reads as well as writes
c) the head moves from left to right
d) input string is surrounded by infinite number of blank in both side
18) Pumping lemma is generally used for proving that
a) Given grammar is regular
b) Given grammar is not regular
c) Two given expression are equivalent or not
d) None
Fill in the blanks :
19) _____________________ tuples defines Turing machines.
20) The head of Turing machine is called _________________
______________________
*SLRUM249*
SLR-UM 249
-5-
S.E. (IT) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

THEORY OF COMPUTATIONS
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) Answer all questions.
2) Numbers to the right indicate marks.
1) Let
(45=20)
be any alphabet. Define the language pal of palindromes and explain
briefly.
2) Define regular languages and regular expressions over
with an example.
3) What is NFA ? Explain with an example.

4) Define Context Free Grammar (CFG) and language generated by CFG and
explain with an example.
5) Realize a finite automaton M accepting {a, b}* {baaa} i.e., all strings consisting
of combination of as and bs but ends with baaa.
3. Realize a transition diagram for a finite automaton recognizing L = {0, 1}*{10}
i.e., the language of all strings in {0, 1} ending with 10.
10
OR
Write a note on Unions, Intersections and Complements.
4. Prove Kleenes theorem which states that Any Regular Language can be accepted
by a finite automaton.
10
SLR-UM 249
-6-
5. Solve any four :
*SLRUM249*
(45=20)
1) Define Turing machine.

2) State and explain pumping lemma for regular language.
3) Explain the concept of multitape Turing machine model.
4) Obtain a TM to accept n mod 2 of 0s and 1s.
5) Show that L = {ss | sis string containing as and bs} is not context free.
6. Answer any one :
10
1) Draw transition diagram and Turing machine which delete a symbol from a
string.
2) Construct a PDA to accept a given language L by empty stack and final state
both where L = (anb2n where n
1) with transition.
7. Give transition table and machine for PDA to recognise balanced string of 3 types
( ) { } & [ ] and show PDA is accepting ([[[{}]]]).
_____________________
10
SLR-UM 25
Code No.
S
*SLRUM25*
&
_
_
f
C

Marks : 20
1. The value of Rankines constant for mild steel is ________________

a)
b)

'
c)
d)

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 25
*SLRUM25*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2. When solid shaft subjected to torsion the shear stress induced in the shaft at
centre is _______________
a) zero
b) minimum
c) maximum
d) average
3. The Stability of dam is checked for ____________
a) tension at the base
b) overturning of dam
c) sliding of the dam
d) all of these
4. The water pressure per meter vertical length of

a) wh
b)
c)
d)
is _____________
"
5. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress ( ) is in one plane, the

normal stress on an oblique section of body inclined at an angle to the normal of
the section is equal to
sin
a)
c)
b)
sin2
d)
cos
cos2
6. Maximum shear stress theory was postulated by

a) St. Venant
b) Mohr
c) Rankine
d) Tresca
*SLRUM25*
SLR-UM 25
-3-
7. The maximum strain energy stored in a body without exceeding the limit of
proportionality is
a) proof resilence
b) modules of rigidity
c) resilence
d) modules of resilence
8. A cantilever AB of length l has a moment M applied at free end. The deflection at

free end B is given as _______________
a)
M
b)
l
c)
M
d)
l
9. A simply supported beam of span l is having point load w at centre. Then maximum
deflection is ___________
!
a)
"
&
c)
"
"
b)
d)
-
'
&
"
&
1
9
10. Assumptions in Eulers theory made _________________
a) cross section of column uniform

b) initially column is perfectly straight
c) failure of column occur due to buckling
d) all above these
11. The total strain energy of a truss element is 500 Joules and it carries on axial
force of 100 kN. The extension of the member is ______________
a) 1 mm
b) 2 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 10 mm
12. The maximum slope of a cantilever carrying a point load at its free end is
at the
a) fixed end
b) centre of span
c) free end
d) none of these
SLR-UM 25
*SLRUM25*
-4-
13. According to Mohrs theorem-I, The change of slope between two points of elastic
curve is equal to ________________
a) Net Area of
diagram
M
c) Moment of
diagram
M
diagram
M
b) Half Area of
d) None of these
14. The one of method of finding combined stresses is
a) Mohrs circle method
b) Rankines method
c) Eulers method
d) None of these
15. A cantilever beam 120 mm wide and 150 mm deep is 1.8 m long deflection at the
free end. When it carries point load 20 kN at free end.
a) 5.76 mm
b) 0.056 mm
c) 7.9 mm
d) 8.4 mm
16. Deflection at a point in a root truss is given by _______________

a)
c)
b)
L
d)
17. Two simply supported beams of the same span carry the same load. If the first
beam carries the total load as a point load at its centre and other uniformly
distributed over the whole span, the ratio of maximum slopes of first beam to
second will be __________________
a) 1 : 1
b) 1 : 1.5
c) 1.5 : 1
d) 2 : 1
________________
*SLRUM25*
-5-
SLR-UM 25
S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

STRUCTURAL MECHANICS II (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Figures right to indicate full marks.

2) Solve any three questions from Section I and II.
SECTION I
1. a) Derive an equation for the maximum and minimum intensities of stress at the
base of a trapezoidal dam.
b) A concrete dam has its upstream face vertical and a top width of 3m. Its down
stream face has a uniform batter. It stores water to a depth of 15 m with a free
board of 2 m as shown in figure (1). The weights of water and concrete may
be taken as 10
k
and 25
k
. Calculate the minimum dam width at the base
for no tension in concrete. Neglect uplift.
Fig. (1)
10
SLR-UM 25
-6-
*SLRUM25*
2. a) Derive a relation for the Eulers crippling load for a column when both ends
fixed.
b) An I section joists 400 mm 200 mm 20 mm and 6 m long is used as a strut
with both ends fixed. What is Eulers crippling load for the column ? Take
Youngs modulus for the joists as 200 GPa.
3. a) Define principal planes and principal stresses and explain their uses.
b) A point in a strained material is subjected to the stresses as shown in figure.
Find normal and shear stresses on the section AB.
4
9
*SLRUM25*
SLR-UM 25
-7-
4. a) Obtain a relation for the torque and power, a solid shaft can transmit.
b) A solid circular shaft is required to transmit 120 kW at 200 r.p.m. It is also

subjected to bending moment 6 106 N. mm. Find the suitable minimum
diameter of shaft if maximum principal stress is limited to 100 MPa.
SECTION II
5. Calculate the central deflection of the uniformly loaded simply supported beam
AB as shown in figure. Take I = 2 108 mm4, E = 2 105
m
W = 20
k
,
N
. l = 10 m. Use moment Area method.
13
6. Determine the deflection under point C for the beam as shown in figure. Use
strain energy method. EI = 40,000
m
13
SLR-UM 25
-8-
*SLRUM25*
7. Draw influence line diagram for the compound beam as shown in figure.
13
1) Reaction at A
2) Reaction at B
3) Bending moment at B
4) Shear force at G.
8. a) Explain any one theory of failure.
b) A bolt is required to resist an axial tension of 25 kN and a transverse shear of

20 kN. Find the size of the bolt by
1) Maximum shear stress theory
2) Maximum principal stress theory.
Elastic limit of material is 300 MPa.
M = 0.3 and factor of safety = 3.0.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
250
*SLRUM250*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------S.E. (IT) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014
MICROPROCESSORS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) How many I/O ports can be addressed by 8085 ?

a) 65536
b) 256
c) 64
d) 32
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 250
*SLRUM250*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The sequence of flags in flag register from left to right in 8085 are as
follows
a) S Z X AC X P CY
b) S Z X CY X P X AC
c) Z S X AC X P CY
d) Z S X CY X P X AC
3) Specify the contents of register L after execution of the following instruction

LXI H, 8090 H
SUB A
MVI D, 0FH
LOOP : MOV M, A
INX H
DCR D
JNZ LOOP
HLT
a) 80 H
b) 9 FH
c) 8 FH
d) 00 H
4) How many times the following loop will be executed ?

LXI B, 0007 H
LOOP DCX B
JNZ LOOP
HLT
a) 6
b) 5
c) 7
d) 8
*SLRUM250*
SLR-UM 250
-3-
5) How many T states are required to execute DCX Rp instruction ?

a) 6
b) 4
c) 7
d) 9
6) How many T states are required to execute HLT instruction ?

a) 2
b) 2 or more
c) 5
d) 5 or more
7) Which of the following is not a 8085 instruction ?

a) MOV M, M
b) MOV A, A
c) MOV C, C
d) MOV H, H
8) The key debouncing is done through

a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Both Hardware and Software
d) None of these
9) To identify a key value in case of key board interface, which of the following
function should be performed ?
a) Identifying a key closure
b) Debouncing the key
c) Encoding the key to an appropriate code like hexadecimal
d) All of the above
10) JMP 16 bit address is a how many byte instruction ?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
11) How many flags can support 8086 ?

a) 5
b) 9
c) 6
d) 8
12) Which of the following is DMA signal ?

a) HOLD
c) a) and b) both
b) HLDA
d) None of these
SLR-UM 250
*SLRUM250*
-4-
13) When A1 = 1 and A0 = 0, which port of 8255 is selected ?

a) Port A
b) Port B
c) Port C
d) CWR
14) USART stands for _______________

a) Universal Serial Access Receiver Transmitter
b) Universal Synchronous Asynchronous Receiver Transmitter
c) Universal Set Asynchronous Receiver Transmitter
d) None of these
15) There are _______________ software interrupts.
a) 8
b) 5
c) 10
d) 6
16) Vector address of RST 2 is _______________

a) 002c H
b) 003c H
c) 0010 H
d) None of these
17) SIM is a _______________

a) Software interrupts
b) Instruction
c) Hardware interrupt
d) None of these
18) LOCK prefix is used most often

a) During normal execution
b) During DMA accesses
c) During interrupt servicing
d) During memory accesses
19) Direction flag is used with _______________

a) String instructions
b) Stack instructions
c) Arithmetic instructions
d) Branch instructions
20) 8255 IC operate in _______________ modes.

a) 5
b) 6
c) 1
d) 3
__________________
*SLRUM250*
-5-
SLR-UM 250
Seat
No.
S.E. (IT) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

MICROPROCESSORS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Attempt any 4 :
(44=16)
1) How de multiplexing of address and data bus takes place ?

2) Differentiate fetch cycle and execution cycle.
3) Draw the timing diagram of operand fetch machine cycle.
4) Write an assembly language program to load the data byte A8H in register C,
mask the higher order bits (D7-D4) and display the low-order bits (D3-D0) at
an output port.
5) Interface 1K 8 memory to 8085 using 1 K 4 memory chips. Interface it at
address C400H.
3. Attempt any 3 :
(83=24)
1) Draw and explain the 8085 architecture.

2) Write an assembly language program to transfer block of data of size 10 byte
from its source location to destination location.
3) Interface 6 K 8 memory to 8085 using 2 K 8 memory chips. Select
starting address 8000 H. Give the address range of each chip used.
4) What is T state and Machine cycle ? Represent the following signals in time
domain-Clock signal, Single line signal, Multiple line signal, Multiple lines
with high impedance, Single line and single effect signal, Multiple line and
single effect signal.
SLR-UM 250
-6-
*SLRUM250*
SECTION II
4. Attempt any 4 :
(44=16)
a) What is segmentation ? What are its advantages ? How is segmentation

implemented in typical microprocessors ?
b) Give the features of 80286 microprocessor.
c) What do you understand by hardware and software interrupt ? Specify priorities.
d) Draw the block diagram of 8255 PPI.
e) Compare synchronous and asynchronous modes of serial communication
with the example of each.
5. Attempt any 3 :
(83=24)
a) Draw and explain architecture of 8086 microprocessor.

b) Explain 8259 programmable interrupt controller.
c) Draw and explain internal block diagram of 8251 USART.
d) Draw and explain the control word format of 8255 for :
i) BSR mode
ii) I/O mode.
________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 251
Seat
No.
*SLRUM251*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

2) Numbers to the right side indicate marks.
Marks : 20
1. Multiple Choice Questions :

I) The network layer concerns with
b) Frames
a) Bits
c) Packets
II) Which one of the following is not a function of network layer ?
b) Framing
a) Switching
c) Error correction
20

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 251
-2-
DO
*SLRUM251*
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
III) The 4 byte IP address consists of

a) Network address
b) Host address
c) Both a) and b)
IV) Which one of the following routing algorithm can be used for network
layer design ?
a) Shortest path algorithm
b) Distance vector routing
c) Link state routing
V) Multidestination routing
a) Is same as broadcast routing
b) Contains the list of all destinations
c) Data is not sent by packets
VI) The network layer protocol of internet is
a) ethernet
b) Internet protocol
c) Hypertext transfer protocol
VII) A ___________ is a set of rules that governs data communication.
a) Forum
b) Protocol
c) Standard
VIII) Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a

single stream before passing it to
a) Network layer
b) Data link layer
c) Application layer
d) Physical layer
*SLRUM251*
-3-
SLR-UM 251
IX) Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol used in internet ?
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Both a) and b)
X) User datagram protocol is called connectionless because

a) All UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer
b) It sends data as a stream of related packets
c) Both a) and b)
XI) Transmission control protocol is
a) Connection oriented protocol
b) Uses a three way handshake to establish a connection
c) Receives data from application as a single stream
XII) An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a
computer network is called
a) Socket
b) Pipe
c) Port
XIII) Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion

control ?
a) Datagram congestion control protocol
b) Stream control transmission protocol
c) Structured stream transport
XIV) A ___________ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.
a) Port
b) Pipe
c) Node
XV) Wi-Fi is a
a) Type of computer
b) Type of network cable
c) Set of popular technologies and standards for wireless computer
networking
d) Set of computer programs that help people make money on the
Internet
SLR-UM 251
-4-
*SLRUM251*
XVI) An IP address is a numeric quantity that identifies

a) A network adapter to other devices on the network
b) The manufacturer of a computer
c) The physical location of a computer
XVII) Parity is
a) A byte stored in the FAT to indicated remaining slots
b) The optimal transmission speed of data over a CAT 5 cable
c) An extra bit stored with data in RAM that is used to check for
errors when the data is read back
XVIII) Which of the following transmission systems provide the highest
data rate to in individual device ?
a) Computer bus
b) Telephone lines
c) Voice and mode
d) Lease lines
XIX) A band is always equivalent to

a) A byte
b) A bit
c) 100 bits
d) None of above
XX) In communication satellite, multiple repeaters are known as

a) Detector
b) Modulator
c) Stations
d) Transponders
_____________________
*SLRUM251*
-5-
SLR-UM 251
Seat
No.
S.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) Numbers to the right side indicate marks.
SECTION I
(54=20)
a) Compare OSI and TCP/IP reference model.

b) Explain different types of transmission impairments.
c) Explain different types of network topologies.
d) What are the key design issues for the layers in computer networks ?
e) Differentiate connection oriented and connection less services.
f) Explain uses of computer networks.
3. Explain cyclic redundancy check and hamming distance with examples.
10
4. Write short note on (any two) :
10
a) Go-back N sliding window protocol.

b) Selective repeat sliding window protocol.
c) ATM reference model.
SLR-UM 251
-6-
*SLRUM251*
SECTION II
(54=20)
a) Explain Network Address Translation.

b) Explain different classes of IPv4 address.
c) Write a note on Bridges.
d) Differentiate distance vector rounding protocol and linked state routing protocol.
e) Explain distance vector routing algorithm.
6. Define IP address, subnet mask, broadcast address, multicast address. One of
the address in a block is 17.63.110.114/24. Find the number of addresses,
the first address and last address in the block.
10
10
a) BGP
b) OSPF
c) ALOHA.
_______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 252
Seat
No.
*SLRUM252*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Q. No. 1 is compulsory.
All questions from Section I and II are compulsory.
Assume data if necessary.
Marks : 20
1. Objective type questions. Choose the correct option :
20
1) Which data structure allows deleting data elements from front and
inserting at rear ?
a) Stacks
c) Queues
d) None of above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 252
-2-
DO
*SLRUM252*
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2) Which of the following data structure is non-linear type ?

a) Strings
b) Lists
c) Stacks
d) None of above
3) The post order traversal of a binary tree is DEBFCA. Find out the
pre order traversal.
a) ABFCDE
b) ADBFEC
c) ABDECF
d) ABDCEF
4) Identify the data structure which allows deletions at both ends of the
list but insertion at only one end.
a) Input-restricted deque
b) Output-restricted deque
c) Priority queues
d) None of above
5) A binary tree whose every node has either zero or two children is
called
a) Complete binary tree
c) Extended binary tree
d) None of above
6) Which of the following name is related to stacks ?

a) FIFO lists
b) LIFO list
c) Pipes
d) Push-down lists
7) Finding the location of the element with a given value is ___________

a) Traversal
b) Search
c) Sort
d) None of above
8) The term push and pop is related to the ___________

a) Array
b) Lists
c) Stacks
d) All of above
*SLRUM252*
-3-
SLR-UM 252
9) Binary search algorithm can not be applied to

a) Sorted linked list
b) Sorted binary trees
c) Sorted linear array
d) Pointer array
10) Which of the following data structure store the homogeneous data
elements ?
a) Array
b) Records
c) Pointers
d) None of above
11) B Trees are generally

a) Very deep and narrow
b) Very wide and shallow
c) Very deep and very wide
d) Cannot say
12) A technique for direct search is

a) Binary search
b) Linear search
c) Tree search
d) Hashing
13) If a node having two children is deleted from a binary tree, it is

replaced by its
a) Inorder predecessor
b) Inorder successor
c) Preorder predecessor
14) The searching technique that takes O(1) time to find a data is
a) Linear search
b) Binary search
c) Hashing
d) Tree search
15) A mathematical-model with a collection of operations defined on that

model is called
a) Data structure
b) Abstract data type
c) Primitive data type
d) Algorithm
16) The number of interchanges required to sort 5, 1, 6, 2, 4 in ascending

order using Bubble Sort is
a) 6
b) 5
c) 7
d) 8
SLR-UM 252
-4-
*SLRUM252*
17) For an undirected graph with n vertices and e edges, the sum of the
degree of each vertex is
a) 2n
b) (2n 1)/2
c) 2e
d) e2/2
18) A full binary tree with 2n + 1 nodes contain

a) n leaf nodes
b) n non-leaf nodes
c) n 1 leaf nodes
d) n-1 non-leaf nodes
19) If a node in a BST has two children, then its inorder predecessor has
a) No left child
b) No right child
c) Two children
d) No child
20) A binary tree in which if all its levels except possibly the last, have
the maximum number of nodes and all the nodes at the last level
appear as far left as possible, is known as
a) Full binary tree
b) AVL tree
c) Threaded tree
d) Complete binary tree

_____________________
*SLRUM252*
-5-
SLR-UM 252
Seat
No.
S.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) All questions from Section I and II are compulsory.

SECTION I
(54=20)
1) Define and explain stack operations diagrammatically with the help of an

example.
2) Explain deletion of a node from Binary Search Tree with example.
3) Explain implementation of circular queue.
4) Evaluate (A + B) * (C D) Infix to Postfix with stack values.
5) Explain queue using linked list.
3. Explain types of linked list and their implementation in detail.
10
4. How do you rotate a Binary Tree ? Explain right and left rotations with the help of
an example.
10
SECTION II
5. Answer the following questions (any four) :

A) Taking a suitable example explains how a general tree can be represented
as a Binary Tree.
20
SLR-UM 252
-6-
*SLRUM252*
B) What are the different ways of representing a graph ? Represent the following
graph using those ways.
C) Write short notes on Depth First Traversal.

D) Explain Threaded Binary Tree with an example.
E) Write a C function to delete a node from a binary search tree.
6. What is a Binary Search Tree (BST) ? Make a BST for the following Sequence
of numbers.
10
45, 36, 76, 23, 89, 115, 98, 39, 41, 56, 69, 48
Traverse the tree in Preorder, Inorder and postorder.
7. Consider the following specification of a graph G.
V(G) = {1, 2, 3, 4}
E(G) = {(1, 2), (1, 3), (3, 3), (3, 4), (4, 1)}
i) Draw an undirected graph.
ii) Draw its adjacency matrix.
_______________
10
Code No. SLR-UM 253
*SLRUM253*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------T.E. (I.T.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

COMPUTER NETWORK II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. MCQ :
20
1) ___________ timer is sued in TCP to prevent a long idle connection between

two TCPs.
a) Retransmission
b) RT T
c) Keepalive
d) Persistence
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 253
*SLRUM253*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) ____________ has divided the port numbers into three ranges well-known,
registered and dynamic.
a) NIC
b) ICAN
c) ICANN
d) IANA
3) In BOOTP packet format ____________ is an optional 128 byte field that can
be filled by the server in a reply packet.
a) Boot file name
b) Transaction ID
c) Client IP address
d) All
4) DHCP provides ____________ IP addresses for a limited period of time.

a) Temporary
b) Permanent
c) Both a) and b)
d) 48-bit
5) Which of the following has no flow-control mechanism ?

a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Both a) and b)
6) ___________ is a client-server protocol designed to provide the four pieces

of information for a diskless computers that is booted for the first time.
a) BOOTP
b) ARP
c) DNS
d) SMTP
7) When a DHCP client receives a ___________ message, it must relinquish its

IP address.
a) DHCP OFFER
b) DHCP DISCOVER
c) DHCP NACK
d) DHCP REQUEST
*SLRUM253*
SLR-UM 253
-3-
8) The __________ socket is used with a connection-oriented protocol.

a) Stream
b) Datagram
c) Raw
d) Remote
9) UDP packet is called ___________

a) Segment
b) Frame
c) Datagram
d) All of the above
10) To accomplish flow control, TCP uses ___________

a) Serial number protocol
b) Sliding window protocol
c) Congestion window protocol
11) The three modes of TELNET operations are-Default mode, Line mode and
__________ mode.
a) ASCII
b) String
c) Line
d) Stream
12) TELNET uses a un interface called universal __________ character set.

a) Network Virtual Terminal
b) Network Virtual Tool
c) Network Verified Terminal
d) Network Verification Tool
13) TFTP is an application that uses ___________ for its transport mechanism.
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Both
d) None
14) Which of the following is an application layer ?

a) TELNET
b) FTP
c) E-mail
d) All of above
15) MIME allows __________ data to be sent through SMTP.

a) Image
b) Text
c) Audio
d) All of above
16) Line mode in Telnet is ___________

a) Half duplex
b) Full duplex
c) Both
d) Simplex
SLR-UM 253
*SLRUM253*
-4-
17) Inverse domain is used to map

a) An address to name
b) A name to address
c) Both
d) None
18) _________ is a name server replies with the searched information if it has it
or with the address of another responsible name server.
a) Iterative resolution
b) Recursive resolution
c) Both
d) None
19) __________ is responsible for receipt, presentation of email and administration
of received email.
a) UA
b) MAA
c) MTA
d) None
20) E-Mail can done with the help of __________

a) SMTP
b) POP3
c) IMAP
d) All of above
______________
-5-
*SLRUM253*
SLR-UM 253
Seat
No.
T.E. (I.T.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

COMPUTER NETWORK II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :

(54=20)
a) Explain process to process communication in UDP with the help of port
numbers.
b) Explain socket system call with syntax and example.
c) List different timers used in TCP. Explain retransmission timer.
d) What is BOOTP ? Explain operations of BOOTP.
e) Explain three way handshaking used for connection establishment in TCP.
3. Draw and explain socket interface for connectionless iterative server.
OR
Draw and explain BOOTP packet format. Also explain the concept of relay
agent in BOOTP ?
10
4. Explain error control used in TCP with their suitable diagram.
10
10
SECTION II
5. Solve any four :
a) What is MIME ? Explain its application in detail.
b) Explain terms GET and POST in HT TP.
c) Describe NV T character set.
d) Explain the use of cookies.
e) Describe overview of window NT.
(54=20)
6. Explain control and data connection in FTP communication with diagram.

OR
Explain need of DNS. Explain iterative resolution and recursive resolution.
10
7. Explain architecture of E-mail along with diagram of all scenarios.
10
______________
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 254
*SLRUM254*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2014

COMPUTER ORGANISATION
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Day & Date ____________________ _
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________ Section ________________________________________

Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination _________

______________ (Paper - _______)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1. 1) Which memory is difficult to interface with processor ?

a) Static memory
b) Dynamic memory
c) ROM
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 254
-2-
DO
*SLRUM254*
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
T
NO
2) Paging is
a) Virtual memory
b) Memory management scheme
c) Memory allocation
d) Deadlock prevention scheme
3) Chaining and indexing are the strategies of
a) Contiguous allocation
b) Non-contiguous allocation
c) Partition allocation
d) Static allocation
4) Round-robin scheduling algorithm falls under the category of
a) Pre-emptive
b) Non-preemptive
c) Sometimes preemptive sometimes non-preemptive
d) None
5) The reference bit is used for
a) Improving MRU algorithm
b) Implementing LRU algorithm
c) Checking the page table entry in cache memory
d) Checking to see if parameters are passed to a procedure by value or
address
*SLRUM254*
-3-
SLR-UM 254
6) Which of the following address mode is load 800 using

a) Immediate
b) Direct
c) Indirect
d) Indexed
7) More operand in an instruction can lead to

a) Fewer instructions per program
b) Faster fetch-execution of instructions
c) More addressing modes
d) More complex programs
8) Most common addressing techniques used by CPU is
a) Immediate
b) Direct
c) Register
d) All of these
9) Property of locality of reference may fail, if a program has

a) Many conditional jumps
b) Many unconditional jumps
c) Many operands
d) Many operators
10) How many RAM chips of size (256 K 1 bit) are required to build 1 M byte
memory ?
a) 8
b) 12
c) 24
d) 32
11) Signed multiplication of arithmetic operands is done by

a) Non-restore method
b) Restore method
c) Booths algorithm
d) None
12) Dynamic runtime address translation is done by
a) Program counter
b) MMU
c) Instruction register
d) None
SLR-UM 254
-4-
13) Parallel access to memory modules is possible in

a) Cache
b) Interleaved memory
c) Virtual memory
d) None
14) Which of the following is not a pipelining stage ?

a) Decode
b) Encode
c) Fetch
d) Execute
15) Data hazard in a pipeline is due to

a) Hardware design
b) None
c) Data dependency
d) Decision based on results
16) PUSH/POP instructions are of type
a) Logical
b) Data transfer
c) Program control
d) Input-output
17) Pipeline hazards can be prevented by

a) Stall
b) Bubble
c) Delay cycles
d) All of these
18) Content addressable memory is created by

a) Cache
b) Associative memory
c) Interleaved memory
d) None
19) Collision vector is used in
a) Memory operations
b) Pipelining
c) Control unit design
d) None
20) Fixed length instructions are used by
a) CISC
b) RISC
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
*SLRUM254*
-5-
*SLRUM254*
SLR-UM 254
Seat
No.
T.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2014

COMPUTER ORGANISATION
Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Attempt any 4 :
a) Explain in brief generation of computers.
b) Explain in brief RISC architectures.
c) Explain DLX operations.
d) Explain Booths algorithm for multiplication.
e) Compare virtual memory and cache memory.
20
3. a) Explain addressing modes of RISC processor.
20
b) Explain structure of page table with diagram.

OR
b) Explain look aside and look through cache memory.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any 4 :
a) Explain following terms :
i) Forbidden latency
ii) Minimal average latency.
b) Explain linear pipelining.
c) Explain in short control hazard.
d) Explain virtual memory.
e) Explain locality of reference in cache memory.
f) Explain difference between loosely and tightly coupled systems.
20
5. a) Explain set associative mapping technique of cache with the help of diagram.
b) Explain types of hazards in pipeling with diagrams.
OR
b) Explain loosely coupled system with example.
20
Code No. SLR-UM
256
*SLRUM256*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------T.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2014

OPERATING SYSTEM I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

I. Multiple choice questions :
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) Moving a process from main memory to disk is called as ___________

a) Scheduling
b) Caching
c) Swapping
d) Spooling
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 256
*SLRUM256*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) IPC can be done through ______________

a) Mail
b) Messages
c) System calls
d) Traps
3) Round Robin is preemptive version of ______________

a) FcFs
b) Priority
c) Multilevel queue
d) Shortest job first
4) The part of the operating system which makes the sharing of the I/O resources
is called ___________
a) Kernel
b) Shell
c) Process abstraction manager
d) Spooler
5) Multitasking on a single processor is possible by the help of __________
a) Non-preemptive scheduler algorithms
b) Long term scheduler algorithms
c) Preemptive scheduler algorithms
d) None of a), b) or c)
6) Which term describes the mechanism of backing up the environment data of
a process when it is interrupted ?
a) Context switching
b) Process control block
c) Spooling
d) Single tasking
*SLRUM256*
-3-
SLR-UM 256
7) Which of the following cannot be the unit of average waiting time ?

a) ms.
b) s.
c) sec.
d) number of job/s
8) If the quantum of the round robin algo. is smaller than the switching time
a) The utilization will decrease
b) The throughput will increase
c) More utilization will increase
d) More processes can come to the ready queue
Refer to the following figure which shows a processs lifecycle for Question 9
and 10.
9) Which term should be replaced by Q. 14 ?

a) Ready
b) Waiting
c) Terminated
d) Interrupted
10) Which term should be replaced by Q. 15 ?

a) Ready
b) Waiting
c) Terminated
d) Interrupted
11) ____________ is a set of methods for ensuring that at least one of the
necessary conditions cannot hold.
a) Deadlock avoidance
b) Deadlock prevention
c) Allocation graph
d) None of these
12) The ___________ condition never holds is to impose a total ordering of all
resource types.
a) Mutual exclusion
b) Hold and wait
c) No preemption
d) Circular wait
SLR-UM 256
*SLRUM256*
-4-
13) An order __________ operations to decide whether a state is safe.

a) m n2
b) m2 n
c) m2 n2
d) m n
14) Selection of a memory management for a specific system depends on the

_________ design of the system.
a) O.S.
b) Hardware
c) CPU
d) None of these
15) The concept of a logical address space is bound to a separate physical

address space is to proper __________ management.
a) CPU
b) Priority
c) Memory
d) All of these
16) The baking store is commonly a fast ___________

a) Disk
b) CPU
c) Terminal
d) None of these
17) The strategies used to select a free hole from the set of available
holes are ___________
a) First fit
b) Best fit
c) Worst fit
d) All of these
18) The TLB is used with ___________

a) Page table entries
b) Logical address generated by CPU
c) Available frame number
d) All of these
19) The role of O.S. in compute I/O is to manage and control ___________
a) I/O operations
b) I/O devices
c) I/O services
d) All of these
20) The important behaviors of block storage devices are _________

a) Read
c) Seek
b) Write
d) All of these
__________________
*SLRUM256*
-5-
SLR-UM 256
Seat
No.
T.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2014

OPERATING SYSTEM I
Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Attempt all questions in each Sections.
SECTION I
(45=20)
1) Real time OS
2) Time sharing OS
3) PCB
4) Third algo. for mutual exclusion
5) Convoy effect.
III. Answer any one :
10
1) What is scheduler ? Explain different types of schedulers with the help of

diagram.
2) Explain in detail the following :
i) Multiple processor scheduling
ii) Real time scheduling.
IV. What is semaphore ? List and discuss characteristics, advantages, disadvantages
of semaphores.
10
SLR-UM 256
-6-
*SLRUM256*
SECTION II
V. Attempt any four :
(45=20)
1) Explain with example safety algorithm.

2) Explain memory protection and memory allocation.
3) Explain the term virtual memory is larger than physical memory with example.
4) Explain the working set model and page fault frequency.
5) Explain the steps in a DMA transfer.
VI. Explain in detail deadlock detection.
10
OR
Explain with example the basic method of paging.
VII. Write short note (any two) :
(25=10)
1) Polling and interrupts

2) System model
3) Paging hardware with TLB.
________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 257
*SLRUM257*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------T.E. (I.T.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
N.B. :
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Choose correct alternative (s) :

20
a) n! = 0(nn )
b) n2n + 6 * 2n = 0(n2n )
c) 10n2 + 9 = 0 (n)
d)
i= 0
i3 = 0(n4 )
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 257
*SLRUM257*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) If a = 2, b = 2, T(1) = 2 and f(n) = n in recurrence relation, then complexity

will be
a) 0(n)
b) 0(n log n)
c) 0 (log n)
d) 0 (n2)
3) In Binary search, if array contains 14 elements, then first comparison will be

with the element at position ______________
a) 1
b) 14
c) 7
d) 8
4) In quick sort, after positioning two sets S1 and S2 are produced. Which
statement is true w.r.t. partitioning ?
a) All the elements in S1 are sorted
b) All the elements in S2 are sorted
c) All of elements in S1 are less than or equal to elements in S2
d) All the elements in S2 are less than or equal to elements in S2
5) In job sequencing problem, objective function is to
a) finish all jobs
b) maximize profit
c) maximize deadlines
d) none of these
6) In optimal storage on tapes problem, mean retrieval time is _____________

1
a) n lik
1k 1
c)
ljk
1 jn 1k j
1
b) n tj
1 jn
*SLRUM257*
SLR-UM 257
-3-
7) Recurrence relation of finding minimum and maximum using divide and conquer
is
a) T(n) = 2T (n/2) + 2n
b) T(n) = T (n/2) + 2
c) T(n) = 2T (n/2) + 2
d) T(n) = 2T (n/2)
8) Which of the following problem, does not hold principle of optimality ?

a) shortest path
b) longest path
c) knapsack problem
d) optimal merge pattern
9) A multistage graph is a directed graph.

a) True
b) False
10) How many maximum elements will be in set S2 in 0/1 knapsack problem ?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
11) Constraint in reliability design problem is
a) maximize 1in (mi )
b) 1in Cimi C
c) minimize 1in (mi )
d) 1in Cimi C
12)
Given graph is biconnected, whether statement is True or False

a) True
b) False
13) In BFS, we start at vertex V then all _____________ vertices adjacent from V
are visited next.
a) unvisited
b) near
c) common
d) long
14) Depth first node generation with bounding function is called as ____________
a) branch and bound
b) backtracking
c) dynamic programming
d) greedy method
SLR-UM 257
*SLRUM257*
-4-
15) The preorder traversal of Binary tree begins with

a) Traversal of right subtree in preorder
b) Traversal of left subtree in postorder
c) Processing of root node
d) None of these
16) Total time required for m-colouring algorithm is _____________ where
m = no. of nodes
a) 0 (nm)
b) 0 (nmn)
c) o(m.nm)
d) 0(mn)
17) In 8-queen problem i f(X[i] = iH) then two queens are said to be in same.
a) column
b) row
c) diagonal
d) none of these
18) For n = 8, how many times loop will be executed ?

i=1
repeat
{
x[i]=X[i]+2
i=i+2
} until (i > n) ;
a) 3
b) 8
c) 4
d) 9
19) Level of any node is

a) Its distance from the root
b) Height of its left subtree minus height of its right subtree
c) Height of its right subtree minus height of left subtree
d) None of these
20) Which of the following is true w.r.t. Huffman Code ?
a) Codeword is formed from leaf node to root node
b) All codewords are of same size
c) Codewords are of variable size
d) Codewords are formed from alphabet letters (a ....z).
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM257*
SLR-UM 257
Seat
No.
T.E. (I.T.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

3) Assume suitable data is necessary.
SECTION I
1) Find time and space complexity of the following algorithm
Algorithm selectionsort (a, n)
{
for i := 1 to n do
{
j: = i;
for K : = 1 to n do
if (a (K] < a (j] then j: = K;
t: = a (i]; a(i] = a(j] ; a(j]: = t
}
}
2) What is algorithm ? Sate criteria that every algorithm should satisfy.
3) Find minimum and maximum from the following array using divide 4 conquer
310, 285, 179, 652, 351, 423, 861, 254, 450, 520.
4) Find average case complexity of quick sort.
5) Write an algorithm to generate two-way merge tree.
6) Explain different ways of finding spanning trees.
20
SLR-UM 257
-6-
*SLRUM257*
3. The factorial function n! has value ! when n 1 and n*(n 1)! when n > 1 write
both recursive and iterative algorithm to compute n!. Write complexities of both
algorithm.
10
OR
Sort following array using merge sort 50, 40, 20, 60, 80, 100, 45, 70, 105, 30, 90, 75.
4. Find shortest path from vertex 5 to all vertices.
10
SECTION II
1) Justify the statement : Reliability may not be good if devices are connected in
series.
2) Find all pairs shortest path
20
*SLRUM257*
-7-
SLR-UM 257
3) Write applications of Breath first traversal.

4) Write interactive algorithm for inorder traversal.
5) Explain general method of backtracking.
6) Write problem statement for 0/1 knapsack problem. How to solve this problem
using backtracking.
6. Find all possible binary search trees for identifier set = {cout, it, while with equal
probabilities p(1) = 1/20 p(2) = 1/5 p(3) = 2/10 a q(1) = 1/5, q(2) = 2/10, q(3) = 3/20.
OR
6. Draw state space tree generated by sum of subsets using backtracking for n = 6
m = 30 w[1 : 6] = {5, 10, 12, 13, 15, 18 } and find answer.
10
7. For the following graph, identify articulation points using depth first spanning tree
and draw biconnected components.
10
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
258
*SLRUM258*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------T.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

1. MCQ :
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) An attribute or set of attributes used to look up records in a file is

called ___________
a) Search key
b) Primary key
c) Candidate key
d) Super key
2) Indices with two or more levels are called ____________
b) Multiple
a) Multilevel
c) Multilayered
d) Multivalued
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 258
*SLRUM258*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
3) Each leaf in a B+ tree with n pointers can hold upto ___________ values.
a) n
b) n + 1
c) n 1
d) None
4) The fanout of nodes in a B+ tree can be increased by using a technique

called ____________
a) Prefix compression
b) Suffix compression
c) Prefix expansion
d) Suffix expansion
5) A search key containing more than one attribute is referred to as _________

a) Composite search key
b) Combined search key
c) Group search key
d) None
6) Indices that store values of some attribute other than search key attributes
along with pointers to record are known as __________
a) Covering indices
b) Closing indices
c) Grouping indices
d) None
7) A unit of storage that can store one or more records is called _________
a) Hash index
b) Hash structure
c) Hash file
d) Bucket
8) We create an index by create index command which takes the form _______
a) Create index < index-name>
b) Create index < index-name > on < relation name>
c) Create index < index-name > on < relation name > (<attribute-list>)
d) All
*SLRUM258*
-3-
SLR-UM 258
9) A unit of program execution that accesses and possibly updates variable

data items is known as ____________
b) Expansion
a) Query
c) Transaction
d) None
10) ACID properties of a transaction are ____________
a) Atomicity, Concurrency, Inheritance, Durability
b) Atomicity, Coherency, Integrity, Durability
c) Atomicity, Concurrency, Integrity, Durability
d) Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
11) Atomicity of database system is ensured by a component called __________
a) Transaction manager component
b) Transaction management component
c) Recovery management component
d) Concurrency control component
12) Durability of database system is ensured by a component called __________
a) Transaction management component
b) Transaction manager component
c) Recovery manager component
d) Recovery management component
13) Isolation property of a database system is ensured by a component
called _____________
a) Concurrency manager component
b) Concurrency management component
c) Concurrency control manager component
d) Concurrency control component
14) A transaction that does not complete its execution successfully is termed as
____________
b) Committed transaction
a) Compensating transaction
c) Rolled back transaction
d) Aborted transaction
15) A transaction that successfully completes its execution is said to be
__________
b) Committed
a) Compensated
c) Rolled back
d) Aborted
SLR-UM 258
-4-
*SLRUM258*
16) A transaction that has either committed or aborted is said to be ________

b) Partially committed
a) Facted
c) Terminated
d) None
17) If a transaction Ti has obtained a shared mode lock on item Q, then _________
a) Ti can both read and write Q
b) Ti can write but can not read Q
c) Ti can read but can not write Q
d) None
18) If a transaction Ti has obtained an exclusive mode lock on item Q, then
________
a) Ti can both read and write Q
b) Ti can write but can not read Q
c) Ti can read but can not write Q
d) None
19) A transaction in growing phase _______________
a) May obtain and release locks
b) May release locks, but may not obtain any new locks
c) May obtain locks, but may not release any
d) None
20) A transaction in shrinking phase ____________
a) May obtain and release locks
b) May release locks, but may not obtain any new locks
c) May obtain locks, but may not release any
d) None
__________________
*SLRUM258*
-5-
SLR-UM 258
Seat
No.
T.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Answer any 4 :
(45=20)
a) Explain with example :

i) Entity
ii) Relation
iii) Attribute
iv) Key.
b) Explain levels of data abstraction.
c) Explain specialisation and generalisation.
d) Give formal definition of domain relational calculus.
e) Explain mapping cardinalities with example.
3. Consider following schema :
10
employee (e-name, street, city)
works (e-name, company-name, salary)
company (company-name, city)
manager (e-name, manager-name)
Write relational algebra expression for following :
1) Find names and city of all employees who work for small bank corporation.
2) Find names of all managers who do not work for FBC and salary greater
than Rs. 10,000/3) Write SQL expression for following :
Give all employees of FBC a 5% raise in salary for salaryless than
Rs. 1,00,000/4) Delete all tuples is manager who live in city Brooklyn and Street ABC.
OR
SLR-UM 258
-6-
*SLRUM258*
3. Construct E-R diagram for a car insurance company that has a set of customers,
each of whom owns one or more cars. Each car has associated with a zero to
any number of recorded accidents.
10
4. Explain all types of join operations with example.
10
SECTION II
5. Answer any 4 :
(45=20)
a) Explain difference between static and dynamic hashing.

b) Discuss ACID properties.
c) Explain B+ tree file organisation.
d) Write short note on multiple key access.
e) Explain concept of log based recovery.
6. Explain in detail two phase locking protocol.
10
OR
6. Describe testing for view serialisability with example.
10
7. Explain deletion of a node from B+ tree with example.
10
___________________
Code No. SLR-UM
259
*SLRUM259*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------T.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) Identify the software tools used for the compiler construction

a) Static checkers
b) Interpreters
c) Pretty printers
d) All
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 259
*SLRUM259*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Sentinel is used for

a) input buffering
b) indicating eof for each buffer
c) eof of line
d) all
3) Which of the following is not allowed in FIRST and FOLLOW rules ?
a) FIRST ( )
b) FOLLOW (A)
c) FIRST (a)
d) FOLLOW (a)
4) Which of the following is a bottom-up parser ?

a) CLR
b) SLR
c) Shift-reduce
d) All
5) Which of the following is not used in machine code generation for the target
program ?
a) ACTION
b) GOTO
c) HALT
d) RETURN
6) Which of the following is not included in an activation record ?

a) Access link
b) Dynamic link
c) Control link
d) None
*SLRUM259*
SLR-UM 259
-3-
7) Which of the following is not an addressing mode ?

a) Indirect
b) Absolute
c) Indirect-Absolute
d) Register
8) Which of the following not L-attributed definition for A > LM, P > QR ?
a) L . i = l (A . i)
b) A . s = f (M. s)
c) M . i = m (L . i)
d) L. i = n (M . i)
9) A pictorial representation of the value computed by each statement in the

basic block is
a) Tree
b) Graph
c) DAG
d) Syntax tree
10) Which of the following is not a loop optimization ?

a) Induction variable elimination
b) Loop unrolling
c) Loop jamming
d) None
11) Which of the following is not three address code ?
a) x : = op y
b) x : = y
c) x [i] : = y
d) & a : = & b
12) Which of the following information is not required in code generation ?

a) Flowgraphs
b) Next-use info
c) Register descriptor
d) Parameter descriptor
13) A dangling reference is a pointer pointing to

a) Storage which is freed
b) Nothing
c) Storage which is still in use
d) Un-initialized storage
SLR-UM 259
*SLRUM259*
-4-
14) Which of the following is the parameter passing method ?

a) Copy-restore
b) Call by value
c) Call by reference
d) All
15) An annotated parse tree is

a) A tree with values of only some attributes at nodes
b) A tree with attribute values shown at node
c) A tree without attribute values at node
d) A tree notations at each node
16) Activation tree is used to represent control flow. (State true/false)
17) Dominators are used in flowgraphs. (State true/false)
18) The left recursive grammar can be recognized by predictive parser.
(State true/false)
19) LALR makes smaller parse tables than CLR. (State true/false)
20) If a SDD has only synthesized attributes and inherited attributes then it is
called S-attributed tree. (State true/false)
__________________
*SLRUM259*
-5-
SLR-UM 259
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Write short notes (Attempt any 4) :
20
a) Parse tree
b) Buffer pairs
c) Tokens, patterns and lexemes
d) Algorithm of NFA to DFA conversion
e) Inherited attributes.
10
What is left recursion ? Describe the algorithm for elimination of left recursion.
Apply the algorithm for the following grammar and eliminate left recursion :
E > TE`
E` > + TE`|
T > FT`
T`> *FT`|
F > (E)| id.
OR
What is top-down parsing ? Explain recursive descent parsing with example.
4. Elaborate shift-reduce parser with its conflicts and examples.
10
SLR-UM 259
-6-
*SLRUM259*
SECTION II
5. Write short notes (Attempt any 4) :
20
a) Activation record
b) Stack allocation strategy
c) Parameter passing methods
d) Convert the following in to the three address code
While a < b do
if a < b then
c=a*d+c
else
c=ad+c
e) Backpatching.
10
Write and explain translation scheme to produce three address code for
assignment statements with example.
OR
Elaborate the role of code generation. List and explain the issues in the design
of a code generator.
7. What is optimization ? Explain optimization of basic blocks with example.
________________
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 26
Seat
No.
*SLRUM26*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

SURVEYING II (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 is objective multiple choice. Make tick mark against correct

answer option. Each question is having 1 mark weightage.
2) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q. 3
to Q. 5 and any two out of Q. 7 to Q. 9.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary but mention it clearly.
Marks : 20
1. Make the tick mark against the correct answer for following MCQ :
20
1) The stadia diaphragm is provided for measuring

a) Elevation
b) Bearing
c) Horizontal distance
d) Horizontal Angle
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 26
*SLRUM26*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) In tangential tacheometry the staff is held

a) inclined
b) normal to line of site
c) vertical
d) horizontal
3) The purpose of anallatic lens in a tacheometer is to

a) increase magnification
b) reduce effective length of the telescope
c) eliminate multiplying constant
d) make staff intercept proportional to its distance from the tachometer
4) The substance bar is used to measure
a) vertical distance
b) horizontal distance
c) elevation
5) Setting out a simple circular curve by two theodolite method does not
require
a) angular measurements
b) linear measurements
c) both a) and b)
6) Different grades are joined together by a

a) compound curve
b) transition curve
c) reverse curve
d) vertical curve
7) If the degree of a curve is 1 and if the chain length is 30 m then the

radius of the curve is equal to
a) 5400 m
b) 1720 m
c) 1720/ m
d) 3440/ m
*SLRUM26*
SLR-UM 26
-3-
8) The distance between point of intersection of an upgrade g 1% and

down grade g2 at the highest point of a vertical curve of length 1 is
a) L(g1 g2) /100
b) L(g1 + g2) / 400
c) L(g1 + g2) / 800
d) L(g1 g2) / 800
9) The best method for lying a curve by

a) tacheometer
b) two theodolite
c) deflection distance
d) offsets from the tangents produced
10) Route survey consists of ___________ survey.
a) Reconnaissance
b) Preliminary
c) Construction
d) All the above
11) All aircraft is flying at a ground speed of 180 kmph. The focal length of
the camera is 150 mm. The longitudinal coverage of the ground is 900 m.
What is the exposure interval in seconds ?
a) 18
b) 50
c) 750
d) 270
12) If the declination of the star is 30N, its polar distance is

a) 30
b) 60
c) 120
d) 150
13) The most probable value of angle A from the following observation
equation is A = 30 0' 2 0'' (weight 2)
2A = 60 (weight 1)
a) 30 0' 6.66 ''
b) 30 0' 1 0' '
c) 30 0' 2.22 ''
d) 30 0' 3 0' '
14) If sun makes angle of 60 with the line joining signal of 12 cm diameter
and instrument station 9460 m apart, the phase correction for observation,
made on bright portion is
a) 0.98 seconds
b) 1.13 seconds
c) 5 seconds
d) None of these
SLR-UM 26
*SLRUM26*
-4-
15) A tape 20 m long of standard length at 84 F is used for measuring

distance 882.10 m, mean temperature during measurement being 65F.
If coefficient of thermal expansion is 65*107 per 1F, then correction
for temperature for the whole length is
a) + 0.109 m
b) 0.109 m
c) 19 F
d) None of these
16) If S is satellite station for triangulation station B, such that S is

situated inside the triangle. The angle made from station S to remaining
two triangulation stations is , angle made from remaining two stations
with S and B are 1 and 2 . Then the true angle from B with remaining
two station will be
a) + 1 + 2
b) 1 2
c) + 1 2
d) 1 + 2
17) A vertical photograph was taken at an altitude of 1500 m above mean

sea level. If the focal length of the camera is 20 cm. The scale of the
photograph for a terrain lying at an elevation of 500 m is
a) 1 : 5000
b) 1 : 100
c) 1 : 1000
d) 1 : 25
18) If altitude of star is 90 the star is at

a) horizon
b) equator
c) zenith
d) none of these
19) Latitude is equal to

a) Altitude of pole star
b) Altitude of pole star small correction
c) Altitude of pole star + small correction
d) None of these
20) If no observations is 6(six), the weight of arithmetic mean of
measurement of unit weight will be
a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 12
_________________
*SLRUM26*
SLR-UM 26
-5-
Seat
No.

SURVEYING II (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Solve any two from remaining.
Assume suitable data if any.
Figure to the right indicate full marks.
2. a) What is tacheometer ? State its essential characteristics.

b) In a tacheometer survey the following observation were made with the staff
held vertical. The instrument was fitted with an anallatic lens and its multiplying
constant was 100 if RL of BM is 250 m calculate RL of P
Inst st
HI
Staff st
Vertical
angle
Staff Reading
1.45
BM
6o0'0''
1.335, 1.895, 2.46
1.45
CP
+ 8o30'
0.78, 1.265, 1.745
1.4
CP
6o30'
1.155, 1.615, 2.075
3. a) Two straight AB and BC intersect at a chainage of 4242.0m. The angle of

intersect is 140. It is required to set out a 5 simple circular curve to connect
the straight calculate all the data necessary to set out the curve by method of
offset from the chord produced with an interval of 30 m.
b) State requirements of transition curve.
4. a) Explain the procedure of transferring the centre line inside the tunnel.
b) List out the important content in the submission of project report of road project.
5. a) What is vertical curve ? Why it is provided state different types of vertical
curve with neat sketch ?
b) State element of compound curve with neat sketch.
9
5
8
5
6
7
SLR-UM 26
-6-
*SLRUM26*
SECTION II
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 6 is compulsory.
2) Solve any two from remaining.
6. a) Directions are observed from a satellite station S, 60 m from station C with
the whole circle bearings of A as 0, for B as 70 and for C as 290. The
approximate length of AB and BC are 8000 m and 10000 m respectively.
Calculate the angle ACB.
b) A section line AB appears to be 10 cm on a photograph for which focal length

is 15 cm. The corresponding line measures 2.50 cm on a map which is to a
scale of 1 : 50000. The terrain has an average elevation of 200 m above mean
sea level. Calculate the flying altitude of the aircraft above mean sea level
when the photograph was taken.
7. a) Write the methods for determining the most probable value and explain any
one method.
b) Write a note on Phototheodolite with a suitable sketch.
8. a) Write notes on :
i) Ground Control for photogrammetry
ii) Remote Sensing Platforms.
b) Explain the method of determining latitude by meridian altitude of the Sun.
9. a) Write short notes on :
i) Geographic data and its classification
ii) Applications of GPS in Civil Engineering.
b) Explain idealized remote sensing system with suitable sketch.
_____________________
8
5
8
5
8
Code No. SLR-UM 260
*SLRUM260*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------T.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

OPERATING SYSTEM II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Each Section carries 40 marks.

Objective questions carry 20 marks with duration of 30 minutes.
Attempt all questions in each Section.
Marks : 20
SECTION I
1. Tick mark the correct alternative.

1) The __________ describes the state of a file system.
a) Super block
b) Boot block
c) State block
d) None of above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 260
*SLRUM260*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The ____________ system call links a file to a new name in the file system
directory structure.
a) Link
b) Sleek
c) 64 M bytes
d) None of above
3) 1 indirect block with 256 blocks = ____________

a) 10 K bytes
b) 256 K bytes
c) 64 M bytes
d) None of above
4) The ___________ algorithm is used to allocate buffers from the pool.

a) alloc
b) ialloc
c) getblk
d) none of above
5) Open and create sys. calls return an integer called a ____________

a) function
b) data
c) file descriptor
d) error
6) The Unix system is written _____________ language.

a) Fortran
b) Pascal
c) Low level
d) High level
7) The Unix schedule processes in ____________

a) Time-shared manner
b) FCFS manner
c) SJF manner
d) None of above
*SLRUM260*
SLR-UM 260
-3-
8) The boot strap procedure eventually reads the ____________ of a disk and
loads it into memory.
a) Boot block
b) Super block
c) Data block
d) None of above
9) All system calls return ___________ on failure.

a) 1
b) 1
c) 0
d) 2
10) Kernel identifies file internally using ____________

a) Path name
b) Inode
c) File name
d) Device no.
11) The kernel ___________ a region when a process faults on a page in the
region.
a) Lock
b) Share
c) Attach
d) None of these
12) The kernel wakes up the page stealer when the available free memory in the
system is __________ low-water mark.
a) exceeds
b) below
c) equal
d) none of these
13) The specific actions specified by the ___________ call vary per device and
defined by the device driver.
a) mknod
b) chmod
c) ioctl
d) none of these
14) A stream is ____________ connection between a process and a device driver.

a) full duplex
b) duplex
c) half duplex
d) none of these
15) Swap device allows a ___________ allocation of continuous blocks of a

resource.
a) best fit
b) first fit
c) worst fit
d) none of these
SLR-UM 260
*SLRUM260*
-4-
16) If the mode was user the ____________ increments a count for a user
execution.
a) administrator
b) profiler
c) kernel
d) none of these
17) The kernel detaches a region in the exec, __________ and Shmdt system
call.
a) wait
b) exit
c) fork
d) none of these
18) The dynamic part of the system level context of a process consists of a set of
layers, visualized as a ____________ stack.
a) first in first out
b) user
c) last in last out
d) kernel
19) If a machine has 232 bytes of physical memory and a page size of 1 K bytes,
it has ____________ pages of physical memory.
a) 220
b) 224
c) 222
d) 226
20) The __________ specifies the hardware status of the machine as it relates to
the process.
a) process status register
b) register context
c) general purpose register
d) none of these
______________
-5-
*SLRUM260*
SLR-UM 260
Seat
No.
T.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

OPERATING SYSTEM II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) Attempt all questions in each Section.
SECTION II
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
1) Write and explain bmap algorithm.

2) Explain in brief mk node.
3) Write note on file system maintenance.
4) Explain in detail Named and Unnamed pipes.
5) Explain change directory and change root with example.
3. Answer any one :
10
a) Explain the architecture of the Unix operating system with the help of block
diagram.
OR
b) What is buffer cache ? Write advantages and disadvantages of buffer cache.
4. Write short note on (any 2) :
i) Delayed write
ii) Dup
iii) Mounting and unmounting file system.
(25=10)
SLR-UM 260
-6-
*SLRUM260*
SECTION III
(45=20)
1) Explain the algorithm malloc with example.

2) Explain the scheduling parameters for process scheduling.
3) Explain interrupts and exceptions w.r.t. saving the context of a process.
4) Explain the term duplicating a region.
5) Explain the system call grp and kill.
6) Explain the profiling and accounting and statistics w.r.t. clock.
6. What is demand paging ? Explain the following w.r.t. demand paging.
10
1) Data structures for demand paging.

2) Fork in a paging system.
OR
What is line discipline ? State its function and explain clist for removing and
placing character on clist.
7. Write short note (any two) :
(25=10)
1) System calls for time

2) Sticky bit and the user id of a process
3) Process creation.
______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 261
*SLRUM261*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------T.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. A) Multiple choice questions :

1) KPA stands for
a) Key process area
c) Key program area
20
b) Key progress area
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 261
*SLRUM261*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Software Engineering _____________ provides the technical how to for

building the software.
a) Tools
b) Methods
c) Datas
d) Process
3) Software Engineering process defines a framework for a set of

a) PAK
b) BUK
c) APK
d) KPA
4) Which is the last step in classic life cycle paradigm ?

a) System engineering
b) Analysis
c) Maintenance
d) Coding
5) Which of the following is not an example of prototype in engineering paradigm.

a) Existing prototype
b) Paper prototype
c) Software prototype
d) Engineering prototype
6) Cyclomatic complexity method comes under which testing method ?

a) White box
b) Black box
c) Green box
d) Yellow box
7) Inspections can find all the following except

a) Variables not defined in the code
b) Spelling and grammer faults in the documents
c) Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents
d) How much of the code has been covered
*SLRUM261*
SLR-UM 261
-3-
8) Which of the following is not a characteristics for testability ?

a) Operability
b) Observability
c) Simplicity
d) Robustness
9) Defect management process does not include

a) Defect prevention
b) Deliverable base lining
c) Management reporting
10) The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from
a) Project plan
b) Business plan
c) Support plan
B) Fill in the blanks :

1) CASE stands for ____________
2) ______________ test will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not
been affected.
3) _______________ is not a static testing technique.
4) The purpose of the requirement phase is _____________
5) To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______________ which
calls the function and passes it test data ?
C) State true or false :
1) In the spiral model, the development of the system spirals outwards from an
initial outline through to the final developed system.
2) A software process is a set of meeting that leads to the production of a
software product.
3) An object is an entity that has a state and a defined set of operations that
operate on that state.
4) Based on the requirements document we can create activity diagrams.
5) State diagrams model structural aspects of a system.
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM261*
SLR-UM 261
Seat
No.
T.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instruction : Figures to the right indicates full marks.

SECTION I
1) What is SRS ? Define characteristics of SRS.
2) Explain in detail waterfall model ?
3) Explain structured design methodology in detail.
4) Define cohesion and coupling. List types of cohesion and coupling.
5) What is Risk ? Explain risk management.
(45=20)
3. Write and explain with the help of diagram sequence of steps for producing an
OO design in design methodology.
10
4. What are software metrics ? Define function point metrics. Explain the analysis
of function point metrics with the help of example.
10
SECTION II
a) Explain object oriented Design Concept.
b) Explain the config. Management process.
c) Explain project tracking in detail.
d) Explain cause and effect graphing technique.
e) Explain Black box testing.
a) Explain CMM project management process along with goals.
(45=20)
10
OR
b) Explain activity-level analysis using SPC.
7. Write short note on (any 2) :
c) Data Collection
d) Project monitoring and control.
_____________________
(25=10)
SLR-UM 262
Code No.
S
*SLRUM262*
&
_
_

Marks : 20
20
1) CYC uses
a) special sense
b) common sense
c) reactive sense
d) non sense
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 262
*SLRUM262*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Generate and test represents

a) simplicity
b) difficulty
c) complexity
d) over tuning
3) One of the following is an expert system

a) Reading
b) MYCIN
c) Bathing
d) Games
4) Knowledge should be
a) voluminous
b) small
c) changeable
d) incomplete
5) PROLOG represents a
a) language
b) compiler
c) loader
d) interpreter
6) No man is mortal represents

a) fact
b) knowledge
c) clause
d) conjunction
7) CF means
a) Closed Funda
b) Certainty factor
c) Common facts
d) Cause failure
*SLRUM262*
SLR-UM 262
-3-
8) Fuzzy deals with

a) variables
b) elements
c) membership
d) constants
9) MYCIN uses
a) belief
b) controllers
c) minerals
d) dentists
10) Expert systems are

a) softwares
b) human wares
c) hard ware
d) none
11) Production rules are of _____________ type.

a) If-then
b) Do-when
c) Do-while
d) Cumulative
12) Depth first search deals with

a) levels
b) breadth
c) complexity
d) all
13) A* uses
a) AND graph
b) OR graph
c) Trees
d) Pruning
14) CD stands for

a) concepts
b) slots
c) fillers
d) symbolic manipulation
15) Combinatorial explosion occurs when searching for

a) start
b) intermediate
c) goal
d) up-to
SLR-UM 262
*SLRUM262*
-4-
16) Modus ponens is related to

a) clauses
b) solenoids
c) inference
d) deductions
17) AI uses
a) Machines
b) Human beings
c) Both
d) None
18) Semantics is associated with

a) meaning
b) syntax
c) manipulation
d) concepts
19) Common sense is modelled in

a) CYC
b) CD
c) Semantics
d) Pragmatics
20) NLP is an example of

a) AI
b) ES
c) ANN
d) BOB
______________________
*SLRUM262*
-5-
SLR-UM 262

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
a) Explain the level of an AI model.
b) What are production systems ?
c) Describe the Steepest-Ascent Hill climbing algorithm.
d) What is problem reduction ?
e) How is the Water Jug problem solved in AI ?
(45=20)

a) Illustrate the different problem characteristics with examples.
b) Compare A* and AO* algorithm.
10

a) Explain simple relational and inheritable knowledge.
b) How is Tic Tac Toe played ? Give algorithms.
10
SECTION II
a) Explain the slot and filter structure.
b) What is Global Ontology ?
c) Illustrate Bayesian networks.
d) How is non monotonic reasoning implemented ?
e) How are semantic networks developed ?
6. What is matching ? Give its variations.
(45=20)
10
OR
Explain resolution in detail.
7. What are certainty factors ? How are they used in MYCIN ?
OR
Generate a conceptual dependency environment.
_____________________
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 263
*SLRUM263*
Seat
No.

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (Information Technology) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. 1) If an entire loop is replaced by a vector instruction whose behaviour

is predetermined;___________ that would normally arise from its
nonexistent.
a) Control hazards
b) Data hazard
c) Both
d) None
2) The primary components of the instruction set architecture of

VMIPS are
a) Vector functional units
b) Vector registers
c) A set of scalar registers
d) All above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 263
-2-
DO
*SLRUM263*
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
3) Write after read hazard is

a) Output dependency
b) Anti dependency
c) True dependency
d) All of these
4) To minimizing RAW stalls method used

a) Bypass
b) High pass
c) Both
d) None
5) Assertion (a) 11 : SUB R3, R1, R4

12 : OR R1, R4, R3
May have problem of anti dependency
Reason (r) : Logical instructions are executed faster than arithmetic
a) Both (a) and (r) true and r is correct reason for a
b) Both (a) and (r) true and r is not correct reason for a
c) Both (a) and (r) true
d) (a) is true but (r) is false
6) Dynamic scheduling is when the hardware rearranges the order of
___________ execution to reduce stalls.
a) Data
b) Instruction
c) Memory
d) None
7) The Tomasulo algorithm uses a ___________ on which computed

values are broadcast to all the reservation stations.
a) Common control bus
b) Common data bus
c) Both
d) None
*SLRUM263*
-3-
SLR-UM 263
8) Latches separating pipeline stages

a) Are needed to hold the inputs to the next stage steady for the
entire cycle
b) Hold the same value for more than one cycle in the case the
instruction in the next stage is stalled
c) Are typically built with edge triggered flip-flops
d) All above
9) Branch instructions are handled in pipelining using
a) Pre fetch target instructions strategy
b) Loop buffer strategy
c) Both
d) None
10) Assertion (a) :structural hazard can be dealt with resource duplication
(r) 2 port memory can reduce the hazards
a) Both (a) and (r) true and r is correct reason for a
b) Both (a) and (r) true and r is not correct reason for a
c) Both (a) and (r) true
d) (a) is true but (r) is false
11) Interconnection networks, topology : How many links has a 5 by
5 mesh ?
a) 16
b) 25
c) 40
d) 50
12) Interconnection networks, topology : Which is the height of a binary
tree with 32 nodes ?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 8
d) 16
13) Interconnection networks, topology : What is the difference between
a 2-D torus and a hypercube with 16 nodes ?
a) Node degree of 2-D torus is lower
b) Bisection bandwidth of hypercube is higher
c) Average distance of hypercube is significantly lower
d) None
14) Cache coherence : For which shared (virtual) memory systems in
the snooping protocol suited ?
a) Crossbar connected systems
b) Systems with hypercube network
c) Systems with butterfly network
d) Bus based systems
SLR-UM 263
-4-
*SLRUM263*
15) Snooping cache protocol : In which case is the main memory not upto-date ?
a) Write-through caches : After writing to shared data
b) Write-back caches : Cache data marked as exclusive
c) Write-back caches : Cache data marked as modified
d) Write-back caches : Cache data marked as shared
16) Snooping cache protocol, write-back caches : what is an immediate
effect of writing to shared data in the cache of one processor ?
a) Updating main memory
b) Updating copies in the caches of other processors updating
copies in the caches of other processors
c) Marking copies in the caches of other processors as modified
d) Invalidating copies in the caches of other processors
17) Directory-based cache coherence protocols for distributed memory
systems. Which information must the directory of each processor
contain ?
a) Only status information on its cache data
b) Status information on its cache data + locations of copies
c) Only locations of copies
d) Status information on its cache data + locations of copies + status
information on data in memory of other processors.
18) The concepts of control flow and data flow computing is based on
a) Control of algorithmic sequences
b) Control of computation sequences
c) Control of logical sequences
d) Control of turing sequences
19) Value algorithmic Language is used for
a) Multi tasking
b) Multi programming
c) Data flow
d) Micro programming
20) Dead lock detection algorithm uses the information contents in a

___________ of the system to decide whether or not a dead lock
exists.
a) Path
b) Link
c) State
d) Output
_____________________
*SLRUM263*
SLR-UM 263
-5-
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 80
Instruction : Attempt any 4 questions from Section I.

SECTION I
2. Show how the following code sequence lays out in convoys, assuming a single
copy of each vector functional unit and explain vector execution time.
L V V1, Rx
; load vector X
MULVS.D V2, V1, F0
; Vector-scalar multiply
L V V3, Ry
; load vector Y
ADDV.D V4, V2, V3
; add
SV Ry, V4
; store the result
10
How many chimes will this vector sequence take ? How many cycles per FLOP
(floating-point operation) are needed ignoring vector instruction issue overhead ?
3. Explain 1-Bit and 2-Bit predication techniques.
10
4. Draw vector processor in detail.
10
5. Using and explaining Pipeline Scheduling and Loop Unrolling rewrite the program. 10
Loop :
LD F0, 0 (R1)
ADDD
; F0 = vector element
F4, F0,F2
;add scalar in F2
SD0(R1),F4
;store result
SUBIR1,R1,8
;decrement pointer 8B (DW)
BNEZRI, Loop
;branch R1!=zero
NOP
;delayed branch
6. How Compiler Support for exploiting ILP, explains in detail ?
10
SLR-UM 263
-6-
*SLRUM263*
SECTION II
14
a) Compare loosely coupled and tightly coupled multiprocessors.

b) Compare multiprocessor with time shared bus with multiport memory.
c) Draw and explain an 23 23 delta network.
14
a) Explain the concept of dataflow computing and also state potential problems.
b) Compare static and dynamic dataflow architectures.
c) What are the different dataflow operators ?
a) Draw and explain centralised shared memory multiprocessor architecture.
b) Draw and explain distributed shared memory multiprocessor architecture.
c) How synchronisation is achieved in multiprocessors ? Explain.
_______________
12
Code No.
SLR-UM 264
*SLRUM264*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
F
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
B.E. (Information Technology) (Part - I) EXAMINATION, 2014

MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM
Day & Date : Tuesday 20-5-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Day & Date________________________ Language of Answer ______________________________
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________ Section ________________________________________

Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination _________

F
Signature of
Examiner
______________ (Paper - _______)
Code No.

Marks : 20

1) A ________ is one in which nearly all of the organizations significant business
relationships with customers, suppliers and employees are digitally enabled.
a) Digital firm
b) Digital Organization
c) Digitization

P.T.O.
SLR-UM-264
*SLRUM264*
-2-
DO
NO
R
W
T
H
E
IT
E
R
E
2) _________ supports non-routine decision making for middle management.

a) DSS
b) ESS
c) OSS
d) TPS
3) _________ can be defined technically as a set of interrelated components that

collect, process, store and distribute information.
a) Information System
b) Database
c) DBMS
d) Digital Data
4) ____________ refers to a set of logically related tasks and behaviors that

organizations develop overtime to produce specific business results.
a) Business task
b) Business process
c) Marketing
d) Business Integration
5) BPR stands for ________

a) Business Product Restructure
b) Business Process Reengineering
c) Business Process Revaluation
6) If something someone else has created is useful to you, it has value is ______
principle/rule.
a) Utilitarian
b) Ethical no free lunch
c) Golden
d) Risk Aversion
7) __________ is a computerized system that performs and records the daily

routine transactions necessary to conduct business.
a) DSS
b) MIS
c) TPS
d) ESS
*SLRUM264*
SLR-UM-264
-3-
8) _________ consists of activities for detecting and correcting data in a database

that are incorrect, incomplete, improperly formatted, or redundant.
a) Data quality audit
b) Data cleansing
c) Data Governance
d) None of these
9) _________ measures the number of customers who stop using or purchasing

products or services from a company.
a) Customer Lifetime Value
b) Legacy Systems
c) Churn Rate
d) None of these
10) The removal of organizations or business process layers for intermediatry

steps in a value chain is called as
a) Disintermediation
b) Price Discrimination
c) Market Segmentation
d) Switching cost
11) ___________ tools collect data on customer activities at websites and store
them in log.
a) Cookies
b) Clickstream tracking
c) Collaborative filtering
d) All of these
12) _________ enable consumers to make instant online payments to merchants

and other individuals based on value stored in an online digital account.
a) Micropayment
b) Electronic billing
c) Online stored value payment
d) Digital checking
13) ___________ refers to firms off-loading peak demand for computing power to
remote, large scale data processing center.
a) On-demand computing
b) Grid computing
c) Cloud computing
d) Edge computing
14) ____________ involves setting up fake websites on sending e-mails that look
like those of legitimate business to ask user for confidential personal data.
a) Phishing
b) Spoofing
c) Sniffing
d) Identify theft
SLR-UM-264
*SLRUM264*
-4-
15) A software vendor created small pieces of software called _____ to repair the
flows without disturbing the proper operation of the software.
a) Virus
b) Worm
c) Operating System
d) Patches
16) A __________ is one that is stored in more than one physical location.
a) Distribution database
b) Parallel database
c) Data mart
d) None of these
17) SSL stands for

a) Secure Sockets Layer
b) Secure Sockets Link
c) Secure Soft Link
d) None of these
18) An/A _________ is a box consisting of a radio receiver/transmitter and antennas

that links to a wired network, router, or hub.
a) Ariel
b) Access Point
c) Backbone
d) Hotspot
19) _________ uses online analytical processing and data mining to analyze large
pools of data.
a) DSS
b) ESS
c) OSS
d) FSS
20) CVS stands for

a) Computer Vision Syndrome
b) Computer Video Schedule
c) Computer Visual System
_________________
*SLRUM264*
-5-
SLR-UM-264
Seat
No.

MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM
Total Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions : All questions are compulsory.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of the following.
(64=24)
a) What is Management Information System ? Discuss the significance of MIS.

b) What is collaboration ? Explain business benefits of collaboration and teamwork.
c) Explain the organizational and behavioral impacts.
d) Explain the data warehouse and data mart.
e) Explain what are the problems with the traditional file environment.
3. Attempt any two of the following.
(82=16)
a) Discuss the porters competitive forces model.

b) Explain the candidate ethical principles.
c) Write a short note on Grid computing and Cloud computing.
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four of the following.
(64=24)
a) What are Enterprise Systems ? Explain business value of enterprise systems.

b) Explain Customer Relationship Management with neat diagram.
SLR-UM-264
-6-
*SLRUM264*
c) Why e-commerce is different ?

d) Explain the imortant dimensions of knowledge.
e) Discuss and explain the importance of project management.
5. Attempt any two of the following.
a) What is prototyping ? And explain steps in prototyping.
b) Explain the systems development process with neat diagram.
c) Write a short note on any two intelligent techniques.
_____________________
(82=16)
Code No.
*SLRUM266*
SLR-UM 266
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------B.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2014

OBJECT ORIENTED MODELING AND DESIGN (Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) Aggregation is a _____________ relationship.

a) is a part of
b) is a kind of
c) is a replica of
d) is composed of
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 266
*SLRUM266*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Which of the following is a characteristic of an object ?

a) state
b) event
c) action
d) activity
3) Which of the following is a UML diagram ?

a) object diagram
b) instance diagram
c) class diagram
d) broadcast diagram
4) A qualifier is a special attribute that ____________

a) increases effective multiplicity of an association
b) reduces effective multiplicity of an association
c) changes effective multiplicity of an association
d) doubles effective multiplicity of an association
5) The term entity includes ____________
a) process, data flow, data store
b) state, event, transition
c) operation, method, implementation
d) objects, classes, attributes, links associations
6) In the UML notation, ____________ specifies a use case.
a) circle
b) rectangle
c) triangle
d) ellipse
*SLRUM266*
SLR-UM 266
-3-
7) ____________ is also known as information hiding.

a) Encapsulation
b) Aggregation
c) Polymorphism
d) Homomorphism
8) The notation for ____________ is a triangle connecting a super class to its

subclasses.
a) Association
b) Generalization
c) Aggregation
d) Identification
9) ____________ is a mechanism for breaking a large object model down into a

series of pages.
a) Class
b) Subclass
c) Module
d) Sheet
10) ____________ is associated with a state in a state diagram.

a) Action
b) Activity
c) Event
d) Object
11) ____________ is a diagram that shows configuration of run time processing

nodes and components that live on them.
a) state diagram
b) component diagram
c) collaboration diagram
d) deployment diagram
12) A component diagram shows ____________

a) set of objects and classes
b) set of entities and relationships
c) set of components and their relationships
d) set of components and interfaces
13) ____________ is a common solution to a common problem in a given context.
a) Architecture
b) Module
c) Pattern
d) Framework
SLR-UM 266
*SLRUM266*
-4-
14) In UML, a framework is modeled as a stereotype ____________

a) tagged value
b) package
c) constraint
15) Graphically, a collaboration is rendered as ____________

a) oval
b) ellipse
c) oval with compartments
d) ellipse with dashed lines
16) A set of objects or components that are allocated to a node as a group is called
____________
a) deployment unit
b) disbursement unit
c) distribution unit
17) ____________ is a physical and replaceable part of a system that conforms

to and provides the realisation of a set of interface.
a) node
b) component
c) pattern
d) package
18) State chart diagram is used to model ____________

a) static view of a system
b) structural aspects of a system
c) dynamic aspects of a system
d) design view of a system
19) Graphically location is rendered as ____________
a) package
b) tagged value
c) constraint
d) node
20) ____________ classes share the same properties as all other classes.
a) object
b) abstract
c) active
d) concrete
______________________
*SLRUM266*
-5-
SLR-UM 266
Seat
No.
B.E. (IT) (Part I) Examination, 2014

OBJECT ORIENTED MODELING AND DESIGN (Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
a) List and explain object modeling technique.

b) Explain link attributes of object modeling.
c) Explain abstract class with example.
d) Explain aggregation and recursive aggregate.
e) Explain state generalisation and event generalisation with example.
3. Compare object model, dynamic model and functional model.
OR
Explain various object oriented themes.
4. Write short note on any two :
a) Role names
b) Objects and classes
c) Entry and exit actions
d) Aggregation
e) One shot state diagram.
(26=12)
SLR-UM 266
-6-
*SLRUM266*
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) Explain contents of class diagram with example.

b) Explain messages and sequencing with interactions.
c) Explain interaction diagram with example.
d) What is a package ? Explain importing and exporting.
e) Explain relationships of basic structural modeling.
6. Explain events and signals is detail.
OR
Explain forking and joining, swimlanes.
7. Write short note on any two :
(26=12)
a) Component diagram
b) Statechart diagram
c) Transitions
d) Communication and synchronisation.
___________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 267
*SLRUM267*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------B.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2014

INFORMATION RETRIEVAL
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Choose correct alternative(s) :
15
A) 1)Which of the following model is set-theoretic model ?

a) Boolean
b) Vector
c) Probabilistic
d) All
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 267
*SLRUM267*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) In evaluating retrieval performance of interactive session ____________ is

the critical aspects.
a) User effort
b) Characteristics of interface design
c) Guidance provided by the system
d) All of these
3) If user specified query string is appearing in three positions in the text of
document then we say that document contain three ___________
a) Nodes
b) Regions
c) Structural components
d) Match points
4) Edit distance between words core and cost is _____________

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
5) _________________ format is used to exchange documents between different

applications and different computer platforms.
a) TIFF
b) GIF
c) BMP
d) TGA
6) We can use ______________ to reflect symbol dependency.

a) Negative Binomial distribution
b) Markovain model
c) Mandelbrot distribution
d) Zipfs law
*SLRUM267*
SLR-UM 267
-3-
7) Hash function is used in _____________

a) Inverted file
b) Suffix tree
c) Suffix array
d) Signature files
8) ______________ algorithm is based on bit-parallelism.

a) KMP
b) BM
c) BDM
d) Shift-OR
9) In Approximate matching using automaton, automaton accepts a text position

as the end of match with k errors whenever the _____________ state is
active.
a) Starting state
b) k 1
c) k
d) k + 1
10) Exact match retrieval is same as ______________

a) Attribute predicate
b) Structural predicate
c) Semantic predicate
d) None of these
11) Which of the following term does not represent a precise value ?
a) Normal
b) Typical
c) Unacceptable
d) All of these
12) Which of the following can be good feature for one-dimension time series
data of stock ?
a) Average value
b) First-day value
c) Last-day values
d) All 365 days values
13) ________________ are the programs that traverse web sending new or updated
pages to main server.
a) crawlers
b) robots
c) spiders
d) all
14) Google uses following ______________ algorithm for ranking.

a) Most cited
b) HITs
c) Pagerank
d) Webquery
SLR-UM 267
-4-
*SLRUM267*
15) _______________ can provide security and can respond to a repository

access protocol.
a) Digital Objects
b) Handle
c) Repositories of Digital Objects
d) Client
B) State whether the following statement is True or False :
1) In fixed structure model, document could not have text not classified under
any field.
2) GIF is good for black and white pictures as well as pictures that have
small number of colors or gray levels.
3) In case of range pattern matching, the range between the words core and
cost will retrieve the word coat.
4) Harvest architecture allows sharing of work and information.
5) In shift-OR algorithm, for each new text character Tj, D is updated using
formula D = (D << 1) and B[Tj].
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM267*
SLR-UM 267
Seat
No.
B.E. (Information Technology) (Part II) Examination, 2014

INFORMATION RETRIEVAL
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
20
1) Explain any two methods for calculating single value summaries in evaluation.
2) What is pattern ? Explain most used pattern.
3) Explain shift-or algorithm w.r.t. pattern survey.
4) Explain construction and searching of suffix arrays.
5) Write a short note on information theory.
6) State the difference in data retrieval and information retrieval.
10
1) How BM algorithm works for following pattern and text.

Text : bacbabababacaca
Pattern : ababaca
2) Plot the graph of precision vs recall at 11 std. recal levels.
Rq = {d3, d56, d129}
for query q ranking is as follows :
1) d1
2) d84
6) d9
7) d511
11) d38
12) d48
3) d56
8) d129
13) d250
4) d6
5) d8
9) d187
10) d25
14) d113
15) d3
4. Explain the construction of suffix arrays for large text.
10
SLR-UM 267
-6-
*SLRUM267*
SECTION II
20
1) Explain MULTOS query format.

2) Write a short note on cross-talk problem.
3) Explain HITS algorithm.
4) Which different documents are considered in digital library ?
5) Which requirements should ideal query method should satisfy ?
6) Write GEMINI approach.
10
1) What is predicate ? Explain different types of predicates used in multimedia

IR system with example.
2) Explain two main tasks related to multimedia data modeling.
7. What are metasearchers ? What are their advantages and disadvantages.
_____________________
10
SLR-UM 268
Code No.
S
*SLRUM268*
&
S
:
_
_
_
_
s
U
f
C

2) Assume any suitable data.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1. 1) Technique used to synchronize between receiver and transmitter in frequency

and phase is called
a) FSK
b) Phase Lock Loop (PLL)
c) CPM
d) ASK
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 268
*SLRUM268*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) ________________ are used as guard spaces in code division multiplexing.

a) Frequency space
b) Time space
c) Orthogonal codes
d) TDM
3) The energy intended for one symbol spills over to the adjacent symbol, an
effect which is called
a) Short term fading
b) Long-term fading
c) Diffraction
d) Inter symbol interference
4) AMPS is an analog mobile phone system working at

a) 1000 MHz
b) 680 MHz
c) 850 MHz
d) 900 KHz
5) The radiation pattern is symmetric in all directions for

a) Simple dipole
b) Directed antenna
c) Sectorized antenna
d) Isotropic radiator
6) Receivers are complex in case of

a) FDMA
b) CDMA
c) TDMA
d) SDMA
7) A phase shift of 90 or
would be a point on the Y-axis, also called
a) In-phase
b) Quadrature
c) Y-axis
d) X-axis
*SLRUM268*
SLR-UM 268
-3-
8) A handover between BSCs and same MSC is called as

a) Inter BSC intra BSS
b) Inter MSC inter BSC
c) Inter BSC intra MSC
d) None
9) Handover in GSM is initiated when,

a) Mobile stations moves out of range
b) Quality of radio link diminish
c) Both
d) None
10) The _____________ uses the signalling system No. 7 based on X.25 carrying
management data to/from RSS.
a) O interface
b) A interface
c) A (bis) interface
d) None
11) DHCP is based on _____________ model.

a) client/server model
b) master slave
c) broad cast
d) none
12) Bluetooth supports

a) Infrastructure mode
b) Ad HOC mode
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
13) The main disadvantage of transaction oriented TCP is ____________

a) Non transparent
b) Higher latency at handover
c) Security problems
d) None
14) DSSS performs which of the following operation on bit stream and chipping
sequence.
a) OR
b) XOR
c) XNOR
d) AND
15) The _____________ N/W is current subnet the Mobile Nodes (MN) visits.
a) Home
b) Foreign
c) Internet
d) None
16) Bad isolation of wireless link is in case of _____________

a) Indirect TCP
b) Snooping TCP
c) M-TCP
d) Both b) and c)
SLR-UM 268
*SLRUM268*
-4-
17) The mechanisms used in M-TCP is

a) Splits TCP connection into two
b) Splits TCP connections, chokes sender
c) Snoops data
d) Snoops data and acknowledges
18) _______________ is the current subnet of mobile node visits, can
identify with CoA.
a) Home Network
b) Base Network
c) Foreign Network
d) None
19) The inefficient behaviour of a non-optimized mobile IP is called _____

a) Square routing
b) Triangular routing
c) Binding request
d) Binding warning
20) All efforts for snooping buffering data may be useless if certain ___________
schemes are applied end-to-end between the correspondent host and mobile
host.
a) Encryption
b) Encapsulation
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
______________________
*SLRUM268*
-5-
SLR-UM 268
B.E. (Part II) (Information Technology) Examination, 2014

MOBILE COMPUTING
Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

2) Assume any suitable data.
SECTION I
2. a) Which are the different characteristics exhibited by a communication device ? 5
b) Explain the concept of cellular system and also mention its advantages and
disadvantages.
15
OR
2. a) Explain with neat diagram the radiation patterns of different antenna.
10
b) What are the different categories of services provided by GSM ?
10
3. What is Hidden and Exposed terminal concept ?
10
OR
Explain with neat diagram the FHSS technique.
4. Write short notes on any one :
a) Spread spectrum
b) Path loss of radio signals.
10
10
SLR-UM 268
-6-
*SLRUM268*
SECTION II
5. a) Explain Bluetooth protocol stack in detail.
10
b) Describe mobility supporting network side function for location management

in wireless network.
10
OR
5. a) Explain what is reverse tunneling ?
b) Explain IP packet delivery to and from mobile node.
c) Compare infrared technology with radio technology.
6. Explain system architecture for infrastructure and Ad-HOC based IEEE 802.11. 10
OR
What are the design goals of wireless LAN ?
7. Write short notes on any one :
a) Snooping TCP
b) IEEE 802.11.
_____________________
10
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 269
*SLRUM269*
Seat
No.

Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------B.E. (I.T.) (Part II ) Examination, 2014

NETWORK SECURITY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
MCQ/Objective Type Question

Marks : 20
1. 1) _________ provide security at the transport layer.

a) SSL
b) TLS
c) Either a) or b)
d) Both a) and b)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 269
*SLRUM269*
-2-
DO
T
NO
E
R
E
H
ITE
R
W
2) Hashed message is signed by a sender using

a) His public key
b) His private key
c) Receivers public key
d) Receivers private key
3) Public key system is useful because
a) It uses two keys
b) There is no key distribution problem as public key can be kept
in a commonly accessible database
c) Private key can be kept secret
d) It is a symmetric key system
4) In public key encryption if A wants to send an encrypted message
a) A encrypts message using his private key
b) A encrypts message using Bs private key
c) A encrypts message using Bs public key
d) A encrypts message using his public key
5) Which of the following algorithms belong to symmetric encryption ?
a) 3DES (Triple DES) and IDEA
b) RSA
c) RC6
d) All
6) A program that migrates through networks and operating systems and
attaches itself to different programs and databases is a ___________
a) Virus
b) Worm
c) Denial-of-service attack
d) Damage
*SLRUM269*
SLR-UM 269
-3-
7) By symmetric key encryption we mean

a) One private key is used for both encryption and decryption
b) Private and public key used are symmetric
c) Only public keys are used for encryption
d) Only symmetric key is used for encryption
8) A firewall may be implemented in
a) Routers which connect intranet to internet
b) Bridges used in an intranet
c) Expensive modem
d) Users application programs
9) The following ciphertext was received. The plaintext was permuted using
permutation (34152) and substitution. Substitute character by character
+ 3(A ->D, etc.). The plain text after decryption is : Cipher text :
PDLJDLXHVQC
a) MAIGAIUESNZ
b) IAMAGENIUSZ
c) LDPDJHPLXVZ
d) IAMAGENIUSC
10) DES works by using

a) Permutation and substitution on 64 bit blocks of plain text
b) Only permutations on blocks of 128 bits
c) Exclusive O Ring key bits with 64 bit blocks
d) 4 rounds of substitution on 64 bit blocks with 56 bit keys
11) A program that fills a computer system with self-replicating information
thus clogging the system is called a ___________
a) Virus
b) Worm
c) Denial-of-service attack
d) Damage
12) The ________ is a number or a set of numbers on which the cipher operates.
a) Cipher
b) Secret
c) Key
SLR-UM 269
*SLRUM269*
-4-
13) Message _________ means that the receiver is ensured that th message
is coming from the intended sender, not an imposter.
a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
c) Authentication
14) The __________ cipher reorders the plaintext characters to create a

ciphertext.
b) Transposition
a) Substitution
c) Either a) or b)
15) The __________ method provides a one-time session key for two
parties.
a) Diffie-Hellman
b) RSA
c) DES
d) AES
16) _____________ was invented by Phil Zimmerman.

a) IPSec
b) SSL
c) PGP
17) The cipher replaces one character with another character.

b) Transposition
a) Substitution
c) Either a) or b)
18) ECB and CBC are what type of ciphers ?

a) Block
b) Ream
c) Field
19) A computer virus is

a) Software written with malicious intent to cause annoyance or damage
b) A process of scrambling a message so that it cannot be read until it is
unscrambled
c) A small device that scans the number off credit cards
d) An ID-checking tool used to monitor who is logged onto a network
20) Kerberos is an encryption-based system that uses
a) Secret key encryption
b) Public key encryption
c) Both a) and d)
d) Data key encryption

______________________
*SLRUM269*
-5-
SLR-UM
269
SLR-UM
269
Seat
No.
B.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

NETWORK SECURITY
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Write short notes on (any four) :

a) Security Services (X.800)
b) Differentiate Substitution Technique and Transposition Technique
c) Model of Conventional Encryption
d) CFB
e) Polyalphebetic cipher with example
f) Security of Hash Function and MAC.
20
3. Explain Feistel Cipher structure in detail. Which parameters and design choices
determine the actual algorithm of a Feistel Cipher.
10
OR
Describe RSA algorithm with example.
4. List and explain in different types of Security Attacks in detail with diagram.
10
SECTION II
5. Write short notes on (any four) :
a) RFC 822
b) PGP Services
c) IP Security Services and Associations
d) Kerberos 4 Vs Kerberos 5
e) MIME
f) Honey Pots.
20
6. What is X.509 authentication service ? Explain in detail X.509 certificate.
10
OR
What is SET ? Explain SET participants with diagram in detail.
7. Explain in detail with diagram :
A) SSL Architecture
B) SSL Record Protocol and its operation.
___________________
10
SLR-UM 27
Code No.
S
*SLRUM27*
&
_
_
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 is objective question paper and is compulsory. First

30 mini. from the Paper time is reserved for this paper,
After first 30 minutes bell supervisors on the block to collect
this question paper cum answer sheet.
2) All questions in Section I and II are compulsory.
3) Figure on right indicate full marks.
4) Use full size drawing sheet for Section I and use of both
sides of drawing sheet permitted.
5) Use answer book for Section II.
6) Assume suitable data as per requirement and mention it.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 27
*SLRUM27*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W

Marks : 20
1. 1) A process of removing or supplying air by natural or mechanical

means to and from a air source or any space is called as __________
a) Air condition
b) Thermal insulation
c) Ventilation
d) None of these
2) The minimum thickness of wall in stone masonry should not be less than
_______
a) 100 mm
b) 200 mm
c) 350 mm
d) 450 mm
3) ________ is the reciprocal of surface coefficient.

a) Thermal resistance
b) Thermal conductivity
c) Surface resistance
d) None of these
4) For habitable rooms under row housing schemes height should be ______
a) 2.5 m
b) 2.6 m
c) 3 m
d) 3.1 m
5) The commonly used cement in cement paint is _________

a) White cement
b) Portland cement
c) Alumina cement
d) Rapid hardening
*SLRUM27*
SLR-UM 27
-3-
6) ____________ is provided to prevent moisture rising up the wall.

a) P.C.C.
b) D.P.C.
c) R.C.C.
d) N.T.C.
7) A wall built to resist the pressure of earth filling is known as ________

a) Breast wall
b) Retaining wall
c) Paparpet wall
d) Buttress wall
8) A partition wall may be ____________

a) Folding
b) Collapsible
c) Fixed
d) Any one of these
9) A partition wall is designed as a non load bearing wall.

a) Right
b) Wrong
10) The minimum covering of the reinforced for the precast reinforced piles
used in sea water is ___________
a) 40 mm
b) 55 mm
c) 75 mm
d) 100 mm
11) For an rectangular room the better proportion is to adopt length as ______
times of breadth.
a) 1 to 1.5 times
b) 1.2 to 1.5 times
c) 0.95 to 1.2 times
d) 0.75 to 1 times
12) __________ means planning a room in such a way originally designed

for a specific purpose may be used to solve other overlapping purpose
also.
a) Circulation
b) Flexibility
c) Grouping
d) Roominess
13) The filling in cavities with cement slurry is known as

a) Coping
b) Beam filling
c) Grouting
d) Gunniting
14) For one cubic meter of brick masonry the number of bricks required are
a) 400
b) 450
c) 500
d) 550
SLR-UM 27
*SLRUM27*
-4-
15) The dampers in a building is due to ____________

a) Ground moisture
b) Rain water
c) Defective construction
d) All these
16) The drier in an oil paint should not be more than

a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
17) The thinner used for oil paint is

a) Water
b) Turpentine
c) Acid
d) Alcohol
18) The process of filling up all nail holes, cracks etc. with putty is
known as ________
a) Knotting
b) Priming Turpentine
c) Stopping
d) Alcohol
19) The DPC may be ________

a) Horizontal or vertical
b) Should be continuous
c) Should be good impervious
d) All of above
20) The minimum depth of foundation for the load bearing

a) 300
b) 400
c) 500
d) 900
______________________
*SLRUM27*
S
-5-
SLR-UM 27

BUILDING CONSTRUCTION AND DESIGN (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory in Section I.

2) Answer any five questions from Section II.
SECTION I
2. Plan and design an independent (detached house) house for a Bank Manager on
a plot of size 20 x 25 meters. The plot is having access road along one of its 20m
side. Follow the following by-laws :
Front margin 3.0 meters (minimum)
Rear margin 3.0 meters (minimum)
Side margin 2.5 meters (minimum)
Maximum built up allowed at G.F. - 1/3 of the plot area.
20
a) Draw to scale 1 : 100 G.F. Plan giving full details.
b) Draw to scale 1 : 200 block plan for G.F. for built up area calculation.
10
c) Prepare schedule of openings for the house planned.
10
SECTION II
3. Solve any five :
(85=40)
a) Write brief note on Orientation of building.
b) Write brief note on Roominess, Elegance and Circulation as principles of
planning.
c) Write minimum allowable Building lines Lighting and ventilation for rooms in
a residential building as per Building By Laws.
d) Write a note on rain water harvesting and its necessity. And how this rain
water harvesting method is implemented for pitched roof building ?
e) Explain with sketch Wind Effect and stack effect for natural ventilation.
f) Explain in detail the cycle of operation in summer air conditioning system and
winter air conditioning system.
g) Write note on concealed wiring and open wiring.
h) Write step by step procedure for Appling oil paint to a plastered wall.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 270
*SLRUM270*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------B.E. (I.T.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Figure must be draw wherever necessary.
Marks : 20
1. Muliple choice questions :

1) A deviation from the specified or expected behaviour that is visible to
end-users is called
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
20
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 270
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM270*
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Regression testing should be performed

v) every week
w) after the s/w has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says
a) v and w are true, x, y and z are false
b) w, x, and y are true, v and z are false
c) w and y are true, v and x and z are false
d) w is true, v, x, y, and z are false
3) When should testing be stopped ?
a) when all the planned tests have been run
b) when time has run out
c) when all faults have been fixed correctly
d) it depends on the risks for the system being tested
4) Non-functional system testing includes
a) testing to see where the system does not function correctly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and
usability
c) testing a system function using only the software required for that
function
d) testing for functions that should not exist.
*SLRUM270*
SLR-UM 270
-3-
5) Coverage measurement
a) is nothing to do with testing
b) is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c) branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d) can only be applied at unit or module testing not at system testing
6) Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing ?
a) IEEE 829
b) IEEE 610
c) BS7925 I
d) BS7925 2

a) Faults in a program specifications are the most expensive to fix
b) Faults in a code are the most expensive to fix
c) Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d) Faults in design are the most expensive to fix
8) Which of the following is not the integration strategy ?
a) Design based
b) Big-bang
c) Bottom-up
d) Top-down
9) Which of the following is a black-box design technique ?

a) statement testing
b) equivalence Partitioning
c) error-guessing
d) usability testing
10) A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be

a) Large
b) Small
c) Difficult to write
d) Difficult to test
11) Which of the following is a static test ?

a) Code inspection
b) Coverage analysis
c) Usability assessment
d) Installation test
12) Maintenance testing is

a) updating tests when the s/w has changed
b) testing a released system that has been changed
c) testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
d) testing to maintain business advantage
SLR-UM 270
*SLRUM270*
-4-
13) What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics ?
a) Walkthrough
b) Inspection
c) Management review
d) Post-project review
14) Faults found by users are due to

a) poor quality software
b) poor s/w and poor testing
c) bad luck
d) Insufficient time for testing
15) Which one of the following view envisages a view quality that can be
recognized but difficult to define ?
a) Transcendental view
b) User view
c) Product view
d) Value-based view
16) A planned meeting is known as a

a) Informal review
b) Formal review
c) Technical review
d) Dynamic review
17) Test suite is

a) set of test cases
b) set of inputs/outputs
c) both a) and b)
18) ISO-9000 is a series of standards for quality management sytem and has
a) 2 related standards
b) 5 related standards
c) 10 related standards
d) 25 related standards
19) The no. of clauses in ISO-9001 are

a) 15
b) 20
c) 30
d) 10
20) CMM is based on the work of

a) Watts Humphrey
b) Galvin
c) Hooch
d) Boehm
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM270*
SLR-UM 270
Seat
No.
B.E. (I.T.)(Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 10.00 a.m. 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

3) Figure must be draw wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Write a short notes on the following :
20
1) Classification of measures derived from models of software.

2) Ishikawa diagram.
3) Modularity and information flow attributes.
4) Overview of statistical test.
3. What is a Framework for software measurement ? Explain how we connect
measurement, process and product, with process maturity ?
10
4. Draw the flowgraph of the following program. State which of the flowgraphs are
prime.
10
if a
then,
begin
if b then do X
Y;
While e do U
End
else
if C
then do
repeat V until d
SLR-UM 270
-6-
*SLRUM270*
SECTION II
5. Program :
int binsearch (int x, int V [ ], int n)

{
int low, high, mid ;
low = 0
high = n 1
While (low < = high)
{
mid = (low + high)/2
if ( x < v [mid])
high = mid 1 ;
else if (x > v [mid])
low = mid + 1 ;
else
return mid ;
}
return 1;
}
Using above program, solve the following
20
1) Draw a CFG for binsearch ( ).

2) From CFG, identify a set of entry-exit paths to satisfy the complete statement
coverage criterion.
3) For each path identified above, derive their path predicate expressions.
4) Show the complete branch coverage criteria.
5) Show all path coverage criteria.
6. Briefly explain the ISO 9001 : 2000 (Requirements) document for quality assurance.
10
7. Explain how the operation profile concept can be applied to regression test.
10
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
271
*SLRUM271*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
N.B. :
For Office Use only
Code No.

one mark.
1. 1) The P.I. of (D3 3D + 2)y = x is
1
a) ( x + 1)
2
1
3
c) x +
2
2
Marks : 20
b) x +
3
2
d) (x + 1)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 271
*SLRUM271*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W

a) (D2 + 2)2y = 0
b) (D2 2)2y = 0
c) (D2 + 4)2y = 0
d) (D2 4)2y = 0
a)
b)
c)
d)
(D2 4D + 1)y = et t(sint + 1)

(D2 4D 1)y = et t(sint + 1)
(D2 + 4D 1)y = et t(sint 1)
(D2 + 4D 1)y = et t(sint 1)

a) z =
b
x + by + c
3
c) z = 3ax2 + by
b) z = 3ax + a2y + c
d) z = ax +
a2
y+c
3
a) ( x + y, y + z) = 0
x
b) ,
y
x2 y2
c) , = 0
y z
d) ( xyz, x) = 0

a) p + q = 1
c) pq = 1
y
=0
z
b) p q = 1
d)
p
=1
q
d
becomes
dt
*SLRUM271*
SLR-UM 271
-3-
7) If L{f( t )} = ( s ) , then L t 2 f(t )

a) (s)
d2
b) 1 2 (s)
ds
c) (s)
d) None

i) L{f(t)} =
ii) L
1
{Lf(t) + f(0)}
s
{ f(u) du}= sL {f(t)}

t
a) Only i) is true
c) Both are true
b) Only ii) is true

d) Both are false
1
9) L1
=
32
(s 2)
t2
a) e
3!
2t
c) e
t3 2
b) e
52
t
d) e
2t
3
2
1
10) L1
2
(s 3) + 16
e3 t
sin 4t
a)
4
b)
c) e3 t cos 4 t
d) e 3 t cos 4t
x,
x,
a) No cosine terms
e 3 t
sin 4t
4
2x 0
0x2
b) No sine terms
d) None of these
a) Harmonic
c) Periodic
SLR-UM 271
*SLRUM271*
-4-

a) sin x + cos x
b) 1 cos 2x
c) sin 2x + cos 2x
d)
1
(1 cos 2x)
2
a) F(2s)
2
b) F
s
c) 2F(2s)
d)
1 s
F
2 2

a) curl F = 0
b) div F = 0
c) grad F = 0
d) grad F 0
a) a
c) 2b + 3a
dr
=
dt
b) b
d) 2a + 3b

a) 2
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
a) ak
z
, |z| > a (with k 0 ) is
z+a
b) (a)k
c) ak + 1
d) (a)k + 1
a)
1
2
b)
c)
d)
1,
0,
a) | z | < 1
b) | z | > 1
c) z < 1
d) z = 0
__________________
k0
is
k<0
*SLRUM271*
-5-
SLR-UM 271
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Solve
d3 y
dy
4
= 2 cosh2 (2 t ) .
3
dt
dt
x
b) Solve (D2 + 3D + 2)y = ee .
d2 y
dy
2x
4y = x 2 + 2 log x .
c) Solve x
2
dx
dx
OR
c) Solve (1 + x )2
d2 y
dy
+ (1 + x )
+ y = 4 cos log(1 + x) .
2
dx
dx
d4 y
3. a) Solve 4 + 4 y = 0 .
dx
d3 y dy
= 2e t + 2t + 1 4 cos t .
b) Solve 3
dt
dt
d2i i
dt 2 c
SLR-UM 271
*SLRUM271*
-6-
sin t sin 5t
4. a) Find L
.
t
u
u
=2
+ u where
x
t
u(x, 0) = 6e3x.
5. a) Solve 9(p2z + q2) = 4.
1
b) Find L1
4
(s 2) (s + 3)
32s
1
s
= t sin t find L1
c) If L1 2
2
2 .
2
(16s + 1)
(s + 1) 2
SECTION II

(1 x 2 ),
0 ,
|x|1
and hence evaluate
|x|>1
x
x cos x sin x
cos dx .
3
x
2



*SLRUM271*
-7-
SLR-UM 271
3z 2 + 2z
, 1< | z | < 2.
z 3z + 2
kx ,
c) Expand f(x) =
k(l x) ,
deduce that
5
4
l
l
<x<l
2
0<x<
2 1
1
1
= 2 + 2 + 2 + ... .
8 1
3
5
OR
r 2
r r
_______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 272
*SLRUM272*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ELECTRONIC DEVICES AND CIRCUITS (Old)
Day & Date : Tuesday, 2 0-5-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Day & Date ____________________ _
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________ Section ________________________________________

Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination _________

______________ (Paper - _______)
For Office Use only
Code No.

2) Use of datasheet is allowed.
1) A tunnel diode is used
a) in high power circuits
b) in circuits requiring negative resistance
c) in very fast switching circuits
d) in power supply rectifiers
Marks : 20
(120=20)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 272
-2-
DO
*SLRUM272*
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
T
NO
2) Which diode is used in seven segment display ?

a) Zener
b) LED
c) LASER
d) Shottky
3) A special purpose diode which uses metals like gold, silver or platinum on
one side of the junction and n-type doped silicon on another side and has
almost no charge storage in the junction is called
a) shottky diode
b) tunnel diode
c) zener diode
d) photo diode
4) ____________ diodes are also known as hot carrier diodes.

a) Shottky diode
b) Tunnel diode
c) Zener diode
d) Photo diode
5) The normal operating region for zener is

a) Forward bias region
b) Reverse bias region
c) Reverse breakdown region
d) Zero bias region
6) Zener diodes with VBR less than 5 V operate predominantly in _________
type of breakdown.
a) avalanche
b) zener
c) varactor
d) shottky
*SLRUM272*
-3-
SLR-UM 272
7) If the load resistance of capacitor input fittered full wave rectifier is reduced,
ripple voltage
b) decreases
a) increases
c) is not affected
d) has different frequency
8) Inductive filter is mostly used for

a) light loads
b) high loads
c) only with half wave rectifier
d) only with full wave rectifier
9) Each diode in centre tapped full wave rectifier conducts for
a) 90 only
b) 180 only
c) 270
d) 360
10) The ripple frequency in a full wave rectifier is

a) double the input frequency
b) equal the input frequency
c) half of the input frequency
11) Junction capacitances of BJT affect ________ of CE amplifier.
a) lower cutoff frequency
b) upper cutoff frequency
c) gain
d) both (a) and (b)
12) The parameter hfe is __________ and hie is ________
a) current gain, input impedance
b) input impedance, current gain
c) voltage gain, inverse gain
d) forward current gain, reverse voltage gain
13) The purpose of capacitors in a transistor amplifier is to
a) protect the transistor
b) cool the transistor
c) couple or bypass ac components
d) provide biasing
SLR-UM 272
-4-
*SLRUM272*
14) An ideal value of stability factor for collector to base biasing circuit is
b) 0
a) 1
c) 100
d) infinity
15) Quiescent power is the power dissipation of a transistor

b) with signal input
a) with no signal input
c) with no load
d) with full load
16) ____________ power amplifier is primarily not intended for large signal or
power amplificaiton.
b) Class B or AB
a) Class A
c) Class C
17) The output swing as shown in the figure is for ___________ amplifier.
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class AB
d) Class C
18) The feedback signal in a __________ oscillator is derived from capacitive

voltage divider in the LC circuit.
a) Hartley
b) Colpitts
c) Armstrong
19) Only the condition A = __________ must be satisfied for self sustained
oscillations.
a) 0
b) 1
c) 1
20) An oscillator differs from an amplifier because

a) it has more gain
b) it requires no dc suppy
c) requires no input signal
d) it always has the same output
-5-
*SLRUM272*
SLR-UM 272
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ELECTRONIC DEVICES AND CIRCUITS (Old)
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

2) Use of datasheet is allowed.
3) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
1) Draw V-I characteristics of P-N junction diode. Explain the temperature

effects.
2) Explain three phase half wave rectifier.
3) Explain zener diode. Mention drawbacks of zener diode voltage regulator.
4) Explain and express the following terms w.r.t. half wave rectifier.
a) Rectifier efficiency
b) TUF
c) PIV.
5) Explain the construction and operation of shottky diode.
3. Solve any two :
(210=20)
1) Design an adjustable voltage regulator to provide o/p voltage from 5 V to

15 V. Current should be 1A. Assume Iadj = 100 A .
2) Explain centre tapped full wave rectifier. State its advantages and
disadvantages.
3) Derive ripple factor for capacitive filter. Compare its performance with
inductive filter.
SLR-UM 272
-6-
*SLRUM272*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Explain the behaviour of BJT when operated in saturation and cutoff region.
b) Explain the factors affecting the Q-point stability of a transistor. Derive the
expression for stability of a collector to base bias circuit.
c) Explain crossover distortion in power amplifier. How it can be eliminated ?
d) Explain the tank circuit.
e) Explain input and output characteristics of common emitter configuration.
5. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Draw and explain RC phase shift oscillator and wein bridge oscillator.
b) Explain the effects of capacitors on the frequency response of an amplifier.
c) Design a single stage CE amplifier to give a voltage gain of 100 with stability
factor of 10 and voltage at o/p of 2 Vrms using transistor BC147A (PDmax = 250 mw,
ICmax = 200 mA, hFE = 110, hie = 2.7 k , hoe = 1.5 104 ).
Bandwidth = 25 Hz 100 KHz.
Code No.
*SLR-UM-274*
SLR-UM 274
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Objective type questions carries 20 marks with duration

30 minutes.
Marks : 20
20
1) _________________ is a primitive data structure.

a) Graphs
b) Stack
c) Char
d) Queue
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 274
*SLR-UM-274*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) _________________ is used to solve the problems involving iterations, in

reverse order.
a) Recursion
b) Revision
c) Reputation
d) None
3) Recursion makes inefficient utilization of memory.

a) True
b) False
c) Can not say
d) None of these
4) _________________ is a function which resets the file pointer at the start of

file.
a) fopen ( )
b) rewind ( )
c) reset ( )
d) append ( )
5) Ftell ( ) function is used to return _______________

a) Size of file
b) No of bytes in file
c) Current position of read/write file pointer w.r.t. begining of the file.
d) None of above
6) In circular queue the position of the element to be inserted will be calculated
as _________________
a) rear = (rear + 1) % max
b) rear = (rear 1) % max
c) rear = rear % max
d) rear = (rear 1)
*SLR-UM-274*
SLR-UM 274
-3-
7) ______________ is a storage class, whose value persists between different

function calls
a) int
b) register
c) static
d) automatic
8) Register storage class is typically used for _________________

a) loop counters
b) in conditions
c) passing values to functions
d) recursion
9) _________________ are features of C preprocessor.

a) Macro expansion
b) File inclusion
c) a) and b) both
d) Only a)
10) The _________________ directive can be used to test whether an expression

evaluates to a none zero value or not.
a) # test
b) # check
c) # if
d) none
11) If the variable ch contains bit pattern 11010111, then ch >>1 would give
_________________
a) 1101 0111
b) 0110 1011
c) 1110 1011
d) 1110 0111
12) In the left shift operator, for each bit shifted, a 0 is added to the
_________________ of the number.
a) left
b) right
c) in between
d) none of above
13) Union a
{
int abc ;
char c ;
Float rate ;
};
union a key ;
Considering above code, for variable key how much memory will be required ?
a) One byte
b) Two bytes
c) Four bytes
d) Seven bytes
SLR-UM 274
*SLR-UM-274*
-4-
14) Which of the following data structure cant store the non homogeneous data
elements ?
a) arrays
b) records
c) pointers
d) none
15) The postfix equivalent of the prefix *+ab cd is _____________

a) abcd + *
b) ab + cd *
c) ab + cd *
d) ab + cd *
16) _____________ function is used to free memory allocated dynamically.

a) delete ( )
b) fclose ( )
c) free ( )
d) unlink ( )
17) _____________ bytes are required for pointer variable in C.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
18) Merge sort uses _____________

a) Backtracking
b) Heuristic search
c) Greedy approach
d) Divide and conquer
19) Pointer to function means _____________ can be stored in a pointer to function.

a) Address of function
b) Return value of function
c) Return type
d) None of these
20) Memory allocated by malloc ( ) function contains _____________

a) All 0
b) Garbage values
c) All 1
d) None of above
______________________
*SLR-UM-274*
-5-
SLR-UM 274
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instruction : Attempt all questions from each Section.

SECTION I
2. Solve any two :
20
a) Explain bitwise and logical operators with example.

b) Explain multidimensional arrays with example.
c) Implement stack with push and pop operations.
10
a) Union in C
b) Type conversions in C
c) Abstract data type.
4. Solve any two :
10
a) Write an algorithm to convert prefix to postfix expression.

b) Explain C preprocessors.
c) Explain file handling functions in C.
SECTION II
5. Solve any four :
a) Give limitations of array.
b) What are advantages and disadvantages of doubly linked list ?
(45=20)
SLR-UM 274
-6-
*SLR-UM-274*
c) Write a program for bubble sort.

d) Write a program to calculate factorial of a number using recursion.
e) Explain allocation and deallocation of dynamic variables in C.
6. Solve any one :
10
a) Write a program in C to implement following menu in circular queue :

1) Create
2) Insert
3) Delete
4) Display
5) Exit.
b) Write a program to delete nodes from doubly linked list. The menu should
have following options :
1) Delete first
2) Delete last
3) Delete any
4) Exit.
7. Solve any one :
10
a) Write a program to implement merge sort algorithm for an array elements.

b) Write an algorithm to create, insert, delete nodes in circular doubly linked list.
___________________
Code No. SLR-UM
275
Seat
No.
*SLRUM275*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2014

PULSE AND DIGITAL CIRCUITS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 should be answered on the question paper itself and

should be returned within first 30 minutes.
Marks : 20
1. Tick (9) mark appropriate answer :

1) An integrating circuit is simple RC series circuit with output taken across
_________
b) R
a) Both R and C
c) C
d) None of above
20
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 275
*SLRUM275*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) A clamping circuit adds ____________ component to the signal.

a) dc
b) ac
c) both ac and dc
d) none
3) In multivibrator we have ___________ feedback.

a) ve
b) 100% +ve
c) both positive and negative
d) none of above
4) The multivibrator that can be used as timer is ___________

a) Monostable
b) Bistable
c) Astable
d) Monostable and Bistable
5) An n-variable K map can have ___________

a) n2 cells
b) 2n cells
c) nn cells
d) n2n cells
6) A demultiplexer is used to _____________

a) Perform arithmetic division
b) Select data from several inputs and route it to a single output
c) Steer the data from a single input to one of the many outputs
d) Perform parity checking
7) A binary to octal decoder is a __________ decoder.
a) 3 line to 8 line decoder
b) 1 line to 8 line decoder
c) 4 line to 8 line decoder
d) Any line to 8 line decoder
*SLRUM275*
-3-
SLR-UM 275
8) A TTL circuit acts as a current sink in ____________

a) Low state
b) High state
c) High impedance
d) None of above
9) The logic family which has highest fan out ___________

a) TTL
b) IIL
c) MOS
d) CMOS
10) An 8-square eliminates ____________

a) 2 variables
b) 3 variables
c) 4 variables
d) 8 variables
11) For a flip-flop formed from NAND gates as shown in the given figure, the
unusable state corresponds to
a) X = 0, Y = 0
b) X = 0, Y = 1
c) X = 1, Y = 0
d) X = 1, Y = 1
12) How many flip-flops are required to build a binary counter circuit to count
from 0 to 1023 ?
a) 1
b) 6
c) 10
d) 24
13) In a sequential circuit, the output at any instant of time depends

a) Only on the inputs present at that instant of time
b) On past outputs as well as present inputs
c) Only on the past inputs
d) Only on the present outputs
14) The data bus width of a 2048 8 bits is
a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) 16
SLR-UM 275
*SLRUM275*
-4-
15) Which one of the following statements is correct ?

a) PROM contains a programmable AND array and fixed OR array
b) PLA contains a fixed AND array and a programmable OR array
c) PROM contains a fixed AND array and a programmable OR array
d) PLA contains a programmable AND array and a fixed OR array
16) Which of the following circuit is a sequential circuit ?
a) Adder
b) Substractor
c) Comparator
d) Counter

1) A flip flop is used to store 1-bit of information.
2) Race-around condition occurs in a J-K flip flops when both the inputs
are 1.
3) Master slave configuration is used in flip-flops to store 2 bits of
information.
4) A transparent latch consists of D-type flip flop.
a) 1 only
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 2 and 3 only
18) PLA has

a) NAND-NAND plane
b) NOR-NOR plane
c) AND-OR plane
d) OR-AND plane
19) The count of 4 bit binary up counter is 1111 when a clock pulse is applied its
count will be
a) 0001
b) 1110
c) 0000
d) 1111
20) Synchronous sequential circuit are _________ than asynchronous sequential

circuit.
a) Faster
b) Slower
c) Active
d) None of these
__________________
*SLRUM275*
-5-
SLR-UM 275
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2014

PULSE AND DIGITAL CIRCUITS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Explain working of Schmitt trigger with circuit diagram and waveform.

b) Explain +ve and ve clipper using diode.
c) Design a 32 : 1 multiplexer using two 16 : 1 multiplexer and OR gate.
d) Implement the following multi output combinational logic circuit using 4 to 16
line decoder.
F1 = m (1, 2, 4, 12)
F2 = m (1, 3, 9, 11)
F3 = m (2, 13, 14)
e) Implement half adder using truth table.
f) Implement decimal-to-BCD encoder.
3. a) Explain monostable multivibrator using BJT. Draw circuit diagram and
waveforms.
OR
Explain following terms associated with TT L gate.
I) Noise immunity
II) Fan in
III) Fan out
IV) Transfer characteristics
V) Propagation delay.
b) Minimize following expression using K-map and implement using gates.
f = m (2, 6, 12, 13, 14, 15) + d(3, 5).
10
10
10
SLR-UM 275
-6-
*SLRUM275*
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) Differentiate between LED and LCD display.

b) Explain bi-directional shift register.
c) Explain S-R flip flop using NOR gate.
d) Draw and explain 3 bit asynchronous counter.
e) Convert S-R flip flop into J-K flip flop.
(210=20)
a) Explain different type of memories.

b) Draw the diagram of universal shift register and explain different types of
shift operation with the help of waveform.
c) Design mod-12 synchronous counter using J-K flip flop.
______________
Code No.
*SLR-UM-276*
SLR-UM 276
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS III
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is multiple choice question and is compulsory.

1. Tick [9] the correct alternative :
1) The General solution of (D2 + 2D +1)y = 2 e3x is
a) C1ex+ C2ex +
e3 x
8
c) (C1 cos x + C2 sin x) +
Marks : 20
20
e3 x
8
3x
e
d) (C1 + C2x) ex +
16
b) (C1 + C2x) ex +
e3 x
16
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 276
*SLR-UM-276*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The PI of D.E. (D4 16) y = cos2x is

x
a)
sin2x
b)
32
x
c)
sin2x
d)
32
3) The general solution of (x +
a)2
c1
c2
+
2
( x + a)
( x + a)3
c) y = C1x2 + C2 x3
a) y =
x
cos2x
32
x
cos2x
32
dy
d2 y
2 4 (x + a) dx + 6y = 0 is
dx
b) y = C1 (x + a)2 + C2 (x + a)
d) y = C1 (x + a)2 + C2 (x+a)3
4) The PI for the differential equation (D2 + 4) y = x2 is

x2 1
a)
4 8
x2 1
+
b)
4 8
x2
c)
4
d) x2 1
5) The solution of pq = p + q is
a) z = ax +
a 1
y+c
a
b) z = ax +
c) z = ax +
a
y+c
b
d) z =
a
y+c
a 1
a
x + ay + c
a 1
6) The solution of xzp + yzq = z2 is

y
a) ,
x
z
=0
y
b) (x2 y2, y2 z2 ) = 0
x
c) ,
y
y
=0
z
d) (x2+ y2, y2 + z2) = 0
*SLR-UM-276*
7) The solution of p = eq is
a) z = ax + eby + c
c) z = x log a + c
SLR-UM 276
-3-
b) z = a log x + y + c
d) z = ax + y log a + c
f (k )
8) z {f(k)} = f(z) then z
= ______________
k
b) z f(z) dz
a) z 1 f(z) dz
c)
f(z) dz
9) z{ 5k } for k 0 is
z
a)
z5
1
c)
5z
d) None
1
z5
1
d)
(z 5)2
b)
ak
10) The z-transform of f(k) =
, k 0 is ea/z. The ROC of the z-transform is
k!
a) | z | > a
b) | z | < a
c) | z | = 1
d) z plane

11) If F is a vector point function then F is called conservative field if

a) . F = 0
b) F = 0

c) + F = 0
d) F = 0
12) The directional derivative of a scalar point function is maximum in the direction
of ______________ to .
a) Tangent
c) Any direction
b) Normal
d) None of above

13) The value of r is
a) i + j + k
b) x i + yj + zk
c) 0
d) None of these
14) If = x + y + z then = _______________

a) i + j + k
c)
x2 y 2 z2
i+
j+ k
2
2
2
b) x i + yj + zk
d) 0
SLR-UM 276
*SLR-UM-276*
-4-
15) Fourier series of f(x) = 1 in ( , ) will have

a) Only sine terms
d) None of these
16) The constant term in the expansion of f(n) = x in ( , ) will be
4 2
3
c) 1
b) 4
a)
d) 0
17) The term an in half range cosine series of f(x) = x for 0 < x <
1
a)
2
c)
2
b)
x cos nx dx
nx
x cos dx

x cos nx dx
d) None of these
1
= _____________
18) L1 2
s + a2
a)
1
cosat
a
b)
1
sinhat
a
c)
1
coshat
a
d)
1
sinat
a
19) L {sin2t} = ____________

1
s
a) 2s
2
2(s 4)
1
s
c) 2s
2(s 2 + 4)
1
s
+ 2
2s s + 4
1
s
+ 2
d)
2s s 4
b)
f (t )
20) L = ______________
t
a)
L {f(t)} ds
b)
est f(t) dt
d) None of these
c)
d
L {f(t)}
ds
______________________
*SLR-UM-276*
SLR-UM 276
-5-
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical) (Part I) (New)Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from each Section.

SECTION I
2. a) Solve (D2 3D + 2) Y = x e3x.
b) Solve (2x
1)2
dy
d2 y
+
(2x
1)
2y = 8x2 2x + 3.
dx
dx 2
c) The current i flowing in series in R, L circuit when voltage v(t) = t is applied is

di
+ Ri = t, t 0 i(0) = 0 and R, L are constants. Find the current
dt
i (t) at any time t.
given by L
3. a) Solve p2 + q2 = z2 (x + y).
b) Solve pz = qz + z2 + (x + y)2.
c) Solve using method of separation of variables 3

u (x, 0) = 4ex.
4. a) Find z - transform of xk =
3k
2k
k<0
.
k0
u
u
+ 2
= 0 given
x
t
b) Find z cos + a , k 0 .
4
1
| z | < 5.
c) Find z
2
(z 5)
SLR-UM 276
-6-
*SLR-UM-276*
5. a) Solve (D2 + 3D + 2) y = sinex.
(4+1=5)
ak
b) Find z k > 1.
k
OR
5k
b) Find z k 0 .
k !
c) Solve :
zpy2 = x(y2 + z2q2).

SECTION II
6. a) Find L { t sin at } .
s2
b) Find L1 2
.
2
2
2
(s + a ) (s + b )
c) Evaluate
e 2 t e 3 t
dt .
t
by using Laplace transform method.

7. a) Find curl of xyz i + 3 x 2 y j + ( xz 2 + y 2z) k .
b) A particle moves along the curve r = ( t 3 4t ) i + (t 2 + 4 t ) j + (8t 2 3 t 3 ) k where

t denotes time. Show that magnitudes of acceleration along tangent and normal
at t = 2 are 16 and 2 73 respectively.
c) Find the directional derivative of = e2 x cos yz at (0, 0, 0) in the direction of

tangent to the curve x = a sint, y = a cost, z = at at t =
.
4
*SLR-UM-276*
-7-
SLR-UM 276
8. a) Find Half range sine series of
0<x<
3
3
< x < 2 .
f(x ) = 0
3
3
2 < x <
3
3
b) If f(x) = a2 x2 in ( a, a). Find Fourier series of f(x).

9. a) Prove that (a r ) = a .
7
4
b) Find the Laplace transform of e
4t
u sin 3udu .
d2 x
dx
= 8t with x(0) = 0, x(0) = 0 using Laplace transform.
c) Solve 2 + 4
dt
dt
OR
c) Find half range cosine series of f(x) =x in 0 < x < 2.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 277
*SLRUM277*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Part I) (Electrical) (New) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL MACHINES I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Day & Date _____________________
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________ Section ________________________________________

Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination _________

______________ (Paper - _______)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Solve all the questions.

2) Assume suitable assumption if any.
MCQ/Objective Questions
I. Choose the correct answers.
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) The primary reason for making the coil span of a dc armature winding equal
to a pole pitch is to
a) obtain a coil span of 180 (electrical)
b) ensure the addition of emfs of consecutive turns
c) distribute the winding uniformly under different poles
d) obtain a full pitch winding
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 277
-2-
DO
*SLRUM277*
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
T
NO
2) In a 4-pole 35 slot dc armature 180 electrical degree coil span will be

obtained when coils occupy _________ slots.
b) 1 and 9
a) 1 and 10
c) 2 and 11
d) 3 and 12
3) The armature of a dc generator has a 2 layer lap winding housed in 72 slots

with 6 conductors/slot. What is the minimum number of commutator bars
required for the armature ?
b) 432
a) 72
c) 216
d) 36
4) The sole purpose of a commutator in a dc generator is to

a) increase output voltage
b) reduce sparking of brushes
c) provide smoother output
d) convert the induced AC to DC
5) The primary reason for providing compensating windings in a dc generator is to
a) compensate for decrease in main flux
b) maintain uniform flux distribution
c) neutralize cross magnetizing flux
d) neutralize armature mmf
6) The main function of interpoles is to minimise ________ between the brushes
and the commutator when the dc machine is loaded.
a) friction
b) sparking
c) current
d) wear and tear
*SLRUM277*
-3-
SLR-UM 277
7) The most likely causes of sparking at the brushes in a dc machine is

a) open coil in the armature
b) defective interpoles
c) in correct brush spring pressure
d) all of the above
8) The slight curvature at the lower end of the O.C.C. of a self excited dc
generator is due to
a) residual pole flux
b) high armature speed
c) magnetic inertia
d) high field circuit resistance
9) In the rheostatic method of speed control for a dc shunt motor use of armature
divertor makes the method
a) less wasteful
b) less expensive
c) unsuitable for changing loads
d) suitable for rapidly changing loads
10) In a dc motor unidirectional torque is produced with the help of
a) Brushes
b) Commutator
c) End-plates
d) Both a and b
11) In a two winding transformer the emf/turn in secondary winding is always

________ the induced emf power turn in primary.
a) Equal to K times
b) Equal to 1/K times
c) Equal to
d) Greater than
12) In performing the short circuit test of a transformer

a) HV side is usually short circuited
b) LV side is usually short circuited
c) Any side is short circuited with preference
13) A transformer has negative voltage regulation when its load power factor is
a) zero
b) unity
c) leading
d) lagging
SLR-UM 277
-4-
*SLRUM277*
14) The ordinary efficiency of a given transformer is maximum when

a) it runs at half full load
b) it runs at full bad
c) its constant loss equals variable loss
d) it runs slightly over load
15) The output current corresponding to maximum efficiency for a transformer
having core loss of 100 w and equivalent resistance referred to secondary of
a 0.25 is _________ amperes.
b) 25
a) 20
c) 5
d) 400
16) When a V-V system is converted into system increase in capacity of

the system is ________ percent.
b) 66.7
a) 86.6
c) 73.2
d) 50
17) A T-T connection has higher ratio of utilization that a V-V connection only
when
a) identical transformers are used
b) load power factor is leading
c) load power factor is unity
d) non-identical transformers are used
18) When a 400 Hz transformer is operated at 50 Hz its KVA rating is
b) increased 8 times
a) reduced to 1/8
c) unaffected
d) increased 64 times
19) At relatively light loads transformer efficiency is low because

a) secondary output is low
b) transformer losses are high
c) fixed loss is high in proportion to the output
d) copper loss is small
20) If copper loss of a transformer at 7/8th full load is 4900 w then its full load
copper loss would be _________ watt.
a) 5600
b) 6400
c) 375
d) 429
_____________________
*SLRUM277*
-5-
SLR-UM 277
Seat
No.
S.E. (Part I) (Electrical) (New) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL MACHINES I
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
II. Answer any four questions.
(45=20)
1) What do you mean by armature reaction ? With neat diagram explain the bad
effects of armature reaction.
2) A 250 V dc shunt motor runs at 1000 rpm while taking a current of 25 A.
Calculate the speed when the load current is 50 A if armature reaction
weakens the field by 3%. Determine torques in both the cases. Given that
Ra = 0.2 , Rsh = 250 , voltage drop/brush = 1 V.
3) With neat sketch explain the Hopkinsons test for finding the stray losses.
4) A 200 V shunt motor develops an output of 17.158 kw when taking 20.2 kw.
The field resistance is 50 and armature resistance 0.06 . What is the
efficiency and power input when the output is 7.46 kw ?
5) With a neat sketch explain the working of 3 point starter.
III. Answer any two questions.
(102=20)
1) With a neat sketch explain the construction of a DC machine.

2) A 7.46 kw, 220 V, 900 rpm shunt motor has a full load efficiency of 88% an
armature resistance of 0.08 and shunt field current of 2 A, if the speed of
this motor is reduced to 450 rpm by inserting a resistance in the armature
circuit the load torque remaining constant. Find the motor out put, the armature
current, the external resistance and the overall efficiency.
3) Two shunt machines loaded for the Hopkinsons test take 15 A at 200 V from
the supply, the motor current is 100 A and the shunt currents are 3 A and 3.5 A.
If the armature resistance of each machine is 0.05 . Calculate the efficiency
of each machine for this particular load condition.
SLR-UM 277
*SLRUM277*
-6-
SECTION II
IV. Answer any four questions.
(45=20)
1) Derive an emf equation of a transformer.

2) A 25 KVA 1- , 2, 200 volts to 220 volts has a primary resistance of 1 and
a secondary resistance of 0.01 . Find the equivalent secondary resistance
and the full load efficiency at 0.8 p.f. if the iron loss of the transformer is
80% of the full load copper loss.
3) Draw the equivalent circuit diagram of a transformer under no-load and full
load.
4) Two 1- transformers with equal turns have impedances of 0.5 + j 3 and
0.6 + j10 w.r.t. the secondary if they operate in parallel. Determine how
they will share a total load of 100 kw at p.f. 0.8 lagging.
5) With a neat vector diagram explain magnetizing and working components of
a transformer under no-load.
V. Answer any two questions.
(102=20)
1) With a neat sketch explain the transformers how they share the load when
connected in parallel.
2) A 5 KVA 2300/230V, 50 Hz transformer was tested for the iron losses with
normal excitation and Cu losses at full load and these were found to be 40 w
and 112 w respectively. Calculate the efficiencies of transformer at 0.8 p.f.
for the following KVA outputs.
1.25
2.5 3.75
5.0
6.25
7.5
3) A 120 KVA 6000/400 V star-star 3- 50 Hz transformer has an iron loss of

1600 w the maximum efficiency occurs at 3/4th load. Find the efficiency of
the transformer at
i) full load and 0.8 pf
ii) half full load and 0 pf
iii) the maximum efficiency.
______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 279
Seat
No.
*SLRUM279*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Part I) (Electrical) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL MEASUREMENT AND INSTRUMENTATION (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
SECTION I
1) When measuring power with an electrodynameter wattmeter in
circuit where the load current is large
a) The current coil should be connected on the load side
b) The pressure coil should be connected on the load side
c) The pressure coil should be connected on the supply side
d) It is immaterial whether the pressure coil or the current coil is on
the load side
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 279
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM279*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Maxwells inductance-capacitance bridge is used for measurement of

inductance of
a) Low Q coils
b) Medium Q coils
c) High Q coils
d) Low and medium Q coils
3) A 1 mA ammeter has a resistance of 100. It is to be converted to an
1 A ammeter. The value of shunt resistance is
a) 0.001
b) 0.1001
c) 100000
d) 100
4) A 1 mA dArsonval movements has a resistance of 100. It is to be
converted to a 10 V voltmeter. The value of multiplier resistance is
a) 999
b) 9999
c) 9900
d) 990
*SLRUM279*
-3-
SLR-UM 279
5) A megger is used for measurement of

a) low valued resistances
b) medium valued resistances
c) high valued resistances, particularly insulation resistances
d) all of the above
6) A controlling torque in a megger is provided by
a) weights attached to the moving system
b) it does not need any controlling torque
c) springs
7) A make break switch is provided to disconnect the battery when the
meter is not is use in
a) only in series type ohmmeters
b) only in shunt type ohmmeters
c) both series and shunt type ohmmeters
8) In a series type ohmmeter
a) 0 making is on the left hand side of scale while making is on the
right hand side
b) 0 making is on the right hand side of scale and infinity marking
on the left hand side
c) any of the above two markings can be on left or right side of the
scale
d) 0 marking is in the middle of scale
SLR-UM 279
-4-
*SLRUM279*
9) The standardization of A.C. potentiometers is done by

a) Directly using A.C. standard voltage source
b) Using D.C. standard sources and transfer instruments
c) Using D.C. standard sources and d Arosonval galvanometer
d) Using A.C. standard sources and transfer instruments
10) In measurement systems, which of the following are undesirable static
characteristics
a) Sensitivity and accuracy
b) Drift, static error and dead zone
c) Reproducibility and non-linearity
d) Drift, Static error, dead zone and non-linearity
SECTION II
11) In digital storage oscilloscope, the input signals are
a) Directly applied to the oscilloscope
b) Multiplexed, converted into digital form and stored
c) Multiplexed, converted into digital form and stored and converted to
analog form.
d) Applied to amplifier, stored as analog signals, then through DAC
applied to CRO through amplifier
*SLRUM279*
-5-
SLR-UM 279
12) In a CRT, the focusing anode is located

a) Between pre-accelerating anodes and accelerating anodes
b) After accelerating anodes
c) Before pre-accelerating anode
13) The Disadvantage of using multipliers with voltmeter at high voltages are
a) The power consumption of multipliers becomes large
b) The multipliers at high voltages have to be shielded in order to
prevent capacitive current
c) The metering circuit is not electrically isolated from the power
circuit
d) All of the above
14) The current in the primary winding of a current transformer depends
upon
a) Burden of the secondary winding of transformer
b) Load connected to the system in which the C.T. is installed
c) Both burdens of the transformer secondary winding and load
connected to the system
SLR-UM 279
-6-
*SLRUM279*
15) Time division multiplexing requires

a) Constant data transmission
b) Transmission of data samples
c) Transmission of data at random
d) Transmission of data of only one measured
16) The nominal ratio of a current transformer is
a) Primary winding current/secondary winding current
b) Rated primary winding current/rated secondary winding
c) Number of secondary winding turns/number of primary winding
turns
d) All of the above
17) Digital instruments are those which
a) Have numerical read out
b) Use LED or LCD displays
c) Have circuitry of digital design
d) Use of deflection type meter movement
18) The essential elements of an electronic instruments are
a) Transducer
b) Signal conditioner
c) Indicating device
d) All of the above
*SLRUM279*
-7-
SLR-UM 279
19) The source of emission of electrons in a CRT

a) PN junction diode
b) A barium and strontium oxide coated cathode
c) Accelerating anodes
d) Post accelerating anode
20) During the retrace time, the electrons forming the horizontal beam
a) Move from left to right on the screen
b) Move from right to the left on the screen
c) Move from bottom to top of screen
d) Move from top to bottom of screen
______________
*SLRUM279*
-9-
SLR-UM 279
Seat
No.
S.E. (Part I) (Electrical) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL MEASUREMENT AND INSTRUMENTATION (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

3) Make suitable assumptions if required.
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four questions :
(45=20)
a) Explain PMMC instruments with neat diagram.

b) A milliammeter of 2.5 resistance reads upto 50 mA. Calculate the resistance
which is necessary to enable it to be used as
i) A voltmeter reading upto 20V
ii) An ammeter reading upto 15A.
c) Explain Maxwells inductance -capacitance bridge.
d) Explain moving iron power factor meter.
e) Explain Megger.
f) Explain different types of errors in instruments.
3. a) The inductance of moving iron ammeter is given by
L = (12 + 5 2 2) H,
where is angular deflection in radian.
Find :
i) Spring Constant
ii) Deflection for current of 10A.
If the deflection for 5A is 30.
10
SLR-UM 279
-10-
*SLRUM279*
b) The power in a 3 Ph., 3 wire balanced load system is measured by two

Wattmeter method. The reading of Wattmeter A is (7500) W and of Wattmeter
B is ( 1500) W.
i) What is P.F. of the system ?
ii) If the voltage of the circuit is 400 V, what is the value of the capacitance
which must be introduced in each phase to cause the whole power
measured to appear on wattmeter A. Frequency is 50 Hz.
10
OR
c) Discuss the effect of load power factor on wattmeter readings.
10
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
1) What is multiplexing ? Explain time division multiplexing.

2) Explain with neat diagram working of Dual slope integrating type DVM.
3) Draw the block diagram working of CRO and explain briefly.
4) Explain the working of X-Y recorder.
5) A potential transformer, ratio 1000/100 volt, has following constants :
Primary resistance = 94.5 , secondary resistance = 0.86 , Primary
reactance = 66.2 , total equivalent reactance = 110 , No load current = 0.02 A,
at 0.4 power factor. Calculate Phase angle error at no load.
6) Explain the functioning of time base generator in a CRO.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
1) Describe briefly how the following measurements can be made with the use
of CRO
a) Voltage
b) Time period.
2) Explain with block diagram the working of frequency counter.
3) Explain in details the effect of opening the secondary circuit of a current
transformer when the primary winding is energized.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
28
*SLRUM28*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

FLUID MECHANICS II (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) If the Frouds number is more 9 then the jump is

a) Weak
b) Strong
c) Undular
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 28
*SLRUM28*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Chezys formula is given as, v =

a) c mi
b) c ma
c) m ci
d) i cm
3) Best side slope for most economical section is m =

a) 1 3
b) 1 2
c) 1 5
d) None
4) Uniform flow in an open channel exist when the flow is

a) Non-prismatic
b) Frictionless
c) Prismatic
d) Prismatic and depth of flow constant along channel
5) Which of the following condition is the chief characteristic of critical flow
a) Q 2 T gA 3
b) Q 2 T gA 2
c) Q 2R gA 3
d) Q 2 T 2 gA 3
6) Reynolds number is the ratio of inertia force to

a) Gravity
b) Surface tension
c) Viscous
d) None
*SLRUM28*
SLR-UM 28
-3-
7) Cipoletli notch is
a) Rectangular
b) Triangular
c) Trapezoidal
d) None
8) The ratio of all linear dimensions of the model and prototype should be equal
in ____________ similarity.
a) Kinematic
b) Geometric
c) Dynamic
d) All
9) Specific energy of a flowing fluid per unit weight is

2
a) h + v 2g
b) h + v 2g + z
v3
c) h +
2g
v2
d)
2g
10) yn > yc represents ____________ type of channel slope.

b) Steep
a) Mild
c) Critical
d) Adverse
11) The depth of flow at which the specific energy in minimum is called
a) Normal depth
b) Critical depth
c) Alternate depth
d) None
12) Discharge through Pelton turbine is given as Q =

a) DBVf
b) av 2gh
c) 4 (D2 Db2 ) Vf
d) None
13) Francis turbines are available in the following range of specific speed
a) 8 30
b) 10 300
c) 40 420
d) 380 950
14) Force exerted by a stationary flat plate in the direction of jet for a
vertical plate is, Fx =
a) av 2
b) a 2 v
c) av
d) a 2 v 2
SLR-UM 28
*SLRUM28*
-4-
15) Speed ratio is given by

a) Vf
c)
2gH
b)
2gH Vf
2gH
d)
u
2gH
Vw
16) Draft tube is used for discharging water from the exit of
a) Impulse turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Pelton wheel
d) None
17) Which of the following is not a dimensionless no. ?

a) Darcy-Weisbasch friction factor
b) Coeff. of drag
c) Mannigs coefficient
d) Coefficient of velocity CV
18) The time scale ratio for a model based on Frouds law, criteria in terms of
length scale ratio Lr is
a) Lr
b)
c) 1 Lr
d) L1r.5
Lr
19) The unit power Pu of turbine developing a power p under a Head H is

equal to
a) P H5 2
b) P
c) PH3 2
d) P H3 2
20) Discharge through a single acting reciprocating pump is

a) 2 ALN
b) 2 ALN/60
c) ALN
d) None
__________________
*SLRUM28*
-5-
SLR-UM 28
Seat
No.

FLUID MECHANICS II (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Question No. 2 and 6 are compulsory solve any two

questions from Que. No. 3 to 5 and Que. No. 7 to 9.
2) Assume correct data wherever necessary.
3) Use of non programmable calculator is permitted.
SECTION I
dy so sf
2. a) Derive the equation dx =
for uniform flow and state the assumptions
1 Fr 2
in deriving the equation.
b) A rectangular channel carrying a discharge of 30 m3/s has width of 10 m and

bed slope 1 : 5600 and n = 0.02. At a particular section the depth of flow is 1.6 m.
Determine how far upstream or down stream of the section the depth of flow
will be 2.0 m. Using step method solve in two steps. Draw the neat figure.
3. a) Derive the expression for theoretical discharge through rectangular notch.

Draw neat figure.
b) A discharge of 980 m3/s flows down a spillway and then passes through 70 m
wide concrete apron where n = 0.015, the velocity at the toe in 12 m/s. A tail
water depth of 4.5 m, the channel below causes Hydraulic Jump on horizontal
platform, calculate :
1) Depth before jump
2) Length of jump
3) Energy loss in jump.
SLR-UM 28
-6-
*SLRUM28*
4. a) A discharge of 100 lit/s is to be measured by a V notch of vertex angle 60.

What would be the head over the vertex of the notch ? If the accuracy of the
reading the head is, 1 mm what error in the discharge can be expected at this
level ? Assume Cd = 0.62.
b) Derive the expression for hydraulic jump in open channel. Draw a neat figure. 6
5. a) Water flows over a rectangular sharp created weir 1.0 meter long, the head
over the weir is 0.70 m. The approach channel is 1.5 m wide and depth of
flow in the channel is 1.25 m. Determine the zate of discharge over the
weir. Consider velocity of approach and the effect of end contractions.
Take Cd as 0.6.
b) Enlist the advantages of triangular notch over rectangular notch.
c) Sketch the following water surface profile with all details.

M3, C1, H3.
3
SECTION II
6. a) Derive the expression for force exerted by the jet of water on a stationary
curved plate.
b) Explain any two model laws.
5
5
c) A jet of water of diameter 75 mm moving with a velocity of 25 m/s strikes a

fixed plate in such a way that the angle between the jet and the plate is 60
find the force exerted by the jet on the plate
i) in the direction normal to the plate
ii) in the direction of jet.
*SLRUM28*
-7-
SLR-UM 28
7. a) Explain the different efficiencies of centrifugal pump.
b) The pelton wheel is to be designed for following data, shaft power = 12000 kW,
Head = 400 m, speed = 800 rpm over all efficiency = 90% jet diameter is not
to be exceed one sixth of the wheel diameter.
Calculate
i) The wheel diameter
ii) The number of jets required
iii) Diameter of jet
Take, Kv1 = 0.985, Ku1 = 0.45.
8. a) A centrifugal pump is having overall efficiency 80% delivers a discharge of

0.025 m3/s at a height of 25 meter through 100 meter long piece of 100 mm
diameter. If, f = 0.04, calculate the power required to drive the pump.
b) A 1 : 64 model is constructed of an open channel in a concrete which has

Mannigs constant in model.
4
12
a) Buckingham method for dimensional analysis.

b) Classification of turbines
c) Common pump troubles and remedies
d) Types of similarities.
________________
Code No. SLR-UM
280
*SLRUM280*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014

POWER PLANT ENGINEERING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20

1) Water hammer is developed in
A) Surge tank
C) Turbine
(201=20)
B) Penstock
D) Draft tube
2) Which of the following generating station has minimum running cost ?

B) Hydro
A) Nuclear
C) Thermal
D) Diesel
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 280
*SLRUM280*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
3) Electrostatic precipitator is installed between

A) Induced fan and chimney
B) Air preheater and induced fan
C) Economiser and air preheater
D) Boiler furnace and economiser
4) For high head and low discharge the water turbine used is
A) Pelton wheel
B) Kaplan turbine
C) Francis turbine
D) Propeller turbine
5) In India largest thermal power station is located at

A) Chandrapur
B) Kota
C) Nayveli
D) Sami
6) Steam power plant works on

A) Vapor cycle
B) Brayton cycle
C) Rankine cycle
D) Carnot cycle
7) Out of the following which one is not a unconventional source of energy ?

A) Tidal power
B) Geothermal energy
C) Nuclear energy
D) Wind power
8) Pulverized coal is
A) Coal free from ash
B) Non-smoking coal
C) Coal which bums for long time
D) Coal broken into fine particles
*SLRUM280*
-3-
SLR-UM 280
9) Which of the following is considered as superior quality of coal ?

A) Bituminous coal
B) Peat
C) Lignite
D) Coke
10) The modern steam turbines are

A) Reaction turbines
B) Impulse turbines
C) Impulse reaction turbines
11) A graphical representation between discharge and time is known as

A) Monograph
B) Hectograph
C) Topograph
D) Hydrograph
12) Outward radial flow turbines

A) Are impulses turbines
B) Are reaction turbines
C) Are partly impulse partly reaction turbines
D) May be impulse or reaction turbines
13) In a thermal power plant cooling towers are used to
A) Condense low pressure steam
B) Cool condensed steam
C) Cool water used in condenser for condensing steam
D) Cool feed water of boiler
14) 1 atomic mass unit is equal to
A) 1.66 1027 kg
B) 1.66 1025 kg
C) 1.66 1017 kg
D) 1.66 1010 kg
15) Graphite is used in nuclear power plant as a

A) Fuel
B) Coolant
C) Moderator
D) Electrode
16) A gas turbine works on

A) Carnot cycle
B) Brayton cycle
C) Dual cycle
D) Rankine cycle
SLR-UM 280
*SLRUM280*
-4-
17) A jet aircraft is powered by

A) Petrol engine
B) Diesel engine
C) Gas turbine
D) Solar cells
18) Which of the following plant is the least reliable ?

A) Wind
B) Tidal
C) Geothermal
D) Solar
19) The total power of a wind stream is proportional to

A) Velocity of stream
B) (Velocity of stream)2
C) (Velocity of stream)3
D) 1/(Velocity of stream)
20) In solar thermal conversion systems the solar heat is transferred to
A) Water-steam
B) Liquid metals
C) Molten salts
D) Any of the above

__________________
*SLRUM280*
-5-
SLR-UM 280
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014

POWER PLANT ENGINEERING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION 1
2. Solve any four (5 marks each) :
(45=20)
A) Explain the function of Economizer and super heater in a thermal power plant
with near diagrams.
B) Discuss the factors governing the choice of site for a hydro-station.
C) The average rate of Inflows during the 12 months for a river are as follows :
Jan. 100 m3/sec
July to Sept. 2400 m3/sec
Feb. 800 m3/sec
Oct. and Nov. 400 m3/sec
Mar. 600 m3/sec
Dec. 600 m3/sec
April to June 400 m3/sec

Draw flow duration curve and hydrograph.
D) The annual peak load on a 30 MW power station is 25 MW. The power station
supplies loads having maximum demands of 10 MW, 8.5 MW, 5 MW, 4.5 MW.
The annual load factor is 45%. Find
i) Average load
ii) Energy supplied per year
iii) Demand factor
iv) Diversity factor.
E) With the help of neat sketch, explain Francis turbine.
F) With a neat diagram, explain the working of nuclear power plant.
SLR-UM 280
-6-
*SLRUM280*
3. Solve any two (10 marks each) :
(210=20)
A) Explain with neat diagram the function of BWR and PWR. Mention the
advantages and disadvantages.
B) Explain with necessary diagrams.
i) Mass curve
ii) Hydrograph
iii) Specific speed of the turbine
iv) Penstocks
v) Surge tank
vi) Water hammer and
vii) Flow duration curve and mention their use.
C) Describe the schematic arrangement of a thermal power station and explain
the function of each briefly.
SECTION 2
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
A) What is nuclear fusion ? How does it differ from Nuclear fission ?

B) Explain with neat sketches types of solar energy collectors with principle of
solar collector.
C) Discuss different criterion for selection of site for WTG.
D) Write a short note on tidal power generation.
E) Explain with neat sketch solar thermal power plant.
F) Write a short note on geothermal power generation.
5. Solve any two :
(210=20)
A) Explain with neat sketch diesel engine power plant.

B) Explain with neat sketch closed cycle gas turbine power plant. Also explain
function of supercharger and re-heater.
C) Describe with neat sketch the construction and operation of Heavy water
cooled and Moderate Reactor. What are its advantages and disadvantages ?
________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 281
*SLRUM281*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

LINEAR ALGEBRA (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
For Office Use only
Code No.
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Instruction : Q. No. 1 is compulsory.

Marks : 20
20
1) Let A be 3 3 matrix of rank 2 then the solution of AX = O has _________

a) a trivial solution
b) one parameter solution
c) two parameter solution
d) none of these
2) A system of equation is consistent if AX = B
a) (A) = ([A B])
c) (A) is less than the number of unknowns
b) (A) < ([A, B])

d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 281
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM281*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
3) If 2, 2, 8 are the eigen values of the matrix A3 3 and 6, 3, K are the diagonal
elements of A, then K = ___________
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
a) 0
4) If 2, 3, 5 are the eigen values of A, then | A | = ___________
b) 30
c) 40
d) none of these
a) 10
5) The dimension of Col. A is
a) Number of columns of A
c) Number of rows in A
b) Number of pivot columns of A

d) None of these
6) If T : Rn Rm be a linear transformation and let A be the standard matrix

of T then T is on to if and only if
b) Columns of A span Rn
a) Columns of A span Rm
c) Rows of A span Rm
d) Rows of A span Rn
7) If T : R 2 R 4 T(e1) = [3, 1, 3, 1], T(e2) = [ 5, 2, 0, 0] where e1 = [1, 0] and
e2 = [0, 1] then standard matrix of T is _____________
3 5
2
1 3 1
3
1
b)
a)
0
5 2 0 0
3
1
0
5 3
2
1
5
2
0
0
c)
d)
0
3
3
1 3 1
0
1
*SLRUM281*
SLR-UM 281
-3-
8) If A = PDP1 where P is intertible matrix and D is diagonal matrix then

a) AK = PKDKP K
b) A K = PKDP K
c) AK = P DKP 1
d) A K = P K DP K
9) If A ~ 0
1

a) 0 ,

0
0

2 ,

0
6

5 ,

0
1

c) 0 ,

0
0

2

0
3 then basis for Col A is
0
5

3

0
1

b) 0

0
d)
{ [1
5] }
5
5

10) Determine if w = 3 , is in ________________ where A = 13

2
18
a) Nul A
c) Row A
b) Col A
d) None of these
11) For 2x12 6 x1x 2 + x 22 the matrix of quadratic form is

2
a)
3
2
c)
3
1
3
2
b)
3
2
d)
3
12) If a real quadratic form XAX is positive definite, then

b) | A | > 0
a) | A | = 0
c) | A | < 0
d) | A | = 1
21
23
14
19
SLR-UM 281
*SLRUM281*
-4-
13) If u is a unit vector in the direction of V = [1 2 2 0 ], then u = ________

b)
a) [ 3 6 6 0]
c) 1
3
[1
d) none of these
14) Which of the following are called normal equations for Ax = b ?

b) ATAx = ATb
a) ATX = Ab
c) ATAx = Ab
d) None of these
15) The mapping w = f(z) is conformal if
a) f(z) is not analytic and f(z) 0
b) f(z) is analytic and f(z) 0
c) f(z) is analytic and f(z) = 0
d) none of these
16) Cauchy integral formula is given by
a)
f(z)
z z0 = 2i f (z0 )
b) f (z 0 ) =
c) f (z0 ) =
1
2
f(z)
z z0 dz
d)
f(z)
dz
z z0
f(z)
z z0 dz = 2 f(z0 )
17) A Milne Thompson method is used to construct

b) analytic function
a) differentiable function
c) continuous function
d) none of these
18) The function u(x, y) is said to be harmonic if it satisfy
b) uxx uyy = 0
a) ux = uy
c) ux = uy
d) uxx + uyy = 0
19) The equations of the lines of regression are x + 2y = 5 and 2x + 3y = 8.
Then x and y are
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 5
d) 1 and 2
a) 1 and 3
20) If r =
bxy byx then r is
a) Harmonic mean of bxy, byx

b) Geometric mean of bxy, byx
c) Arithmetic mean of bxy, byx
d) None of these
______________________
*SLRUM281*
SLR-UM
281
SLR-UM
281
-5-
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instruction : Attempt any three questions from each Sections.

SECTION I
2. a) Using LU factorization method solve the equation Ax = b, where
2
A = 1
2
3
7
1 , b =
0

5 A =

7
1
1
2
3
2
0
1
5
2
2
0
1 .
b) Write the matrix equation for the circuit.
c) Solve x1 2x4 = 3
2x2 + 2x3 = 0
x3 + 3x4 = 1
2x1 + 3x2 + 2x3 + x4 = 5.
(5+3+5=13)
SLR-UM 281
*SLRUM281*
-6-
6
3. a) Apply power method to A =
8
value and eigen vector.
1
7
X
=
with
to find dominant eigen
0
5
0
12
43
.
b) Compute the transfer matrix of the network in the figure. If A = 1

3
4
Design a ladder network whose transfer matrix is A by finding suitable matrix
factorization.
(6+7=13)
4. a) Find bases for row space, the column space and the null space of the matrix
2
1
A=
3
1
11
19
13
17
1
3
b) Find basis of Col A, where A = 2
0
N
0
0
7
.
20
0
1 .
1

c) For what value of h is V3 in span {V1 V2} where V1 = 3 , V2 =

2
5

V3 = 7 .

h
3

9 ,

6
(6+4+4=14)
*SLRUM281*
SLR-UM 281
-7-
0
0
0.5
0.5
0 , u =
5. a) Let A = 0
0
0.5
0
where T = R3 R3.
3
b) If possible diagonalize
2
1

0 and v =

4
a

b . Determine T(u) and T(v)

c
12
.
7
c) By power method find dominant eigen value and eigen vector

2
A=
4
1
, X =
5 0
1
.
0
(3+5+5=13)
SECTION II
43
2
3

6. a) Let a = , b = , c = 1 and d =
1
1
2
3
5

6 .

1
a b
.
aa
ii) Find a unit vector u in the direction of c.
iii) Show that d is orthogonal to c.
i) Compute
b) Let A = 1
3
5
7
1 and b =
5

3 . Find a least-square solution of

5
Ax = b and compute the associated least-square error.
7. a) Verify that the real and imaginary parts of f(z) = ez are harmonic functions.
b) Find the bilinear transformation which maps the points z = 0, i, 1 onto

w = i, 1, 0.
c) Evaluate
3z 2 + z
dz where z is the circle | z | = 2.
z2 1
SLR-UM 281
*SLRUM281*
-8-
8. a) Compute the coefficient of correlation between x and y from the following

data :
x:
2
4
5
6
8
11
y : 18
12
10
8
7
5
b) From the following data obtain two lines of regression.
Sales (in lakhs)
: 91 97 108 121 67 124 51
Purchase (in lakhs) : 71 75 69 97
70 91 39
73
61
111 57
80 47
9. a) Find the matrix of the quadratic form, assume that X is in 33 for

i) 8x12 + 7x 22 3 x 23 6 x1x 2 + 4x1x 3 2 x 2 x 3
ii) x 23 4x1x 2 + 4x 2x 3 .
b) The two regression equations of variables are x = 19.3 0.87 y and

y = 11.64 0.5x. Find means of x and y and the coefficient of correlation.
c) Find the image of following under the transformation w =
i) z =
ii) z =
1
.
z
5
+i
2
2 5 4
+ i.
9
9
3
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
282
*SLRUM282*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL MEASUREMENT (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

3) Make suitable assumptions, if necessary.
Marks : 20
1. 1) Moving iron type of instrument can be used as

a) Standard instrument for calibration of other instruments
b) Transfer type instruments
c) Indicator type instruments as in panel
d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 282
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM282*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) A Megger is used for measurement of

a) Low valued resistances
b) Medium valued resistances
c) High valued resistances particularly insulator resistances
d) All of the above
3) A 1 MA ammeter has a resistance of 100 . It is to be converted to a
1 A ammeter. The value of shunt resistance is
a) 0.001
b) 0.1001
c) 100000
d) 100
4) In electrodynamometer type of wattmeters
a) The current coil is made fixed
b) The pressure coil is made fixed
c) Any of the two coils that is current coil or pressure coil can be made
fixed
d) Both coils should be movable.
5) In the Single Phase Induction Meter in order to get true value of energy, the
shunt magnet flux should lag behind the applied voltage by
a) 90
b) 0
c) 45
d) None of above
6) Swapping resistance is connected
a) In series with the shunt to reduce temperature error in shunted
ammeters
b) In series with ammeters to reduce errors on account of friction
c) In series with meter and have a high resistance temperature coefficient
in order to reduce temperature errors in ammeters
d) In series with the meter and have a negligible resistance coefficient in
order to reduce temperature errors in shunted ammeters
*SLRUM282*
-3-
SLR-UM 282
7) The power consumption in PMMC instrument is typically about

a) 0.25 W to 2 W
b) 0.25 mW to 2 mW
c) 25 w to 200 w
d) None of above
8) Which instrument is the cheapest disregarding the accuracy ?
a) PMMC
b) Moving iron
c) Electrodynamometer
d) Rectifier
9) The units whose sizes can not be chosen independently are called
a) Derived units
b) Fundamental units
c) Absolute units
d) Auxiliary fundamental units
10) The high torque to weight ratio in an analog indicating instrument indicates
a) High friction loss
b) Low friction loss
c) Nothing as regards friction loss
11) A potentiometer is basically a
a) Deflectional type instrument
b) Null the instrument
c) Deflection as well as null type instrument
d) A digital instrument
12) The standardization of A.C. potentiometers is done by
a) Directly using A.C. standard voltage source
b) Using D.C. standard source and transfer instrument
c) Using D.C. standard source and dArsonval galvanometer
d) Using D.C. standard source and transfer instrument
13) The value of resistance of an earthing electrode depends upon
a) Shape and material of electrode
b) Depth to which electrode is driven into earth
c) Specific resistance of soil
d) All of the above
14) A Wheatstone bridge cannot be used for precision measurements because
errors are introduced into it an account of
a) Resistance of winding leads
b) Thermo electric emfs
c) Contact resistances
d) All of above
SLR-UM 282
*SLRUM282*
-4-
15) Maxwells Inductance Capacitance bridge is used FO2 measurement of

inductance of
a) Low Q coils
b) Medium Q coils
c) High Q coils
d) Low and medium Q coils
16) The source of emission of electrons in CRT is

b) A barium and spontium oxide coated cathode
c) Accelerating anode
17) A vertical amplifier for a CRO can be designed for
a) Only a high gain
b) Only a broad bandwidth
c) A constant gain times bandwidth product
d) All of the above
18) Electronic voltmeters which use rectifiers employ negative feedback.
This is done
a) to increase the overall gain
b) to improve stability
c) to overcome non-linearing of diodes
19) The burden of current transformers is expressed in terms of
a) Secondary winding current
b) VA eating of transformer
c) Voltage, current and power factor of secondary winding circuit
20) The ratio and phase angle errors in potential transformers may be reduced by
a) Increasing the exciting current
b) Increasing the resistance and leakage reactance in the transformer
c) By not employing turns compensation
__________________
*SLRUM282*
-5-
SLR-UM 282
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

3) Make suitable assumptions, if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Explain the three essential torques of the analog instruments.

b) The inductance of a moving iron instrument is given by L = (10 + 5 2 ) H
where is the deflection in radium from zero position. The spring constant
is 12 106 n-m/rad. Estimate the deflection for a current of 5 A.
c) Explain with neat diagram working of 1 EDM type power factor meter.
d) A 3 , 440 V motor load has a power factor of 0.6. Two wattmeters connected
to measure the power show the input to be 25 kW. Find the reading of each
instrument.
e) Describe the construction and working of a 1 , induction type energymeter.
f) A wattmeter having a range 1000 W has an error of 1% of full scale deflection.
If the true power is 100 W. What would be the range of readings ?
3. a) Describe the construction and working of PMMC instrument.
b) Explain the effect of power factor on two wattmeter method.
OR
b) A milliammeter of 2.5 resistance reads upto 100 MA. Calculate the
resistance which is necessary to enable it to be used as :
i) A voltmeter reading upto 10 V
ii) An ammeter reading upto 10 A
Draw the connection diagram in each case.
(102=20)
SLR-UM 282
-6-
*SLRUM282*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Explain Kelvins double bridge for measurement of low resistance. Derive the
relation for finding unknown resistance.
b) The following data relate to the balanced A.C. bridge :
Arm AB : R1 = 225
Arm BC : R2 = 150 in series with C2 = 0.53 F
Arm CD : Unknown
Arm DA : R3 = 100 in series with L = 7.95 mH
The oscillator frequency = 1 KHz. Calculate the constants of arm CD.
c) Show the internal structure of CRT and explain working.
d) Explain Ramp type DVM with neat diagram.
e) A simple slide wire is used for the measurement of current in a circuit. The
voltage across a standard resistance of 1.0 is balanced at 75 cm. Find the
magnitude of current if the standard cell having an emf of 1.45 V is balanced
at 50 cm.
f) Draw typical phasor diagram of a potential transformer. Derive equation for
actual transformation ratio.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Explain with neat circuit and phasor diagram Andersons Bidge . Derive the
equation for Inductance and resistance.
b) A 1000 Hz bridge has the following constants :
Arm ab : R1 = 1000 in parallel with C1 = 0.5 F
Arm bc : R3 = 1000 in series with C3 = 0.5 F
Arm cd : L4 = 30 mH in series with R4 = 200
Find the constants of arm da to balance the bridge. Find the constants of arm
da. Express the result as a pure resistance R in series with pure inductor or
capacitor.
c) With neat diagram explain digital multimeter.
________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 283
*SLRUM283*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL MACHINE II (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

1. Choose correct answer :
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) The power factor of an alternator is determined by its

a) load
b) speed
c) excitation
d) prime mover
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 283
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM283*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The d.c. armature resistance of a Y-connected alternator measured across

its two terminals is 0.5 . The per phase resistance is
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 0.25
d) 1.5
3) The number of cycles generated in a 6-pole alternator in one revolution is

a) 3
b) 6
c) 50
d) none of above
4) Voltage drop in an alternator when under load is due to

a) armature resistance
b) armature reactance
c) armature reaction
d) all of the above
5) Armature winding of alternator are generally
a) closed winding
b) open winding
c) partly open and partly closed winding
6) The effect of leading power factor on the voltage regulation of an alternator is
a) increasing in nature
b) decreasing in nature
c) maintained at constant value
d) oscillating in nature
*SLRUM283*
-3-
SLR-UM 283
7) Damper windings are provided on

a) rotor shaft
b) pole faces
c) stator frame
d) separate armature
8) The torque angle is in a synchronous motor is

a) the angle between supply voltage and back e.m.f.
b) the angle between rotating stator flux and rotor poles
c) the angle between magnetizing current back e.m.f.
9) In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back e.m.f. depends on
a) speed of motor
b) load on the motor
c) both speed and rotor flux
d) d.c. excitation only
10) The armature current of synchronous motor on no load
a) leads the applied voltage by 90
b) lags behind the applied voltage by 90
c) is in phase with applied voltage
d) zero
11) 4 pole, 3 phase I.M. operates at 5% slip. The frequency of induced e.m.f. is
a) 25 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 2.5 Hz
12) The speed of stator field of an induction motor is

a) rotor speed
b) synchronous speed
c) slip speed
13) An induction motor with an open circuited to rotor

a) runs on no load
b) runs at reduced speed
c) does not run
d) gets damaged
SLR-UM 283
-4-
*SLRUM283*
14) The slip-rings of an induction motor is made of

a) carbon
b) phosphor bronze
c) copper
d) aluminium
15) The blocked rotor test of an induction motor, corresponds to, in case of
transformer, to
a) full load
b) half full load
c) no load
d) short circuit operation
16) The rotor of a 3-phase induction motor rotates in the same direction as
that of stator rotating field. This can be explained by
a) Faradays law of electromagnetic induction
b) Lenzs law
c) Flemings right hand rule
17) A single phase induction motor is running at N r.p.m. Its synchronous
speed is Ns. If its slip with respect of forward field is s, what is the slip
with respect to the backward field ?
a) s
b) s
c) 1 s
d) 2 s
18) An 8 pole, 50 Hz, 1-phase induction motor is running at 690 r.p.m.

Its slip w.r.t. forward field is
a) + 0.08
b) + 1.92
c) 0.08
d) 1.00
19) In a shaded pole motor, shading coils are used to

a) reduce winding losses
b) reduce friction losses
c) produce rotating magnetic field
d) protect against sparking
20) Centrifugal switch fitted on the rotor will operate when
a) rotor reaches its rated condition
b) rotor speed exceeds 70 percent of its rated value
c) rotor speed exceeds synchronous speed
d) rotor speed exceeds 40 percent of its rated value
______________________
*SLRUM283*
SLR-UM
283
SLR-UM
283
-5-
Seat
No.

ELECTRICAL MACHINE II (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) What is armature reaction ? What is its effect when RC load is connected to

alternator explain with phasor diagram ?
b) Define pitch factor. Derive expression for pitch factor.
c) Find the no load phase and line voltage of a star connected 3-phase, 6-pole
alternator which runs at 1200 r.p.m., having flux per pole of 0.1 wb sinusoidally
distributed. Its stator has 54 slots having double layer winding. Each coil has
8 turns and the coil is short circuited by 1 slot.
d) Explain the principle of operation of synchronous motor.
e) Name the different methods of starting of synchronous motor. Discuss one
method with neat circuit diagram.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) A 10 KVA, 440 V, 50 Hz, 3-phase star connected alternator has the open
circuit characteristics as given below.
If Amp
1.5
11
15
Voc Line volts
150
300
440
550
600
635
With full load zero power factor, the applied excitation required is 14 A to
produce 500 V of terminal voltage. On short circuit, 4 A excitation is required
to give full current. Determine the voltage regulation for full load, 0.8 p.f.
Lagging.
b) Explain M.M.F. method of determining the voltage regulation of an alternator
in brief.
c) Explain the operation of synchronous motor with constant load and following
different type of excitation with phasor diagram,
i) Normal excitation
ii) Under excitation
iii) Over excitation.
SLR-UM 283
-6-
4. Solve any four :
*SLRUM283*
(54=20)
a) Explain the effect of slip on following rotor parameters :

i) frequency
ii) current
iii) e.m.f
b) A 3-phase, 400 v, 50 Hz, 4 pole induction motor has star connected stator
winding. The rotor resistance and reactance are 0.1 and 1 respectively.
The full load speed is 1440 r.p.m. Calculate torque developed on full load by
the motor.
Assume stator to rotor turns ratio as 2:1.
c) Derive P2:Pc:Pm = 1:S:(1-S). Where P2 = rotor input; Pc = rotor cu loss and
Pm = mechanical power developed.
d) Derive the torque equation of 3-phase induction motor.
e) Draw and explain equivalent circuit of single phase induction motor on basis
of double field revolving theory.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) How to make single phase induction motor self started ? Draw torque-slip
characteristics of single phase induction motor on the basis of double field
revolving theory.
b) Explain the procedure to draw circle diagram from no load and blocked rotor
test performed on 3 phase induction motor. Also explain how maximum output
and maximum torque will be calculate from circle diagram.
c) A 100 kW, 3300 v, 50 Hz, 3 phase induction motor has a synchronous speed
of 500 r.p.m. The full load slip is 1.8% and full load power factor 0.85. Stator
copper loss = 2440 w, iron loss = 3500 w, rotational loss = 1200 w. Calculate :
i) The rotor copper loss
ii) The line current
iii) The full load efficiency.
Draw power flow diagram and insert the correct values.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 284
*SLRUM284*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Day and Date : Tuesday, 3-6-2014 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

1) The signal defined by equation u(t a) = 0 for t < a and u(t a) = 1
for t a is ____________
a) a unit step function
b) a shifted unit step function originating at t = a
c) a pulse function
d) none of above
Marks : 20
20
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 284
*SLRUM284*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) An impulse train is
a) a number of pulses
b) a number of pulses spaced from each other
c) a number of pulses all originating together
d) none of above
3) The integral of unit impulse is
a) a unit step function
b) a ramp function of slope 1
c) a pulse function of magnitude 1
d) none of above
4) The Laplace transform of a unit step function is
a) 1
b) 1s
c) s
d) 1 2
s
5) cos(n1t ) =
(
(
)
)
b) 0.05
a) 0.5 e jn1t + e jn1t
0.5 jn1t
0.5 jn1t
e
+ e jn1t
e
e jn1t
c)
d)
j
j
6) If a number of odd functions are added, the resultant sum is
a) even function
b) odd function
c) either even and odd function
d) mixture of odd and even function
7) X(t) is energy signal if _____________
a) 0 < E < , P = 0
b) P , E = 0
c) E , P = 0
d) P < , E =
*SLRUM284*
SLR-UM 284
-3-
8) The following drawn signal is
a) odd
b) even
c) both a) and b)
d) none of these
9) A ______________ signal is that type of signal which has a definite
pattern and repeats over and over with reputation period of T.
a) periodic
b) aperiodic
c) random
d) none of these
10) The following table gives some time functions and the Laplace
transforms
f(t)
F(S)
S
i) (t )
1
ii) u(t)
S
2
iii) t u( t )
S2
2
iv) t 2 u(t )
S3
of these correctly matched pairs are
a) ii) and iv)
b) i) and iv)
c) iii) and iv)
d) i) and ii)
11) The signal x( t ) recovered from sampled signal x(nT) is closely related
to its original signal x(t) if the method of signal reconstruction used is
a) zero order hold
b) linear interpolation
c) by use of low pass filter
d) by use of high pass filter
12) In sampling of a signal, overlapping of frequency components will occur
if sampling time is
1
1
a) < 2 f
b) 2f
max
max
1
c) > 2 f
d) none of these
max
13) The Fourier transform of x(n) = anu (n 4) is
a)
b)
c)
d)
SLR-UM 284
*SLRUM284*
-4-
14) The rate of convergence of X(z) consists of a ring in the z plane centered about
b) pole
c)
d) curve
a) origin
15) For impulse advance in time namely (n + 1) is this case
z
(n + 1)
(n + 1) z n
n=
a) 0
b) z1
c) z2
d) z
16) Which one of the following is the correct Fourier Transform of the Unit
step signal ?
1
a) ()
b)
j
1
1
+ ()
+ 2()
c)
d)
j
j
17) If f(t) = f (t) and f(t) satisfy the Dirichlets conditions. Then f(t) can
be expanded in a Fourier series containing
a) only sine terms
b) only cosine terms
c) cosine terms and a const terms
d) sine and a const terms
18) Fourier series representation of cosut + sin8t
a) w 0 = 8, T = , a1 = a 1 = 12 , az = 12 j = a z
b) w 0 = 4, T = , a1 = a 1 = 12 , az = 12 j = a z
c) w 0 = 4, T = 2 , a1 = a 1 = 12 , az = 12 j = a z
d) w 0 = 10, T = 5 , a1 = a 1 = 12 , az = 12 j = a z
1 z 1
2
19) Inverse z transform of
1
1 (2) 2 z 1 + z 2
a) sin n 3
b) sin n 4
c) sin n 5
d) sin n 7
20) Number of points required in DFT when 50 ms signal has no significant

spectral content above 500 Hz. Resolution = 10 Hz.
a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 100
_____________
*SLRUM284*
SLR-UM 284
-5-
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time :3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any two of following :
15
a) Draw the waveform of following function

i) f1(t) = k.u (1 t)
ii) f2(t) = u (2 t)
iii) f(t) = f1(t) + f2(t).
b) Calculate and draw even and odd signal for signum function.
c) The discrete time sequence is given below x[n] = 1, 1, 1, 1, 12 , 12

i) Determine x[n].u[2 n] and sketch it
ii) Determine x[n 1]. [n 3].
3. Find out the laplace transform of hyperbolic sine and cosine functions.
10
OR
Find convolution of x(t) and h(t).
x(t) = 1
= 0
h(t) = 1
=0
10
for 0 t 2
elsewhere
for 0 t 3
elsewhere.

a) Realize following equation using direct form-I
s 2 + 3s + 2
H(s) = 2
.
s + 2s + 2
15
SLR-UM 284
*SLRUM284*
-6-
b) Determine energy of following sequence :
( 2)
x [n ] = 1
for n 0
=0
for n < 0
c) Explain any three properties of convolution.
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) State and prove time shifting property of Fourier transform for
continuous time signal.
b) What is the significance of ROC ? Explain how it decides system
stability.
c) Find the Fourier transform of x(t) = eatu(t) and sketch the magnitude
and phase spectrum.
d) A signal x(t) = sinc (150 t) is sampled at a rate of (a) 100 Hz
(b) 200 Hz (c) 300 Hz. For each of these three cases, can you
recover the signal x(t) from the sampled signal.
e) Determine the causal signal x(n) having z-transform
1
X(z) =
.
1
(1 2z ) (1 z 1)2
a) Determine all possible signals x(n) associated with z-transform.
5z 1
.
(1 2z 1) (1 3z 1)
b) Draw the amplitude and phase spectrum of time domain signal x(t)
shown in fig. using triagnometric form.
X(z) =
c) Find the discrete-time Fourier transform of the following :

i) x(n) = {1, 1, 2, 2}
ii) x(n) = (0.5)n u(n) + 2nu( n 1).

_____________________
(210=20)
Code No.
SLR-UM 285
*SLRUM285*
Seat
No.

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

BASIC CIRCUIT THEORY (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00p.m,
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Solve all five questions.

2) Un-programmable calculator is allowed.
3) Marks are written to the right of questions.
Marks : 20
20
1) Following element is storing the energy

a) R
b) L
c) C
d) a) and b)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 285
*SLRUM285*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Electrical circuit is
a) closed path
b) contains at least one source
c) closed path containing at least one source and one load
d) contains at least one load
3) Dual of quantity inductance is
a) resistance
b) capacitance
c) inductance
d) both a) and c)
4) Net resistance between the terminal A and B is
a) 7
b) 8.5
c) 13
d) 6
5) KCL and KVL can be applied to

a) only D.C. circuits
b) only A.C. circuits
c) both A.C. and D.C. circuits
6) Net capacitance between the terminals A and B is
a) 6 F
b) 1.33 F
c) 3 F
d) 8 F
*SLRUM285*
SLR-UM 285
-3-
7) Net inductance between the terminals A and B is
a) 5 H
b) 4 H
c) 3 H
d) 2 H
8) 530 + 460 = X , therefore X is

a) 950
b) 1060
c) 8.6943.29
d) 8.1541.39
9) Thevenin theorem is valid for

a) only linear network
b) only active network
c) linear and active network
10) If L = 2 H and C = 2 F then resonance frequency is
a) 1000 rad/sec
b) 0.5 103 rad/sec
c) 2000 rad/sec
d) 1500 rad/sec
11) In series resonant circuit ___________ magnification occurs.

a) current
b) voltage
c) power
12) In series resonant circuit _____________ is maximum.

a) voltage
b) impedance
c) current
d) power factor
13) Short-circuit admittance parameters means

a) Z parameters
b) ABCD parameters
c) h-parameters
d) Y-parameters
14) Transmission line parameters means

a) Z-parameters
b) Y-parameters
c) h-parameters
SLR-UM 285
*SLRUM285*
-4-
15) Which of the following element behaves like short at t(0+) ?

a) R
b) L
c) C
16) Which of the following element behaves like open at t(0+) ?

a) R
b) L
c) C
17) For the function F(s) =
(s + 1)
, the final value is
s(s + 2)
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
18) For the function F(s) =
(s + 1)
, initial value is
s(s + 2)
a) 0.5
b) 0.8
c) 0.9
d) 1
19) Condition for reciprocal circuit is

a) BD AD = 1
b) AD BC = 1
c) AD + BC = 1
d) BD + AC
20) Laplaces transform of e at sin bt is

a)
b
s2 + b2
b)
(s + a)
(s + a)2 + b2
c)
b
(s + a)2 + b2
d)
s
s + b2
2
________________
*SLRUM285*
-5-
SLR-UM 285
Seat
No.

BASIC CIRCUIT THEORY (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve all five questions.

2) Un-programmable calculator is allowed.
3) Marks are written to the right of questions.
SECTION I
2. Solve any 4 questions :
(45=20)
a) In the circuit shown in fig. 1 find the current supplied by the 50 V source
fig. 1
b) For the circuit shown in fig. 2 calculate the potential difference between X and
Y.
fig. 2
SLR-UM 285
-6-
*SLRUM285*
c) In the circuit shown in fig. 3. determine I1 and I2 and voltage across 5 and
10 .
fig. 3
d)
fig. 4
Find voltage V in the circuit shown in fig. 4.
e) Find the voltage V3 across impedance Z3 in fig. 5 :
530
460
I = 6 10 A
1000
fig. 5
*SLRUM285*
SLR-UM 285
-7-
3. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Find the current through 2 resistor of the circuit shown if fig. 6 by using
node analysis method.
fig. 6
b) State and prove maximum power transfer theorem for :
i) complex load
ii) for pure resistive load.
c) Determine the current through galvanometer G having a resistance of 2 by
using Thevenin theorem in fig. 7
fig. 7
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
a) With usual notation prove that B.W. =
(45=20)
R
in RLC series resonant circuit.
L
b) R-L series circuit with R = 10 , L = 1H is suddenly impressed with d.c.

voltage of 100 V by closing the switch at t = 0. Determine the current in the
circuit after 150 ms later.
SLR-UM 285
*SLRUM285*
-8-
c) State and prove initial value theorem and final value theorem.
d) Find the Laplaces transform of the function f(t ) = cosh t .
e) Find Y-parameters for the network shown in fig. 8
1
fig. 8
5. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) A series circuit consists of a capacitor, and a coil takes maximum current of

0.314A at 200 V 50 Hz. If the voltage across capacitor is 300 V at resonance,
determine the capacitance, inductance and resistance and Q of the coil.
b) A constant voltage is applied across R-L series circuit by closing the switch.
The voltage across inductance reads 25 V at t =0 and it drops to 5V at t = 25 ms.
If L = 1 H what must be the value of R. ?
df( t )
c) i) Show that L
= SF(s) f(0) .
dt
ii) Express ABCD parameters in terms of Z parameters.

_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM 286
*SLRUM286*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

COMPUTER PROGRAMMING C++ (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Solve the following MCQs.
20
1) Consider the following statements in context of C++.

S1 : Memory is allocated only when an object is created.
S2 : Data encapsulation combines data and functions into a single unit called
class.
A) Both S1 and S2 are FALSE
B) S1 is TRUE, S2 is FALSE
C) Both S1 and S2 are TRUE
D) S1 is FALSE, S2 is TRUE
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 286
*SLRUM286*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Certain words are reserved by C++ for specific purpose and may not be used
as identifier, are called as ___________
A) Variables
B) Keywords
C) Constants
D) Literals
3) To define a macro in C++ we use ____________ processor directive.

A) # include
B) # MACRO
C) # define
D) # enum
4) Accessing the data members in structure, we use ____________ operator.

A) >>
B) .
C) ;
D)
5) Which one of the following is the correct way of declaring a function using call
by reference ?
A) void swap (int x, int y)
B) void swap (int * x, int * y)
C) void swap (int, int)
D) void swap (int & x, int & y)
6) Consider following statement in the context of C++.

S1 : constructors cannot be declared with the keyword virtual.
S2 : Constructors cannot be declared static.
A) Both S1 and S2 are TRUE
B) Only S1 is TRUE
C) Only S2 is TRUE
D) Both S1 and S2 are FALSE
7) Destructor of a class in C++ is prefixed by following character.

A) $
B) ~
C) : :
D) !
*SLRUM286*
SLR-UM 286
-3-
8) What will be the output of following code.

void main ( )
{
float x;
x = 9/2 ;
cout << x ;
}
A) 4.5
B) 4.0
C) 1.0
D) Garbage value
9) A copy constructor takes ___________

A) No arguments
B) Two arguments
C) Arbitrary arguments
D) One argument
10) What will be the value of x, m and n after the execution of the following
statements.
int x, m, n;
m = 10; n = 15;
x = ++m+n++;
A) x = 25, m = 10, n = 15
B) x = 26, m = 11, n = 16
C) x = 27, m = 11, n = 16
D) x = 27, m = 10, n = 15
11) In C++, dynamic memory allocation is accomplished with the operator

__________
A) new
B) this
C) malloc
D) delete
12) A mechanism of deriving a class from another derived class is known as

___________
A) polymorphism
B) single inheritance
C) multi-level inheritance
D) message passing
13) Run-time polymorphism is achieved by ___________

A) friend function
B) virtual function
C) operator overloading
D) function overloading
SLR-UM 286
*SLRUM286*
-4-
14) Which of the following operator can not be overloaded ?

A) <<
B) ( )
C) : :
D) ~
15) Which of the following can be declared as a friend ?

A) a member function
B) a global function
C) a class
D) all above
16) Identify the operator which is not used in connection with pointers.
A)
B) >>
C) &
D) *
17) The name of the array itself indicates address of ___________
A) first element
B) second element
C) last element
D) all of these
18) Which of the following is the valid declaration of pointer to function.

A) int (*fun_p) ( );
C) int * (fun_p) ( );
B) int * (fun_p) (int);

D) All above
19) __________ is used to represent an object that invokes a member function.

A) new
B) this
C) malloc
D) delete
20) A single pointer variable can be made to points to objects belonging to

___________
A) Base class
B) Derived class
C) Both A) and B)
D) None of above
______________
-5-
*SLRUM286*
SLR-UM 286
Seat
No.

COMPUTER PROGRAMMING C++ (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
A) Explain switch-case with suitable example.

B) Explain constructor with suitable example.
C) What are the applications of OOP ?
D) What is enumeration ? Give an example.
E) Explain inline function. What are its limitation ?
F) Write a program to swap two number using a function with call by reference.
3. Explain all bitwise operators with suitable example.
10
4. Why constructors and destructors are required in classes ? Explain with suitable
example.
10
OR
4. Write a program to define a class to represent a bank customer.
Data members : name, account_no, cust_ID, Balance.
Member function :
1) To assign initial values
2) To withdraw an amount from acc
3) To deposit an amount in acc
4) To display account balance and name.
10
SLR-UM 286
-6-
*SLRUM286*
SECTION II
20
A) Describe the concept of Array of objects.

B) Write a note on data conversion.
C) Describe class hierarchies.
D) Write a note on static function.
E) Describe pointers to pointers.
F) Describe overloading of unary operators with example.
6. Write a program to overload operator (binary) with example.
10
OR
Explain polymorphism in terms of virtual function with example.
7. Describe with suitable example :
i) Multiple inheritance
ii) Multi-level inheritance.
______________
10
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 287
*SLRUM287*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

NUMERICAL METHODS AND COMPUTER PROGRAMMING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
N.B. : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Code No.
Attempt any three quesitons from each Section.
Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
Use suitable data if required.
Marks : 20
1. 1) Identity which of the following method has quadratic convergence ?

a) Regula false
b) Bisection
c) Newton Raphson
d) Iterative method
20
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 287
*SLRUM287*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) The positive real root of the equation x3 x 11 = 0 lies between

a) 0 and 1
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 3 and 4
3) Newton-Raphson method is used for solving ______________

a) Diff. equations
b) Partial diff. equations
c) Integral equations
d) Algebraic equations

a) 2.25
b) 2.5
c) 2.75
d) 2.625
5) As soon as a new value of variable is found in the iteration, it is use immediately

in the next step, this method is called
a) Gauss Jacobi
b) Gauss seidel
c) Gauss Jordan
d) Gauss Elimination
6) When Gauss Jordan method is used to solve set of equation AX = B, matrix

A is transformed to
a) Lower triangular matrix
b) Diagonal matrix
c) Singular matrix
d) Upper triangular matrix
7) The number of normal equations required to fit a curve of the form

y = axb is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
*SLRUM287*
SLR-UM 287
-3-
8) Let (x0, y0) and (x1, y1) be the points, then the first divided difference formula
for the arguments x0 and x1 is
y1 y 0
a) x x
1
0
c)
y1 + y 0
x1 + x 0
x1 x 0
b) y y
1
0
d) None of these
9) The first normal equation for the curve y = ax + b for N observation is

a) y = ax + bN
b) x = ay + bN
c) x = aN + by
d) y = aN + bx
10) Given the table :

x 0 1 3
y 0 1 0
The quadratic polynomial by Lagranges formula is

x2
+ 3x
a)
2
b)
x2
3x
c)
2
d)
1 2
(x + 3x )
2
1
( x 2 + 3x )
2
11) The power method is used to find

a) smallest eigen value of the matrix
b) largest eigen value of the matrix
c) only integer valued eigen value
d) none of these
12) The Bendar Schmidts explicit formula, where =
range
a) 0 1
b) 0 <
c) 0
d)
1
2
1
< <1
2
K
ah2
is valid for the
SLR-UM 287
*SLRUM287*
-4-
13) The partial differential equation y2 unn 2xy uyy + x2 uyy + 2ux 3u = 0 is
a) Elliptic
b) Parabolic
c) Hyperbolic
d) Circular
14) If y = 2x + 5 is the best fit for 8 pair of values of (x, y), by the method of least
squares and y = 120, then x = ?
a) 35
b) 45
c) 40
d) 30
15) Power method works satisfactorily only if the given square matrix has
a) Only integer valued eigen values
b) Largest eigen value
c) Smallest eigen value
d) Only complex eigen values
16) Rombergs method is used to solve
a) Partial diff. equation
b) Ordinary diff. equation
c) Integration
d) None of these
17) Error in the Simpsons one-third rule is of order

a) h3
b) h4
c) h5
d) None of these
18) In Runge-Kutta method, K = _____________

a)
1
(k1 + k 2 + k 3 + k 4 )
4
b)
1
(k1 + k 2 + k 3 + k 4 )
6
c)
1
(k1 + 2k 2 + 2k 3 + k 4 )
4
d)
1
(k1 + 2k 2 + 2k 3 + k 4 )
4
19) In Jacobis method if the largest non-diagonal entries are a13 = a31 = 2 and
a11 = 1, a33 = 1, gives = ?
a) 45
b) 90
c) 30
d) 180
20) While applying Trapezoidal rule to evaluate definite integral the number of
sub-intervals should be multiple of
a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) None of these
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM287*
SLR-UM 287
Seat
No.

NUMERICAL METHODS AND COMPUTER PROGRAMMING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
N.B. : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.

3) Use suitable data if required.
SECTION I
2. a) Use false position method to find a root of xex = cosx correct up to three
decimal places.
b) Use Newton-Raphson method to find a root of x3 x 2 = 0 correct to four

decimal places.
c) Find a root of f(x) = ex 3x = 0 by using Bisection method. (Perform four

iterations)
3. a) Solve the following system of linear equations by Gauss-Jordan method

x y + z = 1, 3x + 2y 3z = 6, 2x 5y + 4z = 5.
b) Solve the following system of linear equation by Gauss-Seidal method

20x + y 2z = 17, 3x + 20y z = 18, 2x 3y + 20z = 25 (Perform three
iterations)
c) Use LU factorization method to solve

2x + 3y + z = 9
x + 2y + 3z = 6
3x + y + 2z = 8.
4. a) Fit a curve y = abx to the following data :

x :
y : 8.3
15.4 33.1 65.2 126.4 146
b) Find the polynomial f(x) by using Lagranges formula.

x : 0
f(x) : 2
12 147
SLR-UM 287
*SLRUM287*
-6-
c) Using Newtons divided difference formula, find f(8) given :

x
: 4
f(x) : 48
10
100
294
900
11
13
1210 2028
5. a) Obtained the cubic spline for the following data :

x : 0
y : 2 6 8
OR
(1+ i)
a) Obtain the complex roots of the equation z2 + 1 = 0. Take Z0 =
as initial
2
approximation.
b) Fit a parabola y = ax2 + bx + c by method of least square for the following

data :
x : 1
y : 5
12
26
60
97
SECTION II
2
6. a) Evaluate
dx
x2 + 4
using Rombergs method.
b) Find f(1.5) and f(1.5) from the following data :

x :
1.5
2.0
2.5
30
3.5
4.0
y : 3.375 7.000 13.625 24.000 38.875 59.000
7. a) Use power method to find the largest eigen value and corresponding eigen
vector for the matrix
1
3
3 1
2 4
4 10
b) Use Jacobis method to find all the eigen values and eigen vectors for the
following matrix.
1 0.5
1
A= 1
1 0.25 .
0.5 0.25 2
*SLRUM287*
-7-
SLR-UM 287
8. a) Solve the equation 2u = 0 for the following mesh by using Leibmanns method
(Perform four iteration).
b) Use Runge-Kutta method to solve the differential equation.

dy
= y xy 2 by taking h = 0.1 at x = 0.2. Given y(0) = 1.
dx
9. a) Use Crank-Nicholson method to solve the equation uxx = ut subject to

u(x, 0) = 0, u (0, t) = 0 and u (1, t) = t for two time steps.
b) Use inverse power method to find the smallest eigen value and corresponding
1 4
eigen vector for the matrix
3 2
1
c) Evaluate
x2
1+ x
dx using Simpsons 13 rule.
OR
c) Use Eulers method to find the value of y for x = 0.1. Given
dy y x
=
; y(0) = 1.
dx y + x
4
___________________
Code No. SLR-UM 288
*SLRUM288*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL MACHINES II (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

I. All questions are compulsory, each carry 1 mark.
Marks : 20
20
1) The starting torque of a 3-ph IM has max. value. The rotor pf is then
a) 0.8 lag
b) 0.5 lag
c) 0.707 lag
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 288
*SLRUM288*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Rotor winding of a 3-phase wound rotor is generally __________ connected.

a) star
b) delta
c) partly star partly delta
d) none
3) The relation among the synchronous speed (Ns), rotor speed Nr and slip S is
a) Nr = Ns (1 S )
b) Nr = Ns (S 1)
c) Nr = Ns (1 + S )
d) Nr = S Ns
4) When a 3-ph IM is at no load, the slip is

a) 1
b) 0.5
c) practically zero
d) 0.2
5) A 6-pole, 3-ph IM is connected to a 25 Hz supply and at full load rotor emf

makes 105 complete cycles in 2 minutes. The full load % slip is _________
a) 3.5%
b) 7.5%
c) 1.5%
d) 2.5%
6) In a SCIM, torque with auto starter is ___________ times the torque with
direct-switching.
a) K2
b) K
c) 1/K2
d) 1/K
7) A 6-pole, 50-Hz, 3- induction motor is running at 950 rpm and has rotor Cu
loss of 5 kW. Its rotor input is ___________ kW.
a) 100
b) 10
c) 95
d) 5.3
*SLRUM288*
SLR-UM 288
-3-
8) The efficiency of a 3-phase induction motor is approximately proportional to

a) (1 s)
b) s
c) N
d) Ns
9) The torque developed by a 3-phase induction motor depends on the following

three factors
a) speed, frequency, number of poles
b) voltage, current and stator impedance
c) synchronous speed, rotor speed and frequency
d) rotor emf, rotor current and rotor p.f.
10) The crawling in the induction motor is caused by
a) low voltage supply
b) high loads
c) harmonics developed in the motor
d) improper design of the machine
11) A double squirrel-cage induction motor has
a) two rotors moving in opposite direction
b) two parallel windings in stator
c) two parallel windings in rotor
d) two series windings in stator
12) The injected e.m.f. in the rotor of induction motor must have
a) zero frequency
b) the same frequency as the slip frequency
c) the same phase as the rotor e.m.f.
d) high value for the satisfactory speed control
13) The complete circle diagram of induction motor can be drawn with the help
of data found from
a) no-load test
b) blocked rotor test
c) stator resistance test
d) all of the above
SLR-UM 288
*SLRUM288*
-4-
14) After the starting winding of a single-phase induction motor is disconnected

from supply, it continues to run only on __________ winding.
a) rotor
b) compensating
c) field
d) running
15) A single phase induction motor employs ___________ rotor.

a) squirrel cage
b) wound
c) either squirrel cage or wound
d) none of above
16) A capacitor start capacitor run motor has ______________

a) low power factor
b) high power factor
c) low efficiency
d) high starting torque
17) For same rating, the efficiency of a single phase induction motor is _________
that of 3 ph induction motor.
a) less than
b) the same as
c) more than
18) If the stator voltage of an induction motor drops by 10%, the torque of the
motor will drop by ___________
a) 10%
b) 40%
c) 20%
d) 30%
19) At s = 0, the torque of an induction motor is

a) zero
b) equal to full load
c) very high
d) equal to maximum
20) The air gap between stator and rotor of a 3ph induction motor ranges from
____________
a) 2 cm to 4 cm
b) 0.4 mm to 4 mm
c) 1 cm to 2 cm
d) 4 cm to 6 cm
______________
*SLRUM288*
-5-
SLR-UM 288
Seat
No.

ELECTRICAL MACHINES II (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
II. Attempt any four :
Marks : 80
(45=20)
1) Derive the equation for torque in case of 3 phase induction motor.

2) Draw Slip-torque characteristics of 3 phase induction motor when rotor
resistance R2 is varied ?
3) 3 phase 50 Hz, 8 pole induction motor has full load slip of 2% rotor stand still
resistance and reactances are respectively 0.001 ohm and 0.005 ohm per
phase.
Find the ratio of Tmax/TFL and speed at which max. Torque occurs.
4) Explain Star Delta starter with neat circuit diagram.
5) Determine the suitable auto transformation ratio for starting a 3ph induction
motor with line current not exceeding 3 times the full load current. The short
circuit current is 5 times the full load current and full load slip is 5%. Estimate
the starting torque in terms of Full load torque ?
III. Attempt any two :
(210=20)
1) Explain how rotating magnetic field is created when 3-ph supply voltage is
given to the 3-ph stator winding.
2) A 50 Hz, 6 pole induction motor runs at 94.5% synchronous speed developing
torque of 120 N-m. The mechanical torque lost is 4 N-m and stator loss is
1430 watts. Calculate efficiency and draw power flow diagram and insert the
values.
3) At stand still the equivalent impedance of inner and outer cages of a double
cage rotor are 0.4 + j2 and 2 + 0.4 ohms respectively. Calculate the ratio of
torque produced by the two cages
i) standstill
ii) at 5% slip.
SLR-UM 288
-6-
*SLRUM288*
IV. Attempt any four :
(45=20)
1) Explain operation of induction machine as an induction generator.

2) Explain speed control of induction motor by pole changing method.
3) Explain slip power recovery scheme for speed control of 3 phase slip ring
I.M.
4) Explain shaded pole induction motor.
5) Explain about split phase induction motor.
V. Attempt any two :
(210=20)
1) A 415-V, 29.84 kW, 50-Hz, delta-connected motor gave the following test
data :
No-load test : 415 V, 21 A, 1,250 W
Locked rotor test : 100 V, 45 A, 2,730 W
Construct the circle diagram and determine :
a) the line current and power factor for rated output
b) the maximum torque.
Assume stator and rotor Cu losses equal at standstill.
2) A 240 V, 50 Hz, 1ph capacitor start a.c. motor is loaded such that the slip
is 6%. The motor constants referred to the stator are :
Stator resistance = 2.2 ohm; rotor resistance = 3.8 ohm;
Stator reactance = 3 ohm; rotor reactance = 2.1 ohm;
Magnetizing reactance = 86 ohm; iron and friction loss = 50 W
Draw the equivalent circuit and from it find the output power and efficiency at
the given loading.
3) Why single phase induction motor is not self starting, explain with the help of
double revolving field theory.
______________
Code No.
*SLR-UM-289*
SLR-UM 289
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

ELEMENTS OF POWER SYSTEM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
I. All questions are compulsory, each carries 1 mark.
20
1) The type of insulator is used to 132kv transmission line

A) Pin type
B) Disc type
C) Shackle type
D) Pin and Shackle
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 289
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLR-UM-289*
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Which of the following voltage regulation is considered to be the best ?

A) 2%
B) 30%
C) 70%
D) 98%
3) The highest transmission voltage used in India is

A) 400kv
B) 200kv
C) 132kv
D) 765kv
4) ACSR conductors have

A) All conductors made of AL
B) Outer conductor made AL
C) Inner conductor made AL
D) No conductor made AL
5) For medium transmission line A is

A) Equal to B
B) Equal to C
C) Equal to D
6) The effect of corona is

A) Increased energy loss
B) Increased reactance
C) Increased inductance
D) None
7) The sag of transmission line is least affected owing to

A) Weight of conductor
B) Current through the conductor
C) Temperature
D) Ice deposited on the conductor
*SLR-UM-289*
-3-
SLR-UM 289
8) The inductance of transmission line is minimum when

A) GMD is high
B) GMR is high
C) Both GMD and GMR are high
D) GMD is low and GMR high
9) Which of the following is correct ?
A) AB + CD = 1
B) AD + CD = 1
C) AB CD = 1
D) AD + BC = 1
10) The material used for the manufacture of ground wire is

A) AL
B) Galvanized steel
C) Cast iron
D) Stainless steel
11) 100% string efficiency means

A) One insulator disc shorted
B) Zero potential across each disc
C) Equal potential across each disc
12) Suspension insulators are used for voltage beyond
A) 33kV
B) 11kV
C) 400V
D) 66kV
13) The maximum permissible value of fair weather corona loss for an HV line is
A) 0.6 kw/3ph km
B) 1.2 kw/3ph km
C) 0.3 kw/3ph km
D) 2.4 kw/3ph km
14) Under no load condition the current in a transmission line is because of

A) Capacitance effect
B) Corona effect
C) Proximity effect
D) Back flow from earth
SLR-UM 289
-4-
*SLR-UM-289*
15) Bedding on cable consists of

A) Jute strands
B) Hassian tape
C) Paper tape comp. with a fiberous material
D) Any one of the above
16) In the analysis of which of the following lines shunt capacitance is neglected ?
A) Short transmission lines
B) Medium transmission lines
C) Long transmission lines
D) Medium as well as long transmission lines
17) Transposition of a transmission line is done to
A) Reduce line loss
B) To reduce skin effect
C) Balance the line voltage drop
D) Reduce corona
18) If the frequency of transmission system is changed from 50Hz to 100Hz the
string efficiency.
A) Will increase
B) Will decrease
C) Remain unchanged
D) May increase
19) Which of the following is usually not the generating voltage ?

A) 6.6 KV
B) 9.9 KV
C) 11 KV
D) 13.2 KV
20) Ferranti effect happens in transmission line when the line is

A) Short and loaded
B) Long and loaded
C) Long and Unloaded
D) None of these
______________________
*SLR-UM-289*
-5-
SLR-UM 289
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

ELEMENTS OF POWER SYSTEM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
(45=20)
1) State and explain Kelvins law.

2) Explain phenomenon of corona. Write advantages and disadvantages.
3) Define string efficiency. Explain methods of improving string efficiency.
4) A 2 conductor cable 1 km long is required to supply a const. current of 200A.
throughout the year. The cost of cable including installation is Rs. (20a+20)
per metre where a is area of X-section in cm2. The cost of energy is 5 paisa
per KWh and interest and depreciation charges 10%. Calculate economical
conductor size. Assume resistivity of conductor material to be 1.73 cm.
5) Draw and derive the insulation resistance of a single core cable.
III. Attempt any two :
(102=20)
1) Draw and explain the dielectric strength in a single core underground cable
with the ratio of max. and min. value of potential gradient.
2) Each line of 3 ph system is suspended by a string of three identical insulators
of self capacitance C farad. The shunt capacitance of connecting metal work
of each insulator is 0.2C to earth and 0.1C to line. Calculate the string efficiency
of the system if a guard ring increases capacitance to line of metal work of
lowest insulator to 0.3 C.
3) What is meant by sag ? Derive an expression for sag in a transmission line
having equal level of supports and unequal level of supports.
SLR-UM 289
-6-
*SLR-UM-289*
IV. Attempt any four :
(45=20)
1) Derive an expression for voltage regulation and efficiency of Medium

transmission line consider end condenser along with the equivalent circuit
and phasor diagram.
2) Derive the generalized circuit constants for medium line using nominal
T-method.
3) Explain belted cables and screened cables.
4) Explain the concept of self GMD and Mutual GMD.
5) Draw and describe the uniformly loaded distributor fed at one end in DC
system with a point of minimum potential, maximum and minimum voltage
drops.
(102=20)
1) Derive an expression for voltage regulation and efficiency of Medium

transmissions line consider nominal method along with the equivalent
circuit and phasor diagram.
2) Derive the expression for inductance of 1-ph two wire line.
3) A 3-phase, 50-Hz overhead transmission line 100 km long has the following
constants :
Resistance/km/phase = 0.1
Inductive reactance/km/phase = 0.2
Capacitive susceptance/km/phase = 0.04 10 4 siemen
Determine :
i) the sending end current
ii) sending end voltage
iii) sending end power factor and
iv) transmission efficiency when supplying a balanced load of 10,000 kW at
66 kV, p.f. 0.8 lagging. Use nominal T method.
___________________
Code No. SLR-UM 29

Seat
No.
*SLRUM29*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

WATER RESOURCES ENGG. I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N.B. : 1) Question No. 1 is compulsory.

2) Attempt any three questions from questions 2, 3, 4, 5.
Attempt any three questions from questions 6, 7, 8, 9.
4) Use of electronic non-programmable calculators is allowed.
Marks : 20
1. i) The average annual precipitation over Indian land area is about

a) 640 BCM
b) 1869 BCM
c) 4000 BCM
d) 109000 BCM
(120=20)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 29
*SLRUM29*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
ii) The standard rain gauge widely used in India is a

a) recording rain gauge
b) non-recording rain gauge
c) telemetric rain gauge
iii) A rainfall mass curve shows the variation of

a) rainfall intensity with time
b) rainfall intensity with cumulative rainfall
c) cumulative rainfall with time
d) rainfall excess with time
iv) Which of the following has the highest infiltration capacity ?
a) forest land
b) rock outcrop
c) concrete pavement
d) grazed pasture
v) The volume of rainfall which produces equal runoff is called

a) point rainfall
b) effective rainfall
c) average rainfall
d) ground rainfall
vi) The standard project flood is the one

a) Which can occur only once in the life of the project
b) Which can occur only at rare occasions, such as the maximum
observed flood
c) Which can occur only under the worst weather conditions
d) Which can not occur at all
vii) The probability that a T year frequency flood occurs in any given year is
a)
1
T
c) logeT
b)
100
T
d) eT
*SLRUM29*
SLR-UM 29
-3-
viii) The mean flow velocity of a stream at a station is taken to be the average of
velocities measured at
a) 0.6 and 0.4 times the depth from the water surface
b) 0.2 and 0.8 times the depth from the water surface
c) 0.3 and 0.7 times the depth from the water surface
d) the top water surface and the bed surface of the river
ix) Ryves formula predicts the maximum flood discharge Q in terms of the area
A, and coefficient C, as Q = C.An. The value of n is
a) 0.25
b) 0.50
c) 0.67
d) 0.75
x) Drainage density of a basin may be defined as

a) number of drains per unit area of the basin
b) length of drains per unit area of the basin
c) number of drains installed in the basin
xi) Which of the following methods of applying the water may be used on rolling
land
a) Border flooding
b) Check flooding
c) Furrow flooding
d) Free flooding
xii) For supplying water to rabbi crop, Kharif crop and sugarcane, the channel is
designed for capacity equal to the greater of the water requirement of
a) Rabbi or Kharif
b) Rabbi and Kharif or sugarcane
c) Rabbi and sugarcane or Kharif and sugarcane
d) Rabbi or Kharif or sugarcane
xiii) The ratio of the quantity of the water stored in the root zone of the crops to the
quantity of the water actually delivered in the field is known as
a) Water conveyance efficiency
b) Water application efficiency
c) Water use efficiency
SLR-UM 29
*SLRUM29*
-4-
xiv) The water utilizable by plants is available in soils mainly in the form of
a) Gravity water
b) Capillary water
c) Hydroscopic water
d) Chemical water
xv) The amount of irrigation water required to meet the evapotranspiration needs
of the crop during its full growth is called
a) Effective rainfall
b) Irrigation water
c) Consumptive irrigation requirement
d) Net irrigation requirement
xvi) With the increase in the quantity of the water supplied, the yield of most crops
a) Increases continuously
b) Decreases continuously
c) Increases up to certain limit and then becomes constant
d) Increases up to certain limit and then decreases
xvii) The duty is largest
a) At the head of the water course
b) On the field
c) At the head of main canal
d) Same at all places
xviii) The kor depth of the rice is 190 mm and kor period is 14 days. The outlet
factor for this will be
a) 637 hectares/cumec
b) 837 hectares/cumec
c) 972 hectares/cumec
d) 1172 hectares/cumec
xix) The depth of the water required to bring the soil moisture content of given soil
up to its field capacity is called
a) Hygroscopic water
b) Equivalent moisture
c) Soil moisture deficiency
d) Pellicular water
xx) The outlet discharge factor is the duty at the head of

a) Main canal
b) Branch canal
c) Water course
d) Distributary
______________
SLR-UM 29
-5-
*SLRUM29*
Seat
No.

WATER RESOURCES ENGG. I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from questions 2, 3, 4, 5.

Attempt any three questions from questions 6, 7, 8, 9.
3) Use of electronic non-programmable calculators is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Differentiate between recording and non-recording types of rain gauges.
b) The isohyets for rainfall over a catchment were drawn. The areas of strips
between isohyets are indicated below. Find the average depth of precipitation
over the basin.
Isohyets (cm) 9 10 10 11 11 12 12 13 13 14 14 15
Area (sq km)
22
80
105
98
78
16
3. a) What do you understand by in filtration index ? How do you determine it ?
b) Compute and draw the storm hyetograph for the following storm observed
over a drainage basin.
Duration
(minute)
30
60
90
120
Accumulated
rainfall cm
7.5
8.5
9.0
SLR-UM 29
*SLRUM29*
-6-
4. a) The ordinates of 3 hour unit hydrograph of a catchment are given below.
Time (hour)
12
15
18
21
Ordinates of
3 hour UH
(m3/sec)
10
20
16
12
Derive the flood hydrograph at the catchment outlet due to the storm shown
below.
Time from start
of storm (h)
Accumulated
rainfall (cm)
3.9
4.7
7.6
Assume -index of catchment as 0.3 cm/hour and constant base flow of

10 m3/sec.
b) What is a stage discharge curve ? Explain its use. Sketch a typical stage
discharge curve.

i) Envelope curves for maximum flood discharge in Indian rivers.
ii) Recuperation test for yield of an open well.
iii) Flood frequency analysis.
5
SECTION II
6. a) Discuss the Himalayan River Component of national perspective plan of India

for interbasin transfer of water.
b) After how many days will you supply water to soil (clay loam), in order to
ensure efficient irrigation of the given crop if :
i) Field capacity of soil 27%
ii) Permanent wilting point 14%
*SLRUM29*
-7-
SLR-UM 29
iii) Density of soil 1.5 gm/cm3

iv) Effective depth of root zone 75 cm
v) Daily consumptive use of water for a given crop 11mm.
7. a) What is Kolhapur type weir ? State the conditions favouring location of such
weirs.
b) State the main components of Drip irrigation system and describe the functions
of each.
8. a) Discuss the role of co-operative water users organizations in on farm water

distribution, for canal irrigation system.
b) Describe with neat sketch, general layout of a lift irrigation scheme. Briefly
explain design procedure of lift irrigation scheme.
9. a) Write a short note on any two of the following :

i) Need of watershed management
ii) Rainwater harvesting
iii) Percolation tank.
b) Discuss the concept of Bandhara irrigation system with its necessity and
layout.
______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 290
*SLRUM290*
Seat
No.

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

ANALOG AND DIGITAL INTEGRATED CIRCUITS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Select the correct option :
20
1) The output offset voltage is caused by

a) Input bias current
b) Input offset voltage
c) Both of a) and b)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 290
-2-
DO
*SLRUM290*
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2) Common mode gain should be

a) Very high
b) Very low
c) Always unity
d) Unpredictable
3) For non inverting amplifier if Rf = 100 k and Ri = 1 K then closed loop

gain is
a) 1,00,000
b) 1,000
c) 101
d) 100
4) IC 741 C has a unity gain frequency of

a) 10 Hz
b) 100 Hz
c) 1 MHz
d) 75 Hz
5) A summing amplifier can have

a) Only bone input
b) More than two inputs
c) No. of inputs
d) None
6) For averaging amplifier with four inputs the ratio of Rf/Ri must be
a) 5
b) 0.25
c) 1
d) 4
7) If a sine wave is applied to integrator output will be

a) Square
b) Triangular
c) Inverted Sine
d) Cosine
8) Basic differentiator ckt contains feedback

a) Resistor
b) Capacitor
c) Inductor
d) None
*SLRUM290*
-3-
SLR-UM 290
9) Voltage follower is an application of

a) Inverting mode
b) Non inverting mode
c) Both
d) None
10) Roll off of op-amp gain after certain frequency is due to

a) Inductive effect
b) Capacitive effect
c) Feedback
d) Gain
11) Minimization of number of states reduces

a) Circuit complexity
b) No. of gates
c) Cost
d) All of the above
12) A multiplexer with four select bits is a,

a) 4 : 1 Multiplexer
b) 8 : 1 Multiplexer
c) 16 : 1 Multiplexer
d) 32 : 1 Multiplexer
13) A combinational logic circuit which is used to send data from a

single source to two or more separate destination is called as,
a) Multiplexer
b) De-Multiplexer
c) Decoder
d) None
14) The logic family with complementary logic levels is

a) TTL
b) ECL
c) MOS
d) CMOS
15) Which of the following is used as toggle flip-flop ?

a) J-K
b) Master-Slave J-K
c) T F/F
d) All
16) Universal shift register shifts data towards

a) Right
b) Left
c) Parallel in parallel out
d) All a), b), c)
SLR-UM 290
-4-
*SLRUM290*
17) Which of following flip has toggle state ?

a) S-R F/F
b) J-K F/F
c) D F/F
d) None
18) Which of the following is correct for a D latch ?

a) The output toggles if one of the inputs is held HIGH
b) Q output follows the input D when the enable is HIGH
c) Only one of the inputs can be HIGH at a time
d) The output complement follows the input when enabled
19) A J-K flip-flop has two control inputs. What happens to the Q output
on the active edge of the clock if both control inputs are asserted
simultaneously ?
a) The Q output is reset to 0
b) The Q output remains unchanged
c) The Q output is set to 1
d) The Q output toggles to the other state
20) As compared to TTL, CMOS logic has
a) Higher speed of operation
b) Higher power dissipation
c) Smaller physical size
d) All of the above
_____________________
*SLRUM290*
-5-
SLR-UM 290
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

ANALOG AND DIGITAL INTEGRATED CIRCUITS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
1) Explain DC analysis of differential amplifier (DIBO).

2) Explain effect of variation of power supply on offset voltage.
3) Draw and explain instrumentation amplifier.
4) Explain the equivalent circuit of op-amp.
5) With the help of neat diagram explain concept of virtual ground.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
1) Define the following parameters of OPAMP and write their ideal and practical
values.
a) Input offset voltage
b) CMRR
c) Slew rate
d) SVRR
e) Output voltage swing
SLR-UM 290
-6-
*SLRUM290*
2) For DIBO differential amplifier :

Rc = 4.7 K , RE = 4.7 K , Vcc = VEE =12v, dc = ac = 75
VBE = 0.7 v, Rin 1 = Rin 2 = 70
Determine :
i) Operating point values
ii) Voltage gain
iii) Input resistance and output resistance.
3) Explain basic and practical integrator with frequency response. Draw the
waveforms for output with various inputs.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
1) Using 4*1 mux. Implement the logic function

F (A, B, C) = m (1, 3, 4, 6).
2) Compare CMOS and T TL logic family.
3) Draw the diagram of J-K F/F using NAND gate and explain it.
4) Design mod-6 counter using IC 7490.
5) Explain serial in parallel out shift register. Draw the waveforms.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
1) Explain the following F/F with circuit diagram, Truth Table, characteristic
table, characteristic equation.
a) D F/F
b) J/K F/F.
2) Reduce expression using K-map and implement using NAND gates.
F = m (1, 3, 7, 11, 15) + d(0, 2, 5)
3) Using 8 : 1 mux. Implement the logic function given below. Also realize it by
16 : 1 mux.
F = m (0, 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14).
_______________
Code No. SLR-UM
291
*SLRUM291*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014
NETWORK ANALYSIS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

1. Tick the most appropriate answer. Attempt all questions.
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) Three equal resistances of 3 are connected in star. What is the

resistance in one of the arms in an equivalent delta circuit ?
a) 10
b) 3
c) 9
d) 27
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 291
*SLRUM291*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Nortans equivalent circuit consists of

a) Voltage source in parallel with resistance
b) Voltage source in series with resistance
c) Current source in series with resistance
d) Current source in parallel with resistance
3) Superposition theorem is valid for
a) Linear system
b) Non-linear system
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
4) A capacitor does not allow sudden change in

a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Both a) and b)
d) No one of these
5) In electric circuits transient currents are associated with ___________

a) Resistors
b) Inductors
c) Capacitors
d) Both b) and c)
6) In transient circuit analysis the particular solution gives _________ response.

a) Transient
b) Steady state
c) Neither
d) Both a) and b)
7) For a two port network to be reciprocal ___________

a) Z11 = Z22
b) Y12 = Y21
c) h22 = h12 + h21
d) AD BC = 0
*SLRUM291*
SLR-UM 291
-3-
8) An RC circuit has R = 2 and C = 4 F. The time constant is _________

a) 0.5 s
b) 2 s
c) 8 s
d) 1.5 s
9) In an electric circuit dual of inductance is ________

a) Conductance
b) Resistance
c) Capacitance
d) Susceptance
10) Nortons equivalent circuit consists of

a) Voltage source in parallel with impedance
b) Current source in series with impedance
c) Voltage source in series with impedance
d) Current source in parallel with impedance
11) A passive element in a circuit is one which __________
a) Supplies energy
b) Receives energy
c) Both supplies and receives energy
d) None of these
12) The graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches. The
minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is
__________
a) 3
b) 4
c) 12
d) 5
0.9
13) The Z-matrix of a two port network is given by
0.2
value of Y22 ?
a) 1.8
b) 0.27
c) 0.9
d) 3.6
0.2
. What is the
0.6
14) The Laplace transform of integral function f(t) is

1
F(s)
s
c) F(s) f(0)
a)
b) sF(s) f(0)
d) f(0)
SLR-UM 291
*SLRUM291*
-4-
15) Voltage across short circuited terminals of network is

a) Maximum
b) Zero
c) Minimum
d) None of these
16) Ohms Law is valid only when temperature is

a) Variable
b) Constant
c) Varies with constant rate
d) None of these
17) Current between two open terminals is

a) Maximum
b) Zero
c) Minimum
d) None of these
18) KVL and KCL are valid for

a) Only DC
b) Only AC
c) Both AC and DC
d) None of these
19) Two nodes are said to form supernode if

a) There is no circuit element between them
b) There is only current source between them
c) There is only voltage source between them
d) None of these
20) Laplace transform of a unit ramp function is
a) 1
b) s
c) 1/s
d) 1/s2
__________________
*SLRUM291*
SLR-UM 291
-5-
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

NETWORK ANALYSIS
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Find an equivalent resistance between A and B.
b) Find current supplied by the battery using Mesh Analysis Technique.
SLR-UM 291
-6-
*SLRUM291*
c) Find the current through 3 resistor using Thevenins Theorem.
d) Find current through 10 resistor using Nortons Theorem.
e) Draw the dual of the network.
*SLRUM291*
-7-
SLR-UM 291
3. Solve any two :

a) Find the current through 6 resistor using superposition theorem.
b) Find voltages Va, Vb, Vc using nodal analysis technique.
c) Find V1, V2, V3, V4 using supernode analysis technique.
(210=20)
SLR-UM 291
-8-
*SLRUM291*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Derive an expression for i(t) for following circuit.
b) In the network shown below switch is opened at t = 0. Calculate v,
dv
and
dt
d2 v
at t = 0+.
dt 2
c) The switch in the network below is closed at t = 0. Determine the voltage

across the capacitor using Laplace transform.
*SLRUM291*
-9-
SLR-UM 291
d) Determine hybrid parameters for the network below.
e) Find transmission parameters for the two port network shown below.
5. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) In the network shown below, the switch is changed from position 1 to position
2 at t = 0, steady condition having reached before switching. Find the values
di d2i
of i, , 2 at t = 0+.
dt dt
SLR-UM 291
-10-
*SLRUM291*
b) Find Y and Z parameters for the network shown below.
c) In the network shown in figure below, the switch is closed at t = 0, the steady
state having reached before t = 0. Determine current through inductor of 3 H
using Laplace Transform.
__________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 292
*SLRUM292*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------T.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

POWER SYSTEM I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Note : i) All questions are compulsory.

ii) Each carry one mark.
Marks : 20
20
1) The highest transmission voltage in India is _______

a) 765 KV
b) 400 KV
c) 220 KV
d) 132 KV
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 292
*SLRUM292*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The conductor connecting consumers terminals to the distributor is called as

__________
a) Feeder
b) Distributor
c) Service mains
d) None of above
3) The underground system can not be operated above __________

a) 220 KV
b) 66 KV
c) 33 KV
d) 11 KV
4) For transmission of over a distance of 500 kms, the transmission voltage

should be
a) 11-22 KV
b) 33-66 KV
c) 66-110 KV
d) 132-220 KV
5) In transmission lines are usually use cross-arms made of

a) Aluminium
b) Copper
c) Steel
d) RCC
6) Conductor used in H.T. transmission line are stranded because of

a) Increased tensile strength
b) Easy in handling
c) Cheaper in cost
d) Reduced resistivity
7) The sag of transmission line is least affected O wing to

a) Weight of conductor
b) Current through conductor
c) Atmospheric temperature
d) Ice deposited on conductor
*SLRUM292*
SLR-UM 292
-3-
8) The minimum clearance between 132 KV transmission line and ground is

about
a) 6.4 m
b) 3.2 m
c) 10.5 m
d) 7.5 m
9) In a transmission line, sag depends upon

a) Span length
b) Tension in a conductor
c) Weight of conductor
d) All of above
10) The string efficiency of a string suspension insulators is dependent on

a) Size of conductor
b) Number of disc in string
c) Size of power
d) None of above
11) For a 400 KV line the no. of discs in an insulator string is around
a) 37
b) 31
c) 25
d) 16
12) In context of corona which statement is not true ?

a) Corona is voltage effect
b) Corona takes place on short circuit transmission line
c) Corona is accompanied by power loss
d) Corona attenuates lighting surge
13) Skin effect in a conductor becomes more pronounced
a) At higher frequency
b) At lower frequency
c) Both a) and b)
14) For a given conductor, the value of GMR is

a) Larger for capacitance calculation
b) Larger for inductance calculations
c) Same for both
d) None of them
SLR-UM 292
*SLRUM292*
-4-
15) Bundled conductors are employed to improve

a) Appearance of transmission line
b) Mechanical stability of line
c) Current caring capacity of line
d) None of these
16) Following effects are associated with transmission line
a) Skin effect
b) Corona effect
c) Proximity effect
d) All of above
17) Transposition of a transmission line is done to

a) Reduce line losses
b) To reduce skin effect
c) Balance line voltage drop
d) Reduce corona
18) Which of the following voltage regulation is considered to be the best ?

a) 2%
b) 30%
c) 70%
d) 98%
19) The A, B, C, D constants of a 3-ph transposed transmission line with linear

and passive elements are
a) Always equal
b) Never equal
c) A and D are equal
d) B and C are equal
20) Sheaths are used in cable to

a) Provide proper insulation
b) Provide mechanical strength
c) Prevent ingress of moisture
d) None of above
______________________
SLR-UM 292
*SLRUM292*
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

POWER SYSTEM I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Comparision of volume of conductor material required for 2 wire d.c. system

with 3ph-3wire A.C. system of an overhead line.
b) Derive an expression for induction of a single-phase two wire line.
c) Derive an expression for capacitance of a 1-ph-2wire line.
d) Derive an expression of Kelvins law with statement.
e) Bundled conductors.
(210=20)
a) A 3ph-4 wire system is formed from a 3 wire d.c. d.c. system by addition of
another wire equal in section to one of the outers. For the same effective
voltage between outers and neutral load than can be supplied. Assume
balanced load and in the a.c. system a p.f. of 0.9.
b) A transmission line conductor having a diameter of 19.5 mm weighs 0.85 kg/m.
The span is 275 meters. The wind pressure is 39 kg/m2 of projected area
with ice coating of 13 mm. The ultimate strength of the conductor is 8,000 kg.
Calculate max sag if the factor of safety is 2 and ice weighs 910 kg/m3.
c) Derive an expression of sag of a transmission line of even supports and
unequal level of supports. Also explain how the wind and ice can be included
in sag calculation of a transmission line.
SLR-UM 292
-6-
*SLRUM292*
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) Describe the generalised circuit constants and derive the same in case of
medium transmission line using T-method.
b) Draw and describe 3-ph belted underground cable.
c) Derive an expression for capacitance of 1-phase cable.
d) Derive an expression for dielectric stress in 1-phase cable.
e) Explain grading of cables and derive an expression for capacities grading.
5. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) A 15 km long 3-ph overhead line delivers 5 MW at 11 Kv at 0.8 p.t. lagging

line loss is 12% of power delivered line inductance is 1.1 mH. per km per
phase. Find sending end voltage and voltage regulation in percentage.
b) A single core cable for use on 11 Kv 50 Hz system has conductor area of
0.645 cm2 and the internal diameter of sheath is 2.18 cm. The permittivity of
dielectric used in the cable is 3.5. Find the maximum and minimum dectrostatic
stresses in a cable. Also find the capacitance of above cable per Km length
and charging current too.
c) Derive an expression of a 3-ph double circuit line with symmetrical spacing.
___________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 293
*SLRUM293*
Seat
No.

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Electrical) Engineering (Part I) Examination, 2014

LINEAR INTEGRATED CIRCUIT
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20

1) Op-amp is ___________ high gain amplifier.
a) Capacitor coupled
b) Direct coupled
c) RC coupled
d) None
2) IC 741 has following feature

a) Short circuit protection
b) No Latchup
c) a) and b)
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 293
*SLRUM293*
-2-
DO
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
3) Supply voltage Rejection Ratio is represented by ___________

a)
Vio
c) V t
b) V Vio
d) Vio t
4) Gain of Differential amplifier is

a) Rf R
1
b) Rf R
c) 1 + Rf R
d) None of above
5) Typical value of 741 differential input resistance is

a) Infinity
b) 100 G
c) 2 M
d) 70
6) Voltage shunt feedback amplifier is

a) Inverting amplifier
b) Non inverting amp
c) Differential amplifier
d) None
7) Comparator with positive feedback is also known as

a) Schmitt trigger
b) Square wave generator
c) ZCD
d) None
8) Voltage to current converter with floating load is also known as

a) Current series negative feedback
b) Current series positive feedback
c) Voltage series negative feedback
d) Voltage series positive feedback
*SLRUM293*
-3-
SLR-UM 293
9) Application of I to V converter is
a) DAC
b) ADC
c) Diode match
d) None
10) Non linear application of opamp is

a) Peak detector
b) Log amplifier
c) Comparator
d) V-I converter
11) Square wave outputs are generated when the OPAMP is forced to
operate in the ___________ region.
a) Active
b) Cut-off
c) Saturation
d) None of these
12) The key characteristic of Butterworth filter is ___________

a) Ripple passband and flat stopband
b) Flat passband and stopband
c) Ripple passband and stopband
d) Flat passband and ripple stopband
13) In monostable operation of IC 555, the time during which the output
remains high is given by
a) tp = 1.1RAC
b) tp = RAC
c) tp = 0.5 RAC
d) tp = 1.1C
14) All pass filter is also called as ___________

a) Attenuator
b) Delay equalizer
c) Predictor
d) Converter
15) In the Astable multivibrator, RA = 2.2 k , RB = 3.9 k and

C = 0.1 f, the free running frequency f0 is ___________
a) 1.5 kHz
b) 1.45 kHz
c) 1.8 kHz
d) 2 kHz
SLR-UM 293
-4-
*SLRUM293*
16) Linear ramp can be generated by replacing resistor R of the

monostable ckt by ___________
a) Const current source
b) Const voltage source
c) Diode
d) RC network
17) The reference vrg, vref, between the output and the adjustment
terminal of LM 317 is ___________
a) 1.35 v
b) 1.25 v
c) 1.15 v
d) 1.20 v
18) The maximum current that IC 723 regulator can provide is

___________
a) 140 MA
b) 50 MA
c) 100 MA
d) 150 MA
19) The LM 317 is a ___________ regulator.

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Positive and negative
d) None of these
20) LM 380 is a power audio amplifier designed to deliver a minimum of

___________ to an 8 load
a) 3 W
b) 4 W
c) 2.5 W
d) 8 W
_____________________
*SLRUM293*
-5-
SLR-UM 293
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electrical) Engineering (Part I) Examination, 2014

LINEAR INTEGRATED CIRCUIT
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
(54=20)
a) Define CMRR, PSRR, slew rate, input bias current.

b) Draw and explain frequency compensation circuit for opamp.
c) What are the causes of slew rate ?
d) Draw and explain window detector.
e) Explain V to I converter with application.
f) Design a comparator in inverting and non inverting mode with + 1V reference
voltage.
3. Answer following :
a) Explain in detail the arithmetic operations that can be performed with
opamp.
(101=10)
OR
b) What is instrumentation amplifier ? What are the characteristics of it ?
Derive the equation for gain of IA.
(101=10)
c) Explain log and antilog amplifier ? In detail.
(101=10)
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Derive the expression for the frequency oscillation of the a stable operation
using IC 555.
2) Explain the AM detector application using IC 565.
3) Explain the working of ON-OFF controller using OPAMP.
SLR-UM 293
-6-
*SLRUM293*
4) Design the Wien Bridge oscillator as shown in fig. so that F0 = 1 KHz. Use
OPAMP type 741.
5) Draw and explain the Sawtooth wave generator using OPAMP. Also sketch
the waveform.
(210=20)
1) Design a timer circuit using IC 555 device that operates with a 15 v supply
and turns on an LED for a duration of approximately 10 ms, every time it
receives a negative trigger pulse. The LED requires about 20 mA of operating
current and forward voltage drop VF of 1.4v. The high output of timer is
[VCC 2VBE VCE (sat)] volt.
2) Design an adjustable voltage regulator using LM 317 to meet the following
specifications VO = 5 to 10 V, IO = 0.8 A. the regulator is close to the power
supply filter capacitor.
3) Draw and explain the basic building blocks of IC-723 regulator. Also explain
the protection circuitary required for IC 723.
_______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 294
*SLRUM294*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------T.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ELECTRO MAGNETIC ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
N.B. : 1) Un programmable calculator is permitted.

2) Solve full five questions including Q.1.
3) Marks are indicated to the right side of each question.
Marks : 20
1. MCQ questions :
1) D is
a) Scalar
b) Vector
c) Tensor

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 294
*SLRUM294*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) A B C is
3)
a) B(A C) C(A B)
b) C ( A B) A( A C)
c) A (B C) C(A B)
d) C (A B) B(A C)
lim
s 0
A dl
is
a) A
b) A
c) A
4) If cross product of two vectors is zero then vectors are
a) perpendicular
b) paralell
c) colinear
d) both b) and c)
5) J = E is
a) Gausss law
b) Faradays law
c) Ohms law
d) Amperes law
2
6) V =
v
is
E
a) Poisons law
b) Amperes law
c) Ohms law
d) Gausss law
7) Magnetic field intensity H is

a) Volts/meter
c)
Newton
weber
b) Amperes/meter
d) Both b) and c)
*SLRUM294*
SLR-UM 294
-3-
8) 2 V = 0 is
a) Poisons law
b) Amperes law
c) Laplaces law
d) Ohms law
9) Electric flux lines pass through Gassian surface

a) parallely
b) perpendicularly
c) at oblique
d) none of these
10) E and D are related by

a) E = ED
b) D =
E
E
c) D = EE
d) E =
11) B = H where A is
a) Magnetic scalar potential
b) Electric scalar potential
c) Magnetic vector potential
d) Electric vector potential
12) 2 Vm = J is
a) Laplaces equation
b) Poissons equation
c) Amperes law
d) Ohms law
13) Frequency and wave lengths are related by

a) f = V
c) =
b) = Vf
d) = f
14) Velocity of propagating wave is given by

a) =
b) =
c) =
SLR-UM 294
*SLRUM294*
-4-
15) Velosity of EM wave in free space is

a) 5 108 m / s
b) 3 10 8 m / s
c) 1.5 108 m / s
d) 4 10 8 m / s
16) Electric flux lines

a) start from charge end at the charge.
b) start from charge end at infinity
c) start from any where in electric field and end any where
17) Scalar magnetic potential Vm is related to H as
a) Vm = H
b) H = Vm
c) H = Vm
d) H = Vm
18) In propagation constant , is

a) propagation constant
b) phase angle constant
c) velosity constant
d) attenuation constant
19) Divergence represents

a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Energy
d) Physical quantity
20) D = v is
a) Amperes law
b) Gausss law
c) Ohms law
d) Joules law
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM294*
SLR-UM 294
Seat
No.

ELECTRO MAGNETIC ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
N.B. : 1) Un programmable calculator is permitted.

2) Solve full five questions including Q.1.
3) Marks are indicated to the right side of each question.
SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Find the expression for the volume of a sphere of radius R.

b) Explain the terms electric field intensity and electric potential at a point also
write their expressions due to point charge at a distance R meters away from
the charge.
c) Find the volume charge density v in volume where D = 4ax + 3y2ay + 2x3 az c/m2.
d) For parallel plate capacitor having air as medium between two plates, find an
expression for capacitance C of this capacitor, in terms of Area of plates A
and distance between plates d.
e) Verify the potential field given below satisfies the Laplaces equation.
V = 2x2 3y2 + Z2
(210=20)
a) Let V = cos 2 in free space find the volume charge density at point A (0.5, 60, 1)
2
2
1 rdv 1 V V
+
2 V in cylindrical co-ordinate is V = r dr + 2 2 Z 2 .
b) Find the potential field and volume charge density at P(0.5, 1.5, 1) in free
space given the potential field V = 2x2 y2 z2.
c) State and prove divergence theorem.
SLR-UM 294
-6-
*SLRUM294*
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) With usual notation prove that H = J .

b) Find the boundary conditions at the interface between two media having
different permittivity E1 and E2.
c) Distinguish clearly between scalar potential and vector potential.
d) Assume A = 50 2 a z web/m find H.
e) State and prove stokes theorem.
(210=20)
a) Determine the propagation constant at 500 KHz for a medium in which ur = 1,

Er = 15, = 0 at what velocity will EM wave Travel in this medium.
b) A circuit carrying a direct current of 5 Amps from a regular hexagon inscribed
in a circle of radius 1m calculate the magnetic flux density at the centre of the
current hexagon. Assume medium free space.
c) Find an expression for energy density in magnetic field.
_____________________
Code No.
*SLR-UM-295*
SLR-UM 295
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------T.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

CONTROL SYSTEM I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions : i) All questions are compulsory.

ii) Assume suitable data if necessary.
iii) Use of no-programmable calculator is allowed.
Marks : 20
20
1) Transfer function of the control system depends on

a) Initial conditions of input and output
b) System parameters alone
c) Nature of the input
d) Nature of the output
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 295
*SLR-UM-295*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) A control system with excessive noise is likely to suffer from

a) Vibrations
b) Oscillations
c) Saturation in amplifying stages
d) Loss of gain
3) Control systems are normally designed with a damping factor
a) Less than unity
b) Of unity
c) Of Zero
d) More than unity
4) A signal flow graph is a

a) Special type of graph for analyzing the modern control system
b) Pictorial representation of the simultaneous equations describing a
system
c) Polar graph
d) Log log graph
5) The output of synchro error detector is a
a) Voltage signal of the receiver
b) Voltage signal of constant amplitude
c) Suppressed carrier modulated signal
d) Angular displacement of the control transformer rotor
*SLR-UM-295*
SLR-UM 295
-3-
6) In a control system the use of negative feedback

a) Eliminates the chances of instability
b) Increases the reliability
c) Reduces the effects of disturbance and noise signals in the forward path
d) Increases the influence of variations of component parameters on the
system performance
7) Two blocks G1(s) and G2(s) can be cascaded to get resultant transfer function
as
a) G1(s) + G2(s)
b) G1(s) / G2(s)
c) G1(s) G2(s)
d) 1 + G1(s) G2(s)
8) Under Force Current analogy, displacement is analogous to

a) Voltage
b) Conductance
c) Magnetic flux linkage
d) Capacitance
9) The number of roots with positive real parts for the polynomial s3 + s2 2 is
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
10) Two stator windings of ac servomotors are oriented

a) 90 (mechanical) apart
b) 90 (electrical) apart
c) 180 (mechanical) apart
d) 18 (electrical) apart
11) A type 1 system under steady state will have position error when there is
a) Step displacement input
b) Ramp input
c) Either a) or b)
12) A well designed first order control systems have

a) A negative time constant
b) A small bandwidth
c) A small negative eigen value
d) A large negative transfer function pole
SLR-UM 295
*SLR-UM-295*
-4-
13) The magnitude of system output, for zero damping factor, will be
a) Exponentially decaying
b) Zero
c) Unity
d) Infinite
14) The maximum overshoot of a second order system can be increased by

a) Decreasing damping frequency
b) Increasing natural frequency
c) Increasing damping frequency
15) The time response to an initial condition or suddenly applied signal is called
a) Impulse response
b) Short duration response
c) False response
d) Transient response
16) For system gain to be zero, the roots will move towards
a) Origin
b) Zeros
c) Poles
17) Gain margin is the factor by which the gain of the system is increased to
make it
a) Damped
b) Oscillatory
c) Stable
d) Unstable
18) Flat frequency response means that the magnitude ratio of output to input
over the bandwidth is
a) Variable
b) Zero
c) Constant
d) None of above
19) The following characteristic equation represents the stable system

a) As4 + Bs2 + Cs + D = 0
b) As2 + Bs C = 0
c) As2 + Bs + C = 0
d) As2 Bs C = 0
20) If the system has multiple poles on the j axis, the system is
a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Marginally Stable
d) Conditionally stable
______________________
*SLR-UM-295*
-5-
SLR-UM 295
Seat
No.

CONTROL SYSTEM I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

ii) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
a) What is control system ? Explain open loop and closed loop control system
with their advantages and disadvantages.
b) Find the transfer function of the diagram shown below :
c) For the signal flow graph shown find C(s) / R(s) :
20
SLR-UM 295
-6-
*SLR-UM-295*
d) Find the transfer function G(s) = VL(s) / V(s) for the network shown :
e) Obtain the transfer function X(s) / F(s) of the mechanical system shown :
3. a) Obtain the closed loop transfer function using Masons gain formula :
10
b) Derive and explain the Force to voltage and Force to current analogy for the
system.
10
OR
*SLR-UM-295*
SLR-UM 295
-7-
b) Obtain the closed loop transfer function C(s) / R(s) :
10
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
20
a) Sketch the polar plot for the unity feedback system with OLTF
G(s) =
1
.
(s + 2)(s + 4)
100
. Find the
s(s + 6)
resonant peak Mr, resonant frequency r and bandwidth of the closed loop
system.
c) Determine the stability of the system whose characteristic equation is given by
s5 + 2s4 + 3s3 + 6s2 + 5s + 3 = 0.
b) The forward path TF of a unity feedback system is G(s) =
d) Derive an expression for the unit step response of a second order system for
critically damped system.
e) Explain frequency domain specifications.
5. Solve any two :
20
a) Sketch the Bode Plot and hence find GM and PM of an unity feedback system
with OLTF G(s) =
80
.
s(s + 2)(s + 20)
b) Sketch the Root Locus for the system with G(s) =

c) For a feedback control system G(s) =
K(s + 4)
.
s(s 2 + 2s + 4)
40
. Draw the Nyquist Plot.
(s + 2s + 2) (s + 4)
2
___________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 296
*SLRUM296*
Seat
No.

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

INSTRUMENTATION TECHNIQUE
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

3) Make suitable assumptions if necessary.
Marks : 20
20
1) A transducer converts _______________

a) mechanical energy into electrical energy
b) mechanical displacement into electrical signal
c) one form of energy into another form of energy
d) electrical energy into mechanical energy
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 296
*SLRUM296*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) A set of reading has wide range and therefore it has __________

a) low precision
b) high precision
c) low accuracy
d) high accuracy
3) In an instrument system, which of the following static characteristics

are desirable _____________
a) accuracy
b) sensitivity
c) reproducibility
d) all of the above
4) Thermo couples are _____________

a) passive transducer
b) active transducer
c) both a) and b)
d) output transducer
5) IC 741 is having ___________ no. of pins.

a) 6
b) 12
c) 8
d) 16
6) The properties of an ideal op-amp are

a) it should have zero input impedance
b) it should have infinite output impedance
c) have a zero open loop gain
7) Measurement in a ramp type DVM is performed during _______
a) negative slope
b) positive slope
c) both of the slope
*SLRUM296*
SLR-UM 296
-3-
8) Digital to analog converter can be consider as a __________

a) decoding device
b) encoding device
c) multiplexer
d) summing amplifier
9) Q-meter is used to measure _________

a) Quality of coil
b) Quality of instrument
c) Electrical properties of coil and capacitors
d) Quality of capacitors
10) The output voltage of LVDT is ________________
a) same as input voltage
b) addition of both secondary voltage
c) difference of two secondary voltage
d) less than input voltage
11) Switching time of LEDs is of the order of
a) 1 sec.
b) 1 ms
c) 1 s
d) 1ns
12) Digital instruments have input impedance of the order of

a) 1
b) 1K
c) 1M
d) 1 milli
13) The turn on and turn off time of LCD are the order of
a) 1 sec.
b) 1 ms
c) 10 s
d) 10 ns
14) Which of the following is visual display unit ?

a) CRO
b) UV recorder
c) Storage oscilloscope
d) Moving coil oscillograph
15) Time bases of oscilloscope are generated by

a) Horizontal amplifier
b) Vertical amplifier
c) Sweep generator
d) Storage oscilloscope
SLR-UM 296
*SLRUM296*
-4-
16) Slewing speed in X-Y recorder refer to

a) time base
b) maximum constant velocity that marking pen achieves
c) frequency response
d) relation between input to X-Y channels
17) Which of the following recorder unit has the highest frequency
response and least response time ?
a) X-Y potter
b) UV recorder
c) Pen recorders
d) CRO
18) Post acceleration is needed in CRO if frequency signal is

a) Less than 1 MHz
b) More than 1 MHz
c) More than 10 MHz
d) More than 10Hz
19) LCD requires a power of approximately

a) 20 W
b) 20 mW
c) 20 W
d) 20 nW
20) LED for their display require

a) 1.2 V 20 mA
b) 25 V 20 mA
c) 1.2 V 100 mA
d) 25V 100 mA
_______________
*SLRUM296*
-5-
SLR-UM 296
Seat
No.

INSTRUMENTATION TECHNIQUE
Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Draw a neat block diagram of generalised instrumentation system. Explain it

in detail with an example.
b) Explain the construction and working of thermocouple.
c) Explain the working of RTD and its applications.
d) Explain Instrumentation amplifier with neat diagram.
e) Explain the working and Ramp type digital voltmeter.
f) Explain the voltage to frequency converter.
(210=20)
1) Explain data acquisition system.

2) Explain the method of measurement of displacement with LVDT.
3) Explain the principle of resistive transducer and derive the expression for
gauge factor.
SLR-UM 296
-6-
*SLRUM296*
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) Draw the block diagram of general telemetering system and explain.

b) Explain Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) telemetry system.
c) What are the advantages and application X-Y recorder ?
d) Explain LVDT recorders.
e) Write the block diagram of PLC and explain.
f) What are the characteristics of PLC system.
(210=20)
a) What are the different types of telemetry systems and explain any one in
details.
b) Draw the figure of tape transport mechanism and explain the working in
detail.
c) 1) What is ladder diagram explain ?
2) What is ladder diagram for the following process ?
Step-1 : As the push button is pressed, the light grows
Step-2 : Light continue to grow 5 sec.
Step-3 : After 5 sec. the light is turned off.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
297
*SLRUM297*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------T.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ENERGY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 12.00 noon
Total Marks : 50

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Attempt all the questions.

Marks : 10

1) An industrial installation has a power factor of 0.8 lagging. It would be
economical to improve the power factor to
a) unity
b) about 0.8 leading
c) about 0.95 lagging
d) about 0.9 leading

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 297
*SLRUM297*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The most economical power factors when KW demand is constant and when
KVA is constant are
a) Same
b) Different
c) May be same or different
3) The modern trend in electrical power generation is
a) to have large number of small size thermal plants located at different
places
b) to have large size thermal plants near load centre
c) to have large size thermal plants located near coal fields
4) A power system needs injection of vars
a) at peak load
b) at off peak load
c) both a) and b)
d) when a load is neither too high nor too low
5) Electrical energy losses in transmission, distribution, transformation and energy
theft in India are about
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 30%
*SLRUM297*
SLR-UM 297
-3-
6) The liquid fuels have carbon percentage near about

a) 85% to 90%
b) 75% to 85%
c) 65% to 75%
d) 55% to 65%
7) Which of the power plants has the highest total installed capacity in India ?
a) Diesel plant
b) Gas turbine plant
c) Hydro-electric plant
d) Steam plant
8) The power which must be available even under emergency conditions is known
as
a) Spinning reserve
b) Cold reserve
c) Firm reserve
d) Hot reserve
9) Two part tariff is generally used for

a) Industrial consumers
b) Residential consumers
c) Commercial consumers
d) Residential and commercial consumers
10) Block meter rate is generally used for
a) Industrial consumers only
b) Residential consumers only
c) Commercial consumers only
d) Industrial and commercial consumers
__________________
*SLRUM297*
-5-
SLR-UM 297
Seat
No.

ENERGY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 12.00 noon
Marks : 40
Instructions : 1) Attempt all the questions.

2. Brief the details of the Indian Electricity Act 2003.
10
3. What is the impact of tariff on energy management ?
10
OR
Explain the different aspects of Demand side management.
a) Commercial and non-commercial energy
b) Cusum technique
c) Energy needs of growing economy
d) Captive power and its utilization
e) Need of energy audit
f) Electrical instruments required for energy audit.
________________
10
20
Code No. SLR-UM
298
*SLRUM298*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

POWER SYSTEM II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
N. B. :
For Office Use only
Code No.
1) The vector and circuit diagrams should be drawn in

respective questions.
2) The standard abbreviations are used.
3) The assumptions made by you should be neatly explained.
4) The figures must be neatly drawn.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 298
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM298*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W

1. Note : i) All questions are compulsory and carry one mark each.
ii) The tick mark or dots should be done for correct option.
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) In case of symmetrical power system ____________

a) All self impedances of all 3-phase are equal
b) The mutual impedances are unequal
c) The self impedances of all 3-phases are equal and mutual
impedances are the same if any
d) All of the above
2) A 100 MVA transformer with 5% reactance will have a reactance of
10% at _______
a) 100(MVA)B
b) 400(MVA)B
c) 200(MVA)B
d) 300(MVA)B
3) The new p.u. impedance if the new base MVA is twice the old base
MVA will be ___________
a) Four times of old p.u. impedance
b) Twice the old p.u. impedance
c) Same as the old p.u. impedance
d) Thrice the old p.u. impedance
4) Constant impedance representation of load is quite often used in ___________
a) Load flow studies
b) Stability studies
c) Security studies
d) All of the above
*SLRUM298*
-3-
SLR-UM 298
5) YBUS is used in power system studies and ZBUS is used for

short-circuit studies. They __________
b) Are inverse of each other
a) Are the same
c) Have no-inter-relation
d) None of above
6) An acceleration factor is used for __________ method of load flow studies.
a) Gause-Diedel
b) Newton-Raphson
c) De-coupled
d) All of above
7) Regulating transformers are used in power system for control of __________
b) p.f.
a) Voltage
c) Power flow
d) All of above
8) Which of the following reactance of a machine is the smallest ___________
a) Leakage reactance
b) Transient reactance
c) Sub-transient reactance
d) Steady state reactance
9) In comparison with time constant of the field winding, the time
constant of damper winding is ______________
a) Smaller
b) Larger
c) The same
d) None of above
10) In a 3-ph system, the vector sum of phase current is zero, then there
will be no. ________________
a) Positive sequence component
b) Negative sequence component
c) Zero sequence component
d) All of the above
11) Phase shift of sequence components occur in ___________
b) Y- transformer
a) Y-Y transformer
c) -Y transformer
d) Both b) and c)
12) The phase sequence of negative sequence component is _______________
a) Same as the original unbalanced phase
b) Opposite to that of original unbalanced phasor
c) Can not be determined
13) In a balance 3-ph system, negative and zero sequence currents
are _________________
b) Equal
a) Absent
c) Infinite
d) Present
SLR-UM 298
*SLRUM298*
-4-
14) Inter connection of sequence networks in case of two conductors open faults
is similar to a ____________
a) L-G fault
b) L-L fault
c) LLG fault
d) DLG fault
15) Series type of faults are characterised by ______________
a) An increase in current and frequency
b) Increase in voltage and frequency and full in current
c) Increase in current and voltage and fall in frequency
d) None of above
16) When bundled conduction are used in place of single conductor, the
effective inductance and capacitance will respectively ____________
a) Decrease and increased
b) Remain unaffected and increase
c) Decrease and remain unaffected
d) Increase and decrease
17) If X is the synchronous reactance and R is resistance of a transmission line,
then the power flow is maximum when ________________
a) X = R
b) X = 2 R
c) X = 3 R
d) X = 2R
18) The critical clearing time is related to _____________

a) Steady state stability limit
b) Transient stability limit
c) Short circuit current limit
d) Reactive power unit
19) The swing equation can be solved using
a) Crarys EAC
b) Runge-Kuttas method
c) Modified Euler method
d) Both b) and c)
20) Swing equation gives ________________
a) Variation of power w.r.t. time
b) Variation of load angle with respect to time
c) Variation of power with respect to load angle
d) None of above
__________________
*SLRUM298*
-5-
SLR-UM 298
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

POWER SYSTEM II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N. B. :
Marks : 80
1) The vector and circuit diagrams should be drawn in

respective questions.
2) The standard abbreviation are used.
3) The assumptions made by you should be neatly explained.
4) The figures must be neatly drawn.
SECTION I
2. Answer any four questions :
(45=20)
1) Derive an expression for formation of impedance matrix when adding branch

impedances between two existing buses.
2) Derive an expression for power flow equation for load-flow analysis in polar form.
3) Explain the step by step algorithm for fast decoupled load-flow analysis.
4) For circuit shown in the figure, obtain the bus admittance matrix. Eliminate
nodes 3 and 4.
SLR-UM 298
-6-
*SLRUM298*
5) A d.c. series motor rated at 220 V 100 Amp has an admittance resistance of
0.15 and field resistance of 0.2 . The friction and windage losses is
1650 watts. Calculate the efficiency of the machine by using p.u. system.
6) Find the steady state stability limit of a line with |VS| and |VR| fixed and
Z = R + jX. If R is constant and X is varied find X in terms of R if VS = VR
and also find the corresponding power.
3. Answer any two questions :
(210=20)
1) Derive an expression for Newton-Raphson load flow analysis with assumptions.

2) For the network shown in fig. obtain the complex bus-bar voltages at the end
of fixed, iteration using G-S method. Bus I is slack bus with V1 = 1.0 0 0 take
P2 + jQ2 = 5.96 + j1.46, P3 = 6.02 and |V3| = 1.02. Assume V30 = 1.02 0 0
and V20 = 1.0 00 .
Figure Line impedances in p.u.

3) The three parts of a single phase electric system are designated A, B and C
and are connected to each other through transformers. The transformer rated
as follows
A B 10 MVA, 13.8 KV/138 KV leakage reactance 10%
B C 10 MVA, 69/138 KV leakage reactance 8%
If base in circuit B is choosen as 10 MVA, 138 KV, find the p.u. impedance of
the 300 resistive load in circuit C-referred to circuit C B and A. Draw the
impedance diagram of the system. Determine the voltage regulation if the
voltage at the load is 66 KV with the assumption that the voltage input to
circuit A remain constant. Figure is as follows.
*SLRUM298*
-7-
SLR-UM 298
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Describe the transients occurring in a transmission line on occurrence of a

short-circuit.
2) Derive an expression for symmetrical components in terms of phase voltages.
3) Derive an expression for line to line fault on an unloaded generator through a
fault impedance.
4) A 3-ph alternator rated 40 MVA, 11 KV, 50 Hz is running at rated speed and
developing rated voltage. The generator neutral is isolated and an LLG fault
takes place on phases B and C. Determine the fault current in p.u. given
X1 = 0.3 p.u. X2 = 0.2 p.u. and X0 = 0.1 p.u. Find the fault current in Amps.
5) A 3-ph generator rated 300 MVA 23 KV is supplying a system load of 240 MVA,
0.9 p.f. lagging at 230 KV through a 330 MVA 23 230 Y KV step-up transformer
of leakage reactance 11.0%. Neglect the magnetising current and choosing
base value at the load of 100 MVA and 230 KV. Find IA, IB, IC supplied to the
load as p.u.
6) In a 3-ph 3 wire system the currents are Ia = 100 0 0 A and Ib = 100 100 0 A.
Determine the sequence components of line currents.
1) Derive an expression for
i) Single line ground fault on an unloaded generator.
ii) Double line to ground fault on an unloaded generator.
(210=20)
SLR-UM 298
-8-
*SLRUM298*
2) A 25 MVA, 11 KV 3-ph generator has a X = 20 % . The generator supplies

two motors over a transmission line with transformer at both ends as shown
in fig.
The motor have rated input of 15 and 7.5 MVA both 10 KV with 25% = X . The
3-ph transformers are both rated 30 MVA, 8 121 KV, connection Y with
X = 10% each, the series reactance of line is 100 . Calculate the fault
current when a single line to ground fault occurs at F. The motors are located
to draw ISI 7.5 MW at 10 KV and 0.8 p.f. lagging. Assume that negative
sequence reactance is equal to positive sequence reactance. The zero
sequence reactance are shown in fig Omit resistances.
3) Two generators are connected and in parallel to the low voltage side of 3-ph
Y transformer the readings of machines are,
Generator G1 = 50 MVA, 13.8 KV, X5 = 25%
Generator G2 = 25 MVA, 13.8 KV, Xs = 25%
Transformer T = 75 MVA, 13 .8 69 Y KV, X = 10%.
Before the fault occurs, the voltage on the high voltage side of the transformer
is 66 KV. The transformer is unloaded and there is no circulating current
between the generators. Find the sub-transient current in each generator
when a 3-ph fault occurs on HV side of the transformer.
_______________
Code No. SLR-UM
299
Seat
No.
*SLRUM299*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________

CONTROL SYSTEM II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

ii) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
Marks : 20
20
1) The steady state error of a control system can be reduced by increasing

a) gain constant of the system
b) time constant of the system
c) both gain and time constant of system
d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 299
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM299*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Usually a lag network for compensation consist of

b) R and L elements
a) R element
c) R and C elements
d) R, L and C elements
3) Which of the following is used to increase the bandwidth of a control system ?
a) Phase lag compensator
b) Phase lead compensator
d) All of these
1 + 0.5s
4) The transfer function is
. It represents a
1+ s
b) Lag network
a) Lead network
c) Lag-lead network
d) proportional controller
5) A phase lag-lead network introduces in the output
a) lag at all frequencies
b) lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies
c) lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies
6) In a control system integral error compensation ______________ steady
state error.
b) minimizes
a) increases
c) does not have any effect
7) Addition of zeros in the transfer function causes which of the following ?
b) Lag compensation
a) Lead compensation
c) Lead-lag compensation
*SLRUM299*
-3-
SLR-UM 299
8) With the knowledge of state space representation the transfer function of

the system
a) can be determined partly
b) can be determined completely
c) cannot be determined
= AX ,
9) The state variable description of a linear autonomous system is, X
where X is the two dimensional state vector and A is the system matrix given
0
by A =
2
2
. The poles of the system are located at
0
a) j2 and + j2
b) + 2 and + 2
c) 2 and + 2
d) 2 and 2
10) The state variable approach can be applied to ______________ system(s).

b) Non-linear
a) Time variant
c) Linear and time-invariant
d) All of the above
11) Which of the following is the non-linear system ?
a) Temperature controlled smelting furnace
b) Servomotor working in saturation
c) Automatic voltage stabilizers
d) All of the above
12) In non-linear control system limit cycle is self-sustained oscillations of
a) fixed frequency
b) variable frequency
c) variable amplitude
d) fixed frequency and amplitude
13) For which of the following reasons non linearities are introduced ?
a) To simplify the system
b) To achieve special characteristics
c) Both a) and b)
SLR-UM 299
*SLRUM299*
-4-
14) A network has a pole at s = 1 and a zero at s = 2. If this network is excited

by sinusoidal input, the output
a) leads the input
b) lags the input
c) is in phase with input
d) decays exponentially to zero
15) The information contained in a signal is preserved in the sampled version if

a) s = m
b) s = 0 .5m
c) s = 0.1m
d) s = 2m
16) The characteristic polynomial of a discrete time system is given by

z2 + z + a. for what value of a is the system stable ?
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 1.5
d) 0.5
17) For a unity feedback system, the origin of the s-plane is mapped in the
z-plane by transformation z = esT to which one of the following ?
a) Origin
b) 1 + j0
c) 1 + j0
d) 0 + j1
18) Leading compensation network is

a) equalizer
b) high pass filter
c) low pass filter
d) none of these
19) About which of the following is the phase-plane portrait for the non-linear
system given by x + f(x, x ) and satisfying f( x, x ) = f( x, x ) , symmetrical ?
a) X-axis
b) -axis
c) both the X and -axes
d) neither X nor -axes
20) Isocline method is used for which one of the following

a) Design of non-linear system
b) Construction of root loci of non-linear system
c) Construction of phase trajectories on NL systems
d) Stability analysis of NL systems
__________________
*SLRUM299*
-5-
SLR-UM 299
Seat
No.

CONTROL SYSTEM II

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Derive the realization of lag compensator circuit.

b) Explain the procedure to design lead compensator using root locus technique.
c) A feedback system is having the closed loop transfer function
s 2 + 3s + 3
construct a state model for the system.
s 3 + 2s 2 + 3s + 1
1
0
0
d) Find the eigen values A = 0

0
1 .
6
11
6
T(s) =
e) Find the output response of the system given by

1 x 1 0
x 1 0
0
1
=
+ u( t ) and C =
to unit step input with
x 2 2
3 x 2 1
0
1
x(0) = [1 1].
K
3. a) The controlled plant of a unity feedback control system is G(s) =
.
s(s + 10)2
It is specified that velocity error constant of the system be equal to 20, while
the damping ratio of the dominant roots be 0.707. Design a suitable lag
compensator to meet the specifications.
10
b) Design a lead compensator for a unity feedback system with OLTF
K
G(s) =
to satisfy the following specifications :
s(s + 1) (s + 5)
a) Kv 50
b) Phase margin 20.
OR
10
SLR-UM 299
-6-
*SLRUM299*
b) Find the state transition matrix (t) using Laplace transform method
x 1 0
=
x 2 2
1 x1
.
3 x 2
10
SECTION II
(54=20)
a) Explain limit cycle phenomenon in the non-linear control systems.

b) Explain delta method for construction of phase trajectories.
c) Explain in short the sample and hold device.
d) Determine the inverse z-transform of z-domain function.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Construct a phase trajectory by delta method for a non linear system

represented by the differential equation. Choose the initial conditions as
x(0) = 1.0 and (0) = 0.
b) Explain the stability analysis by Juris stability test for discrete time control
system.
c) Explain the mapping between s-plane and z-plane and for the block diagram
given below.
i) Find the output Y(s) and its samples Y*(s)

ii) Find, if it exists, the transfer function between the sampled input and
sampled output.
__________________
SLR-UM 3
*SLRUM3*
Seat
No.

BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

2) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first
30 minutes in OMR sheet given. Each question carries
one mark.
Marks : 20
I. Solve the following :

1) 1 Joule = _______________ calories.
a) 0.28
b) 0.24
c) 0.22
d) 4.166
2) The effective resistance of the parallel combination of resistances is always
__________ the smallest individual resistance in the parallel combination.
a) greater than
b) smaller than
c) equal to
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 3
*SLRUM3*
-2-
3) The equivalent resistance of a series parallel circuit as shown in fig. will be
a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) 16
4) One _________ is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature
of 1 gram of water through 1 C.
a) joule
b) calorie
c) watt
5) Practically the value of leakage factor in a magnetic circuits is __________

a) between 0 and 1
b) 1
c) greater than 1
6) In the open circuit test of transformer, the wattmeter reads ___________

a) iron losses
b) copper losses
c) both
d) partly each
7) The unit for measurement of reluctance is

a) AT/Weber
b) Web/m
c) A/Wb-m
d) Weber/m2
8) The tendency of the magnetic flux to spread out at the edges of the air gap is
called as magnetic ___________
a) leakage
b) fringing
c) distortion
d) displacement
Set A
*SLRUM3*
-3-
SLR-UM 3
9) According to Fleming right hand rule the thumb points in direction of _________
a) flux
b) emf or current
c) conductor motion
10) In alternating current is given by i = 14.14 sin 377 t. Its time period is _________
a) 20 ms
b) 16.67 ms
c) 2.65 ms
d) 5.3 ms
11) The inductive reactance of a circuit ____________ with the increase in supply
frequency.
a) decreases
b) remains unchanged
c) unpredictable
d) increases
12) The circuit has an impedance of (1-2 j) ohm. The susceptance of the
circuit is
a) 0.1 Siemens
b) 0.2 Siemens
c) 0.4 Siemens
13) In three phase induction motor air gap flux is ____________

a) stationary
b) rotating at motor speed
c) rotating at synchronous speed
d) pulsating
14) The active component Ic of the no load current Io of a transformer is supposed
to __________ under no load condition.
a) produce flux
b) supply the total loss
c) both a) and b)
15) Ideal value of voltage regulation of a transformer is __________ %.

a) 100
b) 0
c) 50
d) 25
Set A
SLR-UM 3
-4-
*SLRUM3*
16) In a balanced star connected system line voltages are __________ ahead of
their respective phase voltages.
a) 30
b) 60
c) 120
17) The algebraic sum of instantaneous phase voltages in a three phase circuit
is equal to ___________
a) zero
b) line voltage
c) phase voltage
18) At start slip of the induction motor is __________
a) zero
b) 0.5
c) one
d) infinite
19) The expression for the circuit current of a particular circuit with voltage V at
angle zero.
i (t) = Im sin (wt +
/2). The type of the circuit is __________
a) Purely inductive
b) R-L circuit
c) Purely capacitive
d) R-C circuit
20) At _________ the p.f. of series R-L-C circuit is unity.
a) Q-point
b) Resonance
c) Operating point
_____________________
Set A
*SLRUM3*
SLR-UM 3
-5-

SECTION I
(46=24)
a) An iron ring of mean length of 50 cm has an air gap of 1 mm and winding of

200 turns. If the permeability of the iron is 400 when a current of 1.25 A flows
through the coil. Find out the flux density.
b) A heater is required to give 900 cal/min on a 100 V. d.c. circuit what length of
wire is required for this heater if its resistance is 3 per meter ?
c) Define (i) Form factor (ii) Peak factor (iii) Power factor.
d) A network of resistances is formed as follows as in fig. AB = 9 ; BC = 1 ;
CA = 1.5 forming a delta and AD = 6 ; BD = 4 and CD = 3 forming a
star. Compute the network resistance measured between A and B.
e) State maximum power transfer theorem, derive the condition for maximum
power transfer. Write formula of maximum power.
f) A 10 cm3 of copper (a) drawn into wire of 100 m long, (b) rolled into a square
sheet of 10 cm side. Find the resistance of wire and the resistance of the
sheet between opposite faces. Copper = 1.7107 -m.
III. a) An alternating current of frequency 60 Hz has a maximum value of 100 Amp.

Write down the equation for its instantaneous value Reckoning time from the
instant the current is zero and is becoming positive :
(82=16)
Find : I) the instantaneous value after 0.002778 second.
II) the time taken to reach 80 Amp at the first time.
Set A
SLR-UM 3
-6-
*SLRUM3*
b) Find the voltage Vda in the network shown in Fig. if R is (a) 10

(b) 20 .
and
OR
c) Compare similarities and differences of Magnetic and Electric circuits.
SECTION II
(64=24)
a) Derive the emf equation for single phase transformer.

b) In a series circuit containing pure resistance and pure inductance, the current
and the total voltage are expressed as
i(t) = 10 sin (314 t + 2 /3)
v(t) = 20 sin (314 t + 5 /6)

Find :
i) Impedance
iii) Inductance of the circuit
ii) Resistance
iv) Average power drawn
c) Explain with neat diagram the working principle of D.C. motor.

d) A 3300 V/200 V, 50 Hz, 100 KVA transformer has its low voltage winding with
80 turns. Calculate :
i) Current in both the windings
ii) Number of turns of high voltage windings
iii) Maximum value of the flux.
Given that transformer is fully loaded.
Set A
*SLRUM3*
SLR-UM 3
-7-
e) A balanced 3 phase delta connected load draws 10 A of line current and 3 kw

at 220 V. Determine the value of resistance and reactance of each phase of
load.
f) A capacitor of 50 microfarad is connected in parallel with a coil that has
and inductance of 0.05 H. If this parallel combination is
resistor of 20
connected across 200 V, 50 Hz supply. Calculate :
i) Total current
ii) Power factor
iii) Power consumed.
(82=16)
a) Derive the relation between line and phase voltages in three phase balanced
star connected system.
b) Explain the construction and working of capacitor star single phase induction
motor. Give the application of the above motor.
c) A 230 V, 50 Hz, A.C. supply is applied to the coil of 0.06 H inductance and
2.5 resistance connected in series with a 6.8
capacitor. Calculate :
(i) Impedance (ii) Current (iii) Phase angle (iv) Power factor (v) Power
consumed.
_____________________
Set A
Code No.
SLR-UM 30
*SLRUM30*
Seat
No.

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 50

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N. B. : 1) Question No. I is MCQ, which is compulsory.

2) M.C.Q. shall be solved in first 15 minutes.
Marks : 10
I. Choose and tick the most appropriate answer :
10
1) Presence of organic matter in ingredients of concrete ___________

strength.
a) Improves
b) Reduces
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 30
*SLRUM30*
-2-
DO
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2) The compressive strength of concrete after 7 days of curing (shall

not be less than) ___________ times characteristic strength.
a)
1
2
b)
1
3
c)
2
3
d)
1
4
3) The unit for fineness of cement determined by using blank apparatus

is ___________
a)
c)
gm
cm
cm2
gm
b)
gm
cm3
3
d) cm gm
4) Recommended slump values as per IS : 456 2000 for low degree

of workability of concrete is between ___________ mm.
a) 100 150
b) 25 75
c) 75 100
d) None of a, b, c
5) Additives are compounds added at the time of ___________ to

improve properties of concrete.
a) Manufacturing of cement
b) Mixing concrete
c) Placing of concrete
d) None of a, b, c
6) Fineness modulus of medium sand is between ___________

a) 2.3 to 2.6
b) 2.9 to 3.2
c) 2.6 to 2.9
d) None
*SLRUM30*
-3-
SLR-UM 30
7) Bleeding of concrete means ___________

a) Separation of constituents of a homogeneous mixture of concrete
b) Accumulation of water at the surface, separating itself from the
solid constituents
8) For curing the concrete cubes by immersion in water the temperature
of water shall be
a) 10 2C
b) 15 2C
c) 23 2C
d) 27 2C
9) Bulking of sand affects ___________

a) Free water cement ratio
b) Quantity of sand to be added
c) Quantity of coarse aggregate to be added
d) Both a) and b)
e) a), b) and c)
10) Factors affecting drying shrinkage are
a) Material and mix proportion
b) Type and quantity of aggregate
c) Type and quantity of cement
d) Environmental condition
e) All above
f) None of above
_____________________
*SLRUM30*
-5-
SLR-UM 30
Seat
No.

CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Marks : 40
N. B. : Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.

II. Write notes on any three :
18
a) Methods of curing
b) Non distructive tests on concrete
c) Compounds of cement and their significance
d) Light weight concrete.
III. Write on any two :
12
a) Workability of concrete and its methods its determination.

b) Methods of compaction.
c) Permeability of concrete.
IV. Discuss IS code method of concrete mix design.
_______________
10
Code No. SLR-UM
300
*SLRUM300*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________

MICROPROCESSOR AND ITS APPLICATIONS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data if necessary.

Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct alternatives :

1) RST 5.5 is a ________________
a) Interrupt signal
c) Reset signal
20
b) DMA request signal
d) Control signal
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 300
*SLRUM300*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Total number of T-states required for LXI RP, 16 bit data are _______
a) 10
b) 5
c) 4
d) 6
3) Which of the following is programmable interrupt controller ?

a) 8253
b) 8255
c) 8259
d) 8251
4) Following is the non markable interrupt

a) RST 7.5
b) RST 5.5
c) INTR
d) TRAP
5) A = 4A, H = 20, L = AF, at memory location 20 AF, F2 is stored and instruction

ANAM is executed. What will be the content of A ?
a) 42
b) F2
c) 4A
d) D8
6) The address capability of 8085 is _________

a) 32 KB
b) 16 KB
c) 64 KB
d) 8 KB
7) How many I/O ports can 8085 access ?

a) 8
b) 16
c) 64
d) 256
*SLRUM300*
-3-
8) RAM is __________ memory.

a) Non-volatile
b) Volatile
c) Permanent
d) Non-erasable
9) In I/O mapped I/O address width is ___________

a) 8 bit
b) 16 bit
c) 32 bit
d) None
10) The vector address of RST 7.5 is ____________

a) 2400 H
b) 3C00 H
c) 2C00 H
d) 0028 H
11) SIM means ___________

a) Simple Interrupt Mask
b) Set Interrupt Mask
c) Serial Interface Mask
d) Set Internal Mask
12) 8255 has ____________ programmable I/O pins.
a) 12
b) 24
c) 16
d) 128
13) D/A converter are classified into ___________ category.

a) Current output
b) Voltage output
c) Multiplying output
d) All
14) In mode 0 of 8255 following is the true ____________

a) Outputs are not latched
b) Inputs are not latched
c) Outputs and inputs both are latched
d) None
15) 8259 A has ___________ blocks.
a) Six
b) Four
c) Eight
d) Ten
SLR-UM 300
SLR-UM 300
*SLRUM300*
-4-
16) IRR has ____________ input lines for interrupts.

a) Six
b) Four
c) Eight
d) Ten
17) How many Interrupt levels are handled by 8259 ?

a) 64
b) 128
c) 16
d) None
18) How many counters are there in 8253 programmable timer ?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
19) When CS = 0 , A1 = 1, A0 = 0 following port is selected for 8255 ?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) Control Register
20) BSR mode of 8255 is concerned only with 8 bits of port __________
a) A
b) C
c) B
d) None
__________________
*SLRUM300*
-5-
SLR-UM 300
Seat
No.

MICROPROCESSOR AND ITS APPLICATIONS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data if necessary.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
1) Explain following instruction

a) LHLD 8000 H
b) XCHG
c) DAA
d) IMP C200 H
e) SHLD 5000 H
2) Draw and explain timing diagram of opcode fetch.
3) Differentiate between Hardware and Software interrupt.
4) Explain single step and single cycle execution.
5) Write assembly program to find the largest number from given series of 8 bit
nos. (make suitable assumption).
3. a) Interface 8K 8 memory to 8085 using 2K 8 memory chips. Select starting
address 8000 H. Give address range of each chip used.
10
b) Write an assembly language program to multiply two numbers in memory
locations 8500 and 8501 H. Store results in different memory location. Draw
flowchart also.
10
OR
c) Draw and explain architecture of 8085.
10
SLR-UM 300
-6-
*SLRUM300*
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Draw the block diagram of 8254 and explain.

2) Explain different priority modes of 8259.
3) Differentiate between synchronous and asynchronous transmission.
4) Draw and explain block diagram of control logic and registers of 8251.
5) What is PPI ? Explain.
5. 1) Design an interfacing circuit to setup bidirectional data communication in
Master-slave format between two 8085 using 8255.
2) With the help of neat schematic describe the data acquisition system to
measure current and power factor by using 0809 ADC with 8085.
OR
3) Design traffic light controller using 8085 (make suitable assumptions).
______________
10
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 301
*SLRUM301*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

POWER ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) The ON-State voltage drop across SCR whose supply voltage is 250V,
is of the order of
a) 100-110 V
b) 240-250 V
c) 1 to 1.5
d) 0.5 to 1 V
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 301
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The SCR is turns-off when the anode current falls below

a) Forward current rating
b) Break over voltage
c) Holding current
d) Latching current
3) A SCR is ______________ switch.
a) Two directional
b) Unidirectional
c) Three directional
d) Four directional
4) The di/dt capability of a thyristor increases
a) When the gate current is zero
b) When the gate current increases
c) When the gate current decreases
d) When anode to cathode voltage rating increases
5) In a GTO, anode current begins to fall when gate current
a) Is negative peaks at time t = 0
b) Is negative peak at t = storage period ts
c) Just begins to become negative and t = 0
d) None of these
6) Which of the following PNPN device has two gates ?
b) SCS
a) Triac
c) SUS
d) Diac
*SLRUM301*
*SLRUM301*
-3-
SLR-UM 301
7) The uncontrolled electronic switch employed in power-electronic

converter is
b) BJT
a) SCR
c) Diode
d) MOSFET
8) Which semiconductor power device out of the following is not a current
triggering device ?
b) GTO
a) SCR
c) Triac
d) MOSFET
9) For continuous conduction in a 1-phase full converter each pair of
SCRs conducts for
a) ( )radians
b) -radians
c) -radians
d) ( + )radians
10) A freewheeling diode is placed across the DC load
a) To prevent the reversal of load voltage
b) To permit transfer of load current away from the source
c) Both a) and b)
11) For the operation of 1-phase full converter in fourth quadrant
a) > 90 degrees
b) < 90 degrees
c) = 90 degrees
12) In a DC chopper per unit ripple is maximum when duty cycle D is
b) 0.5
a) 0.2
c) 0.7
d) 0.8
13) In dc choppers, if T is the chopping period then the o/p voltage can be
controlled by PWM by varying
a) T, keeping Ton Constant
b) Ton, keeping T Constant
c) T, keeping Toff Constant
d) Toff, keeping T Constant
SLR-UM 301
-4-
*SLRUM301*
14) Uninterrupted power supplies used in

a) Computers
b) Communication links
c) Essential instruments
d) All of the above
15) In a circulating-current type of dual converter, the name of the voltage
across the reactor is
b) Pulsating
a) Alternating
c) Direct
d) Triangular
16) When a thyristor turn on, the gate drive
a) Can be turned down but thyristor remains in on position
b) Cannot be turned down as thyristor will be turned off
c) Gate drive has no impact on starting and turning off the thyristor
17) In a thyristor, ratio of latching current to holding current is
b) 1.0
a) 0.4
c) 2.5
d) 4.0
18) Chopper control for DC motor provides variation in
b) Frequency
a) Input voltage
c) Both a) and b)
19) The efficiency of the chopper can be expected in the range
b) 65% to 72%
a) 50% to 55%
c) 82% to 87%
d) 92% to 99%
20) A PWM switching scheme is used with a three phase inverter to
a) Reduce the total distortion with modest filtering
b) Minimize the load on DC side
c) Increase the life of the batteries
d) Reduce low order harmonics and increase high order harmonics
_____________________
*SLRUM301*
-5-
SLR-UM
301
SLR-UM
301
Seat
No.

POWER ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) List all the turn off methods of SCR and explain any one of them.
b) Explain the effect of freewheeling diode on performance of controlled rectifiers.
c) Draw the construction of IGBT and explain switching characteristics.
d) Draw and explain single phase dural converter.
e) If the half-wave controlled rectifier has a purely resistive load of R and the
. Determine,
3
Rectification efficiency
Form factor
Ripple factor
PIV of SCR T1.
delay angle is =
a)
b)
c)
d)
3. Solve any two :

(210=20)
a) Draw the circuit for fully controlled rectifier and explain its two quadrant
operation. Derive the formula used for explanation
b) Draw construction diagram of depletion type MOSFET and explain its output
and transfer characteristics.
c) i) Derive the performance factors of line commutated converters.
ii) A single phase semi converter is operated from 120V, 50Hz ac supply.
The load current with an average value Idc is continuous and ripple free
. Determine.
6
a) Displacement factor
firing angle =
b) Harmonic factor of i/p current

c) i/p P.F.
SLR-UM 301
-6-
*SLRUM301*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Find the equation for o/p voltage of step-up chopper.

b) What is PWM ? List the various PWM techniques. How do these differ from
each other ?
c) Draw and explain 1-phase full bridge inverter.
d) List the types of UPS and explain static UPS system.
e) A Chopper circuit is operating on TRC at a frequency of 2 kHz on a 460 V
supply. If the load voltage is 350 volts, calculate the conduction period of the
thyristor in each cycle.
5. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Discuss the principle of working of 3-phase inverter with appropriate waveform
and circuit diagram on assumption that each thyristor conduct for 120 degree
and resistive load is star connected.
b) A dc chopper in figure has a resistive load of R = 10 and input voltage of
V = 200 V. When chopper is ON, its voltage drop is 2 V and the chopping
frequency is 1 kHz. If the duty cycle is 60%, determine :
i) Average output voltage.
ii) RMS value of output voltage.
iii) Chopper efficiency.
c) Derive any expression for critical values of inductor and capacitor in case of
buck-boost regulator.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
302
*SLRUM302*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________

ENGINEERING ECONOMICS AND INDUSTRIAL MANAGEMENT
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

1. 1) Which of the following is characteristics of good organisation ?
Marks : 20
20
a) Accomplish an objective
b) Interdisciplinary
c) Decision oriented
d) All of the above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 302
*SLRUM302*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Percentage of coal fuel in commercial energy consumption in year 2005-06.

a) 80
b) 56
c) 29
d) 33
3) Which of the following indicators are consider for measuring organisational

effectiveness ?
a) Ability to produce useful result
b) Productivity
c) Quality
d) All of the above
4) Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) set up by Gov. in
a) 1987
b) 1985
c) 1986
d) 1965
5) Which is the correct sequence in line organisation ?
a) General Manager, Work Manager, Production Superintendent
b) General Manager, Production Superintendent, Work Manager
c) Production Superintendent, Work Manager, General Manager
6) Minimum number of member in private company are
a) 1
b) 2
c) 7
d) 20
*SLRUM302*
-3-
SLR-UM 302
7) SAVE means
a) Society of American Value Engineering
b) Secretory of American Value Engineering
c) Symbol of American Value Engineering
8) Partnership has been defined by Indian Partnership Act
b) 1931
a) 1932
c) 1942
d) 1941
9) Objective of value analysis
a) To increase profit
c) To reduce cost of product
b) To decrease efficiency
d) Both a) and c)
10) Measures to tackle the energy problem is

a) Stepping up of oil production
b) Control over consumption of coal
c) Expansion of electric power
d) All of the above
11) The function of management is
a) Planning
c) Directing and controlling
b) Organizing
d) All of the above
12) Planning is the ______________ function.

b) Secondary
a) Primary
c) Both a) and b)
13) Short term planning means
a) Period up to one year
b) More than two year
c) More than one year but less than two year
d) Period up to three year
14) The long form of MIS is
a) Material Information System
b) Management Information System
c) Methodology Information System
SLR-UM 302
*SLRUM302*
-4-
15) The Factories Act of 1948 came into existence on

a) 26th Dec. 1948
b) 21st June 1948
c) 1st April 1948
d) 2nd Oct. 1948
16) The term SSI means

a) System Selection Information
b) Small Scale Industries
c) Social Science Information
17) Reason of Entrepreneurial failure is
a) Poor management and technology
b) Financial problem
c) Production problem
d) Marketing problem
e) All of the above
18) Lockout means
a) The permanent closing of a place of employment
b) The temporary closing of a place of employment
c) Always opening of a place of employment
19) Working hours for adults in a factory is
a) 49 hours in a week
b) 51 hours in a week
c) 30 hours in a week
d) 48 hours in a week
20) Small scale industry is an industry where investment in plant and machinery
does not exceed
a) 5 Cr.
b) 10 Cr.
c) 2.5 Cr.
d) 3 Cr.
__________________
*SLRUM302*
-5-
SLR-UM 302
Seat
No.

ENGINEERING ECONOMICS AND INDUSTRIAL MANAGEMENT
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Explain the different aspects of make or buy decision.
10
3. Discuss the different forms of business organisations.
10
OR
3. Five year plans of India related to electrical energy.
10
20
a) Cost control methods in manufacturing industries.

b) Economic reorder quantity.
c) Partnership organisation.
d) Science and technology for economical development.
e) Infrastructure of Indian economy.
SLR-UM 302
-6-
*SLRUM302*
SECTION II
5. Discuss in detail proposal process for a project procedure.
10
6. Explain the details of private limited companies.
10
OR
6. Roll of science and technology in the economical development of a nation.
10
20
a) Project proposal process

b) Management information system
c) Indian policies for SSI
d) Functions of entrepreneur
e) Indian electricity act for transmission and use of energy
f) Safety provisions in Indian Factory Act.
__________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 303
*SLRUM303*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------T.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

UTILIZATION OF ELECTRICAL ENERGY AND ENERGY CONSERVATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) Radiant efficiency of the luminous source depends on

A) shape of the source
B) temperature of the source
C) wavelength of light rays
D) all of the above

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 303
*SLRUM303*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Light waves travel with a velocity of

A) 3 1010 cm/s
B) 3 1012 cm/s
C) 3 1015 cm/s
D) 3 1018 cm/s
3) Carbon arc lamps are commonly used in

A) domestic lighting
B) street lgihting
C) cinema projectors
D) photography
4) The unit of solid angle is

A) solid angle
B) radian
C) steradian
D) candela
5) Candela is the unit of

A) Luminous flux
B) Luminous intensity
C) Wavelength
6) The advantage of electric traction over other methods is

A) no pollution problems
B) faster acceleration
C) better braking action
D) all of the above
7) Suburban railways use

A) 1500 V DC
B) 440 V three phase AC
C) 660 V three phase AC
D) 3.3 kV three phase AC
8) Long distance railways use

A) 200 V DC
B) 25 kV single phase AC
C) 25 kV two phase AC
D) 25 kV three phase AC
*SLRUM303*
SLR-UM 303
-3-
9) The range of horsepower for diesel locomotives is

A) 100 to 500
B) 500 to 1000
C) 1500 to 2500
D) 4000 to 5500
10) Steam Engine provided on steam locomotives is

A) Single acting condensing type
B) Double acting condensing type
C) Double acting non-condensing type
D) Single acting non condensing type
11) The process of heat transfer during the reentry of satellites and missiles, at
very high speeds, into earths atmosphere is known as
A) ablation
B) radiation
C) irradiation
D) viscous dissipation
12) ____________ has the highest value of thermal conductivity.

A) Copper
B) Aluminium
C) Steel
D) Brass
13) Which of the following insulating materials was suitable for low temperature
applications ?
A) Asbestos paper
B) Cork
C) 80 percent magnesia
D) Diatomaceous earth
14) By which of the following methods the temperature inside arc nace can be
varied
A) By varying the operating voltage
B) By varying the current through heating elements
C) By any of the above method
D) By varying frequency
15) A perfect black body is one that
A) transmits all incident radiations
B) absorbs all incident radiations
C) absorbs, reflects and transmits all incident radiations
D) reflects all incident radiations
SLR-UM 303
*SLRUM303*
-4-
16) Which of the following is difficult to adopt for dimming ?

A) GLS lamps
B) Cold cathode lamps
C) Fluorescent lamps
D) All of the above
17) Heat from light source is particularly of importance while

A) designing for illumination level
B) designing for floor space utilization
C) designing for air conditioning
D) all of the above
18) In electric discharge lamps for stablizing the arc
A) a condenser is connected in parallel to supply
B) a condenser is connected in series to supply
C) a variable resistor is connected in the circuit
D) a reactive choke is connected in series with supply
19) The lens of the eye to focuses an image on the
A) corona
B) membrane
C) calorie
D) retina
20) The sensors in the eye arc known as

A) rods and cones
B) wires and nerves
C) retina and antenna
D) high and low
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM303*
SLR-UM 303
Seat
No.

UTILIZATION OF ELECTRICAL ENERGY AND ENERGY CONSERVATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
1) Explain regenerative braking with DC series motor.

2) Explain speed torque characteristic of typical different types of machines
and mechanism.
3) Explain Laws of Illumination.
4) Compare tungsten filament lamp and fluorescent lamp.
5) What are the causes of failure of heating element ?
6) Explain the principle of induction heating. What are the applications of induction
heating ?
10
a) Explain street light and flood lighting.

b) Explain modern welding techniques.
OR
b) What is discharge Lamp ? Explain sodium vapour lamp ?
10
SLR-UM 303
-6-
*SLRUM303*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
1) Define crest speed, schedule speed of train and discuss the factor affecting
schedule speed of train.
2) Explain various system of traction.
3) Explain energy conservation in small scale industries.
4) Explain starting method of traction motors.
5) Explain the factors affecting specific energy consumption of an arc electric
train.
6) Explain energy conservation in Legislation.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
1) Explain principle of energy conservation and energy conservation planning.

2) Explain speed time curve for, suburban and main line services.
3) The speed-time curve of a train consists of
i) Uniform acceleration of 6km/h/s for 25s;
ii) Free running for 10 minutes;
iii) Uniform deceleration of 6km/h/s to stop the train;
iv) A stop of 5 minutes.
Find the distance between the stations, the average and schedule speeds.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 304
*SLRUM304*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

INDUSTRIAL DRIVES AND CONTROL
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N.B. : 1) Solve all the five questions.

2) Marks are indicated to the right of questions.
Marks : 20
1. Choose correct answer :
(120=20)
1) Equal area criterion of stability is applicable to

a) Steady state stability
b) Transient stability
c) Critical stability
d) Absolute stability
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 304
*SLRUM304*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Expression for angular acceleration is given by

a) M
c) J
d2 x
dt 2
d2
dt 2
b) J
d2x
dt 2
d) M
d2
dt 2
3) Condition for steady state stability is

a)
dTL
dT
> M
dw
dw
b)
dTL
dT
< M
dw
dw
c)
dTL
dT
= M
dw
dw
4) D.C. series motor should never be started without any load on it, because
a) It draws very heavy current
b) It runs at very low speed
c) It runs at abnormal speed
d) It fails to run
5) Speed of d.c. shunt motor changes from no load to full load by

a) 25%
b) 35%
c) 20%
d) 5%
6) The value of maximum torque in 3 induction motor is

a) Independent of rotor resistance
b) Dependent on rotor resistance
c) Increases with increase in rotor resistance
d) Decreases with increase in rotor resistance
*SLRUM304*
SLR-UM 304
-3-
7) The condition for obtaining maximum torque at the time of starting in case of
3 induction motor is
a) R2 > X2
b) X2 > R2
c) R2 < X2
d) R2 = X2
8) Reluctance motor is a
a) Variable torque motor
b) Low torque, variable speed motor
c) Self starting type synchronous motor
d) Low noise, slow speed motor
9) Chopper circuit changes D.C. voltage into
a) Variable D.C.
b) Variable A.C.
c) Fixed D.C.
d) Fixed A.C.
10) In step-up chopper average output D.C. voltage is given by

a) Vav = V
1
V
b) Vav =
1
c) (1 )V
d) Vav = ( 1)V
11) Cyclo-converter changes

a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Power
d) Frequency
12) In chopper controlled resistance rotor circuit

a) Re = R
b) Re = (1+ ) R
c) Re = (1 ) R
d) Re =
1
R
13) In rotor resistance control method rms rotor current is given by

a) Irms =
3 Id
2
b) Irms =
3 Id
4
c) Irms =
2 Id
3
d) Irms =
4 Id
3
SLR-UM 304
*SLRUM304*
-4-
14) A.C. voltage regulator circuit changes

a) A.C. to D.C.
b) A.C. to variable A.C.
c) D.C. to A.C.
d) D.C. to variable D.C.
15) For best power factor operation in scherbius drive system, the rotor turns
ratio m is given by
a) m = 1.966 S
b) m = 0.966 S
max .
c) m = 1.2 S
max .
d) m = 0.922 S
max .
max .
16) In static Kramer Drive System rotor of 3 phase induction motor is connected
to Armature of d.c. motor
a) Electrically
b) Mechanically
c) a) and b)
17) Over excited syschronous motor behaves like

a) Resistive circuit
b) Inductive circuit
c) Capacitive circuit
18) Synchronous motor is used for

a) Variable speed drive
b) Constant speed drive
c) Reversible drive
d) Intermitent drive
19) 3 phase induction motor is used to drive

a) Traction load
b) Crane
c) Centrifugal pump
d) Hoist load
20) Single phase tall wave converter produces _______ nos. of pulses in output
voltage.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM304*
SLR-UM 304
Seat
No.
B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

INDUSTRIAL DRIVES AND CONTROL
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
N.B. : 1) Solve all the five questions.

2) Marks are indicated to the right of questions.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four (45=20) :
20
a) Draw the block diagram of an electric drive system and explain.

b) What do you understand by steady state stability of an electric drive system
and find the condition for steady state stability.
c) The constant speed drive has the following duty cycles.
i) Load rising from 0 to 400 KW 5 min
ii) Uniform load of 500 KW 5 min
iii) Regenerative power of 400 KW returned to supply 4 min to supply
iv) Remains idle for 2 min
Estimate the RMS power.
d) Draw V-curves and inverted V curves of synchronous motor and explain.
e) With neat circuit diagram and wave-forms explain chopper controlled d.c.
series motor drive system.
3. Solve any two (210=20) :
a) Draw the following characteristics to d.c. series and shunt motor and explain.
i) Speed load characteristics
ii) Speed torque characteristics.
b) Explain the operation of four quadrant drive system for D.C. motor.
20
SLR-UM 304
-6-
*SLRUM304*
c) 220 V, 970 RPM, 100 A, d.c. separately excited motor has armature resistance
of 0.05 . It is braked by plugging from an initial speed of 1000 RPM. Calculate.
a) Resistance to be placed in armature circuit to limit braking current to
twice the full load current.
b) Braking torque
c) Torque when the speed has fallen to zero.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four (45=20) :
20
a) With neat circuit diagram and wave forms explain static Kramers Drive
System.
b) Explain cyclo converter control of drive system.
c) Explain the operation of brush less D.C. motor drive system with circuit
diagram.
d) Write short note on battery operated drive system.
e) 200V, 875 RPM 150 Amps separately excited d.c. motor has an armature
resistance of 0.06 . It is fed from a single phase fully controlled rectifier
with an A.C. source voltage of 220 v, 50 Hz. Assuming continuous conduction
calculate firing angle for rated motor torque and 750 RPM.
5. Solve any two (210=20) :
20
a) Explain with neat circuit diagram, VSI fed 3 phase induction motor speed
control scheme.
b) Explain slip-power recovery scheme of speed control of 3 phase induction
motor using scherbius method.
c) 500 KW 3 phase 3.3 KV, 50 Hz 0.8 p.t. lagging 4 pole star connected
synchronous motor has following parameters. Xs = 15 Rs = 0 rated field
current is 10A. Calculate armature current and power factor at half the rated
torque and rated field current.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 305
Seat
No.
*SLRUM305*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------B.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

MICROCONTROLLER AND APPLICATIONS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) The 8051 microcontroller is of _____________ pin of package as a

_____________ processor.
a) 40, 8 bit
b) 20, 1 byte
c) 30, 1 byte
d) 40, 1 byte
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 305
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) MCS-51 has _____________ clock frequency.

a) 12 MHz
b) 14 MHz
c) 24 MHz
d) 36 MHz
3) LCALL is _____________ byte instruction.
b) 2
a) 3
c) 4
d) 1
4) TCON register is _____________ bit wide.
b) 6
a) 4
c) 8
d) 16
5) The 8051 has _____________ bytes of on chip RAM.
b) 128
a) 64
c) 32
d) 256
6) All interrupt are enabled by bit
a) SMOD
c) EI
b) EA
d) GATE
7) With each POP instruction, the SP is _____________ by 1.

a) Increment
b) Decrement
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
*SLRUM305*
*SLRUM305*
-3-
SLR-UM 305
8) In JZ NEXT _____________ registers contents is checked to see if it

is zero.
b) A
a) B
c) DPTR
d) R0
9) The instruction ADDC A, source places the sum in
b) Carry
a) Source
c) DPTR
d) Accumulator
10) The EA = 0, 8051 access _____________ code memory.
a) Internal
b) External
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
11) Mode _____________ is 8 bit auto reload.
b) 1
a) 0
c) 2
d) 3
12) What is the equivalent of the following instruction ?
SETB TCON.6
a) SETB TF0
b) SETB TF1
c) SETB IE
d) SETB TR1
13) Which bit of IE belongs to timer interrupt ?
a) D2 and D4
b) D5 and D6
c) D1 and D3
d) None
14) Which bit of IP belongs to serial interrupt priority ?
b) D2
a) D1
c) D3
d) D4
15) XRL an operand with itself result in
a) All ones
b) All zeros
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
SLR-UM 305
-4-
*SLRUM305*
16) Which address is assigned to register A ?

b) C0H
a) B0H
c) D0H
d) E0H
17) The output of DAC is in
a) Current
c) Power
b) Voltage
d) All of above
18) Which of the following is volatile memory ?

a) EEPROM
b) SRAM
c) Both a) and b)
d) NV-RAM
19) MOV A, @R0 is an example of _______________ addressing modes.
a) Immediate
b) Direct
c) Register indirect
d) Indexed
20) Which of the following is the bit addressable operations ?
a) PCON
b) TMOD
c) SBUF
d) None
_____________________
*SLRUM305*
-5-
SLR-UM
305
SLR-UM
305
Seat
No.
B.E. (Electrical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

MICROCONTROLLER AND APPLICATIONS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks :80
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Indicate which mode and which timer are selected for each of the following :
1) MOV TMOD, #014
2) MOV TMOD, #124
3) MOV TMOD, #204
4) MOV TMOD, #104
b) Explain interrupt structure of MCS-51 family.
c) Differentiate SJMP and LJMP instructions.
d) Write a program to check whether P7 bit of accumulator is high, if so
send FF to P1 and produce a low to high pulse on P2.1.
e) Explain the function of the registers DPTR register in 8051.
Explain the following instructions :
i) MOV DPTR, # 1200H

ii) MOV A, @, Ri.
3. a) Explain following special function registers (SFRs) in detail.
i) TMOD
ii) IE
iii) SCON
iv) IP.
b) Assume the ROM space starts at 0250 H contains India. Write program
to transfer the byte into RAM location starting from 40H.
12
8
OR
b) Draw and explain the functional block diagram of 8051.
SLR-UM 305
-6-
*SLRUM305*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Explain the function of status register in PIC 16F877.

b) Explain the steps to receive the data serially in 8051 and importance of RI flag.
c) Write short note on PIC 16F877 flash controller.
d) Explain the details of PIC 16F877 interrupts.
e) Explain all bits of IP register.
5. Solve any two :
a) Write a program to transfer message Yes serially at 9600 band rate, 8 bit data,
one start bit, one stop bit (framing).
10
b) Explain PIC 16F877 program memory and data memory.
10
c) Interface an LCD to 8051 and write a program to display INDIA on it.
10
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
306
*SLRUM306*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL MACHINE DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Missing data suitably assumed.

2) Non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3) Marks to each question is shown to the right to the
questions.
1. MCQ questions. Solve all 20 questions.
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) Following is the electrical property of the material

a) Viscosity
b) Porosity
c) Dielectric constant
d) Flash point
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 306
*SLRUM306*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Core of a transformer is built with silicon steel laminations to reduce

a) Copper loss
b) Eddy current loss
c) Hysteresis loss
d) Core loss
3) Cooling of a transformer is mainly used to

a) Limit current rise
b) Voltage rise
c) Temperature rise
d) Flux rise
4) Following loss is absent in transformer

a) Copper loss
b) Hysteresis loss
c) Eddy current loss
d) Rotation a loss
n1
5) If n = K in transformer, the resistance R2 is transferred to primary side
2
then its value becomes

a)
R2
K2
c) KR2
b) K2R2
d) None of these
6) If rotor resistance in 3 phase induction motor increases then starting torque

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
d) None of above
7) In 3-phase induction motor, if rotor resistance decreases than maximum

torque
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) None of above
*SLRUM306*
-3-
SLR-UM 306
8) In 3 phase induction motor if air-gap reduces then power factor of motor

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
d) None of above
9) Rotor bar current density in 3 phase induction motor is nearly

a) 10 15 Amp/mm2
b) 4 7 Amp/mm2
c) 1 2 Amp/mm2
d) 0 1 Amp/mm2
10) To get maximum torque at the time of starting, the condition is

a) X2 > R2
c) X2 = R2
b) X2 < R2
d) None of these
11) Rotor of single phase induction motor is of type

a) Smooth cylindrical type
b) Squirrel cage type
c) Salient pole type
12) If forward slip is then backward slip according to double revolving field
theory is
a) S
b) (1 S)
c) (2 S)
d) (S 1)
13) Self starting single phase induction motor carries __________ Nos. of
windings.
a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1
14) Single phase induction motor is used to drive

a) Traction
b) Crane
c) Hoist
d) Tape-recorder
15) Synchronous motor is

a) Singly excited
b) Doubly excited
c) Triply excited
16) In alternator Kp and Kd are of the order of

a) 0.95 0.97
b) 1 2
c) 1.5 1.8
d) 10 20
SLR-UM 306
*SLRUM306*
-4-
17) In alternator regulation, following is the optimistic method

a) EMF method
b) MMF method
c) Pottier triangle method
d) None of these
18) Synchronising power in synchronous machine is a function of

a) sin
b) cos
c) tan
d) cot
19) Under excited synchronous motor is like a

a) Resistor
b) Capacitor
c) Inductor
d) Damping
20) Salient pole synchronous machine extra torque than smooth cylindrical
machine. This extra torque is known as
a) Reactance torque
b) Reluctance torque
c) Resistance torque
__________________
*SLRUM306*
-5-
SLR-UM 306
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Missing data suitably assumed.

2) Non-programmable calculator is allowed.
3) Marks to each question is shown to the right to the
questions.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four of the following :
(45=20)
a) Find per phase induced EMF in transformer and also show that EMF lags the
flux by
angle.
2
b) Show that gross core area of 3 stepped transformer core is approximately

85% of the area of the circumscribing circle.
c) Show that E t = K S where S is KVA rating and K is some constant.
d) Find the current in bars and end rings of cage rotor of 3 induction motor,
6-poles, 72 stator slots with 15 conductors in each slot. If the stator current
per phase is 20 A and rotor slots are 55.
e) Show that overload capacity of 3 phase induction motor is given by
1+
2
where is dispersion co-efficient.

(210=20)
a) Calculate the main dimensions of a 125 KVA 6.6/0.4 KV, 50 Hz - 1 phase

shell type transformer taking Et = 10 V. Flux density in core is 1.1 web/m2
current density = 2 Amp/mm2. Window space factor = 0.33 staking factor = 0.9.
SLR-UM 306
-6-
*SLRUM306*
b) Find the main dimensions, Nos. of stator turns Nos. of stator slots of 5 HP,
400 V, 1500 syn. RPM sq. cage induction motor with following data
Bav = 0.46 web/m2 A.C. = 22000,
Full load efficiency = 0.83
Full load P.f. = 0.84.
c) 15 HP, 400 V, 1430 rpm 3 phase induction motor with an efficiency of 80%
and P.f = 0.81 has inner dia. of stator 30 cm and length 12 cm. Estimate the
diameter and length for 50 HP, 406 V, 4 pole 50 Hz induction motor to be
designed for 84% efficiency and 0.85 P.f. Assuming the same specific loadings
as the previous motor.
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) Explain clearly double revolving field theory of single phase induction. Find
expression for backward slip.
b) Design HP, 230 V, 50 Hz, 1430 RPM single phase resistance split phase
motor full load efficiency and P.f. should not less than 61% and 59%
respectively. Starting current should not exceed 6 times full load current take
concos as 12.2 calculate D and L of motor.
c) Why synchronous motor is not self starting list the different methods of starting
synchronous motor.
d) Derive an expression for power in case of smooth cylindrical rotor synchronous
machine.
e) Draw and explain equivalent circuit of single phase induction motor referred
to stator on the basis of double revolving field theory.
(210=20)
a) For 2500 KVA, 3.3 KV, 32 poles 50 Hz find

1) Dia. D
2) Length L
3) Periferial speed Sp. Electric loading = 30,000 specific magnetic loading = 0.68
web/m2 ratio of pole are to pole pitch is 0.65.
b) Estimate the KVA rating of 3 phase 50 Hz, 2 pole turbo motor having core
length 160 cm periferial speed 140 m/sec. ac = 525 per cm Bav = 0.52 web/m2.
Assume uniformly distributed winding.
c) With neat circuit diagram and vector diagram. Explain how torque is produced
in capacitor split phase single phase induction motor.
__________________
SLR-UM 307
Code No.
S
*SLRUM307*
&
_
_
U
s
f
C

Marks : 20
(120)
1) Which is a conventional source of energy ?

a) solar
b) radio-active substance
c) geothermal
d) wind
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 307
*SLRUM307*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Which of the following methods of generating electric power from

the sea water is more reliable ?
b) Wave power
a) Ocean currents
c) Tidal power
3) Capacity of generator and turbine are related as
a) Generator kW = Turbine kW/Turbine efficiency
b) Generator kW = Turbine kW/Generator efficiency
c) Generator kW = Turbine kW Generator efficiency
4) Gross head of hydro-electric power station is
a) The difference of water level between level in the storage and
tail race
b) The height of water level in the river where the tail race is provided
c) The height of water level in the river where the storage is provided
d) All of the above
5) Hydrograph is a similar to
a) Load duration curve
c) Energy load curve
b) Mass curve
d) Chronological load curve
6) The factors affecting the run-off are

a) Rain fall pattern, shape and size of catchment area
b) The topography and nature of soil in the catchment area
c) Amount of vegetation and weather condition in the catchment area
d) All of the above
*SLRUM307*
-3-
SLR-UM 307
7) Storage requirement can be determined from

a) Hydrograph
b) Flow-duration curve
c) Mass curve
d) Either by hydrograph or by mass curve
8) An impulse turbine
a) Is most suited for low head and high discharge power plant
b) Operates by initial complete conversion to kinetic energy
c) Makes use of drafts tube
d) Always operates submerged
9) In reaction turbine, the function of draft tube is to
a) Reduce water hammer
b) Increase flow rate of water
c) Convert kinetic energy of water to potential energy by a gradual
expansion in divergent part
10) In pumped storage scheme, the generator is also used as
a) Induction generator or synchronous condenser
b) Induction generator or synchronous motor
c) Synchronous generator or induction generator
d) Synchronous motor or synchronous condenser
11) Rankine cycle efficiency of a steam power plant is in the range of
a) 20 30%
b) 30 40%
c) 45 60%
d) 60 80%
12) Reheat cycle in a steam power station is employed for
a) Improving thermal efficiency
b) Improving condenser performance
c) Reducing heat losses
d) Utilizing heat of flue gases
13) Deaerative heating is done to
a) Heat of the steam
b) Heat the feed water
c) Remove dissolved gases in water
d) Remove dissolved solid impurities in water
SLR-UM 307
-4-
*SLRUM307*
14) In a super heater

a) Pressure rises and temperature drops
b) Temperature rises and pressure drops
c) Temperature rises and pressure remains unchanged
d) Pressure rises and temperature remains same
15) Which of the following are the fissile materials ?
b) U235 U233 and PU239
a) U238 and TH232
c) U235 and TH239
16) One fission of U235 release energy of
b) 200 MeV
a) 335 MeV
c) 430 MeV
d) 525 MeV
17) In a nuclear reactor, chain reaction is controlled by introducing
b) Cadmium rods
a) Iron rods
c) Graphite rods
d) Brass rods
18) Which of the following auxiliary consumes most of the power ?
b) Fuel pump
a) Compressor
c) Combustion chamber
d) Burner
19) Overall efficiency of gas turbine is
a) Less than that of diesel cycle
b) More than that of diesel cycle
c) More than that of otto cycle
d) Equal to that of ranking or carnot cycle
20) The combined cycle power plants are more appropriate for
b) Peak load
a) Base load
c) Intermediate load
d) For both base and peak load
______________________
*SLRUM307*
-5-
SLR-UM 307

POWER PLANT ENGINEERING
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(45=20)
1) Explain the terms :

1) Connected load
2) Maximum demand
3) Demand factor
4) Diversity factor.
2) What is the importance of electrical energy ?
3) Explain with any one example the law of conservation of energy ?
4) What do you understand by load curve ? What information is conveyed by a
load curve ?
5) What are the desirable characteristics of a tariff ?
SLR-UM 307
-6-
3. Answer the questions :
*SLRUM307*
(102=20)
1) With neat sketches explain the solar power plant and MHD power plant ?
2) With a neat diagram explain in detail the steam power station.
OR
2) Discuss the different classification of costs of electrical energy ? Derive an
expression for cost of electrical energy ?
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Briefly explain the environment pollution due to energy use ?

2) How the nuclear fuel is extracted from the ore ? Explain the nuclear chain
reaction ?
3) Explain the Hydrology cycle of HEPP.
4) What do you mean by co-generation ? What is the need for co-generation ?
5) Explain the essential factors which influence the choice of site for a HEPP ?
(102=20)
1) What are the types of nuclear reactors ? Explain any two nuclear reactors
with a neat sketch.
2) Draw the flow diagram of a diesel power station and discuss its operation.
3) What do you mean by green house gases effect ? Discuss the effects of all
types of fuels and radiations from nuclear plants.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 308A
Seat
No.
*SLRUM308A*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (Electrical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Elective I : EXTRA HIGH VOLTAGE AC TRANSMISSION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N.B. : 1) All the questions are compulsory.

2) Make suitable assumptions whenever necessary.
Marks : 20
20
1) The mechanism responsible for dielectric loss in a dielectric are

a) Conduction
b) Polarization
c) Ionisation
d) Both a) and c)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 308A
-2-
DO
*SLRAU502*
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2) Electrical energy losses in India in totality are about

a) 20%
b) 15%
c) 30%
d) 40%
3) The high levels recognised in India are as per

a) IS 2022
b) IS 2024
c) IS 2026
d) IS 2028
4) The maximum potential co-efficient depends on only

a) Dimensions of line conductors configuration on the tower
b) System voltage
c) Quantum of power transmitted
d) None of these
5) The impulse ratio of rod gap is
a) Unity
b) Between 1.2 to 1.5
c) Between 2.0 to 2.5
6) An isolator is installed
a) To isolate one portion of the circuit from anathor
b) Usually at both sides of circuit breaker
c) As a suitable circuit breaker
d) Both a) and c)
7) The break down voltage of a specimen is 65 kv at STP. The break
down voltage at 73 cm of Hg pressure at 35C is
a) 60.39 kv
b) 69.0 kv
c) 63.25 kv
d) 64.33 kv
*SLRAU502*
-3-
SLR-UM 308A
8) I2R loss in MW of EHV lines for a system voltage 750 kv and power
transmitted 2000 MW is
a) 25 MW
b) 7.8 MW
c) 48 MW
d) 50 MW
9) The maximum allowable temperature of aluminium conductor in EHV

lines world wide is
a) 60C
b) 65C
c) 75C
d) 80C
10) The relative emissitivity for oxidised aluminium or copper conductor

in transmission line is
a) 1.0
b) 0.5
c) 0.7
d) 0.8
11) The maximum conductors in bundled conductor in commercial lines

of 1150-1200 KV is
a) 18
b) 12
c) 10
d) 8
12) For bundled conductors for calculation purpose the Geometric mean
Radius or Equivalent radius is considered as a radius of
a) Twin conductor
b) Single conductor
c) Any number of conductors
13) The inductance per km length of ACSR conductor which is 12 m

above the ground, having 1.762 inches diameter for 345 kv line is
about
a) 0.9 mH
b) 1.1 mH
c) 1.2 mH
d) 1.39 mH
14) The conductivity of moist soil is of magnitude

a) 101 mho/metre
b) 100 mho/metre
c) 102 mho/metre
d) 103 mho/metre
SLR-UM 308A
-4-
*SLRAU502*
15) A sphere-sphere gap is used in h.v. laboratories for measurement of

a) Extra high voltage
b) Calibrating other measuring apparatus
c) Both a) and b)
16) High frequency impulse currents are measured using
a) Resistance shunt
b) Inductive elements
c) Hall and Faraday effect device
d) All of the above
17) The breakdown voltage for airgap of 3 mm in a uniform field under
standard atmospheric conditions.
a) 6.3 kv
b) 9.2 kv
c) 10.59 kv
d) 7.25 kv
18) The earth wire should be

a) A good conductor of electricity
b) Mechanically strong
c) Mechanically strong but bad conductor of electricity
d) Both a) and b)
19) The transmission line voltage increased to 345 kv during the year in
Western countries in
a) 1942
b) 1945
c) 1950
d) 1954
20) Which element is flat frequency response up to 1000 MHz ?

a) Bifiller Shunt
b) Co-axial Shunt
c) Squirrel Cage Shunt
d) Rogowaski Coil
_____________________
*SLRVK233*
-5-
SLR-UM 308A
Seat
No.

Elective I : EXTRA HIGH VOLTAGE AC TRANSMISSION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
N.B. : 1) Make suitable assumptions whenever necessary.

SECTION I
20
1) Generation and properties of Corona pulses.

2) Line energization with trapped charge voltage.
3) Tower footing resistance
4) Limits of radio interference
5) Field of sphere gap
6) Standing wave at natural frequency.
3. Solve any two :
1) Derive the expression for line capacitance calculations.
2) Derive the expression
PC =
1
KC (Vm2 Vo 2 ) for the energy loss from charge voltage diagram.
2
3) Describe the behaviour of space charge effects inside a Corona envelope

and discuss why load current can not flow in a conductor inside the envelope
even though it is a conducting zone.
20
SLR-UM 308A
-6-
*SLRAU502*
SECTION II
20
1) Valve type lightening arrestor.

2) Sub-synchronous resonance problems and counter measures.
3) Expression for generalized constants.
4) Horn gap
5) Ferro-resonance voltages
6) Lightening stroke contacting midspan.
5. Solve any two :
20

a) Earthing co-efficient
b) Earth fault factor
c) Residual voltage
d) Arrester rating
2) Brief the sinusoidal excitation lumped parameter circuit.
3) Explain the sub synchronous Resonance problems and counter measures.
_______________
Code No. SLR-UM
309
*SLRUM309*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------B.E. (Elect.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

FLEXIBLE AC TRANSMISSION SYSTEM
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Right to figure indicate full marks.

3) One credit will be given to neatness and adequate
dimensions
Marks : 20
1. Solve following objectives :
(120=20)
1) The worlds electric power supply system are widely interconnected, due to
a) Economic reason
b) Utility reason
c) Transmission reason
d) Stability reason
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 309
*SLRUM309*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) From insulation point of view, many lines are designed for increase in voltage
_______________
a) + 5%
b) 10%
c) + 10%
d) 5%
3) FACTS technology can certainly be used to overcome any of the

a) Power limit
b) Voltage limit
c) Current limit
d) Stability limit
4) In dynamic stability consideration current flow phaser is

a) Parallel to driving voltage
b) Series to driving voltage
c) Perpendicular to driving voltage
d) In phase to driving voltage
5) Control of the line impedance x can provide a powerful means of
a) Voltage control
b) Power control
c) Current control
d) Stability control
6) In series controller it injects _______________ in a transmission line.

a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Both voltage and current
d) None of above
7) In shunt controller it injects _______________ in a transmission line.

a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above
*SLRUM309*
SLR-UM 309
-3-
8) Following is whose capacitive or inductive output current can be controlled

independent of the ac system voltage
a) SVC
b) TCSC
c) STATCOM
d) UPFC
9) Following is a combination of STATCOM and energy source

a) SSG
b) SVC
c) UPFC
d) IPFC
10) _______________ whose out put is adjusted to exchange capacitive or

inductive current so as to maintain or control specific parameters of electric
power system.
a) SVC
b) STATCOM
c) SSG
d) IPFC
11) A shunt connected, thyristor controlled inductor whose effective reactance is

varied in a
a) Stepwise manner
b) Continuous manner
c) Non-continuous manner
d) None of above
12) A shunt connected, thyristor switched inductor whose effective reactance is

varied in a
a) Stepwise manner
b) Continuous manner
c) Linear manner
d) None of above
13) A combination of different _______________ compensator whose out puts

are co-ordinated.
a) Static and mechanically coupled
b) Static and mechanically switched
c) Static and dynamic switched
d) None of above
14) _______________ is operated without an external electric energy source.
a) SSSC
b) TCBR
c) SVS
d) IPFC
SLR-UM 309
*SLRUM309*
-4-
15) When TCR firing angle is _______________ the reactor becomes

non-conducting ?
a) 180
b) 90
c) 30
d) None of above
16) UPFC is a combination of _______________

a) STATCOM and SSSC
b) TC-PAR and TCR
c) Series and series
d) None of above
17) A PST adjustable by TC to provide a rapidly variable _______________

a) Degree angle
b) Line angle
c) Phase angle
d) None of above
18) HVDC and FACTS are _______________ technologies.

a) Unified
b) Centrified
c) Complementary
d) None of above
19) HVDC represents total power electronics rating of _______________ rated

transmission capacity.
a) 200%
b) 10%
c) 50%
d) 100%
20) In GTO, the gate current pulse reqd., for turn on may be _______________
a) 1 2%
b) 2 5%
c) 3 5%
d) None of above
__________________
*SLRUM309*
-5-
SLR-UM 309
Seat
No.
B.E. (Elect.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

FLEXIBLE AC TRANSMISSION SYSTEM
Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) Right to figure indicate full marks.
3) One credit will be given to neatness and adequate
dimensions
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) What are limits loading stability ?

b) Draw block diagram and characteristics of TSC.
c) Explain direct voltage control of STATCOM.
d) Give the objectives of shunt compensator.
e) Draw block diagram and characteristics of FC-TCR.
f) Explain reactive power generation by rotating synchronous condenser.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) What do you understand by Flexible AC transmission ? List various FACTS

devices ?
b) Give dynamic stability consideration of transmission Interconnection.
c) Explain PWM converter in detail with neat ckt. diagram and waveforms.
SLR-UM 309
-6-
*SLRUM309*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Explain static VAR system.

b) Explain hybrid phase angle regulators.
c) Compare TCR-TSC and TSC.
d) Explain TCSC.
e) Explain external control for series reactive compensator.
f) Explain transmitted power versus transmission angle characteristics.
(102=20)
a) Derive the expression for range of transmittable real and reactive power of
UPFC controlled transmission line.
b) Explain the concept of series capacitive compensation with neat ckt. diagram.
What is the role of degree of series compensation ?
c) Explain Harmonic elimination technique.
________________
Code No. SLR-UM 31
*SLRUM31*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

STRUCTURAL MECHANICS II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Tick correct answers :
1) Principal plane is a plane on which shear stress is
Marks : 20
1
a) Maximum
b) Zero
c) Average
d) All above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 31
*SLRUM31*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The slenderness ratio of a long column is
a) 10 20
d) 20 30
c) 50 60
d) Above 80
3) The maximum axial compressive load which column take without failure by
lateral deflection is called
a) Critical load
b) Buckling load
c) Crippling load
d) Any one of above
4) Member subjected to tensile stress P, the resultant stress on any oblique

plane at an angle to the cross section is
a) P cos2
b) P/2 sin 2
c) P cos
d) P cos 2
5) A load whose line of action does not coincide with the axis of a column is
known as
a) Axial load
b) Eccentric load
c) Special load
d) Compressive load
6) The equivalent length is equal to half the actual length for a column with
a) One end fixed, other end free

b) Both ends fixed
c) One end fixed, other end hinged
d) Both ends hinged
7) A column of length l is hinged at both ends, its equivalent length will be
equals to
a) 2l
b) l
c) 0.5l
d) 0.707l
*SLRUM31*
SLR-UM 31
-3-
8) A three hinge arch is a type of structure
a) Statically determinant
b) Statically indeterminant
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above
9) A cantilever beam 3 m long carries a point load of 20 kN at a distance of 2 m

from the fixed end. The slope at free end of cantilever is
Take EI = 8 1012 N-mm2

a) 0.05 rad
b) 0.005 rad
c) 0.5 rad
d) 5.005 rad
10) The plane carrying maximum and minimum direct stresses are
a) Mutually perpendicular
b) Mutually parallel
c) At an angle 45
d) None of above
11) A cantilever of span L carries a moment M at its free end. The slope at the
free end is
ML2
a)
EI
c)
ML
2EI
ML3
b)
2EI
d)
ML2
2EI
12) The amount of deflection of beam subjected to some type of loading depends
on
a) Bending moment
b) Cross-section
c) All of the above
13) A simply supported beam of span L carries an udl of w per unit run for the
whole length. The deflection at center will be
wL3
a)
3EI
wL3
b)
48EI
5 wL4
c)
384EI
wL3
d)
8EI
14) Fixed end in a cantilever beam is treated in conjugate beam as

a) Free end
b) Fixed end
c) Simply supported
d) Hinged support
SLR-UM 31
*SLRUM31*
-4-
15) Influence line concept is applicable for
a) Static load
b) Moving load
c) Rolling load
d) Both a) and b)
16) Castiglianos theory is related with
a) Bending moment
b) Strain energy
c) Torsion
d) Axial thrust
17) Following principle is used to draw I.L.D.
a) Castiglianos theory
b) Bettis principle
c) Muller breslaus principle
d) Venant principle
18) A 4 m long simply supported at its ends is subjected to point load at its
center. If the slope at the ends of beam is 1, then the deflection at the center
of beam will be
a) 39.37 mm
b) 23.27 mm
c) 18.32 mm
d) 10.56 mm
19) A simply supported span of 2.4 m is subjected to point load of 15 KN at its

center. The maximum deflection at the center of beam is
(Take EI = 6 1010 N-mm2)
a) 72 mm
b) 7.2 mm
c) 89 mm
d) 8.9 mm
20) The maximum deflection of a cantilever beam loaded with udl w KN/m is
a) wl4/8EI
b) wl3/6EI
c) 5wl4/384EI
d) wl3/484EI
______________
-5-
*SLRUM31*
SLR-UM 31
Seat
No.
S.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

STRUCTURAL MECHANICS II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly

2) Question No. 1 is compulsory in Section I, solve any
two question from remaining.
3) Solve any three from Section II.
SECTION I
1. Attempt following question.
(44=16)
a) Derive the formula for crippling load in case of long column having one end is
fixed the other end is free.
b) Explain Mohrs circle diagram to find principal stresses and principal planes.
c) At a certain cross section of a shaft 100 mm in diameter, there is a bending
moment of 5 kN.m and a twisting moment of 7.5 kN.m. Calculate the maximum
direct stress induced in a section.
d) A three hinged parabolic arch, hinged at the crown and springing has a horizontal
span of 12 m and a central rise of 2.5 m. It carries a U.D.L. 30 kN/m over the
left half of the span. Calculate the reaction at end hinges.
SLR-UM 31
-6-
*SLRUM31*
2. At a certain point in a strained material, the values of normal stresses across

two planes at right angles to each other are 80 MPa and 32 MPa clockwise on
the plane carrying 80 MPa stress across the plane as shown in Figure 1.
12
a) Locate the principal planes and evaluate the principal stresses.

b) Calculate the maximum shear stress and specify its plane.
Figure 1 (Question 2)
3. A three hinged parabolic arch of 20 m span and 4 m central rise carries a point
load of 4 kN at 4 m horizontally from the left hand hinge. Calculate the normal
thrust and radial shear at section under the load. Also, calculate maximum positive
and negative B.M.
12
4. a) Explain maximum principal stress theory also state limitation of theory.

b) Explain maximum shear stress theory with limitations.
6
6
SECTION II
5. a) State various methods of determining slope and deflection.
b) Determine slope at left support and deflection at centre of simply supported

beam of 10 m span loaded with U.D.L. 20 kN/m. Use conjugate beam method.
Take : E = 2 105 N/mm2, I = 2 108 mm4.
10
*SLRUM31*
-7-
SLR-UM 31
6. a) State and explain Castiglianos first theorem.
b) Using Castiglianos theorem determine the deflection under the load for beam
as shown in Figure 2. E = 2 105 N/mm2, I = 4 107 mm4.
10
Figure 2 (Question 6b)

7. a) State the first and second moment area theorem.
b) Determine slope and deflection at free end for beam as shown in Figure 3.
E = 2 105N/mm2, I = 2 105 mm4.
10
Figure 3 (Question 7b)

8. a) State Mullers Breaslaus principal.
b) A beam ABC is supported at A, B and C and has a internal hinge at D at a

distance 4 m from AB. AB = 8 m and BC = 12 m. Draw I.L.D. for
1) Support reaction at A, B, and C.
10
______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 310
*SLRAU525*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------B.E. (Part II) (Electrical) Examination, 2014

SWITCHGEAR AND PROTECTION
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

ii) Each carry one mark.

Marks : 20
1. 1) A fuse is normally a
a) power limiting device
b) voltage limiting device
c) current limiting device
d) p.f. correcting device

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 310
*SLRAU525*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Fuses normally protect a system against

a) over current
b) under current
c) resonance
d) lightening current
3) In HRC fuse the time between cut-off and final current zero is called
a) Pre-arcing time
b) arcing time
c) total operating time
d) none of above
4) A circuit breaker usually operates under

a) steady state short circuit current
b) sub-transient state of short circuit current
c) transient state of short circuit current
5) The contact resistance of a circuit Breaker is about
a) 20
b) 2
c) 20m
d) 20/u
6) The resistance of an electric arc can be increased by

a) increasing the concentration of ionised particles
b) reducing the arc length
c) splitting the arc
d) increasing arc X-section
*SLRAU525*
SLR-UM 310
-3-
7) In circuit breakers oil as quenching medium has the advantages of

a) good cooling property
b) absorption of arc energy
c) high dielectric strength
d) acting as insulator
e) all of above
8) In air-blast circuit breaker resistance switches is used to
a) reduce the magnitude of fault current
b) control the circuit breaker operating time
c) dampout the fast transient
d) change the fault current power factor
9) SF-6 gas has excellent heat transfer properties because of its
a) low gaseous viscosity
b) high dielectric strength
c) heigher molecular weight
d) both a) and b)
e) both a) and c)
10) Symmetrical breaking capacity of a circuit breaker is equal to
a) greater than asymmetrical breaking capacity
b) less than asymmetrical breaking capacity
c) equal to asymmetrical breaking capacity
d) none of above
11) An isolator is installed
a) to iso late one portion of circuit from another
b) usually on both sides of circuit breakers
c) as a substitute for a circuit breaker
d) both a) and b)
12) In the protection scheme, relay functions as
a) switching device
b) sensing device
c) breaking device
13) By burden of relay we generally mean

a) volt-amp rating of relay
b) current rating of relay
c) voltage rating of relay
d) watt rating of relay
SLR-UM 310
*SLRAU525*
-4-
14) A Buchholz relay is a

a) current actuated relay
b) gas-actuated relay
c) both a) and b)
15) Inverse time current relays are used for protection of

a) feeder
b) transformer
c) alternator
d) both a) and b)
16) In distance protection, the relay measures

a) negative sequence impedance of line
b) the positive sequence impedance of line
c) self impedance
d) zero sequence impedance
17) On transient fault O.C. and impedance relay
a) under reaches
b) over reaches
c) reach unaffected
d) none of these
18) Reactance relay is normally prepared for protection against

a) earth fault only
b) phase fault only
c) both earth and phase faults
19) Both voltage and current signals are required for

a) plain over-current relay
b) a differential relay
c) a directional relay
d) a biased differential relay
20) Two input phase comparator in a static relay is made up of a

a) transformer amplifier
b) transistor logic circuit
c) rectifier bridge
d) thyristor bridge
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM310*
SLR-UM 310
Seat
No.
B.E. (Part II) (Electrical) Examination, 2014

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

ii) The circuit and vector diagrams should be drawn wherever
is applicable.
iii) The assumptions if made must be clearly explained.
SECTION I
2. Write short note on any four :
(45=20)
1) Arc phenomenon and arc voltage

2) Method of Arc Extinction
3) Minimum oil circuit breaker
4) Current chopping phenomenon
5) Explain interruption of capacitive current
6) Operation and functions of circuit breaker (C.B.).
3. a) Explain the terms :
i) Recovery voltage
ii) Restriking voltage.
Derive an expression for the Restriking voltage in terms of system voltage,
inductance and capacitance across a circuit breaker when a 3-ph fault takes
place.
10
b) For a 132 KV system the reactance and capacitance up to the location of the
C.B. is 3 and 0.015 F respectively
Calculate :
i) the frequency of transient oscillation
ii) maximum value of restriking voltage across the contacts of C.B.
iii) the maximum value of RRRV.
OR
10
SLR-UM 310
-6-
*SLRAU525*
b) i) Explain arc extinction and recovery in Vacuum C.B.

ii) Draw and describe the construction working and application of vacuum
circuit breaker.
10
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Basic requirement of protective system

2) Details of performance, characteristics of current transformer.
3) Construction, performance and characteristic of potential transformer
4) Advantages and disadvantages of static relay
5) Theory of induction relay type
6) Induction-cup relay.
Solve any two questions :
5. a) Derive an expression for a generalised mathematical equations for the
operating conditions of Mho, off-set Mho and impedance relays.
10
b) Describe the realisation of Mho and off-set Mho relay giving their schematic
block diagram and flow chart using generalised mathematic method in a
microprocessor based protective relay.
10
c) Describe static reactance relay using Amplitude comparator method and
phase comparator method along with its circuit diagram and phasor diagrams.
_____________________
10
Code No. SLR-UM
311
*SLRUM311*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------B.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

1) Overlap and save algorithm uses overlap for
a) Output sequence
b) Input sequence
c) Both input and output sequence
d) Adds the overlapped output
Marks : 20
20
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 311
*SLRUM311*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
K+N
2) By property of twiddle factor WN
= __________
a) WNK
b) WNK
c) WNK + N
d) WNK + N
3) Number of complex multiplications in 4-point DIT-FFT are _______

b) 16
a) 32
c) 8
d) 4
4) In place computation is recommended as it ____________
a) Reduces memory requirement
b) Increases memory requirement
c) Reduces computation
d) Keeps memory requirement constant
5) For linear phase realization of FIR filter for N even, number of multipliers
required is ___________
a) N
c)
N
2
b)
N+1
2
d) N2
6) DFT coefficients are Z-transform evaluated at N-equally spaced points in

Z-domain on _____________
b) Half circle
a) Unit circle
c) Circle with radius r
d) Circle with radius
r
2
*SLRUM311*
-3-
SLR-UM 311
7) If impulse response of a system is over a finite duration, then it is ________

a) Auto regressive system
b) Moving average system
c) ARMA system
d) FIR system
8) Circular convolution of sequences {2, 0, 0, 1} and {4, 3, 2, 1} is _________
b) {11, 6, 8, 5}
a) {11, 5, 8, 6}
c) {11, 6, 7, 5}
d) {11, 8, 5, 6}
9) Multiplication in frequency domain is convolution in time domain. It is a
__________
a) Linear convolution
b) Circular convolution
c) Any type of convolution
d) Linear convolution converted to circular convolution
10) The magnitude of e jt is ____________
b) 1
a) t
c) sin t
d)
11) Realization of mth order IIR digital filter requires ___________ number of
constant multipliers.
b) m2
a) m
c) m 2
d) 2m
12) IIR filter design is based on ___________ filter design.

b) Discrete time
a) Analog
c) Digital
d) None of these
13) Kaiser window has an adjustable parameter that controls
b) Main lobe width
a) The stop band width
c) Stop band attenuation
14) The frequency sampling structures are efficient because
a) The sampled points are less
b) Some sampled DFT coefficients are zero when the filter is
narrow band
c) Some sampled values can be assumed to be zero
d) Parallel structures are efficient
SLR-UM 311
-4-
15) Von-Neumann architecture has

a) Separate program memory
b) Separate data memory
c) Separate program and data memory
d) Common program and data memory
16) Harvard architecture has
a) Separate program memory
b) Separate data memory
c) Common program and data memory
d) Separate program and data memory
17) The digital signal processor TMS 320C54X has
a) 4 channel DMA controller per core
b) 6 channel DMA controller per core
c) 8 channel DMA controller per core
d) None of these
18) The typical application of DSP is in
a) Image processing
b) Electronic circuit designing
c) Digital circuit design and analysis
d) None of these
19) MAC in DSP processor stands for
a) Multiply and add combined
b) Multiply and accumulate unit
c) Multiple access control unit
d) Modified access control unit
20) TMS 320C 6713 processor uses
a) Harvard architecture
b) Von-Neumann architecture
c) Super Harvard architecture
d) VLIW architecture
__________________
*SLRUM311*
*SLRUM311*
-5-
SLR-UM 311
Seat
No.
B.E. (Electrical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
20
a) Derive relation between DFT and Z-transform.

b) Find cross correlation of two sequences x1(n) = {1, 2, 2, 4} and
x2(n) = {2, 1, 2, 4}.
c) Compute the length-4 sequence from its DFT which is given as
X(K) = {4, 1 j, 2, 1 + j}.
d) Determine DFT of sequence x(n) = {1, 1, 0, 0} by using DIF-FFT algorithm.
e) Realize following difference equation in direct form-I
y(n) = x(n) +
5
1
x(n 1) + x(n 2) .
6
6
3. a) x(n) = {1, 2, 3, 2, 3, 4, 3, 2, 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}. Let impulse response of a filter is

h(n) = {1, 2, 1}. Use overlap add method to find output response.
10
OR
a) Find cascade form and direction form-II realization of difference eqn
y(n)
3
1
1
y(n 1) + y(n 2) = x(n) + x(n 1) .
4
8
3
b) Find 8 point DIT FFT of following sequence :

x(n) = {1, 2, 2, 1, 1, 2, 1, 1}.
10
10
SLR-UM 311
-6-
*SLRUM311*
SECTION II
(54=20)
a) Find out H(z) using impulse invariance method at 5 Hz sampling frequency

from H(s) as given below :
H(s) =
2
(s + 1) (s + 2)
b) Write note on : Window functions of FIR filter design.

c) Explain the application of DSP in measurement of electrical quantities.
d) Explain the MAC unit in DSP processor TMS 320C54 XX.
e) Compare FIR and IIR filter.
(102=20)
a) Design a digital low pass IIR filter to approximate the following transfer function
1
s + 2s + 1
Using BLT method, obtain H(z) assuming 3 db cut-off frequency of 150 Hz
and sampling frequency of 1.28 kHz.
H(s) =
b) Determine impulse response h(n) of a filter having desired frequency response

j(M 1) 2
0 2
Hd(e ) = e

0
2
M = 7, use frequency sampling approach.
j
c) Explain the application of DSP in control system.

__________________
Code No. SLR-UM
312
*SLRUM312*
Seat
No.

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. Electrical (Part II) Examination, 2014

HVDC Transmission (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Tick mark the correct answers :
(120=20)
1) The break even distances can vary from

a) 800 to 1000 km
b) 500 to 800 km
c) 200 to 500 km
d) 0 to100 km
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 312
*SLRUM312*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Reliability of DC transmission system is __________________ as compare.

a) Good
b) Poor
c) Moderate
d) Very poor
3) Homopolor link has two or more conductors all having the same polarity usually
_________________
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Are positive, other negative
d) None of these
4) When DC transmission system having a distance loss than 200 kM, then type
of configuration is preferred ?
a) Two terminal DC link
b) Back to back HVDC station at border
c) Back to back HVDC station with AC feeder
d) None of these
5) _________________fn is non self clearing fault.
a) Commutation failure
b) Are through
c) Arc back
d) Misfire
6) The max di/dt of thyristor is

a) 600 A / s
b) 500 A / s
c) 100 A / s
d) 50 A / s
*SLRUM312*
SLR-UM 312
-3-
7) Transformer rating is depends on

a) No. of pulse
b) No. of valves in basic commutation group
c) No. of series connected valves
d) No. of parallel connected valves
8) The dired and fast control of current Id is achieved by controlling __________
& _________
a) Ti, Tr
b) r, Ti
c) Tr, Bi
d) r, Bi
9) The main drawback of IPC Scheme is

a) Use of zero crossing detector
b) Use of 90 phase shift ckt
c) Use of variable delay ckt
d) None of these
10) VCO is consists of _________________
a) Ring counter, pulse generator, variable delay ckt
b) Pulse generator, zero crossing detector, comparator
c) Integrator, comparator, pulse generator
d) Both a) and b)
11) In _________________ pulse frequency control, gain K1 of integrator is given
by
a) K1 = Pf0 V3 / V1
b) K1 = Pf0V3
c) K1 = P(V3 / V1)
d) None of these
12) In _________________ pulse firing problem of current extinction is present.

a) Moderate
b) Long
c) Short
d) None of these
13) The pole differential protection is used to detect _________________ faults.

a) Inverter side fault
b) Rectifier side fault
c) Ground fault
d) Both a) & b)
SLR-UM 312
*SLRUM312*
-4-
14) Fault producing over currents are

a) Line fault
b) Commutation failure
c) Internal fault
d) All of these
15) The steep front over voltages are persists for

a) 0.4 to 3 m sec
b) 30 to 40 m sec
c) 0.5 to 10 m sec
d) 0.3 to 3 m sec
16) Insulation co-ordination is problem in _________________ systems as voltages

varies along the line.
a) Parallel
b) Mesh type parallel
c) Radial type parallel
d) Series
17) In current margin method_________________ this is use to maintain all current

orders from rectifier and inverter side.
a) CRB
b) AVR
c) ACR
d) None of these
18) Protection of MTDC system can be done by

a) High speed disconnecting switches
b) Fast current control
c) Differential type protection
d) All of the above
19) The requirements of telecommunication channel is _________________
a) 1250 band channel, 2 m sec sampling interval 50% resolution
b) 1500 band channel 200 m sec sampling interval 0.5% resolution
c) 1200 band channel, 20 m sec sampling interval, 0.05% resolution
d) None of these
20) The current rating of value is given (Iv) by
a) Iv = 2 Id / r 9
b) Ir = Iv / r 29
c) Iv = Id / 9 r
d) Iv = Id / r 9
*SLRUM312*
-5-
SLR-UM 312
Seat
No.
B.E. Electrical (Part II) Examination, 2014

HVDC : Transmission (Elective II)
Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
1) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of HVDC system.

2) Explain the modern trends in HVDC system.
3) Explain different types of DC link with neat diagram.
4) Explain the functions of smoothing reactor.
5) Explain the requirements of firing angle scheme and also explain IPC scheme.
(210=20)
1) Draw and explain the layout of typical HVDC station.

2) Find the expression of D.C. output. As for 6 pulse converter in HVDC system
considering overlap angle less than 60.
OR
2) Explain how power flow reversal can occur in HVDC system.
SLR-UM 312
-6-
*SLRUM312*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Enlist the various types of faults and explain misfire operation as one of the
fault.
b) Explain the non characteristic harmonics and its effect.
c) Explain :
i) Current Margin method.
ii) Two ACR method.
d) Explain static VAR systems.
e) Explain the modified Vd-Id converter station control characteristics.
5. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Explain the causes of over voltage and protections against them.

b) State and explain different type of filters with its characteristics.
c) Explain the following current control methods of MTDC system.
i) Current Margin method
ii) Two ACR method.
Code No.
SLR-UM 313
Seat
No.
*SLRUM313*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Bio-Medical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

2) All questions carries equal marks.
Marks : 20
20
1) If L { f( t )} = (s) then L{e at f(t )} is _____________

a) (s a)
b) a (s)
c) eas (s)
d) (s + a)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 313
*SLRUM313*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The unit step function is defined as

u(t) = 1, t > 0
= 0, t < 0 then its Laplace transform is ___________
a) 1
1
s
3) If f(t) = 2elogt then L{f(t)} = ?
2
a) 2
s
2
c)
s
c)
b)
e s
s
d) None of these
1
s2
2
d) 3
s
b)
4) Which of the following is the inverse Laplace transform of

a) t 2e t
c) e 2 t
5) L{f(t )} = (s) then L{t f(t)} = ?
a) (s)
c) t(s)
s
1
=?
6) L 2
4s + 9
1
a) cos(3t )
4
1
3
c) cosh t
4
2
b) t 3
t
d) te
b) s(s)
d) (s)
b)
1
cosh( 3 t )
4
d)
1
3
cos t
4
2
1
?
(s + 1)2
*SLRUM313*
SLR-UM 313
-3-
7) If f(t) is a periodic function of period T, then Laplace transform of f(t) is

_________
T
1
e st f(t )dt
a)
TS
1 e
0
1
c)
1 e TS
8) If L{f(t )} =
st
1 T st
b)
e f(t)dt
1 e TS 0
T
1
e st f( t )dt
d)
TS
1+ e
0
f( t )dt
1
then L{f(4 t)} = _________
s s +1
4
2
b)
s s+4
s s+4
1
c)
d) Not exists
s s+4
9) The point which coincide with their transformation are called _______
a) fixed points
b) critical points
c) bilinear points
d) conformal points
a)
10) For a function f(z) = u + iv to be analytic, C-R equation are

____________
a) Ux = Vy, Uy = Vx
b) Ux = Vy, Uy = Vx
c) Ux = Vy, Uy = Vx
d) Ux = Vy, Uy = Vx
11) The value
dz
, C : | z | = 1 is _____________
z+2
b) 2i
d) 0
a) 2i
c) 4i
12) Inverse transformation w =
a)
b)
c)
d)
1
transform the straight line into _____
z
circle
straight line
straight line through the origin
None
13) The value of integral
2 i
zdz is ___________
a) 0
c) 1 + 2i
b) 1
d) 1 2i
SLR-UM 313
14) The value of
*SLRUM313*
-4-
dz
z where C : | z | = r is _________
b) i
d) i
a) log r
c) 2i
2
15) If f(z) is analytic in a simply-connected domain D and if C be any
closed continuous rectifiable curve in D then ______________
a)
f(z)dz = 0
b)
f(z)dz = 2i
d)
c)
f(z)dz 0
f(z)dz = i
16) The Fourier series of f(x) = x x2 in the interval ( , ) contains

a) only sine term
b) only cosine term
c) both sine and cosine term
d) neither sine term nor cosine terms
17) Which of the following function cannot be expanded in Fourier series
in the interval ( , )
a) ex
b) x 2
c) |x|
d) cosecx
18) For the function f(x) = k , < x < 0
= k
0<x<
the value of a0 in Fourier expansion will be ___________
a) k
b) 2k
c) 0
d) k
19) The value of the integral
a) 0
c) i
z2 z + 1
dz , where C : | z| = 1/2
z 1
b) i
d) 2 i
3x
,x 0
3x
, 0 x then
= 1
b) bn = 0
a) bn = an = a0 = 0
c) a0 = 0, an = 0
d) none of these
____________
20) If f(x ) = 1 +
*SLRUM313*
-5-
SLR-UM 313
Seat
No.
S.E. (Bio-Medical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions for each Section.

SECTION I
2. a) Find L log
2
1 1
s2 + 22
s2 + 32 .
b) Find the Laplace transformation of e 3 t [2 cos 5 t 3 sin 5 t ]

c) Find k such that
kx
1
log( x 2 + y 2 ) + i tan1 is analytic.
2
y
3. a) Use Laplace transfer method to solve :
d2 x
dx
2
+ x = e t with conditions x(0) = 2, x(0) = 1.
2
dt
dt
b) Find the analytic function whose real parts is
u = x3 3xy2 + 3x2 3y2 + 1. Also find f(z) .

4. a) Find the inverse transformation of
s + 29
.
(s + 4) (s 2 + 9)
b) Find p if f(z) = r2cos2 + ir2sinp is analytic.
s2
c) Using convolution theorem, find inverse Laplace transform of 2
. 5
(s + 1) (s 2 + 4)
OR
c) Using convolution theorem, find inverse Laplace transform of
s
.
(s + a 2 )2
2
SLR-UM 313
*SLRUM313*
-6-
5. a) Define Harmonic function. Show that u = excosy is harmonic function. Find

its harmonic conjugate.
b) Find Laplace transform of e 3 t cosh 4 t sin 3 t .
7
6
SECTION II
3+i
6. a) Evaluate
z 2dz along
i) Parabola x = 3y2
ii) Real axis from 0 to 3 and vertically to 3 + i.
b) Find the image of | z 2i| = 2 under the transformation w =
14
1
.
z
c) Find the Fourier series of the function

f(x) = z , 2 x 0
=x
0 < x < 2.
7. a) Find the bilinear transformation which maps the point z = 1, 1, onto

w = i, 1, i .
b) Evaluate
sin z 2 + cos z 2
dz where C is the circle | z | = 4.
(z 2) (z 3)
8. a) Find half range cosine series of the function :
7
6
5
f(x) = x2 5 in (0, ).
b) Find the Fourier series for f(x) = x2, ( l, l ).
c) Evaluate
z+3
dz where C is the circle |z| = 1.
z + 2z + 5
2
9. a) Find the Fourier series of f(x) = 2x x2, in the interval (0, 3).
b) Show that the transformation w =
the circle | w | = 1.
zi
real axis in the z-plane is mapped onto
z+i
_____________________
4
4
7
Code No.
SLR-UM 314
*SLRUM314*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Biomedical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Day & Date ____________________ _
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Section ________________________________________
__________ Examination _________
______________ (Paper - _______)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. 1) A process that result in two genetical identical daughter cells is called

a) Mitosis
b) Meiosis
c) a and b
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 314
*SLRUM314*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum synthesizes

a) Lipid
b) Steroid harmones
c) Both a and b
d) None
3) The human body develops from a single cell called as

a) Nucleus
b) Ovum
c) Zygote
d) None
4) The nucleus contains ______ chromosomes.

a) 64
b) 32
c) 16
d) 46
5) Platelets serve as a
a) Clothing agent
b) Anticlothing agent
c) Heparin
d) None
6) The process by which chemical energy is made available in the cell is called
a) Anaerobic
b) Aerobic respiration
c) Perspiration
d) All
7) The standard blood pressure range is

a) 80 120 mmHg
b) 120 80 mmHg
c) 100 50 mmHg
d) 150 100 mmHg
*SLRUM314*
SLR-UM 314
-3-
8) ________ are the tiny granules composed of RNA and protein.

a) Ribosomes
b) Lysosomes
c) Mitochondria
d) All
9) Liver secrets _______

a) Bile
b) Mucus
c) Harmones
d) Water
10) The cycle of respiration occurs about _______ times/min.

a) 15
b) 20
c) 25
d) 10
11) Oesophagous is a passage for

a) Liquid
b) Semi-liquid
c) Solid
d) All the above
12) Deglution refers to

a) Dilution
b) Mixing
c) Swallowing
d) Chewing
13) Mastication refers to

a) Molding
b) Breaking and mixing with saliva
c) Propelling
d) None
14) Tongue is ______ muscular structure.
a) Voluntary muscular structure
b) Involuntary muscular structure
c) Both a and b
d) Spongy
SLR-UM 314
*SLRUM314*
-4-
15) Trachea parts itself into _________ system.

a) Respiratory
b) Reproductive
c) Nervous
d) None
16) The pharyme is a part of

a) Digestive system
b) Alimentary system
c) Respiratory system
d) All the above
17) The stomach is situated in _____ region.

a) Hypochondria
b) Epigastric
c) Abdominal cavity
d) All the above
18) Which is the biggest artery in the body

a) Superior vena cava
b) Aorta
c) Inferior vena cava
d) Pulmonary artery
19) __________ is the largest ductless gland.

a) Testis
b) Overies
c) Pancrease
d) Adrenal gland
20) Dendrites are found at the ________ site of the Neurone.

a) Head
b) Bottom
c) Inside
d) None
___________
-5-
*SLRUM314*
SLR-UM 314
Seat
No.
S.E. (Biomedical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instruction : Figures to the right indicate full marks.

(54=20)
1) Define cell and explain about the structure and composition of cells in short.
2) Explain about the conductive tissue of heart with diagram.
3) Explain about the respiration system in short with diagram.
4) Explain about the central nervous system in short with diagram.
5) Explain about urinary system with diagram.
III. Answer any two questions :
(102=20)
1) With a neat diagram explain about the tissue and different types.
2) With a neat diagram explain about cardiovascular system.
3) Explain about the secretion and main function of digestive system with diagram.
IV. Answer any four questions :
1) Explain about the composition of blood.
2) Explain about the Nerve conduction and action potential.
3) Explain about the medias of EYE.
4) Explain about the hearing mechanism.
5) Explain about the endocrine system in short.
(54=20)
V. Answer any two questions :

(102=20)
1) Explain about the deglutition and defecation for digestive system with diagram.
2) With a neat diagram explain about the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous
system.
3) With a neat diagram explain about the function of Kidney.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
316
*SLRUM316*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------S.E. (Part I) (Biomedical) Examination, 2014

ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS ANALYSIS AND DESIGN I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
N.B. : 1)
2)
3)
4)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Use of data sheets are allowed.
Figures indicating right denotes the full mark.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct answer (one mark each) :
(201=20)
1) The process by which impurities are added to pure semiconductor is

a) Diffusion
b) Drift
c) Doping
d) Mixing
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 316
*SLRUM316*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Depletion region in a PN Junction Diode consists of

a) Mobile donar ions
b) Mobile acceptor ions
c) Immobile donar and acceptor ions
d) Majority carriers
3) ICBO current is
a) Small in silicon than in Germanium transistor
b) Increase with temperature
c) Depends on base doping
d) Depends on EB Junction bias
4) The Fermi Level of an intrinsic semiconductor lies
a) Near conduction band
b) Near valance band
c) In the middle of valance and conduction band
d) Above conduction band
5) Semiconductors can be used as _______________
a) Thermistors
b) Photo conductors
c) Digital Device
d) All above
6) PN Junction failure above 8V is caused predominantly due to

a) Zener breakdown
b) Avalance breakdown
c) a) and b)
d) None
*SLRUM316*
SLR-UM 316
-3-
7) A _______________ is a vacancy in the outer shell. It can attract and capture

a nearby electrons. This merging is called _______________
a) Ion, doping
b) Electron, depletion
c) Hole, recombination
d) Ion, excess hole
8) Adding pentavalent or trivalent impurities to a pure semiconductor produces

_______________ respectively.
a) P-type semiconductor
b) N-type semiconductor
c) N-type or P-type semiconductor
d) P-type or N-type semiconductor
9) The type of atomic bonding must common in semiconductor is
a) Metallic
b) Ionic
c) Covalent
d) Chemical
10) Diffusion current in a diode is caused by

a) Chemical energy
b) Heat energy
c) Voltage
d) Charge concentration
11) The pinch-off voltage in the drain voltage on the shorted gate drain curve
above which the drain current becomes
a) Almost negligible
b) Very high
c) Almost constant
d) Highly variable
12) The depletion type MOSFET can operate in

a) Depletion mode only
b) Enhancement mode only
c) Depletion or enhancement mode
d) Neither depletion nor enhancement mode
13) The enhancement type MOSFET is called a _______________ MOSFET.
a) Normally ON
b) Normally OFF
c) P-type
d) N-type
SLR-UM 316
*SLRUM316*
-4-
14) In _______________ region JFET is said to behave as VVR.

a) Ohmic
b) Saturation
c) Cut-off
d) None
15) The IC _______________ is dual retriggerable monostable multivibrator.

a) 74121
b) 74123
c) Both
d) 74124
16) In monostable multivibrator pulse width = 10 ms c = 0.1 F the value of

R = _______________
a) 10 K
b) 90.90 K
c) 100 K
d) 91.9 K
17) To avoid the false transition in IC 555 the pin 5 is connected to

a) Direct ground
b) Ground through capacitor
c) Ground through resistor
d) Kept open
18) If the reverse bias on the gate of a JFET is increased, then width of conducting
channel _______________
a) is increased
b) is decreased
c) remain same
d) none
19) Reference voltage for LM317 is _______________ V.

a) 1.25 V
b) 5 V
c) 1.5 V
d) 3.17 V
20) Which of the following device has highest input impedance ?

a) JFET
b) MOSFET
c) BJT
d) Diode
__________________
*SLRUM316*
-5-
SLR-UM 316
Seat
No.
S.E. (Part I) (Biomedical) Examination, 2014

ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS ANALYSIS AND DESIGN I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N.B. : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

Use of data sheets are allowed.
Figures indicating right denotes the full mark.
SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Explain the series voltage regulator with the help of waveforms.

b) Explain with the help of voltage transfer cure, the positive and negative clipper
circuits.
c) Derive the expression for the stability factor of voltage divider biasing.
d) How transistor is used as switch ?
RC
e) Prove that gain of amplifier depends on ratio of R .
E
(210=20)
a) Design full wave centre tap rectifier to provide output voltage of 12 V with
load current 500 mA. Use the capacitor filter to maintain ripple factor not
exceeding 2%.
b) Design single stage voltage amplifier to meet the following specifications :
VCC = 15 V, VCEQ = 6 V, ICQ = 5 mA, $ = 8, AV = 100, = 200.
c) Explain in detail and derive the expressions for voltage and current gain,
input and output impedance using h-parameter model of transistor.
SLR-UM 316
-6-
*SLRUM316*
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) Explain 78 XX and 79 XX series voltage regulator.

b) What is meant by current boosting method in voltage regulator ?
c) Explain with the help of waveforms monostable multivibrator using IC 555.
d) Explain power ON delay circuit using IC 555.
e) Explain V-I characteristics of JFET.
(210=20)
a) Design dual power supply using 78 XX and 79 XX IC regulator to provide

output of 12 V.
b) Design astable multivibrator to provide square wave of
i) 10 KHz
ii) 50 Hz using IC 555.
c) Design dual power supply using LM 317, LM 337 to provide output of 3.7 V.
________________
Code No.
*SLR-UM-317*
SLR-UM 317
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL NETWORK ANALYSIS AND SYNTHESIS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
N.B. : 1) Q. 1 is compulsory to be solved in first 30 min. on

separately provided answersheet.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct answer (one mark each) :
20
1) An electrical circuit having one or more no. of voltage sources and current
sources is transformed into equivalent electrical N/W with a single voltage
source with series resistance of the network. This illustrates
b) Nortons theorem
a) Superposition theorem
c) Thevenins theorem
d) Reciprocity Theorem
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 317
*SLR-UM-317*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Superposition theorem requires as many circuits to be solved as there are

b) meshes
a) nodes
c) sources
d) none
3) A 4 resistance carrying a 2 Amp current will dissipate power equal to
b) 16 watt
a) 4 watt
c) 8 watt
d) none
4) If 10 V battery is connected across the parallel resistance of 3, 5, 10, 20 .
How much voltage is there across 5 resistor ?
b) 5 V
a) 10 V
c) 3 V
d) 20 V
5) The tie-set schedule gives the relation between
a) Branch current and link current
b) Branch voltage and link current
c) Branch current and link voltage
d) None
6) In the circuit shown, what is the man power transferred to load ?
a) 5 watt
c) 2.5 watt
b) 10 watt
d) 25 watt
*SLR-UM-317*
SLR-UM 317
-3-
7) For the circuit shown, the equivalent resistance will be
a) 5 k
c) 10 k
b) 15 k
8) The no. of independent loops for a network with n-nodes and b-branches is
a) n 1
b) b n
c) b-n+1
d) Independent of nodes
9) Nortons theorem results in
a) A current source with impedance in parallel
b) Voltage source with impedance in series
c) Voltage source alone
d) current source alone
10) The current flowing through 2 resistance is
a) 1 Amp
c) 3 Amp
b) 2 Amp
d) 4 Amp
11) An inductor, at t = O+ with zero initial current acts as

b) open circuit
a) short circuit
c) current source
d) voltage source
12) A pole of driving point impedance function signifies
a) An open circuit at that complex frequency
b) A short circuit at complex frequency
c) Either a) or b)
d) None of these
SLR-UM 317
*SLR-UM-317*
-4-
13) In two port network, hybrid parameters expressed as

b) I1, I2 in terms of V1, V2
a) V1, V2 in terms of I1, I2
c) V1, I2 in terms of V2, I1
d) V1, I1 in terms of V2, I2
14) When two port networks are connected in parallel, it is convenient to use
a) Open circuit impendance parameters
b) Short circuit admittance parameters
c) Transmission parameters
d) h parameters
15) A two port network is symmetrical if
a) z11 = z22
b) z12 = z21
c) AD BC = 1
d) h12 = h22
16) A minimum reactance function is one which has
a) No zeros at origin
b) No poles at origin
c) No zeros on imaginary axis
d) No poles on imaginary axis
17) The h-parameter h11 and h21 are obtained
a) By shorting output terminals
b) By opening output terminals
c) By shorting input terminals
d) By opening input terminals
18) A polynomial q(s) is Hurwitz if
a) q(s) is real column s is real
b) q(s) is real and have real roots which are zero or negative
c) it has conjugate pair of complex roots
d) both b) and c)
19) The time constant of series R-C circuit is _______________
a) CR
b) C/R
c) R/C
d) None
20) Steady state value of current in following circuit will be
a) 5 Amp
c)
b) 0 Amp
d) None
______________________
*SLR-UM-317*
-5-
SLR-UM 317
Seat
No.
S.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL NETWORK ANALYSIS AND SYNTHESIS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Figures to right indicate full marks.

SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Find out the current in various branches of network shown using mode analysis.
b) Find the ammeter current shown in figure.
SLR-UM 317
-6-
*SLR-UM-317*
c) Find the current drawn form a battery of 10 V connected to circuit shown.
d) Determine load resistance to receive maximum power from source, also find
maximum power delivered to load in ckt.
e) State and explain Millmans theorem with suitable example.

a) i) Find voltage vx using superposition theorem.
(210=20)
*SLR-UM-317*
-7-
SLR-UM 317
ii) Find voltages V1 and V2 using nodal analysis.
b) For the circuit shown obtain Thevenins and Nortons equivalent circuit.
c) Determine the current I in the circuit shown using superposition theorem.
SECTION II
a) Find the general circuit parameters for network shown.
(45=20)
SLR-UM 317
-8-
*SLR-UM-317*
b) Explain necessary conditions for transfer function.

c) Draw pole zero diagram for the given network function
I(s) =
20s
(s + 5)(s + 2)
d) A series R-L circuit with R = 30 and L = 15 H has a constant voltage source

V = 60 V applied at t = 0 as shown when switch S is closed. Determine the
current i the voltage across resistor and vtg. across inductor
e) Derive expression for Inverse h-parameters.

(210=20)
a) The two identical networks as shown are to be connected in cascade. Derive

transmission parameters for cascade design.
b) What is positive real function ? Explain properties of positive real function.

Check the positive realness of following function.
s 2 + 2 s + 25
z(s) =
s+4
c) Explain properties of Hurwitz polynomial and test the function. Whether the
polynomial P(s) is Hurwitz P(s) = s4 + s3 + 3s2 + 2s + 12.
___________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 318
Seat
No.
*SLRUM318*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S.E. (Part I) (Bio Medical Engg.) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N. B. : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.

Marks : 20
20
1) If L1 {F(s) } = f(t ) , then L1 {F(s + a) } = _____________

b) eat f(t)
a) eat f(t)
c) tat f(t)
d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM-318
*SLRUM318*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) If L1 { 1 (s) } = f1( t ) , L1 { 2 (s) } = f2 ( t) , then L1 { 1 (s) . 2 (s)} = ?

a)
f1(u) f2 (u)du
b)
c)
f1(u) f2 ( t u)du
f1(u) f2 ( t u)du
d)
f1( t ) f2 ( t u)dt
s + s2
3) L
=?
3
s
a) t + t2
c) t + 1
1
b) t2 + 1
d) t
4) If f(t) is periodic function of period a, then L { f (t ) } = ?

1
a)
1 e as
1
c)
1 e as
st
e st f (t )dt
e st f ( t )dt
d) None of these
5) L { f( t ) } = ?
a) f(0) SL{f(t)}
c)
f(t )dt
1
b)
1 e as
1
L { f( t ) }
s
b) f(0) + L { f( t ) }
d) f(0) + S L { f( t ) }
*SLRUM318*
6) If L { f( t ) } =
SLR-UM 318
-3-
1
, then L { f(4t ) } = ?
s s+ 1
a)
4
s s+ 4
b)
c)
1
s s+ 4
d) Not possible
2
s s+ 4
7) L t n e at = ?
a)
n
(s + a)n
b)
n
(s + a )n + 1
c)
n+1
(s + a )n + 1
d)
n + 1
( s + a )n
8) Milne-Thomson method is used to find

b) Complex function
a) Special function
c) Analytic function
d) None of these
9) If u = y3 3xny is a harmonic function then the value of n is
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) doesnt exists
10) Laplaces equation is
a) Ux + Uy = 0
b) Uxx Uyy = 0
c) Uxx + Vyy = 0
d) Uxx + Uyy = 0
11) In the cosine series expansion of sinx in (0, ), the constant term = ________
a)
1
2
b)
c)
d)
12) If f(x) is defined in ( , ) then Fourier coefficient bn = _____________

2
a)
c) 0
f( x )dx
1
b)
2
1
d)
f( x )dx
f (x ) sin nx dx
SLR-UM-318
*SLRUM318*
-4-
13) In the interval (0, ) the constant term is in the cosine series of f(x) = x is
_____________
a)
b) 2
c) 4
d) 0
14) Which of the following function can not be expanded in the Fourier in the
interval ( , ) ?
b) | x |
a) ex
c) cosecx
d) x3
15) Which of the following is not Dirchlets condition ?
b) f(x) is finite
a) f(x) is even function
c) f(x) is periodic
d) f(x) is single valued
16) There is only one value of z for which w = z is bilinear transform w =
if _____________
a) (a d)2 + 4bc = 0
c) (a d)2 = 4bc
17) The value of
az + b
cz + d
b) (a d)2 + 4bc 0
d) (a d)2 4bc
dz
z 2 where C is | z | = 3 is _____________
a) 2 i
c) 0
b) i
d) none of these
18) In the translation w = z + c where c is complex constant, is simply translation

of the axes and as such preserves the _____________
b) size
a) shape
c) shape and size
d) None of these
19) A point at which f(z) = 0 is called as ________ of the transformation w = f(z).
a) singular point
b) critical point
c) non singular point
d) all of these
1
20) The value of
z 2dz is _____________ along y = 0.
z=0
a) 13
c) 1
b) 12
d) 0
______________________
*SLRUM318*
-5-
SLR-UM
318
SLR-UM
318
Seat
No.
S.E. (Part I) (Bio Medical Engg.) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
N. B. :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Find Laplace transform of

t + 1
b) If f(t) =
3
, 0 t 2
,t>2
e 4 t sin t
.
t
. Find L { f( t ) } and L { f(t) } .
c) Find Laplace transform of 2t3 + cos4t + e2t.
s
.
s + 4a 4
3. a) Find inverse Laplace transform of
b) Solve (D2 + 3D + 2)y = 2 (t2 + t + 1) with y(0) = 2 and y (0) = 0 by using

Laplace transform.
4. a) Find the value of K such that
1
kx
log (x2 + y2) + i tan1
is analytic.
2
y
7
5
b) Construct an analytic function whose imaginary part is ex (y siny + x cosy).
c) Show that u = cosx coshy is a harmonic function.
5. a) Find the Laplace transform of the periodic function given by

t
f(t) =
2c t
, 0<t<c
, c < t < 2c
. where f(t) = f(t + 2c).
SLR-UM-318
*SLRUM318*
-6-
s2 + s
b) Find L1 2
2
+
+
+
(
s
1
)
(
s
2
s
2
)
OR
b) Find the analytic function f(z) = u + ir such that u v =
cos x + sin x e y
.
2 cos x e y e y
SECTION II
6. a) Evaluate
sin z2 + cos z2
dz where C is the circle | z | = 4.
(z 2) (z 3)
3+i
b) Evaluate
z 2dz along I) the parabola x = 3y2 II) along the real axis from
0 to 3 and then vertically to 3 + i.
7. a) Find the bilinear transformation which maps z = 0, i, 1 onto the point

w = i, 1, 0.
b) Find the image of the circle (x 3)2 + y2 = 2 under the transformation w =
7
1
. 6
z
8. a) Obtained the Fourier expansion of ex in < x < .
b) Find the Fourier expansion of f(x) = x3 in ( , ).
x
9. a) Obtained half range sine series of f(x) =
2 x
b) Evaluate
, 0 < x<1
.
, 1< x < 2
e 2z
(z 1) (z 3) dz where C is the circle | z | = 2.
c) Find the image | z | = 3 under the transformation w = z + 3 + 2i.
4
5
OR
Find the image of the triangle whose vertices are i, 1 + i, 1 i under the
transformation w = z + 4 2i.
___________________
Code No. SLR-UM 319
*SLRUM319*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (Part I) (Biomedical Engg.) Examination, 2014

HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
I. 1) The human body develops from a single cell called as _________

a) Nucleus
b) Ovum
c) Zygote
d) None
2) The standard blood pressure range is ___________

a) 80/120 mm Hg
b) 120/80 mm Hg
c) 100/50 mm Hg
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 319
*SLRUM319*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
3) The cycle of respiration occurs about ____________ times/min.

a) 15
b) 20
c) 25
d) 10
4) Liver secrets ____________

a) Bile
b) Mucus
c) Hormones
d) Water
5) Platelets serve as a
a) Clotting agents
b) Anti clothing
c) Heparin
d) None
6) The process by which chemical energy is made available in cell is called

___________
a) Anaerobic
b) Aerobic
c) Perspiration
d) All
7) The nucleus contains ____________ chromosomes.

a) 64
b) 32
c) 16
d) 46
8) ___________ are the tiny granulus composed of RNA and protein.

a) Ribosomes
b) Lysosomes
c) Mitochondria
d) All
9) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes

a) Lipids
b) Steroid hormones
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
*SLRUM319*
SLR-UM 319
-3-
10) A process that result in two genetical identical daughter cells is called
___________
a) Mitosis
b) Meiosis
c) a) and b)
d) None
11) During digestion the carbohydrates are converted into ____________

a) Amino acid
b) Fatty acid
c) Nucleic acid
d) Glucose
12) In an ECG waveform the amplitude of QRS complex is ____________ mv.

a) 4 mv
b) 2 mv
c) 3 mv
d) 1 mv
13) The heart is composed of the following layers of tissues.

a) Pericardium
b) Myocardium
c) Endocardium
d) All
14) The exchange of gasses between capillary blood and local body cells is called
a) Respiration
b) Perspiration
c) External respiration
d) Internal respiration
15) The outer layer of the arteries that consists of the fibrous tissue is called
a) Lumen
b) Tunica intima
c) Tunica media
d) Tunica adventitia
16) The systemic circulation is the circulation in which
a) The heart supplies blood to rest of the body
b) The heart supplies blood to the vital organ
c) The heart supplies blood to the brain
SLR-UM 319
*SLRUM319*
-4-
17) Pulmonary arteries are the arteries that carry

a) The pure blood
b) Impure blood
c) Impure blood from heart to lung
d) Both a) and b)
18) The coronary arteries are the arteries that supply
a) Blood to heart
b) Blood to whole body
c) Blood to upper part of body
d) Blood to lower part of body
19) Erythrocytes are also known as
a) WBCs
b) RBCs
c) Adipocytes
d) Monocytes
20) Adipocytes are also known as

a) Fat cells
b) Bone cells
c) Liver cells
d) RBCs
______________
*SLRUM319*
-5-
SLR-UM 319
Seat
No.
S.E. (Part I) (Biomedical Engg.) Examination, 2014

HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

1) Define cell and explain about the structure and composition of cell.
(54=20)
2) Draw a neat diagram of cardiac cycle and explain its significance.

3) Explain about the alimentary system.
4) Explain about the Einthorens triangle.
5) Explain about the exchange of gasses takes place in Alveoli.
(102=20)
1) With a neat diagram explain about the system circulation and pulmonary
circulation.
2) With a neat diagram explain about tissue and its different types.
3) With a neat diagram explain about the function of digestive system and
secretion.
IV. Answer any four question :
1) Explain about the control and secretion for Endocrine system.
(54=20)
2) With a neat diagram explain for nephren.

3) Explain about the medias of the EYE.
4) Explain about the significance of Reflex ARC and Reflex in nervous system.
5) Explain the hearing mechanism of ear.
(102=20)
1) Differentiate between male and female reproductive system in detail.
2) Explain about the deglutition and defecation for digestive system.
3) With a neat diagram explain about the structure and function of skin.
______________
Code No. SLR-UM 32

Seat
No.
*SLRUM32*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

SURVEYING II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 is compulsory and is objective multiple choice. Make

tick mark against correct answer option. Each question is
having 1 mark weightage.
2) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory, attempt any two out of Q. 3
1) The stadia method in tacheometry is used to determine
a) Horizontal angle
b) Vertical angle
c) Horizontal distance
d) Horizontal and vertical distances
Marks : 20
20
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 32
*SLRUM32*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Subtense bar is used for

a) Levelling
b) Measurement of horizontal distance in plane areas
c) Measurement of horizontal distance in undulated areas
d) Measurement of angles
3) Horizontal distance obtained by tacheometric observations
a) Requires slope correction
b) Requires pull correction
c) Requires slope and pull corrections
d) Do not require slope and pull corrections
4) The curve composed of two arcs of different radii having their centres on the
opposite side of the curve is known as a
a) Simple curve
b) Compound curve
c) Reverse curve
d) Vertical curve
5) The angle of intersection of a curve is the angle between the

a) Back tangent and forward tangent
b) Prolongation of back tangent and forward tangents
c) Forward tangent and long chord
d) Back tangent and long chord
6) Total angle of deflection of transition curve is
a) spiral angle
b) spiral angle /2
c) spiral angle /3
d) spiral angle /4
*SLRUM32*
SLR-UM 32
-3-
7) An upward grade of 1% meets with a descending grade of 1%. The rate of

change is 0.05% per chain. The length of curve is
a) 800 m
b) 80 m
c) 40 m
d) 220 m
8) The satellite constellation of GPS consists of

a) 4 satellites
b) 6 satellites
c) 18 satellites
d) 24 satellites
9) Satellite on-board
a) Quartz clock
b) Atomic clock
c) Stop clock
d) Digital clock
10) Geostationary satellites have

a) Same distance from earths centre
b) Same speed as earths rotation
c) Same mass as global weight
d) Same angle with geodetic stations
11) The range measurements in GPS are made with
a) 3L-band frequencies
b) 2L-band frequencies
c) 2C-band frequencies
d) 3C-band frequencies
12) Which of the following example of remote sensing system ?

a) Human eye
b) Bats guidance system
c) Remote sensing satellites
d) All of the above
13) Which one of these is a long wavelength radiation ?

a) Ultraviolet
b) X-ray
c) Infrared
d) Gamma rays
14) Following is the not type of photograph

a) Vertical photograph
b) Tilted photograph
c) Oblique photograph
d) Horizontal photograph
15) The graphical elements of vector data structures are

a) Point
b) Arc
c) Area
d) All of these
SLR-UM 32
*SLRUM32*
-4-
16) Observations occupying very small areas in relation to the scale of the database
are
a) Point data
b) Line data
c) Areal data
d) Continuous data
17) In raster overlay, a point is represented by a

a) String of cell
b) Group of cells
c) Single cell
d) All of these
18) The setting out of culverts involves locating the corners of abutments and
wing walls, with respect to the
a) Centre line of the water body
b) Centre line of road
c) Both of the above
19) Setting out is done

a) Prior to the preparation of plans
b) Along with the preparation of plans
c) After the preparation of plans
d) If obstruction are there
20) First step in reconnaissance survey is
a) Field visit
b) Survey using minor instruments
c) Study of available maps
d) Survey using major instruments
______________
SLR-UM 32
-5-
*SLRUM32*
Seat
No.

SURVEYING II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Q. 2 and Q. 6 are compulsory, attempt any two out of Q. 3

SECTION I
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Solve any two from remaining.
Assume suitable data if any.
2. a) To determine the elevation of station P in a tacheometer survey, the following

observations were made with the staff held vertical. The instrument was fitted
with the staff held vertical. The instrument was fitted with an anallatic lens
and its multiplying constant was 100.
Instrument
Station
HI
(m)
Staff
Vertical
Station Angle
1.45
B.M.
-600'
1.335, 1.895, 2.460
1.45
C.P.
+830'
0.780, 1.265, 1.745
1.40
C.P.
-630'
1.155, 1.615, 2.075
Staff reading (m)
If RL of BM is 250 m, calculate RL of point P.

b) Explain how a subtense bar is used to determine horizontal distances.
SLR-UM 32
*SLRUM32*
-6-
3. a) Two tangents intersects at a chainage of 1000 m, the deflection angle being

30. Calculate all the data foe setting out of a circular curve of radius 200 m
by the method of offsets from the chord produced, taking peg interval of 20 m.
b) What is the superelevation ? Why it is provided ?
9
4
4. a) What are the three segments of GPS ? Describe them briefly.

8
b) What do you understand by global positioning system ? Give an overview of GPS. 5
5. a) Calculate the RL of the various station pegs on a vertical curve connecting
two grades of +0.6% and 0.6%. The chainage and the RL of intersection
point are 550 and 325.50 m respectively. The rate of change of grade is 0.1% per
30 m.
b) Describe briefly the concept of three-dimensional position location via
intersection of multiple spheres.
9
4
SECTION II
2) Solve any two from remaining.
6. a) Two points A and B having elevations of 500 m and 300 m respectively above
datum appear on the vertical photograph having focal length of 20 cm and
flying altitude of 2500 m above datum. Their corrected photographic
co-ordinates are as follows.
Point
Photographic Co-ordinates
X(cm)
Y(cm)
+2.65
+1.36
1.92
+3.65
Determine the length of the ground line AB.

b) Explain in detail Mirror and Lens stereoscope with neat sketch.
8
6
7. a) Explain with the help of a neat sketch, an idealized remote sensing system.
b) Differentiate between the following :
i) Active and passive system of remote.
ii) Geostationary and sun-synchronous satellite.
7
6
8. a) Write a note on linkage of GIS to remote sensing.

b) Write a short note on the components of a GIS.
7
6
9. a) Explain the project survey for culvert.

b) Explain procedure to set out a building.
8
5
______________
SLR-UM 320
Code No.
S
*SLRUM320*
&
_
_
s
U
f
C
_
_

1. Fill in the blanks.
Marks : 20
20
A) Examples of medical uses for bioceramics are in _______________

a) pacemakers
b) kidney dialysis machines
c) respirators
d) all the above

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 320
*SLRUM320*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
B) The second group of vascular prostheses involves the synthetic grafts

made of _____________
a) Dacron and Teflon
b) Teflon
c) Dacron
d) Cellophane
C) The most important requirement for the blood interfacing

implants is _____________
a) blood volume
b) blood cells
c) blood compatibility
d) erythrocytes
D) The internal diameter of aorta is measured using ________________

a) ultrasonic or radiographic techniques
b) dialysis
c) hemodialysis
d) MRI scan
E) Teflon is used as coating on mechanical heart values _________________
a) to prevent wear resistant
b) for very low friction
c) increased strength
d) enhanced rigidity
F) _____________ is a primary advantage of using biological heart valve over

mechanical one.
a) ability to self repair
b) cost
c) reliability
d) durability
*SLRUM320*
SLR-UM 320
-3-
G) __________________ is the purpose of the stem cell attracting coating inside

an artificial artery.
a) to reject foreign materials
b) to help form a natural smooth coating
c) to provide tensile strength
d) to prevent infection
H) ________________ is used as tear substitutes.
a) Dimethyl silicone
b) Dimethyl siloxane
c) Methyl cellulose
d) Poly vinyl alcohol
I) ____________ is not a property of bio ceramics.

a) Long lasting
b) Structural failure resistant
c) Corrosion resistant
d) Have a high Youngs modulus
J) _______________ ceramics mainly used in patients suffering from

anaemia and similar disease.
K)
a) FECAP
b) ZCAP
c) ZSCAP
d) ALCAP
Full form of PMMA is _________________

a) Polymethane Methacrylate
b) Polymethyle Methacrylate
c) Polymethyle Methane Acrylate
d) Polymethane Methane Acrylate
L) _____________ metal offers very good bio-compatibility properties.

a) Stainless steel
b) Cobalt chromium
c) Gold
d) Titanium
M) ________________ is the Atomic Packing Fraction (APF) for a Hexagonal

Close-Packed (HCP) structure.
a) 0.63
b) 0.74
c) 0.96
d) 1.00
N) The directional atomic bonds include ______________

a) ionic bonds
b) covalent bonds
c) metallic bonds
d) all of them
SLR-UM 320
*SLRUM320*
-4-
O) Interstitial defects ________________

a) come from impurity atoms on lattice sites
b) are usually associated with vacant lattice sites
c) are found between lattice sites
d) none of these
P) An alloy is a ______________
a) pure metal
b) mixture of a metal and another element (metal or non-metal)
c) mixture of a metal and another metal only
d) mixture of a metal and non-metal only
Q) _______________ property of polymeric sutures helps them keep the wound
closed.
a) Low coff. of friction
b) High tensile strength
c) Low melting point
d) High thermoplasticity
R) _____________________ material coating helps the body to accept titanium

implants.
a) Hydroginated fat
b) Hydrochloric acid
c) Hydroxyapatite
d) Hydranged
S) ________________ property below would you NOT associated with the metals
used to make the ball section of the hip joint.
a) Wear resistance
b) High ductility
c) High tensile strength
d) Sturdiness
T) _________________ of these materials is NOT used to build the ball section

of the hip joint.
a) Chromium
b) Cobalt
c) Silicon
d) Titanium
______________________
*SLRUM320*
-5-
SLR-UM 320
S.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014

BIOMATERIALS (New)
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
20
A) Polyurethane
B) Silicon rubber
C) Zirconia
D) Classification of composites
E) Co-Cr Alloys
F) Hydrogel.
3. Solve any two :
A) Explain properties of stainless steel and its alloy and give biomedical
applications.
B) Explain the different devices used to assist healing of broken bones.
C) Define biomaterial and classify them in detail. Explain biocompatibility of
biomaterials.
20
SLR-UM 320
-6-
*SLRUM320*
SECTION II
20
A) Maxillofacial implants
B) Indigenous metals and their alloys
C) Wood and binding materials
D) Degradable biomaterials
E) Breast implants
F) Thermoplastic and thermosetting resins.
5. A) Explain surface properties of biomaterial and methods to measure surface
properties of biomaterial.
10
B) Solve any one :

a) Explain biological testing of biomaterials.
10
b) Explain properties and application of biomaterials used for soft tissue

replacement.
10
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 321
*SLRUM321*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------------------------------------------S.E. (Bio-Medical Engg.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS ANALYSIS AND DESIGN I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Use of datasheets are allowed.
If necessary, assume suitable data.
Marks : 20
1. Tick mark the correct option :
1) With a half-wave rectified voltage across the load resistor, load current flows
for ______ part of a cycle.
a) 0
b) 90
c) 180
d) 360
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 321
*SLRUM321*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) What should be the PIV rating of a diode used in a half wave rectifier which is
subjected to a secondary rms voltage of 6V.
a) 6 V
b) 12 V
c) 8.48 V
d) None of these
3) If the secondary voltage increases in a bridge rectifier with a capacitor input

filter, the load voltage will __________
a) Decrease
b) Remains the same
c) Increase
d) None of these
4) A circuit that removes positive or negative part of a waveform is called

___________
a) Clipper
b) Negative clamper
c) Regulator
d) Multiplier
5) For a clamper circuit to operate properly, its RLC time constant should be
a) Equal to the period of the signal
b) Greater than 10 times the period T of the signal
c) Smaller than 10 times the period T of the signal
d) Greater than 100 times the period T of the signal
6) The voltage across the Zener resistance is usually
a) Small
b) Large
c) Measured in volts
d) Subtracted from the breakdown voltage
*SLRUM321*
-3-
SLR-UM 321
7) Dual power supply needs

a) LM 317 and LM 337
b) LM 317 and IC 7805
c) LM 337 and IC 7805
d) IC 7805 and 7812
8) Breakdown does not destroy a Zener diode, provided the Zener current is
less than the
a) Breakdown voltage
b) Zener test current
c) Maximum Zener current rating
d) Barrier potential
9) When the Q point moves along the load line, VCE decreases when the collector
current
a) Decreases
b) Stays the same
c) Increases
d) Does none of the above
10) When there is no base current in a transistor switch, the output voltage from
the transistor is
a) Low
b) High
c) Unchanged
d) Unknown
11) What symbol is used to represent the supply voltage of the supply line that is
connected (directly or indirectly) to the drain of a FET ?
a) VSS
b) VDD
c) VGG
d) VCC
12) FETs may be used as both analogue and logical switches.

a) True
b) False
13) In a transistor
a) = / ( + 1)
b) = / (1 )
c) = / ( 1)
d) = ( + 1) /
14) In SCR, the turn ON time

a) Is independent of Vg
b) Decreases with increase of Vg
c) Varies as Vg
SLR-UM 321
*SLRAU525*
-4-
15) JFET is a
a) Current controlled device with high input resistance
b) Voltage controlled device with high input resistance
c) Current controlled Current Source (CCCS)
d) Voltage Controlled Voltage Source (VCVS)
16) Which of the following is an active device
a) an electric bulb
b) a diode
c) a BJT
d) a transformer
17) The control terminal (pin 5) of 555 timer IC is normally connected to ground
through a capacitor (~ 0.01 F ) . This is to
a) Protect the IC from inadvertent application of high voltage
b) Prevent false triggering by noise coupled onto the pin
c) Convert the trigger input to sharp pulse by differentiation
d) Suppress any negative triggering pulse
18) Which of the following is called as uncontrolled semiconductor device ?
a) Diode
b) Thyristor
c) GTO
d) MOSFET
19) Two stages of BJT amplifiers are cascaded by RC coupling. The voltage gain
of the first stage is 10 and that of the second stage is 20. The overall gain of
the coupled amplifier is
a) 10 20
b) 10 + 20
c) (10 + 20)2
d) (10 20)/2
20) IC 74121 is a
b) Bistable multivibrator
c) Monostable multivibrator
d) None of above
_____________________
-5-
*SLRAU525*
SLR-UM 321
Seat
No.
S.E. (Bio-Medical Engg.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS ANALYSIS AND DESIGN I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

Use of datasheets are allowed.
If necessary, assume suitable data.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
20
1) A center tapped rectifier is subjected to an input AC voltage of 6V-0-6V. Find

DC o/p voltage, RMS load voltage, DC load current and PIV rating of diode
across a load of 10 K. Assume ideal diode.
2) Explain the operation of a combinational biased clipper with the help of circuit
diagram, waveforms and transfer function.
3) Explain the input and output characteristics of common base amplifier.
4) Derive the ripple factor expression for inductor filter.
5) Draw internal block diagram of IC regulator and explain current boosting
feature.
6) Explain V-I characteristics of Zener diode. What are the disadvantages of
Zener regulator ?
1) Design power supply to provide an unregulated DC voltage of 35 V at
300 mA. Use filter to provide ripple of 0.01%
2) Compare all filter types.
3) Why biasing is required for a transistor ? Also write short notes on following
terms :
a) Thermal runaway
b) Stability factor
c) Voltage divider biasing.
20
SLR-UM 321
-6-
*SLRAU525*
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Give the comparison between FET and BJT.

2) Explain MOSFET.
3) Short note on silicon controlled rectifier
4) Explain pulse generator IC 74121
5) Explain in detail monostable mode of IC 555.
(210=20)
1) Write short note on :

a) TRIAC
b) Power MOSFET
2) Explain construction diagram of JFET also explain its parameters.
3) Design a timer circuit using IC 555 that operates with 12 V supply and turn
ON LED for duration of approximately 8 msec every time, it receives a
negative trigger pulse. The LED requires about 20mA of operating current
and forward voltage drop VF of 1.4 V. The high output of timer is
(Vo = VCC 2VBE 2VCESAT)volt.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 322
Seat
No.
*SLRUM322*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Bio-Medical Engg.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

LINEAR CIRCUIT ANALYSIS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory and to be solved in first thirty

minute on separate answer book provided.
1. Tick correct options :
Marks : 20
20
1) In a series RLC circuit, if C is increased what happen to the resonant

frequency.
b) It decreases
a) It increases
c) In remain same
d) It slightly increases
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 322
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM322*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The time constant of a series RL circuit is

a) LR
b) L R
c) R L
d) e R L
3) In a series resonant circuit VC = 150 V, VL = 150 V and VR = 50 V.
What is the value of source voltage ?
a) 350V
b) 300 V
c) 50 V
d) None
4) When a series RL circuit is connected to a voltage source V at t = 0,
the current passing through the inductor L at t = 0 is _______
a) V R
b) V L
c) Infinite
d) Zero
*SLRUM322*
-3-
SLR-UM 322
5) The current flowing through 5 resistor for circuit shown in Fig. 1 is
Fig. 1
a) 2A
b) 0.6A
c) 1.2A
d) 1.4 A
6) In the circuit shown in Fig. 2, what is the maximum power transferred
to the load
Fig. 2
a) 5W
b) 2.5W
c) 10W
d) 25 W
SLR-UM 322
-4-
*SLRUM322*
7) The maximum power transfer theorem can be applied

a) Only to DC circuit
b) Only to AC circuit
c) Both DC and AC circuit
d) None of above
8) Super position theorem is not applicable to network containing
a) Non linear element
b) Dependent voltage source
c) Dependent current source
d) Transforms
9) Capacitor does not allow sudden changes
a) In current
b) In voltage
c) Both current and voltage
d) None of above
10) The Q factor of parallel resonance is
1
a) W R
C
b) WCR
c)
WL
R
d)
WC
R
*SLRUM322*
-5-
SLR-UM 322
11) Two-part networks are connected in cascade. The combination is to

be represented as a single two port network. The parameters of the
network are obtained by adding the individual.
a) Z-parameter matrix
b) ABCD matrix
c) h-parameter matrix
d) ABCD parameter matrix
12) The system is said to be stable if and only if
a) All the poles lie on eight half of the s-plane
b) Some poles lie on the eight half of the s-plane
c) All the poles does not lie on the eight half of the s-plane
13) The necessary condition for the transfer function is that
a) The coefficients in the polynomials P(s) and Q(s) must be real
b) Coefficients in Q(s) may be negative
c) Complex poles and zeros may not conjugate
d) If the real port of poles is zero, then that poles must be multiple
14) A 2 port network using z-parameter representation is said to be
reciprocal if
a) Z11 = Z22
b) Z12 = Z 21
c) Z12 = Z21
d) Z11Z22 = Z12Z21
SLR-UM 322
-6-
*SLRUM322*
15) Network function Q(s) = s3 + s2 + 3s + 8

a) Network is not stable
b) Network is stable
c) Network is partial stable
d) None of above
16) In T-pad attenuator to give an attenuator of 60dB and to work in a line
of 500 impedance having R1 and R2
a) 498 , 1
b) 499 , 1
c) 499.5 , 0.1
d) 499 , 10
17) A network either T or is said to be of the constant K type if Z1 and
Z2 of the network the relation.
a) Z1/Z2 = K2
b) Z1 + Z2 = K2
c) Z1.Z2 = K2
d) Z1 Z2 = K2
18) An ideal filter should have
a) Zero attenuation in the pass band
b) Infinite attenuation in the pass band
c) Zero attenuation in the attenuation band
d) None of above
*SLRUM322*
-7-
SLR-UM 322
19) In the m-derived low pass filters the resonant frequency is to be chosen
so that it is
a) Above the cut-off frequency
b) Below the cut-off frequency
c) Between the cut-off frequency
d) None of above
20) For a two port bilateral network the three transmission parameter are
given by A =
6
17
1
,B =
and C = what is the value of D ?
5
5
5
a) 1
b)
1
5
c)
7
5
d)
6
7
______________
*SLRUM322*
-9-
SLR-UM 322
Seat
No.
S.E. (Bio-Medical Engg.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

LINEAR CIRCUIT ANALYSIS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(54=20)
1) Determine the maximum power delivered to load and RL for the circuit shown
in figure 3.
Fig. 3
2) Draw the Thevenins equivalent circuit for the below circuit shown in figure 4.
300
Fig. 4
SLR-UM 322
-10-
*SLRUM322*
3) Determine the current flowing through 10 resistance by using Nodal analysis

for the circuit shown in Figure 5
Figure 5
4) Derive the expression for resonant frequency of series RLC circuit and explain
magnification in series resonance circuit.
5) A series RL circuit with R = 30 and L = 15 H has a constant voltage V = 60V
applied at t = 0 as shown in Figure 6. Determine the current i, the voltage
across resistor and voltage across the inductor
Fig. 6
(210=20)
1) Calculate current flowing through (2 + j5) using Nortons theorem for the
circuit shown in figure 7.
200
Figure 7
*SLRUM322*
-11-
SLR-UM 322
2) A) Maximum current of 0.5A flows through the circuit when the capacitor is at
10 F with a fixed frequency and voltage of 5V. Determine resonance
frequency, band width, Q factor and resistance for the circuit shown in
figure 8.
Figure 8
B) Discuss variation of capacitive and inductive reactance and total impedance
with frequency of series RLC circuit.
3) A) Derive the expression for resonance frequency of parallel resonance circuit.
B) Find the value of L at which the circuit resonates at a frequency of 1000
rad/sec in the circuit shown in Figure 9.
A
B
Figure 9
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Derive short circuit admittance (Y) parameter.

2) Design a M-derived high pass filter with a cut-off frequency of 10kHz, design
impedance of 5 and m = 0.4
3) Determine the range of k for which the system is stable
Q(s) = s3 + 2s2 + 4s + k
SLR-UM 322
-12-
*SLRUM322*
4) What is an attenuator ? State the purpose which it is used ? Derive relation

between decibel and Neper.
5) Find the transmission or general circuit parameter for the circuit shown in
Fig. 10.
Fig. 10
(102=20)
1) a) Draw the pole zero diagram for the given network function I(s) and hence
obtain i(t)
20 s
(s + 5 ) ( s + 2 )
b) Explain necessary condition for transfer functions.
I(s ) =
2) Explain lattice attenuator and design a symmetrical lattice attenuator to have

characteristic impedance of 800 and attenuation of 20 dB.
3) Determine Y and Z parameter of network shown in Fig. 11.
Fig.11
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
324
*SLRUM324*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------S.E. (Part II) (Biomedical) Examination, 2014

BIOMEDICAL PROSTHETIC AND ORTHOTICS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Assume data wherever necessary.
Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only.

Marks : 20
1. Attempt all :
1) _______________ forces intersect at a point.
a) Concurrent
b) Coplanar
c) Non-concurrent
d) None
(120=20)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 324
*SLRUM324*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) _______________ forces do not lie in a single plane.

a) Coplanar
b) Non-coplanar
c) Non-concurrent
d) None
3) Reversal from outward rotation is called _______________

a) Inward rotation
b) Outward rotation
c) Extension
d) None
4) Return from elevation is called _______________

a) Downward rotation
b) Adduction
c) Depression
d) None
5) _______________ produces melanin.

a) Keratinocyte
b) Merkels cell
c) Melanocyte
d) None
6) _______________ connect bone to bone.

a) Ligaments
b) Tendon
c) Collagen
d) None
7) Number of steps taken per unit of time is called _______________

a) Cadence
b) Speed
c) Walking velocity
d) None
*SLRUM324*
SLR-UM 324
-3-
8) In _______________, foot fully contacts the ground.

a) Mid stance
b) Heal off
c) Foot flat
d) None
9) In _______________, LED is placed on the subject.

a) SELSPOT
b) VICON
c) Film/Video
d) None
10) _______________ record timing of GAIT.

a) Instrumented walkway
b) Electrogoniometers
c) Foot switches
d) None
11) Full form of NWB is _______________

a) Non-weight bearing
b) Normal-weight bearing
c) Normal weight brace
d) None
12) Fitting of lower limb employs plastic socket in _______________

a) Total contact socket
b) Partial contact socket
c) Total contact sachet
d) None
13) Correction of foot deformity utilises _______________

a) Three point pressure
b) Six point pressure
c) Two point pressure
d) None
14) Deep refers to _______________

a) Away from the midline of the body
b) Closer to the head
c) Inside the body and away from the body surface
d) None
15) Superficial refers to _______________
a) Towards the surface of the body
b) Away from the midline of the body
c) Closer in proximity to the trunk
d) None
SLR-UM 324
*SLRUM324*
-4-
16) Proximal refers to _______________

a) Closer in proximity to the trunk
b) At a distance from the trunk
c) Away from the midline of the body
d) None
17) Terminal devices contain _______________
a) Hooks
b) Hands
c) Hooks and hands both
d) None
18) An artificial device extension that replaces a missing body part is known as
_______________
a) Orthosis
b) Prosthesis
c) Prosthetist
d) None
19) Leg brace genu valgum makes the use of _______________

a) Four point pressure
b) Three point pressure
c) Five point pressure
d) None
20) Distal refers to _______________

a) Closer in proximity to the trunk
b) At a distance from the trunk
c) Toward the surface of the body
d) None
__________________
*SLRUM324*
-5-
SLR-UM 324
Seat
No.
S.E. (Part II) (Biomedical) Examination, 2014

BIOMEDICAL PROSTHETIC AND ORTHOTICS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

Draw diagrams/sketches wherever necessary.
Use legible handwriting, use blue/black only.
SECTION I
(45=20)

i) External and Internal forces
ii) Normal and Tangential forces
iii) Tensile and Compressive forces.
2) Explain in brief lever and its classification.
i) Direct and shear forces
ii) Bending and Torque forces
4) Write short notes on swing phase and its subphases.
5) Write short notes on interrupted light photography.
1) Explain in detail force system and its classification.
2) Explain in detail stress strain curve in biological tissues.
3) Explain in detail :
i) Goniometry
ii) VICON.
(210=20)
SLR-UM 324
-6-
*SLRUM324*
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) Explain in brief :
i) Orthotics
ii) Prosthesis.
2) Explain in brief ankle foot orthosis.
3) Explain in brief transverse plane movements
4) Explain in brief SACH foot.
5) Explain in brief shoulder orthoses.
(210=20)
1) Explain in detail principles of design related to function of orthosis.

2) Explain in detail spinal orthoses.
3) Explain in detail :
i) PTB prosthesis
ii) Terminal devices.
________________
Code No. SLR-UM
325
*SLRUM325*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014
ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENTATION(Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) _____________ is the ratio of the change in output to change in the input.

a) Error
b) Resolution
c) Accuracy
d) Sensitivity
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 325
*SLRUM325*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Common _________ type display requires an active low configuration for

code conversion.
a) anode
b) cathode
c) neutral
d) multi digit
3) Sensitivity =
a) current
b) voltage
c) Ifsd
d) none of above
4) Complex waveform are most widely accurately measured with __________

voltmeter.
a) electronic
b) digital
c) analog
d) r.m.s.
5) A multimeter is a ____________
a) PMMC
b) digital
c) electronic
d) phase
6) Using ___________ technique output pulse can be transmitted over long

feeder lines.
a) dual slope
b) ramp
c) r.m.s.
d) none of above
7) The CRO depends on the movement of an ____________

a) CRT
b) electronic beam
c) phosphor screen
d) deflection plates
*SLRUM325*
-3-
SLR-UM 325
8) Z axis modulation is also called as ___________ modulation.

a) intensity
b) X-axis
c) negative cycle
d) positive cycle
9) Dual beam CRO uses two separate __________

a) CRT
b) electronic beam
c) deflection plates
d) none of above
10) fv = __________ fh
a) fraction
b) coefficient
c) phase angle
d) constant
11) In ___________ type of recorder data is replaced for multiple times.

a) X-Y
b) U.V.
c) magnetic
d) fiber optic
12) A __________ converts physical quantity into electrical quantity.

a) sensor
b) transducer
c) biosensor
d) none of above
13) Piezoelectric sensor is a example of ___________ transducer.

a) active
b) passive
c) primary
d) secondary
14) Platinum metal is used to measure _________

a) pressure
b) temperature
c) resistance
d) voltage
15) Thermistors are _________ resistors.

a) metallic
b) conductive
c) non metallic
d) ceramic
16) ________ consumes less than 1 watt of power.

a) LVDT
b) strain gauge
c) multimeter
d) thermistor
SLR-UM 325
*SLRUM325*
-4-
17) Radiation ___________ measures the radiant heat emitted by a hot object.
a) thermometer
b) thermistor
c) pyrometer
d) RTD
18) The ____________ of the conductor changes when its temperature changed.
a) capacitance
b) inductance
c) resistance
d) none of above
19) Photo voltaic cells generate an output voltage proportional to the radiation
___________
a) intensity
b) power
c) capacity
d) energy
20) Temperature measurement with thermocouple is based on the _________

effect.
a) piezoelectric
b) seebeck
c) peltier
d) magnetic
__________________
*SLRUM325*
-5-
SLR-UM 325
Seat
No.
S.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENTATION (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
20
1) Explain the response of first order instrument for step input and ramp input.
2) List the factors involved in selection of voltmeter.
3) What are the advantages of electronic voltmeter over conventional
voltmeter ?
4) Compare between analog and digital phase meter.
5) Define sensitivity of electronic voltmeter. Explain the working of FET voltmeter.
6) Explain the principle of working of ramp type of digital voltmeter.
3. Solve any two :
1) With the help of block diagram explain working of dual slope integrating type
DVM.
2) With neat block diagram and waveforms explain operation of digital phase
meter.
3) Explain each block of a generalized measurement system in detail.
20
SLR-UM 325
-6-
*SLRUM325*
SECTION II
20
1) Explain intensity modulation and velocity modulation of CRO.

2) Explain the following terms with respect to CRO.
a) FOCUS
b) ALT/CHOP.
3) Explain the working of audio frequency signal generator with the help of block
diagram.
4) Explain the need of oscilloscope for biomedical measurement with any two
examples.
5) Draw panel layout diagram of CRO and mention the function of each control.
6) List the types of recorders and explain any one type in detail.
5. a) What is Lissajous pattern ? Explain how it can be used for measurement of
frequency and phase using suitable diagram.
b) Solve any one :
1) Explain ink jet writing system and touch screen display system.
2) Draw and explain block diagram of multichannel DAS system.
___________________
10
10
Code No.
*SLR-UM-326*
SLR-UM 326
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

DIGITAL DESIGN (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

2) Figures to the right indicates maximum marks.
Marks : 20
20
1) As compared to TTL, CMOS logic has ________________

a) Higher speed of operation
b) Higher power dissipation
d) All above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 326
*SLR-UM-326*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The logic family which consumes maximum power is ______________

a) ECL
b) TTL
c) CMOS
d) MOS
3) What is the logic which controls a stair case light associated with two switches
A and B located at the bottom and top of the stair case ______________
a) OR
b) AND
c) X-OR
d) X-NOR
4) A bubbled OR gate is equivalent to ______________ gate.

a) AND
b) NAND
c) NOR
d) X-OR
5) Each term in standard SOP form is called ______________

a) minterm
b) maxterm
c) dont care
d) literal
6) An 8-square eliminates ______________

a) 2 variables
b) 3 variables
c) 4 variables
d) 8 variables
7) A multiplexer with four select bit is a ______________

a) 4 : 1 multiplexer
b) 8 : 1 multiplexer
c) 16 : 1 multiplexer
d) 32 : 1 multiplexer
*SLR-UM-326*
SLR-UM 326
-3-
8) The basic memory element in a digital circuit ______________

a) consists of a NAND gate
b) consists of a NOR gate
c) is a flip flop
d) is a shift register
9) In a counter circuit consisting of four JK flipflops, all the JK flipflops get

triggered simultaneously. This counter circuit ______________
a) is a combinational circuit
b) is a asynchronous circuit
c) is a synchronous circuit
d) may be combinational or sequential
10) A TTL circuit acts as a current sink in ______________
a) low state
b) high state
c) high impedance
d) none of above
11) The decimal equivalent of the highest possible address for an 8-bit address
bus is
a) 8
b) 128
c) 255
d) 256
12) In a read only memory information can be stored

a) at the time of fabrication
b) by the user only once during its lifetime
c) by the user at number of times
d) in any of the above ways depending upon the type of the memory
13) A memory in which the present contents must be erased before the new
information can be stored is
a) ROM
b) PROM
c) EAROM
d) RAM
14) The minimum number of resistors required in a 4-bit D/A network of weightedresistor type is
a) 4
b) 8
c) 15
d) 16
SLR-UM 326
*SLR-UM-326*
-4-
15) A D/A converter has 5V full scale output voltage and an accuracy of 0.2%.
The maximum error for any output voltage will be
a) 5 mV
b) 10 mV
c) 20 mV
16) The speed of conversion is maximum in

a) Successive-approximation A /D converter
b) Parallel-comparator A/D converter
c) Counter ramp A /D converter
d) Dual slope A /D converter
17) When two n-bit binary numbers are added, the sum will contain at the most
a) n bits
b) n + 1 bits
c) n + 2 bits
d) n + n bits
18) Twos complement representation of 8 is

a) 0111
b) 1000
c) 01000
d) 101000
19) The ALU is used to perform

a) only logical operations
b) only arithmetic operations
c) arithmetic and logical operations
d) control operations
20) The binary division 11000 100 gives
a) 110
b) 1100
c) 11
d) 101
______________________
*SLR-UM-326*
-5-
SLR-UM 326
Seat
No.

DIGITAL DESIGN (Old)
Day and Date : Tuesday, 3- 6-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) Figures to the right indicates maximum marks.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Draw and explain BCD-to-decimal decoder.

b) Design mod-6 counter using T flip flop.
c) Explain in detail working of RS flipflop.
d) Explain effect of propagation delay in ripple counter.
e) Explain any three characteristics of logic family.
f) Design 16 : 1 mux using two 8 : 1 mux and one 2 : 1 mux.
3. a) Make k-map of following expression and obtain the minimal SOP and POS
forms f = AB + A C + C + AD + A B C + ABC.
b) Design Binary-to-gray code convertor.
10
10
OR
Explain master slave JK flipflop. How it overcomes race around condition.
Draw the waveforms which shows master and slave flipflops output.
10
SLR-UM 326
-6-
*SLR-UM-326*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Differentiate between PROM and EPROM.

b) Write a short note on Flash memories.
c) Realize a full adder using half adder and basic gates.
d) Give the timing characteristics of the write cycle.
e) Explain successive approximation method in short.
5. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Explain programming technique of EPROM in detail.

b) Explain the characteristics for a D/A converter. Also give the typical
specification for DAC 0808.
c) Perform the following operations :
i) (10000.10)2 (11000.11)2 use 2s complement.
ii) (1010.10)2 (101.01)2
iii) 72.6 + 15.2 use Ex 3 addition
iv) (1011.011)2 + (110.1)2.
___________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 327
Seat
No.
*SLRUM327*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Biomedical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Use of data sheet is allowed.
1) The oscillation in an LC circuit is produced due to
a) Transfer of energy between L & C
b) Transfer of resistance between L and C
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
Marks : 20
20
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 327
-2-
DO
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2) An electronic oscillator contains

a) amplifier without feedback
b) amplifier with positive feedback
c) amplifier with negative feedback
d) ac to dc converter
3) The phase shift introduced by RC network is
a) More than introduced by the amplifier
b) Less than introduced by the amplifier
c) Equal to introduced by the amplifier
d) No phase shift
4) Transformer coupling provides high efficiency because
a) Collector voltage is stepped up
b) DC resistance in the circuit at collector is low
c) Collector voltage is stepped down
d) Flux linkages are incomplete
5) Crossover distortion occurs in __________ amplifiers.
a) Push-pull class B
b) Class A
c) Class AB
6) Class AB operation is used to achieve

a) Maximum efficiency
b) Removal of even harmonics
c) Removal of cross over distortion
d) Reduction in collector dissipation
7) In a current series feedback amplifier, the input resistance
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged
d) None of these
*SLRUM327*
*SLRUM327*
-3-
SLR-UM 327
8) A gain of 1000,000 times in power is expressed by

a) 30 dB
b) 60 dB
c) 120 dB
d) 600 dB
9) For maximum o/p, a class A power amplifier must maintain a value

of quiescent current that is
a) One half of the peak load current
b) Twice the peak load current
c) At least as large as the peak load current
d) Just above the cutott-value
10) ___________ coupling provides the maximum voltage gain.
a) RC coupling
b) Direct coupling
c) Inductor coupling
d) Transformer coupling
11) An opamp is
a) A differential amplifier
b) A high gain push-pull amplifier
c) A direct coupled amplifier
d) Both a) and c)
12) In an ideal opamp, the voltage gain for the common mode signal is
a) 0
b) .5
d)
13) An opamp has a common mode gain of .01 and a deferential mode
gain of 105. Its CMRR would be
c) 2.0
a) 107
b) 103
c) 103
d) 107
14) The purpose of phase log compensation is to

a) Make opamp stable at very high values of gain
b) Reduce the unity gain frequency
c) Increase the bandwidth
15) The unit of slew rate is
a) M/sec
b) A/sec
c) V/usec
d) V.usec
SLR-UM 327
-4-
*SLRUM327*
16) If the output voltage changes simultaneously with input voltage

change. The value of slew rate is
a) 0
b) 1
c)
d) 1
17) The output waveform of an opamp differentiator for a triangular wave
input is
a) Ramp
b) Sine wave
c) Square wave
d) Spike
18)
The gain for this circuit is
a) 1
b) 20
c) 100
d) 120
19)
For the given circuit. Rg is R1IIR2.

The effect is
a) Increase the gain
b) Reduce offset voltage
c) Increase CMRR
d) Reduce offset current
20)
The value for V0 is
a) +3
b) 3V
c) 7V
d) +7V
_____________________
*SLRUM327*
-5-
SLR-UM 327
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

Use of data sheet is allowed.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) What is the difference between voltage amplifier and power amplifier ?

b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of multistage amplifiers ?
c) Derive an expression for o/p frequency of Wein bridge oscillator. Also give
loop gain condition.
d) Explain the frequency response of cascaded amplifier stages.
e) For a class B amplifier using a supply of Vcc = 25 V and driving load of 8 .
Determine maximum input power, o/p power and dissipation.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Explain the working of class A transformer coupled power amplifier. Show

that maximum collector efficiency of this amplifier is 50%.
b) Derive the expression for minimum gain for sustained oscillations and
frequency of oscillations in RC phase-shift oscillator.
SLR-UM 327
-6-
*SLRUM327*
c) Find the voltage gain, input impedance and output impedance of the voltage
series two stage negative feedback amplifier using transistor with hfe = 100
and hie = 2K .
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Draw the basic building blocks of an opamp.

b) What are the characteristic of an ideal opamp ?
c) Define the terms and explain its significance for CMRR and SVRR.
d) Explain why negative feedback is desirable in opamp amplifier applications.
e) Draw and explain zero crossing detector.
f) What is function of filters and classify the filters ?
5. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Draw and design the second order low pass filter at a high cutoff frequency
of 1 KHz. Also draw the frequency response.
b) Derive the equation for differentiator. Design a differentiator to differentiate
an input signal that varies in frequency from 10Hz to about 1KHz.
c) Derive the gain for inverting and non inverting amplifier.
_______________
Code No. SLR-UM
328
*SLRUM328*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (Part II) (New) (Biomedical) Examination, 2014
TRANSDUCER IN BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N. B. : Q. No. I compulsory.
Draw the figure for appropriate question.
I. Choose the correct answer :
Marks : 20
20
1) A device that converts one form of Energy into another form is called
a) Transducer
b) Resister
c) Inductor
d) Sensor
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 328
*SLRUM328*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) A piezoelectric crystal work as a

a) Sensor
b) Inductor
c) a) and b)
d) Transducer
3) A transducer that do not require energy for the conversion of quantities

is called
a) Passive
b) High order
c) Active
d) Low order
4) Which of the following is not a static characteristic of a transducer ?

a) Resolution
b) Temperature
c) Linearity
d) Accuracy
5) The term that describe the algebraic difference between the Algebraic
value and the true value of measured is called
a) Resolution
b) Linearity
c) Accuracy
d) None
6) SO2(%) =
[CH 4 ]
a) [ total O ]
2
b)
[HbO 2 ]
[ total Hb]
[Hb]
c) [ total O ]
2
d) None
*SLRUM328*
SLR-UM 328
-3-
7) ODC stands for

a) Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve
b) Osmosis degradation curve
c) Osteoblast deficiency curve
d) None
8) For Youngs Adult the normal range of PO2 in Arterial Blood is from
a) 10 20 mm-Hg
b) 30 40 mm-Hg
c) 50 60 mm Hg
d) 90 100 mm Hg
9) The relation u2 sin 2 = u1 sin 1 is known as

a) Maks law
b) Snells law
c) Lawrens law
d) Maxwells law
10) Diffraction Gratings are widely employed to produce a wavelength

spectrum in the
a) Thermometer
b) Spirometer
c) Spectrometer
d) None
11) Interference filters are formed by depositing a ___________ stack

layers on both sides of a thicker.
a) Refractive
b) Diffractive
c) Reflective
d) None
12) The half cell potential of Ag Electrode is

a) 1.680
b) 1.680
c) 0.799
d) 0.799
13) The Nernst equation for two aqueous solution of different concentration
is given by
a) E =
c) E =
RT a 2
In
nF a1
nF a 2
In
RT a1
b) E =
RT a1
In
nF a 2
d) E =
nF
= In a 2
RT
a1
SLR-UM 328
*SLRUM328*
-4-
14) The Electrode in which current passes freely. Across the Electrode-Electrolyte
Interface are called
a) Polarizable electrode
b) Standard Electrode
c) Standard polarizable Electrode
d) Non polarizable electrode
15) The skin consists of ________ layers.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 4
16) A transducer that converts Mechanical Energy into Electrical Quantity

is called
a) Piezoelectric transducer
b) Thermal transducer
c) Radiation transducer
d) None
17) The smallest change in the measure and that will result in a
measurable change in the transducer is called
a) Precision
b) Threshold
c) Hysteresis
d) Drift
18) The equation x(t) = Y + T dy/dx describes system of

a) I order
b) II order
c) III order
d) None
19) The instrument used to determine respiratory flow rate is called

a) Cardiogram
b) Myogram
c) Pneumotachogram
d) None
20) The transducer used for oximetry is

a) Magnetic flow meter
b) Photoelectric pulse pickup
c) Strain gauge
d) Doppler
__________________
*SLRUM328*
-5-
SLR-UM 328
Seat
No.
S.E. (Part II) (New) (Biomedical) Examination, 2014

TRANSDUCER IN BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
(54=20)
1) With a neat diagram explain about the piezoelectric transducer.

2) With a neat diagram explain about the Bourdon Tubes.
3) With a neat diagram explain about the Thermistor.
4) Explain about the half cell potentials.
5) Explain about the polarizable and non polarizable electrodes.
(210=20)
1) Explain about the first order and second order characteristics.

2) With a neat diagram explain about the LVDT.
3) With a neat diagram explain about the thermocouples.
(45=20)
1) Explain about the ion selective Electrodes.

2) Explain about the ISFETs.
3) Define Biosensors and Classify in detail.
4) Explain about the transduction phenomenon for biosensors.
5) Explain about the PO2 in detail.
(102=20)
1) With a neat diagram explain about the PCO2 electrodes.

2) Explain about the biosensors and immunosensors.
3) Explain about the radiation sensors and its application.
___________________
Code No. SLR-UM
329
*SLRUM329*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------S.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014
Biomedical Prosthetics and Orthotics
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Marks : 20
1. Answer the following questions :
(201=20)
1) Synovial _______________ is slightly movable.

a) Joint
b) Muscle
c) Bone

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 329
*SLRUM329*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The terms _______________ are synonymous with frontal and back.

a) Frontal and back
b) Verbal and dorsal
c) Anterior and posterior
d) None
3) Long type of _______________ performs the function of providing support.

a) Muscle
b) Bone
c) Joint
d) Fibre
4) _______________ joint is the example of hinge joint.

a) Pivot joint
b) Carpal
c) Middle
d) Ball and socket joint
5) Muscles which cause the joints to bend are called _______________

a) Flexors
b) Extensors
c) Abductors
d) Adductors
6) _______________ is measure of time.

a) Pressure
b) Displacement
c) Force
d) Duration
7) Force is indicated in _______________

a) Km/sec2
b) Cm/hour
c) Newton
d) Km/hr
*SLRUM329*
SLR-UM 329
-3-
8) Newtons _______________ law of motion is also known as law of momentum.

a) First
b) Second
c) Law of gravitation
9) _______________ planes of the body divides it into upper and lower parts.
a) Posterior
b) Anterior
c) Vertical
d) Horizontal
10) Kinematics is the branch of mechanics that describes the cause of

_______________
a) Pressure
b) Force
c) Biomechanics
d) Stress
11) In isometric _______________, the muscle shortens.

a) Shortens
b) Resting
c) Relaxation
d) Contraction
12) Mechanics is the branch of _______________ that deals with bodies in motion.
a) Physics
b) Orthosis
c) Chemistry
13) _______________ bending of trunk is an example of movement in frontal

plane and transverse axis.
a) Sagittal
b) Side way
c) Frontal plane
d) Lateral
14) Lever system prevalent in human _______________ is class III.

a) Arm
b) Leg
c) Bone
d) Joint
15) First law of _______________ is also called law of action and reaction.
a) Reflex
b) Energy
c) Inertia
d) Motion
SLR-UM 329
*SLRUM329*
-4-
16) Imaginary line passing _______________ from one side to other is called
sagittal plane.
a) Anteriorly
b) Laterally
c) Posterior
d) Vertically
17) _______________ twitch type of muscles is capable of resisting fatigue in

long duration activity.
a) Very less
b) Short
c) Fast
d) Both a) and b)
18) Bounding training and depth jumps are the best method to enhance explosive
strength in _______________ extremities.
a) Lower
b) Upper
c) Middle
19) The production of bioartificial skin grafts requires that both _______________
and keratinocytes.
a) Fibroblasts
b) Cellulose
c) Cells
d) Dermis
20) A clot that has formed inside a blood vessel is referred as a _______________
a) Coagulation
b) Clot
c) Plasma
__________________
*SLRUM329*
-5-
SLR-UM 329
Seat
No.
S.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

BIOMEDICAL PROSTHETICS AND ORTHOTICS
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(45=20)
1) What is meant by double stance in Gait cycle ?

2) Discuss biomechanics of skin in detail.
3) Explain with a neat diagram anisotropic property of bone.
4) Classify force system.
5) Write a short note on Goniometer.
1) Explain with necessary diagram determinants of Gait cycle.
2) Explain motion analysis in detail.
3) Explain the concept of equilibrium of force system in detail.
(210=20)
SLR-UM 329
-6-
*SLRUM329*
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) List different transducers used in prosthesis and orthosis and explain any
one in detail.
2) Explain the significance of patient rehabilitation in detail.
3) Draw and explain structure of Jaipur Foot.
4) Write a note on SACH foot.
5) Draw and explain the significance of Milwakee Brace.
(210=20)
1) Explain three point pressure system and its application for the design of
different orthosis.
2) What are the different spinal orthosis ? Explain any one.
3) Explain total PTB contact prosthesis using suitable diagram.
________________
Code No.
*SLRUM33*
SLR-UM 33
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S.E. Civil (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

BUILDING CONSTRUCTION AND DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Question no. 1 is compulsory and first 30 minutes are

reserved for it.
1. State whether following statements are correct or incorrect.
1) Benroom has eastern aspect.
Marks : 20
20
2) The environment created by man with or without aid of natural

environment is known as Built Environment.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 33
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM33*
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
3) Privacy means Access or Internal Thoroughfares.

4) Thermal resistivity is reciprocal of thermal conductivity.
5) Stack effect is associated with ventilation of rooms.
6) Humidifier is needed in summer air conditioning.
7) Tuck type is type of pointing work.
8) Living room shall be located facing back yards
9) Size of rooms depends upon the standard of living and income of
the individual family.
10) Water always flows through ridge lines.
11) CFL lamps requires power point connection.
12) P, Q and S are types of Traps.
13) FSI can be calculated by using plot area and block plan.
14) Artificial ventilation involves provision of fans and air conditioners.
15) Circulation demands provision of passages at proper places.
16) Water seal in traps is necessary to prevent entry of rodants.
17) Precast septic tanks can also be provided in houses.
18) For building drawing usually section is drawn through staircase
and W.C. bath.
19) V pointing is also known as Bucket handle.
20) Filtration removes humidity in air conditioning.
_____________________
*SLRUM33*
-3-
SLR-UM 33
Seat
No.

BUILDING CONSTRUCTION AND DESIGN
Day and Date :Saturday, 31-5-2014 Thursday, 22-10-2012
Time :3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80
All questions from Section I and II are compulsory.

Use answer book for Section II.
Use of both sides of full imperial sheet is permitted for
Section I.
SECTION I
2. It is proposed to construct a row houses for lower income group people. The
data given is as follows :
1) No. of units (houses) in one row = 04
2) Each circuit contains
living room = 20 m2
cum bedroom
Kitchen
= 12 m2
W. C and bath of suitable size.

3) Units are facing West side
Draw to scale 1 : 50
a) Detailed plan for all houses in a row
30
b) Section passing through W.C.
10
40
SECTION II
3. Answer any five questions.
(58=40)
a) Draw and explain types of server traps.
b) Explain with sketches types of paintings.
c) Explain with neat sketch summer and Winter air conditioning.
d) Explain defects in painting.
e) Explain wind effect and stack effect with neat sketches.
f) Explain need of rain water harvesting. Also explain components of rainwater
harvesting system to collect water from roof top.
g) Enlist principles of planning and explain any 3 in detail.
h) What is permission drawing ? What is its significance ? Write about what are
the things to be drawn on permission drawing.
_____________________
SLR-UM 330
Code No.
S
*SLRUM330*
a
D
&
f
C

3) Figure to right indicates full marks.
Marks : 20
SECTION I
1) In oscillator circuit feedback is
a) negative
b) positive
c) both
d) none
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 330
-2-
DO
T
NO
*SLRUM330*
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Dynamic response consists of

a) two parts, one steady state and the other transient state response
b) only transient state response
c) only steady state response
d) none of these
3) A megger is used for measurement of
a) low valued resistance
b) medium valued resistance
c) high valued resistance-insulation resistance
d) all of the above
4) A moving iron instrument can be used for current and voltage measurements
a) in a.c. circuits only
b) in d.c. circuits only
c) in a.c. circuits and in d.c. circuits for any value of frequency
d) in a.c. circuits and in d.c. circuits for any value of frequencies
upto about 125Hz
5) In measurement systems, which of the following are undesirable static
characteristics
a) Accuracy and Sensitivity
b) Drift, static error and dead zone
c) Reproducibility and non-linearity
d) Drift, static error, dead zone and non-linearity
*SLRUM330*
SLR-UM 330
-3-
6) Dead time elements are known as

a) Time delay elements
b) Pure delay
c) Transport lag
d) All of these
7) A quantity whose magnitude has a definite repeating time cycle is called a

a) transient
b) steady state periodic
c) steady state aperiodic
d) transient state periodic
8) Purely mechanical instruments cannot be used for dynamic measurements

because they have
a) high inertia
b) large time constant
c) higher response time
d) all of the above
9) Which meter has the highest accuracy in the prescribed limit of frequency
range ?
a) PMMC
b) Moving iron
c) Electrodynamometer
d) Rectifier
10) In average responding voltmeters ac amplifier has large amount of

a) Storage
b) Filter
c) Coupling
d) All
SECTION II
1) In CRT the focussing anode is located

a) between pre-accelerated and accelerating anode
b) after accelerating anode
c) before accelerating anode
2) The source of emission of electron in a CRT is
a) PN junction anode
b) A Barium and strontium oxide coated cathode
3) An aquadag is used in CRO to collect
a) primary electron
b) secondary emission electron
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none
SLR-UM 330
*SLRUM330*
-4-
4) P1 phosphor material is needed is used for display in CRTs for

a) photographic application
b) general purpose application
c) television application
d) all of the above
5) The Bandwidth of a CRO is from 0-20 MHz the fastest rise time a sine wave
can have to be accurately
a) 35 ns
b) 35
c) 17.5 ns
d) 0.175
6) An astable multivibrator
a) gives one output pulse for every two input pulses
b) gives a timed output pulse for a trigger input
c) gives a train of output pulses for a trigger input
d) gives a four output pulses for a single input pulses
7) A triangular wave shape is obtained
a) by integrating square wave
b) by differentiating a wave
c) by differentiating a square wave
d) by integrating a sine wave
8) In signal generator
a) energy is created
b) energy is generated
c) energy is converted from signal D.C. sources into a.c. energy
at same specific frequency
d) all the above
9) A video frequency oscillator has a frequency range of
a) 20 Hz to 20 KHz
b) 20 KHz to 30 KHz
c) D.C. to 5 MHz
d) 2 MHz to 30 MHz
10) Feedback oscillator have a closed loop gain of

a)
b)
/
c)
d)
/
__________________
*SLRUM330*
-5-
SLR-UM 330
S.E. (Bio-Medical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENTATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Draw and explain a block diagram of digital multimeter.
b) Explain the factors involved in selection of voltmeter.
c) Differentiate between digital multimeter and conventional analog voltmeters.
d) Explain analog phase meter.
e) Explain dead time elements. What is use of dead time elements in the systems ?
3. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Explain a generalized measurement system and illustrate with example.
b) Explain digital frequency meter with its principle, circuit and block diagram.
c) With the neat diagram explain true RMS responding voltmeter.
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) How does a computer based aid the operator ?
2) What are the advantages of LCD display over oxidic tube and LED display ?
3) Explain about the multichannel DAS.
4) Explain about the oscilloscopes for biomedical measurement.
5) Explain about the non fade-display system.
(210=20)
1) Draw the block diagram of an oscilloscopes and explain the function of each
block.
2) Explain about the laser optics and instrumentation tape recorder.
3) Explain about the single and multi channel display.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
331
*SLRUM331*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------S.E. (Bio-Medical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014
DIGITAL DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) Which of the following statements regarding ICs is not correct ?

a) T TL is fastest logic family
b) T TL has largest fan-out
c) CMOS has biggest noise margin
d) ECL has least propagation delay
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 331
*SLRUM331*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Choose the correct order of power dissipation of the logic gate family
1) TTL
2) CMOS
3) ECL
a) 2 > 1 > 3
b) 3 > 1 > 2
c) 3 > 2 > 1
d) 1 > 2 > 3
3) The minimum number of NOR gates required to implement
)(
A A + B A + B + C is equal to
a) 4
b) 3
c) 0
d) 7
4) The no. of Boolean expression for n variables are

a) 2n
b) n2
c) 2 n2
d) 2n^2
5) Combinational logic design using multiplexer is equivalent to _______________

implementation.
a) AND-OR
b) OR-AND
c) AND-AND
d) OR-OR
6) Minterm expression for a Boolean function is given as

F ( A, B, C) = m (0, 1, 2, 3, 5, 6) where A is the MSB and C is the LSB. The
minimized expression for the function is

a) A + (B C)
b) A + (B C)
c) (A B) + C
d) ABC
*SLRUM331*
SLR-UM 331
-3-
7) PAL contains
a) Non-programmable AND array and programmable OR array
b) Programmable OR array and non-programmable AND array
c) Programmable AND array and non-programmable OR array
d) Non-programmable AND array and programmable OR array
8) With 100 KHz clock frequency eight bits can be serially entered into shift
register in
a) 10 micro seconds
b) 8 micro seconds
c) 800 micro seconds
d) 80 micro seconds
9) A divide by 10 Johnson (twisted ring) counter requires

a) Five flip-flops
b) Twelve flip-flops
c) Four flip-flops
d) Ten flip-flops
10) The present state and next state is 1 and 0 respectively then input J and K is
a) 0, X
b) X, 1
c) 1, X
d) X, 0
11) Solving 11 + (2) will yield which twos-complement answer ?

a) 1110 1101
b) 1111 1001
c) 1111 0011
d) 1110 1001
12) If (12A7C)16 = (X)8 then the value of X is

a) 224174
b) 425174
c) 17325
d) 225174
13) The gates required to build a half adder are

a) EX-OR gate and NOR gate
b) EX-OR gate and OR gate
c) EX-OR gate and AND gate
d) Four NAND gates
SLR-UM 331
*SLRUM331*
-4-
14) The speed of conversion is maximum in

a) Successive-approximation A/D converter
b) Parallel-comparative A/D converter
c) Counter ramp A/D converter
d) Dual-slope A/D converter
15) Which of the memory is volatile memory ?
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) PROM
d) EEPROM
16) If the range of output voltage of a 6-bit DAC is 0 to 15 volts, what is the step
voltage of the output ?
a) 0.117 volt/step
b) 0.234 volt/step
c) 2.13 volts/step
d) 4.26 volts/step
17) What is the resolution, in percent, of a 12-bit DAC ?

a) 8.33
b) 0.049
c) 0.000488
d) 0.083
18) What is the maximum conversion time for an 8-bit successive-approximation

ADC with a clock frequency of 20 kHz ?
a) 12.8 ms
b) 6.4 ms
c) 0.05 ms
d) 0.4 ms
19) When signed numbers are used in binary arithmetic, then which one of the
following notations would have unique representation for zero ?
a) Sign-magnitude
b) 1s complement
c) 2s complement
d) 9s complement
20) Which of the following requires refreshing ?

a) SRAM
b) EPROM
c) ROM
d) DRAM
__________________
*SLRUM331*
-5-
SLR-UM 331
Seat
No.
S.E. (Bio-Medical Engineering) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

DIGITAL DESIGN
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(44=16)
1) Draw and explain the TTL standard two input NAND Gate configuration.
2) Define following terms :
a) SOP form
b) POS form
c) Minterm
d) Maxterm.
3) What is mean by data selector ? Explain how to design 16 : 1 MUX using two
8 : 1 MUX and one OR gate.
4) What is register ? Explain 4-bit Serial In Serial Out (SISO) shift register with
waveform.
5) Obtain the minimised expression for given logical function and implement
using NOR gate only :
F (A, B, C, D) = M (1, 3, 7, 11, 15) . d (0, 2, 5).
(38=24)
1) Design BCD to 7-segment decoder for common anode display (design any
four segment out of 7-segment).
2) Design MOD-6 synchronous counter using J-K flip flop.
SLR-UM 331
-6-
*SLRUM331*
3) Give the difference between Latch and Flip-flop. Explain clocked SR flip flop
with characteristic equation and truth table.
4) Implement following functions with PLA :
F1 (A, B, C) = m (0, 1, 2, 4)
F 2 ( A, B, C) = m ( 0, 5, 6, 7) .
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(44=16)
1) Briefly explain the following :

i) Binary number system
ii) Signed binary numbers.
2) What is a digital comparator. Explain the working of a 2-bit digital comparator
with the help of Truth Table and logic diagram.
3) With the help of R-2R binary network, explain the working of a 3-bit D/A
converter.
4) Draw and explain in detail the write cycles of RAM.
5) With the help of a truth table explain the working of a half subtracter. Draw the
logic diagram using gates.
(38=24)
1) With the help of a neat diagram, explain the working of a binary

weighted-resistor D/A converter. Also derive the equation output voltage.
2) Design a BCD to excess 3 code converter using minimum number of NAND
gates. Hint : use k map techniques.
3) Perform the operation using 2s complement of the two numbers.
(+187)10 (+41)10 convert following no. to Hexadecimal, octal and binary
equivalent (125)10.
4) Difference between static and dynamic RAM. Draw the circuits of one cell
of each and explain its working.
________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 332
*SLRUM332*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------S.E. (Bio-Medical Engg.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014
ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

3) Use of calculator and data sheet is allowed.
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) The main purpose of using transformer coupling in class A amplifier is to

make it more ____________
a) distortion free
b) bulky
c) costly
d) efficient
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 332
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM332*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The circuit efficiency of class-B amplifier is more because __________

a) transistor remains off when i/p signal is absent
b) it has only one transistor
c) it has more distortion
d) none of these
3) In a class-A amplifier the current in the o/p circuit flows for __________
b) 180
a) 360
c) 90
d) less than 90
4) For amplifiers with negative feedback, the bandwidth __________
a) lowers its input and output resistances
b) increases its input and output resistances
c) lowers its input resistance and increases o/p resistance
d) none of these
5) Negative feedback reduces distortion in an amplifier only when it __________
a) comes as part of i/p signal
b) as part of its o/p
c) is generated within the amplifier
d) exceeds a certain safe level
6) The advantages of using negative feedback is __________
b) aging of components
a) stabilizes against temp. changes
c) frequency variations
d) all of these
7) The gain of cascaded amplifier is equal to
b) sum of individual gains
a) product of individual gain
c) ratio of stage gains
d) none of these
*SLRUM332*
-3SLR-UM 332
8) Two stages of gains, 50 and 50 are cascaded. The dB gain of overall
amplifier is __________
b) 100
a) 2500
c) 67.95
d) none of these
9) Stability of __________ oscillator is best.
b) Hartley
a) Crystal
c) Colpitts
d) None of these
10) Freq. of oscillation of RC phase shift oscillator is __________
1
1
a)
b)
2 RC
2RC
1
1
c)
d)
RC
R
2 6 + 4
2 6 + 4
R
RC
11) For inverting amplifier if Rf=100k and Ri=1K then closed loop gain is
b) 1000
a) 1,00,000
c) 101
d) 100
12) In the common-mode __________
a) both inputs are grounded
b) the outputs are connected together
c) an identical signal appears on both input
d) the output signals are in-phase
13) The feedback path in op-amp integrator consists of
a) A resistor
b) A capacitor
c) A resistor and capacitor in series
d) A resistor and capacitor in parallel
14) In the circuit shown below the output voltage will be
a) 9 V
c) 11 V
b) 10 V
d) 12 V
SLR-UM 332
*SLRUM332*
-4-
15) The effect of a finite gain of an operational amplifier used in integrator

is that
a) It would not integrate
b) Slope of output will vary with time
c) Final value of output voltage reduces
d) There will be stability is circuit
16) The op-amp circuit shown below is
a) High pass filter

c) All pass filter
b) Low pass filter

d) Band pass filter
17) Which of the following characteristics do not necessarily apply to the

op-amp ?
b) Low power
a) High gain
c) High input impedance
d) Low output impedance
18) An op-amp can be classified as ____________ amplifier.
b) Low rm
a) Linear
c) Positive feedback
d) RC coupled
19) For an op-amp with negative feedback the output is
a) Equal to the input
b) Increased
c) Fed back to the inverting input
d) Fed back to the non inverting input
20) Of the values listed, the most realistic value of open-loop voltage gain of
an op-amp is
b) 2000
a) 1
c) 80 dB
d) 1,00,000
______________________
*SLRUM332*
-5-
SLR-UM
332
SLR-UM
332
Seat
No.
S.E. (Bio-Medical Engg.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

3) Use of calculator and data sheet is allowed.
SECTION I
(45=20)
1) What are the advantages offered by direct coupling method ?

2) Identify the type of negative feedback present in the following circuit. Also
find feedback factor.
o/p
3) Explain the operation of class-B amplifier. Also derive the expression for
maximum efficiency.
4) What is harmonic distortion ? How it can be removed ?
5) Explain Colpitts oscillator. Derive the expression for frequency of oscillations.
SLR-UM 332
-6-
*SLRUM332*
3. Answer any two :
(210=20)
1) Design RC phase shift oscillator for o/p frequency of oscillations of 16 kHz

with load impedance of 10 k and peak to peak amplitude 6 V. Use
Vcc = 12 V.
2) What is the need of cascading multiple stages of amplifiers ? Explain frequency
response of two stage RC coupled amplifier.
3) Classify power amplifiers. Efficiency of transformer coupled class A amplifier
is 50%. Justify the statement.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
1) Draw and explain ideal transfer characteristics.

2) Explain electrical characteristics of Ideal op-amp.
3) Compare Bandwidth, Transient response and slew rate of op-amp.
4) Draw and explain practical integrator.
5) Explain working of Schmitt trigger.
6) Explain in brief Slew Rate.
5. Solve any two :
(210=20)
1) Design a High pass filter at cutoff frequency of 1 KHz with a passband gain of
2 and plot the frequency response of filter.
2) Explain EGG and EMG application. What is the significance of error amplifier
in these applications ?
3) Explain input offset current and input bias current in an op-amp.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 334
*SLRUM334*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

BIOLOGICAL MODELING AND SIMULATION
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Day & Date ____________________ _
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Section ________________________________________
__________ Examination _________
______________ (Paper - _______)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. 1) Goldmans equation is called as _________ field equation.

a) constant
b) variable
c) varying
d) none
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 334
*SLRUM334*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Ficks law based on the principle of

a) drift
b) velocity
c) diffusion
d) acceleration
3) Ohms law is based on the principle of

a) diffusion
b) drift
c) acceleration
d) velocity
4) For space charge neutrality cataions =

a) ions
b) atoms
c) protons
d) anaions
5) Nernst equation is called as ________ ion equilibrium.

a) two
b) three
c) one
d) none
6) Resting state potential of nerve muscle is _________ mV.

a) 90
b) 90
c) + 20
d) 20
7) Extra cellular fluid consists of large number of _________ ion.

a) Na+
b) K+
c) NaCl
d) None
*SLRUM334*
SLR-UM 334
-3-
8) Modeling is defined as process of mapping of

a) object
b) target
c) graph
d) laws
9) Donnans equation considers ________ ions.

a) two
b) three
c) four
d) none
10) Active transport mechanism based on pumping of

a) NaCl
b) Na
c) Na-K
d) None
11) ________ is called as pressure transducer of neuro muscular system.

a) golgi tendon
b) gamma fibers
c) motor neurons
d) muscle spindle
12) Reaction on muscular action is called as ________ action .

a) reflection
b) reflex
c) incident
d) none
13) Space suit is a example of ________ system.

a) neuro muscular
b) eye movement
c) thermoregulatory
d) none
14) The deficiency of ________ causes Parkinsons syndrome .

a) Dophamine
b) Na+
c) K+
d) Ca++
15) Following a movable object is called as _________ eye movement.

a) smooth pursuit
b) vergence
c) saccadic
d) none
SLR-UM 334
*SLRUM334*
-4-
16) 9Na+ represents ________ of sodium ion.

a) capacitance
b) inductance
c) conductance
d) none
17) Rapid jerky eye movement is called as _____________ movement.

a) saccadic
b) fast
c) smooth
d) slow
18) Addition of gamma fibers gives ________ control mechanism of neuromuscular

system.
a) two
b) one
c) three
d) none
19) Moterneurons are part of _______ system.

a) ANS
b) CNS
c) PNS
d) None
20) Different eye _________ are responsible for various eye movements.
a) muscles
b) gland
c) lens
d) none
__________________
*SLRUM334*
-5-
SLR-UM 334
Seat
No.
T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

BIOLOGICAL MODELING AND SIMULATION
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 80
Instruction : Figures to the right indicate full marks.

SECTION I
20
1) Write expression for Goldmans equation and explain its significance.

2) Define model and purpose of modeling. Also list all the steps of Modeling.
3) Derive and explain Nernst equation in detail.
4) Explain active transport mechanism with neat diagram.
5) Write expression for cable expression and explain its significance.
20
1) Explain basic biophysics tools with their laws, derivation and significance.
2) Draw electrical equivalent model for circulatory and respiratory system and
explain them in short.
3) Draw electrical equivalent model of a biological membrane and explain it in
detail.
SECTION II
1) Draw and explain concept of mono, polysynaptic and stretch reflex in detail.
2) Explain four types of eye movements with respect to eye muscles in detail.
Mention example of each.
20
SLR-UM 334
-6-
*SLRUM334*
3) Mention any three industrial applications of thermoregulatory system and explain

any one of it in detail.
4) What is the role of Golgi tendon organ and gamma fibers in modeling of
neuromuscular System ?
5) Explain the occurrence and indications of Parkinsons syndrome in detail.
20
1) Draw and explain reciprocal innervations model of neuromuscular system in

detail.
2) Define and explain pharmacokinetics for drug delivery system in detail.
3) Draw linearized model of the immune response and explain it with behavior of
the immune system in detail.
______________
Code No. SLR-UM 336
*SLRUM336*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------T.E. (Part I) (Biomedical Engg.) Examination, 2014

PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 objective type questions. Solve in separate answer

sheet within 30 min.
3) Assume suitable data.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct alternative (one mark each) :

1) In a communication system, noise is mostly to affect the signal
(120=20)
a) At the signal
b) In the information system
c) In the channel
d) At the receiver
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 336
*SLRUM336*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) One of the following types of noise assumes of great importance at high

frequency. It is the
a) flicker noise
b) shot noise
c) agitation noise
d) transit-time noise
3) Indicate the noise whose source is in a category different from that of the
other three
a) cosmic noise
b) atmospheric noise
c) galactic noise
d) solar noise
4) If the probability of occurrence of message is Pk = 18 then amount of

information conveyed is
a) 4 bits
b) 8 bits
c) 3 bits
d) 1 bit
5) A signaling system in which each letter of the alphabet is represented by a

different symbol is not used because
a) it is redundant
b) too many pulses per letter are required
c) it would be too difficult for an operator to memorize
d) noise would introduce too many errors
6) Indicate the false statement, An AM signal contains
a) wc
b) wc + wm
c) wc wm
d) wm
*SLRUM336*
SLR-UM 336
-3-
7) If the carrier of 100% modulated AM wave is suppressed, the percentage

power saving will be
a) 100
b) 50
c) 150
d) 66.67
8) If the modulating signal frequency is doubled, then maximum frequency

deviation is
a) doubled
b) halved
c) remains same
d) can not be predicated
9) Theoretically, the BW required for a frequency modulated signal is _________

the modulating signal frequency.
a) double
b) equal
c) ten times
d) infinite
10) An FM signal with deviation is passed through a mixer, and has its frequency
reduced 5 fold. The deviation in the o/p of the mixer is
a) 5
b)
c) indeterminate
d) 5.
11) Indicate which one of the following modulations is digital in nature ?

a) Pulse amplitude modulation
b) Pulse time modulation
c) Pulse code modulation
d) Pulse width modulation
12) Pulse width modulation may be generated

a) with a monostable multivibrator
b) by integrating the signal
c) by differentiating pulse position modulation
d) with a free running multivibrator
13) In PCM system, if we increase the quantization levels from 2 to 8, the relative
BW requirements will
a) be doubled
b) remains same
c) be tripted
d) become eight times
14) The modulation system inherently most noise-resistant is

a) FM
b) PWM
c) PCM
d) Phase modulation
SLR-UM 336
*SLRUM336*
-4-
15) The main disadvantage of differential PCM is

a) its incompatibility with TDM
b) the complex circuitry it requires
c) the large BW that are required for if
d) the complications encountered in the encoding and decoding process
16) The ADM is preferred to ordinary delta modulation because the former
a) gives a lower error rate
b) removes the slope overload problem
c) requires lesser BW
d) is comparatively more immune noise
17) A method by which several channels are interleaved and then transmitted
together is known as
a) A super group
b) TDM
c) FDM
d) a group
18) The standard data rate of a PCM voice channel is __________ bps.
a) 8 k
b) 8
c) 16
d) 64 k
19) The redundancy of an (n, k) code is

a) n/k
b) k/n
c) n k/n
d) n k/k1
20) A code word is valid when syndrome is

a) 1
b) 0
c)
d) 1
______________
*SLRUM336*
-5-
SLR-UM 336
Seat
No.
T.E. (Part I) (Biomedical Engg.) Examination, 2014

PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) Assume suitable data.
SECTION I
(45=20)
a) What is meant by modulation and explain with waveform FM technique in
brief.
b) Derive expression for the instantaneous voltage of an AM wave.
c) Prove that the balanced modulation produces an output consisting of side
bands only with carrier removed.
d) Describe frequency and phase modulation giving mechanical analogies for
each.
e) A 400 W carrier is modulated to a depth of 75% calculate total power in the
modulated wave.
a) State and explain noise figure and derive the expression for same.
b) Explain block diagram of low level DSBFC.
c) Explain in brief angle modulation circuits using varactor diode.
(210=20)
SECTION II
a) What is pulse modulation ?
b) List digital modulation technique and explain ASK in detail.
c) Explain with suitable diagram PWM modulator.
d) Explain coherent DPSK technique.
e) What are types of code and explain linear code.
(45=20)

(210=20)
a) Explain pulse time modulation generation of PTM signals using direct method.
b) Explain DM and what are disadvantages of DM. How to overcome the same.
c) Explain digital modulation technique.
______________
Code No. SLR-UM
337
*SLRUM337*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------T.E. (Bio-medical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

SIGNALS AND SYSTEM
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Objective type question :
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1. A causal system is independent of

a) Past values
b) Present values
c) Future values
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 337
*SLRUM337*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2. Convolution integral can be applied to signal of

a) Continuous time
b) Discrete times
c) Digital type
d) All
3. If a system is giving bounded O/P for bounded I/P the system will be
a) Causal
b) Stable
c) Non-Causal
d) Unstable
4. In a discrete time signal X(n), n represent a ___________

a) Primary number
b) Natural number
c) Even number
d) Integer value
5. If we want a signal to be displayed late what operation should we perform

a) Folding
b) Advance
c) Expansion
d) Delay
6. The signal which exists only at t = 0, whose area is unity is referred as u(t)
a) u(t)
b) (t)
c) r(t)
d) Signum function
7. A discrete time signal x(n) is said to be periodic if it satisfies the condition

a) x(n) = x(n + N) for all N
b) x(n) = x(n N) for all N
c) x(n) = x(n)
d) x(n) = x(n)
*SLRUM337*
SLR-UM 337
-3-
8. An analog signal is given below m(t) = 4 cos 200 t then the minimum sampling
rate to avoid aliasing is
a) 200 Hz
b) 100 Hz
c) 100 Hz
d) 200 Hz
9. A signal having period of 10 sec will have angular frequency

a)
b) 2
c) 5
d) /5
10. The Fourier series expansion of an odd periodic function contains ________
terms only.
a) cosine
b) sine
c) DC and sine
d) DC and cosine
11. The condition for Nyquist rate is

a) Fs 2 Fm
b) Fs > 2 Fm
c) Fs 2 Fm
d) Fs = 2 Fm
12. Fourier series of x(t) can be given as

a)
ak e Jkot
b)
k =
0
c)
ak e
Jk o t
d)
a) X( J) = x( t ) e Jt dt
x(t)e
Jno t
dt
c) X( J) =
x(t)e
d) None
Jk o t
ak e
k =
13. Fourier transform of x(t) can be given as
ak e
k=0
k =
b) X( J) =
Jnot
dt
J o t
SLR-UM 337
*SLRUM337*
-4-
14. x(n) = {3, 4, 2, 3, 4} then ROC of X(z) is

a) Entire z-plane
b) Entire z-plane except at z = 0 and z =
c) Entire z-plane except at z = 0
d) Entire z-plane except at z =
15. The inverse z-transform of X(z) is
a) X(n) =
1
2
X(z) zn 1dz
c) x(n) = 1
2 J
X( z )z n 1dz
b) x(n) = 12J
d) x(n) = 1
2J
X(z) zndz
x(z)z n + 1dz
16. The signal x(t ) recovered from sampled signal xp(nt) is closely related to its
original signal x(t) if the method of signal reconstruction is
a) Zero order hold
b) Sampling
c) Liner interpolation
d) Nyquist rate
17. The conversion or transformation of signal from time domain into frequency
domain is
a) Fourier transform
b) Z-transform
c) Laplace transform
d) Inverse Z-transform
18. If x(n) = u(n) its ROC is

a) | z | < 1
b) | z | > 1
c) Entire z-plane
d) | z | = 1
19. The convolution in time domain is multiplication in

a) z-domain
b) s-domain
c) Frequency domain
d) All
20. Bilateral z-transformation can be described with

a) n >
b) < n
c) < n <
d) None
__________________
*SLRUM337*
-5-
SLR-UM 337
Seat
No.
T.E. (Bio-medical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

SIGNALS AND SYSTEM
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
I. Attempt any four :
(45=20)
1) Define a system. What are the types of system ? Explain any two.
2) State and explain sampling theorem in time domain.
3) Define convolution. Explain the properties of continuous convolution.
4) Sketch the following signals :
a) u(t) u(t 2)
b) r(t) = 2r(t 1) + r(t 2).
5) Find the convolution of given sequence by using matrix method.
x1(n) = {1, 2, 3, 1}
x2(n) = {2, 3, 2}
II. Attempt any two :
(210=20)
1) Verify the general properties of the system given y(n) = x(n) x(n 1) .
2) The analog signal m(t) is given below
m( t ) = 4 cos(50 t ) + 8 sin(300 t ) cos(100 t ) . Calculate Nyquist sampling
rate.
3) Find the given signal is energy signal, power signals, neither energy nor
power signal x(t) = e3t u(t).
SLR-UM 337
-6-
*SLRUM337*
SECTION II
III. Attempt any four :
(45=20)
1) Define Fourier transform state and explain frequency shifting and convolution
properties.
2) Define unilateral and Bi-lateral z-transform explain the region of convergence
(ROC).
3) Find the Fourier transform of x(t) = cos wot.
z
| z | > 1 Find the inverse z-transform by using power series
z 1
exponential method.
4) X(z) =
1 12 z 1
|z|> 1
5) X(z) =
2
1 + 3 4 z 1 + 18 z 2
Find the inverse z-transform by using partial Fraction method.

IV. Attempt any two :
(210=20)
1) Find the trigonometric Fourier series for the periodic signal x(t) in fig. below :
2) Find the Fourier transform of Triangular pulse
( T ) = 1 2T(t)
x(t ) = t
|t|< T
=0
Draw the amplitude spectrum.

3) Find the inverse z-transform of given signal X(z) =
partial fractional method.
_________________
z(z 1)
by using
(z + 2)3 (z + 1)
Code No. SLR-UM 338
*SLRUM338*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------T.E. (Part II) (Bio-medical) Examination, 2014

BIO-MEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) The frequency range of alpha rhythm is

a) 5 4 Hz
b) 4 8 Hz
c) 8 13 Hz
d) 13 22 Hz
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 338
*SLRUM338*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) ___________ is a record of potentials from the retina.

a) Electroretinogram
b) Electrogastrogram
c) Electrooculogram
d) All of the above
3) When the cell membrane is momentarily ve with respect to interior which is

called __________
a) Repolarization
b) Depolarization
c) Both
d) None
4) The distributed capacitance between the signal conductor and from the signal
conductors to the ground provides ____________ path.
a) Low impedance
b) High impedance
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
5) Most commonly used method to measure pulseatile blood volume changes is

by the ___________
a) Thermistor method
b) Displacement method
c) Photoelectric method
d) All of the above
6) EMG is usually recorded by using ___________ electrode.

a) Surface
b) Needle
c) Either a) or b)
d) None
7) In case of ECG, PVC stands for _____________

a) Polyvinyl chloride
b) Premature ventricular contraction
c) Prolonged vein cessation
d) None
*SLRUM338*
SLR-UM 338
-3-
8) Patient monitor are also known as _____________

a) Vital sign monitor
b) Central monitor
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
9) To facilitate a more intimate contact between the subjects skin and the
recording electrode is ___________ and ___________
a) Jellies and Paste
b) Cream and Paste
c) Creams and Jellies
10) An arrhythmia monitor is basically a sophisticated ___________ system.

a) Beep
b) Beat
c) Alarm
d) Scan
11) Low level signals are sensitive to external contamination, especially in the
case of ____________ source impedance.
a) Low
b) High
c) Medium
d) None
12) Leakage currents usually flow through the third wire connection to the
____________
a) Patient
b) Instrument
c) Ground
13) The electrode used to record the ECG is _____________

a) Scalp electrode
b) Skin electrodes
c) Needle electrode
d) Contact electrodes
14) RTD stands for ______________

a) Reverse Transistor Device
b) Resistance Temperature Diode
c) Rapid Triggering Device
d) Resistance Temperature Detector
15) The microelectrodes are employed to record the electrical activity of the
___________ cells.
a) Sum of
b) Individual
c) Multiple
d) All of the above
SLR-UM 338
*SLRUM338*
-4-
16) EMG deals with the ___________

a) Study of brain activity
b) Study of myocardial activity
c) Study of muscular activity
d) Study of central nervous system
17) The recording of the potential generated by the contraction of the skeleton
muscle is known as ____________
a) EMG
b) EEG
c) ERG
d) ECG
18) The normal highest radio frequency for telemetry purpose is ____________
a) 100 MHz
b) 200 MHz
c) 450 MHz
d) 500 MHz
19) In __________ recording the voltage diff. between two scalp electrodes is
recorded.
a) Monopolar
b) Bipolar
c) Both a) and b)
20) The term morphology refers to _____________

a) Study of cultures
b) Study of bones
c) Study of size and shape of structures
d) None
______________
-5-
*SLRUM338*
SLR-UM 338
Seat
No.
T.E. (Part II) (Bio-medical) Examination, 2014

BIO-MEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
Answer any four questions :
(45=20)
1. Explain any two techniques to calculate the heart rate.

2. Write a short note on nerve stimulator.
3. Explain the sources of noise in low level recording circuits.
4. Write a short note on EEG.
5. Write a short note on pulse rate meter.
Answer any two questions :
(210=20)
1. Explain the block diagram of ECG machine.

2. Draw and explain block diagram for apnea detector.
3. Draw and explain about phonocardiography.
SECTION II
Answer any four questions :
(45=20)
1. Write a short note on QRS detection techniques.

2. Draw and explain ultrasonic Doppler shift based FHR measuring circuit.
3. Explain the effect of leakage current on human body.
4. Describe the recording setup used in the EMG.
5. Write a short note on protection and precaution for electrical safety I biophysical
measurement.
Answer any two questions :
(210=20)
1. Draw and explain single channel telemetry system.

2. Draw and explain about incubator for neonatal monitoring system.
3. Explain about the ambulatory monitoring instrument.
______________
SLR-UM 339
Code No.
S
*SLRUM339*
&
y
a
_
_
s
U
f
C
p
a
Instruction : Q. 1 is compulsory.
Marks : 20

1) X-ray tube ratings are done in
a) Heat unit
b) Millimeter
c) Volts
d) Current
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 339
*SLRUM339*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) ________________ is not a type of semiconductor used in rectifier.

a) p type
b) n type
c) z type
d) all of these
3) _______________ is NOT a part of film processing steps.

a) Heating
b) Replenishment
c) Fixing
d) Washing
4) Collimators are used to

a) Pass X-rays
b) Restrict X-rays
c) Amplify
d) Dont do anything
5) Do ultrasonic waves need a medium to propagate.

a) No
b) Yes
c) Sometimes
d) Never
6) Doppler shift frequency given by

a)
b)
c)
d)
7) Which of these material is piezoelectric ?

a) Bakellite
b) Steel
c) Quartz
d) None
*SLRUM339*
SLR-UM 339
-3-
8) ___________ transducer is used for ultrasound.

a) metallic
b) ceramic
c) piezoelectric
d) hydroelectric
9) The Doppler effect is change in the perceived __________

a) frequency
b) velocity
c) power
d) none
10) Voltage in X-rays is measured in

a) kV
b) kVp
c) mA
d) mAs
11) In fluoroscopy the kVp voltage is ________________ than X-rays.

a) higher
b) lower
c) same
d) none
12) kVp stands for

a) Kilo Volts Pressure
b) Kilo Volts Peak
c) Kilo Volts Point
d) None
13) Opthalmoscope is a type of

a) gyroscope
b) endoscope
c) exoscope
d) none
14) Tube current in CR tube is expressed in

a) mA
b) mAs
c) kV
d) kVs
15) Rotating anode is used for ___________

a) heat dessipation
b) heat storage
c) default placement
d) none
16) In equation E = h , h is _____________

a) Plancks constant
b) hydrogen constant
c) proportionality constant
d) none
SLR-UM 339
*SLRUM339*
-4-
17) In X-ray tube electrons more from _____________

a) cathode to anode
b) anode to cathode
c) dont move
d) vertical to both electrodes
18) Ultrasound frequency range is ____________
a) 1 100 Hz
b) 100 1kHz
c) 1 kHz Z0 kHz
d) 1MHz ISMH3
19) In thermographic imaging the heat quantity is measured in __________

a) Joules
b) Moles
c) Temperature
d) All of these
20) ________________ is NOT the transformer used in computed radiography.

a) Step up transformer
b) Step down transformer
c) Auto transformer
d) Negative transformer
______________________
*SLRUM339*
-5-
SLR-UM 339
T.E. (Part II) (Bio-Medical) Examination, 2014

MEDICAL IMAGING I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
2. Attempt any four from the following :

20
1) Draw neat labeled diagram of ultrasonic transducers.
2) Draw diagram of X-ray rotating anode tube and labeled all parts.
3) Explain resolution in ultrasonic machine.
4) With help of neat labeled diagrams describe the X-ray film and formation of
latent image.
5) Explain Doppler shift principle in detail.
20
1) Explain front panel controls available in ultrasound unit.
2) Discuss the placement of patient, X-ray tube, grid, X-ray film, X-ray tube etc.
with respect to patient. Also discuss about image intesifier tube.
3) Explain the following terms with reference to transducer in the ultrasound
sonography,
a) Q factor
b) Fresnel and fraunhoffer zones
c) Doppler shift.
4. Attempt any four from the following :
1) Explain role of filters in mammography.
2) Discuss importance of radiation protection in digital radiography.
3) Short note on Angiography.
4) Why do we use cold source light in endoscopy ?
5) Short note on mammography.
20
5. Attempt any two from following :

20
1) Explain the process of fluroscopy in detail. Also add a note on recording of
fluroscopic procedures.
2) Explain importance of thermography in tumour detection and write in detail
about physical principles involved in it. How it complements data from
mammography.
3) Write any five applications of x-rays in medicine in detail.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 34
Seat
No.
*SLRUM34*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

FLUID MECHANICS II (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) If the Froudes no. is in between 1 to 1.7, then the jump is

a) oscillating
b) undular
c) steady
d) strong
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 34
*SLRUM34*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) For the best trapezoidal section,

a) Depth of flow = half the bed width
b) Side slope = 45
c) Slopping side = half of top width
d) None
3) An error of 1% in measuring H will produce error in discharge over a
triangular notch or weir
a) 1%
b) 1.5%
c) 2%
d) 2.5%
4) Maximum discharge over a broad crested weir is given by

a) Cd L H3 / 2
b) 0.5 Cd L H5 / 2
c) 1.705 Cd L H3 / 2
d) Cd L H5 / 2
5) Yc > Yn represents ___________ type of channel slope.

a) Critical
b) Steep
c) Mild
d) Horizontal
6) Which of the following conditions is the chief characteristic of critical

flow ?
a) Q 2 T / gA 3
b) Q 2 T 2 / gA 3
c) Q 2R / gA 3
d) Q 2 T / gA 2
7) The flow in the open channel may be characterized as laminar when

a) Re < 500
b) Re < 2000
c) 500 < Re < 2000
d) None
*SLRUM34*
SLR-UM 34
-3-
8) If Froudes no. is more than 1 the flow is called as

a) critical
b) subcritical
c) supercritical
d) none
9) The discharge over a 90V - notch is written as Q = 1.37 H5/2 where Q is

in m3/s and H is in meters. Then the Cd of this notch is
a) 0.611
b) 0.580
c) 0.464
d) 0.710
10) Maximum efficiency of jet striking a series of vertical plate is

a) 66.67%
b) 33.33%
c) 50%
d) 80%
11) Francis turbine is
a) An impulse turbine
b) Radial flow impulse turbine
c) An axial flow turbine
d) A radial flow reaction turbine
12) Speed ratio for pelton wheel varies from

a) 0.45 to 0.5
b) 0.6 to 0.7
c) 0.3 to 0.4
d) 0.8 to 0.9
13) The force exerted by a jet of water on a stationary plate in the direction
of the jet for inclined plate is
a) av 2
b) 2 av 2 cos
c) av 2 sin2
d) none
14) Manometer head in case of centrifugal pump is given by
a) Pressure head at outlet of pump pressure head at inlet

b) Total head at inlet Total head outlet
c) Total head at outlet Total head inlet
d) None
15) Mechanical efficiency of centrifugal pump is given by
a) Power at impeller / SHP
b) SHP / Power at impeller
c) Power possessed by water / Power at impeller
d) Power possessed by water / SHP
SLR-UM 34
*SLRUM34*
-4-
16) To discharge large quantity of fluid impeller of centrifugal pump are

connected
a) In parallel
b) In series
c) In parallel and series
d) None
17) The dimensions of Dynamic viscosity ( ) is

a) ML2 T 2
b) ML1T 1
c) ML1T 2
d) None
18) In Buckingham ( ) theorem each ( ) term contains _________ variables.

a) (n + 1)
b) (m + 1)
c) (n + m)
d) none
19) Kinematic similarity means

a) Ratio of linear dimensions in model and prototype are equal
b) Similarity of Motion between model and prototype
c) Similarity of Force between model and prototype
d) None
________________
*SLRUM34*
-5-
SLR-UM 34
Seat
No.

FLUID MECHANICS II (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Q. 2 is compulsory. Solve any two questions from

Q. 3 to Q. 5.
3) Assume data whatever necessary.
4) Use of non programmable calculate is permitted.
SECTION I
2. a) For a non uniform flow, show that ,
dy so sf
=
dx 1 fr 2
b) A trapezoidal channel with side slopes of 1H = 1V has to be designed to

convey 15 m3/s of water at a velocity of 3m/s, so that the amount of concrete
lining for the bed and sides is minimum. Calculate the area of lining required
for 1 m length of canal.
c) Derive the conditions for most economical rectangular channel section.
3. a) Explain the produce of the direct step method to find the length of GVF profile.
b) The depth of the flow of water at section in rectangular channel of 2 m wide is

0.3 m. The discharge through the channel is 2.5 m3/s. Determine whether
hydraulic will occur and if so find its height and loss of energy.
4. a) Derive the expression for discharge through triangular notch.

b) The flow in 2 m wide rectangular channel is measured by a rectangular weir
crest length 1.2 m. The head of water over the weir is 0,3 m and crest is 0.9 m
above the bed of channel. Find out the discharge over it. Take Cd = 0.62.
Consider the velocity of the approach. Neglect end contractions.
SLR-UM 34
-6-
*SLRUM34*
12
a) A right angled V notch is inserted in the tank of size 5 m in length and 2.5 m in
width. The initial height is 40 cms. Find the height of water above the apex if
the time required in 3 minute to lower the water level from 40 cms.
Take Cd = 0.62.
b) Explain the types of flows in an open channel flow.
c) Sketch M3 and S2 surface profiles.
d) Classification of hydraulic jump.
SECTION II
Note : Question No. 6 is compulsory.
Attempt any two from remaining.
6. a) Obtain the expression for the force exerted by jet on fixed vertical plate in the
direction of jet.
b) What is operating characteristics curve of centrifugal pump ?
c) What do you mean by fundamental units and derived units ? Give examples.
7. a) A jet of water 75 mm dia. moving with a velocity of 25 m/s strikes a curved

fixed plate in such a way that the angle between the plate and jet is 60. Find
the force exerted by jet on plate
i) in the direction normal to the plate and
ii) in the direction of jet.
b) The hub diameter to Kaplan turbine working under head of 12 m, is 0.35 times
the diameter of runner. The turbine is running at 100 rpm. If the vane of
extreme edge of the runner at outlet is 15 and flow rate is 0.6 find,
i) Diameter of runner ii) Diameter of boss iii) Discharge through the runner.
Note : Velocity of whirl at outlet is ZERO.
8. a) Explain various troubles and remedies in case of centrifugal pumps.

b) A centrifugal pump discharge 0.118 m3/s quantity at a speed of 1450 rpm
against head of 25 m. The impeller diameter is 250 mm its width at outlet is
50 mm and manometric efficiency is 75%.
Determine the vane angle at outer periphery of impeller.
9. a) How will you select the repeating variables ?
b) The efficiency of fan is depends on density ( ) of air, dynamic viscosity ( ) of
fluid angular velocity ( ) of fan, diameter (D) of rotor and discharge (Q). Express
efficiency ( ) in terms of dimensionless parameters.
_____________________
8
5
Code No. SLR-UM
340
*SLRUM340*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Bio-Medical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

BIO-STATISTICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Instructions :1)
2)
3)
4)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Question 1 is compulsory.
Attempt any three questions from each Section.
Marks : 20
1. Tick (9) the correct alternative (each one mark) :

1) The value of Spearmans Rank correlation coefficient R always lies between
b) 1 and 1
a) 2 and 1
c) 0 and 1
d) 1 and 0
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 340
*SLRUM340*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The lines of regression are given by 10y = x + 17 and x = 5y 7, then

x and y are
a) 1 and 10
b) 1 and 5
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 and 2
3) Which of the following is correct ?

a) byx = r.
6y
6x
6x
b) byx = r. 6 y
c) bxy = r.
6y
6x
d) bxy = r
6x
6y
4) Standard deviation of binomial distribution is

a) pq
b) npq
c)
d)
pq
npq
e 5.( 5 )x
5) The mean and variance of the distribution P(X) =
, x = 0, 1, 2, .... is
x!
a) 2, 3
b) 3, 4
c) 4, 4
d) 5, 5
*SLRUM340*
SLR-UM 340
-3-
6) The mean and standard deviation of a standard normal variate is

a) 1 and 0
b) 0 and 1
c) 1 and 1
d) None of these
7) If R1.23 = 0, then association is

a) Perfect
b) Zero
c) High
d) None of these
8) Variance ration (F) is

a)
c)
S 2t
2
S e
St
Se
b) Se 2 / S 2t
d)
Se
St
9) If byx = 6/5, bxy = 15/8, then r =

a) 2.5
b) 1.5
c) 0.5
d) 1
10) The sum of square of observation is minimum when taken from

a) Mean
b) Median
c) Mode
d) None of these
11) If the value of Mean, Median and Mode are equal then distribution is
a) Normal
b) Symmetric
c) Asymmetric
d) All of these
12) ________________ can be calculated from a frequency distribution with open

end classes.
a) Median or mode
b) Median or mean
c) Mode or mean
d) None of these
13) The S.d. of the distribution is 5, if each item is increased by 5, the new S.d. is
a) 10
b) 0
c) 5
d) 25
SLR-UM 340
*SLRUM340*
-4-
14) For the distribution of 5 observation 7,7,7,7,7, then mean is

a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 0
2
15) The value of will be _________________ if the observed and expected
frequencies coincide.
a) 0
b) 1
c) 1
d) 0.5
16) In two tailed test, if | z | > 1.96 then z is at _________________level of

significant.
a) 1%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) 20%
17) In a normal distribution :

a) The coefficient of variation is the same as the standard deviation
b) The mean is higher than median
c) 95% of observation lie within one standard deviation of the mean
d) Mann-Whiteny test is suitable for analysis
18) The students t-distribution is use to test ______________ samples.
a) Small
b) Large
c) Independent
d) None of these
19) If r = 1, then correlation is

a) Perfect negative
b) Low negative
c) Low positive
d) Perfect positive
20) t-distribution is unimodal with mean = median=mode =

a) 0
b) 1
c) 1
d) 0.5
*SLRUM340*
SLR-UM 340
-5-
Seat
No.
T.E. (Bio-Medical) (Part - II) Examination, 2014

BIO-STATISTICS
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions: 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.
SECTION I
(27=14)
a) The runs scored by two batsmen A and B in ten innings are as follows :
By A :
10
115
73
120
36
84
29
19
By B :
45
12
76
42
50
37
48
13
Who is better run getter ? Who is more consistent ?

b) Find Mean, Median and Mode of the following data :
% of marks : 10 19 20 29 30 39 40 49 50 59
No. of Student : 8
19
29
36
60 69 70 79
25
13
c) For the data given below, find the missing frequency if the arithmetic Mean is
Rs. 33. Also find the Median of the series.
Loss per shop : 0 10
No. of shops :
10
10 20
15
20 30 30 40
30
Also using emperical relation find mode.
40 50 50 60
25
20
SLR-UM 340
*SLRUM340*
-6-
3. a) To test the hypothesis that the average number of days a patient in the three
local hospital say A, B and C are same, a random check on the number of
days that seven patients stayed in each hospital reveals the following :
Test the hypothesis at = 0.05 (The tabulated value of F for d.f. ( = 2,

1
2
= 18) at 5% is 3.55).
Hospital A :
Hospital B :
Hospital C :
b) In a normal distribution 31% items are under 45 and 8% are over 64. Find its
mean and S.D.
(Given SNV Z = 0 to Z = 0.5 is 0.19

Z = 0 to Z = 1.4 is 0.42)
4. a) In a screw making machines there are on the average two defective screws
out of 100. The screws are packed in boxes of 100 find the probability that a
box contains :
i) No defective
ii) 5 defective
iii) At most one defective.
b) At a Binomial distribution to the following data :
Value of x :
Frequency :
20
28
12
c) If the probability of defective bulbs is 0.2 find the mean and variance of the
distribution of defective bulbs in a lot of 1000 bulbs.
5. a) A random sample of 16 observation has mean 103.75 cm. The sum of square
of the deviation from mean is 843.75 cm. Can this sample be regarded as
coming from the population having 108.75 cm as the mean ?
(t15 = 2.131, t16 = 2.120 at 5% level)
*SLRUM340*
SLR-UM 340
-7-
b) Find the C.V. of the following data :
x:
10
12
14
16
f:
10
15
20
13
c) The nicotine content in miligrams of two samples of tobacco were found to be

as follows :
Sample A :
24
27
26
21
25
Sample B :
27
30
28
31
22
36
Can it be said that two samples come from normal population having the
same mean ?
(t9 = 2.262 at 5 level of significant).
SECTION II
(72=14)
a) Calculate Spearmans rank correlation coefficient of the following data :

x:
48
33
40
16
16
65
24
16
57
y:
13
13
24
15
20
19
b) Fit a second degree curve to the following data :

Year :
1974 1975 1976 1977 1978 1979 1980 1981
Production :
(m. tons)
12
14
26
42
40
50
52
53
c) The line of regression are 4x 5y + 33 = 0 and 20x 9y 107 = 0

Find :
i) Mean of x and y
ii) Coefficient of correlation
iii) The most probable value of y when x =10
iv) The most probable value of x when y = 15
v) Find S. D. of X if S. D. of Y = 3.
14
SLR-UM 340
*SLRUM340*
-8-
7. a) If 1 = 2.81, 2 = 12, 3 = 1.5
r12 = 0.75, r23 = 0.54, r13 = 0.43

Calculate :
i) b12.3 ii) r23.1 iii) R2.13
b) In a certain district A, 450 persons were considered regular consumers of tea
out of a sample of 1000 persons. In another district B, 400 were regular
consumers of tea out of a sample of 800 persons. Do these facts reveal a
significant difference between the two districts as far as tea drinking habit is
concerned ? Use 5% level.
8. a) If r12 = r13 = r23 = K where K 1 then show that R1.23 =
K 2
1+ K
b) A man buys 100 electric bulbs of each of two well-known markets taken at
random from stock for testing purpose. He finds that Make A has a mean
life of 1300 hr. with a S.D. of 82 and Mark B has mean life of 1250 hr. with a
S.D. of 95 hours.
Discuss the significance of these result at 1% and 5% level of significant.
9. a) Compute the coefficient of correlation between X and Y from the following
data :
X:
11
15
Y:
10
12
5
6
b) The number of scooter accident per month in a certain town were as follows : 4
12, 8, 20, 2, 14, 10, 15, 6, 9, 4.
Are these frequencies in agreement with the belief that accident conditions
were the same during this 10 month period ?
(Table value of 20.05 for 9.d.f. is 16.919)
c) In a survey of 200 boys of which 75 were intelligent, 40 had educated fathers
while 85 of the unintelligent boys and uneducated father. Do these figures
support the hypothesis that educated fathers have intelligent boys ?
(Value of 2 for 1 d.f. is 3.841)
Code No.
SLR-UM 341
Seat
No.
*SLRUM341*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Marks : 20
20
1) Memory requirement of frequency sampling realisation is always

a) More than direct form realisation
b) Less than direct form
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 341
*SLRUM341*
-2-
T
O
N
DO
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Limit for direct form structure is

a) M + 1 delay blocks
c) M + 2 delay blocks
b) 1 M delay blocks
d) M 1 delay blocks
3) Overlap add method requires an incremental increase of

a)
M+1
L
b) L(M 1)
c)
M 1
L
d)
1 M
L
4) What do you mean by decimation in time ?

a) Decimate samples in frequency domain
b) Decimate samples in time domain
c) Decimate samples in time domain
d) All of above
5) The number of arithmetic operation required to obtain D.F.T. with
N = 2 is
a) Multiplication = 4
Addition
=2
b) Multiplication = 2
Addition
=4
c) Multiplication = 6
Addition
=2
d) Multiplication = 2
Addition
=6
6) If X(K) is DFT of sequence X(n) then DFT of real part of X(n) is

a) 2 [X(K ) + X (N K )]
c)
b)
1
X(K) + X(K N)
2
1
X(K) + X(N K)
2
d) 2 X(K) + X(K N)
*SLRUM341*
SLR-UM 341
-3-
7) Assume two finite duration sequence x1(n) and x2(n) are linearly
combined. Let x3(n) = ax1(n) + bx2(n). What is DFT of x3(n) ?
b) ax1(n) + bx2(n)
a) ax1(k) + bx2(k)
c) both a) and b)
d) none of these
8) D.F.T. = ____________
a) Direction of filter
c) Data filter
b) Discrete Fourier transform

d) Digital filter
9) DFT of two finite sequences gives

a) Convolution sum
c) Circular convolution
b) Convolution integral
d) All of above
10) The Fourier transform X(e j ) is periodic in with period 2 and its
inverse Fourier transform = __________
a) Discrete item sequence X(n)
b) Continuous time sequence X(t)
c) Discrete and continuous sequence
d) None of these
11) R.L.S. algorithm is used in
a) Analog filter
c) Digital filter
b) Linear filter
d) Adaptive filter
12) L.M.S. filter is

a) Type of linear filter
c) Type of analog filter
b) Type of adaptive filter

d) Type of digital filter
13) State the condition for digital filter to be causal

b) h(n) < 0 for n < 0
a) h(n) = 0 for n < 0
c) h(n) > 0 for n > 0
d) h(n) = 0 for n > 0
14) FIR filter is always
a) Unstable
c) Both a) and b)
b) Stable
d) All above
15) The magnitude response of the Chebyshev filter exhibits ripple either in
a) Attenuation in band or in pass band
b) Only in pass band
c) Only in stop band
d) All above
SLR-UM 341
*SLRUM341*
-4-
16) By impulse invariant method obtain the digital filter transfer function
1
and the differential equation H(s) =
s +1
1
d
, y(t ) + y( t ) = x(t )
a) h(z) =
1 e T z 1 dt
1
d
, y( t) + y( t ) = x(t )
b) h(z) =
T 1
dt
1 e ; z
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
17) The poles of the butterworth filter lie.
b) Square
a) Ellipse
c) Circle
d) Hyperbola
18) By impulse invariance method calculate impulse response of digital
filter corresponding to an analog filter with impulse response
ha(t) = 0.5 e2t and with a sampling rate of 1 Hz.
a)
1
1 0.135z 1
b)
0.5
1 0.135z 1
c)
0.5
1 + 0.135z 1
d)
1
1 + 0.135z 1
19) What is the condition for impulse response of FIR filter to satisfy for
constant group and phase delay ?
a) () =
b) () =
c) () =
d) () =
20) For what kind of application, the symmetrical impulse response can
be used ?
b) Design differentiations
a) Design Hilbert transform
c) Design all types of filters
d) All above
_______________
*SLRUM341*
-5-
SLR-UM 341
Seat
No.
T.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
(54=20)
1) Calculate the number of multiplications needed in the calculation of DFT and

FFT with 64 point sequence.
2) A filter is described by
y(n)
3
1
1
y(n 1) + y(n 2) = x(n) + x(n 1)
8
2
4
Draw direct form II realisation.

3) What is the basic operation of the following algorithms ?
a) DIT
b) DIF
4) Draw the flow graph of a two point DFT for a decimation in time decomposition.
5) Calculate the DFT of the sequence :
n
1
x(n) = for N = 8.
4
SLR-UM 341
-6-
*SLRUM341*
3. Answer any two :
(102=20)
1) The butterfly shown in fig. is a decimation in time FFT with N = 32. Assume
that the five stages of the butterfly diagram are indexed by M = 1, ... 5. What
are the possible values of K for each of the five stages ?
k
W32
2) i) How the circular convolution is obtained ?

ii) Distinguish between DFT and FFT.
6
4
3) Using linear convolution find y(n) = x(n) * h(n) for the sequences
x(n) = (1, 2, 1, 2, 3, 2, 3, 1, 1, 1, 2, 1) and
h(n) = (1.2). Compare the result by solving the problem using
a) Overlap same method
b) Overlap add method.
SECTION II
(54=20)
1) What are the advantages and disadvantages of bilinear transformation ?

2) Explain ANC (Adaptive noise cancellation).
3) By impulse invariance method obtain the digital filter transfer function and the
1
differential equation of analog filter H(s) =
.
s +1
4) Distinguish between FIR and IIR filter.
5) Give the equation of the frequency sampling of FIR filters.
5. Answer any two :
(102=20)
1) Design a filter with

4
4
<||
=0
4
Using Hanning window N = 7.
Hd (e j ) = e j3
2) Write a note on adaptive direct form FIR filters LMS algorithm in detail.
3) For the given specifications p = 3dB, s = 15dB, p = 1000 rad / sec and
s = 500 rad / sec . design a high pass filter.
_____________________
Code No.
*SLR-UM-342*
SLR-UM 342
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------T.E. (Bio-Medical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

EMBEDDED SYSTEM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) An alternate function of port pin P3.1 in the 8051 is

B) serial port output
A) serial port input
C) memory write strobe
D) memory read strobe
2) The 8051 has _________________ 16-bit counter/timers.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 342
*SLR-UM-342*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
3) The following program will receive data from port 1, determine whether bit 2 is
high and then send the number FFH to port 3 :
READ : MOV A, P1
ANL A, # 2H
CJNE A, #02H, READ
MOV P3, #FFH
A) High
B) True
C) Low
D) False
4) The contents of the accumulator after this operation
MOV A,#2BH
ORL A, 00H
will be :
A) 1B H
C) 3B H
B) 2B H
D) 4B H
5) Which pin is used to inform the 8051 that the on-chip ROM contains the
program ?
A) EA
B) PSEN
C) PROG
D) INT
6) Which of the following is of bit operations ?

i)
iv)
A)
C)
SP
SBUF
ii), v) only
i), v) only
ii) P2
v) IP
iii) TMOD
B) ii), iv), v) only
D) iii), ii) only
*SLR-UM-342*
-3-
SLR-UM 342
7) Serial port vector address is of ___________. And causes an interrupt when

__________
A) 0013H, either TI or RI flag is set
B) 0023H, either TI or RI flag is reset
C) 0013H, either TI or RI flag is reset
D) 0023H, either TI or RI flag is set
8) Which bit of TMOD will exactly configure timer/counter as a timer or counter.
i) TMOD.6 of C/T for timer 1
ii) TMOD.6 of C/T for timer 0
iii) TMOD.2 of C/T for timer 0
iv) TMOD.2 of C/T for timer 1
A) i), ii)
C) i), iii)
B) ii), iv)
D) iii), iv)
9) The _____________ directive is always used for ASCII strings

B) DB
A) DA
C) DC
D) Dd
10) Upon reset the microcontroller 8051 ports are configured as
B) Output
A) Input
C) Bidirectional
D) Undefined
11) PCI is used as
A) Both B) and C)
C) Parallel bus
B) Serial bus
12) Work that ties up the processor for long periods of time is called
B) Debugability
A) Reliability
C) Processor Hogs
13) A system that reacts to events quickly is called
B) Debugability
A) Throughput
C) Response
14) Controller Area Network (CAN) is a
B) Network Protocol
A) Communication Hardware
C) Hardware
SLR-UM 342
-4-
*SLR-UM-342*
15) What is the function of watchdog timer ?

A) The watchdog Timer is an external timer that resets the system if the
software fails to operate properly
B) The watchdog Timer is an internal timer that sets the system if the software
fails to operate properly
C) The watchdog Timer is an internal timer that resets the system if the software
fails to operate properly
D) None of them
16) A circuitry that read data from an I/O device and then write it into memory
without any software instructions is called
B) Direct Memory Access (DMA)
A) Programmed I/O
C) Serial I/O
D) Parallel I/O
17) In modes 2 and 3, if _______________ bit of SCON bit is set will causes
enable multiprocessor communication and is of _______________ bit address.
B) TB8, 9CH
A) SM1, 9EH
C) SM2, 9DH
D) SM0, 9FH
18) Embedded systems generally do not have
B) Disc drives
A) Processor
C) Memory
19) Interfacing LCD with 89C51 _______________ data lines are used along with
the _______________ signals.
B) 5, RW, EN
A) 6, RS, RW
C) 8, RS, EN, RW
D) 9, RS, EN, RW
20) An increase in through put of a embedded system decreases
_______________
B) Throughput
A) Reliability
C) Response
______________________
*SLR-UM-342*
-5-
SLR-UM 342
Seat
No.
T.E. (Bio-Medical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

EMBEDDED SYSTEM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(54=20)
1) Give comparison between microprocessor and microcontroller.

2) Draw and explain PCON register. Explain power saving options of 8051.
3) Explain PUSH and POP operation in 8051 Microcontroller.
4) Explain Logical instruction of 8051 with example.
5) Explain MODE 3 of Timer of 8051.
(102=20)
1) Explain in detail interrupt structure of 8051. Explain how interrupt can be

masked. Give register format for IP and IE register.
2) Explain how serial communication can be done using 8051 in MODE 1 and
MODE 3. Give baud rates for different serial communication modes.
3) Explain in detail 8051 I/O expansion using 8255.
SLR-UM 342
-6-
*SLR-UM-342*
SECTION II
(54=20)
1) Explain Processor selection for embedded system.

2) Explain CAN (Controller Area Network) BUS Serial Communication Protocol.
3) Define design metrics used in embedded system.
4) Explain memory map of embedded system.
5) Explain various forms of memory that are present in embedded system.
(102=20)
1) Explain interfacing of stepper motor to 8051 and write a program to rotate

motor in full mode.
2) Explain serial communication using 12C protocol with MASTER and SLAVE
mode for transmission.
3) Draw and explain interfacing of 16 2 LCD display to 8051 and write a
program to display message HELLO on it.
___________________
Code No. SLR-UM
348
*SLRUM348*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------B.E. (Part II) (Biomedical) Examination, 2014

MEDICAL IMAGING II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Question No. 1 is compulsory.

Figures on the right indicate full marks.
Draw diagram/sketches wherever necessary.
Use legible handwriting, use blue/black ink only.
1. Select correct alternative :
1) In MDCT ______________ rows of detectors are used.
b) Single
a) Multiple
c) Two
d) Three
Marks : 20
20
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 348
*SLRUM348*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) ____________ technology eliminated the need for cables and allows continuous
rotation of the gantry components.
a) DAS
b) Filter
c) Detector
d) Slip ring
3) The atomic number represents the number of ___________ in the nucleus.

a) Neutron
b) Electron
c) Proton
d) Hole
4) Protons aligned in the parallel orientation are said to be in a __________

a) High energy state
b) Low energy state
c) Medium energy state
d) None of these
5) The CT-number for white matter _____________
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
6) Most of the MSCT belongs to the third generation of CT scanners

known as ___________ type.
a) Translet-Rotate
b) Fixed-Rotate
c) Rotate-Rotate
d) None of these
7) The linear coefficient of water is equal to ______________

a) 0.2
b) 0.6
c) 0.9
d) 0.5
*SLRUM348*
-3-
SLR-UM 348
8) The larmor frequency is the ____________ of the gyromagnetic

ratio and magnetic field strength.
a) Division
b) Subtraction
c) Addition
d) Multiplication
9) The atomic number of xenon gas or inert gas is ____________

a) 24
b) 34
c) 54
d) 64
10) ____________ sometimes called the summation method.

a) Back projection
b) Iterative projection
c) Fourier projection
d) None of these
11) Spin-Lattice relaxation time (T1) will be ____________ than spin-spin
relaxation time (T2).
a) Longer
b) Shorter
c) Medium
d) None of these
12) The time interval between each 90 pulse in an imaging sequence is

called the ___________ interval.
a) TE
b) TR
c) T1
d) T2
13) In first generation scanner _____________ X-ray beam used.

a) Fan
b) Pencil
c) Cone
d) None of these
14) In one projection contains ____________ scan lines.

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Many
15) When X-ray beam move horizontally toward patient body then _________
ray sum generated.
a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Diagonal
d) All of above
SLR-UM 348
*SLRUM348*
-4-
16) EMI scanner stands for _____________

a) Electric and musical industries
b) Electro magnetic induction
c) Both
d) None of these
17) The disadvantage of the Xenon gas detector is reduced ___________
a) Sensitivity
b) Linearity
c) Efficiency
d) Uniformity
18) The segment five to be a time of ____________

a) Echo detection
b) Inactivity
c) Slice selection
d) Phase encoding
19) _____________ also regulate the thickness of the tomographic slice.

a) Detector
b) Collimator
c) X-ray tube
d) Slip ring
20) __________ is called the hybrid imaging modality.

a) CT
b) PET
c) PET-CT
d) MRI
__________________
*SLRUM348*
SLR-UM 348
-5-
Seat
No.
B.E. (Part II) (Biomedical) Examination, 2014

MEDICAL IMAGING II
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

Figures on the right indicate full marks.
Draw diagram/sketches wherever necessary.
Use legible handwriting, use blue/black ink only.
SECTION I
20
1) Write short note on CT number.
2) Draw and explain filtered back projection technique.
3) What is MRS ? Explain basic principle of MRS.
4) Differentiate between conventional CT and spiral CT.
5) Explain working of original EMI unit scanner.
20
1) List different reconstruction technique and explain back projection technique

using this example.
10
45
90
60
1 1 1 0
1 7
1 8
1 1 1 0
Object
Mask
1 0
SLR-UM 348
-6-
*SLRUM348*
2) Explain second and third generations of CT scan with the help of diagram.
10
3) Explain magnetic resonance spectroscopy with the help of PRESS sequence

and STEAM sequence.
10
SECTION II
20
1) Explain working principle of flat panel detector.
2) What is FID ? Explain with the help of diagram.
3) Define larmor frequency and gyromagnetic ratio.
4) Write note on CT - angiography.
5) What is MRI ? Explain basic principle of MRI.
20
1) Write different types of hybrid imaging modalities and explain PET-CT imaging
modality.
10
2) What is EIT ? Explain in detail EIT system with the help of diagram.
10
3) Draw and explain Y-gradient coil in detail.
10
_____________
Code No.
SLR-UM 349
*SLRUM349*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------B.E. (Bio-Medical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

INSTALLATION MAINTENANCE AND SERVICING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) The Upper inlet in the ventilator is used for _______________ pressure gas.
a) Low
b) High
c) Moderate
d) All
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 349
*SLRUM349*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) In the ventilator the gas flows through _____________ filter.

a) Bacteria
b) Fiber
c) Optical
d) Liquid
3) The flow transducer on _______________ side measures the gas flow to the
patient.
a) Expiration
b) Inspiration
c) a) and b)
d) None
4) The clause for ISO 9001-2008 is given as

a) Quality management system
b) Quantity management system
c) Product realization
d) a) and c)
5) The clause for NABH is given as
a) Information to patient
b) Rights of patients and family
c) Quality investigation
d) All
6) QCI is the
a) Quality and Certified Implementation
b) Quality Control and Implementation
c) Quality Council of India
d) None
*SLRUM349*
SLR-UM 349
-3-
7) All the sides of an X-Ray machine chamber must be

a) 3 Thick
b) 6 Thick
c) 9 Thick
d) 12 Thick
8) NICU stands for

a) Neonatal Intensive Care Unit
b) Neuro Intensive Care Unit
c) Nephro Intensive Care Unit
d) None
9) Periodic maintenance helps in reducing

a) Operational Hazards
b) Service cost
c) Equipment down time
d) All
10) ALARA is
a) As large as recommended and achievable
b) As large as reasonably achievable
c) As low as reasonably achievable
d) None
11) In an Electrolyte analyzer, each electrode has _____________ membrane,
that undergoes a specific reaction with the corresponding ion.
a) Selective
b) Ion selective
c) Semi permeable
d) Permeable
12) The electrolyte analyzer is equipped with a ___________ interface and allows
data to be exchanged with commercially available computer system.
a) parallel RS-232
b) series RS-232
c) parallel RS-230
d) series RS-230
13) A peristaltic pump of the electrolyte analyzer transports all samples and
operating fluids ________________ the instrument.
a) Inside
b) Outside
c) Upside
d) Downside
14) In the defibrillator when the internal paddles are used the energy levels are
limited to
a) 25J
b) 50J
c) 75J
d) 100J
SLR-UM 349
*SLRUM349*
-4-
15) In the synchronized shock mode of the defibrillator the LED blinks during the
detection of each
a) P Wave
b) R Wave
c) T Wave
d) All
16) In the defibrillator when the internal paddles are used the default energy level
on power up is set to
a) 10J
b) 15J
c) 20J
d) 25J
17) CPAP stands for

a) Coronary Positive Airway Pressure
b) Continuous Pulmonary Airway Pressure
c) Continuous Positive Airway Pressure
d) Cardiac Positive Airway Pressure
18) Which one of the following is not an operational mode of ventilator ?
a) M Mode
b) CPAP Mode
c) S Mode
d) T Mode
19) In the synchrony ventilator system the level of pressure support delivered is
determined by
a) PS = EPAP-IPAP
b) PS = IPAP + EPAP
c) PS = IPAP-EPAP
d) PS = IPAP/EPAP
20) The Battery used in patient monitoring system is of

a) 3 Volts
b) 6 Volts
c) 9 Volts
d) 12 Volts
_____________________
*SLRUM349*
-5-
SLR-UM 349
Seat
No.
B.E. (Bio-Medical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

INSTALLATION MAINTENANCE AND SERVICING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
II. Answer any four of the following :
Marks : 80
(45=20)
1) Discuss the role of biomedical engineer in a hospital.

2) Explain how a biomedical engineer is involved in R and D sector.
3) What care should be taken before the installation of bio medical equipment ?
4) What are the different medical gases ? Explain the use of these gases in the
hospital.
5) What kind of tests and checkups must be performed before the final
acceptance of the instrument ?
III. Answer any 2 of the following :
(210=20)
1) Give the preinstallation techniques of the auto analyzer in detail.

2) Draw a labelled figure of the ventilator with all its specifications.
3) Explain the following modes of operation of the synchrony ventilator.
a) CPAP mode
b) S-mode
c) S/T mode
d) PC mode
e) Timed mode.
IV. Answer any four of the following :
(45=20)
1) Draw a labelled figure of the synchrony ventilator control panel.

2) Draw any five pictorial safety instructions of the electrosurgical unit and
explain.
SLR-UM 349
-6-
*SLRUM349*
3) Explain what kind of location must be selected before the installation of the
electrolyte analyzer.
4) What is an incubator ? Explain its significance.
5) Explain the trouble shooting methods.
V. Answer any 2 of the following :
(210=20)
1) What are the types of maintenance of bio medical equipments ? Explain what
do you mean by preventive maintenance in detail.
2) Explain the operation theater with respect to the following :
a) Location of OT
b) Space requirement for OT
c) Design of OT.
3) a) Calibration procedure of pH meter
b) ISO and NABH certification.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 35
Seat
No.
*SLRUM35*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Civil) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

WATER RESOURCE ENGINEERING I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : Question 1 is compulsory.

It should be solved in first 30 minutes.
Each question carries 1 mark.
Marks : 20
20
1) If the base period of a 4 hour unit hydrograph is 48 hours, then a

hydrograph of storm of 8 hour derived from this unit hydrograph will
be having a base period of
a) 44 hours
b) 48 hours
c) 52 hours
d) 56 hours
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 35
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM35*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The dilution method of stream gauging is ideally suited for measuring

discharge in
a) A large alluvial river
b) Flood flow in mountain stream
c) Steady flow in a small turbulent stream
d) A stretch of a river having heavy industrial pollution loads
3) Khoslas formula for monthly runoff Rm due to monthly rainfall Pm is
Rm = Pm Lm where Lm is
a) a constant
b) monthly loss and depends on the mean monthly catchment
temperature
c) a monthly loss coefficient depending on the antecedent
precipitation index
d) a monthly loss depending on the infiltration characteristics of the
catchment
4) The theory or unit hydrograph was first introduced by
b) VenTe Chow
a) Snyder
c) Bernard
d) L. K. Sherman
5) A hyetograph is a plot of
a) Cumulative rainfall vs time
b) Rainfall intensity vs time
c) Rainfall depth vs duration
d) Discharge vs time
6) When the slope of the ground is more than 16, it has an effect in
a) Increasing the rate of infiltration
b) Reducing the rate of infiltration
c) Has no effect on the rate of infiltration
d) None of these
*SLRUM35*
-3-
SLR-UM 35
7) Evaporation is a
a) Cooling process
b) Heating process
c) Combined process
d) None of above
8) The following is not a direct stream flow determination technique
a) Dilution method
b) Ultrasonic method
c) Area Velocity method
d) Slope area method
9) The water year in India start from the first day of
a) January
b) April
c) June
d) September
10) The probability of a flood equal to or greater than 50 year flood, occurring
at least one in next year is
a) 0.02
b) 0.636
c) 0.364
d) 1.0
11) Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :
a) In free flooding irrigation, water is admitted at one corner of a field
and is allowed to spread over the entire area
b) In check method of irrigation, the field is divided into smaller
compartments and water is admitted to each in turn
c) In furrow irrigation water is admitted between the rows of plants
in the field
d) None of these
12) The top of the capillary zone
a) Lies below the water table at every point
b) Lies above the water table at every point
c) Coincides the water table at every point
d) None of these
13) Culturable commanded area is the gross area of an irrigation canal
system less
b) alkaline area
a) populated area
c) forest area
d) fallow land
SLR-UM 35
*SLRUM35*
-4-
14) The intensity of irrigation means

a) Percentage of culturable commanded area to be irrigated annually
b) Percentage of gross commanded area to be irrigated annually
c) Percentage of the mean of culturable commanded area and
the gross commanded area to be irrigated annually
d) Total depth of water supplied by the number of waterings
15) For supplying water to rabi crop, kharif crop and sugarcane, the channel
is designed for a capacity equal to the greater of the water requirement of
a) rabi or kharif
b) rabi and kharif or sugarcane
c) rabi and sugarcane or kharif and sugarcane
d) rabi or kharif or sugarcane
16) The depth of water required to bring the soil moisture content of a
given soil upto its field capacity is called
b) equivalent moisture
a) hygroscopic water
c) soil moisture deficiency
d) pellicular water
17) Catchment area is also known as
a) Watershed area
c) Catchment Basin
b) Drainage area
d) All the above
18) A soil with a dark brown or black color is indicative of what ?

a) Poor drainage
b) Iron oxide stains
c) Good drainage
d) Considerable organic matter content
19) Given that the base period is 100 days and the duty of canal is
1000 hector/cumec, the depth of water will be
b) 8.64 cm
a) 0.864 cm
c) 86.40 cm
d) 864.00 cm
20) Which of the following is the costlier system ?
b) Lift irrigation
a) Gravity irrigation
c) Drip irrigation
d) Combined (a) and (b) above
_______________
*SLRUM35*
SLR-UM 35
-5-
Seat
No.

WATER RESOURCE ENGINEERING I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions.

2) Make suitable assumptions only if necessary. But state
them clearly.
2. a) What are the different forms of precipitation ? Explain in brief.
b) Calculate average precipitation for a catchment area by Isohyetal method.

Isohyets
(cm)
Right
of 50
50 60
60 70
70 80
80 90
90 100
Area under
Isohyets
(km2)
8.20
49.70
31.00
36.60
35.30
32.70
Left of
100
9.20
3. a) What is meant by runoff ? Explain methods of separation of Base flow.
b) A catchment area of 150 Km2 has following type of distribution :

Area
Catchment Type
% of area
Runoff Coefficient K
A-1
Urban
20
0.25
A-2
Forest
35
0.45
A-3
Commercial and
Industrial
30
0.90
A-4
Concrete pavement
15
0.85
Find the annual runoff from the catchment, when the average annual
precipitation is 90 cm.
SLR-UM 35
*SLRUM35*
-6-
4. a) What is flood and discuss the various factors affecting flood ?
b) The ordinates of 4 hr. UG are given below. Derive the ordinates of 12 hr. UG.
Time (hrs.)
6 Hr. UHO
20
80
12
16
20
130 150 130
24
28
32
36
40
44
90
52
27
15
5. a) Discuss various types of aquifers with reference to ground water availability.
b) Design an open well in a coarse sand aquifer for a yield of 0.004 m3/sec., when
worked under depression head of 3.0 meters. Assume a specific yield of an
open well in coarse sand is 1.0 m3/hr.m2 per unit drawdown.
SECTION II
Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions.
6. a) Write a detailed note on river linking projects of India, proposed by NWDA.
b) Discuss critically watershed management is a need of time to conserve the
fertile soil as well as to reduce reservoir sedimentation rates.
7. a) Define irrigation. What are the benefits that can be assured from irrigation
projects ?
b) How is the flow irrigation different from lift irrigation ? State the components
of lift irrigation system in brief.
8. a) Define the following terms :
I) Gross Command Area
II) Overlap allowance
III) Crop period and base period
IV) Capacity factor
V) Kor-watering and Kor-depth.
7
7
6
7
5
*SLRUM35*
SLR-UM 35
-7-
b) The base period, intensity of irrigation and duty of various crops under a
canal irrigation system are given in the following table. Find the reservoir
capacity if the canal losses are 20% and reservoir losses are 12%.
Crop
Base
period
(Days)
Duty at field Area under

(ha/cumec) the crop (ha)
Wheat
120
1800
4800
Sugarcane
360
800
5600
Cotton
200
1400
2400
Rice
120
900
3200
Vegetables
120
700
1400
9. a) Discuss the concept of Bandhara Irrigation System with its advantages and
disadvantages.
b) Write a note on canal revenue assessment methods.
_____________________
6
7
Code No. SLR-UM
350
*SLRUM350*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014
BIOMEDICAL MICROSYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
I. Tick mark the correct answer :

1) On _______________ material, microfabrication process are carried in
microsystems.
a) Photoresist
b) Active Substrate
c) Mask
d) Golden Plated Region

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 350
*SLRUM350*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Pn = P0 2n, where P0 = _______________

a) Computer Processing Power in beginning week
b) Computer Processing Power in beginning month
c) Computer Processing Power in beginning year
d) Computer Processing Power in future year
3) In miller indices the top face plane of silicon crystal is represented as
_______________
a) (001)
b) (010)
c) (100)
d) (111)
4) SiO2 is used as _______________ layer in surface micromachining.

a) Photoresist
b) Sacrificial
c) Etchant
d) None
5) The conversion of mechanical energy to electric signal and viceversa in

piezoelectric crystal is known as _______________
a) Piezoelectric effect
b) Hall effect
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
6) _______________ room means that the no. of dust particles 0.5 m or larger
in a cubic foot of air in the room is less than 10.
a) Class-1000
b) Class-100
c) Class-10
d) Class-1
*SLRUM350*
SLR-UM 350
-3-
7) PECVD is _______________
a) Partially Enhance Chemical Vapor Deposition
b) Photon Emission Chemical Vapor Deposition
c) Pure Electronic Chemical Vapor Deposition
d) Plasma Enhanced Chemical Vapor Deposition
8) _______________ process does not uses silicon as an active substrate
material.
a) Bulk micro machining
b) Surface micro machining
c) LIGA
d) None
9) _______________ photoresist become more soluble under shadow of UV

light.
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) None
10) The German term Galvano forming means _______________

a) Electro forming
b) Molding
c) Lithography
d) Galvanometer
11) In cantilever based biosensor the mechanism of transduction is recognized

by _______________
a) Micro mechanical Twist
b) Micro mechanical Bending
c) Micro mechanical Balance
d) Micro mechanical Rotation
12) _______________ sensor is used to sense the intensity of light.
a) Optical
b) Chemical
c) Thermal
d) Acoustic
13) _______________ biosensor is an artificial/synthetic sensor that mimics the

function of a natural biosensor.
a) Antibody/Antigen
b) Enzyme
c) Nucleic Acid
d) Biomimic
SLR-UM 350
*SLRUM350*
-4-
14) The soft lithography process is capable of generating structures as small as

_______________
a) 10 nm
b) 20 nm
c) 30 nm
d) 40 nm
15) In microvalve type D of TAS; restriction _______________ to fluid flow.

a) Parallel
b) Is formed by frozen part of liquid
c) Perpendicular
d) All
16) In TAS M no. of sensors are used to analyse _______________ no. of
chemical domain components.
a) N
b) 1
c) 0
d) 2
17) _______________ principle causes movement of microvalves in TAS.

a) Sampling
b) Detection
c) Actuating
d) All
18) The nanolithography fabrication process creates _______________ scale

structured patterns.
a) Micro
b) Measo
c) Nano
d) Milli
19) _______________ techniques are currently used to identify urinary tract

pathogens.
a) Blood Test
b) Microbial culture
c) ELISA
d) Electro cardiogram
20) In injection molding the mold is heated upto _______________ C temperature.

a) 85 C
b) 90 C
c) 330 C
d) 350 C
__________________
*SLRUM350*
-5-
SLR-UM 350
Seat
No.
B.E. (Biomedical Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

BIOMEDICAL MICROSYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
1) Define MEMS. Explain MEMS as a microsensor and actuator.
2) Explain Enhanced CVD.
3) Briefly explain photolithography process.
4) Define Mores law. Explain with the help of neat diagram.
5) Explain isotropic etching and anisotropic etching.
(45=20)
III. Solve any two questions :

1) Differentiate between microelectronics and microsystems.
2) Explain plasma etching and deep reactive ion etching (DRIE).
3) Explain chemical reactions and rate of deposition in CVD.
(210=20)
SECTION II
IV. Solve any four :
(45=20)
1) With help of neat diagram explain thermo pneumatic actuation.
2) Explain micro molding in capillaries with schematic diagram.
3) Explain thermo couple in detail.
4) Explain the application of biosensors in glucose detection In vivo.
5) Explain different types of biosensors classified based on biological signalling.
V. Solve any two questions :
(210=20)
1) Explain fabrication of microstructure on a processed Si wafer using
compression molding technique.
2) Give classification of micropump used in TAS. Explain any two.
3) Write a short note on :
i) Cantilever based biosensor
ii) Cell and protein array.
________________
Code No. SLR-UM 351
*SLRUM351*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------B.E. (Biomedical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

TISSUE ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N.B. : Q. No. 1 is compulsory.

Marks : 20
I. Tick mark the correct option :

1) ___________ construction of bioartifical tissue isolated by enzymatic
dissociation of donar tissue.
a) Invivo
b) Invitro
c) Tissue Engg.
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 351
*SLRUM351*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) __________ alteration of cells growth and function.

a) Invivo
b) Invitro
c) Fibroblast
d) None
3) __________ is very often the limiting nutrients in reconstructed tissue

for metabolic requirement.
a) Carbondioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Collagen
d) None
4) ____________ is a system containing a large number of cells that transform

an input of reactant into an output of product.
a) Connective tissue
b) Epithelial tissue
c) Bioreactor
d) None
5) Hollow fibres system consists of a shell traversed by a large number of

small diameter ___________
a) Beads
b) Tubes
c) Hydrophobia
d) None
6) Microcarrier are small _____________ with surface treated to support cell

attachment.
a) Tubes
b) Beads
c) Hydrodynamic
d) None
7) Cells of the vascular system are constantly exposed to ___________

force due to the flow of blood.
a) Heamodynamic
b) Hydrodynamic
c) Stress effect
d) None
*SLRUM351*
SLR-UM 351
-3-
8) Normal stress caused by a ____________ pressure differential across the

vessel walls.
a) Heamodynamic
b) Epithelial
c) Hydrodynamic
d) None
9) The equation Tw =
6 Q
bh 2
where Q-indicates
a) Viscosity of the flowing fluid

b) Channel width
c) Volumetric flow rate
10) What do you mean by GAGs ?
a) Glyco Amino Glycan
b) Glyco and Glycose
c) Glyco Anti Glycan
d) None
11) What do you mean by stromal cells ?

a) Architecture
b) Structure
c) Framework
d) None
12) The tail end of D.N.A. is termed as ___________

a) Telomeres
b) Telemeters
c) Telaphatic
d) None
13) The term hematopoiesis means

a) Frame work
b) Blood forming
c) Blood clotting
d) None
14) The human body consumes a straggering ______________ billions of mature

cells everyday.
a) 600 billions
b) 500 billions
c) 400 billions
d) None
15) Erythrocytes have a life span of ___________

a) 100 days and 8 hours
b) 120 days and 8 hours
c) 150 days and 4 hours
d) None
SLR-UM 351
*SLRUM351*
-4-
16) Hepatocyte transplantation system consists of ___________ types.

a) Injection module and polymer matrices
b) Mycloid and Lymphoid
c) Erythrocytes and Neutrophils
17) What do you mean by term BAECs ?
a) Bovine Aortic Endothelial Cells
b) Bi-active Endothelial Cells
c) Bio medical Active Epithelial Cells
18) CSFU define the term
a) Colony Stimulating Factor Unit
b) Colony Stimulating Forming Unit
c) Colony Steady Fast Unit
19) What do you mean by ECM ?
a) Extra Cells Matter
b) Extra Cellular Matrix
c) Extra Circular Material
d) None
20) ____________ tissue contains type-II collagen.

a) Cartilaginous
b) Bone marrow
c) Kidney
d) None
______________
-5-
*SLRUM351*
SLR-UM 351
Seat
No.
B.E. (Biomedical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

TISSUE ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
(54=20)
1) Explain in detail for reconstruction of connective tissue with diagram.

2) With graphical representation explain about the metabolic requirement
for cell.
3) Explain about the shear stress effect en gene regulation.
4) Explain about the adult stem cell.
5) Explain about the directed motile response for invivo.
(102=20)
1) Define tissue engineering, its methods and basic principle and consideration
for tissue engg.
2) Explain the different methodology and devices for shear stress effect on
cellular function.
3) Explain about the importance of stromal cells and tissue composition.
(54=20)
1) Explain about the hematopoietic system function and organization with diagram.
2) Explain about the tissue reconstruction for nerve regeneration with diagram.
3) Explain about the structure for skeletal muscle system.
4) Explain about the cell-based approaches to cartilage tissue Engg.
5) Explain about the fundamentals of kidney function with diagram.
(102=20)
1) Explain about the application of reconstituted Ex-vivo hematopoiesis for bone

marrow system.
2) Explain about the delivery of nemo active molecules for the nervous system.
3) Explain about the bioartifical glomerulus filter and reabsorber of tubule for
kidney system.
______________
Code No. SLR-UM
353
*SLRUM353*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (Electrical & Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
N.B. :
For Office Use only
Code No.

one mark.
1. 1) The P.I. of (D3 3D + 2)y = x is
1
a) ( x + 1)
2
1
3
c) x +
2
2
Marks : 20
b) x +
3
2
d) (x + 1)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 353
*SLRUM353*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W

a) (D2 + 2)2y = 0
b) (D2 2)2y = 0
c) (D2 + 4)2y = 0
d) (D2 4)2y = 0
a)
b)
c)
d)
(D2 4D + 1)y = et t(sint + 1)

(D2 4D 1)y = et t(sint + 1)
(D2 + 4D 1)y = et t(sint 1)
(D2 + 4D 1)y = et t(sint 1)

a) z =
b
x + by + c
3
c) z = 3ax2 + by
b) z = 3ax + a2y + c
d) z = ax +
a2
y+c
3
a) ( x + y, y + z) = 0
x
b) ,
y
x2 y2
c) , = 0
y z
d) ( xyz, x) = 0

a) p + q = 1
c) pq = 1
y
=0
z
b) p q = 1
d)
p
=1
q
d
becomes
dt
*SLRUM353*
SLR-UM 353
-3-
7) If L{f( t )} = ( s ) , then L t 2 f(t )

a) (s)
d2
b) 1 2 (s)
ds
c) (s)
d) None

i) L{f(t)} =
ii) L
1
{Lf(t) + f(0)}
s
{ f(u) du}= sL {f(t)}

t
a) Only i) is true
c) Both are true
b) Only ii) is true

d) Both are false
1
9) L1
=
32
(s 2)
t2
a) e
3!
2t
c) e
t3 2
b) e
52
t
d) e
2t
3
2
1
10) L1
2
(s 3) + 16
e3 t
sin 4t
a)
4
b)
c) e3 t cos 4 t
d) e 3 t cos 4t
x,
x,
a) No cosine terms
e 3 t
sin 4t
4
2x 0
0x2
b) No sine terms
d) None of these
a) Harmonic
c) Periodic
SLR-UM 353
*SLRUM353*
-4-

a) sin x + cos x
b) 1 cos 2x
c) sin 2x + cos 2x
d)
1
(1 cos 2x)
2
a) F(2s)
2
b) F
s
c) 2F(2s)
d)
1 s
F
2 2

a) curl F = 0
b) div F = 0
c) grad F = 0
d) grad F 0
a) a
c) 2b + 3a
dr
=
dt
b) b
d) 2a + 3b

a) 2
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
a) ak
z
, |z| > a (with k 0 ) is
z+a
b) (a)k
c) ak + 1
d) (a)k + 1
a)
1
2
b)
c)
d)
1,
0,
a) | z | < 1
b) | z | > 1
c) z < 1
d) z = 0
__________________
k0
is
k<0
*SLRUM353*
-5-
SLR-UM 353
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical & Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Solve
d3 y
dy
4
= 2 cosh2 (2 t ) .
3
dt
dt
x
b) Solve (D2 + 3D + 2)y = ee .
d2 y
dy
2x
4y = x 2 + 2 log x .
c) Solve x
2
dx
dx
OR
c) Solve (1 + x )2
d2 y
dy
+ (1 + x )
+ y = 4 cos log(1 + x) .
2
dx
dx
d4 y
3. a) Solve 4 + 4 y = 0 .
dx
d3 y dy
= 2e t + 2t + 1 4 cos t .
b) Solve 3
dt
dt
d2i i
dt 2 c
SLR-UM 353
*SLRUM353*
-6-
sin t sin 5t
4. a) Find L
.
t
u
u
=2
+ u where
x
t
u(x, 0) = 6e3x.
5. a) Solve 9(p2z + q2) = 4.
1
b) Find L1
4
(s 2) (s + 3)
32s
1
s
= t sin t find L1
c) If L1 2
2
2 .
2
(16s + 1)
(s + 1) 2
SECTION II

(1 x 2 ),
0 ,
|x|1
and hence evaluate
|x|>1
x
x cos x sin x
cos dx .
3
x
2



*SLRUM353*
-7-
SLR-UM 353
3z 2 + 2z
, 1< | z | < 2.
z 3z + 2
kx ,
c) Expand f(x) =
k(l x) ,
deduce that
5
4
l
l
<x<l
2
0<x<
2 1
1
1
= 2 + 2 + 2 + ... .
8 1
3
5
OR
r 2
r r
_______________
Code No. SLR-UM 354
*SLRUM354*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
e
j
f
C
1. Objective questions :
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) An electrical network is a combination of a number of electrical elements as

a) resistor
b) capacitor
c) inductor
d) all of these governed by certain law

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 354
*SLRUM354*
-2-
DO
NO
R
W
T
H
E
IT
E
R
E
2) Input to a network is
a) excitation
b) stimulus
c) either (a) or (b)
d) response
3) In linear network when input is doubled, output is

a) doubled
b) four times
c) half
d) zero
4) The connection of elements between two terminals is called

a) branch
b) loop
c) mesh
d) node
5) A connected graph has

a)
c)
/2
b) (
+1
d) 1/2 (
6) Given
a)
c)
vertices the number of branches in its tree will be

'
b)
d)
+ 1)
is
1)
7) Network analysis technique is based on

a) Superposition
b) Norton theorem
c) Kirchhoffs circuit laws
d) all of these
8) Two voltage sources can be connected in parallel when they have equal
a) magnitude
b) frequency
c) phase
d) all of these
*SLRUM354*
SLR-UM 354
-3-
9) The number of independent equations to solve a network is equal to number of

a) branches
b) nodes
c) (nodes 1)
d) chords
10) Branches remove from a graph to form a tree are called

a) cut graph
b) vertex
c) chords
d) cut-set
11) A voltage of 230

sin 100 t is applied across a series resistance of 100
ohm and inductance 1 H. The voltage measured across inductance.
a) 230
b) 230
c) 230/
d) 230/2
12) The inductance at t = 0 and t =

behaves respectively as
a) short circuit, short circuit
b) short circuit, open circuit
c) open circuit, short circuit
d) open circuit, open circuit
13) The behaviour of capacitor on de voltage is as

a) phase advancer
b) leading network
c) lagging network
d) short circuit
14) A two port network has _________ accessible terminal pairs.

a) one
b) two
c) four
d) o.c. and s.c.
15) In two-port network the driving point admittance is

a) V1(S)/I1(S)
c) either of (a) or (b)
b) I1(S)/ V1(S)
d) there is no driving point admittance
16) In two port-network, open circuit impendance parameters express ____ in

terms of __________
a) V1, V2 ______ I1, I2
b) I1, I2 ______ V1, V2
c) V1, I2 ______ V1, I2
d)
8
17) State variable approach is a direct __________ approach.

a) Z transform
b) Laplace transform
c) time domain
d) not useful for network analysis
SLR-UM 354
*SLRUM354*
-4-
18) Pick up the positives real function Z (s)

a)
5
b)
c)
d)
!
19) At t
the impulse response of a single pole system approach a constant
value only if in the s-plan the pole is located on the
a) positive real axis
b) negative real axis
d) imaginary axis
20) The trigonometric Fourier series of an even function of time does not contain
a) dc term
b) sine term
c) cosine term
d) odd harmonic terms
*SLRUM354*
-5-
SLR-UM 354
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination,

2014
ELECTRICAL CIRCUIT ANALYSIS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
1) State and explain Thevenins theorem.

2) State and explain Millimans theorem.
3) Replace the circuit between A and B with a voltage source in series with a
single resistor.
4) Find an equivalent resistance between A and B.
SLR-UM 354
-65) Draw the dual of the network shown in figure below.
*SLRUM235*
6) Find Va, Vb and Vc in the network shown below.
3. Solve any two :

(102=20)
1) By using superposition theorem find the current in 6 ohm resistance.
2) What will be the value of RL to get maximum power delivered to it ? Also find
value of this power.
*SLRUM354*
SLR-UM 354
-7-
3) For the network shown below, draw the oriented graph and write.
a) Incidence matrix
(b)tie set and
(c) f cutset matrix
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
1) Write characteristic for series resonance.
2) Derive hybrid parameters for two port network.
3) In the given network, the switch is closed at t = 0. With zero current in
inductor, find i,
d
4) In the network shown below, the switch is moved from the position 1 to 2 at
t = 0, steady state conditions having been established in position 1. Determine
i (t) for t > 0 using Laplace transform.
SLR-UM 354
-8-
*SLRUM235*
5) A series R-L-C circuit has the following parameters values : R = 10

,
L = 0.01 H, C = 100 mF. Compute the resonance frequency, band width, lower
and upper bandwidth frequency.
6) Derive the condition for reciprocity and symmetry for Z parameters in two
port network.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
1) This switch is moved from position a to b at t = 0, having been in position a for a long
time before t = 0. The capacitor C2 is uncharged at t = 0. Find i(t) and V2 (t) for t > 0.
2) In the network shown below, the switch is closed at t = 0, the steady state being
reached at t = 0. Using Laplace transform determine current through inductor of 3 H.
3) Determine Y - parameters for the network shown below.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 355
*SLRUM355*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------S.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ANALOG ELECTRONICS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

2) Assume suitbale data if required.
3) Figures to right indicate maximum marks.
Duration : 30Minutes
Marks : 20
20
1) The average value of a half wave rectified voltage with peak value of 200V is
a) 63.66 V
b) 127.3 V
c) 141 V
d) 200 V
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 355
*SLRUM355*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) In full wave rectifier, voltage across full secondary winding is 18 V, Then PIV
for each diode is
a) 9 V
b) 18/1.414
c) 18
d) 36
3) The base emitter voltage ______________ at the rate of 2.5 V/C with
________________ in temperature.
a) increases, increases
b) decreases, increases
c) decreases, decreases
d) increases, decreases
4) The Q point of NPN CE amplifier should not be selected to cutoff region

because
a) it leads to thermal runway
b) it requires high dc supply
c) it may cause output to be clipped off in negative half of output
d) it may cause output to be clipped off in positive half of output
5) In common emitter if current gain varies from 74.75 to 311.5 then corresponding
common base current gain will be
a) 0.9868 to 0.9968
b) 0.9668 to 0.9668
c) 1.9868 to 1.9968
d) 1.9668 to 1.9668
6) The Emitter of transistor is generally doped the heaviest because it

a) has to dissipate maximum power
b) has to supply charge carriers
c) is the first region of transistor
d) must possess low resistances
*SLRUM355*
SLR-UM 355
-3-
7) The drain to source voltage at which drain current becomes nearly constant
is called
a) Barrier voltage
b) Pinch off voltage
c) Breakdown voltage
d) Pick off voltage
8) In case of class B amplifier efficiency at the time of maximum power

dissipitation is just _____________
a) 50%
b) 78.5%
c) 25%
d) 100%
9) In class A amplifier power dissipitation is _____________ when input signal

is zero.
a) minimum
b) maximum
c) 25%
d) 50%
10) N channel FETs are superior to P channel FETs because they have
a) Lower switching time
b) Lower pinch off voltage
c) Higher input impedance
d) Mobility of electronics in N channel is greater than mobility of holes in P
channel
11) A differential Amplifier is
a) is part of OPAMP
b) has one input and one output
c) has two output
d) both a) and c)
12) Common mode gain is
a) very high
b) very low
c) Always unity
d) unpredictable
13) If sine is applied to an Integrator output will be

a) square
b) triangular
c) inverted sine
d) cosine
14) Zero level detector is one of the application of

a) Comparator
b) Differentiator
c) Integrator
d) Summing Amplifier
SLR-UM 355
*SLRUM355*
-4-
15) For non inverting amplifier if Rj = 100 k and Ri = 1k , closed loop gain is
b) 1,000
a) 1,00,000
c) 101
d) 100
16) Typical value of CMRR is ____________ for 741 opamp

a) 90 dB
b) 120 dB
c) 20 dB
d) 20 dB
17) Gain of non inverting amplifier is always greater than unity.

a) True
b) False
c) Neither true nor false
d) None
18) I to V converter is also called

a) Transconductance amplifier
b) Transresistance amplifier
c) Current amplifier
d) None
19) V to I converter is also called

a) Transconductance amplifier
b) Transresistance amplifier
c) Voltage amplifier
d) None
20) In differentiator, feedback element is

a) Resistor
b) Capacitor
c) Diode zener type
d) Inductor
_____________________
*SLRUM355*
-5-
SLR-UM 355
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ANALOG ELECTRONICS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) A bridge rectifier is directly operated on the single phase AC supply voltage

of 230V, 50Hz. If RL = 100 and diode forward resistance is 1 . Calculate
following :
i) Avg. load voltage
ii) DC output power
iii) Rectifier efficiency.
b) Explain operation of positive clamping circuit with help of circuit diagram and
waveforms.
c) Explain VI characteristics of UJT using its equivalent circuit diagram.
d) Why FET is called as voltage controlled device. Explain voltage divider biasing
circuit for single stage JFET amplifier.
e) What is cascoded amplifier ? Draw its circuit diagram and explain its
operation.
3. Solve any two :
(210=20)
1) Explain the operation of series fed directly coupled class A power amplifier.
Derive an expression for its maximum efficiency.
2) For N channel depletion type MOSFET, explain construction, working and
drain characteristics.
3) Derive an expression of stability factor S for collector to base bias circuit
using CE configuration and explain how it stabilizes the operating point.
Design a collector to base bias circuit for VCEQ = 6V, ICQ = 5mA and = 140 .
SLR-UM 355
-6-
*SLRUM355*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) List down the ideal characteristics of opamp.

b) Derive the gain for Inverting amplifier.
c) Define :
a) Input offset voltage
b) Slew rate.
d) What is virtual ground concept.
e) Draw and explain integrator circuit using opamp.
5. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Explain in detail the zero crossing detector and peak detector circuit using
opamp. List the applications.
b) Draw the astable multivibrator circuit using IC 555. Derive the expression for
the output frequency.
c) Explain in detail XR 2240, with specifications, and applications.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM 356
*SLRUM356*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014
DATA STRUCTURE (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Solve the following MCQs :
20
1) Recursive function can be implemented by

a) Stack
b) Queue
c) Linked list
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 356
*SLRUM356*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Which is the correct Fibonacci series ?

a) 1, 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11
b) 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13
c) 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 11
d) none
3) Queue in which we can insert item or delete from any position based on some
property is known as
a) Deque
b) Circular queue
c) Priority queue
d) None
4) Queue elements are added at

a) rear
b) front
c) top
d) both a) and b)
5) One of the following is not a type of recursion

a) Linear
b) Binary
c) Ternary
d) Nested
6) Which is the incorrect declaration of pointer ?

a) int * p ;
b) int * ptr ;
c) pointer * p ;
d) int * ptr_to_ptr
7) Which operator has lowest priority ?
a) ++
b) %
c) +
d) ||
*SLRUM356*
SLR-UM 356
-3-
8) We can check the empty condition or linked list by checking whether the
external pointer is
a) 1
b) +1
c) 0
d) NULL
9) It is not required to check overfull condition of stack while adding element

when implementing by linked list.
a) True
b) False
10) Logically first and last node is not a member of

a) circular linked list
b) singly linked list
c) doubly linked list
d) static list
11) Deq operation of queue makes
a) rear = rear 1
b) front = front 1
c) top = top 1
d) front = front + 1
12) If characters D, C, B, A are placed in a queue and are removed one at a
time. In which order they will be removed ?
a) ABCD
b) ABDC
c) DCBA
d) ADCB
13) Overflow condition of stack is

a) front = max 1
b) front = 0
c) top = max 1
d) none
14) The conversion of B * C D infix expression to postfix is

a) BC * D
c) BC * D
b) B C * D
d) None
15) The function that is used for memory allocation in implementation of linked
list is
a) malloc( )
b) calloc( )
c) realloc( )
d) a) and b) both
SLR-UM 356
*SLRUM356*
-4-
16) Which of the following data structure are indexed structures ?

a) Linear arrays
b) Linked list
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
17) Which variable has its initial value zero ?
a) auto
b) register
c) static
d) extern
18) The situation when in a linked list START = NULL is

a) overflow
b) underflow
c) flowless
d) saturated
19) Which of the following data structure store the homogeneous data elements ?
a) stack
b) queue
c) array
d) all a, b, c
20) What is the return type of tellep( ) pointer in file ?

a) float
b) char
c) double
d) int
______________
-5-
*SLRUM356*
SLR-UM 356
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

DATA STRUCTURE (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
a) Explain the modes of fopen( ) function.
b) Explain various operations of stak with example.
c) Explain dynamic memory allocation with example.
d) Write in brief about array as an ADT.
e) Write note on pointers in C.
20
3. A) Write a program to perform the operations on queue.

OR
Write in detail the storage classes in C.
10
B) Write a note on :
i) ADT
ii) Infix to post fix conversion.
10
SECTION II
4. Write short notes (any four) :
a) Recursion
b) Doubly linked lists
c) Avail list
d) Sorting techniques
e) Time and space complexities
f) Binary search.
20
5. A) Write in detain about open and close hashing.

OR
Explain with example the quick sort.
10
B) Types of linked list. Explain with neat diag. and concepts.

______________
10
Code No. SLR-UM 357

S
*SLRUM357*
&
t
a
_
_
U
s
_
_
f
C
N. B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory and each question carries one mark.

Marks : 20
1. Tick () the correct alternative :
20
1) The particular integral of (D2 + 4) y = cos2x is

a)
b)
4
4
c)
d)
4
4
2) For | z | > 1, Z1

a) 2
b)

c)

d) 2
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 357
*SLRUM357*
-2-
DO
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
T
O
N
3) The general solution of pey = qex is z = __________

a) a(ex + e y) + c
b) a(ex ey) + c
c) a(ex y) + c
d) a(ex + ey) + c
4) Z{k} =
a)
b)
Z
c)

Z
d) None
Z
5) The general solution of (D4 1) y = 0 is given by

a) y = (c1 + xc2 + x2 c3 + x3 c4)ex
b) y = (c1 + xc2)ex + (c3 + xc4)ex
c) y = c1 ex + c2 ex + c3 cos x + c4 sin x
d) y = (c1 + xc2) ex + c3 cos x + c4 sin x
6) The general solution of p + q = z is

a)
c)
(x y, yz) = 0
b)
(x y, y log z) = 0
d)
(x y, y log z) = 0
(x y, yz) = 0
7) Z-transform operates on
a) continuous function
b) continuous periodic function
c) periodic function
d) sequence of discrete integer valued arguments
*SLRUM357*
SLR-UM 357
-3-
8) The particular integral of the differential equation

(x2 D2 + xD)y = 12 log x is
a) 2z 3
b) 2 (log x)3
c) 6 (log x)
d) 12 log x
9)
1
a) emx emx X dx
b) emx emx X dx
c) emx emx X dx
d) None of these
10) On putting 5 + 2x = ez, Legendres linear differential equation

(5 + 2x)2
@
6 (5 + 2x)
+ 8y = 6. (5 + 2x) becomes
a) (D2 4D + 2)y =
!
ez
b) (D2 4D + 2)y =
ez
d) (D2 + 4D + 2)y = 6ez
ez
"
c) (D2 4D + 4)y =
!
11) Fourier expansion of f(x) = x + x2 in ( 1, 1) has

a) sine term only
b) cosine term only
c) both sine and cosine terms
d) none of these
12) For a constant function f(x) which of the following statement is correct ?
d) none of these
13) If f(x) = x3 in (1, 1) the Fourier coefficient an = ___________
n
a)
b) 0
2
2
c)

1
d) None of these
SLR-UM 357
*SLRUM357*
-4-
14) If F(s) is the Fourier transform of f(x) then f(x) = _______________

a)
F(s)

e isx ds
b)
F(s) eisx ds

c)
F(s) e isx ds
d) None of these
15) L {2t} = __________

a)
b)

c)
d)
1
16) If L{f(t)} = (s) then L { (t)} = __________

a) f(0) + s (s)
b) f(0) s (s)
c)
d) None of these
(0) + s (s)
17) L1 {log s} = ________

a)
b)

c)
d) t

18)

B
a)
@
= ________
b)
B
d)
B
=0
c) grad F = 0
19) A vector function
a) curl
c)
is called irrotational if
b) div
d)
=0
F=0
20) If = (x + 3y)i + (y 2z)j + (x + az)k is solenoidal then a = _________

b) 2
c) 1
d) 0
a) 2
.
______________
SLR-UM 357
-5-
*SLRUM357*
t
S.E. (Part I) (Electrical and Electronics) (New) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Solve : (D3 4D2 + 13D)y = 1 + cos 2x.
b) Solve : (D2 + 6D + 9)y =
.
A
c) Solve : (D3 + D)y = cos x.
3. a) Solve : (x2 D2 2x D2 4)y = x4.

b) Solve : (1 + x)2
@
+ (1 + x)
+ y = 4 cos log (1 + x).
c) The differential equation for a circuit in which self-inductance and capacitance

@
. Find the current i as a function of t
given that I is the maximum current and i = 0 when t = 0.

4. a) Solve : p2 pq = 1 z2.
b) Solve by using method of separation of variables 4
4
c) Solve : x2 (y z)p + y2(z x)q = z2(x y).
= 3u, u (0, y) = e5y. 5

K
OR
c) Solve : p2 y3q = x2 y2.
SLR-UM 357
*SLRUM357*
-6-
5. a) Find Z-transform of following :

f(k) = 3k, k < 0
= 2k, k 0.
b) Find inverse Z-transform of following :
, 2 < | z | < 3.
3

2
SECTION II
6. a) Find the Fourier series for f(x) where f(x) =
.
0
b) Expand
x x2 as a sine series in (0,

).
7. a) Find the Fourier transform of f(x) if f(x) =
6
E
b) Find the Fourier cosine transform of f(x) if f(x) =
.

c) Find the Fourier sine transform of f(x) if f(x) =
,
,
8. a) Find L
b) Find inverse Laplace transform of

by using convolution theorem. 4

!
c) Find inverse Laplace transform of log

I

"

I
9. a) Find the tangential and normal components of acceleration at any time t

of a particle whose position at any time is given by x = cos t + tsin t,
y = sint tcos t.
b) Prove that
.
H
5
4
H

c) Find the angle between the normals to the surface xy = z2 at the points
(1, 4, 2) and (3, 3, 3).
OR
c) A vector field is given by
= (x2 + xy2)i + (y2 + x2y)j. Show that
is
irrotational and find its scalar potential.
.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 358
*SLRUM358*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Part I) Examination, 2014

DC MACHINES AND TRANSFORMER
(New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Day & Date ____________________ _
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Section ________________________________________
__________ Examination _________
______________ (Paper - _______)
For Office Use only
Code No.

2) Figure right to indicates full marks.
Marks : 20
1. Solve the following objectives :
(120=20)
1) In a D.C.generator, the iron losses mainly take place in

a) yoke
b) commutator
c) armature conductors
d) armature rotor
P.T.O.
SLR-UM-358
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SRRUM358*
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Which of the following steps is likely to result in reduction of hysteresis loss in

a D.C. generator ?
a) Providing laminations in armature core
b) Providing laminations in stator
c) Using non-magnetic material for frame
d) Using material of low hysteresis co-efficient for armature core material
3) For constant torque drive which speed control method is preferred ?
b) Armature voltage control
a) Field control
c) Shunt armature control
d) Mechanical loading system
4) At the instant of starting when a D.C. motor is put on supply, it behaves like
b) a low resistance circuit
a) a highly resistive circuit
c) a capacitive circuit
5) Following motor is used where high starting torque and wide speed range control
is required
a)
b)
c)
d)
Single phase capacitor start

Induction motor
Synchronous motor
D.C.motor
e) None of the above

6) In the case of lap winding resultant pitch is
a) multiplication of front and back pitches
b) division of front pitch by back pitch
c) sum of front and back pitches
d) difference of front and back pitches
*SRRUM358*
SLR-UM-358
-3-
7) Satisfactory commutation of D.C.machines requires

a) brushes should be of proper grade and size
b) brushes should smoothly run in the holders
c) smooth, concentric commutator properly undercut
d) all of the above
8) According to Flemings right-hand rule for finding the direction of induced e.m.f.,
when middle finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point
in the direction of
a) motion of conductor
b) lines of force
c) either of the above
9) Two generators are running in parallel.One of the generators may run as motor
for which of the following reasons ?
a) The direction of that generator is reversed
b) The speed of that generator is increased
c) The field of that generator is weakened
d) That generator takes large share of loads
10) The commutation process in a dc generator basically involves
a) passage of current from moving armature to a stationary load
b) reversal of current in an armature coil as it crosses MNA
c) conversion of ac to dc
d) suppression of reactance voltage
11) When a universal motor is operated on no load, its speed is limited by
a) armature reaction
b) armature weight
c) windage and friction
d) supply voltage frequency
12) Laminated insulations coated with varnish are normally used in the transformer
a) To reduce reluctance of magnetic path
b) To reduce the effect of eddy current
c) To increase the reluctance of magnetic path
d) To reduce the hysteresis effect
SLR-UM-358
-4-
*SRRUM358*
13) Non-load on a transformer is carried out to determine

a) copper loss
b) magnetising current
c) magnetising current and loss
d) efficiency of the transformer
14) Which of the following is not a part of transformer installation ?
a) Conservator
b) Breather
c) Buchholz relay
d) Exciter
15) In the transformer the function of a conservator is to
a) Provide fresh air for cooling the transformer
b) supply cooling oil to transformer in time of need
c) protect the transformer from damage when oil expends due to heating
16) Star/star transformers work satisfactorily when
a) load is unbalanced only
b) load is balanced only
c) on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
17) The efficiency of two identical transformers under load conditions can be
determined by
b) back-to-back test
a) short-circuit test
c) open circuit test
d) any of the above
18) The winding used in 3-phase shell type transformer is _____________ type.
a) Circular
b) Cylindrical
c) Sandwitch
d) Rectangular
19) If a transformer is switched on to a voltage more than the rated voltage
a) its power factor will deteriorate
b) its power factor will increase
c) its power factor will remain unaffected
d) its power factor will be zero
20) A no-load test is performed on a transformer to determine
a) core loss
b) copper loss
c) efficiency
d) magnetising current and loss
_________________
*SRRUM358*
SLR-UM-358
-5-
Seat
No.
S.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Part I) Examination, 2014

DC MACHINES AND TRANSFORMER (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) Figure right to indicates full marks.
SECTION I
(54=20)
a) State the names of various parts of dc machine. State the materisl used for
these parts and its functions.
b) What is commutation ? Explain in brief methods used for improving
commutation.
c) What is armature reaction ? Explain with diagram concept of demagnetizing
and cross magnetizing ampere turns how are these calculated in dc machines ?
d) A shunt generator gave the following results in OCC at a speed of 800 rpm.
Field Current (A)
10
EMF (V)
90
185
251
290
324
345
360
The field resistance is adjusted to 50 ohm and the terminal voltage is 300 V.
Armature resistance is 0.1 ohm. Assuming that flux is reduced by 5% due to
armature reaction, find the load supplied by the generator.
e) What are the important characteristics of dc motor. plot and explain these
characteristics for dc series motor.
f) Draw neat circuit diagram for 2 point starter explain the working of same.
SLR-UM-358
-6-
*SRRUM358*
3. a) Draw the developed diagram of a simple two layer progressive lap winding fo 4
pole generator with 12 slots, each slots containing two coil sides. Indicate
position of brushes. Determine
i) The front pitch
ii) The back pitch
iii) The resultant pitch
iv) The number of brushes
v) Number of commutator segments for the machine.
10
b) A belt driven by 60 KW shunt wound generator running at 500 rpm is supplying

full load to a busbar at 200 V. At what speed will it run if the belt breaks and the
machine continues to run taking 5 KW from the busbar. Armature and field
resistances are 0.1 ohm and 100 ohm respectively. Brush contact voltage
drop is 2 volts.
10
OR
Explain speed control method for dc series motor with circuit diagram by a field
diverter method and tapped field control method.
SECTION II
(54=20)
a) What is an ideal transformer ? Derive an expression for induced emf in a

transformer in terms of frequency, maximum flux and the number of turns.
b) Define efficiency of a transformer in terms of output parameters and losses
corresponding to 3 4 the full load at UPF. Derive the conditions for maximum
effeciency of the transformer.
c) A 200/400 V, 50 Hz, single phase transformer on test gave following readings
O.C. Test (LV) : 200 V, 0.7 A, 70 W
S.C. Test (HV) :15 V, 10 A, 80 W
Find voltage regulation at 0.8 P.F. lagging at full load.
*SRRUM358*
-7-
SLR-UM-358
d) Explain the procedure for conducting open circuit (OC) and short circuit (SC)
test on a single phase transformer. How can the parameter be found from
these transformers ?
e) Two transformers each of 80 KVA are connected in parallel. One has resistance
and reactance of 1% and 4% respectively and the other has resistance and
reactance of 1.5% and 6% respectively.
Calculate the load shared by each transformers and P.F. when total load shared
is 100 KVA at 0.8 PF lagging.
5. Solve any two.
(102=20)
a) Draw the circuit diagram for step down and step up auto transformer and find
the expression for copper saving for same as compared to two winding
transformer.
b) Explain with circuit diagrams how three phase supply can be connected to
2 phase supply with two transformers. If load on secondary side is balanced,
show that the system will be balanced.
c) A 5000 KVA, 3 phase transformer 6.6/33 KV delta-star has no load loss of
15 KW and full load loss of 50 KW. The impedance drop at full load is 7%.
Calculate the primary voltage when a load of 3200 KW at 0.8 P.F. is delivered
at 33 KV.
_____________________
SLR-UM 359
Code No.
*SLRUM359*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
c
e
f
C
Instructions: 1) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.

2) Q. 1 is compulsory.
Marks : 20

1) When n resistances each of value r are connected in parallel, then resultant
resistance is x. When these n resistances are connected in series, total
resistance is
a) nx
b) rnx
c) x / n
d) n2x
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 359
*SLRUM359*
-2-
NO
DO
R
W
T
H
E
IT
E
R
E
2) Which of the following is not the same as watt ?

a) joule/sec
b) amperes/volt
c) amperes x volts
d) (amperes)2 x ohm
3) A circuit contains two un-equal resistance in parallel

a) current is same in both
b) large current flows in larger resistor
c) potential difference across each is same
4) Current I in the figure is
1A
2A
1A
1A
2A
1A
5A
1
a) 6A
b) 5A
c) 4A
d) 2.5A
5) When P = Power, V = Voltage, I = Current, R = Resistance and G = Conductance,

which of the following relation is incorrect ?
a) V = (PR)
b) P = V2G
c) G = P/I2
d) I = (P/R)
*SLRUM359*
SLR-UM 359
-3-
6) Kirchhoffs current law is applicable to only

a) Junction in a network
b) Closed loops in a network
c) Open loop in a network
d) Electronic circuits
7) Thevenins resistance RTH is found by

a) Removing voltage sources along with their internal resistances
b) Short-circuiting the given two terminals
c) Between any two open terminals
d) Between same open terminals as for VTH
8) The current through an inductance follows
a) A linear growth
b) A linear decay
c) An exponential decay
d) An exponential growth
9) For three phase delta connected circuit
a) Line voltage = phase voltage
b) Line current = phase current
c) Line voltage = 3phase voltage
10) To increase the current in a series RL circuit, the frequency
a) Should be increased
b) Should be decreased
c) Should be constant
11) An ideal current source has

a) Zero internal conductance
b) Zero internal resistance
c) Zero voltage on no load
d) Zero ripple
12) In a series resonant circuit, the impedance of the circuit is

a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Zero
SLR-UM 359
*SLRUM359*
-4-
13) The double energy transient occur in the

a) Purely inductive circuit
b) R-L circuit
c) R-C circuit
d) R-L-C circuit
14) Time constant of a capacitive circuit

a) Increases with the decrease of capacitance and decrease of resistance
b) Increases with the decrease of capacitance and increase of resistance
c) Increases with the increase of capacitance and decrease of resistance
d) Increase with increase of capacitance and increase of resistance
15) In series resonance reactance above resonant frequency is
a) Capacitive
b) Resistive
c) Inductive
16) Second order circuit is critically damped when

a) LC>4R2C2
b) LC=4R2C2
c) LC<4R2C2
17) The concept on which Superposition theorem is based is

a) Reciprocity
b) Duality
c) Non-linearity
d) Linearity
18) The current at half power frequencies is time current at resonance.

a) Same
b) Half
c) 0.637
d) 0.707
19) Laplace transform of eat sinwt is

a) (s+a) / [(s+a)2 + w2]
b) a / [(s+a)2 + w2]
c) w / [(s+a)2 + w2]
20) In an electrical circuits transient are due to

a) Inductor
b) Capacitor
c) Inductor and Capacitor

______________________
*SLRUM359*
SLR-UM 359
-5-
Seat
No.

ELECTRICAL NETWORKS (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
20
1) Find the current Ix and Iy using mesh analysis.

"
1
#
Iy
Ix
5V
10 V
1
2) Define the following terms :

Graph, Oriented graph, Tree, Co-tree, Link, Twigs.
3) State and explain Thevenins theorem.
4) Find the current in 10
resistance by Millmans theorem.

"
j
#
'
SLR-UM 359
*SLRUM359*
-6-
5) Find the voltage across 5

resistance by nodal method.

2A
#
30 I1
50V
6) Draw the dual of the network.

4
8

3. Solve any two :

1) Use superposition theorem to find voltage Vx as shown in network.
!
3Vx
Vx
"
36 V
18 V
5A
2) State maximum power transfer theorem. Derive the condition for maximum
power transfer. Find the value of RL for maximum power transfer for the
circuit shown.
Ix
10 Ix
16 V
0.9 A
!
RL
20
*SLRUM359*
SLR-UM 359
-7-
3) What is the concept of super node and super mesh ? Find the node voltages
as shown in fig.
$
1
#
3
5ix
ix
6A
40 V
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
20
1) Describe series resonance with phaser diagrams.

2) Derive Y-Parameter in terms of Z, and transmission parameters.
3) For the network shown find the Z-Parameter.
1
8
!

4) Find the current through 5H inductor at t = 200 m sec in the circuit shown.

"
"
SLR-UM 359
*SLRUM359*
-8-
5) The switch in the network is closed at t = 0. Determine the voltage across

capacitor by Laplace Transform.

6) Derive an expression for response given by RL circuit.

5. Solve any two :
1) Find IL (t) fot t > 0 for the circuit shown.
20
"
2) Find the resonant frequency for the circuit shown.
L
?
3) Find the response given by RC circuit for the following inputs by Lapalce
transform.
i) Unit step function.
ii) Ramp function.
iii) Impulse function.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM 36

Seat
No.
*SLRUM36*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is multiple choice question and is compulsory.

Marks : 20
20
1) The complete solution of (D4 + 6D2 + 9) y = 0 is

a) y = c1cos 3x + c2sin 3x
b) y = (c1 + c2x) cos 3 x + (c3 + c4x) sin 3 x
c) y = (c1 + c2x) e3x + (c3 + c4x) e3x
d) y = (c1 + c2x) cos 3x + (c3 + c4x) sin 3x
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 36
DO
2)
1
2
*SLRUM36*
-2-
D +9
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
cos 3 x =
a)
x
cos 3x
6
b)
1
cos 3x
18
c)
x
sin 3x
6
d)
x
sin 3x
6
3) The P.I. of (D2 2D + 1) y = 4ex is

a) 4x2ex
b) (c1 + c2x) ex
d) (c1 + c2x) ex
c) 2x2ex
4) If D
d
d2 y
dy
and z = logx then diff. equation x
+
2
= 6x becomes
dz
dx
dx 2
a) D(D + 1) y = 6e2z
b) D(D + 1) y = 6ez
c) (D2 + 2D) y = 6ez
d) D(D 1) y = 6e2z
5) The general solution of (x + 2 )
d2y
dx
a) y = c1(x + 2)2 + c2(x + 2)3

b) y = c1(x + 2)2 + c2(x + 2) 3
c) y = c1e2x + c2e3x
d) y = c1(x + 2)2 + c2(x + 2)3
4 (x + 2 )
dy
+ 6y = 0 is
dx
*SLRUM36*
SLR-UM 36
-3-
6) If L { f (t ) } = (s ) then L {f(at)} =
a)
1
(s a )
a
b)
c) (s a )
1
(s a )
s
d) (s a )
1
7) L1
=
(s 3 )2
a)
e 3 t
b)
t
t2e3t
c) te3t
d) te3t
8) L sin 2udu =
0
a)
c)
(s
2
2
+4
b)
s s2 + 4
d) None of these
s2 + 4
9) The solution of pex = qey is

a) z = aex + aey + c
b) z = aex + aey + c
c) z = aex aey + c
d) z = aex aey + c

a2
y+c
3
a) z = 3ax + a2y + c
b) z = ax +
c) z = ax + 3a2y + c
d) None of these
11) If probability of defective tool is 0.3, then mean of distribution of defective

tools in a lot of 80 is
a) 20
b) 24
c) 28
12) . r = ____________ where r = xi + yj + zk.

a) 3
b) 0
c) 3
d) None of these
d) 30
SLR-UM 36
*SLRUM36*
-4-
13) The coefficient of correlation is geometric mean of

a) Regression lines
b) Regression coefficients
c) x and y
d) None of these
14) If regression equations are 4x 5y + 33 = 0 and 20x 9y 107 = 0 then x, y

are respectively.
a) 13, 17
b) 17, 13
c) 13, 17
d) None of these
15) The value of k, for which f (x ) =
k
1 + x2
, < x < is probability density
function, is
a)
c) 2
b)
d)
1
2
16) If m denote mean and (sigma) denote standard deviation for normal variate
x then standard normal variate z is defined as
a)
x+m
b)
x
m
c)
xm
d)
x+
m
17) If (x, y, z) = c then directional derivative of in the direction of x-axis is

b) 1
a) 0
c) 1
d)
18) Vector A = (bx2y + yz) i + (xy2 xz2) j + (2xyz 2x2y2) k is solenoidal

for b =
a) 2
b) 2
c)
1
2
d)
1
2
19) The expansion of f(x) = x in the interval (1, 1) has

a) only cosine terms
b) only constant terms
c) only sine terms
d) all of these
20) The constant term in Fourier series expansion of f(x) = x2 in the interval
( , ) is
a)
b)
3
c)
9
______________
2
d)
3
-5-
*SLRUM36*
SLR-UM 36
Seat
No.

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
10
i) (D3 3D2 + 4D 2) y = ex + cosx

ii) (D4 + 10D2 + 9) y = sin2x sinx
iii) (D2 + 9) y = sec3x.
t 2 t
sin 3t dt .
b) Find L te
3. a) Solve
(3x + 2)2
d2y
dx 2
+ 5(3x + 2 )
dy
3y = x 2 + x + 1.
dx
b) The deflection of a strut with one end built in and the other supported and
subjected to end-thrust P satisfies the equation
d2 y
a 2R
+a y=
(l x )
P
dx 2
2
Given that
dy
= 0, y = 0 when x = 0 and y = 0 when x = l, prove that
dx
R sin ax
l cos ax + l x
P a
where al = tanal and l is the length of the strut.

y=
SLR-UM 36
*SLRUM36*
-6-
4. a) Solve (D2 + 2D + 3) y = x x2.
3s + 1
b) Find L1
.
2
(
)
s
1
s
2
+
+
c) Evaluate
cos 6 t cos 4 t
dt using Laplace transform.
t
5. a) Solve p2 pq = 1 z2.
y4z
p + zx 3 q = y 4 .
b) Solve
x
c) Solve z(p2 q2) = x y.
5
SECTION II
6. a) Find the Fourier series of

0
f (x ) = 2
x
when x 0
0x
when
Which is assumed to be periodic function with period 2 .

b) Find the equations of lines of regression from following data :
x:
y:
62
126
64
125
65
139
69
145
70
165
71
152
72
180
74
208
7. a) Verify whether the following function can be considered as probability density

function f (x ) =
1
e
2
< x < .
b) Weights of 4000 students are found to be normally distributed with mean

50 kgs and standard deviation 5 kgs. Find the number of students with weights
i) Less than 45 kgs
ii) Between 45 and 60 kgs.
(For standard normal variate z, area under the curve between z = 0 and z = 1
is 0.3413 and that between z = 0 and z = 2 is 0.4772]
*SLRUM36*
SLR-UM 36
-7-
a . r a n(a . r ) r
c) Prove
n+2
=
r
rn rn
Where a is constant vector, r and r having usual meanings.
OR
c) A particle moves along the curve r = (t3 4t) i + (t2 + 4t) j + (8t2 3t3) k
where t denote time. Show that the magnitudes of acceleration along tangent
and normal at time t = 2 are 16 and 2 73 respectively.
8. a) Find constants a and b such that the vector (2xy + 3yz)i + (x2 + axz 4z2)j +
(3xy + 2byz)k is irrotational.
b) Fit second degree curve to the following data :
x:
y:
1
1.7
2
1.8
3
2.3
4
3.2
9. a) Find half range Fourier sine series of cos x in interval (0, 1).
b) Fit a Poisson distribution to the following data :
0
56
1
156
2
132
4
5
1
c) Show that with usual notations 2 = 0 .
r
x:
f:
3
92
4
37
5
22
6
4
4
7
0
8
1
c) Determine the probability of getting sum g exactly twice in 3 throws with a

pair of fair dice.
______________
Code No. SLR-UM
360
*SLRUM360*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

ANALOG ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20

1) The gain of cascade amplifier is equal to
a) Sum of individual gain
b) Product of individual gain
c) Ratio of stage gain
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 360
*SLRUM360*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) In the circuit shown below the output waveform is
a)
b)
c)
d)
3) In Class A power amplifier the current in the output circuit flows for
a) 360
b) 180
c) 90
d) Less than 90
4) In an n-channel JFET, what will happen at the pinch-off voltage ?

a) The value of VDS at which further increases in VDS will cause no further
increase in ID
b) ID reaches to its constant saturation level
c) Both a) and b)
d) The value of VDS at which further increases in VGS will cause no further
increase in ID
5) If one of the diode in bridge rectifier opens, then output is
a) 0V
b) Vm/2
c) 2 Vm/
d) Half wave rectified voltage
*SLRUM360*
SLR-UM 360
-3-
6) The self bias arrangement gives an improved Q point stability when

a) RE is low
b) is small but RE is large
c) Both and RE are large
d) is large but RE is small
7) n-channel MOSFETs are superior to p-channel MOSFETs because

a) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes
b) Resistance of n-channel MOSFETs is less than p-channel MOSFETs
c) Higher packing density for n-channel MOSFETs
d) All above
8) The efficiency of CLASS C power amplifier is ___________
a) 25%
b) Close to 100%
c) Close to 50%
d) 78.5%
9) Assume that N channel EMOSFET shown above is ideal and its threshold
voltage is 2V. The voltage Vo is
a) 12V
b) 0V
c) 11V
d) 0.5V
10) In common emitter if current gain varies from 74.75 to 311.5 then corresponding
common base current gain will be
a) 0.9868 to 0.9968
b) 0.9668 to 0.9668
c) 1.9868 to 1.9968
d) 1.9668 to 1.9668
11) A certain differential amplifier has differential gain of 2000 and common mode
gain of 0.2. The CMRR in dB is _____________
a) 1000
b) 400
c) 80
d) 40
SLR-UM 360
*SLRUM360*
-4-
12) If input of above circuit is square wave, then the output waveform and type of
circuit is ____________
a) Triangular wave, differentiator
b) Triangular wave, interrogator
c) Saw tooth wave, interrogator
d) Square wave, differentiator
13) The inverting comparator with positive feedback is called

a) Zero crossing detector
b) Regenerative comparator
c) Schmitt trigger
d) Both b) and c)
14) An ideal Op-amp has
a) Zero output resistance
c) Infinite input resistance
15) The voltage follower is also called as
a) Non-inverting buffer
c) Summing amplifier
b) Infinite voltage gain

d) All above
b) Inverting buffer
d) All above
16) Effect of negative feedback in non inverting amplifier

a) Bandwidth increases
b) Noise decreases
c) Output resistance decreases
d) All above
17) The output of Op amp increases 8V in 12 s. The slew rate is ____________
a) 0.666106 V/sec
b) 0.67 V/ s
c) 8/12 V/ s
d) All above
18) A multivibrator which has one stable state and one quasi stable state is
b) Monostable multivibrator
c) Schmit trigger
d) Bistable multivibrator
19) From sine wave one can obtain square wave by using
a) Schmit trigger circuit
b) Zero crossing detector
c) Integrator
d) Both a) and b)
20) In monostable multivibrator if R = 91 K and C = 0.1 F then pulse width is will be
a) 1.01 msec
b) 10.01 msec
c) 10.1 sec
d) 1.01 sec
*SLRUM360*
-5-
SLR-UM 360
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

ANALOG ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) A bridge rectifier is directly operated on the single phase AC supply at 230 V,

50 Hz. If load resistance is 100 and diode forward resistance is 1 .
Calculate.
i) Average load voltage
ii) DC output power
iii) Rectifier efficiency.
b) Determine the following for the fixed-bias configuration of Fig. (a) IBQ and
ICQ. (b) VCEQ (c) VB and VC (d) VBC.
c) What is an ideal current source ? Explain operation of JFET and constant

current source.
d) CE configuration provides 180 phase shift between input and output. Justify
the statements.
e) Explain working of Class D power amplifier.
SLR-UM 360
-6-
*SLRUM360*
3. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) For N channel Depletion type MOSFET, explain construction, working and

drain characteristics.
b) Describe the operation of biased series positive and biased series negative
clippers. Sketch output waveform Vout for following circuit. Vin is 10V peak to
peak sine wave, 1 KHz and battery V = 3V. Assume ideal diode.
c) Explain the operation of series fed direct coupled class A power amplifier.
Derive an expression for its maximum efficiency and power dissipitation.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Explain working of differential amplifier with two Op-amp. Derive an expression

for voltage gain.
b) Explain working of precision comparator circuit.
c) Explain working of voltage to current converter with floating load.
d) Explain working of non-inverting amplifier with feedback. Derive an expression
for voltage gain.
e) Expalin working of analog multiplier circuit.
5. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Explain working of astable multivibrator using IC 555 with internal circuitry.

Derive an expression for output frequency and duty cycle. Draw associated
waveforms.
b) Explain operation of Op-amp as a interrogator and differentiator with suitable
circuit diagram and draw associated waveforms.
c) Explain following Op-amp characteristics with suitable circuit diagram :
i) Input offset voltage
iii) Input offset current
ii) Input bias current

iv) Thermal Drift.
Code No. SLR-UM
361
Seat
No.
*SLRUM361*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014
ELECTRICAL POWER GENERATION (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

2) Figure to the right indicates maximum marks.
3) Assume the suitable data whenever necessary.
Marks : 20
20
1) In pumped storage
A) Power is produced by means of pumps
B) Water is stored by pumping to high pressures
C) Downstream water is pumped up-stream during off load periods
D) Water is recirculated through turbine
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 361
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
*SLRUM361*
2) In power station practice spinning reserve is

A) Reserve generating capacity that is in operation but not in service
B) Reserve generating capacity that is connected to bus and ready
to take the load
C) Reserve generating capacity that is available for service but not
in operation
D) Capacity of the part of the plant that remains under maintenance
3) Which of the following material can be used as a moderator ?
A) Graphite
B) Heavy water
C) Beryllium
D) Any of the above
4) For the same plant size, initial cost of which plant is highest ?
A) Steam power plant
B) Diesel engine plant
C) Nuclear power plant
D) Gas turbine plant
5) A condenser in a thermal power plant condenses steam combing out of

A) Boiler
B) Super-heater
C) Economizer
D) Turbine
6) Pelton turbine works under

A) Low head and low quantity of water
B) Large head and low quantity of water
C) Large head and large quantity of water
D) All of the above
*SLRUM361*
-3-
SLR-UM 361
7) In a thermal power plant, heat from the flue gases is recovered in

A) Chimney
B) De-super heater
C) Economizer
D) Condenser
8) In a hydro-electric plant a conduct system for taking water from the intake
works to the turbine is known as
A) Dam
B) Reservoir
C) Penstock
D) Surge tank
9) Pulverized coal is
A) Coal free from ash
B) Non-smoking coal
C) Coal which bums for long time
D) Coal broken into fine particles
10) The disadvantage of renewable sources of energy is
A) Lack of decidability
B) Availability in low energy densities
C) Intermittency
D) All of the above
11) Tidal energy mainly makes use of
A) Kinetic energy of water
B) Potential energy of water
C) Both kinetic as well as potential energy of water
12) In a fuel cell positive electrode is of
A) Oxygen
B) Ammonia
C) Hydrogen
D) Carbon monoxide
13) The ratio maximum demand of the installation to the sum of individual
maximum demands is known as
A) Demand factor
B) Plant use factor
C) Diversity factor
D) Plant capacity factor
SLR-UM 361
*SLRUM361*
-4-
14) In a 2 stroke engine there is one power stroke in

A) 90 of crank rotation
B) 180 of crank rotation
C) 360 of crank rotation
D) 720 of crank rotation
15) Most of the heat generated in internal combustion engine is lost in

A) Cooling water
B) Exhaust gases
C) Lubricating oil
D) Radiation
16) The capital cost of power plant depends on

A) Total installed capacity only
B) Total number of units only
C) Total installed capacity and number of units
17) Photovoltaic solar energy conversion system makes use of
A) Fuel cell
B) Solar cell
C) Solar pond
18) Reciprocating motion of piston is converted into rotary motion by

A) Crank shaft
B) Connecting rod
C) Gudgeon pin
D) Gear box
19) The turbine normally employed in tidal power plant is

A) Simple impulse turbine
B) Propeller turbine
C) Reaction turbine
D) Reversible turbine
20) Biogas consist of

A) Only methane
B) Methane and carbon dioxide with some impurities
C) Only ethane
D) A special organic gas
__________________
*SLRUM361*
-5-
SLR-UM 361
Seat
No.

ELECTRICAL POWER GENERATION (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
1) Give classification of hydroelectric power plant on the basis of head.

2) Discuss factors to be considered for selection of site for thermal power plant.
3) Explain pumped storage plant with neat diagram.
4) Explain pelton turbine with neat diagram.
5) Explain boiling water reactor with neat diagram.
6) Write a short on material used as nuclear fuel.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
1) Explain single line diagram of typical AC power system.

2) Explain function of economizer and air-preheater used in thermal power plant.
3) With a neat diagram explain working of nuclear power plant.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
1) Explain construction and working of solar photovoltaic cell.

2) Explain wind power plant with block diagram also state its application.
3) Explain geo-thermal power plant with neat diagram also state its application.
SLR-UM 361
-6-
*SLRUM361*
4) Explain construction and working of fuel cells.

5) Explain load duration curve with example.
6) The load on a power plant on a typical day is as under
Time
12-5 am
5-9 am
9-6 pm
6 pm-10 pm
Load (MW) 20
40
80
100
10 pm-12 pm
20
Plot the chronological load curve and load duration curve find the load factor
of the plant and energy supplied in 24 hrs.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
1) With a neat diagram explain tidal power plant with its advantages and limitations.
2) Define bio-gas and explain common circular fixed dome digester (china plant)
with neat diagram.
3) A group of 2 consumers has the following electricity demand pattern on a
typical winter day :
Consumer A : Connected load
2.5 KW
Load from 12 midnight to 5 am
100 W
From 5 am to 6 am
1.1 KW
From 6 am to 8 am
200 W
From 8 am to 5 pm
Nil
From 5 pm to 12 midnight
500 W
Consumer B : Connected load
3 KW
Load from 11 pm to 7 am
Nil
From 7 am to 8 am
300 W
From 8 am to 10 am
1 KW
From 10 am to 6 am
200 W
From 6 pm to 11 pm
600 W
a) Calculate the demand factor of both the consumers.
b) Plot the variations in demand v/s time of the day for each consumer and
group.
c) Find the group diversity factor.
d) Find energy consumed by each consumer in 24 hours.
e) Find the maximum energy which each consumer would consume in 24
hours if his load were constant and equal to his maximum demand.
f) Find the ratio of actual energy to maximum energy for each.
________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 362
*SLRUM362*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------S.E. (E&EE) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
For Office Use only
Code No.
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Instruction : Q. No. 1 is compulsory.

Marks : 20
20
1) Let A be 3 3 matrix of rank 2 then the solution of AX = O has _________

a) a trivial solution
b) one parameter solution
c) two parameter solution
d) none of these
2) A system of equation is consistent if AX = B
a) (A) = ([A B])
c) (A) is less than the number of unknowns
b) (A) < ([A, B])

d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 362
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM362*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
3) If 2, 2, 8 are the eigen values of the matrix A3 3 and 6, 3, K are the diagonal
elements of A, then K = ___________
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
a) 0
4) If 2, 3, 5 are the eigen values of A, then | A | = ___________
b) 30
c) 40
d) none of these
a) 10
5) The dimension of Col. A is
a) Number of columns of A
c) Number of rows in A
b) Number of pivot columns of A

d) None of these
6) If T : Rn Rm be a linear transformation and let A be the standard matrix

of T then T is on to if and only if
b) Columns of A span Rn
a) Columns of A span Rm
c) Rows of A span Rm
d) Rows of A span Rn
7) If T : R 2 R 4 T(e1) = [3, 1, 3, 1], T(e2) = [ 5, 2, 0, 0] where e1 = [1, 0] and
e2 = [0, 1] then standard matrix of T is _____________
3 5
2
1 3 1
3
1
b)
a)
0
5 2 0 0
3
1
0
5 3
2
1
5
2
0
0
c)
d)
0
3
3
1 3 1
0
1
*SLRUM362*
SLR-UM 362
-3-
8) If A = PDP1 where P is intertible matrix and D is diagonal matrix then

a) AK = PKDKP K
b) A K = PKDP K
c) AK = P DKP 1
d) A K = P K DP K
9) If A ~ 0
1

a) 0 ,

0
0

2 ,

0
6

5 ,

0
1

c) 0 ,

0
0

2

0
3 then basis for Col A is
0
5

3

0
1

b) 0

0
d)
{ [1
5] }
5
5

10) Determine if w = 3 , is in ________________ where A = 13

2
18
a) Nul A
c) Row A
b) Col A
d) None of these
11) For 2x12 6 x1x 2 + x 22 the matrix of quadratic form is

2
a)
3
2
c)
3
1
3
2
b)
3
2
d)
3
12) If a real quadratic form XAX is positive definite, then

b) | A | > 0
a) | A | = 0
c) | A | < 0
d) | A | = 1
21
23
14
19
SLR-UM 362
*SLRUM362*
-4-
13) If u is a unit vector in the direction of V = [1 2 2 0 ], then u = ________

b)
a) [ 3 6 6 0]
c) 1
3
[1
d) none of these
14) Which of the following are called normal equations for Ax = b ?

b) ATAx = ATb
a) ATX = Ab
c) ATAx = Ab
d) None of these
15) The mapping w = f(z) is conformal if
a) f(z) is not analytic and f(z) 0
b) f(z) is analytic and f(z) 0
c) f(z) is analytic and f(z) = 0
d) none of these
16) Cauchy integral formula is given by
a)
f(z)
z z0 = 2i f (z0 )
b) f (z 0 ) =
c) f (z0 ) =
1
2
f(z)
z z0 dz
d)
f(z)
dz
z z0
f(z)
z z0 dz = 2 f(z0 )
17) A Milne Thompson method is used to construct

b) analytic function
a) differentiable function
c) continuous function
d) none of these
18) The function u(x, y) is said to be harmonic if it satisfy
b) uxx uyy = 0
a) ux = uy
c) ux = uy
d) uxx + uyy = 0
19) The equations of the lines of regression are x + 2y = 5 and 2x + 3y = 8.
Then x and y are
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 5
d) 1 and 2
a) 1 and 3
20) If r =
bxy byx then r is
a) Harmonic mean of bxy, byx

b) Geometric mean of bxy, byx
c) Arithmetic mean of bxy, byx
d) None of these
______________________
*SLRUM362*
SLR-UM
362
SLR-UM
362
-5-
Seat
No.
S.E. (E&EE) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instruction : Attempt any three questions from each Sections.

SECTION I
2. a) Using LU factorization method solve the equation Ax = b, where
2
A = 1
2
3
7
1 , b =
0

5 A =

7
1
1
2
3
2
0
1
5
2
2
0
1 .
b) Write the matrix equation for the circuit.
c) Solve x1 2x4 = 3
2x2 + 2x3 = 0
x3 + 3x4 = 1
2x1 + 3x2 + 2x3 + x4 = 5.
(5+3+5=13)
SLR-UM 362
*SLRUM362*
-6-
6
3. a) Apply power method to A =
8
value and eigen vector.
1
7
X
=
with
to find dominant eigen
0
5
0
12
43
.
b) Compute the transfer matrix of the network in the figure. If A = 1

3
4
Design a ladder network whose transfer matrix is A by finding suitable matrix
factorization.
(6+7=13)
4. a) Find bases for row space, the column space and the null space of the matrix
2
1
A=
3
1
11
19
13
17
1
3
b) Find basis of Col A, where A = 2
0
N
0
0
7
.
20
0
1 .
1

c) For what value of h is V3 in span {V1 V2} where V1 = 3 , V2 =

2
5

V3 = 7 .

h
3

9 ,

6
(6+4+4=14)
*SLRUM362*
SLR-UM 362
-7-
0
0
0.5
0.5
0 , u =
5. a) Let A = 0
0
0.5
0
where T = R3 R3.
3
b) If possible diagonalize
2
1

0 and v =

4
a

b . Determine T(u) and T(v)

c
12
.
7
c) By power method find dominant eigen value and eigen vector

2
A=
4
1
, X =
5 0
1
.
0
(3+5+5=13)
SECTION II
43
2
3

6. a) Let a = , b = , c = 1 and d =
1
1
2
3
5

6 .

1
a b
.
aa
ii) Find a unit vector u in the direction of c.
iii) Show that d is orthogonal to c.
i) Compute
b) Let A = 1
3
5
7
1 and b =
5

3 . Find a least-square solution of

5
Ax = b and compute the associated least-square error.
7. a) Verify that the real and imaginary parts of f(z) = ez are harmonic functions.
b) Find the bilinear transformation which maps the points z = 0, i, 1 onto

w = i, 1, 0.
c) Evaluate
3z 2 + z
dz where z is the circle | z | = 2.
z2 1
SLR-UM 362
*SLRUM362*
-8-
8. a) Compute the coefficient of correlation between x and y from the following

data :
x:
2
4
5
6
8
11
y : 18
12
10
8
7
5
b) From the following data obtain two lines of regression.
Sales (in lakhs)
: 91 97 108 121 67 124 51
Purchase (in lakhs) : 71 75 69 97
70 91 39
73
61
111 57
80 47
9. a) Find the matrix of the quadratic form, assume that X is in 33 for

i) 8x12 + 7x 22 3 x 23 6 x1x 2 + 4x1x 3 2 x 2 x 3
ii) x 23 4x1x 2 + 4x 2x 3 .
b) The two regression equations of variables are x = 19.3 0.87 y and

y = 11.64 0.5x. Find means of x and y and the coefficient of correlation.
c) Find the image of following under the transformation w =
i) z =
ii) z =
1
.
z
5
+i
2
2 5 4
+ i.
9
9
3
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 363
*SLRUM363*
Seat
No.

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

A.C. MACHINE (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) The principle of operation of a 3-phase. Induction motor is most

similar to that of a
a) Synchronous motor
b) Repulsion-start induction motor
c) Transformer
d) Capacitor-start, induction-run motor
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 363
-2-
DO
*SLRUM363*
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2) The magnetising current drawn by 3 phase induction motors is the

cause of their ___________ power factor.
a) Zero
b) Unity
c) Lagging
d) Leading
3) The effect of increasing the length of air-gap in an induction motor

will be to increase the
a) Power factor
b) Magnetising current
c) Speed
4) When load is placed on a 3-phase induction motor, its rotor current

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remain constant
5) A 3-phase, 4-pole, 50-Hz induction motor runs at a speed of

1440 r.p.m. The rotating field produced by the stator rotates at a
speed of ___________ r.p.m.
a) 1500
b) 1440
c) 60
d) 0
6) Irrespective of the supply frequency, the torque developed by I.M. is

the same whenever ___________ is the same.
a) Supply voltage
b) External load
c) Rotor resistance
d) Slip speed
7) The power factor of a squirrel-cage induction motor is

a) Low at light loads only
b) Low at heavy loads only
c) Low at light and heavy loads both
d) Low at rated load only
*SLRUM363*
-3-
SLR-UM 363
8) A capacitor start, capacitor run single phase induction motor is

basically a
a) ac series motor
b) dc series motor
c) 2 phase induction motor
d) 3 phase induction motor
9) The torque developed by a split phase motor is proportional to

a) Sine of angle between lm and ls
b) Cosine of angle between lm and Is
c) Main winding current, Im
d) Auxiliary winding current, Is
10) Out of the following motors, which will give the highest starting torque ?
a) Universal motor
b) Capacitor start motor
c) Shaded pole motor
d) All have zero starting torque
11) In an alternator, voltage drops occurs in

a) Armature resistance only
b) Armature resistance and leakage reactance
c) Armature resistance, leakage reactance and armature reaction
d) Armature resistance, leakage reactance, armature reaction
and earth connections
12) In an alternator, at lagging power factor, the generated voltage per
phase, as compared to that at unity power factor
a) Must be same as terminal voltage
b) Must be less than the terminal voltage
c) Must be more than the terminal voltage
d) Must be 1.41 time the terminal voltage
13) Which kind of rotor is most suitable for turbo alternators which arc
designed to run at high speed ?
a) Salient pole type
b) Non-salient pole type
c) Both a) and b) above
14) The number of electrical degrees passed through in one revolution

of a six pole synchronous alternator is
a) 360
b) 720
c) 1080
d) 2160
SLR-UM 363
-4-
*SLRUM363*
15) If the input to the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but
the excitation is changed, Then the
a) Reactive component of the output is changed
b) Active component of the output is changed
c) Power factor of the load remains constant
d) Power factor of the load reduces
16) For 50 Hz system the maximum speed of an alternator can be
a) Approximately 3600 rpm
b) Approximately 3000 rpm
c) 3600 rpm
d) 3000 rpm
17) Synchronous motor can operate at

a) Lagging power factor only
b) Leading power factor only
c) Unity power factor only
d) Lagging, leading and unity power factor only
18) The maximum power developed in the synchronous motor will depend on
a) Rotor excitation only
b) Maximum value of coupling angle
c) Supply voltage only
d) Rotor excitation supply voltage and maximum value of coupling
angle
19) In case the field of a synchronous motor is under excited, the power
factor will be
a) Leading
b) Lagging
c) Zero
d) Unity
20) When the excitation of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor

gets disconnected
a) The motor will bum
b) The motor will stop
c) The motor will ran as a reluctance motor at the same speed
d) The motor will run as a reluctance motor at a lower speed
_____________________
*SLRUM363*
-5-
SLR-UM 363
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

A.C. MACHINE (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
a) With neat diagram explain double squirrel cage Induction motor.
(54=20)
b) Explain construction and working of DOL starter.

c) Draw and explain capacitor-start induction motor.
/ , slip-ring induction motor has rotor resistance per
d) An 8 pole, 50 Hz, 3 O
phase of 0.07 stalling speed is 630 rpm. How much resistance per phase
must be inserted to obtain maximum torque at start ?
/ induction motor.
e) Draw and explain equivalent circuit of 1 O
/ , 50 Hz, star connected induction motor is running at full load
f) A 6 pole , 3 O
with slip of 4%. The resistance and standstill reactance per phase are 0.25
and 1.5 the EMF between slip rings is 100 V. Find rotor current per phase
and P.F. when slip rings are short circuited.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
/ induction motor.
a) Explain cascade connection scheme for speed control of 3 O
/
b) What is need of testing ? What are different test to be performed on 3 O
induction motor ?
/ , 50 Hz, 4 pole, 5.6 KW, slip ring induction motor has following data :
c) A 3 O
N.L. Test 400 V, 6A, 0.087 P.F.

S.C. Test 100 V, 12 A, 720 W.
Turns ratio (primary/secondary) = 2.62, R1 = 0.67 /ph., R2=0.185 /ph. Draw
circle diagram. Calculate full load current, full load slip, full load P.F., ratio of
maximum to full load torque, maximum power.
SLR-UM 363
-6-
*SLRUM363*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
/ , 50 Hz, star connected alternator on open circuit is required to generate
a) A 3 O
voltage of 3600 V when driven at 500 rpm. The stator has 3 slots/pole/phase
and 10 conductor/slot. Calculate no. of poles, flux/pole. Assume all the
conductors are connected in series and coils to be full pitched.
b) What are the advantages of rotating field alternator ?
c) Define pitch factor and distribution factor. Derive an expression for EMF
equation of alternator.
d) Describe synchronous condenser with phasor diagram. State its advantages
and disadvantages.
/ , star connected turbo-alternator is excited to generate
e) A 2 pole, 50 Hz, 3 O
the bus bar voltage of 11 KV at N.L. Calculate synchronizing power/mechanical
degree displacement of rotor and corresponding synchronizing torque. The
machine has short circuit current for this excitation is 1200 A.
f) Explain magnetizing and de-magnetizing effect in an alternator.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Explain V and inverted V curves with phaser diagram for different excitation.
/ alternators 1 and 2 supply to substation through lines 1 and 2.
b) Two 3 O
Substation load is R = 50 , X = 40 to neutral. If the generator EMF are
10000V and 12000V of 1 and 2. 1 leads 2 by 10 (elect.). Find current
delivered by 1 and 2.
Generator 1 : 10000 KVA, 11 KV, 10% reactance.
Generator 2 : 20000 KVA, 11 KV, 15% reactance.
Reactance of line 1 = 3.8 , Reactance of line 1 = 4.1 .
E2
(50+j40)
c) Describe the procedure to carryout O.C.C. and S.C.C. on an alternator. Explain

how to find out armature resistance for different load connections ?
_______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 364
Seat
No.
*SLRUM364*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Day and Date : Saturday, 31-5-2014 Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20

1) The dimension of inductance in C.G.S.E.S. system are
a) [ L1T2]
b) [ 1M L1T2]
c) [ 1LT2]
d) [ 1L1T2]
20
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 364
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM364*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) In an Anderson bridge, the unknown inductance is measured in terms

of known
a) Resistance
b) Capacitance
c) Inductance and resistance
d) Resistance and capacitance
3) When secondary winding of current transformer is open-circuited with
primary winding is energized ?
a) The whole of primary current produces large value of flux in the core
thereby producing a large voltage in the secondary winding.
b) The large voltage may act as safety hazard for the operator and
may even rupture the insulation
c) When large magnetizing force is taken off it leaves large value of
residual magnetism.
d) All of the above
4) Shunts are generally made of
b) Manganin
a) Copper
c) Silver
d) Aluminum
5) The breaking torque provided by permanent in single phase induction
energy meter can be changed by
a) Providing a magnetic shunt and changing its position
b) Changing the distance of permanent magnet from center of
revolving disc
c) Both a) and b)
6) The nominal ratio of current transformer is
a) Primary winding current/secondary winding current
b) Rated primary winding current/rated secondary winding current
c) No. of secondary winding turns/no. of primary winding turns
d) All of the above
*SLRUM364*
-3-
SLR-UM 364
7) When measuring power with an electrodynamometer wattmeter in a

circuit where load current is large ?
d) It is immaterial whether the current or pressure coil is on load side
8) The sensitivity of a Wheatstone bride depends upon
a) Galvanometer current sensitivity
b) Galvanometer resistance
c) Bridge supply voltage
d) All of the above
9) The clamp on meter are used because
a) With their use it is possible to measure current flowing in line
without breaking circuit
b) Their accuracy is high
c) Both a) and b)
10) The power in 3-phase 3-wire circuit can be measured by using
b) 1 wattmeter
a) 2 wattmeter
c) 3 wattmeter
d) None of these
11) The turn off time of LCD are of the order of
b) 1 ms
a) 1s
c) 10 ms
d) 10 ns
12) X-Y recorders
a) Records one quantity with respect to another quantity
b) Record one quantity on X-axis with respect to time on Y-axis
c) Record one quantity on Y-axis with respect to time on X-axis
13) Thermocouple are
a) Active transducers
b) Passive transducers
c) Both active and passive transducer
d) Output transducers
SLR-UM 364
*SLRUM364*
-4-
14) Q-meter is based on principle of

b) Parallel resonance
a) Series resonance
c) Mutual inductance
d) None of these
15) A wattmeter is reading back-wards in an experiment. Upscale reading
can be obtained by reversing
a) Pressure coil connection only
b) Current coil connection only
c) Both pressure and current coil connection only
d) Either pressure or current coil connection
16) The accuracy of a measuring instrument is determined by
a) Closeness of the value indicated by it to the correct value of
measured
b) Repeatability of measured value
c) Speed with which the instruments reading approaches the final
value
d) Least change in the value of measured that could be detected by
instrument
17) A digital voltmeter measures
b) peak to peak value
a) peak value
c) rms value
d) average value
18) In order that A.C bridge is balanced when
b) Z1Z4 = Z2Z3
a) I1 = I3 and I2 = I4
c) 1 + 4 = 2 + 3
d) All of the above
19) Which of the following optical transducer is an active transducer

b) Photo diode
a) Photo emissive cell
c) Photo transistor
d) Photovoltaic cell
20) The source of emission of electrons in a CRT is
b) A barium and strontium oxide coated cathode
________________
*SLRUM364*
-5-
SLR-UM 364
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Electrical Measurement (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
1) Derive the dimensional equation of following quantities in C.G.S.E.M. system

of unit.
a) Pole strength
b) Magnetizing force
c) Current
d) Charge
e) Potential difference.
2) Derive the expression for current through galvanometer in a whetstones bridge
for small unbalance.
3) Explain Schering bridge for measurement of unknown capacitance and also
draw its phasor diagram.
4) Explain measurement of earth resistance by using megger.
5) Explain shunt and multiplier with neat diagram.
6) The four arms of a bridge are :
arm ab : an imperfect capacitor C1 with equivalent series resistance r1
arm bc : a non-inductive resistance R3,
arm cd : a non-inductive resistance R4
SLR-UM 364
-6-
*SLRUM364*
arm da : an imperfect capacitor C2 with an equivalent series resistance of r2

series with resistance R2
A supply of 450 Hz is given between terminal a and c and the detector is
connected between b and d at balance R2 = 4.8 , R3 = 2000 , R4 = 2850
and C2 = 0.5 F and r2 = 0.4 . Calculate the value of c1 and r1
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
1) Explain construction and working of current transformer and potential

transformer in detail.
2) Explain real power measurement in 3 circuit by using two wattmeter method
for
a) Star connected load
b) Delta connected load
also find its power factor.
*SLRUM364*
-7-
SLR-UM 364
3) Derive the dimensions of :

a) E.M.F.
b) Magnetic flux density
c) Electric flux density
d) Current density
e) Permeability
f) Permittivity
g) Resistivity
h) Conductivity
In L.M, T, I system of dimensions.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
1) Explain construction and operation of Weston frequency meter with neat diagram.
2) Explain LED display with diagram also states its advantages.
3) Explain working of true rms reading voltmeter with neat diagram.
4) Explain with neat sketch X-Y recorder also state its advantages and disadvantages.
5) Draw and explain block diagram of generalized data acquisition system.
6) Explain photoconductive cell with neat diagram.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
1) Explain working of digital storage oscilloscope with block diagram.

2) Describe the measurement of phase and frequency by using Lissaious pattern
in detail.
3) Explain construction and working of LVDT also state its advantages and
disadvantages.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 365
Seat
No.
*SLRUM365*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (E & E) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) The even components of the signal x(t) = 1 + tcos t + t2 sin t + t3 sin t

cos t.
a) xe(t) = 1 + t3 sin t cos t
b) xe(t) = 1 t3 sin t cos t
c) xe(t) = t3 sin t cos t
d) xe(t) = sint cos t

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 365
*SLRUM365*
-2-
DO
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2) The energy of the given signal x(n) is
a) 6
b) 1
c) 3
d) 0
3) The integration unit step signal u(t) ie u ( t ) dt = ___________ is

a) (t)
b) r(t)
c) 1
d) t
4) The LTI system is said to be causal if and only if

a) h (n) = 1
b) h (n) =
c) h (n) = 0
d) h (n) is finite value
5) The advantage of direct form II implementation of a system

___________
a) Increases the delay blocks
b) Reduces the delay blocks
c) Remains constants
d) None
6) The convolution of two functions f1(t) and f2(t) in frequency domain

is
a) f1(t) * f2(t)
b)
1
f (t) f (t)
2 1 * 2
c) F1 (w) F2(w)
d)
1
F (w) * F2(w)
2 1
*SLRUM365*
SLR-UM 365
-3-
7) The Laplace transform of x(t) = sin 0t is

a)
c)
b)
d)
s2 + 20
s
20
20
s2 + 20
1
2
s + 20
8) Whether the following impulse response h(n) of the system

h(n) = 5nu (3 n)
a) Non causal and stable
b) Causal and stable
c) Causal and unstable
d) Non causal and unstable
9) The convolution of x(n) * (n n0) is ___________

a) x (n)
b) x (n n0)
c) (n)
d) (n n0)
10) If Laplace transform of x(t) is X(s) then Laplace transform of

eat x(t) =
a) X (s a)
b) X ( s/a)
c) X ( s + a)
d) est X (s)
11) Aliasing occurs due to

a) Under sampling
b) Over sampling
c) Sampling at exact frequency
d) None
12) In Fourier transform x (at) is equivalent to

a) X
a
b)
c) a X ()

d) a X
a
1
X
a
13) If x(n) = an. u( n 1) then x(z) is

a)
z
for z < a
za
b)
z
, z >a
za
c)
1
for z < a
za
d)
1
for z > a
za
SLR-UM 365
*SLRUM365*
-4-
14) Speech frequency band is given as

a) 3 KHz to 3.4 KHz
b) 300 Hz to 340 Hz
c) 3 Hz to 3.4 KHz
d) 300 Hz to 3.4 KHz
15) In Fourier transform, x(t t0) =

a) e jto X()
b) e jto X ()
c) ejto X ()
d) e jto X ()
16) A signal having unity as its z transform is ___________

a) x (n)
b) u (n)
c) (n)
d) x (n) = 1
17) m(t) = 8 sin 480 t + 3 sin 720 t, Fs = 600 Hz is

a) Properly sampled
b) Improperly sampled
c) Over sampled
d) None
18) In Fourier transform, ej ot . x(t) =

a) X ( 0)
b) X ( + 0)
c) ej ot . X ( )
d) ej ot . X ( )
19) If x(n) = u ( n 1), then x(z) is

a)
z 1
at z < 1
z
b)
z
at z > 1
z 1
c)
z 1
at z > 1
z
d)
z
at z < 1
z 1
20) In sampling, the discrete parameter n =

a) t / Fs
b) Fs / t
c) Fs . t
d) None
_____________________
*SLRUM365*
SLR-UM 365
-5-
Seat
No.
S.E. (E & E) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
II. Answer any four :
(45=20)
a) Check whether the following signal x(t) is energy or power signal and find the
corresponding value.
x(t) = t for 0 t 1
2 t for 1 t 2
0 otherwise
b) For the CT signal x(t) shown in fig. sketch the signal :
i) y(t) = x(3t + 2) ii) y(t) = x (2t 1)
c) Find inverse Laplace transform of X (s) =
.
s 2 +5 s + 6
d) Consider an input x(n) and unit impulse response h(n) given by
x(n) = n u(n) for 0 < < 1 and h(n) = u(n)

Find the convolution and plot the output y(n).
e) Draw the direct form I and direct form II implementation for the system
described by
1
y(n) + y(n 1) 1 y(n 2) = x(n) + x(n 1) .
8
4
SLR-UM 365
-6-
*SLRUM365*
III. Answer any two :
(210=20)
a) Find the total response of the system given by the difference eqn.
y(n)
1
y(n 1) 1 y (n 2) = x(n) + x(n 1)
8
4
( )
n
with y (1) = 0, y(2) = 1 and x(n) = 1 u(n).
8
b) Evaluate and plot for y(t) = x(t) * h(t) where x(t) and h(t) are shown
c) i) Find whether the given system h(t) is a) stable and b) causal

h(t) = e3t u(t 1).
ii) State and prove the associative property of convolution.
SECTION II
IV. Solve any four :
1) If X (z) =
(54=20)
10z
, determine x(n).
(z 1) (z 2)
2) Calculate Fourier transform of unit step signal and sketch the spectrum for
the same.
3) What is sampling ? Explain the concept with necessary bandwidth
requirements.
4) What is zero order hold ? Explain its function in reconstruction of signal.
5) Determine z transform x(n) = n.u (n).
(102=20)
a) Obtain the exponential Fourier transform of full wave rectified signal in time
domain.
b) Explain applications of signals and systems in communication, control and
other fields.
c) An analog signal is described by m(t) = 7 cos 250 t.
Calculate Nyquist sampling rate.
Determine discrete signal with Fs = 200 Hz. Obtain original signal and conclude
your result.
_______________
SLR-UM 366
Code No.
*SLRUM366*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Marks : 20

(201=20)
1) The digital multiplexer is basically a combinational logic circuit to perform
the operation
a) AND-AND
b) OR-OR
c) AND-OR
d) OR-AND
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 366
*SLRUM366*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) How many Flip Flops are required to built a binary counter circuit to count
from 0 to 1023 ?
a) 1
b) 6
c) 10
d) 24
3) Characteristic equation of the T-flip flop is given by

a) Qn = T Q + T Q
b) Qn = T Q + QT
c) Qn = TQ
d) Qn = T Q
4) Dual of the Boolean Expression is given by A.(B + C) = A.B + A.C

a) A + (B + C) = A.B + A.C
b) A. (B + C) = (A + B) + ( A + C)
c) A + B.C = (A + B) (A + C)
d) None of these
5) The output of gate is Y = A B + A B , where A and B are inputs, what is that
gate ?
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) X-OR
d) X-NOR
6) A counter that increments on every clock pulse is

a) Down counter
b) Up-counter
c) Ripple Counter
d) Decade counter
7) A read only memory that can be erased and programmed by the user is
a) ROM
b) PROM
c) RAM
d) EPROM
*SLRUM366*
SLR-UM 366
-3-
8) Ring Counter is one in which

a) Only one flip flop is cleared while all the others are set
b) All the flip flops are set
c) All the flip flop are cleared
d) Only one flip flop is set while all the others are cleared
9) In a T flip flop when t = 1, the output is
a) Toggle
b) Q becomes 0
c) Q becomes 1
d) Same as previous output
10) Combinational Circuit

a) Contains only memory element
b) Never contains memory element
c) Always contain memory
d) None of these
11) The reduced SOP for the expression f1 ( a, b, c ) = m (0, 1, 5 ) + d ( 4, 7 )
a) B
c) A
12) BCD to 7 segment display is
b) 0
d) 1
a) Code converter
b) Parity generator
c) Encoder
d) Decoder
13) Which of the following IC is a decade counter ?

a) IC 74191
b) IC 7490
c) IC 74181
d) IC 7485
14) A carry look ahead adder is frequently used for addition because it
a) Is more accurate
b) Less Cost
c) Is faster
d) Uses fewer gates
15) The example of Moore Machine is

a) Half Adder
b) Sequence Detector
c) BCD counter
d) Binary counter
SLR-UM 366
*SLRUM366*
-4-
16) The ________________ of a logic gate is defined as the number of inputs

that the gate is designed to handle.
a) Fan-in
b) Fan-out
c) Fan-up
d) Noise Margin
17) Which of the following statement is not true ?

a) 0 + 0 = 0
b) 0 + 1 = 1
c) 1 + 0 = 1
d) 1 + 1 = 1 with carry 1
18) A ring counter is same as _______________ counter.

a) Up down
b) mod-N
c) Parallel
d) Shift
19) As compared to TTL, CMOS logic has

a) Higher Speed of Operation
b) Higher Power Dissipation
d) All of the above
20) How many inputs and outputs does a full adder have ?
a) Two inputs, two outputs
b) Two inputs, one output
c) Three inputs, two outputs
d) Two inputs, three outputs
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM366*
SLR-UM 366
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.

SECTION I
(46=24)
1) What is ALU ? Explain in detail.

2) Minimize 4 variable logic function using K map.
F = m(1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 9, 10, 11, 13, 15) + d(6, 14)

i) Noise margin
ii) Fan in
iii) Fan out.
4) What is excitation table ? Draw excitation table of JK flip flop.
5) Describe BCD to 7 segment decoder.
(28=16)
1) Explain Master Slave flip flop.

2) Explain full adder using half adder.
3) Explain Interfacing of CMOS and TTL.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
a) Draw and explain Twisted Ring Counter
b) Explain Bi-directional shift register
c) Compare Between PLDs
(64=24)
SLR-UM 366
*SLRUM366*
-6-
d) Derive the State Table and State Diagram for sequential Circuit shown.
B
QA
QB
e) Design 2 bit synchronous counter using JK flip flop.

5. Solve any two :
(82=16)
a) Design a 3 Bit Binary UP/DOWN Counter by using JK flip flop.

b) Implement the functions using 4 input and 3 output PAL.
f1 (a, b, c) = m (0, 3, 5, 6, 7)
f2 (a, b, c) = m (1, 2, 3, 5, 7)
c) Explain Shift Register and different types of shift register in detail.
_____________________
Code No.
*SLR-UM-367*
SLR-UM 367
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S.E. (Elect. and Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2014
LINEAR ALGEBRA (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) The system of equations 2x + 3y = 5 and 4x + 6y =10 has _____________

a) No solution
b) Unique solution
c) Infinite number of solutions
d) Exactly two distinct solutions

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 367
*SLR-UM-367*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The set H of all solutions of the nth order homogeneous linear equation
yk+n + a1 yk+n1 + ..... + an1 yk+1 + an yk = 0
k is an __________
dimensional vector space.
a) n 1
b) n + 1
c) 1
d) n
1 8 3
3) The eigen values of A1 are if A = 0 2 5
0 0 3
a)
1 1
,
,1
2 3
b)
1 1
, ,1
2 3
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2,
1
,1
3
*SLR-UM-367*
SLR-UM 367
-3-
4) If A is a square invertible matrix of order n then which of the following is

not true ?
a) The columns of A form a basis of Rn
b) rank = n
c) dim Null A = 0
d) Col A = Rm
5) The columns of a matrix A are linearly independent iff the equation AX = 0
a) has non trivial solution
b) has only the trivial solution
c) is inconsistent
d) none
6) Rank of Amn is
a) Less than min {m, n}
b) Equal to min {m, n}
c) Less than max {m, n}
d) Greater than min {m, n}
7) If T : R3 R2, T(e1) = (3, 5), T(e2) = (2, 4) and T(e3) = (6, 7) where
e1, e2, e3 are columns of identity matrix then standard matrix of T is
e1

a) e2
e3
5
3
b) 2 4
6
7
1 0 0
c)
0 1 0
3 2 6
d)
5 4 7
SLR-UM 367
*SLR-UM-367*
-4-
2 5 6
8) If A = 1 0 0 , which one of the following is | A I | ?

0 1 0
a) 3 + 2 2 5 6 = 0
b) 3 2 2 5 + 6 = 0
c) 3 + 2 + 6 = 0
d) 3 + 2 2 + 5 + 6 = 0
9) The dimension of Nul A is
a) The number of columns of A
b) The number of basic variable in the equation AX = 0
c) The number of row in A
d) The number of free variables in the equation AX = 0
2
1
2
5
10) If A =
3 9
3 10
5 0 1 1
8 4
3 0
~
9 7 2 0

7 11 7 0
2 5 0 1
1 2 4 5
0 0 1 2
0 0 0 0
then dimensions for Nul A and column A is

a) 2, 3
b) 3, 2
c) 1, 5
d) None
*SLR-UM-367*
-5-
11) A Milne-Thompson method is used to construct

a) Continuous function
b) Differentiable function
c) Analytic function
12) The Cauchy-Riemann equations for f(z) = u1 + iu2
a)
u1 u2 u1 u2
=
,
=
x
y y
x
b)
u1 u2 u1 u2
=
,
=
x
x y
y
c)
u1 u2 u1
u
=
,
= 2
y
x x
y
d)
u1 u2 u1
u
=
,
= 2
x
y y
x
13) If an analytic function f(z) is conformal then

a) f(z) = 0
b) f (z) = 0
c) f (z) 0
d) f(z) 0
14) A quadratic form (x) is said to be positive semidefinitie if
a) (x) 0, x
b) (x) < 0, x
c) (x) > 0 ; x
d) (x) 0, x
SLR-UM 367
SLR-UM 367
*SLR-UM-367*
-6-
1

15) If u = 2 , then a unit vector in the direction of u is
3
1
3
a) 2
3
b)
1
14
2
14
3
14
14
c) 2 14
3 14
1
2
d) 1
3
2
16) If u = [1, 4, 5] and v = [3, 4, 6] then u.v. is

a) 17
b) 17
c) [3, 16, 30]
3 / 11
1
/
11
and V =
17) If V1 =
2
1
/
11
1/ 6
2 / 6 , then V and V are

1
2
6
1
/
a) Orthogonal to each other

b) Orthonormal to each other
c) Not perpendicular to each other
*SLR-UM-367*
SLR-UM 367
-7-
18) The coefficient of regression of y on x is equal to

a) r
y
x
b) r
c) x y
d)
x
y
1 x
r y
19) For the two lines of regressions 8x 10 y = 66, 40x 18y = 214, the mean
x and y are given by
a) x = 10, y = 12
b) x = 13, y = 17
c) x = 17, y = 13
d) x = 12, y = 10
20) The coefficient of correlation r is
a) r > 1
b) r < 1
c) r < 1
d) 1 r 1
______________________
*SLR-UM-367*
-9-
SLR-UM 367
Seat
No.
S.E. (Elect. and Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2014

LINEAR ALGEBRA (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. a) Show that T is linear transformation and find standard matrix of
T(x1, x2, x3) = (x1 5x2 + 4x3, x2 6x3).
b) Determine whether given homogeneous system has a non trivial solution.

If exists find the solution.
3x1 + 5x2 4x3 = 0
3x1 2x2 4x3 = 0
6x1 + x2 8x3 = 0
c) Factorize the matrix and find the solution

2 1 2
A = 6
0 2 , b =
8 1 5
1
0
.
4
3. a) Find a basis for Nul A, Col A

1
2
A=
1
2
0 4
5
4 5 15
2
2 5 11 3 .
6 5 19 2
SLR-UM 367
-10-
*SLR-UM-367*
b) Let B = {b 1, b 2 } and c = {c 1 , c 2 } be bases for R 2 . Find the change of

Co-ordinates matrix from B to C and the change of co-ordinates matrix from
6
2
C to B where b1 = , b 2 =
1
0
2
6
c1 = , c 2 = .
1
2
4. a) Diagonalize the matrix if possible

4
7
A = 2
5
2 2
16
8
.
5
b) Apply power method for finding leading Eigen value and eigen vector for
2 1
A=
stop when k = 4, X0 =
4 5
1
0 .

4 3
c) Find eigen value for the matrix
.
3 4
5. a) Compute A4 where
7 2
1 1
5 0
A=
,P=
and D =
.
4 1
1 2
0 3
b) Find the dimension of Nul A, Col A, row A

1
A = 1
5
7
2 4
1
6 10 7
9
1 0 1 5
B = 0 2
5 6
0 0
0
0
4
4
*SLR-UM-367*
-11-
SLR-UM 367
c) Given T is linear transformation whose standard matrix is

5
4
7
10 6 16
A=
12 8 12
8 6 2
9
4
7
i) Decide T is one-to-one mapping ?

ii) Also decide T maps R4 on to R4. Justify your answer.
SECTION II
6. a) Given
x-series
y-series
Mean
18
100
S.D.
14
20
Coefficient of correlation between x and y is 0.8. Find two lines of regression

of y on x and x on y. Also find out the most probable value of y if x is 70.
b) To find correlation coefficient of a bivariate data following results were obtained :

n = 25, x = 125, y = 100, x2 = 650, y2 = 460, xy = 508. At the time
of checking it was discovered that two pairs of (x, y), (8, 12), (6, 8) were
wrongly recorded as (6, 14), (8, 6). Find the correct correlation.
7. a) Find the analytic function whose imaginary part is V = ex (x siny y cosy).
b) Prove that u = x2 y2 and V =
y
are harmonic functions of x and y, but
x2 + y2
are not harmonic conjugates.

c) Find bilinear transformation which maps the points Z = 0, i, 1 onto the
points W = i, 1, 0.
SLR-UM 367
*SLR-UM-367*
-12-
8. a) The two regression equations of the variables are x = 19.13 0.87y and
y = 11.64 0.5 x. Find the means of x and y and the coefficient of correlation.
b) Evaluate
z2 z + 1
1
dz,
where
C
is
the
circle
|
z
|
=
.
z 1
4
c) Is (x) = 3x12 + 2 x 22 + x 23 + 4 x1x 2 + 4x 2 x 3 positive definite ?
4
4
5
9. a) Show that {u1, u2, u3} is an orthogonal set, where

3
1
3
8
3
2
u1 = , u2 = and u3 = .
7
3
1

0
4
3
7
4
b) If y = and u = . Find the orthogonal projection of y onto u.
6
2
4 / 3
3
2
c) If a = , b = , c = 1 and d =
1
1
2 / 3
5
6
, then compute.
1
a .b
i)
a
a .a
ii) a unit vector u in the direction of c.

iii) the distance between c and d.
___________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 368
*SLRUM368*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S. E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014
A.C. MACHINES (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) The disadvantage of star delta starting of three phase induction motor is that
a) During starting power loss are increased
b) The starting torque increases as the motor runs with jerks
c) The starting torque will be one third of that in case of delta connection
d) At the time of change over between star to delta a voltage peak
is produce that may cause damage to the insulation
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 368
*SLRUM368*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) In case of 3 phase slip ring induction motor as the rotor resistance is increased,
the starting torque
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Increases up to certain value with increase in resistance and then
remains constant
d) Increases up to certain value with increase in resistance and then
decreases
3) The deep bar of double cage rotor are employed to
a) Increase starting torque
b) Improve efficiency
c) Increase pull out torque
d) Reduce rotor core loss
4) The effect of increasing the length of air-gap in an induction motor will be to

increase the
a) Power factor
b) Magnetising current
c) Speed
5) Which of the following ac motor is widely used ?

a) Squirrel cage induction motor
b) Slip-ring induction motor
c) Double cage induction motor
d) Synchronous motor
6) The power factor of an induction motor at full load is likely to be
a) Unity
b) 0.85 lag
c) 0.85 lead
d) 0.5 lag
*SLRUM368*
SLR-UM 368
-3-
7) The fractional slip of an induction motor is the ratio

a) Rotor Cu loss/rotor input
b) Stator Cu loss/stator input
c) Rotor Cu loss/rotor output
d) Rotor Cu loss/stator Cu loss
8) A universal motor operates on
a) Constant speed and varying load
b) Constant load and varying speed
c) Approximately constant speed and load
d) Synchronous speed with varying load
9) The starting torque in a single-phase induction motor is
b) Low
a) High
c) Zero
d) Very low
10) Which capacitor is preferred in case of single phase motor ?
a) Paper capacitor
b) Ceramic capacitor
c) Mica capacitor
d) Electrolytic capacitor
11) The magnitude of various voltage drops that occur in an alternator,

depends on
a) Power factor of the load
b) Load current
c) Power factor x load current
d) Power factor x (load current)2
12) Flemings left hand rule may be applied to a generator to find out
a) Direction of rotor rotation
b) Polarity of induced emf
c) Direction of induced emf
d) Direction of magnetic field
13) A 10 pole AC generator rotates at 1200 rpm. The frequency of AC voltage in
cycles per second will be
b) 110
a) 120
c) 100
d) 50
14) When an alternator is running on no load the power supplied by the prime
mover is mainly consumed ?
a) To meet iron losses
b) To meet copper losses
c) To meet all no load losses
d) To produce induced emf in armature winding
SLR-UM 368
*SLRUM368*
-4-
15) For an alternator when the power factor of the load is unity
a) The armature flux will have square waveform
b) The armature flux will be demagnetizing
c) The armature flux will be cross-magnetizing
d) The armature flux will reduce to zero
16) Which of the following method is likely to give the voltage regulation more
than the actual value ?
a) Synchronous reactance method
b) MMF method
c) Zero power factor method
17) Synchronous motor can operate at
a) Lagging power factor only
b) Leading power factor only
c) Unity power factor only
d) Lagging, leading and unity power factor
18) Pitch factor is the ratio of the emfs of
a) Short pitch coil to full pitch coil
b) Full pitch winding to concentrated winding
c) Full pitch winding to short pitch winding
d) Distributed winding to full pitch winding
19) In case the field of a synchronous motor is under excited, the power factor
will be
a) Leading
b) Lagging
c) Zero
d) Unity
20) The damping winding in a synchronous motor is generally used

a) To provide starting torque only
b) To reduce noise level
c) To reduce eddy currents
d) To prevent hunting and provide the starting torque
__________________
*SLRUM368*
-5-
SLR-UM 368
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

A.C. MACHINES (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Draw and explain power stage diagram of 3 O

/ induction motor.
b) With neat diagram explain double squirrel cage induction motor.
c) Draw and explain capacitor-start induction motor.
/ , induction motor takes 60 A at full load speed of 940 rpm
d) A 6 pole, 50Hz, 3 O
developed torque of 150N-m. starting current at rated voltage is 300 A. How
much is starting torque ? If star-delta starter is used, determine the starting
current and starting torque.
/ induction motor.
e) Draw and explain equivalent circuit of 1 O
/ , 50 Hz, 600 V star connected induction motor has rotor resistance
f) A 6 pole, 3 O
and standstill rotor reactance per phase are 0.03 and 0.5 respectively.
Find the slip corresponds to maximum torque, ratio of full load to maximum
torque, if load speed is 495 rpm.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
/ induction motor.
a) Explain in detail No load and Blocked rotor tests on 3 O
/ induction motor is not self starting ? How to make it self start ?
b) Why 1 O
Explain cross field theory.
/ , star connected induction motor has following per
c) A 400 V, 4 pole, 50 Hz, 3 O
phase parameter refer to stator
R1 = 0.6 , X1 = 1.1 , R2 = 0.3 , X2 = 0.5 , Xm = 25 .
The mechanical losses are 1000W and stator core losses are 500 W,
slip is 3%. Using approximate circuit. Find speed, stator current and P.F.,
Power input to rotor, gross torque, shaft torque, efficiency, rotor copper loss
per phase.
SLR-UM 368
-6-
*SLRUM368*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) A 1000 KVA, 2300 V, 3 phase star connected alternator has a resistance of

0.309 /phase and synchronous reactance of 3.31 /phase. Calculate change
of line voltage when the rated output of 1000 KVA at power factor of 0.8
lagging is switched off. Assume the speed and exciting current to remain
unaltered.
b) Distinguish between salient and cylindrical rotor of an alternator.
c) Explain pitch factor and distribution factor.
d) Explain the need of synchronization of alternators. State different conditions
of synchronization.
e) Explain different methods of starting of synchronous motor.
f) A synchronous motor improves the PF of load of 200 KW from 0.8 lagging to
0.9 lagging. Simultaneously the motor carries a load of 80 KW. Find the
leading KVAR supplied by the motor, KVA rating of the motor, the PF at which
the motor operates.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Explain V and inverted V curves with phaser diagram for different excitation.
b) Two 3 O
/ star connected alternators 1 and 2 supply a load of 3000 KW at
0.8 PF lagging 7 share load equally. The excitation of machine 2 is so adjusted
that it supplies 150 A at lagging PF. The per phase synchronous impedance
of machine 1 and 2 are (0.4 + j 12) and (0.5 + j 10) respectively. Find
current, PF, induced EMF and load angle each machine. The terminal voltage
is 6.6 KV.
c) What is voltage regulation in an alternator ? Explain EMF method of voltage
regulation.
___________________
Code No. SLR-UM
369
*SLRUM369*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS MEASUREMENT (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20

1) The dimensions of magnetizing force in C.G.S.E.M. system are
[
c) [
]
T ]
a) 1/ 2 M1/ 2 L3 / 2 T 1
1 / 2
M1/ 2 L1/ 2
[
d) [
]
]
b) 1/ 2 M1 L3 / 2 T 1
1/ 2
M1/ 2 L1 T 1
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 369
-2-
DO
T
NO
*SLRUM369*
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Creeping in energy meter can be prevented by

a) Using extra turns on voltage coil
b) Having two holes on opposite sides of the disc
c) Using stronger magnet
d) Using steel laminations of high permeability
3) When measuring power with an electrodynamometer wattmeter in a circuit
having low power factor
a) The current coil should be connected on load side
b) The current coil should be connected on supply side
c) The pressure coil should be connected on load side
d) A compensated wattmeter with pressure coil connected on load side
should be used
4) The transformation ratio in case of potential transformers is
a) Primary winding voltage/secondary winding voltage
b) Rated primary winding voltage/rated secondary winding voltage
c) Number of turns of primary winding/number of turns of secondary
winding
d) All of the above
5) The power in a 3-phase 4-wire circuit can be measured by using
a) 2 wattmeter
b) 3 wattmeter
c) 4 wattmeter
d) 1 wattmeter
6) In electrodynamometer type wattmeter the inductance of pressure coil circuit
produces error
a) Which is constant irrespective of power factor of the load
b) Which is higher at low power factor
c) Which is lower at low power factor
*SLRUM369*
SLR-UM 369
-3-
7) 1 mA ammeter has resistance of 100 , it is to be converted to a 10 V

voltmeter. The value of multiplier resistance
a) 999
b) 9999
c) 9900
d) 990
8) When measuring power with an electrodynamometer wattmeter in a circuit
where load current is large
d) It is immaterial whether the current or pressure coil is on load side
9) The base unit in SI system are
a) Meter, kilogram, second
b) Meter, kilogram, second, ampere
c) Meter, kilogram, second, ampere, kelvin, candela, mole
d) Meter, kilogram, second, ampere, kelvin, candela
10) Which of the set of torques is provided in deflection galvanometer ?
a) Deflection and controlling
b) Controlling and damping
c) Deflecting and damping
d) Deflecting, controlling and damping
11) Which of the following instrument can be used for both ac and dc ?
b) Induction type
a) PMMC type
c) Moving-iron type
12) Q-meter is based on principle of
a) Series resonance
c) Mutual inductance
b) Parallel resonance
d) None of these
13) A digital voltmeter measures

a) peak value
c) rms value
b) peak to peak value

d) average value
14) A LVDT having

a) Has linearity of 0.05%
b) Exhibits linear characteristics up to displacement of 5mm
c) Has infinite resolution and high sensitivity which is of order 40 v/mm
d) All
SLR-UM 369
*SLRUM369*
-4-
15) Which of the following A/D converter is used in DSO

b) Successive approximation type
a) Ramp type
c) Dual slope type
d) Parallel type
16) A hot-wire ammeter
a) Can measure ac as well as dc
b) Registers current changes very fast
c) Can indicate very low voltages
d) Measures electrical energy
17) An electrodynamometer type wattmeter is connected in a 3-phase supply
having 3-phase balanced load, E and I are the values of phase voltage and
current and is phase angle between them. The reading of wattmeter will be
a) Proportional to EI sin
c) Proportional to EI tan
b) Proportional to EI cos
d) Zero
18) An acqadag is used in a CRO to collect

a) Primary electrons
b) Secondary emission electrons
c) Both primary electrons and secondary emission electrons
19) A thermocouple
a) Gets warm when dc flows through it
b) Is a thin, straight, special wire
c) Generates ac when heated
d) Generates dc when exposed to to visible light
20) In a dual trace oscilloscope, the display appears segmented when
a) Low frequency signals are observed in alternate mode
b) Low frequency signals are observed in chop mode
c) High frequency signals are observed in alternate mode
d) High frequency signals are observed in chop mode
*SLRUM369*
-5-
SLR-UM 369
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part - II) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS MEASUREMENT (New)
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
1) Explain Kelvins double bridge for measurement of unknown resistance.

2) Derive the expression for bridge sensitivity for Whetstones bridge with equal
arms.
3) Two Wattmeters connected to measure the input to a balanced 3 phase
circuit indicate 2000 W and 500 W respectively. Find power factor of circuit
when :
a) When both readings are positive
b) When the latter reading is obtained after reversing the connection to the
current coil of first instrument.
4) Explain construction and working of electrodynamometer type wattmeter with
neat diagram.
5) Explain electronic energy meter with block diagram.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
1) Explain in detail different types of damping methods used in instruments.

induction energy meter with neat
2) Explain construction and working of I O
diagram.
SLR-UM 369
-6-
*SLRUM369*
3) The four arms of a bridge are :

arm ab : an imperfect capacitor C1 with equivalent series resistance r1
arm bc : a non-inductive resistance R3
arm cd : a non-inductive resistance R4
drm da : an imperfect capacitor C2 with an equivalent series resistance of r2
series with resistance R2
A supply of 450 Hz is given between terminal a and c and the detector is
connected between b and d at balance R2 = 4.8 , R3 = 2000 , R4 =
2850 and C2 = 0.5 F and r 2 = 0.4 . Calculate the value of c1 and r1.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
electrodynamometer power factor

1) Explain construction and operation I O
meter.
2) Explain LCD display with diagram also states its advantages and
disadvantages.
3) Explain electrical pressure transducer with neat diagram.
4) Explain resistance thermometer with neat diagram.
5) Explain working of true rms reading voltmeter with neat diagram.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
1) Explain different types of phase sequence indicator with neat diagram.

2) Explain with neat sketch an electronic multimeter for different parameter
measurement.
3) Describe the measurement of phase and frequency by using Lissaious pattern
in detail.
Code No.
SLR-UM 37
*SLRUM37*
Seat
No.

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES
Time : 10.00 am. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Solve any three questions from each Section.

Use of IS 800, IS 875 and steel table are allowed.
Figure to right indicate full marks.
MCQs
Marks : 20
1. As per ISI, rolled steel beam sections are classified into

a) Three categories
b) Four categories
c) Five categories
d) Six categories
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 37
*SLRUM37*
-2-
DO
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2. Minimum pitch, i.e. distance between centres of bolts should not be less than
a) 2 times nominal diameter of bolt

b) 2.5 times nominal diameter of bolt
c) 3 times nominal diameter of bolt
d) 1.5 times nominal diameter of bolt
3. In case of single angle in tension connected by only one leg, the factor
k is
a) k =
A1
A1 + A 2
b) k =
3A1
3 A1 + 2A 2
c) k =
3A1
3 A1 + A 2
d) k =
5A1
5 A1 + A 2
4. Maximum slenderness ratio (l/ ) of compression member carrying dead

load and superimposed loads shall not exceed
a) 180
b) 250
c) 350
d) 400
5. Generally the maximum deflection of the beam should not exceed

a)
1
of span
250
b)
1
of span
300
c)
1
of span
325
d)
1
of span
350
6. In the design of angle pusein the maximum moment may be taken as

a) WL2/8
b) WL2/10
c) WL2/12
*SLRUM37*
-3-
SLR-UM 37
7. In case of propped cantilever beam the number of plastic hinges develops

befor collapse are
a) Zero
b) One
c) Two
8. For single lacing bar, the thickness of flat lacing bar should not be less than
a) l 40
b) l 60
c) l 50
d) None of these
9. The maximum slenderness ratio of the lacing bar is

a) 145
b) 180
c) 250
d) 350
10. Gantry gisder have to be designed to resist.
a) Transverse loads
b) Transverse and lateral loads
c) Transverse, lateral and axial loads
d) Lateral and axial loads
11. The approximate allowable bending stress in MS slab bases (in MPa) is
a) 150
b) 165
c) 170
d) 185
12. The percentage of the impact load with respect to the wheel load of an
electrically operated crane is about
a) 5%
b) 15%
c) 25%
d) 35%
SLR-UM 37
-4-
*SLRUM37*
13. The plastic selection modulus of a section can be defined as
a) Ratio of plastic moment capacity of a section to the yield moment

b) Moment of inertia/yield stress
c) Radius of gyration multiplied by the area
d) None of these
14. The effective length in buckling of a steel column fixed at both ends is
a) 0.5 L
b) 0.65 L
c) 0.85 L
d) 2.0 L
15. Te battened bar in steel columns should be designed for

a) 2.5% of the column load
b) 0.5% of the column load
c) 2.5% of the column load as shear force
d) Nominal load only
_____________________
*SLRUM37*
-5-
SLR-UM 37
Seat
No.

DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

Use of IS 800, IS 875 and steel table are allowed.
Figure to right indicate full marks.
SECTION I
1. a) What do you mean by allowable stress and yield stress ?
b) A tension member of a roof truss consists of single angle125 125 8mm.

The member carries a tension of 120 kN. Find the length of 6mm fillet welds at
extremities of the angle for its connection to the gusset plate.
10
2. Design a tension member carrying a load of 300 kN and consisting of a pair of
unequal angles, back to back connected on opposite side of gussets by welding.
Draw a neat sketch.
13
3. A strut carries an axial compressive bad of 150 kN. Design a suitable double
angle section for the compression member. The length of the strut between
centre to centre of intersection is 2.3 m. Consider welded connection.
13
4. A beam of span 6 m carries an udl of 25 kN/m over the whole span. Design the
beam if the compression flange is laterally restrained throughout the length.
Take fy = 250 mpa.
13
SECTION II
5. Compute design forces acting on a gantry girder with following data :
i) Span of gantry girder = 6 m
ii) Crane capacity = 200 kN
iii) Distance between centres of gantry girder = 16 m.
iv) Weight of crane girder = 120 kN
v) Weight of crab = 50 kN
vi) Minimum approach of crane book = 1.02 m
SLR-UM 37
-6-
*SLRUM37*
vii) Distance between centres of wheels = 3.0 m

viii) Height of rail section = 30 kg/m
Take Fy = 250 N/mm2
Also calculate the maximum B.M. and S.F. due to these forces.
6. A pratt type roof truss is required for workshop building with following details :
i) Span = 12 m.
ii) Slope 30.
iii) Spacing of truss = 4 m.
iv) Roofing A.C. sheet = 160 N/m2.
v) Weight of purlin = 100 N/m.
vi) Weight of truss = 100 N/m2.
vii) The height of eaves = 5.5 m (and is situated near Delhi).
viii) Take risk factor k1 = 1.0.
ix) Height and size factor k2 = 0.88.
x) Topography factor = k3 = 1.0.
xi) For Delhi basic wind speed = Vb = 47 m/s.
Find the panel point loads for dead load, live load and wind load.
14
13
7. A steel stanction is subjected to an axial compressive force of 1200 kN. Its

effective length about major axis is 10 m and about minor axis is 5 m. Design a
suitable section consisting of two channels.
Also, briefly explain the design procedure for double lacing system for this column. 13
8. a) Define shape factor and find the shape factor for rectangular section.
b) Design suitable gusseted base for an ISHB 250 @ 0.537 kN/m joist column
which transmits an axial load of 1200 kN. The base plate rests on mis concrete.
Permissible compressive stress in concrete is 4000 kN/m2 and safe bearing
10
capacity of soil is 200 kN/m2.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 370
*SLRUM370*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------S.E. (E & E) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
I. Choose correct answer :

1) A signal x(t) = A cos ( 0t + ) is
a) Energy signal
b) Power signal
c) Energy as well as power signal
d) Neither energy nor power signal
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 370
*SLRUM370*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) For the signal x(t) shown in figure, the signal x (3t) is
a)
b)
c)
d)
3) Which of the following system is casual system ?

a) y (t) = sin [u (t + 3)]
b) y (t) = 5 u(t) + 3 u(t 1)
c) y (t) = 5 u(t) + 3u (t + 1)
d) y (t) = sin [u(t 3)] + sin [u(t + 3)]
4) Which of the following systems are time-invariant ?
a) y (t) = x (2t)
b) y (t) = x (t) + x (t 1)
c) y (t) = x (t/2)
d) y (t) = x ( t)
*SLRUM370*
SLR-UM 370
-3-
5) Linear convolution of x(n) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} with y (n) = {2, 4, 6, 8}

a) {2, 0, 4, 0, 4, 8, 26, 4, 48}
b) {0, 0, 2, 0, 2, 1, 26, 4, 8}
c) {2, 8, 4, 8, 26, 4, 48, 4, 2}
d) {2, 0, 8, 0, 24, 8, 26, 30, 48}
6) The derivative of ramp signal r(t) that is
a) (t )
c) 1
d
r(t ) = ____________ is
dt
b) u (t)
d) 0
7) Convolution in time domain is _____________ in frequency domain.

a) Convolution
b) Sampling
c) Integral
d) Multiplication.
1
8) Inverse Laplace transform of
(s + a )2
is
a) t.u (t)
b) t.eat u (t)
c) eat u (t)
d) a eat u (t)
9) State variable describes

a) Static behaviour of system
b) Dynamic behaviour of system
c) Transient behaviour of system
d) Steady state behaviour
10) The system is said to be memoryless whose output at any instant depends
___________
a) On past and future values of Input
b) On past and present values of Input
c) Only on past values
d) Only on the present values at that instant
11) The ROC is entire z-plane except at z = 0 and z = . Such type of sequence
called
a) Right handed sequence
b) Left hand sequence
c) Two sided sequence
d) One sided sequence
SLR-UM 370
12) Z-transform of
*SLRUM370*
-4-
z
is
za
a) an u(n)
b) an u(n)
c) an u(n)
d) an u( n)
13) A linear discrete time system has the characteristic equation z3 0.81z = 0.
The system
b) is imaginary stable
a) is stable
c) is unstable
14) The sampling theorem is applicable to continuous time.
a) Band limited signal
b) Band undefined
c) Any signal
d) Stochastic signal
15) The function which has its Fourier Transform, Laplace Transform and
z-transform unity is
a) Gaussian
b) Impulse
c) Sinc
d) Pulse
16) The Fourier Transform of the exponential signal e j0t is

a) a constant
b) a rectangular gate
c) as impulse
d) a series of impulses
17) DFT of the sequence x(n) = [n n0) is

j2 k
b) e 0
a) 1
c) e j2 0k / N
d) e j20k / N
18) The application of FFT algorithm includes
a) Linear filtering
b) Correlation
c) Spectrum analysis
d) All of above
19) Z-transform of (n 1) is
a) z1
b) z
c) zn1
d) 1
20) Duality property of Fourier transform is

a) x(t ) 2x( w )
b) x( t ) x( w )
w
1
c) x(at )
x
|a|
a
d) ( jt )x(t )
_____________________
dx( w )
dw
-5-
*SLRUM370*
SLR-UM 370
Seat
No.
S.E. (E & E) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

iii) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION I
II. Answer any four :
(45=20)
1) Sketch the following signals :

i) 2 u( t 1)
ii) r ( t + 2).
2) Find the fundamental period of the signals
i) x (t) = ejst
6
n + 1 .
ii) sin
7
3) Find whether the signal is energy or power signal
j
x(t) = e 2t + .
4
4) The system is
d3 y(t )
dt
4d2 y( t )
dt
5dy( t)
+ 2 y 2 (t ) = x( t ) . Find the following :
dt
i) Static or dynamic
ii) Causal or non causal
iii) Linear or non-linear.
5) Find the Laplace Transform of the signal x(t) = cos 0t.
SLR-UM 370
*SLRUM370*
-6-
III. Answer any two :
(210=20)
1) Find the Laplace Transform of the following waveform.
2) Use the convolution theorem of Laplace transform to find y(t) = x1(t) * x2(t)
where x1(t) and x2(t) are as follows.
x1(t) = cos (4t) u(t) and x2(t) = sin (2t) u(t)
3) Find the convolution of the signal whose x(t) and h(t) are defined as
x(t) = 1
=0
h (t) = 1
=0
0t2
otherwise
0t3
otherwise.
SECTION II
IV. Answer any four :
(54=20)
1) Find the z-transform of the following signal x(n) = [cos 0n] u(n).
2) Find 4-point DFT of the sequence x(n) = sin
n
.
2
3) Explain the reconstruction of the signal from its samples.

4) Find the inverse z-transform of the following x(z)
x(z ) =
8z 19
z 2 5z + 6
5) Explain aliasing in detail.
*SLRUM370*
SLR-UM 370
-7-
V. Answer any two :
(210=20)
1) Determine all possible signals x(n) associated with z-transform

x(z) =
5z 1
(1 2z 1)(1 3z 1)
1 2
1
2) Determine the z-transform of the signal x(n) = (n + n)
2
3
n1
u (n 1) .
3) Find the trigonometric Fourier series for periodic signal x(t) as shown in figure
below :
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
371
*SLRUM371*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

1) The logic expression : Y = m(0, 3, 6, 7, 10, 12,15) is equivalent to
A) Y = M(0, 3, 6, 7, 10, 12,15)
Marks : 20
B) Y = M(1, 2, 4, 5, 8, 9, 11, 13, 14)

C) Y = m(1, 2, 4, 5, 8, 9, 11, 13, 14)
D) Y = m(0, 3, 10, 12)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 371
*SLRUM371*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Simplify the expression A + AB + ABC + ABCD + ABCDE =

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
3) An example of Canonical SOP is

A) ABC + BC + AB
B) AB
C) ABC + AB
D) ABC + ABC
4) Multiplexer is represented as
A) 2n 1
B) 2n n
C) n 2n
D) 1 2n
5) The Next State of D flip-flop is

A) Same as input
B) Complement of input
C) Independent of input
D) None
6) Which of the following can be used as an inverter ?

A) AND
B) OR
C) EX-OR
D) None of these
7) When both the inputs of JK flip-flop are 0 then the next state is
A) 0
B) 1
C) Qn
D) Qn
*SLRUM371*
SLR-UM 371
-3-
8) The logic family with highest speed is

A) CMOS
B) NMOS
C) TTL
D) ECL
9) Which is the condition for avoiding race around problem ?

A) J = K = 1
B) t < tp
C) Both
D) None
10) In K-map each given maxterm is represented by

A) 1
B) 0
C) Dont care
D) None
11) The no. of flip-flop required to implement mod 6 counter is

A) 6
B) 3
C) 2
D) 5
12) IC 7490 can act as mod-N counter. The value of N is

A) 12
B) 16
C) 15
D) 10
13) Gray code is also called ___________

A) Binary code
B) Unit distance code
C) BCD code
D) None
14) A K-map of 32 cell uses _____________ variables.

A) 3
B) 6
C) 5
D) 4
15) How many inputs and outputs does full adder have ?
A) 2 i/p, 2 o/p
B) 2 i/p, 1 o/p
C) 3 i/p, 3 o/p
D) 2 i/p , 3 o/p
16) The race around condition is avoided by

A) J-K FF
B) S-R FF
C) D-FF
D) None
SLR-UM 371
*SLRUM371*
-4-
17) An asynchronous counter differs from a synchronous counter is

A) The no. of states in its sequence
B) The method of clocking
C) The type off used
D) The values of modulus
18) The output of agate is HIGH if and only if all its i/p are low, it is true for
A) NOR
B) NAND
C) XOR
D) XNOR
19) T flip-flop is used for

A) Transfer
B) Time delay
C) Toggling
D) None
20) Which of the following IC is used as comparator ?

A) IC7483
B) IC7490
C) IC74181
D) IC7485
*SLRUM371*
-5-
SLR-UM 371
Seat
No.
S.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) (Part - II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Explain rules of Boolean algebra and Demorgans theorem.

b) Explain NAND as Universal Gate.
c) State types of encoder and explain octal to BCD encoder.
d) Compare CMOS and TTL.
e) Explain look ahead carry generator.
(210=20)
a) Minimize the four variable logic function using K-Map.

i) f(A, B, C, D) =
m (0, 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8, 9, 11, 14)
ii) f( A, B, C, D) = A BC D + ABC D + A B C + A B D + A C + AB C + B
b) Explain the following :
i) NMOS (Inverter)
ii) CMOS (Inverter and AND)
c) Design a combinational circuit for :
i) Binary to Gray code conversion
ii) Grey to Binary code conversion
SLR-UM 371
-6-
*SLRUM371*
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) Draw the excitation table J-K and SR, T Flip-Flop.

b) Convert the following :
i) J-K to T Flip-Flop
ii) J-K to D Flip-Flop
c) Explain Ring Counter.
d) Design Ripple counter using J-K Flip-Flop.
e) Give application of counters. Explain any one in detail.
(210=20)
a) Define counter. Enlist the types of counters. Explain 4 bit up-down counter.
b) Explain shift register :
i) Serial to Parallel
ii) Parallel to Serial conversion.
i) Characteristic of Flip-Flop
ii) Race around the condition for J-K Flip-Flop.
Code No.
SLR-UM 372
*SLRUM372*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------T. E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I ) Examination, 2014
ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Note : Figures to the right indicates full marks.

Assume the data if needed.
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) The co-ordinates used for cylindrical coordinate system are

A) p(r, , z)
B) p(r, , z)
C) p(r, z, )
D) none of above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 372
*SLRUM372*
-2-
DO
T
NO
E
R
E
H
ITE
R
W
2) Electric current density j is defined as

A) Current /length
B) Current /volume
C) Current /area
D) Current /voltage
3) An electric field on a plane is described by V = 40[1/r + 1/r2], the field

must be due to
A) a monopole
B) a dipole
C) a monopole and dipole
D) none of above
4) The electric flux density d is

A) Normal
B) Tangential
C) Opposite
D) None of above
5) Electric dipole moment is given by

A) p = qd2
B) p = d3
C) p = q.d
D) None of above
6) Poissons equation can be used to determine the potential function,

the statement is __________
A) True
B) False
C) Depends upon the condition
D) None of these
7) Self inductance I is given by
A) nI/
B) I/n
C) n /i
D) n/ i
*SLRUM372*
SLR-UM 372
-3-
8) Unit of self inductance is

A) Weber
B) Ampere
C) Henry
D) Coulomb
9) The product of turns and flux is called

A) Field linkage
B) Magnetic field
C) Flux linkage
D) Area linkage
10) The value of ay ay is

A) 1
B) 1
C) 0
D) 2
11) dv= r dr d dz is the differential volume in __________ co-ordinate system.

A) Cartesian
B) Cylindrical
C) Spherical
D) Rectangular
12) If the dot product of two vectors is zero then vectors are
A) Perpendicular
B) Parallel
C) Oblique
D) None of these
13) The unit of potential difference is

A) Coulomb
B) Joules
C) Coulomb/Joule
D) Joules/Coulomb
14) The surface over which gausss law is applied must be

A) Open
B) Semi closed
C) Closed
D) Infinitely long
15) Maxwells equation gives the relations between

A) Different field
B) Different sources
C) Different boundary conditions
D) None of these
SLR-UM 372
*SLRUM372*
-4-
16) Scalar magnetic potential exist where J is present

A) Yes
B) No
C) Cant determine
D) None of these
17) The relative permittivity of vacuum is

A) 8.854
B) 8.85413 12
C) Unity
D) Zero
18) Velocity of E.M. wave in free space is

A) 10108 M/s
B) 3108 M/hour
C) 6.8108 M/s
D) 3108 M/s
19) Energy density in magnetic field is

A)
1 2
E
2
B)
1 2
E
2
C)
1 2
H
2
D)
1 2
H
2
20) The value of a unit vector is

A) 0
B) 1
C) 1
D) 2
______________________
*SLRUM372*
-5-
SLR-UM
372
SLR-UM
372
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I)

Examination, 2014
ELECTROMAGNETIC ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Note : Figures to the right indicates full marks.

Assume the data if needed.
SECTION I
(54=20)
I) State and explain coulombs law in detail.

II) Explain the concept of electric dipole in detail.
III) State Gauss law. Explain its application for point charge.
IV) Derive Poissons and Laplace equations.
V) Explain the concept of current and current density.
VI) Four point charges of 3 n C each are located at four corners of the square
2 meters a side. Find force acting on each charge.
(102=20)
I) Derive the point form of Gauss law.

II) Two uniform line charges of density 4 n C/m are placed in the plane x = 0, at
y = ( 4). Find electric field intensity at (4, 0, 10).
III) What are the boundary conditions in electrostatics ? Derive the boundary
conditions for electrostatics.
SLR-UM 372
-6-
*SLRUM372*
SECTION II
(54=20)
I) State and explain Biot-Savarts law.

II) State and explain Ampere circuital law.
III) Derive the expression for the torque on a closed loop.
IV) Explain the concepts of self and mutual induction.
V) State the set of Maxwells equation for static field.
VI) Given points C(5, 2, 3) and P(4, 1, 2); a current element
I.d l = 10 4 (4 ax 3 ay + az ) Ampere meter at C produces a field dH at P.
Find the unit vector in the direction of dH .

(102=20)
I) Derive the expression for magnetic field intensity due to finite current filament.
II) Derive the boundary conditions in magnetic field.
III) State the set of Maxwells equation for free space, dielectrics and conductors.
___________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 373
*SLRUM373*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL POWER GENERATION AND UTILIZATION
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Day & Date ____________________ _
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Section ________________________________________
__________ Examination _________
______________ (Paper - _______)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) Which of the following is hydro-electric power plant ?

a) Neyveli
b) Badarpur
c) Bhakra
d) Singrauli
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 373
*SLRUM373*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Pelton wheels are installed on

a) run of river plants with pondage
b) run of river plants without pondage
c) base load plant
d) high head plants
3) In hydro power plants
a) Initial cost is high and operating cost is low
b) Initial cost as well as operating costs are high
c) Initial cost is low and operating cost is high
d) Initial cost as well as operating cost is low
4) The product of nuclear fission is
a) Heat energy
b) Radiation
c) Krypton and Berium
d) All of the above
5) Natural uranium is used as a fuel in

a) Boiling water reactor
b) Heavy water cooled and moderated (CANDU) type reactor
c) Liquid metal cooled reactor
d) Pressurised water reactor
6) Solar cells are made of
a) silicon
b) germanium
c) silver
d) aluminium
*SLRUM373*
SLR-UM 373
-3-
7) Geothermal energy is
a) a renewable energy source
b) alternative energy source
c) inexhaustible energy source
d) all of the above
8) Local winds are caused by
a) differential heating of land and water
b) differential heating of plains and mountains
c) all of the above
9) The ratio of maximum demand of the installation to sum of individual maximum
demands is known as
a) Demand factor
b) Plant use factor
c) Diversity factor
d) Plant capacity factor
10) Connected load is

a) The rating in kW of the installed electrical load of the consumer
b) The maximum load that a consumer puts on at any time
c) Part of load which always remains on at the consumer end
d) None of these
11) Cables can be generally used upto
a) 400 V
b) 33 kv
c) 1000 V
d) 11 kv
12) Which distribution system is more reliable ?

a) Ring main system
b) Tree system
c) Radial system
d) All are equally reliable
13) The welding transformer used in resistance welding will

a) step-up current
b) step-down current
c) step-up voltage
d) set-up power
14) Which of the following is not resistance welding ?

a) Projection welding
b) MIG welding
c) Seam welding
d) Flash-butt welding
SLR-UM-373
*SLRUM373*
-4-
15) In dielectric heating current flows through

a) metallic conductor
b) ionic discharge between dielectric medium and metallic conductor
c) dielectric
d) air
16) Induction heating process is based on
a) electro-magnetic induction principle
b) resistance heating principle
c) thermal ion release principle
d) nucleate heating principle
17) Highest power factor can be expected in which method of heating ?
a) Electric arc heating
b) Dielectric heating
c) Induction heating
d) Resistance heating
18) Free running and coasting periods are generally long in case of
a) urban service
b) sub-urban service
c) main-line service
d) all of the above
19) A train has a schedule speed of 36 km per hour on a level track. If the distance
between the stations is 2 km and the stoppage is 30 seconds the actual time of
run will be
a) 260 seconds
b) 230 seconds
c) 200 seconds
d) 170 seconds
20) The advantage of electric traction over other methods is

a) no pollution problems
b) faster acceleration
c) better braking action
d) all of the above

___________
*SLRUM373*
SLR-UM 373
-5-
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engg.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL POWER GENERATION AND UTILIZATION
Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four.
20
1) Explain construction and working of Fuel cell.

2) Explain the working of Liquid metal cooled reactor with neat diagram.
3) What are the main parts of nuclear reactor ? Explain their functions.
4) Write short note on nuclear fission reaction.
5) Describe Pelton turbine with neat diagram.
6) The load curve of an electrical system is linear with the following values at
different times of the day.
Time :
12
Load (MW) :
50
5 am 9 am 6 pm 8 pm 10 pm
50
100
100
150
80
12
50
Plot chronological load curve. Find the energy required by the system in one
day and the system daily load factor.
SLR-UM-373
-6-
*SLRUM373*
3. Solve any two.
20
1) Explain various parts of Hydroelectric power plant with their functions. What is
pumped storage plant ?
2) Explain Geothermal power plant with the help of neat diagram. Differentiate
geothermal and hydroelectric power plant on the basis of installation cost,
running cost and environmental effect.
3) Define :
1) maximum demand
2) average demand
3) demand factor
4) chronological load curve
5) load duration curve.
Write short note on chronological load curve for different types of loads.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four.
1) Explain Ring main distribution system. What are the advantages of Ring main
system over Radial system ?
2) What are the various types of electric welding ? Write a note on welding
transformer.
3) Write short note on primary and secondary distribution system.
4) The speed-time curve of a train consists of :
i) Uniform acceleration of 6 kmphps for 25 Sec
ii) Free running for 10 minutes
iii) Uniform deceleration of 6 kmphps to stop the train
iv) A stop of 5 minutes.
Find the distance between the stations, the average and schedule speeds.
20
*SLRUM373*
-7-
SLR-UM 373
5) Draw a neat sketch of arc welding machine and explain its construction and
working.
6) What is specific energy consumption of a train ? Discuss various factors
affecting it.
5. Solve any two.
20
1) What are the advantages of electric heating ? Give classification of electric

heating methods along with their working principle.
2) Define :
i) creast speed
ii) average speed
iii) schedule speed.
Explain simplified quadrilateral speed time curve.
3) Explain the design procedure of the heating elements when the power and
voltage of the oven are known. What are the desirable properties of materials
for heating element should have ?
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM 374
*SLRUM374*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
c
i
f
C
Instructions : i) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

ii) Assume suitable data wherever required.
iii) Q. No. 1 is compulsory.
1. Objective questions.
Marks : 20
(201=20)
1) Vector address of RST 6 is

a) 0020 h
b) 0028 h
c) 0030 h
d) 0038 h
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 374
*SLRUM374*
-2-
DO
W
T
O
E
T
I
R
R
HE
2) ALE is
a) instruction of 8085
b) pin of 8085
c) state of 8085
d) interrupt
3) LDA 4000 h is example of _________ addressing mode.
a) direct
b) indirect
c) register
d) implicit
4) Which of below makes accumulator zero ?

a) XRA A
b) CMA
c) ORA A
d) ANA A
5) Stack is part of
a) RAM only
b) ROM only
c) RAM and ROM
d) Secondary memory
6) Single stepping is useful for
a) I/O interfacing
b) Debugging
c) Wait state
d) Slower memory interfacing
*SLRUM374*
-3-
SLR-UM 374
7) W and Z are ____________ registers in 8085.

a) Special
b) General purpose
c) Temporary
d) All of above
8) A microprocessor with 12 bit address bus will be able to access
b) 1 KB memory
a) 4 KB memory
c) 8 KB memory
d) 3 KB memory
9) The 8085 instruction that takes maximum number of T-states is
a) STA address
b) LXI H, data
c) CALL address
d) OUT port
10) The RD and WR signals of 8085 are active
a) High
b) High and Low respectively
c) Low and High respectively
d) Low
11) Which of the following is the fastest types of ADC ?
a) Flash ADC
b) Dual slope ADC
c) Single slope ADC
d) Successive approximation ADC
12) The direct set/reset capability is only provided by __________ of 8255 PPI.
a) Port A
b) Port B
c) Port C
d) None of above
13) Control word format for mode O of 8253 for counter O Read/Load LSB
data byte only and BCD counter is
b) 11 H
a) 10 H
c) 12 H
d) 9 H
SLR-UM 374
-4-
*SLRUM374*
14) Model of 8253 is

a) Interrupt in terminal count
b) Programmable one shot
c) Pulse generator
d) Square wave generator
15) Which of the following ADC is also called as single ramp ADC ?
a) single slope ADC
b) successive approximation ADC
c) dual slope ADC
d) none of these
16) The instruction used for data transfer in I/O mapped I/O are
b) LAD adder
a) IN, OUT
c) STA adder
d) LAD adder, STA adder
17) What is the mode 1 of 8255 ?
a) Basic I/O
b) Strobed I/O
c) Bidirectional I/O
d) None of above
18) The most commonly used programmable interrupt controller is
b) 8255
a) 8237
c) 8251
d) 8259
19) Which of the following is the status signal ?
a) SID
b) HOLD
c) ALE
d) Ready
20) How many counters are there in 8253 programmable timer ?
b) two
a) one
c) three
d) four
______________________
*SLRUM374*
-5-
SLR-UM 374
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2014

MICROPROCESSOR
Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)

Draw neat diagrams.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Draw timing diagram of instruction IM 20h stored at 8000 h.

b) Write a program to multiply two 8 bit hex numbers.
c) Explain PUSH and POP operation with example.
d) Write a program to find smallest number from a given array of 10 elements.
e) Explain the function of HOLD and HLDA pins of 8085.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Interface 8k8 RAM and 4k8 EPROM to 8085. The starting address for
RAM is 4000 h and for EEPROM 8000 h. Find their end addresses.
b) Describe different interfacing techniques in detail.
c) Explain all hardware interrupts of 8085. Also explain how interrupts are enabled
and disabled.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 374
-6-
*SLRUM374*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
1) Explain the control word register format of 8253 programmable interval timer.
2) Explain serial data transmission using SOD pin.
3) Draw and explain weighted register DAC.
4) With suitable waveform explain mode 1 of 8253.
5) Draw the functional Block diagram of 8259 PIC.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
1) With the help of neat schematic describe the data acquisition system to
measure frequency and power factor using 0809 ADC. Draw interfacing
diagram.
2) List out the features of 8255 PPI. Draw and explain block diagram of 8255
PPI. Explain the I/O modes of 8255.
3) Draw and explain 8251 USART. Explain synchronous mode of operation of
8251 USART.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
375
*SLRUM375*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Part I) (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) Examination, 2014

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1 , n =1
1) The discrete time signal x[n] is defined as x[n] = 1 , n = 1

0 , n = 0 and | n | > 1
If y[n] is defined by y[n] = x[n] + x [n] then y[n] = ____________

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 375
*SLRUM375*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Linear convolution of two real sequences with P & Q points respectively, can
be converted to circular convolution by appending extra zeros to every
sequence until its length is ____________
a) P + Q
b) P + Q + 1
c) P + Q 1
d) P + Q 2
3) For N = 16, input samples, the number of complex multiplications required in

DFT calculation are __________________
a) 16
b) 8
c) 32
d) 256
4) How many butterfly operations are required in every stage of decimation ?

N
2
b) N
c) Log N
d) N2
a)
5) Overlap and save algorithm uses overlap for ____________

a) Output sequence
b) Input sequence
c) Both input and output
d) Adds the overlapped output
6) Types of filters based on frequency response are ______________

a) IIR filter
b) FIR filter
c) Band pass filter
d) None of these
*SLRUM375*
SLR-UM 375
-3-
7) Fast algorithms for calculation of predictor coefficient use ______________

a) Cascade form realization
b) Parallel form realization
c) Lattice structure realization
d) Direct form realization
8) FIR filter is also known as ______________
a) Cascade structure filter
b) Transversal filter
c) ARMA filter
d) AR filter
9) By property of twiddle factor W

a) W
KN
b) W
K +N
N
= ____________
N
N
c) W
2
N
d) W
K
N
10) Circular convolution of x(n) = {1,3,5,3} and h(n) = { 2,3,1,1} is ______________

a) {19, 17, 23, 25}
b) {19, 23,17, 25}
c) {17, 23,19, 25}
d) {19, 25,17, 23}
11) Which of the following filter have linear phase characteristic ?

a) IIR
b) FIR
c) HPF
d) All
12) Design of IIR filter using bilinear transformation.

a) Aliasing effect
b) Frequency warping effect
c) Under sampling effect
d) All
13) The mapping from S-plane to Z-plane.

S=
2
T
1 z 1
1 + z 1 is used in
a) Impulse invariance
b) Frequency sampling
c) Bilinear transformation
d) None
SLR-UM 375
*SLRUM375*
-4-
14) Disadvantage of VLIW architecture.

a) Decreases memory use
b) Increases memory use
c) Scalable
d) None
15) Impulse invariance method are the transformation

a) z = eST
b) z = eST
d) z = ej T
c) z = e T
16) Gibbs phenomenon occurred due to
a) Linear phase
b) Truncation of series
c) Windowing method
d) System unstable
17) Multiply accumulate (MAC) function increment

a) The coefficient register pointer by 2
b) The coefficient register pointer by 1
c) The coefficient register pointer by 3
d) The coefficient register pointer by 4
18) TMS320C54 is a
a) 8-bit processor
b) 16-bit processor
c) 32-bit processor
d) 64-bit processor
19) For linear phase filter 0 ( ) is proportional to

a)
b)
c) a
d) N
20) The unit samples response of FIR filter is symmetric if it satisfies the condition
a) h(n) = h (M 1 n)
b) h(n) = h (M 1 n)
c) h(n) = h (M + 1 + n)
d) h(n) = h (M 1 + n)
*SLRUM375*
-5-
SLR-UM 375
Seat
No.
T.E. (Part - I) (Electrical and Electronics Engg.) Examination, 2014

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
N.B. :
Marks : 80

SECTION I
20
a) Derive relationship between DFT and Z-transform.

b) Find DFT of (0.5, 0, 0.5, 0}.
c) Find IDFT of X(K) = {2,1+ j, 0, 1 j} by using DIF, FFT.
d) First five points of 8-point DFT of a real valued sequence are given as
{0, 2 + j2 , _ j4, 2 j2, 0}. Find remaining points.
e) Compute auto correlation of sequence x (n) = {1, 2, 1, 1}.
3. a) Determine the output response y(n) if h(n) = {1, 1, 1} and x(n) = {1, 2, 3, 1} by
using :
10
a) Linear convolution
b) Circular convolution
c) Circular convolution with zero padding. Comment on result.
OR
3. a) Realize system using direct form II and cascade form.
y(n)
3
1
1
y(n 1) + y(n 2) = x(n) + x (n 1)
4
8
3
b) Find DIT FFT for x(n) = {1, 2, 2, 1, 1, 2, 1, 1}.
10
SLR-UM 375
*SLRUM375*
-6-
SECTION II
(45=20)
1) What are the advantages and disadvantages of VLIW architecture ?

2) Explain in detail bilinear transformation technique design for IIR filter.
3) Explain basic architecture features of PDSP.
4) Explain Gibbs phenomenon.
5) An analog filter has a transfer function H(S) =
10
2
S + 7S + 10
. Design digital
filter using impulse invariant method for T = 0.2 sec.

(102=20)
1) Draw and explain in detail block diagram of 16 -bit TMS320 C54 X 16-bit
PDSP.
2) The desired response of a low-pass filter is
Hd(ej )
e js
= 0
for 3 4 3 4
for
3 4 < | |
determine h(n) for m = 7 using Hamming window.

3) Determine the order and poles of low pass Butterworth filter that has a 3dB
attenuation at 500 Hz and 40 dB attenuation at 1000 Hz.
Code No.
SLR-UM 376
*SLRUM376*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014

FEEDBACK CONTROL SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20

1) The output of a feedback control system must be a function of
b) Input and feedback
a) Reference and output
c) Reference and input
d) Output and feedback
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 376
*SLRUM376*
-2-
DO
T
NO
2) A type 2 system has

a) One pole at the origin
c) No poles at the origin
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
b) Two poles at the origin

3) A signal flow graph is

a) Log graph
b) Polar graph
c) Topological representation of a set of differential equations
d) Nyquist plot
4) A root locus terminates at
a) Closed loop zeros
c) Closed loop poles
b) Open loop zeros

d) Open loop poles
5) At resonance peak, the ratio of output to input is

a) Lowest
b) Highest
c) Same as for under damping or over damping
6) For what range of values of K the system having characteristic equation
(S2 + KS + 2K 1) = 0, will be stable ?
a) K = 1
b) K > 1/2
c) K < 1/2
d) K > 0
*SLRUM376*
SLR-UM 376
-3-
7) The roots of characteristic equations of some systems are given below. Which
set of roots represents an unstable system ?
a) 1, 2
b) (1 + j), (1 j)
c) 2, 1, 3
d) ( 2 + 2j), ( 2 2j), 3
8) A signal flow graph is only applicable to

a) Nonlinear time variant systems
b) Linear time invariant systems
c) Linear time variant systems
d) Nonlinear time invariant systems
9) Which of the following will increase the steady state accuracy ?
a) Phase lead compensator
b) Phase lag compensator
c) Differentiator
d) Integrator
10) Which one of the following is used to convert angular position of the shaft in
to electrical signals ?
a) A. C. Servo motor
b) Stepper motor
c) Synchros
11)
d) Rotary LVDT
(s + 2) (s + 1)
is a
( s + 4) ( s + 3 )
a) Type zero system
b) Type one system
c) Type two system
12) In Bode plot, contribution of a pole is

a) + 20 dB / decade
c) Shift upward
b) 20 dB / decade
d) Shift downward
13) If the damping factor for a control system is unity, the system is
a) Over damped
b) Under damped
c) Critically damped
14) The points at which the root loci intersects the imaginary axis the system is
a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Marginally stable
SLR-UM 376
*SLRUM376*
-4-
15) A feedback in a control system

a) Improves accuracy
b) Increases bandwidth
c) Reduces effects of nonlinearities
d) All of the above
16) All the asymptotes of root loci meet at
a) Centroid
b) Origin
c) Break away point
17) A control system with a block gain G and negative unity feedback has
overall transfer function
a)
1+ G
G
b)
1 G
G
c)
G
1+ G
d)
G
1 G
18) The effect of adding poles and zeros can be studied quickly for determining
phase and gain margin from
a) Bode plot
b) Nyquist plot
c) Magnitude versus phase plot
d) Polar plot
19) In force voltage analogy, viscous friction coefficient is analogous to
a) Resistance
b) Reciprocal of inductance
c) Reciprocal of capacitance
d) Capacitance
20) Transfer function of a system is given by : F(s) =

For = 10 the phase shift will be :
a) tan1
1
5
c) tan1 5
b) tan1
2
.
s+2
1
3
d) tan1 3
*SLRUM376*
-5-
SLR-UM 376
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014

FEEDBACK CONTROL SYSTEMS
Marks : 80
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) For the diagram shown below, draw mechanical equivalent system and obtain
F-V analogous circuit.
b) With a neat waveform explain the terms :

i) Rise time
ii) Peak time
iii) Peak overshoot.
SLR-UM 376
*SLRUM376*
-6-
c) For the signal flow graph shown below, derive the transfer function by Masons
formula.
d) Explain various types of control systems.

e) Write short note on Rouths stability criterion.
3. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) A unity feedback system has transfer function G(s) H(s) =
k
s( s + 2 ) ( s + 5 )
sketch root locus and determine marginal value of k.

b) Derive transfer function of armature controlled d.c. motor.
c) Use block diagram algebra to determine transfer function
(s )
.
R(s )
*SLRUM376*
SLR-UM 376
-7-
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
i) Explain the integral controller in detail.

ii) Explain effect of lag compensation. Also give the limitations of lag
compensation.
iii) What is meant by state space ? State advantages and limitations of state
space approach.
iv) What should be values of G. M. and P.M. of a good system ? How to improve
G. M. and P.M.
v) What is Bode plot ? State the advantages of Bode plot.
(210=20)
i) Explain in detail the concept of state model of linear system.

ii) With the help of a neat labeled diagram explain PLC. Also state its advantages
and applications.
iii) A unity feedback system has G(s) =
80
. Draw the Bode plot.
s (s + 2) (s + 20 )
Determine G. M. P.M. gc . pc . Comment on stability.
SLR-UM 377
Code No.
S
*SLRUM377*
&
y
_
_
_
_
f
C
Marks : 20
1) When a continuous signal and a pulse are applied to the thyristor gate then
the turn ON will be
a) faster with pulse
b) faster with continuous signal
c) both will have same turn ON time
d) faster will impulse
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 377
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) As compared to SCR a TRIAC requires

a) more current to turn ON
b) less time to turn OFF
c) both (a) and (b) are true
d) less current to turn ON and more time to turn OFF
3) In SCR the anode current consists of
b) holes
a) electrons
c) both (a) and (b)
d) either (a) or (b)
4) In SCR ratio of latching current IL to holding current IH is
b) 1.0
a) 0.5
c) 2.5
d) 8.0
5) A TRIAC is a five layer device
a) it can be considered as 2-paralled section of N1-P1-N2-P2
and P1-N2-P2-N3
b) an additional lateral N-region acts as control rate
c) it can be considered as a double ended SCR
d) all the above statement are correct
6) In a thyristorized converter the freewheeling diode is used to
a) protect thyristor by its shunt wheeling action
b) provide additional parallel load current
c) conduct current during the OFF period of the thyristor
d) increase the di/dt and dv/dt rating of the thyristor
*SLRUM377*
*SLRUM377*
SLR-UM 377
-3-
7) A single phase bridge rectifier is supplying ripple free high inductive load
current. The current waveform of the ac input supply will be
a) sinusoidal
b) saw tooth
c) triangular
d) square
8) The main switching element of a SMPS in the operating rang of 20 KHz to
100 KHz is
b) UJT
a) SCR
c) GTO
d) MOSFET
9) A resistor connected across gate and cathode of an SCR, increases its
b) holding current
a) dv/dt rating
c) noise immunity
d) all of these
10) For continuous conduction, in single phase full converter each pair of SCRs
conduct for
b)
a)
c)
d)
+
11) The chopper has a switching frequency of 400 Hz and Ton time of 1 ms. The
duty cycle will be
b) 0.4
a) 0.25
c) 0.6
d) 0.8
12) Chopper control of DC motor provides variable
b) supply input voltage
a) back emf
c) field flux
d) all of the above
13) A 3-phase to 1-phase cycloconverter has positive and negative group of
converters. For output voltage V0 and current I0 this converter will operate as
a) rectifier if V0 and I0 have same polarity
b) inverter if V0 and I0 have opposite polarity
c) both (a) and (b) are true statement
d) both (a) and (b) are false statement
14) A 3-phase to 3-phase cycloconverter requires
a) 18 SCRs for 3 pulse device
b) 36 SCRs for 6 pulse device
c) both a) and b) are true statement
d) 36 SCRs for 3 pulse device
SLR-UM 377
-4-
*SLRUM377*
15) In cycloconverter (CC)

a) step down CC work on natural commutation
b) step up CC works on forced commutation
c) load commutated CC required a generated emf in load circuits
d) all above are true
16) Specific features of a current source inverter are
a) capacity to provide regeneration mode
b) inherent protection in case of short circuit fault
c) both (a) and (b)
d) capacity of sequential control of drives
17) A single phase full bride inverter can operate in load commutation
mode in case RLC load is
b) under damped
a) undamped
c) over damped
18) In DC chopper
a) input wave form is continuous
b) output wave form is discontinuous
c) both (a) and (b)
d) I/O wave forms are chopped
19) A cycloconverter changes frequency from
a) lower to higher frequency in one state conversion
b) higher to lower frequency in one state conversion
d) to any frequency in two state conversion
20) A dc chopper has per unit ripple maximum when duty cycle is
b) 0.2
a) 0.0
c) 0.5
d) 0.9
______________________
*SLRUM377*
-5-
SLR-UM 377
T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

POWER ELECTRONICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Attempt any four of following :
(54=20)
A) What are the various methods of firing of a thyristor ? Explain them.
B) With the help of neat diagram explain the working of power MOSFET in
detail.
C) Write short note on ARC welding.
D) Explain the various performance parameters of phase controlled rectifiers.
E) With the help of neat circuit diagram and waveform explain the working of
bridge type single phase, half controlled rectifier with R-L load.
F) Draw the block diagram of UPS and explain each part of it in detail.
(102=20)
A) Explain the construction and working of SCR with the help of its V-I
characteristics.
B) State the various types of power diodes, also state ratings and applications
of each type.
C) A single phase fully controlled converter supplies an inductive load. Assuming
load current is constant = 10A. Determine following quantities, if supply voltage
is 230 V, 50 Hz and firing angle = 40.
a) Average output voltage
b) Supply R.M.S. current
c) Supply fundamental R.M.S. current
d) Fundamental power factor
e) Supply power factor
f) Supply harmonic factor.
SLR-UM 377
*SLRUM377*
-6-
SECTION II
4. Attempt any four of following :
(54=20)
A) What is chopper ? State various applications of chopper.

B) Explain class B chopper in detail.
C) With neat diagram explain the working of single phase to single phase bridge
type, step up cycloconverter with R load.
D) State the applications of Cycloconverter.
E) Draw and explain single half bridge inverter.
F) Draw and explain single phase full bridge inverter.
(102=20)
A) Distinguish between Jones and Morgan chopper.

B) Discuss the principle of working of 3 phase bridge inverter with appropriate
waveform and circuit diagram for 120 degree conduction mode.
C) The input voltage to the bridge type cycloconverter is 230V, 50 Hz single
phase. The load resistance is 10 ohm and load inductance is 60 mH. The
frequency of the output is 25 Hz. If the converters are operated as semi
converters such as 0 < < and the delay angle = 2 /3, determine
a) The r.m.s. value of output voltage
b) The r.m.s. current of each thyristor
c) The input power factor.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 378
*SLRUM378*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------T. E. (Electrical & Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014
ELECTRONICS COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Question 1 is compulsory.
Objective paper should be returned in first 30 min.

Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) Modulating signal has

a) Low frequency
c) High frequency
b) Low modulation
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 378
*SLRUM378*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) In amplitude modulation, amplitude is

a) Constant
b) Zero
c) Variable
d) None of these
3) Which one of the following is the type of super heterodyning ?

a) Radio transmitter
b) TV
c) Radio receiver
d) Radar
4) The maximum power in AM, when modulation index is

a) 0
b) 0.5
c) 0.7
d) 1
5) _________ conversion is the process of changing one of the characteristics

of an analog signal based on the information in the digital data.
a) Digital-to-analog
b) Analog-to-analog
c) Analog-to-digital
d) Digital-to-digital
6) The __________ between two words is the number of difference between

corresponding bits.
a) Hamming code
b) Hamming distance
c) Hamming rule
d) None of above
7) Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals ?

a) FDM
b) TDM
c) WDM
*SLRUM378*
SLR-UM 378
-3-
8) Which of the following is a valid probability value for a discrete random variable ?
a) 0.2
b) 1.5
c) 0.7
d) All of the above
9) The Central Limit Theorem says that the mean of the sampling distribution of
the sample means is
a) Equal to the population mean divided by the square root of the
sample size
b) Close to the population means if the sample size is large
c) Exactly equal to the population mean
10) Modulation index is
a) Vm/Vc
b) Vc/Vm
c) Vm/Ic
d) None of these
11) Communication is a process of

a) Transfer of information
b) Transfer of energy
c) Transfer of channel
d) None of these
12) An example of communication service

a) Printer
b) Television
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
13) Bandwidth of FM signal is ______________ than AM signal

a) Lesser
b) Either lesser or larger
c) Larger
d) None of these
14) In AM modulation, when the modulation index increases, transmitted power is

a) Constant
b) Increased
c) Decreased
d) None of these
SLR-UM 378
*SLRUM378*
-4-
15) The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called ______
a) Modulation
b) Encoding
c) Line discipline
d) Multiplexing
16) Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals ?

a) FDM
b) TDM
c) WDM
d) a) and c)
17) If the Hamming distance between a data word and the corresponding codeword
is three; there are _________ bits in error.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) None of above
18) Sound signals in TV are

a) Amplitude modulated
b) dc modulated
c) Frequency modulated
d) a) and c)
19) Which multiplexing technique involves signals composed of light beams ?

a) FDM
b) TDM
c) WDM
20) The word __________ refers to the portion of a ___________ that carries a
transmission.
a) Channel; link
b) Link; channel
c) Line; channel
d) Line; link
______________________
*SLRUM378*
-5-
SLR-UM 378
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electrical & Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ELECTRONICS COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Assume suitable data if required.

SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Explain electronics communication system. Also state the applications of

communication system.
b) What are different types of SSB generation ? Explain any one in detail.
c) What are types of AM receiver ? Explain any one in detail.
d) Define signal. Explain the classification of signals.
e) What is the necessity of pre-emphasis ? Explain pre-emphasis method in
detail.
(210=20)
a) Define amplitude modulation with modulated waveform. Derive mathematical

expression for AM in time domain. Also draw amplitude waveform for following
conditions :
1) M > 1
2) M = 1
3) M < 1
b) Define frequency modulation with modulated waveform. Also explain Armstrong
FM generation method.
c) Define modulation. Explain the necessity of modulation in communication
system.
SLR-UM 378
-6-
*SLRUM378*
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) Explain the following :

1) Slope overload distortion
2) Granular noise.
b) Explain adaptive delta modulation in detail.
c) Describe M-ary communication in detail.
d) What do you mean by probability density function and also explain various
properties of PDF ?
e) Explain regenerative repeater and pulse shaping in detail.
(210=20)
a) If the 7-bit code word received by a receiver is 1011011. Assuming the even
parity state whether the received codeword is correct or wrong. Then locate
the bit in error.
1) Linear block code
2) Probability
3) Sampling theorem
4) Codeword
c) Define multiplexing. What is the necessity of multiplexing ? Explain WDM in
detail.
___________________
Code No. SLR-UM
379
*SLRUM379*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- ------ - ---- -----------------T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014
POWER SYSTEM I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Question 1 is compulsory.

Duration :30 Minutes
Marks : 20
(201)
1) Which of the following is usually not the generating voltage ?

a) 6.6 kV
b) 9.9 kV
c) 11 kV
d) 13.2 kV
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 379
*SLRUM379*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) When alternating current passes through a conductor ?

a) It remains uniformly distributed throughout the section of conductor
b) Portion of conductor near the surface carries more current as compared
to the core
c) Portion of conductor near the surface carries less current as compared
to the core
d) Entire current passes through the core of the conductor
3) Which of the following is not the distribution system normally used ?
a) 3 phase-4 wire
b) 3 phase-3 wire
c) Single phase-3 wire
d) Single phase-4 wire
4) Wooden poles for supporting transmission lines are used for voltages up to
a) 440 V
b) 11 Kv
c) 22 Kv
d) 66 Kv
5) For improving life, steel poles are galvanized. Galvanizing is the process of
applying a layer of
a) Paint
b) Varnish
c) Tar coal
d) Zinc
6) In overhead transmission lines the effect of capacitance can be neglected

when the length of line is less than
a) 200 km
b) 160 km
c) 100 km
d) 80 km
*SLRUM379*
SLR-UM 379
-3-
7) Corona effect can be detected by

a) Hissing sound
b) Faint luminous flow of bluish color
c) Presence of ozone detected by odor
d) All of the above
8) ACSR conductor implies
a) All conductors surface treated and realigned
b) Aluminium conductor steel reinforced
c) Anode current sinusoidal run
d) Anodized core smooth run
9) Strain type insulator are used where the conductors are
a) Dead ended
b) At intermediate anchor towers
c) Any of the above
10) The disadvantage of transmission lines are compared to cables is

a) Exposure to lightening
b) Exposure to atmospheric hazards like smoke, ice etc.
c) Inductive interference between power and communication circuits
d) All of the above
11) In a transmission line following are the distributed constants
a) Resistance and inductance only
b) Resistance, inductance and capacitance
c) Resistance, inductance, capacitance and short conductance
12) For a 66 kV line span of 200 meters between towers the approximate sag
will be
a) 0.02 m
b) 0.2 m
c) 2 m
d) 20 m
SLR-UM 379
*SLRUM379*
-4-
13) The power transmitted will be maximum when

a) Sending end voltage is more
b) Receiving end voltage is more
c) Reactance is high
d) Corona losses are least
14) The dielectric strength of air at 25 C and 76 cm/Hg is
a) 1 kv/cm
b) 1 kv/mm
c) 3 kv/cm
d) 30 kv/cm
15) Varnished cambric is also known as

a) Empire tape
b) Rubber tape
c) Paper tape
d) PVC tape
16) The process of achieving uniform electrostatic stress in the dielectric of cables
is known as
a) Stranding process
b) Grading of cables
c) Stress distribution
17) The longer the cross arm, _______________ is the string efficiency.
a) Greater
b) Lesser
c) Same
d) Equal
18) In any transmission line, AD BC = _______________

a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
19) In short transmission line the effect of _______________ is neglected.

a) Resistance
b) Capacitance
c) Inductance
d) Conductance
20) For 66 kV lines the numbers of insulator discs used are

a) 3
b) 6
c) 8
d) 12
__________________
*SLRUM379*
-5-
SLR-UM 379
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part II)

Examination, 2014
POWER SYSTEM I
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Explain comparisons between Overhead and Underground system.

b) What is bundled conductor ? What are the types of conductor ?
c) Explain the skin effect on conductor.
d) Explain the methods of reducing corona effect.
e) What are the desirable properties of line conductors ?
(210=20)
a) Explain different types of insulators with the help of neat diagram.

b) Explain capacitance of 3-phase overhead line in two cases :
i) Symmetrical Spacing
ii) Unsymmetrical Spacing.
c) What is Corona ? Explain factors effecting Corona. State advantages and
disadvantages of Corona.
SLR-UM 379
-6-
*SLRUM379*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Derive an expression for capacitance of single core cable.

b) Draw circuit diagram and vector diagram of a medium transmission line and
derive an expression for voltage regulation and transmission efficiency using
end condenser method.
c) Explain Screened Cables with neat diagram.
d) What are the disadvantages of Low Power Factor ?
e) Determine the generalized Constants for Medium line using Nominal method.
(210=20)
a) Explain :
i) Capacitance grading
ii) Intersheath grading.
b) Derive an expression for sending end and receiving end voltage and current
for long transmission line.
c) Discuss the various methods for power factor improvement.
________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 38
Seat
No.
*SLRUM38*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 (MCQ) is compulsory.

2) Solve any three questions from Section I.
3) In Section II, Q. No. 6 is compulsory, solve any two
from remaining questions.
4) Assume additional data, if required and state it clearly.
Marks : 20
I. Give the correct option for following MCQ. Sr. No. 1 to 10 carries 1 mark each
and Sr. No. 11 to 15 carries 2 marks each :
1) The specific gravity of a soil solids can be determined by
a) hydrometer analysis
b) sieve analysis
c) pcynometer method
d) all of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 38
*SLRUM38*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) The piping failure of a hydraulic structure can be prevented by

a) increasing the pressure due to body forces
b) increasing the seepage length of the flow
c) providing filters at the downstream end
d) all of these
3) The disadvantage of the direct shear test is that
a) the relatively thin sample permits quick dissipation of pore pressure
b) the relatively thin sample permits quick drainage
c) as the test progress, the area of cross-section gradually changes
d) both a) and b) hold
4) The shear test in which full consolidation occurs and no excess pore pressure
is set up at any stage is known as
a) a CD test
b) a CU test
c) a UU test
d) none of these
5) When the compacting effort is increased in a compaction test, the optimum

moisture content ?
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Does not change
d) Is unpredictable
6) Which coefficient of earth pressure is more in magnitude ?

a) Active
b) Passive
c) At rest
d) None
*SLRUM38*
SLR-UM 38
-3-
7) In clayey soil primary consolidation settlement depends on

a) Water content of soil
b) Size of soil particle
c) Permeability of soil
d) All above
8) Which of the method is used to find water content of soil in the field ?
a) core cutter method
b) sand replacement method
c) proctor needle
d) pycnometre
9) Increasing the compaction energy imparted to the soil will result in
a) decreasing MDD
b) increasing MDD
c) decreasing OMC
d) no change in OMC and MDD
10) Coefficient of consolidation from laboratory consolidation test data can be
calculated by
a) Terzaghi method
b) Culmans method
c) Taylors method
d) Bowels method
11) The degree of saturation of a fully saturated soil is
a) 0.25
b) 0.50
c) 1.0
d) 0.0
12) A borrow soil has a dry density of 1.76 t/m3. How many cubic meters of this
soil will be required to construct an embankment (with dry density 1.68 t/m3)
of 100 m3
a) 95 m3
b) 100 m3
c) 105 m3
d) 110 m3
SLR-UM 38
-4-
*SLRUM38*
13) A sand deposit (e = 0.67, G = 2.67) is 5 m thick. The head of water required
for the quick condition is
a) 1 m
b) 1.25 m
c) 2.5 m
d) 5 m
14) Compaction test results are plotted on a curve and from the curve values of
OMC is 16.5% and MDD is 18.7 kN/m3, void ratio of the soil at the peak point
is (assume G = 2.67)
a) 0.439
b) 0.493
c) 0.349
d) 0.436
15) For above question degree of saturation of the soil corresponding to the peak
point of the graph is
a) 92.7%
b) 97.2%
c) 79.2%
d) 72.9%
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM38*
SLR-UM 38
Seat
No.

GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I.

2) In Section II, Q. No. 6 is compulsory, Solve any two
3) Assume additional data, if required and state it clearly.
SECTION I
2. A) A partially saturated soil from an earth fill has a natural water content of 19%
and bulk unit weight of 19.33 kN/m3. Assuming the specific gravity of soil
solids as 2.6, compute the degree of saturation and void ratio. If subsequently
the soil gets saturated. Determine the dry unit weight and saturated unit
weight.
B) Define the following :
a) Relative density
b) Sensitivity
c) Activity
d) Flow index.
3. A) Define Critical hydraulic gradient and explain how the piping is produced.
B) The foundation soil at the toe of the masonry dam has porosity of 40% and
the specific Gravity of 2.7. To assure safety against piping, the specifications
state that the upward gradient must not exceed the 25% of the gradient at
which a quick condition occurs. What is the maximum permissible upward
gradient ?
4. A) Explain the basic difference between the Box shear test and Triaxial shear
test.
B) A series of shear test were performed on soil. Each test was carried out until
the sample sheared and the principal stress of each test were recorded.
Test No. Minor Principal stress Major Principal stress
(kN/m2)
(kN/m2)
1
200
600
2
300
900
3
400
1200
Plot the Mohr circle and determine strength envelope and angle of internal
function of soil.
5
8
8
5
SLR-UM 38
-6-
*SLRUM38*
5. A) Write short note on any three :
a) Three phase system of soil.

b) Various methods of determination of water content.
c) Uses of flow net.
d) Failure envelope for different types of soil.
B) Write a note on Vane shear test.
SECTION II
16
a) Compaction curve
b) Modified compaction test
c) Taylors method
d) Unsupported depth of excavation in clayey soil.
7. A) Write short note on calibration curve for Proctor needle.
B) Following observations are recorded during Proctors test using these
observation find OMC and MDD for the soil also draw zero air void line for the
soil.
Moisture content % 9.6
11.0
12.5
14.0
16.0 18.0 19.5
Bulk density gm/cc 1.8
1.90
1.96
2.045
2.1 2.05 2.01
8. A) Differentiate between primary and secondary consolidation.
B) A normally consolidated clay specimen reaches 50% consolidation in
30 minutes when pressure is increased from 100 kPa to 200 kPa. The
equilibrium void ratio for these pressure are 1.02 and 0.91 respectively.
Assuming average thickness as 20.2 mm, find the value of permeability of
soil and compression index for the soil.
9. A) Derive the expression for earth pressure coefficient at rest.
B) Explain the graphical method for estimating earth pressure (active) by
Rehbanns construction.
_____________________
8
4
8
Code No. SLR-UM 380
*SLRUM380*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------T.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2014
NON-LINEAR AND DIGITAL CONTROL SYSTEM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

iii) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
Marks : 20
20
1) The steady state error of a control system can be reduced by increasing

a) gain constant of the system
b) time constant of the system
c) both gain and time constant of system
d) none of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 380
*SLRUM380*
-2-
DO
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2) A property of phase lead compensation is that the

a) Overshoot is increased
b) Bandwidth of CL system is reduced
c) Rise-time of CL system is reduced
d) Gain margin is reduced
3) Which of the following is used to increase the bandwidth of a control system ?
a) Phase lag compensator
b) Phase lead compensator
d) All of these

a) equalizer
b) high pass filter
c) low pass filter
d) none of these
5) A phase lag-lead network introduces in the output

a) lag at all frequencies
b) lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies
c) lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies
1 + 0.12s
. The
1 + 0.04s
maximum phase shift that can obtained from this compensator is
6) The TF of a phase-lead compensator is given by Gc (s ) =

a) 60
b) 45
c) 30
d) 15
*SLRUM380*
SLR-UM 380
-3-
7) Addition of zeros in the transfer function causes which of the following ?

a) Lead compensation
b) Lag compensation
c) Lead-lag compensation
8) With the knowledge of state space representation the transfer function of the
system
a) can be determined partly
b) can be determined completely
c) cannot be determined
= AX,
9) The state variable description of a linear autonomous system is, X
where X is the two dimensional state vector and A is the system matrix given
0 2
by A =
. The poles of the system are located at
2 0
a) j2 and +j2
b) +2 and +2
c) 2 and +2
d) 2 and 2
10) The state variable approach can be applied to ___________ system(s).

a) Time variant
b) Non-linear
d) All of the above
11) Non-linearities can be

a) incidental
b) intentional
c) either incidental or intentional
d) linearized
12) In non-linear control system limit cycle is self-sustained oscillations of
a) fixed frequency
b) variable frequency
c) variable amplitude
d) fixed frequency and amplitude
13) ____________ is the non-lineraity caused by servomotor.
a) Dead space
b) Saturation
c) Backlash
d) Static friction
SLR-UM 380
*SLRUM380*
-4-
14) A network has a pole at s = 1 and a zero at s = 2. If this network is excited

by sinusoidal input, the output
a) leads the input
b) lags the input
c) is in phase with input
d) decays exponentially to zero
15) Which of the following is an example of intentional nonlinear system ?
a) Contractor serves
b) Non-linear pitch or dampers in aircraft control
c) On-off transducers
d) All of the above
16) The characteristic polynomial of a discrete time system is given by z2 + z + a.
For what value of a is the system stable ?
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 1.5
d) 0.5
17) For a unity feedback system, the origin of the s-plane is mapped in the
z-plane by transformation z = esT to which one of the following ?
a) Origin
b) 1 + j0
c) 1 + j0
d) 0 + j1

a) equalizer
b) high pass filter
c) low pass filter
d) none of these
19) About which of the following is the phase-plane portrait for the nonlinear system
given by x + f (x, x ) and satisfying f ( x, x ) = f (x, x ) , symmetrical ?
a) X-axis
-axis
b) X
-axes
-axes
c) both the X and X
d) neither X nor X
20) The state variable approach can be applied to ____________ system(s).
a) Time variant
b) Non-linear
d) All of the above

______________
SLR-UM 380
-5-
*SLRUM380*
Seat
No.
T.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part II) Examination, 2014

NON-LINEAR AND DIGITAL CONTROL SYSTEM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

iii) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Derive the realization of lead compensator circuit.

b) Explain the procedure to design lead compensator using frequency response
analysis.
c) A feedback system is having the closed loop transfer function
T (s ) =
s 2 + 3s + 3
s 3 + 2s 2 + 3s + 1
Construct a state model for the system.
1
0
0
d) Find the eigen values A =

0
1 .
0
6 11 6
e) Find the output response of the system given by

1
x 1 0
x = 2 3
2
x(0) = [1 1].
x 1 0
x + 1 u(t ) and C =
2
1 0
0 1 to unit step input with
3. a) The controlled plant of a unity feedback control system is G(s ) =
K
s(s + 10 )
It is specified that velocity error constant of the system be equal to 20, while
the damping ratio of the dominant roots be 0.707. Design a suitable lag
compensator to meet the specifications.
10
SLR-UM 380
-6-
*SLRUM380*
b) Design a lead compensator for a unity feedback system with OLTF

K
G(s ) =
to satisfy the following specifications
s(s + 1) (s + 5 )
a) Kv 50
b) Phase margin 20.
10
OR
b) Find the state transition matrix (t ) using Laplace transform method.
1 x 1
x 1 0
x = 2 3 x .
2
2
10
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :

(54=20)
a) Explain jump resonance phenomenon in the non-linear control systems.
b) Explain isocline method for construction of phase trajectories.
c) Derive the pulse transfer function of a closed loop system.
d) Determine the inverse z-transform of z-domain function f (z ) =
e) Determine the inverse z-transform of z-domain function f (z ) =
z 0.4
2
z +z+2
z4
(z 1) (z 2)2
5. Solve any two :

(102=20)
a) Construct a phase trajectory by delta method for a non-linear system
represented by the differential equation, x + 4 x x + 4 x = 0 . Choose the initial
conditions as x(0) = 1.0 and x (0) = 0.
b) Explain the stability analysis by Juris stability test for Discrete time control
system.
c) Explain the mapping between s-plane and z-plane and for the block diagram
given below :
i) Find the output Y(s) and its samples Y*(s).

ii) Find, if it exists, the transfer function between the sampled input and
sampled output.
______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 381
*SLRUM381*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------T.E. (E & E) (Part II) Examination, 2014

MICROCONTROLLER AND ITS APPLICATIONS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

3) Assume relevant data whenever necessary.
Marks : 20
(120)
1) To access the data from on chip ROM the instructions used is __________
a) MOV
b) MOVX
c) MOVC
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 381
*SLRUM381*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) PUSH instruction of 8051 ___________ SP by 1.

a) Increments
b) Decrements
c) Data incorrect
d) None
3) Memory space for 8051 register bank is ___________
a) FF
b) 1F
c) 2F
d) 7F
4) The SFR space of 8051 is ___________

a) 80-FF
b) 00-1F
c) 20-2F
d) 30-7F
5) Upon reset SP value is ___________

a) 05
b) 06
c) 07
d) 08
6) In ACALL instruction the target address of subroutine must be within

___________ KB.
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
7) If XTAL = 11.0592 MHz, then ___________ MHz frequency is used by timer

to set the baud rate.
a) 1
b) 1.333
c) 921.6
d) None
*SLRUM381*
SLR-UM 381
-3-
8) MCS-51 has ___________ clock frequency.

a) 12 MHz
b) 14 MHz
c) 24 MHz
d) 36 MHz
9) MOV A, @Ro is an example of ___________ addressing mode.

a) Immediate
b) Direct
c) Register indirect
d) Indexed
10) 8051 has ___________ interrupts.

a) 05
b) 06
c) 07
d) 08
11) Control word format to use 8253 in mode 2, 8 bit count for counter 1 and
binary count is
a) 5CH
b) 54H
c) 35H
d) Both a) and b)
12) To configured port A Input, port B Output, port C Input of 8255, the
control word format in mode 0 is
a) 88H
b) 99H
c) 89H
d) None
13) Control word and status register of 8255 respectively are

a) Both write only
b) Both read only
c) Write and read only
d) None
14) In serial communication mode, mode 1 the baud rate is
a) BR = 2SMOD/32 * (Timer 0 over flow rate)
b) BR = 2SMOD/8 * (Timer 0 over flow rate)
c) BR = 2SMOD/16 * (Timer 1 over flow rate)

d) BR = 2SMOD/32 * (Timer 1 over flow rate)
15) To select the command code register of LCD
a) RS = 1
b) RS = 0
c) E = 1
d) E = 0
SLR-UM 381
*SLRUM381*
-4-
16) Data conversion method used in DAC 0808 is

a) R-2R ladder
b) Weighted register
c) Single slope
d) None
17) INTR pin of ADC is used to indicate

a) Start of conversion
b) End of conversion
c) Channel enable
d) None
18) The line which indicate the LCD that microcontroller is sending data is
a) DBO
b) RW
c) EN
d) RS
19) The mode of 8253 which generate sq. wave is

a) Mode 0
b) Mode 1
c) Mode 2
d) Mode 3
20) To double the baud rate is 8051 for serial communication

a) Use higher frequency crystal
b) Make SMOD to 1 from 0
c) Make SMOD to 0 from 1
d) Both a) and b)
______________________
*SLRUM381*
-5-
SLR-UM
381
SLR-UM
381
Seat
No.
T.E. (E & E) (Part II) Examination, 2014

MICROCONTROLLER AND ITS APPLICATIONS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

3) Assume relevant data whenever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45)
a) Draw the block diagram of 8051 microcontroller and explain in detail.

b) Explain the function of following pins of 8051.
1) PSEN
2) EA
3) TO
4) TXD
5) RST.
c) Explain flags and program status word in detail.
d) Explain the addressing modes of 8051 with examples.
e) Explain the significance of every bit in SCON register.
3. a) Draw and explain Port 2 and Port 3 configuration of 8051.
b) Explain the stack of 8051 and its operation.
10
10
OR
b) Assuming XTAL = 11.0592 MHz, write a program to generate a square wave
of 50Hz frequency on pin P 2.4 of 8051.
10
SLR-UM 381
-6-
*SLRUM381*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) DAC is connected to port pins of 8051. Write a program to generate forward

and reverse sawtooth waveforms.
b) What are different key debouncing techniques ? Explain with suitable
examples.
c) What is I 2C ? Explain and illustrate merits and demerits of it.
d) Interface (4 4) matrix type keyboard with 8051. Illustrate the scheme of
reading a used key with the help of flow chart.
e) Explain the function of UART. Explain mode 0 and mode 1.
5. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Explain various SFRS related with serial communication in 8051. Write a

program to display stream of character at serial port.
b) Interface seven segment display with 8051 through external 8255. Write a
program to display numbers of 0 to 9 using lookup table method.
c) What is importance of power factor ? With block schematic diagram automatic
power factor control relay. With flow chart only explain software part of the
ckt.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM 384
*SLRUM384*
Seat
No.
S
&
&
f
C

2) There is no negative marking.
3) Multiple answers carry no mark.
1. Select one right answer :
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1) Which one is non-planar display device ?

a) Segment display
b) LCD
c) Nixie tube
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 384
*SLRUM384*
-2-
DO
NO
R
W
T
H
E
IT
E
R
E
2) Which one of the following has highest temperature measuring range ?

a) Copper constantan
b) Iron-constantan
c) Alumel Chromel
d) Platinum rhodium Platinum
3) Pair of active transducer is

a) Thermistor, Solar Cell
b) RTD, Thermistor
c) Solar Cell, LVDT
d) Thermocouple, Solar Cell
4) Why are dummy strain gauges employed ?

a) For calibration
b) For increasing sensitivity
c) For compensating temperature variation
d) For neutralizing influence of bridge
5) PLC uses following for the programming.
a) Ladder diagram
b) Function Block
c) Instruction List
d) All of the above
6) The recording head in a magnetic tape responds to

a) Electrical signal and creates magnetic signal
b) Magnetic signal and creates electrical signal
c) Thermal signal and creates magnetic signal
d) Thermal signal and creates electrical signal
7) The wire material of strain gauge should have
a) High resistivity and high thermo emf
b) High resistivity and low thermo emf
c) Low resistivity and high thermo emf
d) Low resistivity and low thermo emf
*SLRUM384*
SLR-UM 384
-3-
8) A 12 bit A/D converter has 0-10 V. What is the approximate resolution of the
converter ?
a) 1 mv
b) 2.5 mv
c) 2.5 uv
d) 12 mv
9) Which one of the following is transducer ?

a) Piezoelectric
b) Thermocouple
c) Photovoltaic cell
d) LVDT
10) A flow meter that is independent of liquid density is

a) Rotameter
b) EMFM
c) Venturimeter
d) Orifice meter
11) In case of data transmission, which will give maximum probability error ?
a) ASK
b) FSK
c) SPK
d) DPSK
12) A buffer amplifier has gain of
a) Infinity
b) zero
c) unity
d) depends on circuit parameter
13) An AC signal conditioning normally used for

a) resistive transducers like strain gauge
b) inductive and capacitive transducer
c) piezoelectric transducer
d) all of them
14) The typical value of input offset current of 741 OP AMP is
a) 10 nA
b) 10 mA
c) 10 pA
d) 100 mA
15) Time division multiplexing requires

a) constant data transmission
b) transmission of data samples
c) a variable bandwidth format
d) a consistent bandwidth format
SLR-UM 384
*SLRUM384*
-4-
16) Which one of the following is most sensitive device ?

a) Thermocouple
b) RTD
c) Thermistor
d) Pyrometer
17) The main drawback of balancing recorder is that

a) Ability to respond rapidly changing quantities is limited
b) Low input impedance
c) Low input sensitivity
d) None of these
18) The F.M. telemetry as compared to A.m. telemetry requires a channel that is
a) equal to that of AM telemetry
b) smaller than AM telemetry
c) 100 times of AM telemetry
d) 10 times of AM telemetry
19) Ultraviolet recorders are nothing but

a) Strip chart recorder
b) X-y recorders
c) Duddles oscillograph
d) All of above
20) Digital instrument have input impedance of the order of

a)
b) K
c) M
d) m
*SLRUM384*
SLR-UM 384
-5-
Seat
No.
B.E. (Electrical and Electronics) (Part I) Examination, 2014

INSTRUMENTATION TECHNIQUES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
1) Explain modulator and demodulator circuit.

2) Explain the variable area flow meter.
3) Derive the frequency expression for second order high pass filter with neat
diagram.
4) Define the following terms.
i) Resolution
ii) Precision
iv) Hysteresis
v) Reliability
iii) Linearity
5) What is voltage telemetry ? Explain in brief.

6) Derive the gain formula instrumentation amplifier. Explain instrumentation
amplifier with neat diagram.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
1) How can we generate following waveform ? Explain with neat diagram

i) sine waveform
ii) triangular waveform
iii) square waveform.
2) Explain normal pressure measurement and vacuum pressure measurement.
3) Why modulation of signal is required ? Explain AM and FM with neat diagram.
SLR-UM 384
-6-
*SLRUM384*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(45=20)
1) Why ladder diagram is used in PLC ? Support your answer.

2) How voltage is converted to frequency ? Explain with neat diagram.
3) Explain storage oscilloscope in detail with diagram.
4) Explain communication, programming unit, I/O module of PLC.
5) Explain R 2 R ladder DAC and SAR, ADC.
6) What are different types of recorders ? Explain magnetic tape recorder.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
1) Explain instrument set up required for the measurement of conducting fluid

flow rate.
2) Explain the PLC with neat diagram. What are selection and installation criteria
of PLC.
3) Explain how data acquisition is done ? What is TDM, FDM, Multiplexer and de
multiplexer in data acquisition system ?
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 386
*SLRUM386*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------B. E. (Electrical & Electronics Engineering) (Part I) Examination, 2014
(Elective I) RENEWABLE ENERGY SOURCES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Marks : 20
(120)
1) The ultimate capacity of Korba thermal power station in M.P is ______

a) 3000 MW
b) 2500 MW
c) 2100 MW
d) 2700 MW
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 386
*SLRUM386*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The amount of energy stored as a kinetic energy in wave may be of the order
___________
a) 1018J
b) 1020J
c) 1025J
d) 1031J
3) Which of the following is not used for making metallic flat absorber plate ?
a) Copper
b) Steel
c) Nickel
d) Aluminium
4) Which of the statements given below is not true ?

a) Solar air heater is used for drying of agricultural product
b) Solar air heater is used for seasoning of timber
c) Solar air heater is used for space heating
d) Solar air heater is used for heating water
5) The following material can be used to fabricate solar cell
a) Carbon sulphide
b) Cadmium sulphide
c) Chlorium sulphide
d) Potassium sulphide
6) Increase in speed with height above ground level is called _________

a) Wind stress
b) Force of shear
c) Wind shear
*SLRUM386*
SLR-UM 386
-3-
7) Lift/Drag ratio of good airfoil is ___________

a) Medium
b) High
c) Low
d) None of these
8) Cow dung originally consists of _________ of solids.

a) 18%
b) 20%
c) 22%
d) 25%
9) The Biogas generation is not affected by which of the following factors.

a) Temperature
b) Type of plant
c) Loading rate
d) Solid concentration
10) Fixed dome type Biogas plant is also called as

a) Pragati Plant
b) KVIC plant
c) Janata Model Biogas Plant
d) None of these
11) The terrestrial crops have energy potential of

a) 3 1022 Joules
b) 1 1022 Joules
c) 5 1022 Joules
d) 2 1022 Joules
12) Which of the following is correct expression ?

a) Pmax = 0.693 Ptotal
b) Ptotal = 0.593 Paverage
c) Ptotal = 0.593 Pmax
d) Pmax = 0.593 Ptotal
13) In India yearly __________ of Municipal solid waste is collected.

a) 53 million Tonnes
b) 50 million Tonnes
c) 42 million Tonnes
d) 45 million Tonnes
14) The Methane Gas Reforming reaction is __________

a) Exothermic
b) Giving CO2 as product
c) Produces heat and water
d) Endothermic
SLR-UM 386
*SLRUM386*
-4-
15) Which of the following is not a hydrothermal convective system ?

a) Dry steam fields
b) Liquid dominated system
c) Petrothermal
d) Hot water fields
16) The hot molten rock of the mantle is called ___________

a) Magnesium
b) Iron
c) Volcanoes
d) Magma
17) The temperature gradient available down earths surface is ________

a) 0.05c
b) 0.07c
c) 0.03c
d) 0.04c
18) The open cycle utilizes ____________ as a working fluid.

a) Ammonia
b) Sea-Water
c) Hydrocarbon
d) Halocarbon
19) The open cycle is known as _____________

a) Anderson Cycle
b) Carnot Cycle
c) Rankine Cycle
d) Claude Cycle
20) In a solid storage the hydrogen is stored in the form of ________

a) Crystalline form
b) Metal hydrides
c) Non metal hydrides
d) Metal mixture
______________________
*SLRUM386*
-5-
SLR-UM 386
Seat
No.
B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part I)

Examination, 2014
(Elective I) RENEWABLE ENERGY SOURCES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Distinguish between renewable and non-renewable energy sources.

b) Draw and explain flat plate collectors in detail.
c) Explain how is energy consumption as a measure of Nations development.
d) Draw and explain natural circulation solar water heater (Non-pressurized) in
detail.
e) Explain efficiency of solar cells.
f) What are the basic components of wind energy system ? Draw the block
diagram and explain.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
1) How the concentrating collectors are classified ? Draw and explain compound
parabolic collector with plane receiver.
2) What is Photovoltaic effect ? Explain Solar photovoltaic system in detail.
3) Derive an expression for forces on the blades and axial thrust on turbines.
SLR-UM 386
-6-
*SLRUM386*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Write a short note on estimation and nature of geothermal energy.

b) Draw and explain Open cycle for OTEC.
c) Explain electrolysis method of hydrogen production.
d) What are the advantages and disadvantages of wave energy ?
e) Explain fuel properties of biogas.
f) What are the prospects of geothermal energy in India ?
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
1) Draw and explain Closed cycle for OTEC and also explain what are the
prospects of OTEC in India ?
2) Explain
i) Wet processes
ii) Dry processes
for Biomass energy conversion.
3) Explain types of Double-Basin arrangement for tidal power generation in detail
(Draw diagram).
___________________
Code No. SLR-UM
387
*SLRUM387*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions :1) Q. 1 is compulsory.

Marks : 20
(120)
1) An efficient and a well designed protective relaying should have _____________
a) Good selectivity and reliability
b) Economy and simplicity
c) High speed and selectivity
d) All of above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 387
*SLRUM387*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Burden of protective relay is power_______________

a) Required to operate circuit breaker
b) Absorbed by circuit if relay
c) Developed by relay circuit
d) None of above
3) Directional relays are based on flow of _______________
a) Power
b) Current
c) Voltage wave
d) All of above
4) A differential relay measures the vector difference between _______________

a) Two currents
b) Two voltages
c) Two or more similar electrical quantities
d) None of above
5) A transmission line is protected by_______________
a) Inrush protection
b) Distance protection
c) Time graded and current graded overcurrent protection
d) Both b) and c)
*SLRUM387*
SLR-UM 387
-3-
6) Large internal faults are protected by _______________

a) Merz price percentage differential protection
b) Mho and Ohm relay
c) Horn gap and temperature relays
d) Earth fault and positive sequence relays
7) When transmission line energized, the wave that propagates on it is ____________
a) Current wave only
b) Voltage wave only
c) Both a) and b)
d) Power factor wave only
8) Protective relays are devices that detects abnormal conditions in electrical

circuits by measuring _______________
a) Current during abnormal condition
b) Voltage during abnormal condition
c) Constantly the electrical quantities which differ during normal and
abnormal condition
d) None of above
9) The voltage appearing across contacts after opening of C.B. is called
______________ voltage.
a) Recovery
b) Surge
c) Operating
d) Arc
10) Ionization in C.B. is facilitated by ______________

a) High temperature
b) Increase of mean free path
c) Increasing field strength
d) All of above
11) In a circuit breaker, the basic problem is to ______________

a) Maintain the arc
b) Extinguish the arc
c) Transmit the large power
d) Emit the ionizing electron
12) Overheating of relay contact or contact born out is due to _________________

a) Slow making and breaking of load circuit contacts
b) Foreign matter on contact surface
c) Too low contact pressure
SLR-UM 387
*SLRUM387*
-4-
d) All of above
13) Shunt capacitance is neglected while considering ________________
a) Short transmission line
b) Medium transmission line
c) Long transmission line
d) Medium and long transmission line
14) The arc voltage produced in ACCB is always ________________
a) In phase with arc current
b) Lagging the arc current by 90
c) Leading the arc current by 90
d) None of above
15) The time of closing cycle in modern C. B. is ________________
a) 0.003 sec
b) 0.001 sec
c) 0.01 sec
d) 0.1 sec
16) Insulation resistance of high voltage circuit breaker is more than ______________
a) 1 mega ohm
b) 10 mega ohm
c) 100 mega ohm
d) 500 mega ohm
17) HRC fuses provide best protection against________________

a) Overload
b) Reverse current
c) Open circuit
d) Short circuit
18) The ground wire should not be smaller than ______________ copper.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 10
19) The delay fuses are used for protection of ______________

a) Motors
b) Power outlet circuit
c) Fluorescent lamps
d) Light circuits
20) Which of the following is least expensive protection of overcurrent is low

voltage system ?
a) Rewirable fuse
b) Isolator
c) Oil C.B.
d) Air break C.B.
*SLRUM387*
-5-
SLR-UM 387
Seat
No.
B.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Part - II) Examination, 2014

Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Instructions :1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Explain opening mechanism of circuit breaker with simplified diagram.

b) Short note on current chopping phenomenon.
c) Explain recovery rate theory with graph.
d) Short note on MCB and MCCB.
e) State the types of isolators. Explain any one of the isolator.
f) Define :
1) Arc voltage
2) System voltage
3) Restriking voltage
4) Recovery voltage.
3. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) Discuss the rating and testing of circuit breaker.

b) Explain arc quenching phenomenon in minimum oil circuit breaker.
c) In a 220 KV system, the reactance and capacitance up to location of circuit
breaker is 8 and 0.025 f respectively. A resistance of 600 is connected
across contact of circuit breaker. Determine the following :
a) Natural frequency of oscillation
b) Damped frequency of oscillation
SLR-UM 387
-6-
*SLRUM387*
c) Critical value of resistance which will give no transient oscillation

d) The value of resistance which will give damped frequency of oscillation, one
fourth of natural frequency of oscillation.
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54=20)
a) Explain impedance relay with necessary diagram.

b) What is mean by differential relay ? State the different types of differential
relays.
c) Short note on protection of ring main.
d) Explain Buccholz relay with diagram.
e) Explain microprocessor based impedance relay with block diagram.
f) What is the function of surge absorber ? Explain Ferranti surge absorber.
5. Solve any two :
(102=20)
a) What is mean by lightning arrester ? Explain any two types of lightning

arresters.
b) Give the comment on protection of generator with stator, rotor and
miscellaneous protection.
c) Explain wire pilot protection with
a) Circulating current scheme
b) Balanced voltage scheme.
SLR-UM 388
Code No.
*SLRUM388*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1. 1) Normally a distribution transformer is designed for

a) minimum iron loss
b) maximum iron loss
c) minimum copper loss
d) maximum copper loss

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 388
*SLRUM388*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) The amount of heat dissipated by a plain walled tank is

a) 6 W/m2/C
b) 5.28 W/m2/C
c) 12.5 W/m2/C
d) 8.2 W/m2/C
3) Transformer oil should have

a) low dielectric strength
b) high viscosity
c) high flash point
d) both b) and c)
4) A three phase power transformer is usually

a) core type
b) shell type
c) torroidal
d) berry type
5) For large capacity transformers, the core laminations are prepared from
a) hot rolled steel
b) cold rolled grain oriented steel
c) cold rolled steel
6) The core of transformer is laminated to reduce
a) eddy current loss
b) hysteresis loss
c) copper loss
d) noise
7) A power transformer with ______________ has an advantage of limiting short

circuit current.
a) good power factor
b) higher leakage reactance
c) lower leakage reactance
*SLRUM388*
SLR-UM 388
-3-
8) In a transformer the low voltage winding is placed _____________ to reduce

____________
a) near the core, cost of insulation
b) away from the core, cost of insulation
c) near the core, iron loss
d) away from the core, iron loss
9) Normally the thickness of stampings used for transformers are
a) 0.1 to 0.25 mm
b) 0.35 to 0.5 mm
c) 0.4 to 0.65 mm
d) 0.5 to 1 mm
10) The leakage reactance of a transformer is

a) directly proportional to the number of turns
b) directly proportional to the square of number of turns
c) inversely proportional to the number of turns
11) For a square core, the core area is given by
a) 0.56 d2
b) 0.45 d2
c) 0.6 d2
d) 0.62 d2
12) Leakage reactance of winding depends on

a) type of winding
b) position of winding
c) both a) and b)
13) A three phase synchronous motor will have

a) two slip rings
b) three slip rings
c) six slip rings
14) Damper windings are placed

a) in the field windings
b) in the pole faces
c) in the armature windings
15) The L / ratio is taken equal to 1 for a three phase induction motor for
a) minimum cost
b) overall good design
c) good power factor
d) good efficiency
SLR-UM 388
*SLRUM388*
-4-
16) An induction motor with large air gap has

a) higher over load capacity
b) lower over load capacity
c) less noise
d) both a) and c)
17) Slow speed alternators have

a) large no. of poles and large core length
b) large number of poles and small core length
c) less no. of poles and large core length
d) less number of poles and small core length
18) Skewing is done to
a) reduce noise
b) reduce tendency of cogging
c) both a) and b)
19) An induction motor with higher specific loadings has
a) smaller over load capacity and poor power factor
b) higher over load capacity and poor power factor
c) smaller over load capacity and good power factor
d) higher over load capacity and good power factor
20) End ring current in an induction motor is
a) Always greater than one rotor bar current
b) Always less than one rotor bar current
c) Depends on the direction of rotation
_____________________
*SLRUM388*
-5-
SLR-UM 388
Seat
No.
B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part II)

Examination, 2014
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54)
a) Derive an output equation of single phase core type transformer.
b) Derive relation between voltage per turn and KVA rating of a transformer.
c) Explain the procedure of calculating the magnetizing component of no load
current of a single phase core type transformer.
d) Explain various types of accessories used for a transformer and state their
function.
e) State the assumptions made while calculating the leakage reactance of a
transformer.
f) Compare between core type and shell type transformer.
3. Solve any two :
(102)
a) A 200 KVA, 6600/400 V, three phase, core type transformer has a total loss
of 4000 watts at full load. The transformer tank is 1 m in height and 1 m 0.5
m in plan. Design a suitable scheme for tubes to limit the temperature rise to
35C. The diameter of each tube is 50 mm and height of each tube is 1.05 m.
The tubes are spaced 75 mm from each other.
b) Estimate the magnetizing current per phase for 11000/415 V, three phase,
delta star core type transformer from follwoing data :
Gross cross sectional area of yoke and limb = 200 cm2
Height of each limb = 130 cms
Length of each yoke = 100 cms
stacking factor = 0.9
Density of steel = 7600 Kg/m3
Reactive VA/Kg = 5.
c) With neat diagram explain different types of windings and their applications
in transformer.
SLR-UM 388
-6-
*SLRUM388*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54)
a) Explain harmonic induction torques and its effects.

b) Discuss various factors affecting the choice of length of air gap in an induction
motor.
c) Explain how choice of specific electric loading affects in the design of an
alternator on following parameters :
i) Temperature rise
ii) Coper loss
iii) Current density
iv) Synchronous reactance
v) Voltage.
d) Explain various types of pole constructions and their applications for
synchronous machines.
e) What is runaway speed ? What is its significance ?
f) State different types of synchronous generators and their applications.
5. Solve any two :
(102)
a) Explain the phenomenon of crawling, cogging and synchronous cusps.

b) Determine the main dimensions and peripheral speed for a 1000 KVA, 50 Hz,
three phase, 375 rpm alternator. The average air gap flux density is 0.55 wb/m2
and the ampere conductors per meter are 28000. Winding factor is 0.955,
ratio of core length to pole pitch = 2.
c) An 11 KW, 6 pole, 50 Hz, 220 V, star connected induction motor has 54 stator
slots each containing 9 conductors. Calculate the bar and end ring currents.
The number of rotor bars are 64. The machine has an efficiency of 0.86 and
a.p.f. of 0.82. The rotor mmf may be assumed as 85% of stator mmf. Also
find cross-sections of bars and end rings if current density is 5A/mm2.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
389
*SLRUM389*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Part II) Examination, 2014

FLEXIBLE AC TRANSMISSION SYSTEMS
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions :1) Q. 1 is compulsory.

Marks : 20

1) SVG is combination of _______________
b) Battery and controller
a) SVC and Battery
c) SVC and controller

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 389
*SLRUM389*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) VAR reverse control operation is done by providing

a) Decrease reference voltage
b) Increasing reference voltage
c) Keeping contact reference voltage
d) None of these
3) The time required to give full compensation to line by TC-TCR is
a) 12 cycle
b) At the instant of switching
c) Firing angle
d) One cycle
4) Maximum capacity VAR output decreases with square of voltage decreases in

a) Switched converters
b) Variable impedance type
c) Both a) and b)
5) STATCOM operating whose capacitive or inductive output current cant be

controlled impendent of
a) AC system output
b) AC system voltage
c) AC system
d) AC system power factor
6) Thermal capacity of an overhead line is a function of the ___________

a) Ambient temperature and wire condition
b) Voltage
c) Power
d) Reactive power
*SLRUM389*
SLR-UM 389
-3-
7) From an insulation point of view, many lines are designed ___________ of

voltage rating.
a) V
b) W-10% V
c) V + V 10% V
d) V-10% V
8) Transient stability can be increased by increasing __________

a) Deaccelerating energy
b) Accelerating energy
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above
9) In power flow control when the angle is not large, the power flow is controlled
by
a) Xc
b) Xr
c) Xc-Xr
d) X
10) Following controller is used for proper transmission management is a multiple

substation
a) IPFC
b) UPFC
c) SVC
11) In SVC capacitor used for
a) Heavy load condition
c) Transient condition
d) TCSC
b) Light load condition
d) None
12) In series controller, the injected voltage is ____________

a) Z voltage * I flow
b) Z voltage * Z inject
c) I flow * Z inject
d) None
13) FACTS provide _____________________

a) Stability transfer capability and controllability
b) Stability and transient response
c) Phase sequence and compatibility
d) None
14) In SVC the Thyristor ____________________
a) Is with GTO capability
b) With Toff capability
c) Without GTO capability
d) Without Toff capability
SLR-UM 389
*SLRUM389*
-4-
15) ____________________ provides variable in phase voltage with continuous

control.
a) TCVL
b) TCVR
c) SSSC
d) TCSC
16) The changing transformers are employed for

a) Stepping down the voltage
b) Stepping up the voltage
c) Supply low voltage current to instruments
d) Both stepping up and down the voltage
17) Induction regulators are employed for voltage control in ____________________
a) Distribution systems
b) Transmission lines
c) Alternator
d) Anywhere in the line
18) Shunt compensation in a EHV line is used to

a) Improve stability
b) Reduce fault level
c) Improve the voltage profile
d) Substitute for synchronous resonance
19) The best location for a use of a booster transformer in a transmission line is
a) At the sending end
b) At the receiving end
c) At the immediate point
d) Anywhere in the line
20) The admittance of TCR and TSR is

a) BL ( ) = 1/ L (1
b) BL ( ) = (1
1 sin 2 )
1 sin 2 )
c) BL ( ) = 2 (1 1 sin 2 )
d) None
*SLRUM389*
-5-
SLR-UM 389
Seat
No.
B.E. Electrical and Electronics Engineering (Part - II) Examination, 2014

FLEXIBLE AC TRANSMISSION SYSTEMS
Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Instructions :1) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
20
a) Write the relative importance of controllable parameters for a transmission

line.
b) Distinguish between HVDC and FACTS.
c) Explain functional control scheme for TSC-TCR type static VAR generator.
d) Explain concept of series capacitive compensation with neat diagrams and
characteristics.
e) Explain GCSC along with circuit diagram and operating output waveforms.
f) Explain concept of power flow in parallel paths with neat diagrams.
3. Answer the following (any 2) :
a) Explain FC-TCR along with neat characteristics and circuit diagram. Also
explain control scheme for FC-TCR.
b) What are the methods of VAR generation ? Explain STATCOM detail.
c) Derive an expression for power flow and dynamic stability of transmission
line with neat diagram and power vs angle curves.
20
SLR-UM 389
-6-
*SLRUM389*
SECTION II
20
a) Explain in short TSSC.

b) Explain objective of series compensation.
c) Compare series compensator with UPFC.
d) Explain how transient stability can be improved with phase angle regulators.
e) Explain concept of hybrid phase angle regulators with neat circuit diagram.
f) Explain basic operating principle of IPFC.
5. Answer any two :
20
a) Explain generalized and multifunctional FACTS controllers with neat diagram.

b) Explain switching converter-based voltage and phase angle regulators.
c) With neat diagram and waveforms explain working of SSSC.
Code No. SLR-UM
39
*SLRUM39*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

BUILDING PLANNING AND DESIGN
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) All question are compulsory.

2) Q. 1 is objective question paper cum answer sheet. First
30 minutes of exam duration is reserved for this paper and
after 30 min. supervisors will collect this question paper
cum answer sheet.
3) Use both sides of full imperial drawing sheet for Section I.
4) Figure on right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it.
6) Use answer book for Section II.
7) Retain all projection/construction lines on drawing sheet.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 39
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM39*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W

Marks : 20
1. Fill in the blank (one mark each) :

1) The classrooms is to be designed at the rate of ______________ m2 per
pupil of middle school.
2) The preferred distance between the first row of bench and the black board
is _____________ m.
3) For a 40 student capacity classroom the width may be restricted to
___________ m for effective teaching.
4) The flight width for a stair in school building should not be less than
__________ m.
5) The length of the classroom should not be more than __________ m, for
effective teaching.
6) The desirable aspect of the classroom is _________________
7) Max. no. of classroom to be provided in a row is ___________
8) The desirable no. of storeys for a school building is _______________
9) The minimum clearance between two adjoining desks arranged side by side
is ______________ mm.
10) The distance between the first row of benches and the black board should
not be less than ___________ m.
20
*SLRUM39*
-3-
SLR-UM 39
11) Orientation of any building depends on climatic conditions; the three

parameters which govern the orientation of a building are ______________,
_________________ and ____________________
12) The flight width for a stair in school building should not be less than
____________ m.
13) Maximum projection of ______________ m for chajja is permitted in the
open spaces around the building.
14) Plinth height shall not be less than ________________ mm for public
building.
In perspective drawing :
HP means __________________________________________________________
PA means _________________________________________________________
GP means _________________________________________________________
VR means __________________________________________________________
VL means __________________________________________________________
AGP means ________________________________________________________
__________________
*SLRUM39*
-5-
SLR-UM 39
Seat
No.

BUILDING PLANNING AND DESIGN
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
Marks : 80
All question are compulsory.

Use both sides of full imperial drawing sheet for Section I.
Figure on right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data wherever needed and mention it.
Use answer book for Section II.
Retain all projection/construction lines on drawing sheet.
SECTION I
2. It is proposed to construct a G + 1 RCC building for boys hostel with following

requirements :
a) Single seated 20 rooms, all having area 9.3 sq.m. each
b) Make suitable provision for sanitary arrangements
c) Common hall for reading news paper and magazines as well as watching
TV-36 sq.m.
d) Passage 2000 mm wide
e) Foyer of suitable size
f) Office and store room 12 sq.m.
g) Assume additional data if necessary and mention it clearly.
Draw :
1) Detailed plan for G.F.
12
2) Detailed plan for F.F.
12
3) Furniture layout of any one room.
4
28
Note : Use appropriate scale
SLR-UM 39
-6-
*SLRUM39*
3. Draw perspective of the object as shown in enclosed sketch using the data given
below :
a) Use scale 1 : 100
b) Symbols have usual meaning
c) Preserve all raylines.
12
*SLRUM39*
-7-
SLR-UM 39
SECTION II
4. Attempt any five questions :
a) Explain the need and significance of Green buildings.
b) Explain factors influencing planning of public buildings.
c) State general principles and factors in acoustical design. Also discuss Sabines
Expression for reverberation time.
d) What do you understand by fire load of the building ? Explain in brief different
types of fire hazards.
e) Explain in detail common acoustical defects.
f) Explain with neat sketch reflection of sound wave from concave and convex
hard reflectors.
g) What are the advantages of using AutoCAD for public building point of view ?
_____________________
40
SLR-UM 390
Code No.
*SLRUM390*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Elective II : HVDC
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
_________________________________________________________________________
Marks : 20
(201)
1) In a monopolar system usually the pole is

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Positive or negative
d) Alternately positive and negative
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 390
*SLRUM390*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Modern HVDC system are all

a) 3-pulse converters
b) 6-pulse converters
c) 24-pulse converters
d) 12-pulse converters
3) The main advantage of HVDC-VSC scheme is
a) Both active or reactive power can be controlled
b) Does not require DC filters
c) Can be used for high power more than 1500 MW
d) All of the above
4) In 12-pulse connections, transformers are connected
a) Delta/Delta (both)
b) Star/Star (both)
c) Star /Delta (both)
d) One Star/Star and other Star/Delta
5) Power transmitted through the DC system depend on
a) Rectifier end voltage
b) Inverter end voltage
c) Rectifier end current
d) Rectifier end voltage and current
6) If a angle of advance is 30 and overlap angle is 12, the extension
angle will be
a) 42
b) (30/2)
c) 18
d) 21
*SLRUM390*
-3-
SLR-UM 390
7) Advantage of DC links for power transfer is

a) easy controllability of power
b) more economical
c) it is an asynchronous tie
d) less insulation requirement
8) With increase in delay angle
a) p.f. is reduced
b) DC voltage decreases
c) both a) and b)
d) kVAR requirement decreases
9) Power reversal in DC link is done
a) operating rectifier ( ) close to 180 and inverter close to zero
b) operating both and near 90
c) operating at 90 and close to zero
d) operating close to 90 and near zero
10) The maximum value of the harmonic current depend on
a) Firing angle
b) Overlap angle
c) DC current
d) Both firing angle and overlap angle
11) In HVDC-VSC schemes filters are used
a) Only on the AC side
b) Only on the DC side
c) Both AC and DC side
d) No filter is needed
12) In a 2nd order or 3rd order filter which of the components R, L or C are
to be rated to full AC power frequency voltage
a) Inductor
b) Capacitors
c) Resistors
d) Both inductor and capacitors
SLR-UM 390
*SLRUM390*
-4-
13) Which of the following fault is self clearing ?

a) DC line fault
b) Single commutation failure
c) Multiple commutation failure
d) Are back and are through
14) A surge diverter is used across the DC CB to
a) limit recovery voltage
b) limit fault current
c) absorb the arc energy
d) all of the above
15) The power transfer capability of DC cables compared to AC cables is

b) 1.5 to 2 times
a) same
c) 0.5 to 1.5 times
d) cannot be asserted
16) Compared to AC overhead lines, towers and substations, the land

requirement in DC is
a) Same as that of AC
b) 65% for substations and 50% for lines
c) 90% for both substations and lines
d) cannot be predicted
17) When a 3-phase double circuit AC line is converted into DC line the
power transfer will be increased ?
a) no change
b) 1.5 times
c) 3 times
d) 2 times
18) Which of the following is a series connected FACTS device ?

a) UPFC
b) STATCOM
c) TCSC
19) Multiterminal systems are
a) series connected
c) ring connected
d) TCPST
b) parallel connected
d) all of above
20) MTDC systems are controlled through

a) voltage control
b) current order control
c) firing angle control
d) all of above
_____________________
*SLRUM390*
-5-
SLR-UM 390
Seat
No.
B.E. (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Elective II : HVDC
Marks : 80
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(54)
1) Explain the planning for HVDC transmission.

2) Explain with neat diagram the different types of DC links.
3) Write short note on a pulse number and explain valve utilization factor.
4) Explain EPC scheme in detail.
5) Explain the commutation failure in case of converter in detail.
6) Explain the energization and de energization of a bridge.
3. Solve any two :
1) Draw and explain the layout of typical HVDC station.
2) Explain in detail the analysis of Greats z circuit without overlap.
3) Explain the over voltage protection of converter in detail.
(102)
SLR-UM 390
-6-
*SLRUM390*
SECTION II
4. Solve any four :
(54)
1) Write short note on AC filters.

2) What are the causes of generation of harmonics and what are the troubles
caused by it ?
3) Explain with neat diagram the working of TSC.
4) Explain the reactive power requirements of HVDC system in steady state.
5) Explain the two ACR method for MTDC system.
6) Compare series MTDC system with parallel MTDC system.
5. Solve any two :
(102)
1) Define the noncharacteristic harmonics and explain :

i) Harmonic distortion
ii) Telephone influence factor
iii) THFF.
2) What are the various sources of reactive power ? Explain them.
3) Explain the various potential applications of MTDC systems.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM 391
*SLRUM391*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ENTREPRENEURSHIP (Elective III)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
PART I
1. Mark (9) mark against the correct answer option for the following objective questions
(1 mark each) :
1) Entrepreneur is a person who
a) Initiates business
b) Invests capital
c) Manages business
d) All of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 391
*SLRUM391*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Which of the following bank has been entrusted with the responsibility of
developing and supporting small business
a) NABARD
b) SIDBI
c) IDBI
d) None of these
3) Technology development and modernization fund is provided by

a) SIDBI
b) NABARD
c) IDBI
d) SIDO
4) The criteria for small business is

a) Capital invested
b) Number of employees
c) Number of managers
d) Type of business
5) Which of the following organization provides institutional support to SSI ?

a) Indian Institute of Foreign Trade
b) Tool Design Institute of SIDO
c) Nationalized Banks
d) Ministry of Commerce
6) The prices are generally determined by considering ____________
a) Product life cycle
b) Marketing strategies
c) Demand and supply
d) None of these
7) ___________ is the type of informal communication.

a) Meetings
b) Conferences
c) Grapevine
d) All of these
*SLRUM391*
SLR-UM 391
-3-
8) ___________ is concerned with the determination of the aggregate demand of

the proposed product.
a) Technical feasibility
b) Economical feasibility
c) Marketing feasibility
d) Financial feasibility
9) Excise duty is charged by

a) Central Government
b) State Government
c) Both a) and b)
d) Finance Ministry
10) Margin of safety is

a) Above the breakeven point
b) Below the breakeven point
c) Equal to the breakeven point
d) Not related to breakeven point
11) Small scale industry provides vast scope for increasing
a) Capital
b) Stability
c) Employment
d) None of these
12) Motivation is the inner state that

a) Activates persons to work more
b) Help them in increasing their wages and salaries
c) Helps a person to learn more about a job
d) None of these
13) According to the use of technology, entrepreneurs can be classified as
a) Technical entrepreneurs
b) Professional entrepreneurs
c) High tech entrepreneurs
d) All of these
14) Project appraisal simply means

a) Project report
b) Project assessment
c) Preliminary project report
d) None of these
15) The part of wealth which is used for further production of wealth is called as
a) Cost
b) Capital
c) Price
d) None of these
SLR-UM 391
*SLRUM391*
-4-
16) For marketing of a product, environment required is

a) Economic
b) Political
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
17) Which one of the following is not the purpose of the promotion of small business ?
a) Generation of employment
b) Balanced regional development
c) Promotion of communal harmony
d) Reduction of rural poverty
18) Principles of entrepreneurship may be applied to
a) Government
b) Business
c) Society
d) All of these
19) For a particular product, sales price is Rs. 16 per unit, variable cost is Rs. 12
per unit and fixed cost is Rs. 1,20,000/-, then BEP in quantity is __________
a) 10000 units
b) 50000 units
c) 30000 units
d) None of these
20) A tax which is levied annually by individual is called as

a) Excise duty
b) LBT
c) Sales tax
d) Income tax
______________
-5-
*SLRUM391*
SLR-UM 391
Seat
No.
B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ENTREPRENEURSHIP (Elective III)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
PART II
Instruction : Solve any three questions from each Section.

SECTION I
2. a) Define the term Entrepreneur. Explain the various traits of a successful
entrepreneur.
b) Explain in detail the rate of Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) to

expand the business.
3. Explain the following in detail :

a) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).
b) Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI).
c) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
4. a) What do you mean by project feasibility ? Discuss the concept of marketing

feasibility of the project.
b) Define entrepreneurship. Distinguish between entrepreneur and

entrepreneurship.
5. Being a civil engineer you want to start your own business unit. Write in detail
whom to approach for what for starting a small scale industry.
13
SLR-UM 391
*SLRUM391*
-6-
SECTION II
6. a) Following is the balance sheet of a company as on 31st March.
Liabilities
Share capital
Rs.
2,00,000
Assets
Rs.
Land and buildings
1,40,000
P and L Account
30,000
Plant and machinery stock
3,50,000
General reserve
40,000
Stock
2,00,000
12% debentures
4,20,000
Sundry details
1,00,000
Sundry creditors
1,00,000
Bills receivable
10,000
Cash at bank
40,000
Bills payable
50,000
Calculate :
i) Current ratio
ii) Quick ratio
iii) Inventory to working capital
iv) Proprietary ratio
v) Current assets to fixed assets.
b) What do you mean by ratio analysis ? Discuss about various types of ratios
and its significance.
10
4
7. a) The fixed cost for the product is Rs. 1,00,000/-. The estimated sales is
Rs. 3,00,000. The variable cost per unit for the single product is Rs. 5/-. If
each unit sales at Rs. 30/- and number of units involved coincides with expected
volume of output. Construct Break Even Chart and determine :
a) BEP in quantity
b) BEP in Rs.
c) Margin of safety
d) Angle of incidence.
b) Define the term tax. Explain various types of direct and indirect tax.
8. a) What do you mean by sales promotion ? Discuss in detail various consumers
and distributors sales promotion techniques.
b) Explain in detail the steps for goal setting.
9. Write in detail project report on Fly Ash Brick.
______________
6
8
5
13
Code No.
SLR-UM 392
Seat
No.
*SLRUM392*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (CSE) (Part II) Examination, 2014

MOBILE APPLICATION DEVELOPMENT (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) Android is ___________ mobile native platform governed by OHA.

a) An open source
b) A closed source
c) A proprietary
2) Version of an Android app is specified in ___________

a) AndroidManifest.xml
b) strings.xml
c) project.properties
d) version.xml
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 392
-2-
DO
*SLRUM392*
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
3) The task of intent filter is

a) To filter out intents that components are willing to receive
b) To filter out intents from generating events
c) To filter out intents to receive according the type of triggers
4) Immediate parent class of activity is ?
a) Object
b) Context
c) ActivityGroup
d) ContextThemeWrapper
5) ___________ are used to share the data across the all applications.
a) Shared preferences
b) Internal storage
c) Content provider
d) SQLite databases
6) Suppose MyView is a class derived from View and mView is a

variable of type MyView. Which of the following should be used to
display mView when the Android application is started ?
a) Call set CurrentView(mView) in the stratApp() of the main
application class
b) Call setContentView(mView) in the startApp() of the main
application class
c) Call setCurrentView(mView) in the onCreate() of the main
application class
d) Call setContentView (mView) in the onCreate() of the main
application class
*SLRUM392*
-3-
SLR-UM 392
7) Which of the following function calls can be used to start a Service

from your Android application ?
a) runService
b) startService
c) startActivity
d) launchService
8) Which of the following is/are appropriate for saving the state of an

Android application ?
a) Activity.onFreeze()
b) Activity.onPause()
c) Activity.onStop()
d) Acivity.onDestroy()
9) Which of the following can be used to bind data from an SQL database
to a ListView in an Android application ?
a) SQLLiteAdapter
b) SQLiteCursor
c) SimpleAdapter
d) SimpleCursorAdapter
10) The ContentProvider class is used

a) To play rich media content files
b) To create and publish rich media files
c) To share data between Android applications
d) To access the global information about an application environment
11) Shared Preferences store values in form of ___________
a) Key-Value pairs
b) Array structure
c) Tree structure
d) Tags
12) Status data of an app is exposed to the rest of the Android system via
a) Content provider
b) Intents
c) Broadcast receivers
13) In android animation, Frame by Frame animation is also referred to

as ___________
a) View animation
b) Property animation
c) Drawable animation
SLR-UM 392
-4-
*SLRUM392*
14) Which class lets you access devices sensors

a) Sensor
b) SensorEvent
c) SensorManager
d) SensorEventListener
15) Android JUnit framework is used to perform ___________ testing of

android apps.
a) Unit testing
c) Black box testing
d) White box testing
16) Usability testing of an app is a ___________ to ensure that the app

is easy to understand and use.
c) Unit testing
d) Quality testing
17) Before distributing an app online, it has to be signed by the developer/

organization to ensure its ___________
a) Integrity
b) Credibility
c) Authenticity
d) Originality
18) In app Audio Video Playback is achieved with help of ___________

API.
a) MediaPlayer
b) MediaRecorder
c) MultimediaPlayer
19) If applications main thread takes more than ___________ seconds

to respond, then ANR is popped up.
a) 3 sec
b) 5 sec
c) 7 sec
d) 10 sec
20) Automatic black-box UI testing of Android app is done with help of

a) MoneyTalk
b) Robotium
c) Android J Unit Framework
_____________________
*SLRUM392*
-5-
SLR-UM 392
Seat
No.

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Attempt any four (each question carries 5 marks) :
20
a) State and explain features and characteristics of Android Operating System.

b) What are hardware requirements for Android OS considering version
Gingerbread version ?
c) Define AVD. Differentiate between an emulator and a simulator.
d) Illustrate the purpose of res folder in the Android project structure.
e) Define Broadcast Receivers and Explain its use.
3. Define the procedure to navigate between activities and exchange data between
them.
10
OR
Illustrate Activity life-cycle states and respective callback methods.

4. Explain event-handling paradigm with the help of an UI element.
10
10
SECTION II
a) Illustrate data persistence and access using shared preference.
b) List popular audio and video formats supported by Android.
c) Define types of animations supported by Android with examples.
20
SLR-UM 392
-6-
*SLRUM392*
d) Outline the features of Location Services in Android.

e) Define categories of Sensors available in Android and List at least two sensors
in each category.
6. Explain the various mechanisms to distribute a mobile app with pros and cons
of each mechanism.
10
OR
Briefly discuss following common device sensors :
10
1) Accelerometer
2) Gyroscope
3) Proximity sensor
4) Magnetometer
5) Light sensor.
7. Enlist various mechanisms of data persistence and access in mobile apps.
Highlight the pros and cons of each mechanism.
_______________
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 393
Seat
No.
*SLRUM393*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
20
1) Android is ___________ mobile native platform governed by OHA.

a) An open source
b) A closed source
c) A proprietary
2) Version of an Android app is specified in ___________

a) AndroidManifest.xml
b) strings.xml
c) project.properties
d) version.xml
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 393
-2-
DO
*SLRUM393*
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
3) The task of intent filter is

a) To filter out intents that components are willing to receive
b) To filter out intents from generating events
c) To filter out intents to receive according the type of triggers
4) Immediate parent class of activity is ?
a) Object
b) Context
c) ActivityGroup
d) ContextThemeWrapper
5) ___________ are used to share the data across the all applications.
a) Shared preferences
b) Internal storage
c) Content provider
d) SQLite databases
6) Suppose MyView is a class derived from View and mView is a

variable of type MyView. Which of the following should be used to
display mView when the Android application is started ?
a) Call set CurrentView(mView) in the stratApp() of the main
application class
b) Call setContentView(mView) in the startApp() of the main
application class
c) Call setCurrentView(mView) in the onCreate() of the main
application class
d) Call setContentView (mView) in the onCreate() of the main
application class
*SLRUM393*
-3-
SLR-UM 393
7) Which of the following function calls can be used to start a Service

from your Android application ?
a) runService
b) startService
c) startActivity
d) launchService
8) Which of the following is/are appropriate for saving the state of an

Android application ?
a) Activity.onFreeze()
b) Activity.onPause()
c) Activity.onStop()
d) Acivity.onDestroy()
9) Which of the following can be used to bind data from an SQL database
to a ListView in an Android application ?
a) SQLLiteAdapter
b) SQLiteCursor
c) SimpleAdapter
d) SimpleCursorAdapter
10) The ContentProvider class is used

a) To play rich media content files
b) To create and publish rich media files
c) To share data between Android applications
d) To access the global information about an application environment
11) Shared Preferences store values in form of ___________
a) Key-Value pairs
b) Array structure
c) Tree structure
d) Tags
12) Status data of an app is exposed to the rest of the Android system via
a) Content provider
b) Intents
c) Broadcast receivers
13) In android animation, Frame by Frame animation is also referred to

as ___________
a) View animation
b) Property animation
c) Drawable animation
SLR-UM 393
-4-
*SLRUM393*
14) Which class lets you access devices sensors

a) Sensor
b) SensorEvent
c) SensorManager
d) SensorEventListener
15) Android JUnit framework is used to perform ___________ testing of

android apps.
a) Unit testing
c) Black box testing
d) White box testing
16) Usability testing of an app is a ___________ to ensure that the app

is easy to understand and use.
c) Unit testing
d) Quality testing
17) Before distributing an app online, it has to be signed by the developer/

organization to ensure its ___________
a) Integrity
b) Credibility
c) Authenticity
d) Originality
18) In app Audio Video Playback is achieved with help of ___________

API.
a) MediaPlayer
b) MediaRecorder
c) MultimediaPlayer
19) If applications main thread takes more than ___________ seconds

to respond, then ANR is popped up.
a) 3 sec
b) 5 sec
c) 7 sec
d) 10 sec
20) Automatic black-box UI testing of Android app is done with help of

a) MoneyTalk
b) Robotium
c) Android J Unit Framework
_____________________
*SLRUM393*
-5-
SLR-UM 393
Seat
No.
B.E. (IT) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
20
a) State and explain features and characteristics of Android Operating System.

b) What are hardware requirements for Android OS considering version
Gingerbread version ?
c) Define AVD. Differentiate between an emulator and a simulator.
d) Illustrate the purpose of res folder in the Android project structure.
e) Define Broadcast Receivers and Explain its use.
3. Define the procedure to navigate between activities and exchange data between
them.
10
OR
Illustrate Activity life-cycle states and respective callback methods.

4. Explain event-handling paradigm with the help of an UI element.
10
10
SECTION II
a) Illustrate data persistence and access using shared preference.
b) List popular audio and video formats supported by Android.
c) Define types of animations supported by Android with examples.
20
SLR-UM 393
-6-
*SLRUM393*
d) Outline the features of Location Services in Android.

e) Define categories of Sensors available in Android and List at least two sensors
in each category.
6. Explain the various mechanisms to distribute a mobile app with pros and cons
of each mechanism.
10
OR
Briefly discuss following common device sensors :
10
1) Accelerometer
2) Gyroscope
3) Proximity sensor
4) Magnetometer
5) Light sensor.
7. Enlist various mechanisms of data persistence and access in mobile apps.
Highlight the pros and cons of each mechanism.
_______________
10
SLR-UM 394
Code No.
S
*SLRUM394*
&
a
D
U
s
f
C
Instruction : Each MCQ question carries two marks.

Marks : 20
Choose the correct answer :

1. Which of the following is not role of government in Public Private Partnership ?
a) Ensure transparency
b) Ensure value for money
c) Expertise and innovation
d) Identify needs in terms of output
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 394
-2-
DO
T
NO
*SLRUM394*
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2. Which of the following is role of private sector in Public Private Partnership ?

a) Access to private finance
b) Sufficient return to investors
c) Providing the facility and service
d) All of the above
3. Which of the following is not type of contract ?
a) Service contracts
b) Lease-develop-operate or buy
c) Design build
d) Lease-develop-operate and buy
4. Which of the following is not one of the key challenges for sustainability ?
a) Water
b) Energy
c) Waste
5. What is meant by the term BOO ?
a) Build Operate Own
c) Build Opt Operate
d) Rural development
b) Build Own Operate
d) Building Own Operate
6. Which of the following is suitable as VGF scheme ?

a) Viability Gap Funding Scheme
b) Viability Gap Finance Scheme
c) Volatile Gap Funding Scheme
d) Volatile Growth Funding scheme
*SLRUM394*
-3-
SLR-UM 394
7. Which of the following is correct term for DBFM ?

a) Design Build Finance Maintain
b) Design Building Finance Maintain
c) Design Build Finance Manage
d) Develop Build Finance Manage
8. Which of following is not the principle aspect of sustainable development ?
a) Energy
b)
Environmental
c) Social
d)
Economic
9. Which of the following is benefit for Private sector of Public Private

Partnership ?
a) Innovative solutions
b) Export opportunities
c) Construction management
d) Sharing the assets
10. Which of the following is not principle of Public Private Partnership ?
a) Ownership by stakeholder
b) Joint venture
c) Simplicity in usage and management
d) Flexibility
______________________
*SLRUM394*
S
-5-
SLR-UM 394

Elective II : INFRASTRUCTURAL ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I and any three
questions from Section II.
2) Assume necessary data if required and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
1. a) Explain the term Life Cycle Costing (LCC) :
b) Give the list and explain major issues in Railway sector ?
4
10
2. a) What are the disadvantages of Public Private Partnership ?

b) Explain the challenges in privatization of water supply.
4
9
3. a) Explain in brief output based aid contracts ?

b) What are the points to be considered in Public Private Partnership to
protect the public interest ?
4
9
4. a) Draw a schematic diagram for project management execution activities.

b) Explain in detail project management execution activities ?
4
9
SECTION II
5. a) Write a short note on project closure activities.
b) Draw and explain a schematic diagram of work flow of five phase project
management.
6. a) Explain risk identification in detail.
b) Explain risk allocation in Public Private Partnership project to private sector.
7. Discuss the issues limiting greater participation of the private sector in the
development of road project through the Public Private Partnership route ?
8. a) Write short note on technology and innovation.
b) What are the main advantages of adopting sustainability principles for
building and infrastructure ?
_____________________
4
10
4
9
13
4
9
SLR-UM 395
Code No.
S
*SLRUM395*
&
y
a
s
U
_
_

Marks : 10
10
I) Earth day is celebrated on _____________

A) 22nd April
B) 22nd May
C) 22nd June
D) 22nd July
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 395
-2-
DO
T
NO
*SLRUM395*
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
II) The environment word come from _____________ language.

A) Roman
B) French
C) Greek
D) Latin
III) The greatest source of energy on the earth is __________

A) Wind
B) Water
C) Sun
D) Coal
IV) ______________ is renewable natural resources.

A) Coal
B) Iron-ore
C) Natural oil
D) Water
V) _______________ percent of earth geographical area is under water.

A) 71%
B) 81%
C) 61%
D) 51%
VI) The main source of air pollution in India is _____________

A) Automobiles
B) Industrialization
C) Forest fire
D) Nuclear explosion
*SLRUM395*
-3-
SLR-UM 395
VII) Save Silent Valley Movement occurred in _________________

A) Goa
B) Kerala
C) Gujarat
D) Tamilnadu
VIII) Mention the year of Earth Summit.

A) 1952
B) 1962
C) 1972
D) 1982
IX) The Air Prevention and Control Act was passed by central government
in the year _________________
A) 1974
B) 1981
C) 1972
D) 1982
X) Acid rain is a result of ________________ pollution.

A) Land
B) Noise
C) Air
D) Water
______________________
*SLRUM395*
-5-
SLR-UM 395
S.E. (Part II) (All Branches) Examination, 2014

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES
Day and Date : Sunday, 25-5-2014
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 12.00 noon
Marks : 40

2. Write short answer of the following (any four out of six) :
a) Importance of environmental studies

b) Causes of deforestation
c) Causes of land pollution
d) World food problem
e) Forest ecosystem
f) Food chains.
3. Write short notes of the following (any four out of six) :
12
a) Need of environmental awareness.

b) Causes of AIDS.
c) What is sustainable development ?
d) Nuclear hazards.
e) Remedies of air pollution.
f) Narmada Movement.
4. a) What is pollution ? Discuss the causes and effects of water pollution in India. 10
OR
b) Elaborate various measures to protect the environment.
5. Explain the effect of Global Warming and suggest control measures of it.
_____________________
10
SLR-UM 4
*SLRUM4*
Seat
No.
Set

APPLIED MECHANICS
Max. Marks : 100
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Q. No. 1 is MCQ which is compulsory.

In Section I, solve any 3 questions.
In Section II Solve any 3 questions.
Assume additional data if necessary and mention it clearly.
Marks : 20
SECTION I
1. Give the correct option for following MCQ :

1) The unit of moment is
a) N/m
b) Ns
c) Nm
d) N/m2
2) The condition of equilibrium for non-concurrent co-planer force system are
a) fx = 0, fy = 0
b) fx = 0, fy = 0, fz = 0
c) fx = 0, fy = 0, Mz = 0
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 4
*SLRUM4*
-2-
3) Force required to start the motion is
a) Less than that required for keeping it in motion

b) More than that required for keeping it in motion
c) Same as that of required for keeping it in motion
d) All of above
4) The first moment of an area about X axis is
a)
x dA
c)
dA
b)
y dA
d)
dA
5) The polar moment of inertia of a circular area of diameter D is

D4
a)
64
D4
b)
32
D4
c)
16
D4
d)
8
6) Work done is zero when,
a) The motion is at right angle to direction of force

b) The body is in equilibrium
c) The displacement is zero
d) All of these
7) The reaction at support A of the beam as shown in fig. 1 is
a) 10 kN
b) 12.5 kN
c) 25 kN
d) 6.25 kN
Set A
*SLRUM4*
SLR-UM 4
-3-
8) The moment of inertia about X-X axis of hatched area as shown in Fig. 2 is
a) 342.46 cm4
b) 1324.206 cm4
c) 833.333 cm4
d) 490.873 cm4
SECTION II
9) A body is moving with a velocity of 2 m/s. After 4 seconds the velocity of the
body becomes 5 m/s. The acceleration of the body is
a) 0.5 m/sec2
b) 0.75 m/sec2
c) 1 m/sec2
d) 1.5 m/sec2
10) A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is
given by s = 3t2 + 7t2 + 14t + s. The acceleration of particle at t = 1sec. is
a) 18 m/s2
b) 32 m/s2
c) 29m/s2
d) 24 m/s2
11) A particle is dropped from a height h above the ground. Assuming negligible
air resistance, the velocity with which it will strikes the ground is
a) 2gh
c)
2gh2
b)
2gh
d) 2 gh
12) A projectile will cover the maximum vertical distance in minimum time, if the
angle of projection is
a) 20
b) 45
c) 80
d) 90
Set A
SLR-UM 4
*SLRUM4*
-4-
13) The principal which converts a dynamic problem into static problem is known
as
a) DAlemberts principle
b) Principal of conservation of energy
c) Principal of transmissibility
d) Principal of conservation
14) A steel ball is dropped from a height h1 onto a steel plate and rebounds to a
height h2. The coefficient of restitution between the ball and plate will be
a)
c)
h1
h2
h2
2h1
b)
h2
2h 1
d)
h2
h1
15) There is no loss of kinetic energy in
a) Perfectly elastic impact
b) Partially elastic impact
c) Perfectly plastic impact
d) None of these
Set A
*SLRUM4*
-5-
SLR-UM 4
Time : 21/2 Hours

Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80
In Section I, solve any 3 questions.
In Section II Solve any 3 questions.
Assume additional data if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. A) What do you understand by equilibrant ? How it is evaluated ?
B) A bracket is subjected to forces and couples as shown in figure 2.1. Determine

direction and line of action of the resultant along line AB from point A.
3. A) What is the characteristics of Roller support ? Explain with sketch.

B) Find reactions at A and B of beam as shown in Fig. 3.1.
10
3
10
Set A
SLR-UM 4
-6-
*SLRUM4*
4. A) Compare method of section and method of joint of truss analysis.
B) Find forces in the members CD, GD and GH of the truss as shown in Fig. 4.1.
5. A) Explain the term Radius of Gyration. What is its application ?
10
B) Determine moment of inertia about centroidal x-x axis for shaded area as
shown in Fig. 5.1.
Note : All dimensions are in mm
10
Set A
*SLRUM4*
-7-
SLR-UM 4
SECTION II
6. A) State and explain DAlemberts principle.
B) Two rough planes inclined at 30 and 60 to horizontal are placed back to back
as shown in figure 6.1. The blocks of weights 50 N and 100 N are placed on the
faces and are connected by a string running parallel to planes and passing over
a frictionless pulley. If the coefficient of friction between planes and blocks is
1/3, find the resulting acceleration and tension in the string.
10
7. A) State the impulse-momentum principle and derive its expression.
B) Determine the constant force P that will give the system of bodies shown in
figure 7.1 a velocity of 3 m/s after moving 4.5 m from rest. Coefficient of friction
between the blocks and plane is 0.3 pulleys are smooth.
10
Set A
SLR-UM 4
-8-
*SLRUM4*
8. A) What is super elevation ? What is its necessity ? How is it provided ?
B) A bullet is fired from a height of 240 m at a velocity of 360 kmph at an angle of

30 upwords. Neglecting air resistance, find
a) Total time of flight
b) Horizontal range of the bullet
c) Maximum height reached by the bullet.
9. A) Define motion curves and explain the characteristics of motion curves.
9
4
B) The motion of particle is defined by the relation x = t2 (t 3)3 where x and t

are expressed in meters and seconds respectively. Determine.
a) Time when acceleration is zero.
b) Position and velocity of that particle at that time.
_____________
Set A
Code No.
*SLR-UM-41*
SLR-UM 41
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
N.B. : 1) Q. 1 is objective MCQ type to be solved in first 30 minutes.

2) Q. 2 is compulsory. Answer any two questions out of Q. 3
to Q. 5 in Section I.
3) Answer all questions in Section II.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct alternative (1 mark each) :
20
1) Planning involves
a) Goal oriented Process
b) Continuous process
c) Involves decision making
d) All the above

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 41
*SLR-UM-41*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Marketing is
a) Consumer oriented
b) Competitor oriented
c) Both a) and b)
d) Distribution channel oriented
3) Management approach is
a) Classical management
b) Behavioural
c) System
d) All the above
4) Which is not the objective of material management ?

a) Minimize material cost
b) Increase the demand of the product
c) Insure continuous production
d) Improve quality of goods
5) Major elements of queuing system are
a) Customer
b) Queue
c) Service Channel
d) All the above
6) Decision under ______________ includes consequences of each alternative

are contingent upon same probabilistic event.
a) Risk
b) Uncertainty
c) Certainty
d) None
*SLR-UM-41*
SLR-UM 41
-3-
7) Decisions taken by the executive in the official capacity are called

a) Personal
b) Organisational
c) Group
d) Individual
8) In LPP restrictions are

a) Non negative
b) Positive
c) Zero
d) Both a) and c)
9) Graphical method of LPP is useful when problem involve ______________

constraints.
a) Three
b) One
c) Two
d) None
10) An optimal solution results when all index numbers are ______________ in
simplex method.
a) Negative
b) Non positive
c) Positive
d) All above
11) Policy is ______________ plan.

a) Single
b) Standing
c) Prime
d) Natural
12) MBO is developed by

a) Gilberth
b) Peter Drucker
c) Fayol
d) Taylor
13) Which is not principle of organising ?

a) Span of control
b) Unity of command
c) Scalar chain
d) Principle of subjective
14) Which factor affect the marketing environment ?

a) Cultural
b) Technological
c) Economic
d) All above
SLR-UM 41
*SLR-UM-41*
-4-
15) Manufacturer-Retailer-Consumer is ______________

a) Channel of distribution
b) Advertisement
c) Promotion
d) None
16) ABC analysis considers

a) Total consumption of items
b) Total amount of items
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
17) Pure strategy games are those in which both players.

a) Play more than one strategy
b) Employ fresh strategies every time the act is played
c) Stay with one strategy throughout
d) Play 3 strategies
18) Which of the following method will be minimum cost for IBFS in transportation
problem ?
a) NWC
b) Least cost
c) VAM
d) None
19) Row wise and column wise difference between two minimum cost in VAM
method is called
a) Capital cost
b) Fixed cost
c) Variable cost
d) None
20) LPP deals with problem involving only ______________ objective.

a) Single
b) Dual
c) Primal
d) All the above

______________________
*SLR-UM-41*
-5-
SLR-UM 41
Seat
No.

ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
N.B. : 1) Q. 2 is compulsory. Answer any two questions out of Q. 3

to Q. 5 in Section I.
2) Answer all questions in Section II.
SECTION I
2. A) What are the principles of scientific management ? Explain each in short.
B) What are the functions of Management ? Explain each in short.
3. A) Write note on Management by objectives.
B) What are the costs associated with inventories ? Write the expression for
calculating each of them separately.
9
5
8
5
4. A) What are major responsibilities of stores management ? Explain each in short. 8

B) Write a note on A-B-C (Always Better Control) technique of inventory control. 5
5. A) Discuss the various factors influencing the Buyer Behaviour.
B) Explain marketing mix or four Ps of marketing.

SECTION II
6. a) Answer any one :
1) Find the dual of the following :

Min Z = 2x1 + 3x2 + 4x3 + 5x4
s/t
3x2 + 5x4 3
5x1 + 6x2 + 8x3 5
2x1 4x3 x4 8
x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 4
Where
x1, x2, x3, x4 0
2) What is linear programming ?
SLR-UM 41
*SLR-UM-41*
-6-
b) Answer any one of the following :
10
1) A company manufactures two products A and B. Both product pass through

machine M1 and M2. The time required to process each unit of product
A and B on each machine centre and available capacity of each machine
is given below :
Machine centre
Product
(processing time / unit hours)

M1
M2
3600
2000
Available Hrs./Weeks
Each unit of product A gives a profit of Rs. 25/- while each unit of product
B gives profit of Rs. 20/- How much quantity of each product should be
manufactured to maximize profit ? Solve by Graphical method.
2)
Destination
Source
Demand
Supply
300
400
500
250
350
400
200
Find initial Basic Feasible solution for the following Transportation problem
by Least Cost Method.
7. A) Answer any one note :
1) Simulation
2) Dynamic programming.
*SLR-UM-41*
SLR-UM 41
-7-
B) A news paper boy has following probabilities of selling magazine

No. of copies to be solve
10
11
12
13
14
Probability
.1
.15
.20
.25
.30
Cost of copy is 30 paise and sales price is 50 paise He can not return
unsold copies. How many copies he should order ? Construct pay off
matrix and solve by EMV.
10
OR
B) Consider the problem of assigning four sales person to different sales
region such that total sales is maximized.
Sales
P Q
1 10 22
2 16 18
Salesman
3 24 20
4 16 14
Region
R S
12 14
22 10
12 18
24 20
10
12
a) What is mean by feasible region, feasible solution, plotting line and corner
points in Graphical method ?
b) Enlist the characteristics of Queuing model.
c) Write a note on Fuzzy logic.
d) Discuss in short about Decision making environment.
___________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 42
*SLRUM42*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------T.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N.B. : Assume any required/missing data suitably.

Marks : 20
I. Tick mark the correct answer (Each question carry 1 mark) :
20
1) The maximum width of vehicle as per IRC

a) 1.85 m
b) 2.30 m
c) 2.44 m
d) 3.1 m
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 42
*SLRUM42*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Design of horizontal curve on highway is based on

a) Design speed
b) Friction
c) Max S.E.
d) All
3) For a constant value of co-efficient of lateral friction the value of required S.E.
increases with
a) Increase in speed and with decrease in radius of curve
b) Decrease in both speed and radius of curve
c) Increase in both speed and radius of curve
d) Decrease in speed and with increase in radius of curve
4) What is S.S.D. for design speed of 60 Kmph, 2-way traffic on a 2-lane road.
Assuming f = 0.37
a) 80 m
b) 75 m
c) 82 m
d) 78 m
5) Which one of the following is taken into consideration while determine O.S.D.
in 2-lane 2 way highway ?
a) Distance covered during reaction time
b) Distance covered during overtaking operation
c) Reaction distance + overtaking distance
d) None
6) Select the correct statement.
a) Traffic capacity should be more than traffic volume
b) 85th percentile speed is more than 98th percentile speed
c) Spot speed is the average speed of a vehicle at a specified section
d) S.D. is the sum of lag distance + break distance + skid distance
*SLRUM42*
SLR-UM 42
-3-
7) Traffic conflicts that may occur in a rotary intersection

a) Merging and diverging
b) Crossing and merging
c) Crossing and diverging
d) Crossing, diverging and merging
8) IRC recommended valve for reaction time for calculation of stopping distance
is
b) 3 Sec.
a) 2 Sec.
c) 2.5 Sec.
d) 1.5 Sec.
9) Mechanical widening can be calculated by using the formula
2
a) n l
2R
2
b) (n1)
2R
nl
c)
2R
2
d) nl
2R
10) The suitable surfacing material for a bridge desk slab is

a) Bituminous carpet
b) Mastic asphalt
c) Bituminous concrete
d) Sheet asphalt
11) Formula to find the most economical span length

a) l =
a
P
b) l =
a
P
c) l =
P
a
d) l =
P
a
12) When a stream crosses a road with its linear water way between 6 to 60 m,
the cross drianage structure provided is called as
b) Major bridge
a) Minor bridge
c) Culvert
d) Viaduct
13) Suspension bridge, arch bridge, cable suspended bridge all these are types
of bridge are classified based on
a) Material
b) Function
c) Type of super-structure
d) Type of sub-structure
SLR-UM 42
*SLRUM42*
-4-
14) Selection of bridge site depends on

a) Grade of alignment
b) Stream characteristic
c) Geological condition
d) All the above
15) From crushing test on aggregates _________ property can be found out.
a) Strength
b) Toughness
c) Hardness
d) Soundness
16) Empirical formula commonly applied to obtain thickness of lining is

a) T = 90D
b) T = 82D
c) T =
d) T =
82 D
90D
17) Needle beam method is used for

a) Tunneling in hard rock
b) Tunneling in soft rocks
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
18) Explosives used in blasting in tunnels are

a) RDX
b) TNT
c) PENT
d) All
19) Ventilation provided at the time of construction, such ventilation system is

known as
a) Permanent ventilation
b) at-site
c) Temporary
d) None
20) Vertical tunnels reaching from ground surface down to tunnel invert are called
as
a) Sunk
b) Wedges
c) Shafts
d) Monkey drifts
___________________
*SLRUM42*
-5-
SLR-UM 42
Seat
No.

TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING I
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
N.B. : Assume any required/missing data suitably.

SECTION I
II. Answer any three question :
1) For aggregate passing 40 mm seive and retained on 20 mm sieve following
readings are noted
* Weight of basket + sample
= 960 gm
* Weight of basket
= 110 gm
* Weight of saturated surface = 1310 gm dry sample
* Weight of oven dried sample = 1280 gm
Calculate,
i) Specific gravity
ii) Apparent Sp. gravity
iii) Water absorption.
2) Calculate the minimum S.D. required to avoid a head-on-collision of 2 cars
approaching from opposite direction at 85 and 70 kmph co-efficient of friction
of 0.7 and a brake efficiency of 50% in either case.
3) C.C pavement is constructed using the following data :
* Modulus of elasticity of concrete = 3105 kg/cm2
* Poisons ratio = 0.15
* Thickness of C.C. pavement = 19 cm
* Modulus of subgrade reaction = 2.5 kg/cm2.
* Wheel load = 5.1 t
* Radius of loaded area = 15 cm.
Calculate stresses at interior, edge and corner by Western guard method.
4) Calculate the length of transition curve and the shift using the following data
* Design speed = 85 kmph
* Radius of curve = 250 m
* Allowable rate of introduction of = 1 in 150
S.E. (pavement rotated about centre line)
* Pavement width including extra-widening = 7.7 m.
SLR-UM 42
*SLRUM42*
-6-
III. Answer any three question :

1) Write the fullform of following abbreviation :
a) IRC
d) MDR
b) CBR
e) MORTH
c) O.S.D.
f) CRRI
g) WBM
h) GSB
i) RDX
j) MOST
k) CRF
l) G.I method.
2) Write a short notes on Biluminous material.
6
6
3) Explain PIEV theory with neat sketch.
4) Discuss the infrastructure development pertaining to Highway.
SECTION II
IV. Answer three question (First question is compulsory).
1) A bridge has a linear waterway of 220m constructed across a stream
whose natural linear waterway is 280m. If the average flood discharge is
1500m3/sec. and average flood depth is 3.5 m. Calculate afflux under the
bridge.
2) At the time of estimating the cost of a multiple span bridge cost of a multiple
span bridge the approximate cost of one super structure span and one pierase
tabulated below for various span length. Find the economical span :
Span (m)
Super Structure Cost (Rs.) 4,000

Sub-Structure Cost (Rs.)
9
9,000
12
15
18
17,000
26,000 36,000
26,000 26,500 28,000
30,000 32,000
3) Explain IRC class AA loading.
4) Explain well foundation in detail with neat sketch.
V. Answer three question (First question is compulsory).

1) With neat sketches explain different shapes of tunnel and discuss its
application advantages and disadvantages.
2) Describe heading and bench method of tunneling hard rock.
3) Write a short notes on tunnel lining.

4) Short notes on blasting in tunnel.
6
6
___________________
Code No. SLR-UM
43
*SLRUM43*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

STRUCTURAL MECHANICS III
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Q.No.1 is MCQ which is compulsory.

In Section I, solve any three questions.
In Section II, Q. No. 6 is compulsory.
Assume additional data if required and mention it clearly.
Figure to right indicates full marks.

1) The fixed end moment for beam at A as shown in figure is
a) 0
b)
M
2
c)
M
4
Marks : 20
20
1
d)
M
8
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 43
*SLRUM43*
-2-
DO
T
NO
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Static indeterminacy of continuous beam as shown in figure is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
3) Kinematic indeterminacy of frame is
a) 8
c) 6
b) 5
d) 7
4) According to costiglons second thm work done due to redundant is

always ___________
a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Zero
d)
5) For analysis of force method following condition is used
a) Displacement
b) Compatibility condition
c) Equilibrium eqn
d) None of above
*SLRUM43*
SLR-UM 43
-3-
6) A two hinged semi-circular arch of radius R carries a concentrated load w at

the crown the horizontal thrust is
a)
w
2
b)
c)
2w
3
d)
7) Following is one of method for structural analysis.

a) Moment method
b) Force method
c) Runge-kutta method
d) Conjugate beam method
8) Flexibility matrix for beam shown in fig.
64
3EI
a) 8
EI
8
EI
64
EI
64
3EI
b) 8
EI
8
EI
64
3EI
64
3EI
c) 8
EI
8
EI
4
3EI
64
3EI
d) 4
EI
8
EI
8
EI
9) Moment distribution method is developed by

a) Hardy cross
b) Castigliano
c) Betti
d) Maxwell
10) Fixed end moment for a span of L carrying UDL of w is
Pab 2
a)
L2
wL2
b)
12
wL
c)
2
wL3
d)
12
11) Joint stiffness is ______________

a) Ratio of highest stiffness to lowest stiffness of members
meeting at that joint
b) Average of stiffness of members at joint
c) Summation of stiffness of members at the joint
d) None of above
SLR-UM 43
*SLRUM43*
-4-
12) Stiffness method is

a) Displacement method
c) Dynamic method
1
b) Force method
d) None of above
13) Slop deflection equation for member BA of beam shown in fig. 1 is
Fig. 1
a) MBA = MFAB + 4EI 2 A + B 3

L
L
b) MBA = MFBA +
2EI
3
2 A + B
L
L
c) MBA = MFBA + 2EI A + 2B 3

L
L
d) MBA = MFBA +
4EI
3
2 A + B
L
L
14) Distribution factor for BA of beam shown in fig. 2 is
Fig. 2
a) 4 7
c) 0.5
b) 3 7
d) 1
15) Distribution factor for CD of beam shown in fig. 2 is

a) 3 7
c) 0.5
b) 4 7
d) 1
__________________
*SLRUM43*
-5-
SLR-UM 43
Seat
No.
T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

STRUCTURAL MECHANICS III
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) In Section I, solve any three questions.

2) In Section II, Q. No. 6 is compulsory.
3) Assume additional data if required and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. Determine all the support reactions and draw S.F.D. and B.M.D. for beam as
shown in figure 1. If supports A, B, C and D settle by 20 mm, 40 mm, 50 mm and
14 mm respectively. Take E = 2 105 N/mm2
I = 3 108 mm4.
Figure 1
14
SLR-UM 43
-6-
*SLRUM43*
3. Draw B.M.D. for two hinged portal frame as shown in figure 2. Use energy
principle.
14
Figure 2
4. Draw B.M.D. using flexibility matrix method for beam as shown in figure 3.
12
Figure 3
5. a) State and explain Maxwell reciprocal theorem for deflection.
b) Differentiate between force and displacement method.
c) State and explain use of degree of static and kinematic indeterminancy.
*SLRUM43*
-7-
SLR-UM 43
SECTION II
6. Answer any three of following :
(34=12)
a) State the advantages and limitations of slope deflection method.

b) Explain how you will distinguish between sway frame and non sway frame.
c) State the concept of stiffness method and also state its advantages.
d) What is Distribution factor ? What is its importance in the structural
analysis ?
7. Analyze the frame shown in fig. 7.1 by slope deflection method. Draw Bending
moment diagram.
14
Fig. 7.1
8. Calculate moment induced at ends if support B sinks down by 30 mm. Draw
BMD. Solve by moment distribution method. Take E = 2 105 N/mm2,
I = 3 106 mm4. Refer Fig. 8.1.
Fig. 8.1
14
SLR-UM 43
-8-
*SLRUM43*
9. Analyze the frame shown in Fig. 9.1 by stiffness method. Draw BMD.
Fig. 9.1
______________
14
Code No. SLR-UM 44

Seat
No.
*SLRUM44*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Question 1 (Multiple choice questions) is compulsory.

2) Question 2 from Section I and Question 6 from Section II
are compulsory.
3) Solve any two questions (other than Question 2 and 6) from
each Section.
4) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and state them.
5) Use of electronic calculator and relevant I.S. codes are allowed.
Marks : 20
1. A) Tick the appropriate option :
(18)
1) The maximum pressure intensity which a soil can carry without shear
failure is known as its
b) ultimate bearing capacity
a) safe bearing capacity
c) net safe bearing capacity
d) net ultimate bearing capacity
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 44
*SLRUM44*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) As per IS : 1904 (1986), the permissible settlement of isolated foundation

on sand is ___________
a) 25 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 60 mm
d) 75 mm
3) An SPT is useful for (i) cohesionless soils, (ii) medium clays, (iii) very
stiff clays, (iv) gravels :
a) (ii) and (iii)
b) (i) and (iv)
c) (i) and (ii)
d) (i) and (iii)
4) The efficiency of pile group depends on

a) soil type
b) method of pile installation
c) pile spacing
d) all of these
5) The maximum depth of pneumatic caisson is usually limited to
a) 10 m
b) 20 m
c) 80 m
d) 40 m
6) The most common disturbing agent affecting the stability of the slope is
a) the soil mass forming the slope
b) a seismic force
c) an external load
d) seepage
*SLRUM44*
SLR-UM 44
-3-
7) When the area of all the footings covers more than fifty percent of the area
of the structure, a ____________ foundation is considered more suitable.
a) Raft
b) Trapezoidal
c) Rectangular
d) Strap
8) In a cantilever-sheet pile wall, the rotation is about

a) the bottom of the wall
b) the dredge level
c) above the bottom but below the dredge level
d) the top of the wall
B) Tick the appropriate option :
(26)
1) If the actual observed value of standard penetration resistance N is greater

than 15 in a fine sand below water table, then the equivalent penetration
resistance will be
(N + 15 )
a) 15 +
(N + 15 )
b) 15
(N 15 )
c) 15 +
(15 N)
d) 15 +
2) A deep cut of 5 m has to be made in a clay with unit wt. 19 kN/m3

cohesion of 30 kN/m2. What will be the FOS if the slope angle i = 30.
Take Sn = 0.178.
a) 0.80
b) 1.1
c) 1.77
d) 1.0
3) Two footings, one circular and the other square, are founded in pure clay.
The diameter of the circular footing is the same as the side of the square
footing. The ratio of their net ultimate bearing capacities
a) is unity
b) is 1.3
c) is 1/1.3
d) cannot be determined without some more data
SLR-UM 44
*SLRUM44*
-4-
4) A group of 9 circular piles are to be arranged to have 100% efficiency.

Neglecting end bearing and taking adhesion = 0.6 spacing of piles will
be
a) 2.5 d
b) 3 d
c) 1.6 d
d) 2.2 d
5) The immediate settlement of footing 1 m 2 m size founded at a depth of

1 m in a soil with E = 1 104 kN/m2, = 0.3. The footing is subjected to
a pressure of 200 kN/m2. Assume If = 1.
a) 20.2 mm
b) 18.2 mm
c) 16.2 mm
d) 22.2 mm
6) The factor of safety of an infinite slope in a sand deposit is 1.732. If the
angle of shearing resistance is 30 the safe slope angle will be
a) 19.45
b) 75.4
c) 18.4
d) 71.6
______________
-5-
*SLRUM44*
SLR-UM 44
Seat
No.

GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Question 2 from Section I and Question 6 from Section II

are compulsory.
2) Solve any two questions (other than Question 2 and 6)
from each Section.
4) Use of electronic calculator and relevant I.S. codes are
allowed.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(44=16)
a) Explain the various assumptions in Terzaghis bearing capacity analysis.

b) What care has to be taken during collection and transportation of undisturbed
samples ?
c) Explain the corrections applied in Standard penetration test.
d) Write a note on preloading method of ground improvement.
e) Explain the terms Core Recovery and R.Q.D. in detail also mention its use.
f) What is immediate settlement ? Write the formula to compute the same and
explain the meaning of terms involved in it.
3. A) Calculate the consolidation settlement with following data : foundation size
1.5 m 1.5 m, Load on foundation = 400 kN, depth of foundation = 1.4 m. Soil
density above and below foundation level 17.5 kN/m3. Depth of compressible
stratum below foundation level = 1.5 m. Compression index = 0.27. Initial
void ratio = 0.6. Divide the compressible stratum in 3 equal layers for settlement
computation. Assume 2 : 1 contact pressure distribution.
B) Explain local shear failure with neat sketch.
8
4
4. A) Mention various types of boring. Explain wash boring in detail with neat sketch.8
B) Write a note on planning of soil exploration for various projects.
SLR-UM 44
-6-
5. Write short note on any three :
*SLRUM44*
(43=12)
a) Application of geosynthetics
b) Vibrofloatation
c) Grouting
d) Foundation on collapsible soil
e) Pressuremeter.
SECTION II
6. A) With explanatory sketches, write a note on under-reamed pile foundation
design and construction.
B) A group of 16-piles 300 mm in diameter and 9 m long is arranged in square

pattern with spacing of 1 m c/c. Determine the group efficiency using ConverseLaberre formula and also by Felds rule. Compare the results and comment
about the same.
7. A) Determine the factor of safety of an embankment by the method of slices if

slope is 1.5 : 1 (H : V) and height is 12 m. The values of C and are 50 kN/m2
and 25 respectively, unit weight = 19 kN/m3. Take = 26 and = 35 and
slice width 1.5 m.
B) With the help neat sketch explain the procedure for trapezoidal footing design. 5
8. A) With the help of neat sketch explain the function of various component parts
of pneumatic caisson.
B) Discuss the various forces acting on well foundation.
9. A) Determine the required depth of penetration for the cantilever sheet pile. Dredge
level is 6 m below G.L. Soil properties above and below dredge level are
same. Take = 16 kN/m3 and = 35, C = 0.
B) Explain various types of Coffer dams.
______________
8
5
8
5
Code No.
SLR-UM 45
*SLRUM45*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instruction : Question number One is MCQ/objective type question and

first 30 minutes of total time are reserved for this. After end
of 30 minutes return the objective question paper cum answer
sheet to the supervisor.
Marks : 20
1. Choose correct option and tick mark the same in the box provided against it :
20
1) ____________ is process of removal of suspended solids usually by granular

medium filtration of micro screens.
a) Tertiary treatment
b) Secondary treatment
c) Advanced treatment
d) Primary treatment
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 45
*SLRUM45*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) ____________ is required for respiration of aerobic microorganisms.

a) Hydrogen sulphide
b) Dissolved oxygen
c) Carbohydrates
d) Nutrients
3) ____________ operation is used for removal of suspended and colloidal solids

and dissolved organic and inorganic matter.
a) Membrane filtration
b) Aeration
c) Sedimentation
d) Flocculation
4) The principle type of mixer used for flocculation in wastewater treatment is

____________
a) Paddle mixer
b) Disc turbine
c) Vertical flat blade turbine
d) Pitched blade turbine mixer
5) Sewer line dipped below the hydraulic grade line is called ____________
a) Leaping weir
b) Inverted siphon
c) Manhole
d) Siphon spillway
6) The increase in rate of biochemical reaction can cause depletion in

____________ concentration.
a) Ozone
b) Dissolved oxygen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Self purification
*SLRUM45*
SLR-UM 45
-3-
7) ____________ is a measure of light emitting properties of wastewater.

a) Color
b) Suspended solids
c) Turbidity
d) Colloidal solids
8) _________ occurs in secondary settling facilities used in conjunction with

biological treatment units.
a) Discrete settling
b) Zone settling
c) Compression settling
d) Flocculent settling
9) ____________ are usually designed to remove particles with settling rates of

0.3 to 0.7 mm/s.
a) Secondary clarifier
b) Grit chamber
c) Clariflocculator
d) Primary clarifier
10) _________ is a process where chemicals are added to wastewater resulting

in reduction of forces tending to keep suspended particles appart.
a) Flocculation
b) Coagulation
c) Sedimentation
d) Precipitation
11) The ____________ rate is total flow including recirculation applied on unit
area of filter in a day.
a) Organic loading rate
b) Hydraulic loading rate
c) Inorganic loading rate
d) Pneumatic loading rate
12) Sludge with poor settling characteristics is termed as ____________
a) Rising sludge
b) Floating sludge
c) Bulking sludge
d) Activate sludge
13) Oxygen supplied by natural surface aeration and by algal photosynthesis

is known as ____________
a) Stabilization pond
b) Oxidation pond
c) Lagoons
d) Aerobic pond
14) __________ pond combines the features of the aerobic and anaerobic ponds.
a) Facultative pond
b) Anaerobic pond
c) Stabilization pond
d) Algae pond
SLR-UM 45
*SLRUM45*
-4-
15) The gas liberated due to incomplete combustion of fuels from petrol engines
is __________
a) CO2
b) CO
c) N2
d) He
16) 50 m size particle is from gas by __________

a) Gravity settling chamber
b) Centrifugal collector
c) Wet scrubber
d) Fabric filters
17) Most wide spread pollutants are __________

a) SOx
b) NOx
c) CO
d) Hydrocarbons
18) Electrostatic precipitators are used as pollution control devices for the
separation of
a) SO2
b) NO2
c) Hydrocarbon
d) Particulate matter
19) __________ is a method in which putrescible organic matter in solids is

digested anaerobically.
a) Incineration
b) Trenching
c) Composting
d) Pulverisation
20) __________ method refuse, night soil and animal dung are placed in small
brick lined pits.
a) Bangalore
b) Indore
c) Culcutta
d) Bhopal
_____________________
*SLRUM45*
-5-
SLR-UM
45
SLR-UM
45
Seat
No.

ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e. Question no. 2
to Question no. 5. Question no. 6 is compulsory in Section II
and solve any two questions from the remaining.
clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) What is dry weather flow ? Explain any four factors affecting dry weather
flow ?
b) Mention any five advantages of a water carriage system.
3. a) The BOD of a sewage incubated for one day at 30C has been found to be
100 mg/l. What will be the 5-day 20C BOD ?Assume K = 0.12 (Base 10)
at 20C.
b) Explain design of septic tank. Draw a neat sketch of it.
4. a) A standard rate of trickling filter system consist of two units each of 20 m
diameter and 2 m deep operating in parallel. Settled sewage flow rate is
2.30 mld with BOD5 of 180 mg/l.
i) Organic loading
6
7
ii) Hydraulic loading.
b) What is sludge digestion ? Explain Anaerobic digestion.

5. Write short note on (any three) :
a) Self cleansing velocity
b) Oil and grease trap
c) Waste stabilisation ppnd
d) Sewage pumping.
7
14
SLR-UM 45
-6-
*SLRUM45*
SECTION II
6. a) Describe the various factors affecting recreation and deoxygenation process. 6
b) Draw a neat sketch of oxygen sag curve.
7. a) Explain the principle and working of Bag Filter House with neat sketch.
b) Using following data find out DO at the end 1 and 2 days :
River
Wastewater
Flow (m3/s)
24
2
DO (mg/l)
9.2
0
5-day BOD (mg/l)
2
200
Take deoxygenation constant as 0.1 per day and reoxygenation constant as
0.3 per day. Take saturation DO as 9.20 mg/l.
6
7
7
8. a) Explain types of composting process used in solid waste treatment with merits
and demerits.
b) Discuss the various factors to be considered while selecting site for sanitary
land fill.
9. Write shorts note on any three :

a) Ambient air quality standards
b) Vehicular air pollution
c) Effects of air pollution on human health
d) Spray towers.
_____________________
14
Code No.
SLR-UM 46
Seat
No.
*SLRUM46*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 is objective multiple choice. Make tick mark against correct

answer option. Each question is having 1 mark weightage.
2) Q. 2 is compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q. 3 to Q. 5
and any three out of Q. 6 to Q. 9.
Marks : 20
1. 1) The critical activity has

a) Maximum float
b) Minimum float
c) Zero float
d) Average float
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 46
*SLRUM46*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Independent float is calculated using

a) Early occurrence time
b) Latest occurrence time
c) Duration of activity
d) All of these
3) Cost slope of a noncritical activity 1-2 is 1/10 and of a critical activity

2-3 is 1/20, then which activity will be preferred for network compression
a) Activity 1-2
b) Activity 2-3
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
4) If TS and TE are same, the % probability of completing the project will be

b) 50
a) 0
c) 100
d) None of these
5) If workday is calendar unit, then activity duration for 10000 m3

excavation with a crew efficiency of 800 m3 per day will be
a) 12.5 day
b) 12 days
c) 13 days
d) Two weeks
6) If time unit is week, you cannot report in

a) Weeks
b) Months
c) Years
d) Days
7) A total float is
a) Late start early start
b) Late finish early finish
c) Late finish duration early start
d) All of these
*SLRUM46*
SLR-UM 46
-3-
8) Activity B has early finish of EFb and two successors P and Q, with
early start of ESp and ESq respectively, then free float of B will be
a) (Earliest of ESp and ESq) EFb
b) ESp EFb
c) ESq EFb
d) (Latest of ESp and ESq) EFb
9) In updated network duration of activities will
a) Remain unchanged
b) Change
c) Either a) or b)
d) Be zero
10) In PERT we will draw

a) distribution curve
b) distribution curve
c) distribution curve
d) All the above
11) ________________ is the money consideration which is paid by

borrower for the use of money.
a) Present worth
b) Future worth
c) Interest
d) Equivalence
12) The term ______________ is commonly used by engineer in cases

where comparisons of cost are made over period of time in perpetuity
and annual costs are assumed to be incurred on perpetual basis.
a) Capitalised cost
b) Simple interest
c) EUAC
d) USCRF
13) ________________ as a method of comparison is more readily

understood than present worth where annual costs are irregular it
necessitates their conversion into regular annual cost.
a) PW method
b) EUAC method
c) Capitalized Cost
d) Yield method
14) A method of investment appraisal is concerned with calculation of

perspective rate of return for project rather than commencing with
assumption of what should be an acceptable interest rate is known as
______________
a) PW
b) EUAC
c) Counted cash flow
d) DCF
SLR-UM 46
*SLRUM46*
-4-
15) A system to convert data from internal and external sources into
information, is ______________
a) Management System
b) MIS
c) TQM
d) Quality Circle
16) Advantage of TQM is ______________

a) Satisfaction of Customer
b) Motivation to employee
c) Lower rejection rate
d) All above
17) Quality circle is _____________

a) Individual effort
b) Company effort
c) Management effort
d) None of above
18) Information from MIS is used for _______________

a) Production
b) Finance
c) Public relation
d) All above
19) ____________ gives ten steps and triology for TQM.

a) Juran
b) Deming
c) Gilberth
d) Fleming
20) Distance between BEP and output is _____________

a) Profit
b) Loss
c) Fixed cost
d) Margin of safety
________________
*SLRUM46*
SLR-UM 46
-5-
Seat
No.

ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Q. 2 is compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q. 3 to Q. 5

and any three out of Q. 6 to Q. 9.
SECTION I
2. a) Draw the Bar Chart for
Activity
Immediate preceding activity
Duration
A, B
D, E
C, D
F, G
b) Draw the network for the project. Show the critical path. Determine project
completion time, total float and free float for each activity.
Activity
Immediate preceding activity
Duration
A, B
D, E
C, D
F, G
SLR-UM 46
*SLRUM46*
-6-
3. a) A subcontractor needs to install flooring in two areas :

Area 1 : This area has old vinyl tiles that must be removed and replaced with
new vinyl tiles.
Area 2 : This area has a concrete slab that needs to be topped with ceramic
tile
Activity
Activity Description
Immediate
Preceding
Activity
Duration
Laborers
Purchase and deliver

material
Remove old vinyl tiles
Install Ceramic tile
Install new vinyl tile
A, B
Clean up and inspect
C, D
Draw network, allocate resources and level them so that the subcontractor
does not use more than six laborers at any time.
b) Refer to problem (2 b.) :

Ten (10) days after the start of project, the following information was received.
1) Activity A and B completed on time,
2) Activity C started but 3 days left,
3) Activity D started but 2 days left and
4) Activity E has not started yet but duration adjusted to 5 days.
Draw updated network. Calculate new project completion date and check
critical path.
*SLRUM46*
SLR-UM 46
-7-
4. a) If indirect costs are Rs. 100 per day, calculate the normal cost, least cost and
crash durations for the project :
Duration (Days)
Cost (Rs.)
Activity
Immediate
Preceding Activity
Normal
Crash
Normal
Crash
500
600
200
200
800
950
A, B
500
500
300
300
D, E
600
600
C, D
500
900
F, G
200
500
b) In CPM network critical path includes five activities. Their durations are
tabulated below :
Activity
Optimistic
Most likely
Pessimistic
14
10
21
Compute the probability that the project will end by end of day 32.
5
8
i) Time study
ii) Method study.
b) Explain four types of relationships in Precedence networks with example of
each.
SLR-UM 46
*SLRUM46*
-8-
SECTION II
Note : Solve any three questions from Section II.
6. a) What is effective interest rate corresponding to 4.6% compounding
continuously ?
b) The following table gives information regarding three project alternatives.

Assume i = 10% per annum. Using present worth method determine the best
project alternative :
10
Alternative
Initial cost lakh
121
97
150
Annual Benefits lakh
29
20
40
Scrap value lakh
13
10
25
Life (yrs.)
10
10
10
Annual O and M cost, lakh
7. a) Explain in brief various charts for quality control.

b) Explain in short pay back method for selection of project alternative.
8. a) Find out present worth of uniform series of Rs. 150 every year for 10 year.
The interest rate is 10% per year, compounded annually.
b) A manager wants to collect Rs. 8 lakhs to purchase equipment after eight
years from now. How much money he has to deposit every year starting one
year from now, if interest rate is 15% per year.
10
3
4
9. Write a note on :
a) Demand and supply
b) TQM
c) Costs associated with Break even analysis.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
47
*SLRUM47*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------T.E. (Part II) (Civil Engg.) Examination, 2014
TRANSPORTATION ENGG. II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N. B. : Assume any required data suitably.

1. 1) In India the first train was run between
Marks : 20
20
a) Bombay and Calcutta

b) Delhi and Bombay
c) Delhi and Calcutta
d) Bombay and Thane
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 47
*SLRUM47*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) For the main cities and routes of maximum intensities the gauge adopted is
a) M. G.
b) B. G.
c) N. G.
3) The main function of sleeper is/are

a) To support the rails
b) To maintain the correct gauge
c) To distribute the rolling load coming on rails to ball art
d) All the above
4) The relation between the radius of curvature (R) and its degree of curvature
(D) is given
a) R =
1750
D
b) R =
1580
D
c) R =
1786.5
D
d) R =
1850
D
5) The curve provided at the change of gradient in called

a) Horizontal curve
b) Vertical curve
c) Reverse curve
d) Transition curve
6) Metal sleepers are superior to wooden steppers with respect to

a) Cost
b) Durability
c) Track circuiting
d) Fastening
*SLRUM47*
-3-
SLR-UM 47
7) The basic runway length needs to be corrected for

a) Elevation, gradient and temperature
b) Gradient, temp. and sag
c) Elevation, gradient and pressure
d) Temp., pressure and gradient
8) For the hottest month the mean of average daily temperature is 38C and the
mean of the maximum daily temperature is 41C. Then reference temperature
for airport site will be
a) 41C
b) 35C
c) 44C
d) 42.5C
9) The wind data such as direction, duration etc. are graphically represented by
a diagram which is known as
a) Wind data diagram
b) Wind analysis diagram
c) Wind rose diagram
10) Location of exit taxiway depends upon
a) Number of exit taxiway, exit speed and type of aircrafts
b) Topographical features, pilot variability
c) Both a) and b)
d) Only a)
11) Tidal force due to moon is ______________ than tidal force due to sun.
a) Lesser
b) Greater
c) Equal
d) None
12) Some of the modern ships are having maximum width of

a) 30 m
b) 40 m
c) 50 m
d) 20 m
13) The life of floating dry dock is about ______________ years.

a) 30
b) 50
c) 70
d) 25
SLR-UM 47
*SLRUM47*
-4-
14) The construction in the form of a cluster of closely spaced piled is known
as _____________
a) Dolphins
b) Piers
c) Wharves
d) None
15) The width of the slip between piers should be at least _____________ times
the beam of the largest ship.
a) 2 or 3
b) 1.5 to 2.5
c) 4 to 5
d) 3 or 4
16) In a B.G. track in curvature with R = 360m, maximum permissible speed of

train is V = 60 Kmpt then equilibrium cant required will be
a) 10 cm
b) 13.6 cm
c) 6 cm
d) 3.6 cm
17) Rail is fixed to steel sleeper by

a) Welding
b) Bolls and nuts
c) Riveting
d) Using keys between lugs or loose joints
18) In railway locomotion, coring of wheel is done at a slope of
a) 1 in 15
b) 1 in 20
c) 1 in 25
d) 1 in 30
19) Which one of the following type of transition curve is mostly used in Indian
railway ?
a) Eulers spiral
b) Cubic spiral
c) Lemniscater
d) Cubic parabola
20) Minimum circling radius for an aircraft depends upon

a) Type of aircraft
b) Air traffic volume
c) Weather condition
d) All the above

__________________
*SLRUM47*
-5-
SLR-UM 47
Seat
No.
T.E. (Part II) (Civil Engg.) Examination, 2014

TRANSPORTATION ENGG. II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
SECTION I
2. Answer any three questions (each carry 8 marks) :
1) Draw a neat sketch of permanent way or railway track and home each parts
and list the requirements of an ideal permanent way.
2) On a B. G. 3 curve, the equilibrium cant is provided for a speed of a
70 kmph.
a) Calculate the value of equilibrium cant
b) Allowing a maximum cant deficiency. What would be the maximum
permissible speed on the track.
3) List out the requirement of sleepers (ideal sleepers).
4) A locomotive on M.G. track has three pairs of driving wheels each carrying
20 tonnes. What maximum load can if pull on load track with curvature of
2 at 50 kmph.
1) Write a short notes on wind rose diagram with neat sketch.
2) List out the basic requirement to be considered while dividing the site for a
terminal building. Explain any 2 in detail.
3) The length of runway under standard condition is 1620m. The airport site tan
on elevation of 270 m. Its reference temp is 32.94 C. If the runway is to be
constructed with an effective gradient of 0.20%. Determine the corrected
runway length.
SLR-UM 47
-6-
*SLRUM47*
4) A taxi-way is to be designed for operating Boeing 707-320 which has the

following characteristics, determine the turning radius of the taxiway.
* Wheel base = 17.70 m
* Tread of main loading area = 6.62 m
* Turning speed = 40 kmph
* Co-eff. of friction between = 0.13 tyre and pavement surface
* Width of taxiway pavement = 22.5 m.
SECTION II
1) Describe the design principles of dry dock and floating dock.
2) With neat sketches. Discuss about the fenders.
3) Define breakwater. What are types of breakwater (classification) ? Explain
any one with neat sketch.
4) What are the facilities to be provided at a graving dry dock. Explain.
5. Answer any one question :
1) Discuss about the design considerations for pipe lines used for transporting
hydrocarbons.
2) List the different elements of geometric standards for taxiway and explain
any three in detail.
______________
Code No. SLR-UM
48
*SLRUM48*
Seat
No.
Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURE I
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

2) Q. No. I is MCQ on a separate sheet, which shall be
collected after 30 minutes. Is 456-2000 shall not be
allowed to refer while solving MCQ.
4) Use of IS 456-2000 is allowed while solving Q. No. II to VII.
5) Assume suitable date if necessary and state it clearly.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 48
*SLRUM48**
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W

Marks : 20
I. Write suitable option in the bracket against the question :

Question No. 3, 9,13 and 15 are having 2 marks each, and remaining
questions for 1 mark.
1) Tensile strength of concrete ______________
a) 0.3
Fck N/mm2
b) 0.5
Fck N/mm
c) 0.7
Fck N/mm
d) 0.6
Fck N/mm
2) The ratio of direct tensile strength to compressive strength of concrete is

taken as
a) 0.05
b) 0.15
c) 0.25
d) 0.35
3) If standard deviation is 4N/mm2, what should be the mean strength of concrete,

if desired characteristic strength is 20 N/mm2.
a) 26.4 N/mm2
b) 30.87 N/mm2
c) 20.18 N/mm2
d) 17.53 N/mm2
4) Effective width in L beam is ________________

a)
c)
+ bw + 6 Df
+ 3 bw + Df
b)
d)
+ bw + 3 Df
+ 6 bw + Df
*SLRUM48**
SLR-UM 48
-3-
5) An R.C. beam has cross section 400600 mm and is subjected to the

BM-115 kN-m and Torsional Moment 45 kN-m. Determine the equivalent
bending moment.
a) 194.41 kN-m
b) 199.70 kN-m
c) 196.78 kN-m
d) 198.50 kN-m
6) An R.C. beam has cross section 300 550 mm and is subjected to the shear
force 95kN-m and Torsional Moment 40 kN-m. Determine the equivalent
bending moment.
a) 295.63 kN
b) 310.60 kN
c) 308.33 kN
d) 320.53 kN
7) Design Bond stress in limit state method for plain bars in compression for
M25 grade concrete is _____________ N/mm 2.
a) 1.2
b) 1.75
c) 1.5
d) 1.3
8) When depth of beam exceed 750 mm the side face reinforcement shall be
provided along the two faces. The total area of such reinforcement shall not
be less than _______________% of the area.
a) 0.15
b) 0.25
c) 0.1
d) 0.2
9) Slenderness limit for beam to ensure lateral stability for simply supported or
continuous beams shall be so proportional that the clear difference for the
lateral restraining does not exceed ____________b or ____________b2/d
whichever is less.
a) 30, 90
b) 60, 250
c) 25, 100
d) 50,50
10) For member subjected to bending and torsion two legged closed hoops
enclosing the corner longitudinal bars shall have an area of cross-section
Asv given by,
a) Asv = [(Tu.Sv/b1d1 (0.47fy)] + [Vu.Su/2.5 d 1 (0.47 fy)]
b) Asv = (Tu.Sv/b1d1 (0.87fy) + Vu Tu)
c) Asv = (Tu.Sv/b1d1 (0.85fy)
d) Asv = [(Tu.Sv/b1d1 (0.87fy)] + [Vu.Su/2.5 d 1 (0.87 fy)]
SLR-UM 48
*SLRUM48**
-4-
11) The diameter of the polygonal links or lateral ties shall not be less than
a) 6 mm
b) Max of a and d
c) Least of a and d
d)
1
4
diameter of larger longitudinal bar
12) In two way reinforced square footing, the reinforcement extending in each
direction is distributed ________________ across the full width of footing.
a) Alternatively
b) Uniformly
c) Unevenly
d) None of these
13) The stability of structure as a whole against overturning shall be assumed so

that the restoring moment shall not be less than sum of _______________times
maximum overturning D.L. and _________________times
maximum overturning L.L.
a) 1.5, 1.2
b) 1.2,1.5
c) 1.2, 1.4
d) 1.4, 1.2
14) Which of the following is not a limit state of serviceability ?

a) Torsion
b) Durability
c) Deflection
d) Cracking
15) Design a square footing for a short axially loaded column of size 230300
mm carrying 500 kN load. Use M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel. SBC of soil is
180 kN/m2.
a) 2m 2m
b) 2.5m 2.5m
c) 3m 3m
d) 1m 1m
16) Effective width for flange for T beam is ______________

a)
+ bw + 6 Df
b)
+ bw + 3 Df
c)
+ bw + 6 Df
d)
+ 6 bw + Df
*SLRUM48**
SLR-UM 48
-5-
Seat
No.
B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURE I
Day and Date :Monday, 19-5-2014
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions :1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Marks : 80

Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
Use of IS 456-2000 is allowed while solving Q. No. II to VII.
Assume suitable date if necessary and state it clearly.
Draw neat sketches wherever necessary.
SECTION I
II. A singly reinforced concrete beam has a width of 350 mm and a overall depth
650 mm with a clear cover of 40 mm is reinforced with 4 bars of 25 mm. Find the
flexural strength and hence a safe udl on the simply supported beam of span 7m.
Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.
13
OR
A doubly reinforced beam 400 mm 600 mm overall reinforced with 4 bars of
25 mm diameter on tension side and 2 bars of 20 mm diameter on compression
side with an effective cover of 35 mm. Determine the safe UDL the beam can
carry over a simply supported span of 4m. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.
(Refer table below Q. III for fsc.)
13
III. A rectangular beam 230 mm width. The clear span of the beam is 6 m. The beam
is to have support width 300 mm. The characteristic super imposed load is
12 kN/m. Using M20 concrete and Fe415 steel design the beam.
13
OR
Design the rectangular beam of section 230 mm 600 mm of effective span 6m.
Effective cover for reinforcement should be kept ad 50 mm. Imposed load on the
beam is 40 kN/m. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel. Refer table below for fsc.
Stress level
0.8fy
0.9fy
fy = 415 N/mm2
Stress in N/mm 2
288.7
324.8
360.9
13
SLR-UM 48
-6-
*SLRUM48**
IV. The portico of a guest house building consist of cantilever beams of effective
span 3m, spaced at 2.5m centre. The beams support 120 mm thick slab. Live
load on slab is 1.5 kN/m2 . Using concrete mix M20 and steel Fe415, design an
intermediate beam, if slab is flush with top of beams.
14
OR
The portico of a guest house building consist of cantilever beams of effective
span 3m, spaced at 2.5m centre. The beams support 120 mm thick slab. Live
load on slab is 1.5 kN/m2. Using concrete mix M20 and steel Fe415 , design an
intermediate beam, if slab is flush with bottom of beams.
14
SECTION II
V. Design a circular column with helical reinforcement subjected to a working load
of 2000kN. The column has unsupported length of 4m and in effectively held in
13
position and direction at both ends. Use M25 and Fe415 steel.
OR
a) Design a column 3.5 m long restrained in position and direction at both ends
10
to carry an axial load of 1700 kN. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel.
b) Explain interaction diagram to be used for designing column subjected to
axial load and uniaxial bending.
VI. Design a square footing for a short axially loaded column of size 300 mm 300 mm
carrying 600 kN load. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 steel. SBC of soil is 180 kN/m2.
Sketch the details of reinforcement.
13
OR
Design a sloping footing for a column of size 500 mm 500 mm carrying a load
13
at 2500 kN. SBC of soil 200 kN/m2. Use M25 concrete and Fe415 steel.
VII. Design a rectangular beam section subjected to a working shear force of 80 kN,
torsional moment of 45 kN-m and moment of 80 kN-m. Use M25 concrete and
14
Fe415 steel.
OR
Design a reinforced concrete combined rectangular slab footing for two columns
located at 4.5 m apart. The overall size of the columns are 400 mm 400 mm
and 600 mm 600 mm and they are transferring 600 kN and 1000 kN respectively.
The SBC of soil 150 kN/m2. Use M20 concrete and Fe 415 steel.
Sketch the reinforcement details.
14
Code No.
SLR-UM 49
*SL4UM49*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

QUANTITY SURVEYING AND VALUATION
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 is objective multiple choice. Make tick mark against

correct answer option. Each question is having 1 mark
weightage.
2) Q. 2 and Q. 9 are compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q. 3
Marks : 20
20
1) The formula for finding quantity of rectangular isolated footing with

dome portion is
a) (h / 6 ) ( A top + A bottom + 4 A mean )
b) (h/3) * (A + a+ (A * a))
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 49
*SLRUM49*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) I.S. brick size in mm is

a) 90 90 200
c) 90 90 190
b) 100 90 210
d) 100 100 190
3) Depreciation is considered normally for a building per year is _____ %

cost of the building.
b) 10
a) 1
c) 25
d) 50
4) The full form of B.O.T. is
a) Build Operate Transfer
b) Build Own Transfer
c) Build Occupy Transfer
d) Build Operation Termination
5) Distress value is usually
a) More than market value
c) Less than market value
b) Equal to market value

d) Anything of the above
6) In excavation if gold coins are found, it shall be the property of

a) Owner of land
b) Property of contractor
c) Property of Government
d) Property to be shared between the contractor and owner equally
7) In the takeoff of measurements done by centre line method and long
wall short wall method the quantity worked out will be
a) Center line method will give more quantity
b) Equal
c) Long wall short wall will give more quantity
d) None of these
*SLRUM49*
-3-
SLR-UM 49
8) While taking the measurements of RCC the volume of reinforcement is

a) Deducted from concrete volume
b) Added to concrete volume
c) No deduction no addition
d) None of these
9) For 0.2 m thick masonary with opening of 0.3 m length and 0.3 m
height, deduction for opening will be
a) 0.2 0.3 0.3
b) 0.2 0.3
c) 0.3 0.3
d) None of these
10) For 0.2 m thick masonary with end of beam in section of 0.2 m and
0.2 m, deduction will be
b) 0.2 0.2 Sq. m.
a) 0.2 0.2 0.2 Cu.m.
c) 0.2 m
d) None of these
11) For 0.2 m thick masonary with bearing of Chajja of 0.2 m width and 0.1 m
depth, deduction will be
b) 0.2 0.4 0.1
a) 0.2 0.2 0.1
c) 0.2 0.2
d) None of these
12) For soft soil, one layer of brick or stone soling applied below foundation
concrete is computed in
a) Sq. m. (Length breadth)
b) Cu. m. (Length breadth thickness)
c) Sq. m. (Length breadth) specifying thickness
d) Sq. m. (Length thickness) breadth specified
13) For 12 mm wall plaster with opening of 0.6 m 0.6 m, deduction will be
a) 0.36 sq. m. and addition for Jamb, soffit and sill
b) 0.72 sq. m. and deduction for jamb, soffit and sill
c) 0.72 sq.m. with no addition or deduction for jamb, soffit and sill
d) None of these
a) 3.78 sq. m. and addition for Jamb, soffit and sill
b) 3.78 sq. m. and deduction for Jamb, soffit and sill
c) 1.89 sq. m. and deduction for Jamb, soffit and sill
d) 1.89 sq. m. and addition of 1.89 sq. m. for Jamb, soffit and sill
SLR-UM 49
-4-
*SLRUM49*
a) 6.30 sq. m. and addition for jamb, soffit and sill
b) 6.30 sq. m. and deduction for jamb, soffit and sill
c) 3.15 sq. m. and deduction for jamb, soffit and sill
d) 3.15 sq. m. and addition of 3.15 sq. m. for jamb, soffit and sill
16) In long wall and short wall method, from foundation to superstructure,
long walls will gradually ________ in length and short walls will ______
in length.
b) decrease, decrease
a) increase, increase
c) increase, decrease
d) decrease, increase
17) In Earthwork estimation of road, normal lead and lift are
b) 1.5 m, 30m
a) 30 m, 1.5m
c) 100 m, 1m
d) 1m, 100m
18) For 100 Cu. m. wet mixed mortar, the sum total volume of dry ingredients
may be taken as
b) 125 Cu. m.
a) 100 Cu. m.
c) 75 Cu. m.
d) None of these
19) For 100 Cu.m. finished concrete, the sum total volume of dry
ingredients may be taken as
b) 152 Cu. m.
a) 100 Cu. m.
c) 52 Cu. m.
d) None of these
20) For Brickwork in cement mortar in superstructure, task work per mason
may be taken as
b) 1.25 Cu. m.
a) 1 Cu. m.
c) 0.75 Cu. m.
d) None of these
________________
*SLRUM49*
-5-
SLR-UM 49
Seat
No.

QUANTITY SURVEYING AND VALUATION
Marks : 80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1) Q. 2 and Q. 9 are compulsory. Attempt any two out of Q. 3
2. Figure shows the plan and sectional details of a three roomed building. Estimate
the quantities of the following items in measurement sheet
(Assume suitable data if necessary)
Figure 1
a) 1st Class Brick work in cement mortar 1 : 6 Superstructure.

b) Cement Concrete 1 : 4 : 8 in foundation.
9
5
SLR-UM 49
-6-
*SLRUM49*
3. Explain :
a) Describe various factors that influence the accuracy of estimates of building
construction project.
b) What are Overhead charges relevant to Civil Engineering ?
4. A) Write the detailed specifications for a white wash work or a painting work
of an office building.
B) Write note on Provisional quantities and Provisional sums.
5. A) Calculate the unit rate per m3 by performing Rate analysis for the following
items.
a) Reinforced Cement Concrete 1 : 1 : 5 :3
b) Ashlar masonry in C. M. (1 : 5) for superstructure.
B) Explain Long wall short wall method of taking out quantities.
8
5
8
6. A) List types of Contract ? Differentiate between Item rate and Lump sum contract. 8
B) What is EMD and Security Deposit ? What is its significance in Tender
Documents ?
7. A) What do you mean by valuation ? What is its necessity list various methods
of valuation and describe any one of them giving example ?
B) Define :
1) Sentimental Value
2) Speculative value
3) Insurance value
4) Fancy value
5) Earning value.
5
8
5
8. A) Determine present value of the building, which was constructed 25 years ago
at Rs. 5,00,000/- The estimated life of the building, is 80 years, at the end of
which it will have 10% scrap value of its cost of construction. Use straight
line method of depreciation.
B) Explain Easement Rights.
8
5
9. A) A leasehold property is to produce a net income of Rs. 12,000 per annum for
the next 50 years. What is the value of the property ? Assume rate of interest
on capital as 7% and the sinking fund to replace the capital is also at 7%.
What will be the value of property if rate of interest for redemption of capital
is 5% ?
B) Write note on Free hold and lease hold properties.
_____________________
9
5
SLR-UM 5
*SLRUM5*
Seat
No.
Set

ENGINEERING PHYSICS (Group A)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

3) Question No. 1 is compulsory and should be solved in first
30 minutes on OMR sheet given. Each question carries one
mark.
Marks : 20
SECTION I
20
1) Mass-energy equation was proposed by

a) Newton
b) Madam Curie
c) C. V. Raman
d) Einstein
2) The first postulates of special theory of relativity

a) Says that there is no absolute reference frame
b) States that the laws of physics are same in all inertial reference systems
c) Is a reaffirmation of the Galilean principle of reactivity
d) All of these statements are true
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 5
*SLRUM5*
-2-
3) The relativistic law of addition of velocities is represented by equation

u1 + v
a) u =
u1v
1+ 2
c
c) u =
u1 v
u1v
1+ 2
c
u1 + v
b) t =
u1v
1 2
c
d) u =
u1 + v
1
v2
c2
4) Donor type semiconductor is formed by adding impurity of valency

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
5) An n-type semiconductor is
a) Positively charged
c) Neutral
d) 2
b) Negatively charged
d) None of these
6) When a pure semiconductor is heated, its resistance

a) Goes up
b) Goes down
c) Remains same
d) None of these
7) The relation of length of axes of unit cell in monoclinic system is

a) a = b = c
c) a = b c
b) a b c
d) a b = c
8) The total number of planes of symmetry for cubic crystal are

a) 9
b) 3
c) 6
d) 23
9) The ultrasonic waves exhibit

a) Large diffraction effect
b) Negligible diffraction effect
c) Very long wavelength
d) All of these
10) Sound waves having the following frequency are audible to human beings
a) 5000 Hz
b) 5 Hz
c) 30000 Hz
d) 50 kHz
Set A
*SLRUM5*
SLR-UM 5
-3-
SECTION II
11) The resolving power of a grating is _____________
a) d
b) d
c) nN d
d) d
12) In Fraunhofer diffraction, the incident wavefront should be _________

a) Elliptical
b) Plane
c) Spherical
d) Cylindrical
13) For positive crystals ___________

a) 0 = e
b) 0 < e
c) 0 > e
d) 0 e
14) Spontaneous emission process is mathematically represented by equation

____________
a) A + h A *
b) A * + h A + 2h
c) A * + h A + h
d) A * A + h
15) The life time of metastable state is ___________

a) 1 sec
c) 106 to 103 sec
b) 10 sec
d) 1010 sec
16) According to Snells law

n1 sin 1
a) n = sin
2
2
n1 sin 2
b) n = sin
2
1
n1
c) n = sin 1 + sin 2
2
n1 sin2 1
=
d)
n2 sin2 2
17) In optical fiber communication system the amplification of desired data and
filtering of undesired frequencies is done by __________
a) Detector
c) Modulator
b) Signal processor
d) Transducer
Set A
SLR-UM 5
-4-
*SLRUM5*
18) Slow neutrons are incident on a sample of uranium containing both 92 U235
and 92 U238 isotopes, ____________
a) Both isotopes will undergo fission
b) Only 92 U235 atoms undergo fission
c) Only 92 U238 atoms undergo fission
d) None of the isotopes will break up
19) Coolent is used in nuclear reactor ____________
a) To slow down the fast neutrons
b) To absorb excess neutrons
c) To increase speed of neutrons
d) To transfer the energy from core to heat exchanger
20) For helical CNT, chirality and value of is ____________
a) (a, 0) and 0
b) (a, a) and 6
c) (a, b) and 0 to 6
d) (a, a) and 0
Set A
*SLRUM5*
-5-
SLR-UM 5

Marks : 80
SECTION I
20
a) Explain classification of elements on the basis of band theory.

b) Derive an expression for time dilation.
c) Explain the methods of production of ultrasonic waves.
d) Define :
i) Co-ordination number
ii) Void space
iii) Unit cell
iv) Space lattice.
e) State the applications of ultrasonic waves.
f) A current of 50 A is established in a slab of Cu 0.5 cm thick and 2 cm wide.
The slab is placed in a magnetic field of 1.5 T. The magnetic field is
perpendicular to the plane of the slab and to the current. The free electron
concentration in copper is 8.48 1028/m3. What will be the magnitude of Hall
voltage across width of the slab ?
g) A rocket ship is 100 m long on the ground. When it is in flight, its length is 99 m
to an observer on the ground. What is its speed ?
Set A
SLR-UM 5
-6-
*SLRUM5*
3. Deduce an expression for relativistic mass variation, to show,

m=
m0
2
1 v
c2
OR
What are Miller indices ? Derive the relation between Miller indices and interplaner
spacing for cubic structure.
8
12
a) Explain the effect of impurity concentration on shifting of Fermi level in case

of n-type and p-type semiconductor.
b) Describe the X-ray powder diffraction method used to determine crystal
structure.
c) i) What is reverberation time ? State factors on which reverberation time
depends.
ii) If resistivity and Hall coefficient of specimen are 8.93 103 m and
3.66 104 m3/c resp. then find Hall mobility.
SECTION II
20
a) State and explain Malus law.

b) Define the following terms :
i) Metastable state
ii) Pumping
iii) Population inversion and
iv) Stimulated absorption.
c) State the principle and explain the structure of optical fiber.
Set A
*SLRUM5*
-7-
SLR-UM 5
d) Distinguish between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion reaction.

e) Mention any four applications of LASER in different fields.
f) What is highest order spectrum which may be seen with light of wavelength
5000 , by means of a grating with 3000 lines/cm.
g) Calculate the power output of a nuclear reactor which consumes 10 kg of
U-235 per day. Given that the average energy released per U-235 fission in
200 MeV.
6. Define the fractional refractive index change of an optical fiber. Derive an
expression for acceptance angle and numerical aperture of fiber in terms of
refractive index of core and cladding.
8
12
a) With neat diagram explain construction and working of Laurentz half shade
polarimeter.
b) Write a note on : Semiconductor diode laser.
c) Define thermonuclear reactions. Explain carbon nitrogen cycle.
_____________
Set A
Code No. SLR-UM
50
*SLRUM50*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

EARTHQUAKE ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Each MCQ carries two marks :
1. Tsunami is
a) Cause of earthquake
b) Effect of earthquake
c) a) and b)
d) None of above
Marks : 20
20
2
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 50
*SLRUM50*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2. Which of the following is not magnitude of an earthquake
a) Ricther magnitude
b) Body wave magnitude
c) Secondary wave
d) Moment magnitude
3. The crust is divided into _________ nos. of major plates.
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
4. What is dynamic load ?
a) Changing its magnitude with time

b) Time dependent load
c) Time independent load
d) All of above
5. When w= wf, the M.F. is
a) 1
b)
c) 2
d) 3
6. The expression for logarithmic

a)
c)
2 R
1 R2
2
1 R2
( ) is
b)
d)
2R
1 2
2 R
R 2 2
*SLRUM50*
-3-
SLR-UM 50
7. The importance factor for power plant
a) 1.0
b) 2
c) 1.5
d) 0.5
8. The total length of opening shall not exceed __________ % of the length of
wall for single storey construction.
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 30%
9. Why live load reduced in seismic of calculation ?
a) It contains impact factor

b) It reduces in earthquake
c) Because load is more
d) For reducing cost
10. The maxm I/R ratio allowed is
a) 1.5
b) 1.0
c) 2.0
d) 0.5
__________________
*SLRUM50*
-5-
SLR-UM 50
Seat
No.

EARTHQUAKE ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

3) Use of only IS 1893 is allowed.
SECTION I
1. a) With neat sketches explain Elastic rebound theory.
b) Explain working principle of a seismograph.
8
6
2. From first principle derive the governing differential equation for free vibration of
a damped SDOF system. Obtain the general solution of this differential equation
and explain the terms critically and under-critically damped systems.
13
3. What do you understand by force transmissibility ? Derive an expression for

force transmissibility to the foundation of a SDOF system subjected to harmonic
force.
13
4. a) Explain the concept of Duhamels integral for damped systems. Derive its
expression.
b) What is combined spectrum ? What are its characteristics ?
5
8
SLR-UM 50
-6-
*SLRUM50*
SECTION II
5. It is proposed to construct a R.C.C. three storied residential building having plan
dimensions as shown in fig. 1 in zone III with following data. Determine the
lateral forces and base shear. The all column sizes are 300 450 mm and
beams sizes are 230 450 mm. The slab thickness is 100 mm and thk. Of walls
is 230 mm. The ht. of floor is 3.2 m and live load is 3 kN/m2. The type of frame is
OMRF and strata is hard.
14
Figure No. 1
6. a) Explain the concept of strong column and weak beam in design of buildings.
b) Discuss the main aspects of building configuration both in plan and elevation
for earthquake resistant design.
7. a) Explain the significance of RC bands is masonry construction.

b) Write a detailed note on strengthening of walls with suitable sketches.
5
8
8. What is confining reinforcement ? Explain in detail with neat sketches where and
how the confining reinforcement is provided ?
13
________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 51
Seat
No.
*SLRUM51
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Question Number 1 consisting of objective type questions

is compulsory.
2) Solve any three questions from Section I (Questions 2, 3, 4, 5)
and any three questions from Section II (Questions 6, 7, 8, 9).
3) Draw neat lebeled sketches wherever necessary.
Marks : 20
1. Objective Type Questions :

(120=20)
1) The useful storage in a dam reservoir is the volume of water stored between
a) minimum and maximum reservoir levels
b) minimum and normal reservoir levels
c) normal and maximum reservoir levels
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 51
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM51
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Trap efficiency of a storage reservoir is defined as

a) (Total annual sediment inflow)/(Reservoir capacity)
b) (Total sediment deposited in a given period/(Total sediment inflow
in that period)
c) (Total annual sediment deposited in the reservoir/(Dead storage
capacity of the reservoir)
3) Economical height of a dam is that height, for which the
a) cost per unit of storage is minimum
b) benefit cost ratio is maximum
c) net benefits are maximum
4) The capacity-inflow ratio for a reservoir
a) is a constant factor over time
b) increases with time
c) decreases with time
d) may increase or decrease with time
5) Tension cracks in gravity dams may sometimes lead to the failure of the
structure, by
a) sliding of the dam at the cracked section
b) overturning about the toe
c) crushing of concrete, starting from the toe
6) Presence of tail water in a gravity dam
a) increases the principal stress and decreases the shear stress
b) increases the principal stress and increases the shear stress
c) decreases the principal stress and increases the shear stress
d) decreases the principal stress and decreases the shear stress
*SLRUM51
SLR-UM 51
-3-
7) Bhakra dam of our country is located in the State of

a) Punjab
b) Himachal Pradesh
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Madhya Pradesh
8) The highest concrete gravity dam of the world is Grand Dixence dam is
Switzerland, whose height is
a) 325 m
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
b) 317 m
c) 285 m
d) 272 m
Hydraulic jump is widely used for dissipation of energy in
b) trough spillways
a) ogee spillways
c) side channel spillways
d) all of these
When the crest of an ogee spillway is designed to be in accordance with the
lower nappe of a free falling water jet over a duly ventilated sharp crested
weir, then theoretically
a) the pressure on the spillway crest always be zero (i.e. atmospheric
pressure)
b) the pressure on the spillway crest will be zero at design head only
c) the pressure on the spillway crest will always be negative
d) the pressure on the spillway crest will always be positive
In computing the spilling capacity of high ogee spillways, the velocity head
is usually
a) very small, and hence neglected
b) very large, and hence cannot be neglected
c) neither a) nor b)
d) none of these
Bar screens, used to cover dam outlets to prevent entry of debris or ice
into the sluiceway conduits, are called
b) projecting collars
a) gate controlled ports
c) trash racks
d) none of these
In a barrage project, a divide wall is provided to
a) separate the lower crest undersluice side from the higher crest
weir side
b) separate the higher crest undersluice side from the lower crest
weir side
c) keep the cross-currents away from the barrage body
d) serve none of the above purposes
SLR-UM 51
-4-
*SLRUM51
14) The type of canal alignment, which involves maximum cross-drainage works,
is a
b) contour canal
a) ridge canal
c) side slope canal
d) all of the above
15) The crest level of distributary head regulator is usually kept
a) the same as the upstream bed level of the parent canal
b) the same as the crest level of the cross-regulator at the site
c) 0.3 to 1.0m higher than the upstream bed level of the parent canal
16) The repelling groynes which are largely constructed projecting from river
embankments, as anti-erosion works, are
b) pointing downstream
a) pointing upstream
c) perpendicular to the bank
d) none of these
17) For a meandering alluvial river, the ratio of its channel length to direct axial
length is
always :
a) 1
b) > 1
c) < 1
d) may be less or more than 1, depending upon the river
18) Pick up the incorrect statement from the following.
a) intensive irrigation should be avoided in areas susceptible to water
logging
b) extensive irrigation should be adopted in areas susceptible to water
logging
c) lift irrigation can help alleviate water-logging susceptibilities
19) Which one of the followings does not contribute to water logging ?
a) inadequate drainage
b) seepage from unlined canals
c) frequent flooding
d) excessive tapping of ground water
20) The only statement, which is incorrect in regard to hydropower, is
a) the system efficiency of a hydroplant is quite high
b) the installation cost of a hydroplant is very high
c) the running cost of a hydro power plant is very low
d) the hydraulic turbines takes a lot of time in being put off and on
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM51*
SLR-UM 51
Seat
No.

WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I (Questions 2, 3, 4, 5)

and any three questions from Section II (Questions 6, 7, 8, 9).
2) Draw neat labeled sketches wherever necessary.
SECTION I
2. a) What are the factors that affect rate of silting in impounding reservoirs ?
What is trap efficiency ? Discuss the principle measures that should be
undertaken to control the sediment inflow to an impounding reservoir.
b) Differentiate clearly between the following :
i) A flood control reservoir and a multipurpose reservoir
ii) A retarding basin and a storage reservoir.
3. a) Figure shows a section of non overflow section of a gravity dam built of concrete,
Calculate the maximum vertical stress at the heel and toe of the dam. Assume
weight of concrete as 23.5 kN/m3. Neglect earthquake effects, Refer figure 1).
Figure 1
7
6
SLR-UM 51
-6-
*SLRUM51
b) What are the methods adopted to reduce uplift in concrete dam ?
4. a) In order to find factor of safety of downstream, slope during steady seepage,

the section of the dam was drawn to scale 1 cm = 4 m. The following results
were obtained on a critical slip circle.
Area of N-rectangle 14.4 sqcm
Area of T-rectangle = 6.4 sqcm
Area of U-rectangle = 4.9 sqcm
Length of arc = 12.6 cm
Laboratory tests have furnished values 26 for effective angle of friction and
19.5 kN/m2 for cohesion, unit weight of soil = 19kN/m3. Determine the factor
of safety of the slope.
b) Explain the method of checking the stability of earth dam foundation against
shear failure.
5. a) A siphon spillway has the following cross section at its throat. Height of the
throat = 1.5m. With of the throat = 4 m. At the design flow, the tail water
elevation is 2 m above the summit.
i) Taking a coefficient of discharge as 0.6, determine the capacity of the
siphon.
ii) Determine the head that would be required on an ogee spillway 3.8 m
long to discharge this flow, if coefficient of discharge is 2.25.
iii) What length of the ogee weir would be required to discharge the same
flow with a head of 2.2 m on the crest ?
b) Show with a neat sketch, provision of a sluiceway in an earth dam.
SECTION II
6. a) Briefly explain the salient features of Khosla theory and how it is used in the
design of permeable foundations ? How does Lanes theory differ from Blighs
creep theory ?
b) Write short notes on watershed canals and contour canals.
i) Canal syphon
ii) Level crossing.
7
6
*SLRUM51
-7-
SLR-UM 51
b) Explain how do the following assist in river control :

i) Spurs
ii) Revetment
iii) Guide bunds.
State the good and evil effects of embankment construction for flood control.
8. a) Write a short note on high water, low water and mean water river training.
6
7
b) What are the two principal types of drainage systems, necessary for draining
irrigated tracts to avoid their water logging ?
9. a) Define and differentiate between the following in connection with hydropower :

i) Firm power and secondary power
ii) Installed capacity and dependable capacity of a power house.
b) A runoff river plant is installed on a river having a minimum flow 15 cumec.

Head available at the plant is 16 m and the plant efficiency may be assumed
as 80%. If the plant is used as a peak load plant operating for 6 hours daily,
compute the firm capacity of the plant :
i) Without pondage
ii) with pondage but allowing 8% water to be lost in evaporation and other
losses.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 52
*SLRUM52*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________

AIR POLLUTION AND CONTROL (Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct alternative of correct answer :
(120=20)
1) A device in which gas is allowed to mix with water and then impinges on a
plate is called ______________
a) Cyclons scrubber
b) Fabric filter
c) Water filter
d) Seperator
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 52
*SLRUM52*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) The Gaussion model is used for prediction of the concentration of pollutants

from ________________
a) Line source
b) Single point source
c) Plane source
d) All of these
3) 50 m size particle is removed from the gas by ______________

a) Gravity settling chamber
b) Centrifugal collector
c) Wet scrubber
d) Fabric filters
4) Main impact of Greenhouse effect is ________________

a) Increase in vegetation
b) Decrease in vegetation
c) No effect on vegetation
d) None of these
5) When Environmental Lapse Rate equals to Adiabatic Lapse Rate and both
the lines coincide, the environment is called ____________
a) Metastable
b) Unstable
c) Stable
d) None of these
6) Which of the following is (are) responsible for ozone layer depletion.

A) CFC
B) HFC
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Both A) and B)
d) None of these
7) Hydrocarbons which may damage plants is ________________

a) Ethane
b) Methane
c) Ethylene
d) Accetylene
*SLRUM52*
SLR-UM 52
-3-
8) Most widespread air pollutants are ________________

a) SOx
b) NOx
c) CO
d) Hydrocarbons
9) Most commonly used control device for particulate matter is ___________

a) Filter bey house
b) Electronic precipitator
c) Cyclone collector
d) None of these
10) Electrostatic precipitators are used as pollution control device for the separation
of ______________
a) SO2
b) NOx
c) Hydrocarbons
d) Particulate matter
11) The spray tower can be used to control _______________

a) Gaseous pollutants only
b) Particulate pollutants only
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
12) The depletion of ozone in the outer atmosphere may result in increased
______________
a) Heart attact cases
b) Skin cancer cases
c) Asthma cases
d) None of these
13) When Adiabatic Lapse Rate (ALR) is more than Environmental Lapse Rate
(ELR), then ELR is called _____________
a) Super adiabatic lapse rate
b) Sub adiabatic lapse rate
c) Dry adiabatic lapse rate
d) Wet adiabatic lapse rate
14) Which of the following air pollutants is/are responsible for photochemical
smog ?
a) Oxides of nitrogen
b) Ozone
c) Unburnt hydrocarbons
d) Carbon monoxide
15) The primary pollutant caused by incomplete combustion of organic matter is

________________
a) Ozone
b) Carbon monoxide
c) Sulphur dioxide
d) None of these
SLR-UM 52
*SLRUM52*
-4-
16) Measurement of suspended particulates and gaseous contaminants is

represented with unit _____________
a) Mg/cm2
b) Mg/cm3
c) g/cm3
d) g/m3
17) Most natural hydrocarbons in air are from _______________

a) Biological source
b) Geothermal area source
c) Coal fields source
d) Petroleum fields source
18) The pollution of air due to smoking by a person is classified under __________
a) Personal air pollution
b) Occupational air pollution
c) Community air pollution
d) None of these
19) Size of the particle of which size can be seen by naked eye is __________
a) 50 m
b) 30 m
c) 50 m
d) 20 m
20) Which one of the following plume behaviours occurs when atmospheric
inversion begins from the ground level and continues.
a) Looping
b) Fumigation
c) Coning
d) Fanning
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM52*
SLR-UM 52
Seat
No.

AIR POLLUTION AND CONTROL (Elective I)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Answer any three questions from Section from Section I.

2) Question No. 6 from Section II is compulsory. Answer
any two questions from the remaining.
3) Figures to the right indicated full marks.
clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain the effect of sulphur dioxide on human health.
b) Explain the effects of SO2 on man and plants. Give exposure time and
concentration values.
5
8
3. a) Temperature at ground level is 30C. Find the atmospheric stability condition

in each of flowing cases.
Case Altitude (m) Temperature C
I
800
12
II
500
37
b) A power plant burns 7.3 tonnes of coal/hr and the discharge is combustion
products through a stack of height 75m. Coal has sulfur content of 4% and
wind velocity at the top of stack is 3m/sec, atmospheric condition are stable.
Determine the maximum ground level concentration of SO2 and distance
from stack at which it occurs.
4. a) What is inversion ? Explain the radiation inversion in details.
b) Differentiate between Adiabatic Lapse Rate and Environmental Lapse Rate.
8
8
5
SLR-UM 52
-6-
*SLRUM52*

a) Heat Island effect
b) Greenhouse Effect
c) Wind Rose Diagram.
5
SECTION II
6. a) Explain the efficiency formula for particulate matter removal from cyclone.
Discuss the significance of each parameter.
b) List various device for sampling of gases and vapours.
7. a) Discuss the principle of electrostatic precipitator and draw neat sketch to
explain the working.
b) What is meant by standard cyclone ? Give the values of cyclone dimension
for it in terms of cyclone diameter.
8
4
7
7
8. a) A settling chamber is designed for removing 75 dia. particles with 100 percent
efficiency. The particulate matter density is 1200 Kg/m3. Depth and width of
chamber is 2 m each. Determine :
1) Length of chamber required without trays
2) Length of chamber with 10 trays.
b) Discuss any two methods of controlling Gaseous Pollutants.

a) Packed tower-Design Aspects
b) Global Air Pollution Problems
c) London Smog.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM 53

Seat
No.
*SLRUM53*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Elective I : DESIGN OF FOUNDATIONS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Question 1 (Multiple Choice questions) is compulsory.

2) Question 2 from Section I and Question 6 from Section II
are compulsory.
3) Solve any two questions (other than Question 2 and 6) from
each Section.
5) Use of electronic calculator and relevant I.S. codes are allowed.
Marks : 20
1. Tick the appropriate option :
A) Sr. No. 1 to 16 carries one mark each :
1) Meyerhofs bearing capacity formula is applicable for _________
a) Shallow footings
b) Deep footings
c) a) and b) both
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 53
*SLRUM53*
-2-
DO
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2) In case of local shear failure following holds true

a) Well defined peak is observed on load-settlement curve
b) Shear strength of soil is mobilized completely
c) Relative density (Dr) 70%
d) 28
3) In case of cohesionless soil ____________ settlement is predominant.
a) immediate
b) consolidation
c) secondary consolidation
4) The bearing capacity of soil supporting a footing of size 2m 2m will not

be affected by the presence of water table located at a depth __________
below base of footing.
a) 1.0 m
b) 1.5 m
c) 2 m
d) 0.5 m
5) Trapezoidal combined footings are required when

a) The space outside exterior column is limited
b) The exterior column is heavier
c) Both a) and b)
6) When the area of all the footings covers more than fifty percent of the area
of the structure, a _________ foundation is considered more suitable.
a) Raft
b) Trapezoidal
c) Rectangular
d) Strap
*SLRUM53*
SLR-UM 53
-3-
7) A cast in place bored pile with diameter greater than 75 cm is called _______
a) Caisson
b) Short column
c) Drilled pier
8) The permissible settlement is the maximum in case of

a) isolated footing on clay
b) rafts on clay
c) isolated footing on sand
d) rafts on sand
9) Negative skin friction on a pile under vertical compressive load acts

a) downwards and increases the load carrying capacity of soil
b) downwards and reduces the load carrying capacity of soil
c) upwards and increases the load carrying capacity of soil
d) upwards and reduces the load carrying capacity of soil
10) The group efficiency of a pile group
a) will be always less than 100%
b) will be always greater than 100%
c) may be less than 100% or more than 100% depending upon the
type of soil, method of installation, and pile spacing
d) is more than 100% for pile groups in cohesionless soils and less
than 100% for those in cohesive soils
11) If the actual observed value of standard penetration resistance N is greater
than 15 in a fine sand below water table, then the equivalent penetration
resistance will be
(N + 15 )
a) 15 +
c) 15 + (N 15 )
2
12) The open caisson is

a) open at top closed at bottom
b) closed at top open at bottom
c) open at top and bottom both
(N + 15 )
b) 15
(15 N)
d) 15 +
SLR-UM 53
*SLRUM53*
-4-
13) Pneumatic caissons are used where the soil flow in to the excavated area
of an open caisson is
a) faster than it can be removed
b) slower than it can be removed
c) negligible
d) zero
14) The block foundation is preferred for
a) low speed machines
b) medium speed machines
c) high speed machines
15) The rotation of a block foundation about X axis is known as _________

a) Yawing
b) Piching
c) Rocking
16) The natural frequency of system increases with

a) an increase in stiffness of system
b) a decrease in mass of system
c) both a) and b)
d) neither a) nor b)
B) Sr. No. 17 and 18 carries 2 mark each :
17) A test plate of 30 cm 30 cm resting on a sand deposit settles by 12 mm
under a certain loading intensity. A footing of 2 m 2 m resting on same
sand deposit will settle by
a) 2 mm
b) 27.8 mm
c) 36.3 mm
d) 50 mm
18) The group efficiency of 6 pile in group arranged as 2 rows 3 columns as

per Felds rule will be
a) 75%
b) 77%
c) 80%
d) 85%
______________
-5-
*SLRUM53*
SLR-UM 53
Seat
No.

Elective I : DESIGN OF FOUNDATIONS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Question 2 from Section I and Question 6 from Section II

are compulsory.
2) Solve any two questions (other than Question 2 and 6)
from each Section.
4) Use of electronic calculator and relevant I.S. codes are
allowed.
SECTION I
2. A) Calculate the consolidation settlement with following data : Foundation size
2 m 2 m, Load on foundation 700 kN, founding level is at 1.2 m below G.L. Soil
density = 18 kN/m3. Depth of compressible stratum below founding level = 1.5 m,
compression index Cc = 0.25, initial void ratio (e 0) = 0.6. Divide the
compressible layer into 3 equal strips for settlement computation. Assume
2 : 1 contact pressure distribution.
B) How the effect of water table is accounted in bearing capacity formula ?

Explain.
3. A) Design a strap footing (geometry only) for two columns (30 cm 30 cm)
carrying a loads of 1.2 MN and 0.9 MN, if the spacing between the two columns
is 5 m. Take allowable soil pressure as 200 kN/m2. The column carrying
heavier load is near property line.
B) State the limitations of plate load test.

4. A) With neat sketches explain various types of rafts you have studied.
B) Compare between rigid and flexible method of raft foundation analysis.
5. A) With neat sketches explain the effect of swelling on foundations.
B) Explain preloading method of ground improvement in detail.
5
8
5
8
5
SLR-UM 53
-6-
*SLRUM53*
SECTION II
6. A) Write a note on group action in case of piles. A 16-pile group has to be
arranged in the form of a square in soft clay with uniform spacing. Neglecting
end bearing, determine optimum value of spacing of piles in terms of pile
diameter, assume adhesion factor of 0.7.
B) With explanatory sketches, write a note on under-reamed pile foundation

construction.
7. A) Explain in detail the load transfer mechanism and settlement of drilled pier.
B) Describe the circumstances in which drilled pier is preferred over pile

foundation.
8. A) With the help of neat sketch explain the function of various component parts
of well foundation.
B) Write a note on Caisson disease.
9. A) Describe various types of machine foundations. Also mention their suitability

for different machines.
B) Discuss criterias for satisfactory performance of machine foundation.

______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 54
*SLRUM54*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------B.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Elective I : MANAGERIAL TECHNIQUES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N. B. : 1) Q. 1 is compulsory.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct alternative (1 mark each) :

1) Work study includes
a) Method study
b) Time study
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 54
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM54*
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Which of the following is a recording technique ?

a) Charts
b) Diagrams
c) Stop watch study
d) All the above
3) Productivity will increase using

a) Method study
b) Time study
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
4) PMTS means
a) Predetermined Motion Travel specification
b) Post dated Motion Travel Study
c) Presanctioned Method Time Study
d) None
5) Which of the following are time allowances ?
a) Relaxation allowance
b) Fatigue allowance
c) Personal allowance
d) All the above
6) Which of the following is most correct answer for increase in productivity ?

a) Time study
b) Method study
c) Both a) and b)
d) Human attitude
7) TQM means
a) Total Quality Management
b) Total Quantity Management
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
*SLRUM54*
-3-
8) Which of the following scientist is not involved in TQM ?

a) Juran
b) Gilbreth
c) Deming
d) Febingham
9) Kaizen means
a) Type of vehicle
b) Improvement methods
c) One time improvement
d) None
10) Demings overall approach is focused on
a) Improvement of quality std. work
b) Improvement of system and work
c) Quality improvement and quality control
d) Improvement of systems and process
11) There are ____________ S techniques in TQM.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
12) TQM involves at

a) Production
b) Quality control
c) Marketing
d) All the above
13) Work sampling includes

a) Confidence level
b) Random sampling
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
14) Sample size comes under _____________ technique.
a) Reliability
b) Value analysis
c) Work sampling
d) All the above
15) Reliability is a function

a) Time
b) Condition of use
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
SLR-UM 54
SLR-UM 54
-4-
*SLRUM54*
16) In reliability FEMA means

a) False Material and Effect Analysis
b) False Material and End Analysis
c) Failure Mode and Effect Analysis
d) None
17) _____________ curve is widely used in reliability analysis.
a) Reliability
b) Normal distribution
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
18) Value analysis and value engineering are
a) Same
b) Different
c) Can not say anything
d) None
19) Which of the following is important technique in value engineering ?
a) Abstract thinking
b) Creative thinking
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
20) Time study is also called as
a) Work measurement technique
b) Work improving method
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
______________________
*SLRUM54*
-5-
SLR-UM
54
SLR-UM
54
Seat
No.

Elective I : MANAGERIAL TECHNIQUES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
N. B. : Solve any three questions from each Section.

SECTION I
2. a) Explain the importance of work study to a civil engineer.
b) Write down steps in method study.
9
5
3. a) Explain different methods of job evaluation.

b) Write down role of trade union in work study.
8
5
4. a) Explain importance of TQM.

b) State elements of TQM.
8
5

a) Recording techniques.
b) Allowances in time study.
c) Kaizen.
5
4
4
SECTION II
6. a) Explain purpose and principles of work sampling.

b) Discuss Random sampling.
9
5
7. a) Discuss types of failures in reliability.

b) Write about curves in reliability engineering.
8
5
8. a) Discuss Value analysis as a cost of reduction technique.

b) Write down different phases in value engineering.
8
5

a) Application of value engineering.
b) Redundancy in reliability Engg.
c) Confidence level.
5
4
4
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 55
*SLRUM55*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________

Elective I : ADVANCED CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
Each MCQ carries two marks :

1) The retarder is used for one of the following purpose.
a) Cold weather concreting
b) Ready mixed concrete
c) Under water concreting
d) Pumpable concrete
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 55
*SLRUM55*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Which of the following type of vibration used for self compacting concrete
a) Surface vibrator
b) Needle vibrator
c) Platform vibrator
3) Higher size of aggregate _______________
a) reduces surface area of agg.

b) increases surface area
c) increases water quantity
d) none of above
4) The aggregate size for mass concrete is
a) 20 mm
b) 40 mm
c) 60 mm
d) 100 150 mm
5) Which of the following test gives correct workability measurement ?

a) slump cone test
b) flow table test
c) compaction factor test
d) Vee bee consistometer
6) The compressive strength of concrete is expected ___________ on 7th day

and _____________ on 28th day respectively.
a) 66% and 100%
b) 50% and 100%
c) 75% and 100%
d) 30% and 66%
*SLRUM55*
SLR-UM 55
-3-
7) Water in excess of that required for chemical reaction in concrete results in

a) Voids on drying
b) Cracks
c) Bleeding
d) Segregation
8) Admixtures could be used to
a) improve workability and strength

b) improve workability
c) improve cohesiveness
d) improve grade of concrete
9) One of the following is Non-destructive test of concrete
a) flexural test
b) split tensile test
c) winds or probe test
d) Vee-Bee test
10) The compressive strength of 43 grade of op cement after three days.

a) 18 mpa
b) 23 mpa
c) 33 mpa
d) 40 mpa
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM55*
SLR-UM 55
Seat
No.

Elective I : ADVANCED CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80

SECTION I
1. a) Distinguish between plasticizers and superplasticizers.

b) Classify the various concrete chemicals based on their use.
2. a) Write in brief about relationship between strength and density of concrete.
b) Discuss the maturity of concrete ? How is it measured ? What are its uses in
concrete industry.
3. a) List the aspects of HPC related to strength and durability.
b) What is volume fraction in fibre reinforced concrete and how does it affect
the behaviour in tension, flexure and shear ?
4
10
4
9
4
9
4. What is the significant difference between mixture proportioning of normal weight

and lightweight concrete ?
13
SECTION II
5. a) Explain the sustainability of concrete industry.
b) Explain the methods of manufacturing of ferro-cement.
4
10
6. How is the ready mixed concrete specified to satisfy the requirement in the
fresh and hardened states.
13
7. List the methods used for mix proportioning indicating the drawbacks of each
method.
13
8. a) Explain the significance of quality control.

b) What is meant by jacketing ? Describe the different types of jacketing.
_____________________
4
9
Code No.
SLR-UM 56
Seat
No.
*SLRUM56*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
Instructions :
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
n
n
For Office Use only
Code No.
Question No. 1 is MCQ, which is compulsory and to be

solved in 30 min., while solving MCQ IS 456-2000 and I.S.
1343 are not allowed to refer.
Write the correct option of each question.
Sl. No. 1 to 11 carries one mark each and Sl. No. 13 to 15
carries two marks and Sl. No. 12 three marks.
For solving MCQ I.S. 456 and I.S. 1343 are not allowed.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 56
*SLRUM56*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W

Marks : 20
1. Write the correct option in the box given [
]:
1) In case of 2-way slab, the limiting deflection of slab is
20
[
a) Primarily a function of long span

b) Primarily a function of short span
c) Independent of long span and short span
d) Dependent on both long span and short span
2) Effective span of continuous beam, if the width of support is greater
than 1/12 of clear span or 600 mm whichever is less for end span
with one end free and other continuous shall be ___________
[
a) Clear span + d/2

b) Clear span + d
c) Clear span + 1/2 width of discontinuous support
d) Clear span + d/2 or clear span + 1/2 width of discontinuous
support whichever is less
3) The prestressed concrete beam is suitable for ______________
a) Large spans
b) Short spans
c) Both large and short spans
d) None of these
4) The profile of cable in prestressed concrete beam is usually

similar to ______________
a) Shear force diagram
b) Bending moment diagram
c) None of a) and b)
d) T. M. diagram
*SLRUM56*
-3-
SLR-UM 56
5) In two way restrained slab the middle strip being ______________

times width.
6) In pre stressed concrete section the ______________ section is

effective.
[
a) 1/8
b) 3/4
c) 1/4
d) 1/2
a) Above N.A.
b) Below N.A.
c) Partially above and below
d) Entire section
7) For two way slab for max. B.M. per unit width in a slab in longer
direction is ______________
[
a) yWl2x
b) yWl2y
c) xWl2x
d) xWl2y
8) The stability of a retaining wall is checked for which of the

following condition
9) In design of rectangular P.S.C. beam the eccentricity of tendons

is given by
[
a) Overturning about toe
b) Overturning about heal
c) Both of above
a) 2 Md + Ml/2p
b) Md + 2Ml/2p
c) 2 Md + 2MI/p
10) The safe stress in concrete at transfer is ______________ fck

a) 0.3
b) 0.4
c) 0.5
d) 0.6
11) How is the deflection in RC beam controlled as per IS 456

a) By using large aspect ratio
b) By using small modular ratio
c) By controlling span to depth ratio
d) By moderating water cement ratio
SLR-UM 56
-4-
*SLRUM56*
12) A simply supported isotropically reinforced square slab of side 4 m

is subjected to a service load of 6 kPa with thickness 120 mm the
moment of reistance required as per yield line theory is
a) 9 kN-m
b) 9 kNm/m
c) 13.2 kNm
d) 13.2 kNm/m
13) In a load balanced Prestressed Concrete beam under self-load

the cross section is subjected to
a) Axial stress
b) Bending stress
c) Axial and shear stress
d) Axial and bending stress
14) From limiting deflection point of view, use of high strength steel
in RC beam results in
a) Reduction in depth
b) No change in depth
c) Increase in depth
d) Increase in width
15) In case of pre tensioned RC beams

a) Shrinkage of concrete is of order 3104
b) Relaxation of steel can be ignored
c) Only one wire can be stretched at a time
d) Even mild steel can be used for pre stressing
_____________________
*SLRUM56*
-5-
SLR-UM 56
Seat
No.

DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions :
n
n
n
Marks : 80
Answer any three questions from each Section.

Use of I.S. 456 and non-programmable calculator is allowed.
Draw neat sketchs where required and assume suitable
data with clear notification.
SECTION I
II. Design an open well type stair for a college building using the following data :
Floor to floor height = 3.6 m
No. of flights per floor = 3
Size of steps = 150 mm riser and 300 mm tread
Landings are supported all around by walls and by beams of width 300 mm at
floor levels.
Thickness of wall = 300 m
Use M20 concrete and Fe-500 steel.
13
III. Design a reinforced concrete slab for a room of clear dimension 3.65 m 5.0 m.
The slab is supported all around on walls of width 300 mm. The slab has to carry
a live load of 4 kN/m2 and floor finish 1 kN/m2. Use M20 concrete and Fe-500
steel. Assume corners are held down. Sketch the details of reinforcement.
13
IV. Design the stem slab of a counterfort retaining wall, if the height of wall above
the ground level is 5 m. SBC of soil is 200 kN/m2, angle of internal friction is 30
and unit weight of back fill is 18 kN/m2. Keep spacing of counterfort as 3 m.
Coefficient of friction between soil and concrete is 0.5. Use M20 mix and Fe 500
grade of steel.
14
SLR-UM 56
-6-
*SLRUM56*
V. Design a three span continuous rectangular beam of span 6.50 m each to carry a
dead load of 15 kN/m and live load of 9.5 kN/m. The beam is supported by
columns. Use M20 mix and Fe 500 grade of steel. Sketch the reinforcement
details.
13
SECTION II
VI. A P.S.C. rectangular beam 400 mm 600 mm carries a UDL of 35 kN/m with
span 6 m. The beam is applied with a prestressing force of 1000 kN along a
tendon having parabolic profile with eccentricity 100 mm at center and zero at
supports. Calculate the extreme stresses for the mid span section by using
strength concept, stress concept and load balancing concept.
13
VII. A PSC beam 230 mm wide and 450 mm deep has a span of 10 m. The beam is
prestressed by steel wires of area 350 mm2 provided at a uniform eccentricity of
75 mm with an initial prestress of 1250 N/mm2. Determine the percentage loss of
stress in the wire if the beam is post tensioned.
Es = 2 105 N/mm2
Ec = 3.5 105 N/mm2
Relaxation loss percentage 5%, esh = 1.9 104
Creep strain 25 106 N/mm2 of stress
Anchorage slip = 1.25 mm
Friction coefficient = 0.00015/m.
13
VIII. Design a PSC I section beam for the following :

Span = 16 m, superimposed load = 35 kN/m, cube strength of concrete at
28 days is 35 N/mm2.
Safe stress in concrete at transfer is 0.5 fck
Allowable tensile stress in concrete is 0.279 (fck)1/2
Safe stress in steel is 1500 MPa
Total loss of stress 20%
Ultimate stress in steel 1500 N/mm2.
14
*SLRUM56*
-7-
SLR-UM 56
IX. Figure 1 shows a PSC beam 400 mm wide and 800 mm deep. Determine the
horizontal, vertical and shear stresses at the point Q in the end block. Find also
the principal stresses at Q. The tendons are placed at an eccentricity of 100 mm.
The anchor plate is 300 mm wide and 200 mm deep. Prestressing force in
tendons is 1000 kN. Assume Kq = 0.251, Kz = 2.47.
_______________
13
Code No.
SLR-UM 57
Seat
No.
*SLRUM57*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

CONSTRUCTION PRACTICE AND TOWN PLANNING
Day and Date : Saturday, 31-5-2014 Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Use separate answer book for each Section.

Figures on right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data wherever required and mention it.
Marks : 20
1. A) Fill in the gaps with correct words :
1) The Indus Valley Civilization had a long coast with five ports viz.
______________________________ , ____________________________,
_____________________________, _________________________,
____________________________
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 57
*SLRUM57*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
B) Identify following sentences correct or wrong :
(Use words only)

a) Latis boom cranes predominantly handles hoist loads.
b) Telescopic boom cranes are capable of travelling on
public roads.
c) Ejector plate of the scraper is mounted at front of the bowl.
d) The slot Dozing technique usually increase production by

about 20%.
e) Sheepsfoot Roller is best suited for compaction of
cohesionless granular material like sand.
C) Match A Group items with B group items :
A
10
B
1) Objective of Town Planning
____________________________
2) Natural growth of Town
____________________________
3) Lewis Mumford
____________________________
4) Non profit making use of land
____________________________
*SLRUM57*
SLR-UM 57
-3-
5) Ebenezer Howard
____________________________
6) Out riggers
____________________________
7) Pneumatic-Tired Rollers
____________________________
8) Dozer
____________________________
9) Apron
____________________________
10) Hydraulic Hoe
____________________________
B Group :
Concept of Garden City
Low-centre of gravity machine
Beauty-convenience environment health
Kneading action
Concentric of pread
Six stages in town development
Front wall of the scraper bowl
Multipurpose tool platform
Improve stability of crane
Roads-parks-grounds.
____________________
*SLRUM57*
-5-
SLR-UM 57
Seat
No.

CONSTRUCTION PRACTICE AND TOWN PLANNING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80
Use separate answer book for each Section.

Figures on right indicate full marks.
Assume suitable data wherever required and mention it.
SECTION I
(Construction Practice)

i) Explain with neat sketch pitching and tilting movements of a dozer blade.
8
ii) Differentiate a lease and a loan for the construction equipment/machinery. 8
iii) Write in brief, a note on Navigational Dredging and Construction Dredging.
8
iv) Explain usefulness of Drum Dryer and Bag House in Hot Mix Plant
for asphalt concrete.
8
v) Explain the effect of bucket size and boom length on the production of a Dragline. 8
vi) List the advantages and disadvantages of prefabricated construction over
insitu construction.
8
vii) Write a note on Coefficient of traction.
8
(58=40)
SECTION II
(Town Planning)
a) Differentiate between Green Belt and Zoning.
b) Write short notes on Civic Survey and Social Survey.
c) What are the advantages of Zoning ?
d) Describe the contribution of Lauri Baker in the rural housing.
e) Differentiate between Demand Stores and Impulse Stores.
f) Explain with neat informative sketch Shoe string Development.
g) Explain necessity and objects of Land Acquisition Act.
__________________
8
8
8
8
8
8
8
(58=40)
Code No. SLR-UM
58
Seat
No.
*SLRUM58*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Elective- II : GROUND IMPROVEMENT TECHNIQUE
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Q. No.1 is multiple choice questions. Tick mark the correct option.

In Section I and II, solve any three questions.
Figure to the right indicates full marks.
Assume suitable data if required and mention it clearly.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct option : :
1) The engineering behaviour of soil under compaction for given amount of
compaction for a particular soil type, primarily depends on
a) Type of soil
b) Type of compaction
c) Moisture content
d) None of above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 58
*SLRUM58*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The factor that must be considered in the selection of best technique include
the following
a) Material availability
b) Environmental consideration
c) Local experiences and preferences
d) All the above
3) Vibrating smooth drum rollers are most effective in compacting _____________
a) Clean granular soil
b) Organic silt
c) Clay and silt
4) Drains are provided to
a) Lower water table
c) Reduce seepage forces
d) None of above
b) Reduce pore pressure
d) All the above
5) That part of consolidation which is completely controlled by the resistance to

flow of water under the induced hydraulic gradient is called _____________
a) Primary consolidation
b) Secondary consolidation
c) Tertiary consolidation
d) Compaction
6) For clean grade coefficient of permeability is the range of _____________

a) Less than 107 cm/sec
b) 1 to 10 cm/sec
c) 103 to 105 cm/sec
d) None of above
*SLRUM58*
SLR-UM 58
-3-
7) In sand drain construction following method is used.

a) High pressure water jetting
b) Wash boring
c) Displacement of natural ground
d) All the above
8) The process of gradual load transfer from pore water to soil skeleton and the
corresponding gradual compression is called _____________
a) Compaction
b) Consolidation
c) Elastic compression
d) None of above
9) The primary consolidation is normally _____________

a) More than secondary consolidation
b) Less than secondary consolidation
c) Equal to secondary consolidation
d) None of above
10) In blasting technique, compaction is done in more than one tier, if depth is
more than_____________
a) 20 m
b) 5 m
c) 10 m
d) 25 m
11) Vibrofloatation is efficient technique for

a) Densifying cohesive soil
b) Densifying cohesionless soil
c) Densifying clay-silt soil
d) None of above
12) Chemical grouts falls in the category of _____________
a) Suspension grouts
b) Solution grouts
c) Both a) and c)
d) None of above
13) Low viscosity grouts are suitable for _____________

a) Highly densed coarse grained soil
b) High permeable soil
c) Fine grained soil with low permeability
d) None of above
SLR-UM 58
*SLRUM58*
-4-
14) The process in which clay minerals or clay water system are altered, called
as _____________
a) Cementing
b) Mechanical stabilization
c) Void filling
d) Physico-Chemical alteration
15) Stone columns are also called as _____________

a) Sand pile
b) Granular pile
c) End bearing pile
d) Under reamed pile
16) The technique in which, chemical stabilizers are introduced at the anode and
carried towards the cathode by electro-osmosis is called _____________
a) Jet grouting
b) Circuit grouting
c) Tube grouting
d) Electro kinetic grouting
17) The hydraulic properties of geosynthetics are controlled by _____________

a) Fabric opening characteristics
b) Water permeability
c) Clogging resistance
d) All above
18) The areas where geosynthetic-soil reinforcement may be applied is _____________
a) Foundation
b) Slopes and embankments
c) Retaining walls
d) All above
19) Poly propylene is mainly available in _____________

a) Granular form
b) Liquid form
c) Gas form
d) None of above
20) Bituminous stabilization is suitable for soil having liquid limit.

a) More than 40%
b) Less than 40%
c) More than 60%
d) Less than 60%
*SLRUM58*
-5-
SLR-UM 58
Seat
No.
B.E. (Civil) (Part - II) Examination, 2014

Elective- II : GROUND IMPROVEMENT TECHNIQUE
Marks : 80
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) In Section I and II, solve any three questions.
2) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if required and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. A) Discuss the need of ground improvement and write the principle of ground
improvement in cohesive and cohesionless soil.
B) Which are the types of mechanical modification ? Explain.
8
5
3. A) Explain in detail with neat sketch the electro-kinetic approach of dewatering. 8

B) Write briefly about stabilization by freezing technique.
4. A) Explain in detail how heavy tamping technique can be used to improve ground.
In what type of soil you recommend it.
B) What is the concept of sand pile ? Explain.
5. A) Write in detail the construction procedure of stone column.
B) Enlist function of stone column.
8
6
8
5
SLR-UM 58
-6-
*SLRUM58*
SECTION II
6. A) Describe the various functions and uses of geotextiles in the following situation :
1) Doubling a railway track
2) Construction of embankment in deep soft clay.
8
B) Enlist different functions of geotextiles.
7. A) Discuss the deep dynamic compaction method stating its advantages and
disadvantages.
5
8
B) Enumerate different techniques for slope stabilization. Explain any one briefly. 6
8. A) Explain the basic functions of grouting and differentiate between consolidation
grouts and water proofing grouts.
B) Enlist the requirement of grout.
8
5
9. A) Describe in detail the engineering benefits of lime stabilization.
B) Discuss different admixtures used for chemical stabilization.
Code No.
SLR-UM 59
*SLRUM59*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------B.E. (Part II) (Civil) Examination, 2014

TRAFFIC ENGINEERING AND CONTROL (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.

Marks : 20
I. Choose the correct option (Each carry one mark) :

1) Various factors which affect road user characteristic
a) Physical
b) Mental
c) Psychological
d) All the above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 59
*SLRUM59*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) Knowledge, skill, intelligence comes under _____________ characteristic.

a) Physical
b) Psychological
c) Mental
d) None
3) Height of single decked vehicle for normal application is

a) 3.8 m
b) 4 m
c) 2.5 m
d) 3.5 m
4) Full form of AADT

a) Average Annual Daily Traffic
b) Annual Available Daily Traffic
c) Annual Average Daily Traffic
d) None
5) Instantaneous speed of a vehicle @ specified section or location is called as
a) On-time speed
b) Average speed
c) Spot speed
d) Spot location speed
6) 85th percentile speed will ___________ than 98th percentile speed.
a) Equal
b) Less
c) Greater than
d) All the above
7) Floating car survey is a method of carrying out

a) Speed and delay
b) O-D
c) Traffic volume count
d) Traffic forecast
*SLRUM59*
SLR-UM 59
-3-
8) Basic traffic manoeuvres

a) Diverging
b) Merging
c) Crossing
d) All
9) Example for traffic control devices are

a) Signs and Signals
b) Marketing and Islands
c) Both a) and b)
d) Only a)
10) The main disadvantage of traffic signal is

a) Waste of time
b) Increases journey time
c) Increases rear end collision
d) All
11) The various places of traffic engineering are implemented with the help of
a) Engineering
b) Enforcement
c) Education
d) All
12) Angle of peripheral vision is about

a) 110 horizontal and 90 vertical direction
b) 145 horizontal and 110 vertical direction
c) 160 horizontal and 115 vertical direction
d) 115 horizontal and 160 vertical direction
13) Total reaction time d.c. average driver vary from
a) 0.5 4 sec.
b) 2 3 sec.
c) 4 5 sec.
d) 1 5 sec.
14) Width of vehicle affects the

a) Width of the lane
b) Width of shoulders
c) Parking facilities
d) All
15) Enoscope is used to find out
a) Running speed
b) Spot speed
c) Journey speed
d) All
SLR-UM 59
*SLRUM59*
-4-
16) The diagram which shows the approximate path of vehicle and pedestrians
involved in accident is called a
a) Condition dia
b) Collition dia
c) Spot diagram
d) Black spot diagram
17) Curb parking is also called as

a) Mechanical parking
b) Off -street parking
c) On-street parking
d) None
18) __________ sign are in shape of equilateral triangle with its open upward.
a) Informatory
b) Worming
c) Regulatory
d) All
19) The inspection of vehicles the checking of first aid box, seating arrangement
are done for which type of vehicles.
a) Personal vehicles
b) Public vehicles
c) Both a) and b)
d) None
20) Percentage of parking bays actually occupied by parked vehicles as compared

to the theoretical number available is called as
a) Parking load
b) Parking turnover
c) Parking index
d) Parking accumulation
______________________
*SLRUM59*
-5-
SLR-UM
59
SLR-UM
59
Seat
No.
B.E. (Part II) (Civil) Examination, 2014

TRAFFIC ENGINEERING AND CONTROL (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
PART A
II. Answer any two questions (each qtn. carry 20 marks).
1) a) List and explain the factors which affects road user characteristics.
b) Write a short notes on PIEV theory with neat sketch.
c) Define traffic engineering and its scope.
2) a) Explain O-D studies and its application. List out the different method of
conducting O-D survey.
b) Define spot-speed study and its use. With neat sketch explain the working
of Eroscope.
c) Write a short notes on classification of intersections.
6
6
3) a) With neat sketch explain different types of on-street parking and also
explain its advantages and disadvantages.
b) List and explain various causes of accidents.
c) Define :
i) Parking accumulation
ii) Parking load
iii) Parking turnover.
SLR-UM 59
-6-
*SLRUM59*
PART B
III. Answer any two questions (each carry 20 marks).
1) a) What is the purpose of providing One way street with neat sketch explain
its advantages ?
b) Write a short notes on Regulation of vehicles.
c) Write a short notes on Driver Licensing.
2) a) Explain Regulatory sings with neat sketch. Explain different type of

regulation signs.
b) List out different types of pavement markings and explain any two briefly.
c) Write a short notes on type of traffic signal.
3) a) Explain :
i) Radar gun.
ii) Portable skid resistance tests.
b) Write a short notes on road lighting.
c) Write a short notes on Reaction time.
_____________________
*SLRUM6*
SLR-UM
SLR-UM
66
-1-
Seat
No.
Set
ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY (Group B)

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : i) All MCQ are compulsory.

ii) Each question carries one mark.
iii) MCQ should be solved in first 30 min. in OMR Sheet given.
Marks : 20
20
1) Hard water can be softened by passing it through

A) Zeolite
B) Ion-exchange resin
C) Semipermeable membrane
D) All of these
2) Activated sludge process of sewage treatment is ____________ process.
A) Aerobic
B) Anaerobic C) Chlorination D) Disinfection
3) Which of the following is used as disinfectant ?
A) Chlorine
B) Bleaching powder
C) Chloramine
D) All of these
4) In silver-lead system, the composition at eutectic point is
A) 2% Ag ; 98% Pb
B) 4% Ag ; 96% Pb
C) 2.6% Ag ; 97.4% Pb
D) 2.6% Pb ; 97.4% Ag
5) The homogeneous mixture of different gases in atmosphere is
A) One component system
B) One phase system
C) Two component system
D) Two phase system
6) A good lubricant should have
A) Low V.I.
B) High V.I.
C) Low fire point
D) Low flash point
7) A lubricating oil with highest aniline point means the oil contains minimum
_________________
A) Aromatic hydrocarbon
B) Aliphatic hydrocarbon
C) Long chain hydrocarbon
D) None of these
P.T.O.
Set A
SLR-UM 6
*SLRUM6*
-2-
8) Thinner are added to paint to

A) Reduce cost at the paint
B) Provide main film forming constituent
C) Improve drying quality of the oil film
D) Reduce viscosity to a suitable consistency
9) In acidic corroding medium, corrosion of metal takes place by
B) O2 absorption mechanism
A) H2 evolution mechanism
D) O2 evolution mechanism
C) H2 absorption mechanism
10) At highest temperature, rate of atmospheric corrosion ___________
A) Decreases
B) Remains constant
C) Increases
D) Can not be predicted
11) Mild steel contains carbon in the range of
A) 0.15 to 1.5%
B) 0.15 to 0.30%
C) 0.30 to 0.80%
D) 0.80 to 1.5%
12) The main constituent of safety glass is
C) Vinyl Plastic D) Boron
A) CaO
B) SiO2
13) Presence of alcohol in blood is detected by a technique, known as
A) UV spectroscopy
B) pH-metry
C) Gas chromatography
D) None of these
14) The amount of nitrogen in coal is determined by
A) Proximate analysis
B) Ultimate analysis
C) Burning it in air
15) A Polymer-Polyurethane is used for
A) Heart valves
B) Blood filters
16) Wrought iron is
A) Ductile
B) Malleable
17) Solid fuel can be used

A) In internal combustion engine
C) In jet engine
C) Artificial hearts
C) Weldable
D) All of them
D) All are correct
B) In diesel engine
D) For heating boilers
18) Decrease in mass of a sample with rise in temperature is measured by

A) Thermogravimetric analysis
B) Gas chromatography
C) Colorimetry
19) A plastic which can be softened on heating and hardened on coding is called
A) Thermo elastic
B) Thermo plastic
C) Thermo setting
20) Glass with low thermal co-efficient and high chemical resistance is
A) Soda Glass
B) Hard Glass
C) Flint Glass
D) Boro silicate Glass
_______________
Set A
*SLRUM6*
-3-
SLR-UM 6
Instructions : i) Attempt all questions.

ii) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary.
SECTION I
20
a) Define reverse osmosis. Explain the process of water softening by reverse

osmosis.
b) Explain Ag-Pb system using phase diagram.
c) Write a note on semisolid lubricants (grease).
d) Define varnish. Give its types, properties and applications.
e) A sample of water on analysis was found to contain following impurities in ppm.
Impurities
Amount
Mole. wt.
Ca(HCO3)2
30
162
Mg(HCO3)2
CaCl2
20
25
146
111
MgCl2
15
95
Calculate temporary, permanent and total hardness.

3. A) i) Explain anaerobic process for domestic waste water treatment.
ii) Explain metastable equilibrium in water system.
OR
A) i) Define lubricant. Explain boundary (thin) film lubrication.
ii) Describe cathodic protection of prevention of corrosion by sacrificial
anode method.
4
4
4
4
B) Attempt any two :

1) Explain any three types of liquid lubricants.
2) a) Explain galvanization process of metallic coating for prevention of

corrosion.
b) State Gibbs phase rule.

3) a) Explain the mechanism of corrosion by oxygen absorption.
b) Define (i) Scale (ii) Sludge.
2
4
2
Set A
SLR-UM 6
*SLRUM6*
-4-
SECTION II
20
a) Write differences between Cis and trans variety of natural rubber.
b) Define a Alloy. Write any four purposes of alloying with suitable examples.
c) Explain extrusion method of moulding of plastic into articles.
d) Write chemical composition of Portland cement. Explain functions of each
component of Portland cement.
e) Define propellant. How are they classified ?
f) Following observations were made by Bomb calorimeter.
Wt. of coal burnt = 1.2 gm.
Wt. of water taken in calorimeter = 1200 gm.
Rise in temp. = 2.50C.
Fuse wire correction = 8.0 Cal.
Acid correction = 25.0 Cal.
Cooling correction = 0.022C.
Percentage of hydrogen = 6.0%.
Latent heat of steam = 580 Cal/gm.
Calculate Gross and Net Calorific value of Coal.
5. A)
i) Define Thermogravimetric Analysis (TGA). Explain its instrumentation

and applications with suitable diagram.
ii) Tetrafluoroethylene on polymerization form polytetrafluoroethylene of
mol. wt. 15,750. Calculate the degree of polymerization.
Mol. wt. CF2 = CF2 = 100

n CF2= CF2 ( CF2 CF2 )n
OR
A) i) Write differences between natural rubber and vulcanized rubber.
ii) Write a note on Fibre-reinforced plastic.
2
4
4
B) Solve any two :

1) i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of Boys calorimeter.
ii) Differentiate between Gaseous and Solid fuel.
3
3
2) i) What is the weight of NaCl required to prepare 500 ml. of 0.07 N and
0.04 M NaCl solution mol.wt. NaCl = 58.5 ?
( )
ii) Define number average mol.wt Mn .

3) i) Explain manufacture of Glass (Soda Glass) by Tank Furnace.
ii) Write only importance of proximate analysis of fuel.
____________
2
4
2
Set A
Code No.
*SLR-UM-60*
SLR-UM 60
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

SOLID AND HAZARDOUS WASTE MANAGEMENT (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 MCQ is compulsory.

2) From Section I, Question No. 2 and from Section II
question No. 6, are compulsory. Attempt any two other
questions from each of the Section.
4) Use of Non-programmable calculator is allowed.
Marks : 20
1. Multiple choice questions (each 1 mark) :
20
1) The management of solid waste from the point of generation to final disposal
have been grouped into ______________ functional elements.
a) Six
b) Seven
c) Eight
d) Nine
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 60
*SLR-UM-60*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Separation, processing of solid waste are used to reduce _____________

a) Volume of solid waste
b) Weight of s.w.
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
3) The pyrolysis process of S.W.M. is

a) Endothermic
b) Exothermic
c) Heterothermic
d) None of these
4) Hauled container system are ideally suited for the removal of wastes from
sources, where the rate of generation is _____________
a) high
b) low
c) medium
d) none of these
5) Mechanical size reduction operation includes _____________

a) Shredding
b) Grinding
c) Miling
d) All of above
6) Tub grinders are used for grinding

a) Cloth wastes
b) Glass waste
c) Yard wastes
d) None of these
7) Balers for reduction of solid waste used to _____________

a) Reduce volume of waste
b) Prepare waste for marketing
c) Increase density of waste
d) All of above
*SLR-UM-60*
SLR-UM 60
-3-
8) MRFs term in S.W.M. used for _____________

a) Material Recovery Facilities
b) Major Relief Fund
c) Minimum Raw Food
d) None of these
9) Recovery of energy in the form of heat is obtained from _____________

a) Combustion process
b) Sanitary land filling
c) Anaerobic process
d) None of these
10) Stoichiometric amounts of air for combustion of S.W. means _____________

a) Amount of oxygen required for burning
b) Amount of carbon required for burning
c) Amount of sulphur required for burning
d) None of these
11) Leachate is coloured liquid that comes out of
a) septic tank
b) sanitary land fills
c) compost plants
d) aerated lagoons
12) An environmental problem with land fill is

a) Ground water pollution
b) Incomplete decomposition
c) Methane production
d) All of above
13) Hazardous wastes are

a) Non-degradable or persistent in nature
b) They cannot be biologically magnified
c) They cannot be hazardous
d) None of these
14) Uranium compounds have half-lives that range from
a) 68 years for U232 to 23000 years for U236
b) 72 years for U232 to 23420000 years for U236
c) 50 years for U232 to 10000 years for U236
SLR-UM 60
*SLR-UM-60*
-4-
15) The Bio-medical Waste Management Act were in-acted in

a) 1988
b) 1996
c) 1976
d) 1998
16) Hazardous biological wastes are generated in

a) Hospitals
b) Biological research facilities
c) Industrial biological conversion processes
d) All of the above
17) Explosive waste any exist in
a) Solid form
b) Solid and liquid form
c) solid, liquid and gaseous form
18) Important aspects in the implementation of sanitary land fills include
a) Site selection
b) Land filling methods
c) Movement and control of land fill gases and leachate
d) All of the above
19) Which of the following is not a problem with landfills ?
a) Incomplete decomposition
b) Methane production
c) Settling
d) Increasing run off into lakes and streams
20) House hold hazardous waste includes batteries and _____________
a) Radioactive waste
b) Food waste
c) Leachate
d) Nail polish
______________________
*SLR-UM-60*
SLR-UM 60
-5-
Seat
No.

SOLID AND HAZARDOUS WASTE MANAGEMENT (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) From Section I, Question No. 2 and from Section II

question No. 6, are compulsory. Attempt any two other
questions from each of the Section.
3) Use of Non-programmable calculator is allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Estimate the moisture contect of solid waste sample of 100 kg using following
data :
Sr. No.
Component %age by mass
%age by m.c
Food waste
16
65
Paper
36
08
Cardboards
05
05
Plastics
10
02
Grass
12
55
Wood
08
04
Metals
13
03
b) Explain the functional elements of municipal solid waste management with

flow diagram.
3. a) Explain theory of composting in brief.
b) Distinguish between Indore method and Bangalore method of composting.
6
6
7
SLR-UM 60
-6-
*SLR-UM-60*
4. a) What are the benefits of recycling of solid waste ?

b) Write short note on Need for MSW management.
5. a) Write short note on legal aspects of S.W.M.
6
7
5
b) Write short note on solid waste (Management and handling) Rules.
c) Write short note on pyrolysis and its products.
SECTION II
6. a) Explain the different characteristics of hazardous waste. Give atleast two
examples of hazardous waste.
b) Write a note on Risk Management.
c) Explain in brief how you will minimize the damage due to natural hazards.
7. a) What are the different factors affecting the site selection for storage of
hazardous waste ? Explain in brief.
b) Draw the cross section of a sanitary landfill and explain the essential components.
8. a) Define hazardous waste. Explain in detail natural and manmade hazards.
b) Write in detail about qualitative estimation of damages.
9. a) Write a detailed note on Waste Minimization.
b) Explain in detail any hazard episode.
___________________
6
7
7
6
7
6
Code No.
SLR-UM 61
*SLRUM61*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

DESIGN OF BRIDGES (Elective II)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Code No.
Question No. 1 is MCQ which is compulsory.

Solve any three questions each from Section I and Section II.

1. Give the correct option for the following questions :
1) The minimum width of carriage way for a two lane bridge is
a) 4.25 m
b) 10 m
c) 6 m
d) 7.5 m
Marks : 20
(120=20)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 61
*SLRUM61*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) ________________ is the minimum grade of concrete for prestressed concrete

bridges.
a) M-30
b) M-20
c) M-40
d) M-25
3) The minimum width of carriage way for a single lane bridge is

a) 4.25 m
b) 6 m
c) 10 m
d) 7.5 m
4) As per IRC-21, minimum clear cover to any reinforcement bar is

a) 40 mm
b) 25 mm
c) 50 mm
d) 30 mm
5) As per crack control criteria of IRC-21, the spacing of main reinforced bar
shall not exceed
a) 100 mm
b) 300 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 150 mm
6) Permissible direct compressive stress for M-20 concrete is

a) 3.8 MPa
b) 5.0 MPa
c) 7 MPa
d) 6.2 MPa
7) Courbons theory is applicable only when the ratio of span to width is

a) Greater than 2 but less than 4
b) Greater than 4
c) Greater than 4 but less than 6
d) None of these
*SLRUM61*
SLR-UM 61
-3-
8) T-Beam bridges are most commonly adopted in the span of

a) 5 8 m
b) 10 25 m
c) 30 50 m
d) None of these
9) As per crack control criteria of IRC-21, the diameter of bar in slabs shall not
exceed
a) 36 mm
b) 32 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 40 mm
10) The minimum number of cross beams in a bridge should be

a) 3
b) 5
c) 6
d) None of these
11) The minimum cement content for minor bridges is

a) 250 kg/mm3
b) 360 kg/mm3
c) 400 kg/mm3
d) 450 kg/mm3
12) Span is called as economical span when

a) Cost of substructure should be equal to cost of superstructure
b) Cost of substructure should be greater than Cost of superstructure
c) Cost of substructure should be less than cost of superstructure
d) Does not depend on cost
13) Simply supported span requires
a) Fixed bearing at both ends
b) Expansion bearing at both ends
c) Fixed bearing at one end and expansion bearing at the other
d) Either a) or b), both are correct
14) Continuous girder requires
a) Fixed bearing on all supports
b) Expansion bearing on all supports
c) Expansion bearing on all support except at one
d) Fixed bearing on all support except at one
SLR-UM 61
*SLRUM61*
-4-
15) The toe and heel of the base slab are so proportioned that is eccentricity of
resultant is limited to
a) 1/3 of the base width
b) 1/6 of the base width
c) 2/3 of the base width
d) 1/2 of the base width
16) The bearing plate are so dimension that the bearing stress due to dead load
and live load does not exceed
a) 4.2 MPa
b) 6.2 MPa
c) 3.0 MPa
d) 5.0 MPa
17) Inspection of bridge done after earthquake is called as

a) Special inspection
b) Routine inspection
c) In-depth inspection
d) All of above
18) In through type of Bridge superstructure is ______________ floor level.

a) Above
b) Below
c) Centre
d) None of these
19) Section III of IRC bridge codes is related with

a) Loads and stress
b) Foundation and substructure
c) Cement concrete (plain and reinforced)
d) Steel road bridges
20) Braking force is taken as ______________ of the design vehicle load.
a) 0.2
b) 0.4
c) 0.6
d) 0.8
_____________________
*SLRUM61*
-5-
SLR-UM 61
Seat
No.

DESIGN OF BRIDGES (Elective II)
Day and Date :Tuesday, 3-6-2014
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions each from Section I and Section II.
SECTION I
A) Enlist the various loads to be considered for the analysis of bridges ? Explain
any one in detail.
B) Write a note on Courbons theory with its limitations.
C) Explain the IRC class B loading for bridges. Write about its suitability.
3. Design a solid deck slab for four lane bridge for following data :
a) Effective span 7.5 m
b) Carriage way width 15 m
c) Kerb 600 275 on both side
d) Live load IRC Class A (four lane)
e) Wearing coat 100 mm thick
f) Use M-30 concrete and Fe-415 steel
5
5
4
13
g) Use = 3 .
4. A RCC T beam type bridge having deck slab of 200 mm thick, wearing coat of
85 mm thick, four longitudinal girders and five cross girders. Design the exterior
longitudinal girder. Use following additional data :
a) Carriage way width-9 m
b) Span of bridge 16 m
c) Live Load IRC class AA Tracked
d) Kerb 600 mm wide, 400 mm deep
e) Web thickness for Longitudinal and cross girder 300 mm
f) Longitudinal Girder spacing 2.5 m
g) Use M-30 concrete and Fe-415 steel.
Find the percentage change in the design bending moments of Exterior girder if
the live load of IRC class A (Two lane) is considered.
13
SLR-UM 61
*SLRUM61*
-6-
Fig. 1. Moment Coefficients m1 and m2 for K = 0.7 for Q. No. 5
5. Design a slab panel having size of 3 m 4.28 m. Consider IRC class AA tracked
loading. Use Pigeauds chart. Consider thickness of slab as 200 mm and wearing
coat thickness as 85 mm. Use M-30 concrete and Fe-415 steel. Refer Fig. 1 and 2
for Pigeuads coefficient.
13
Fig. 2 Moment Coefficients for Slab Completely Loaded with Uniformly

Distributed load, Coefficient is m1, for m2 for 1/K for Q. No. 5.
*SLRUM61*
-7-
SLR-UM 61
SLR-UM 61
-8-
*SLRUM61*
SECTION II
6. Verify the adequacy of pier for the following data :
Top width of pier-1.8 m, Height of pier upto springing level 10 m, C/C distance
of bearing 1 m, side batter 1 : 14, HFL-1.5 m below the bearing level, span of
bridge-18 m, Self weight of the superstructure = 200 kN/m, Live load-IRC class
AA tracked, Material of pier = M20 concrete.
13
7. Verify the suitability of abutment as shown in the fig. 7.1. Use following data
Density of soil 18 kN/m3, Friction angle of soil ( o/ ) = 30.
Coefficient of friction 0.5, Live load IRC class AA tracked.
13
DL reaction of superstructure = 1500 kN
Fig. No. 7.1

8. A) Design a elastomeric unreinforced bearing pad for following data :
Vertical load (sustained) = 178 kN
Vertical load (dynamic) = 58 kN,
Horizontal force = 90 kN
Modulus of rigidity of elastomer-1.1 N/mm2
Coefficient of friction = 0.4.
B) Write a note on Reinforced Earth Abutment.
9. Write a note on following (any four) :
a) Cantilever method of construction
b) Types of bridge pier with their suitability
c) Expansion joints
d) Function of Approach slab
e) Importance of bridge inspection.
_____________________
8
5
(3.5 4=14)
Code No.
SLR-UM 62
*SLRUM62*
Seat
No.

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Elective - III : ADVANCED DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Question No. I is MCQ, which is compulsory. The time

duration for which in first 30 minutes.
2) Write the correct option of each question.
3) For solving MCQ IS 456 and IS 3370 are not allowed to refer.
4) Write correct option in box given.
5) Use of IS 456-2000 and IS 3370 are allowed.
Marks : 20
I. 1) As per IS 456-2000 recommendation in case of grid slab, width of beams

should not be less than ___________ mm.
a) 65 mm
b) 80 mm
c) 75 mm
20
d) 70 mm
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 62
*SLRUM62*
-2-
DO
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2) For fixed slab Mr at centre in case of circular slab is given by __________

a)
1
qR 2
16
b)
2
qR 2
16
c)
3
qR 2
16
d)
4
qR 2
16
3) In case of circular slab, for fixed slab Mr at support is ___________

a)
2
qR 2
16
b)
3
qR 2
16
c)
1
qR 2
16
d)
4
qR 2
16
4) In case of water tank permissible stress for concrete in direct tension

for grade of concrete M 20 is ___________ N/mm2.
a) 1.3
b) 1.2
c) 1.4
d) 1.5
5) The permissible tensile stress in H.Y.S.D bars on face away from

liquid if thickness of member grater than 225 mm is _______N/mm2.
a) 150
b) 115
c) 125
d) 190
6) In case of combined footing, critical section for double shear is

___________ from the face of heavily loaded column is
a) d/2
b) d
c) 2d
d) 3d
7) The permissible tensile stress in M.S. bars on liquid retaining face

is ___________ N/mm2.
a) 125
b) 100
c) 115
d) 150
*SLRUM62*
SLR-UM 62
-3-
8) The minimum spacing of piles shall be ___________ to ___________

times diameter of the piles.
a) 2 to 3
b) 2.5 to 3
c) 1.5 to 2
d) 1 to 1.5
9) For thickness of slab upto 100 mm in case of water tank the minimum
percentage of reinforcement should be ___________
a) 0.1
b) 0.2
c) 0.3
d) 0.4
10) According to Rankine Grashoff method, in case of grid slab

My = ___________
2
a) (q2ly )
2
c) (q2ly )
8
10
2
b) (q2ly )
11) The permissible tensile stress in H.Y.S.D. bars on face away from
liquid if thickness of member less than 225 mm is ________ N/mm2.
a) 100
b) 150
c) 125
d) 115
12) As per IS 456-2000 recommendation in case of grid slab, width of

beams should not be less than ___________ mm.
a) 65 mm
b) 80 mm
c) 75 mm
d) 70 mm
13) In case of circular slab for partially fixed slab Mr at centre is given
by ___________
a)
2
qR 2
16
b)
3
qR 2
16
c)
1
qR 2
16
d)
4
qR 2
16
SLR-UM 62
-4-
*SLRUM62*
14) For a circular slab circumferential moment per unit length is given
by M = ___________
a) M =C2 qR 0.5
b) M =C2 qR 3
c) M =C2 qR 4
d) M =C2 qR 2
15) The maximum B.M. coefficient for circular simply supported slab
subjected to udl over entire surface at centre shall be ___________
a) 3 16
b) 2 16
c) 116
d) 0
16) For flat slab, If drops are not provided or size of drops do not satisfy
the specification then the ratio shall not exceed ___________ times
the value specified.
a) 1
b) 1.2
c) 0.9
d) 1.5
17) Grid slabs are economical up to size ___________ m spans.

a) 5-10 m
b) 10-25 m
c) 8-10 m
d) 6-9 m
18) In case of water tank for concrete permissible stress in bending

tension for grade of M25 concrete is ___________ N/mm2.
a) 1.8
b) 2.5
c) 2.8
d) 2.7
19) In case of water tanks the permissible tensile stress in shear

reinforcement (M.S. bars) for members having thickness less than
225 mm is ___________ N/mm2.
a) 175
b) 125
c) 115
d) 190
20) The permissible tensile stress in M.S. bars on liquid retaining face
is ___________ N/mm2.
a) 115
b) 100
c) 125
d) 150
_____________________
*SLRUM62*
-5-
SLR-UM 62
Seat
No.

Elective - III : ADVANCED DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Use of IS 456-2000 and IS 3370 are allowed.

3) Solve any two questions from each Section.
SECTION I
II. a) Sketch the reinforcement details for the sessions passing through middle
strip and column strips of a flat slab.
b) A circular slab of diameter 5.65 m is subjected to a super imposed load of

3 kN/m2 with a floor finish of 1kN/m2. It may be considered as partially fixed
at supports. Use M 20 concrete and fe 500 steel. Sketch the reinforcement
details.
14
III. Design a reinforced concrete raft foundation connecting the columns of

multistoraged building. The column are arrayed in square grid 16 m 16 m with
their spacing 4 m apart. The SBC of the soil in 100 kN/m2. The total service load
on all column in 4800 kN. The column are 400 mm 400 mm in section. Adopt
M 20 concrete and Fe 500 steel. Sketch the details of reinforcement in the raft
foundation.
20
IV. A pile cap connecting 4 reinforced concrete piles of 300 mm x 300 mm in to be

designed to support a reinforced concrete column 400 mm x 400 mm carrying a
service load of 2000 kN. The pile are located parallel to the column faced with
their centres located 800 mm from centre of column. Using M 20 grade concrete
and Fe 500 steel, design the pile cap and sketch the details of reinforcements.
20
SLR-UM 62
-6-
*SLRUM62*
SECTION II
V. Design a circular water tank of 100000 liters capacity. The depth of tank is
limited to 3 meters from inside. Keep the joint between wall and slab as rigid. The
base slab rests on good strata. Use M20 grade concrete and Fe 415 steel. Draw
a neat sketch showing the details of reinforcement.
20
VI. Design a rectangular tank 5 m 8 m 3 m high. The tank is open at top and the
walls are rigidly fixed to the base which rests on firm ground. Use M 20 grade
concrete and Fe 415 steel. Draw a neat sketch showing the details of
reinforcement.
20
VII. Design an underground circular water tank 4 m internal diameter and 2 m deep.
The sub soil consists of dune sand having unit weight of 16000 n/cum and angle
of friction 34 degrees. The sub soil water is at great depth. Use m 20 grade
concrete and Fe 415 steel. Draw a neat sketch showing the details of
reinforcement.
20
_______________
SLR-UM 63
Code No.
S
*SLRUM63*
&
e
t
f
C
Instructions :1) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e. Question no. 2
to Question no. 5. Question no. 6 is compulsory in Section II
clearly.
5) Question number one is MCQ/objective type question and
first 30 minutes of total time are reserved for this. After
end of 30 minutes return the objective question paper cum
answer sheet to the supervisor.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 63
*SLRUM63*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
Marks : 20
1. Choose correct option and tick mark the same in the box provided against it.
1) Nitrification is the process where ammonia is oxidized to nitrites and
then to _____________ by aerobic nitrifying bacteria.
a) Nitrogen gas
b) Phosphate
c) Nitrates
d) Nitrous acid
2) The removal of ______________ and suspended solids is termed as

secondary treatment.
a) Non biodegradable inorganic matter
b) Toxic substances
c) Biodegradable organic matter
3) Presence of _______________ on surface wastewater prevents oxygen
to penetrate.
a) Suspended solids
b) Oil and Grease
c) Micro-organisms
d) Suspended matter
4) Inorganic elements are formed by combination of ______________ action

of loads.
a) Chemical and Biological
b) Physical and Chemical
c) Physical and Biological
20
*SLRUM63*
SLR-UM 63
-3-
5) The particle attaining a uniform velocity and settles with constant velocity
is known as ________________
a) Limiting velocity
b) Fractional resistance
c) Settling velocity
d) Drag force
6) Sludge with poor settling characteristics is termed as ____________

a) Rising sludge
b) Bulking sludge
c) Loading sludge
d) Activated sludge
7) The removal of tannin and COD is quite effective by adding ___________

chemical coagulant.
a) Ferrous sulphate
b) Ferric chloride
c) Lime
d) Alum
8) The ______________ obtained by smelting in dissolved water from

organics like lignin, resin burnt out.
a) Black liquor
b) Spent wash
c) White liquor
d) Green liquor
9) _______________ is a process where washed hides are limed with

paste of lime and sodium sulphide.
a) Brewing
b) Kraft
c) Tanning
d) Oxidizing
10) Desizing and scouring operation is of ______________ industry.

a) Textile
b) Pulp and paper
c) Sugar
d) Tannery
11) ______________ is a process where water becomes clear and the

stream returns to its original condition.
a) Reaeration
b) Adsorption
c) Settling
d) Self purification
12) __________________ is a process in which clarified juice is treated by

passing sulphur gas.
a) Clarification
b) Sulphitation
c) Crystallization
d) Coagulation
SLR-UM 63
*SLRUM63*
-4-
13) Strength of wastewater generated from industry can be reduced by

_______________
a) Process change
b) Segregation
c) Reuse and recycle
d) In plant control measures
14) Cation exchange process in which ___________ waste is directly passed

through resin bed.
a) Alkaline
b) High pH
c) Acidic
d) High salt content
15) _______________ is provided to produce an effluent of fairly and uniform

characteristics.
a) Neutralisation
b) Grit chamber
c) Physical treatment
d) Equilisation
16) The degree of treatment of acidic and alkaline waste is determined

according ______________ of receiving water after mixing.
a) Toxicity
b) pH
c) Organic waste
d) Hardness
17) The fibrous residue of sugar mill house is known as ____________

a) bagasses
b) massecuite
c) crystallizer
d) molasses
18) The most common treatment adapted for removal of colour from textile
dyeing _______________
a) Lime mud process
b) Ozone treatment
c) Carbon treatment
d) Ion exchange
19) Aeration not only prevent formation of lactic acid but also reduces
BOD by ______________ %.
a) 10
b) 25
c) 50
d) 90
20) Black liquor from paper mill waste is recovered by _____________

a) Activated carbon
b) Precipitation
c) Fenton reagent
d) Biological treatment
______________________
*SLRUM63*
SLR-UM 63
-5-

INDUSTRIAL WASTE TREATMENT (Elective III)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from Section I i.e. Question no. 2
to Question no. 5. Question No. 6 is compulsory in Section II
clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Discuss the various methods of dissolved solids removal from industrial
wastewater.
b) Explain self purification capacity of stream.
3. a) The data of sewage and stream flow is given below :

Parameter
Sewage
Stream
Discharge (m3/S)
220
1300
BOD5 (mg/L)
195
D. O. (mg/L)
9.17
The deoxygenation constant (K) at 20c 0.13/day

The uniform velocity of flow = 0.45 m/S
The self purification constant = 3.55
Find critical D.O. deficit.
b) Explain the pollutant characteristics of industrial wastes.
SLR-UM 63
-6-
*SLRUM63*
4. a) Explain By-product recovery from wastewater.

b) Enlist various methods of waste volume generated from industry and explain
any one in detail for reducing volume of waste.
6
7

I) Equipment change.
II) Treatment for color removal.
7
SECTION II
6. a) What are the effects of sugar mill waste on receiving water stream ?
b) Explain with flow diagram the Massive Lime Treatment for color removal in
pulp and paper mill.
4
8
7. Give the characteristics of wastewater, draw the wastewater treatment flow

diagram and explain in detail.
a) Tannery industry.
b) Distillery industry.
8. Draw manufacturing process flow diagram, indicate the sources wastes and explain
in detail.
a) Pulp and paper industry.
b) Cotton textile industry.
14
I) Maharashtra Pollution Control Board.

II) Operation and maintenance requirement.
_____________________
Code No.
*SLR-UM-64*
SLR-UM 64
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

WATER POWER ENGINEERING (Elective III)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Question No. 1 consisting multiple choice questions is

compulsory.
2) Solve any three questions from questions 2, 3, 4 & 5. Solve
any three questions from questions, 6,7,8 and 9.
i) Substructure of power house should provide space for
a) turbine governors
b) generators for horizontal units
c) switch board
d) low tension switches and other auxiliaries
e) all
Marks : 20
20
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 64
*SLR-UM-64*
-2-
DO
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
ii) For large blocks of power and long distances, the cost per kW transmitted is
less at
a) lower voltage
b) higher voltage
c) not related to voltage
d) maximum number of circuits
iii) Storage capacity of a reservoir is determined by

a) mass curve method
b) ratio method
c) calendar year method
iv) Trap efficiency of a reservoir indicates

a) water trapped
b) sediments retained
c) sediment inflow
d) sediment outflow
v) Location of surge tank is the best when ground

a) drops rapidly towards power house
b) rises rapidly towards power house
c) midway in rising and dropping ground
vi) Load factor for a power system serving residential area, as compared to
highly industrial area is
a) high
b) same
c) low
*SLR-UM-64*
SLR-UM 64
-3-
vii) A pumped storage hydro electric plant is a

a) high head plant
b) run-off river plant
c) base load plant
d) peak load plant
viii) In hydel installation power generation is calculated on the basis of

a) Gross head
b) Rate head
c) Design head
d) Net head
ix) Run off river plant is one which

a) has a limited pondage
b) has no pondage of all
c) is a high head plant
d) is a pumped storage plant
x) Specific speed of a turbine is

a) The speed which develops unit power under a unit head
b) The speed which develops unit power under a unit discharge
c) Both a) and b)
xi) What type of turbine is suitable for specific speed of 30 and head 1000 m ?
a) Francis
b) Pelton
c) Kaplan
d) Bulb
xii) Under part load condition, indicate the type of turbine, which has minimum
efficiency
a) Francis
b) Pelton
c) Kaplan
d) Propeller
xiii) For high head and low discharge the suitable turbine is
a) Pelton
b) Francis
c) Kaplan
d) Propeller
xiv) Cavitation will take place, if the pressure on the flowing fluid of any point is
a) equal to vapour pressure of the fluid
b) less than the vapour pressure of the fluid
c) more than the vapour pressure of the fluid
SLR-UM 64
*SLR-UM-64*
-4-
xv) Turbine has to run at a constant speed. The speed is kept constant by varying
a) load
b) discharge
c) net head
d) inlet valve
xvi) The turbine produces 500 kW under net head of 30 m. The discharge in
cumec, when the overall efficiency is 85%.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
xvii) Hoops reinforcement is provided in cement concrete pressure pipes, in order

to counteract the
a) Water hammer pressure
b) Internal water pressure
c) Stress caused by external back fill
d) Both a) and b)
e) a), b) and c) - all
xviii) Which of the following types of pressure conduits is preferably used for large
heads ?
a) P.C.C. piles
b) Cast iron pipes
c) Prestressed concrete pipes
d) Asbestos pipes
xix) Fossil fuels are used in

a) a nuclear power plant
b) on ordinary thermal power plant
c) a hydro power plant
d) none of them
xx) Identify the correct statement in regard to hydro power

a) Hydro power stations are generally labour oriented
b) Gestation period for hydropower plant is usually small
c) The hydro generators give high efficiency over a wide range of load
d) In a hydro power scheme, the firm power is usually high, as compared
to total power
______________________
*SLR-UM-64*
-5-
SLR-UM 64
Seat
No.

WATER POWER ENGINEERING (Elective III)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any three questions from questions 2, 3, 4 & 5. Solve

any three questions from questions, 6,7,8 and 9.
SECTION I
2. a) Enumerate different types of Hydropower plants and describe the storage
plant.
b) How do you classify the hydroelectric schemes based on the operating head ?
Give suitable examples.
3. a) A runoff stream station with an installed capacity of 15000 kW operates at

15% load factor when it serves as peak load station. What should be the
lowest discharge in the stream, so that the station may serve as the base
load station ? It is given that the plant efficiency is 75% when working under
head 20 m. Also calculate the maximum load factor of the plant when the
discharge in the steam rises to 20 cumec.
b) Define hydrograph and explain its importance in the design of storage type
hydro-electric power project. Explain the effect of time unit on the storage
capacity of the catchment area required.
4. a) Define gate. What are the various types of gates, used in penstocks and
spillways ?
b) What are Base load and Peak load plants ? For what type of conditions,
hydroelectric power is very much useful ?
5. a) Illustrate with the help of a sketch, variation in a hydraulic gradient of a
penstock, with the change of load.
b) What is a surge tank ? What are its functions ? What are the different loading
conditions to determine the height of the surge tank ?
6
7
6
7
SLR-UM 64
-6-
*SLR-UM-64*
SECTION II
6. a) Describe the advantages and disadvantages of underground power stations
compared with over ground power stations.
b) Discuss the differences between Pelton, Francis and Kaplan turbines and
types of power plants, they are suitable for.
7. a) What do you understand by the term specific speed of a water turbine ?

What information does it give and how it is made use in practice ? Indicate
how the form of a reaction turbine depends upon specific speed ?
b) Describe the characteristics of various types of turbines used in hydro-electric

power stations with reference to
i) head
ii) part load efficiency and maximum efficiency and
iii) specific speed.
State how these factors help in the choice of the turbine.
8. a) How will you classify pumped storage power development ? How does it
differ from the conventional hydropower development ?
b) A closed cycle pumped storage plant with a gross head of 350 m has a head
race tunnel 4 m diameter and 700 m long. The power house discharges directly
in the reservoir. The flow velocity is 6.5 m/sec and the friction factor f = 0.018.
If the overall efficiencies of pumped storage generation are 85% and 88%
respectively, estimate the plant efficiency.
9. a) Explain how the losses in the draft tube affect the pressure at runner exit
and setting of the runner, above tailrace level.
b) Explain with sketches, the various methods of tidal power generation. What
are the limitations of each method ?
__________________
7
6
8
6
7
Code No. SLR-UM
65
Seat
No.
*SLRUM65*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

OPTIMIZATION TECHNIQUES (Elective III)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions :1) Q. 1 is objective multiple choice. Make tick mark against

correct answer option. Each question is having 1 mark
weightage.
Marks : 20

1) For a maximization problem, the objective function coefficient for an artificial
variable is
a) + M
b) M
c) Zero

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 65
*SLRUM65*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) If for a given solution a slack variable is equal to zero then

a) The solution is optimal
b) The solution is infeasible
c) The entire amount of resource with the constraint in which the slack
variable appears has been consumed
d) All of the above
3) To formulate a problem for solution by the Simplex Method, artificial variable
is added to
a) Only equality constraints
b) Only greater than constraints
c) Both a) and b)
4) If an artificial variable is present in the basic variable column of optimal

simplex table, then the solution is
a) Infeasible
b) Unbounded
c) Degenerate
5) To convert inequality constraints into equality constraints, we must

a) Add a surplus variable
b) Subtract an artificial variable
c) Subtract a surplus variable and an artificial variable
d) Add a surplus variable and subtract an artificial variable
6) The calling population is assumed to be infinite when
a) Arrivals are independent of each other
b) Capacity of the system is infinite
c) Service rate is faster than arrival rate
d) All of the above
*SLRUM65*
-3-
SLR-UM 65
7) Which of the cost estimates and performance measures are not used for
economic analysis of a queuing system ?
a) Cost per server per unit of time
b) Cost per unit of time for a consumer waiting in the system
c) Average number of customers in the system
d) Average waiting time of customers in the system
8) The calling population is considered to be infinite when
a) All customers arrive at a time
b) Arrivals are independent of each other
c) Arrivals are dependent upon each other
d) All of the above
9) Biased random sampling from among alternatives which have
a) Equal probability
b) Unequal probability
c) Probability which do not sum to 1
10) The return function in a DP model depends on
b) States
a) Stages
c) Alternatives
d) All of the above
11) A stage in a dynamic programming represents
a) Number of decision alternatives
b) Different time periods in the planning period
c) Status of the system at a particular state
d) All of the above
12) In pure integer programming
a) Every variable must be integer valued
b) Some variables must be integer valued
c) No variable must be integer valued
d) None of these
13) In every optimization problem formulation,
a) Variables are essential
b) Constraints are essential
c) Variables and constraints both are essential
d) Variables and constraints both are not essential
SLR-UM 65
*SLRUM65*
-4-
14) While converting the maximization problem to minimization, the equality

constraint
a) Is multiplied by 1
b) Replaced by one inequality constraint
c) Replaced by two inequality constraint
d) Is reversed
15) For a continuous and differentiable function a stationary point is a point
at which slope of the function is
a) 0
b) 45
c) 90
d) 135
16) A function is said to have local minima at x = x*, for all values of h close
to zero, if
a) f(x*) f(x*+ h)
b) f(x*) f(x*+ h)
c) f(x*) f(x)
d) f(x*) f(x)
17) A function is said to have global maxima at x = x*, for all values of x, in
the domain of f(x), if
a) f(x*) f(x*+ h)
b) f(x*) f(x*+ h)
c) f(x*) f(x)
d) f(x*) f(x)
18) The maximization or minimization of a quantity is the

a) Goal of management science
b) Decision for decision analysis
c) Constraint of operations research
d) Objective of linear programming
19) Decision variables
a) Tell how much of something to produce, invest, purchase, hire etc.
b) Represent the values of the constraints
c) Measure the objective function
d) Must exist for each constraint
20) Which of the following is a valid objective function for a linear programming
problem ?
a) Max 5xy
b) Min 4x + 3y + (2/3)z
c) Max 5x2 + 6y2
d) Min (x1 + x2)/x3
*SLRUM65*
-5-
SLR-UM 65
Seat
No.

OPTIMIZATION TECHNIQUES (Elective III)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions :1) Q. 2 and Q. 9 are compulsory. Attempt any two each out
of Q. 3 to Q. 5 and out of Q. 6 to Q. 8.
2. a) Name various types of optimization problems.
b) Use BigM method to solve following LPP.
Minimise:
y + 2x
Subject to:
x + y 20; 2x + 5y 70; 7x + 3y 84; x 0, y 0.
3. a) Define optimization. Write the necessary and sufficient conditions for the
relative minimum of a function of a single variable.
b) Determine the maximum and minimum values of the function
f(x) = 12x5 45x4 + 40x 3 + 5.
5
9
5
8
4. a) In the following figure labels on the arcs indicate the flow capacities in both
the directions. For example, on the arc joining A to B, the label near A indicates
flow in direction A to B, while label near B indicates flow from B to A. Determine
maximum total flow from A to G.
SLR-UM 65
*SLRUM65*
-6-
b) Determine the initial basic feasible solution by Vogels approximation method. 5

Dest. Source
Supply
10
150
11
11
175
12
275
200
100
300
Demand
5. a) Solve the following LPP by graphical method

Maximize Z = 3X1 + X2
Subject to 2X1 X2 6; 3x1 + 9X2 45; X1, X 2 0.
b) Explain stepwise the process of solving the shortest route problem.
8
5
6. a) A decision maker has three alternative plans with two possible states of nature
and respective monitory profits (in rupees) mentioned in following matrix.
Alternatives
State of nature
Favourable market
Unfavourable market
Construct large plant
200000
180000
Construct small plant
100000
20000
Do nothing
Determine the decisions by Maximax, Maximin and Laplace equally likely

approach. What will be the Expected Value of Perfect Information ?
b) Draw decision tree for the above mentioned decision making problem. Advise
a correct decision. (Assume the states of nature with equal probability of
occurrence).
7. a) Explain the following terms in Games Theory.

i) MINI-MAX and MAXI-MIN criteria.
ii) Saddle point.
iii) Pure and Mixed Strategy.
*SLRUM65*
-7-
SLR-UM 65
b) Determine the value of the game and optimal strategies for Player P and Q.
Player Q
Player P
-2
-3
8. a) If annual demand is 10000 units, order cost of is Rs. 300/order, carrying cost
is Rs. 4/unit/year. Calculate EOQ, total cost, minimum value of total cost, no.
of orders per year and reorder period. Assume continuous demand
and instantaneous replenishment.
b) Write the expressions for expected average queue length, expected average
total time and expected average waiting time is terms of = Service Rate,
=arrival rate and = / . Assume M/D/I case (random Arrival, Deterministic

service, and one service channel).

a) Non classical optimization techniques.
b) Non-linear programming.
c) Solve the LPP using integer Programming.

Maximize Z = 3X1 + X2
Subject to 2X1 X2 6; 3x1 + 9X2 45; X1, X2 0; X1 and X2 are

integers.
_____________________
Code No. SLR-UM
66
*SLRUM66*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------- ------------------------ - ---- --------------------B.E. (Civil) (Part II) Examination, 2014

DISASTER MANAGEMENT (Elective III)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : i) Question No. 1 is compulsory and first 30 minutes of

total time are reserved for the same.
ii) Que. No. 2 from Section I and Que. No. 6 from Section II
are compulsory.
iv) Draw the sketches wherever necessary.
v) Solve any two questions from 3, 4 and 5 in Section I.
vi) Solve any two questions from 7, 8 and 9 in Section II.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 66
*SLRUM66*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W

Marks : 20
20
I) The vibrations caused by the seismic waves beneath the earth crust are
detected documented, recorded and measured by ___________
B) Seismograph
A) Seismogram
C) Mercalli intensity scale
D) Ritcher scale
II) Which of the following is NOT the element of a preparedness cycle ?
A) Planning
B) Organizing
C) Training
D) Restoring critical infrastructures
III) SAR stands for _________
A) Search and Rescue
B) Search and Response
C) Search and Recover
D) Search and Reduce
IV) In India, at national level the __________ is the nodal ministry for all matters
concerning disaster management.
A) Ministry of foreign affairs
B) Ministry of home affairs
C) Ministry of defence
D) Ministry of agriculture
V) An explosive charge is a measure of _______ of explosive material.

A) Quality
B) Quantity
C) Explosivity
D) Both A) and C)
*SLRUM66*
-3-
SLR-UM 66
VI) Which of the following is man made disaster ?

A) Flood
B) Thunderstorm
C) Deforestation
D) Drought
VII) The product of Hazard and vulnerability is known as _________

A) Risk
B) Disaster
C) Emergency
D) All of the above
VIII) Snowslide is also termed as ___________

A) Avalanche
B) Snowfall
C) Hailstorms
D) None of these
IX) Gustnado is one of the type of ______________ as a disaster.

A) Hurricanes
B) Tornadoes
C) Cyclones
D) Tsunamis
X) The explosive materials that detonate are said to be __________

A) Low explosives
B) High explosives
C) Mild explosives
D) All of the above
XI) Which of the followings is NOT a natural meteorological disaster ?

A) Tornadoes
B) Cyclones
C) Hurricanes
D) Landslides
XII) According to IS-1893-Part-I : 2002, India has grouped into ________
seismic zones.
A) Four
B) Five
C) Three
D) Six
XIII) The effective disaster response policies must be __________

A) Rigid
B) Clear
C) Both A) and B)
D) None of these
XIV) Tiltmeter is the sensor that uses laser beam to determine ________
A) Wind speed
B) Magma levels beneath ground
C) Amount of fault
D) Both A) and C)
SLR-UM 66
*SLRUM66*
-4-
XV) Disaster Response includes ______________
A) Identifying the need for mutual aid

B) Awareness regarding upcoming hazard
C) Evacuation of victims to safe locations
D) All of the above
XVI) The objectives of world food program does not includes __________
A) Provision of food for emergencies

B) Reduce chronic hungerness
C) Provide food supply kit
D) Monitoring the health situation and assessing health trends
XVII) The district disaster management authority is headed by the ________
A) District magistrate
B) Elected Representative of local body
C) Member of Parliament
D) District superintendent of police
XVIII) DRR stands for ____________
A) Disaster Risk Reduction

B) Disaster Risk Rate
C) Disaster Response Rate
D) Disaster Response Reduction
XIX) The process of evaluation of stressor is falls under ___________
A) Tertiary appraisal
B) Secondary appraisal
C) Final appraisal
D) Primary appraisal
XX) Seismic Zone-V, measures ___________ intensity on modified Mercalli

intensity scale.
A) IX and above
B) VIII
C) VII
D) VI or less
__________________
*SLRUM66*
-5-
SLR-UM 66
Seat
No.

DISASTER MANAGEMENT (Elective III)
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : i) Que. No. 2 from Section I and Que. No. 6 from

Section II are compulsory.
ii) Figures to right indicate full marks.
iii) Draw the sketches wherever necessary.
iv) Solve any two questions from 3, 4 and 5 in Section I.
v) Solve any two questions from 7, 8 and 9 in Section II.
SECTION I
2. A) What are landslides ? State and explain its causes.
B) Write a note on Sedimentation processes with reference to global, regional
and environmental problems.
3. A) What are the Hazards Zoning Maps ? Explain in short.
B) Define Disaster Mitigation. Also explain its categories in detail.
4. A) Enumerate causes and impacts of technological disaster.
B) Write a note on Preparedness programs with reference to followings :
40
6
8
5
8
5
8
i) Education and training programs

ii) Personal preparedness.
5. A) What do you mean by flood ? Discuss its types in short.
I) Environmental stress
II) Nuclear explosion.
5
8
SLR-UM 66
-6-
*SLRUM66*
SECTION II
6. A) How the disasters are predicted ? Explain in short.
B) Write a note on (w.r. to functions) :
40
6
8
I) Federal Emergency Management Agency

II) National Disaster Management Authority.
7. A) Write a note on Disaster Management Act-2005.
B) Social Media plays key role in disaster response phase. Justify the statement
with your own opinion.
8. A) How NGOs helps to manage disaster situation ?
5
8
5
8
I) Cyclonic disaster
II) Disasters in Hills.
9. A) Which are the factors to be considered to determine the effectiveness of
early warning systems ?
5
8
I) Role of community in Disaster Management

II) Adjustment of Human population to natural hazards.
_______________
Code No.
SLR-UM 67
*SLRUM67*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------S.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

NUMERICAL METHODS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20
1. Tick (9) the correct alternative (One mark each) :

1) Rate of convergence of Newtons-Raphson method in finding the root of
equation f(x) = 0 is
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 1.62
d) 2
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 67
*SLRUM67*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Using Bisection method, the second approximation to the root of equation

a) 2.25
b) 2.5
c) 2.75
d) 2.625
3) If f(x) = 1 2 , whose arguments are 1 and 2 then the value of first divided
x
difference [1, 2] is equal to
a) 3 4
b) 3 4
c) 4 3
d) 4 3
4) In solving simultaneous linear equations which method reduces the coefficient

matrix to an upper triangular matrix ?
a) Gauss-Elimination
b) Jacobis method
c) Gauss-Jordan
d) Gauss-Seidal
5) The other name of Bisection method is

a) Method of tangent
b) Iteration method
c) Bolzanos method
d) Secant method
6) To fit the straight line y = ax + b to N observations the normal equations are

a) y = Nx + b; xy = ax 2 + bx
b) y = ax + bN ; xy = ax 2 + bx
c) y = ax 2 + bx ; xy = ax 2 + bN
d) None of these
*SLRUM67*
SLR-UM 67
-3-
7) Given the table

x
1 3
y = f(x)
1 6
The value of f(2) by Lagranges formula is

a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 0
8) If a polynomial y = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + .... + akxk is to be fitted for a given data

of n observations then the number of normal equations required are
a) k
b) k + 1
c) n + 1
d) n
9) Which of the following method is used to solve non-linear simultaneous

equations ?
a) Power method
b) Gauss-Elimination
c) Newtons Raphson
d) Jordan method
10) The process of estimating the value of y = f(x), that lies inside the range of
the known base points x0, x1, .... , xn is called
a) Extra polation
b) Learnt square principle
c) Intrapolation
d) None of these
11) Consider the following Rules and Formulae :

Rule
Formula
A) Trapezoidal Rule
p) three point formula
B) Simpsons 1/3 Rule

C) Simpsons 3/8 Rule
q) five point formula

r) four point formula
s) Two point formula
Which of the following match is correct ?

a) A p, B r, C q
b) A r, B q, C p
c) A s, B p, C r
d) A q, B s, C r
12) Error in Simpsons 1/3 rule is of the order

a) h2
b) h4
c) h6
d) h
SLR-UM 67
*SLRUM67*
-4-
13) The error in the Taylor method is in the order of

a) (x x0)n
c) (x x0)n+1
b) (x x0)n1
d) (x x0)n+2
14) Laplace equation is

a) Elliptic
b) Parabolic
c) Hyperbolic
d) None of these
15) Liebmanns method is used for solving

a) Laplaces equation
b) Parabolic equation
c) Heat equation
d) Wave equation
16) Out of the following which is not step by step method.

a) Modified Euler
b) Euler method
c) Milnes method
d) Taylors series method
17) Which of the following methods are used to solve initial value problems ?
a) Picards method
b) Taylors series method
c) Finite difference method
d) Both a) and b)
18) Following is a Laplace equation in two dimensions

u u
+
=0
a)
x y
b)
2u
x 2
2u
y 2
=0
u 2u
+
=0
d)
x y 2
2u
u
+
=0
c)
2
y
x
19) Schmidts method is used to solve

a) Heat conduction equation
b) Laplace equation
c) Wave equation
d) None of these
20) Which of the following is iterative method ?

a) Runge Kutta method
b) Picard method
c) Eulers method
d) a) and c) both
_____________________
-5-
*SLRUM67*
SLR-UM 67
Seat
No.
S.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

NUMERICAL METHODS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 6 are compulsory.

2) Attempt any two questions from each Section from
remaining three questions.
5) Use suitable data if required and state them clearly.
SECTION I
(45)
a) Find a positive real root of the equation cos x xex = 0 by Newtons-Raphson

method correct to four places of decimal.
b) Solve the following set of equations by Gauss-Elimination method.
5x 2y + 3z = 18
x + 7y 3z = 22
2x y + 6z = 22
c) Determine the largest Eigen value and the corresponding Eigen Vector of
matrix A by power method where
1
A = 3
1
3 1
2 4
4 10
d) Find a real positive root of the equation x3 2x 5 = 0 by False Position

method correct to three places of decimal.
SLR-UM 67
-6-
*SLRUM67*
e) Find the cubic function from the following table using Newtons divided
difference formula and hence find f(10).
x
12
f(x) : 43 83 327 1053

3. By method of least square principle, find the best fitting straight line and second
degree parabola to the given below :
10
x :
10
15
20
25
y :
15
19
23
26
30
4. Solve the following set of equations by Gauss-Seidal method and Jacobis method.
(Perform five iteration in each method)
28x + 4y z = 32
x + 3y + 10z = 24
2x + 17y + 4z = 35
10
5. a) Perform two iterations of the Newtons-Raphson method to solve the system

of non-linear equations x = x2 + y2, y = x2 y2 with approximations x0 = 0.8,
y0 = 0.4.
b) Use Lagranges formula to find the value of y at x = 6 from the following data :
x
168
10
120 72
63
SECTION II
6. Solve any four :
20
5.2
a) Evaluate
loge x dx using trapezoidal rule. Divide the range into six equal
parts.
b) Use Picards method to find y (0.1) from the equation
dy y x
=
, y(0) = 1.
dx y + x
*SLRUM67*
SLR-UM 67
-7-
c) Using Adams Bashforth method, obtain the solution of
dy
= x y 2 at x = 0.8
dx
given the values

x
0.2
0 0.0200 0.0795 0.1762

1
0.4
0.6
d) Evaluate e x cos x dx by Gauss quadrature three point formula.

1
e) Use the Taylor method to solve the equation
dy
= x 2 + y 2 for x = 0.25 and
dx
x = 0.5 given y (0) = 1.

7. Using Range Kutta method of order four, find y for x = 0.1 given that
dy
= xy + y 2 , y(0) = 1. Continue the solution at x = 0.2 using Milnes method.
dx
1.2
8. a) Evaluate
dx correct to three decimal places using Rombergs

1+ x
integration.
12
b) Evaluate
10
dx
1 + x 2 using Weddles rule taking n = 6.
9. Solve 2u = 0 at the nodal points for the following square mesh region, given in
fig.
10
1
u3
u4
u1
u2
0
_____________________
SLR-UM 7
*SLRUM7*
Seat
No.
Set
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS II
Max. Marks : 100
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.

N.B. : 1) Q. No. 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first
30 minutes in OMR sheet given. Each question carries one
mark.
Marks : 20
20
1) The Newtons Backward difference formula for
a)
1
h2
b)
1 2
11 4
y 0 3y 0 +
y 0 + ....
2
12
h
c)
d)
1
2
1
2
d2 y
= __________
dx 2 x = x 0
11 4
2
3
y 0 + y 0 + 12 y 0 + ....
[ y
2
[ y
2
+ 3 y 0 + 4 y 0 + ....
3 y 0 + 4 y 0 + ....
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 7
*SLRUM7*
-2-
2) In the Newtons forward difference formula the value of h for the data
x x1 x 2
y y1 y 2
x3
y3
x4
y4
is
x n x n 1
n
a) x n x n 1
b)
c) x1 x 4
d) None of these
3) Which of the following is not a step by step method ?

a) Eulers method
b) Eulers modified method
c) Runge-Kutta method
d) Picards method
4) For the Runge Kutta method of 4th order which of the following is incorrect
a) k1 = h f( x 0 , y 0 )
h
k
b) k 2 = h f x 0 + , y 0 + 1
2
2
c) k 3 = h f (x 0 + h, y 0 + k 2 )
d) k 4 = h f (x 0 + h, y 0 + k 3 )
dy
= xy with y(0) = 2 then by Picards formula the first approximation of y
dx
is __________________
b) 2 + x2
c) x2
d) 2x2
a) 2 + 2x2
5) If
6) The differential equation

a) Homogeneous
dy 3x 2 y + 4
+
= 0 is
dx
x+2
b) Non-Homogeneous
c) Exact
d) None of these
7) The general solution of the differential equation
dv
+ Pv = Q , where P, Q are
dx
functions of x alone, is _____________

a) V e Pdx = e Pdx Qdx + c
b) V e Qdx = e Qdx Pdx + c
c) x e Pdv = e Pdv Qdv + c
d) x e Qdv = e Qdv Pdv + c
8) Two curves are said to be orthogonal if product of their slops is equal to

a) 0
b) 1
c) 1
d) 2
Set A
*SLRUM7*
SLR-UM 7
-3-
9) For the curve y = f(x) and any point P(x, y) on it, the length of tangent is
_____________
2
dy
a) x 1 +
dx
dy
b) y 1 +
dx
dx
c) x 1 +
dy
dx
d) y 1 +
dy
M N
x
= a , where a is a constant, then the integrating factor of the D.E.
10) If
N
M dx + N dy = 0 will be
a) ax
b) ay
11) The value of
1
4
d) eay
3
is ________________
4
a)
c) eax
b) 2
12) If n is positive integer and (n, 2) =

a) 3
b) 2
c)
d) 2
1
, then the value of n is
12
c) 1
d) 6
13) For integer m > 0, (m, 1) = _________________

a) m
b)
1
m
c)
1
m!
d)
1
m +1
14) For the curve y = x(x2 2), equation of tangent at origin is

a) y = 2x
b) x = 2
c) x = 2
d) y = 2x
15) For the curve = f (r ) , the length of arc from r = r1 to r = r2 is given by
r2
a)
r1
r2
c)
r1
2 d
1 + r .dr
dr
b)
r1
d
r + dr
dr
2
dr
r + d
d
2
r2
d) None of these
Set A
SLR-UM 7
*SLRUM7*
-41
16) The value of
1 x
dxdy is _______________
a)
(1 x )2
2
b)
1
2
c)
1 x
2
d)
1
3
17) For
f(x, y) dydx , the change of order is _____________
0 0
a)
x a
f( x, y) dxdy
b)
0 0
f(x, y ) dxdy
0 0
a a
c)
f(x, y ) dxdy
d)
0 y
f( x, y ) dxdy
3 3
18) The value of , is equals to
2 2
a)
1
8
b)
c)
1
4
d)
19) If the density of a uniform circular lamina varies as the square of its distance
from a fixed point on the circumference of a circle then is ________
a) x2 + y2
b) K(x2 + y2)
c) Kxy
d) xy
20) The surface area of solid of revolution about Y-axis is given by

a) 2 xds
b) 2 yds
2
c) y dx
2
d) x dy
___________________
Set A
*SLRUM7*
SLR-UM 7
-5-
N.B. : 1) Attempt any three questions from each Section.

SECTION I
dy x + y 2
.
=
dx y x 4
b) Solve :
y 2exy2 + 4x 3 dx + 2xyexy2 3y 2 dy = 0 .
2. a) Solve
c) Solve :
dx
x
tan1 y
.
+
=
dy 1 + y 2 1 + y 2
3. a) Find the orthogonal trajectories of the family of Co-axial circles

x2 + y2 + 2gx + c = 0 where g is a parameter.
b) In a circuit containing inductance L, resistance R and voltage E, the current I

is given by
dI
L + RI = E
dt
Find the current I at any time t if at t = 0, I = 0. L, R, E are constants.
4. a) Find first and second derivatives for the following data at x = 1.76 and x = 1.85. 7
x:
1.76
y:
0.9822
1.78
1.80
1.82
0.9782 0.9738 0.9691
1.84
1.86
0.9604
0.9585
b) Find first and second derivative for the following data at x = 5

x:
12
y:
1.556
1.690
1.908
2.158
dy
= xy with y(0) =1 at x = 0.1 using Picards method upto fourth
dx
approximation.
5. a) Solve
dy
= x 2 y 1, given that y = 1 when x = 0, using Taylors series method.
dx
Also find y(0.03).
4
Set A
b) Solve
SLR-UM 7
-6-
c) Solve by Runge-Kutta method
*SLRUM7*
dy
1
=
with y(1) =1. Find y(2) in two steps. 6
dx x + y
OR
dy
= 1 y with y(0) = 0 find y(0.2) using Eulers modified method by taking
dx
h = 0.1
c) If
SECTION II
6. a) Evaluate :
1
x log dx .
x
b) Evaluate :
1 cos(mx ) x
e dx
x
where m is parameter.
c) Prove that :
x2
5 2
=
dx
128 .
(1 + x 4 )3
7. a) Trace the curve y2(a2 x2) = a3x.
b) Trace the curve r = a sin(2) .
c) Find the length of the cycloid x = a( + sin ) , y = a (1 cos ) from one cusp
to another cusp.
8. a) Find by double integration the area bounded between the curve

xy2 = a2 (a x) and its asymptotes.
b) Find the volume of the solid generated, when the area bounded by y = x2 and
y = 2x in the first guadrant is rotated about the Y-axis.
c) Find the mass of lamina of the wire in the shape of the cardio id r = a(1 cos ) ,
if density at any point of the wire is K times its distance from the pole.
Set A
*SLRUM7*
-7-
SLR-UM 7
9. a) Evaluate :
1
1x

0 y2
x dzdxdy .
b) Change to polar co-ordinate and evaluate :

2a
2 ax x 2
x
2
x +y
dxdy .
c) Change the order of integration and evaluate

1
1 x 2
y
(1 + y 2 ) 1 x 2 y 2
dxdy .
OR
c) Change the order integration and evaluate
a
2a x

x
a
xy dxdy
6
__________________
Set A
*SLRUM70*
SLR-UM
70
SLR-UM
70
-1-
Seat
No.

MACHINE DRAWING AND COMPUTER GRAPHICS I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
Total Marks : 50
Instructions : i) Q. 1 is compulsory and should be solved in

first 20 minutes.
ii) Q. 2 is compulsory.
iii) Attempt any one question out of Q. 3 and Q. 4.
iv) Retain all the constructional details.
v) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Marks : 10
Type I : Match the Pairs :
Column I
Column II
A) Crossed Lay Pattern
a)
B) Perpendicular Lay Pattern
b)
C) Parallel Lay Pattern
c)
d)
Type II : Correct or Incorrect (any 2) :
A) In a screw jack sharp V threads are used.

B) Ra value of 25 microns is shown by
C)
is the symbol for plug weld.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 70
-2-
*SLRUM70*
Type III : Multiple correct answers. (any 1) :
A) Which of the following represents clearance fit ?

a) 80H7r6
b) 80H7g6
c) 80H8s6
d) 860H8f7
B) Which of the following is transition fit ?
b) 86H7n6
a) 86H7p6
c) 86H8g6
d) None of these
Type IV : Straight objective questions (any 3) :
A)
represents ________________ material.

a) zinc
c) asbestos
b) porcelain
d) oil
B) Counter bore is abbreviated as ________________ in machine drawing.

a) C BORE
b) Cnt
c) Ct BORE
d) None of these
C) Included angle for Whitworth threads is
a) 55
b) 45
c) 29
d) 60
D) As per BIS the representation of circularity is
a)
b)
c)
d) None of these
_____________
*SLRUM70*
-3-
SLR-UM
70
SLR-UM
70
Seat
No.

MACHINE DRAWING AND COMPUTER GRAPHICS I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
Instructions : i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
Marks : 40
Q. 2 is compulsory.
Attempt any one question out of Q. 3 and Q. 4.
Retain all the constructional details.
2. Figure No. 01 shows details of a Pedestal Bearing draw sectional front view and
top view of the assembly of the same.
22
Figure No. 01 Detail Drawing of Pedestal Bearing
SLR-UM 70
-4-
*SLRUM70*
3. a) Drawing BIS conventions for the following :

i) Leaf Spring with eyes.
ii) Chain Wheel.
2
2
b) Draw free hand sketches for the following :

i) Square Headed Bolt.
ii) Universal Coupling.
3
5
c) Explain the types of fits as per Hole basis and shaft basis system with proper
diagrams.
4. a) Drawing BIS conventions for the following :

i) Ratchet and Pinion.
ii) Removed Section.
2
2
b) Draw free hand sketches for the following :

i) Cup Headed Bolt.
ii) Fast and Loose Pulley.
3
5
c) Redraw the given figure and indicate the mentioned parameters on it.
i) Axis of 40 extension is perpendicular to B within 0.02 mm.
ii) Surface A is flat within 0.01 mm.
iii) Position of 10 holes is fixed within 0.02 mm.
iv) Surface B is milled to achieve Ra value of 25 microns.
________________
*SLRUM70*
-5-
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
SLR-UM 70
Exam No. :
Subject :
ANSWER SHEET
PART A
Type I :
Marks
A
B
C
Correct Incorrect
Type II :
A
B
C
Type III :
A
B
Type IV :
A
B
C
D
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
Total Marks :
SLR-UM 71
*SLRUM71*
Seat
No.
S.E. (Part I) (Mech.) Examination, 2014

APPLIED THERMODYNAMICS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
N.B. : 1) Q. 1 is compulsory. Solve any two out of three from each Section.
2) Use of mollier diagram, steam table is permitted.
1. For 1 & 2, items in List I may have 0/1/2 matches with item(s) is List II.
Bubble the correct answers.
1)
2)
List I
List II
A) Heat
P) Properly of the system
B) Entropy
Q) Path function
C) Work
R) Energy in transition
D) Enthalpy
S) State or point function
List I
List II
A) Throttling process
P) S = 0
B) Irreversible process
Q) Q = 0
C) Reversible process
R) H = 0
D) Adiabatic process
S) S > 0
Following questions are with only one correct answers :

3) When a fuel is burned and H2O appears in the liquid phase, then the heating
value of fuel is called as
A) Higher calorific value
B) Lower heating value
C) Adiabatic flame temp.
D) All of above
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 71
*SLRUM71*
-2-
4) Volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating compressor decrease as the

discharge pressure
A) Decreases
B) Increases
C) Both A & B
D) None
5) Which of the following is a reversible process ?

A) Free expansion
B) Motion without friction
C) Spontaneous chemical reaction
D) None
6) Work required for reciprocating compressor is minimum if the process is
A) Isothermal
B) Isentropic
C) Polytropic
D) Adiabatic
7) Condenser is ______________of boiler.

A) Mounting
B) Accessory C) Fitment
D) None
8) If a reversible engine is operating between the temperature limits of 0C and

100C then the efficiency is
A) 0%
B) 27.31%
C) 100%
D) None of above
9) At 20 bar absolute pressure, the saturation temperature of water is

A) 212.4C
B) 273C
C) 374.1C
D) 100C
10) By lowering the condenser pressure, the thermal efficiency of ideal Rankine
cycle.
A) Decreases
B) Remains same
C) Increases
D) None
11) 4.76 Kmol of air contains ________________ Kmol of oxygen.

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
12) In a diffuser, the flow

A) Accelerates
B) Decelerates
C) Accelerates and then decelerates
D) Remains same
_____________________
D) 4
*SLRUM71*
-3-
SLR-UM 71
Seat
No.
S.E. (Part I) (Mech.) Examination, 2014

APPLIED THERMODYNAMICS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
N.B. : 1) Use of mollier diagram, steam table is permitted.

3) Solve any two out of three from each Section.
SECTION I
2.
i) Explain charging of a cylinder with an appropriate derivation using control

mass analysis.
ii) State Carnots Theorem 1 and prove that R > 1.
iii) Liquid octane (C8H18) at 25C and 1 atm. is burnt with air at same state.
Determine the adiabatic flame temperature for complete combustion with
100% theoretical air.
The molar heat capacity of CO2, H2O, N2 & O2 are 62.75, 52.96, 37.13 and
38.67.J/mole.K respectively.
0
The enthalpy of formation ( h f ) of C8 H18, CO2 & H2O are 249950, 393520
and 241820 kJ/Kmol respectively.
8
3.
dQ
T 0.
ii) A reversible heat engine in a cyclic process receives heat from three high
temperature reservoirs at 1000 K, 800 K and 600 K and rejects 200 kJ of heat
to the lone sink at 300 K. The work output of the engine is 300 kJ. The heat
transfer from the reservoir at 600 K is twice that from the reservoir at 1000 K.
Calculate the heat transfers to the engine from each of the high temperature
reservoir.
iii) A boiler evaporates 3.6 kg of water per kg of coal into dry saturated steam at
10 bar. The temperature of feed water is 32C. Find :
a) Equivalent evaporation
b) Boiler efficiency
c) Factor of evaporation. Take C.V. of coal 26000 kJ/kg
i) State and prove Clausius inequality
SLR-UM 71
4.
*SLRUM71*
-4-
i) Explain ideal Rankine cycle with T-S diagram and state condition of steam
of water at inlet and exit of each process.
ii) A steam power plant operates on simple ideal Rankine cycle, steam enters
the turbine at 3 MPa and 350C and is condensed in the condenser at a
pressure of 75 KPa. Determine the thermal efficiency if the isentropic
efficiencies of turbine and pump are 87% and 85% respectively.
iii) In a boiler trial, the following observations were made :
Pressure of steam = 10 bar

Steam generated = 540 kg/hr
Fuel used = 65 kg/hr
Moisture in fuel = 2% by mass
Mass of dry flue gases = 9 kg/kg of fuel
Lower calorific value of fuel = 32000
kJ
kg
Temp. of flue gases = 325C

Temp. of boiler house = 28C
Feed water temp. = 50C
Mean sp. heat of flue gas = 1
kJ
kg K
Condition of steam = 0.9 dry

Draw up a Heat Balance Sheet per kg of fuel basis.
SECTION II
5. i) Derive an expression for volumetric efficiency of reciprocating compressor
1
P2 n
.
1
K
K
=
+
with usual notations V

P1
ii) Derive four Tds equations and obtain maxwell relations.
iii) Compare power required to compress 2kg of air per minute at 1 bar and
20C to 7 bar when compression is carried out in :
a) Single stage
b) Two stage
c) Three stage
The compression is polytropic having = 1.3 clearance may be neglected

and intercooling is perfect.
7
6
7
*SLRUM71*
6.
-5-
SLR-UM 71
i) Derive area-velocity relation for steady isentropic flow through a nozzle.
ii) Air is flowing isentropically through a nozzle at 10C and 0.5 atm having a
velocity 425 m/s. Determine stagnation enthalpy, pressure and density.
iii) A two stage single acting reciprocating air compressor takes in air at a rate
of 0.2 m3/sec. Intake pressure and temp. are 0.1 MPa and 16C. Air is
compressed to final pressure of 0.7 MPa. Intermediate pressure is ideal and
intercooling is perfect. Polytropic index of compression in both stages is
n = 1.25.
Determine :
a) Intermediate pressure
b) Power to drive compressor
c) Total volume of each cylinder.
Neglect clearance. The compressor runs at 600 rpm.
7. i) In a steam nozzle steam expands from 4.5 bar to 1 bar. The initial velocity of
steam is 50 m/s and initial temp. is 200C.
a) What is final velocity for isentropic expansion
b) If 8% of heat is lost in friction what is final velocity ?
Show process on mollier diagram.
ii) Explain assumptions made in kinetic theory of gases.
7
6
iii) Explain quantum hypothesis.
_______________
*SLRUM71*
SLR-UM 71
Seat
No.
Supervisors sign
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
Objective Questions Answer Sheet
1.
Marks
A
B
C
D
2.
A
B
C
D
3.
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
Total Marks :
SLR-UM 72
*SLRUM72*
Seat
No.
S.E. (Mech.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

ANALYSIS OF MECHANICAL ELEMENTS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Instructions to Candidates :
1) Answer should be bubbled with Black/Blue pen.
2) Complete all the entries on objective answer sheet with Black/Blue pen.
3) All questions are compulsory and every question has only one correct answer.
4) Darken the bubble corresponding to correct answer.
5) Answer cannot be changed once it is marked.
6) Every question has one mark each.
Marks : 20
1. When Bulk modulus and Youngs modulus are same, then Poissons ratio will be
a) 1/2
b) 2/3
c) 1/3
d) 4/3
2. A solid circular shaft develops torque of 28648 N-m and shear stress 80 MN-m2
then the diameter of shaft will be
a) 0.145 m
b) 0.71 m
c) 0.12 m
d) None of these
3. The point of contraflexture is caused as

a) Point of contra-shear
c) Max. bending moment
b) Point of inflexion
d) None of these
4. For spherical stress system

a) 6x = 6y 6z
c) 6x = 6y = 6z
b) 6x 6y 6z
d) 6x > 6y > 6z
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 72
*SLRUM72*
-2-
5. Bulk modulus is ratio of

a) Longitudinal stress/longitudinal strain
b) Shear stress/shear strain
c) Volumetric stress/volumetric strain
d) Lateral strain/linear strain
6. Diameter of Mohrs circle always represents
a) Maximum shear stress
b) Mean value of principal stress
c) Minimum principal stress
d) Difference between two principal stresses
7. At a point of contra-shear,
a) Shear force is maximum
c) Both a) and b) are correct
b) Bending moment is maximum

d) Both a) and b) are wrong
8. When a body is subjected to direct tensile stress 6 in one plane, then normal
stress on oblique section of body inclined at an angle to the normal of section is
equal to
a) 6 sin
b) 6 cos
c) 62 sin
d) 62 cos
Where, = angle of inclination.

9. The polar moment of inertia for circular section is
4
3
4
b)
c)
D
D
D
64
32
32
Where D = diameter of circular section.
a)
d) None of these
10. For simply supported beam carrying UDL w on entire span, the maximum,
value of shear force is
w
w2
b)
a)
4
8
where = span length.
c)
w
2
d) w
11. In case of circular section the section modulus is given as

a)
2
d
16
b)
3
d
16
c)
3
d
32
d)
4
d
64
12. In case of circular section the maximum shear stress is _________ percentage
more than the mean shear stress.
a) 10
b) 20
c) 33.33
d) 66.66
*SLRUM72*
SLR-UM 72
-3-
13. In case of I section beam maximum shear stress is at

a) The junction of the top flange and web
b) Middle of web
d) None of above
14. The deflection at the free end of a Cantilever of length l carrying a point load Wat
its free end is given as
a)
Wl
2EI
b)
Wl 2
2EI
c)
Wl 3
2EI
d)
Wl 3
3EI
15. A simply supported beam of span l is carrying a uniformly distributed load of W

per unit run over the whole span. The maximum deflection in this case is given
as
Wl 4
a)
48EI
Wl 3
b)
30EI
5 Wl 4
c)
384EI
Wl 4
d)
384EI
16. If Slenderness ratio of a column is more than 120 it is termed as

a) Short column
c) Long column
b) Medium column
d) None of above
17. The ratio of equivalent length of a column having one end fixed and other end
free to its length is
a) 2
b)
c)
1
2
d)
1
2
18. The ratio of equivalent length of column to minimum radius of gyration is called
a) Poissons ratio
b) Buckling factor
c) Factor of safety
d) None of above
19. The stress due to suddenly applied load is _________ times the gradually applied
load.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
20. The strain energy stored by a body within elastic limit when loaded externally is
called.
a) Resilience
b) Proof Resilience
c) Modulus of resilience
d) None of above
_____________________
*SLRUM72*
-5-
SLR-UM 72
Seat
No.

ANALYSIS OF MECHANICAL ELEMENTS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from each Section.

4) Assume additional suitable data if necessary and
state it clearly.
SECTION I
1. a) At a point in a strained material, the principal stresses are 180 MPa and
60 MPa respectively. Both stresses are tensile in nature. The plane inclined at
20 with major principal plane. Find normal, tangential and resultant stress on
this plane along with angle of obliquity by using Mohrs circle method only.
b) A hollow shaft of diameter ratio 3/8 is to transmit 375 Kw power at 100 rpm.
The maximum torque is 20% greater than mean torque. The shear stress is
not to exceed than 60 N/mm2 and twist in length of 4 m not to exceed 2.
Calculate its external and internal diameter which will satisfy both the above
12
conditions. Assume modulus of rigidity as 0.85 105 N/mm2.
2. a) Derive the relationship between shear force and bending moment.
b) A steel bar 40 mm in diameter 5 m long is heated through 60C with its end
clamped before heating. Calculate thrust exerted by bar on clamps if (i) clamp
do not yield (ii) clamps yield by 0.5 mm.
c) Direct stresses of 120 MPa (tensile) and 90 MPa (compressive) exist on two
perpendicular planes at a certain point in a body. They are also accompanied
by shear stress on the planes. The major principal stress at the point due to
these is 150 MPa. Find (i) shear stress on these planes (ii) maximum shear
stress.
SLR-UM 72
-6-
*SLRUM72*
3. a) Draw SFD and BMD for figure shown below. Indicate salient points also.
12
Q. 3. (a) (Fig. not to scale)

b) A rigid platform having negligible mass rest on aluminium bar as shown in
Fig. The aluminium bar is 250 mm long and 1000 mm2 in area. The steel bars
are 249.9 mm long having 2000 mm2. Find the stresses in aluminium and
steel bar after a load of 50 kN is applied. Take Est = 200 GPa, EA1 = 70 GPa. 8
Q. 3. (b) (Fig. not to scale)

SECTION II
4. a) State assumptions made in theory of simple bending.
b) Derive an expression for slope and deflection at free end for a Cantilever
beam of length l subjected to point load W at free end by moment area method.
4
4
c) A C.I. beam of I section is simply supported on a span of 6 m. The section

consists of flange 60 mm 20 mm, web 180 mm deep and 20 mm thick and
bottom flange 160 mm 40 mm thick. Find uniformly distributed load w on the
beam, if the tensile stress shall not exceed 30 N/mm2. Also find the
corresponding maximum compressive stress.
12
*SLRUM72*
-7-
SLR-UM 72
5. a) Explain equivalent length of column.
b) Define :
i) Strain energy
ii) Resilience
iii) Proof resilience
iv) Modulus of resilience.
c) A beam AB of 4 m span is simply supported at the ends and loaded as shown

in figure (5 c) determine.
a) Deflection at C and D
b) Maximum deflection
c) Slope at A and B
Take E = 200 106 kPa and I = 20 106 Mn.
12
6. a) A 1.5 m long column has a circular cross-section of 5 cm diameter. One of

the ends of the column is fixed in direction and position and other end is free.
Taking factor of safety as 3. Calculate the safe load using
a) Rankines formula, take yield stress c = 560 N / mm2 and a =
1
.
1600
b) Eulers formula, Youngs modulus = 1.2 105 N/mm2.

b) A Wagon weighing 35 kN is attached to a wire rope and moving down an
incline at a speed of 3.6 km/hr when the rope jams and the wagon is suddenly
brought to rest. If the length of the rope is 60 m at the time of sudden stoppage.
Calculate the maximum instantaneous stress and maximum instantaneous
elongation produced. Diameter of rope = 30 mm, E = 200 GN/m2.
_______________
12
*SLRUM72*
SLR-UM 72
Supervisors sign
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Day and Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
Q. No.
Answer
a
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
Sign & Name

of the Examiner :
Total Marks :
Code No.
SLR-UM 73
*SLRUM73*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Mech.) (Part I) (New) Examination, 2014

APPLIED THERMODYNAMICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Day & Date ____________________ _
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Section ________________________________________
__________ Examination _________
______________ (Paper - _______ )
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q.No. 1 objective question is compulsory.

2) Out of remaining questions, answer any two questions from
each Section.
3) Use of steam tables and Mollier diagram is allowed.
4) Use of Scientific calculator is allowed.
5) Assume suitable data if required and state is clearly.
Marks : 20
1. All are compulsory.
(120=20)
1) Throttling is a _________ process.

A) Isentropic
B) Isenthalpic
C) Isobaric
D) Iso-choric
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 73
*SLRUM73*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) Combustion is _______ type of reaction.

A) Reduction
B) Oxidation
C) Carbonisation
D) Formation
3) A gas having negative J-T coefficient when throttled will

A) Become cooler
B) Become warmer
C) Remain at same temp.
D) None of these
4) Available energy is known as

A) Entropy
B) Enthalpy
C) Gibbs energy
D) Exergy
5) Reversible adiabatic process is called as

A) Isenthalpic
B) Isentropic
C) Isochoric
D) Isobaric
6) Unit of evaporation factor is

A) kg of fuel/kg of air
B) kJ/kg
C) kJ/kg k
D) no unit
7) Heat transfer through finite temp. difference is _____ process.

A) Reversible
B) Irreversible
C) Isobasic
D) Isentropic
8) The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in
the furnace is called
A) Equivalent evaporation
B) Evaporative capacity
C) Boiler efficiency
D) Factor of evaporation
*SLRUM73*
SLR-UM 73
-3-
9) In reheater of ideal reheat cycle pressure of steam

A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remain constant
D) None of these
10) Critical point of water is at

A) 221 bar and 374C
B) 100 bar and 273C
C) 200 bar and 100C
D) 374 bar and 221C
11) The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the initially superheated
at inlet is approximated by equation
A) PV1.3 = const.
B) PV1.25 = const.
C) PV1.4 = const.
D) PV = const.
12) The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for maximum mass flow rate per
unit area of steam through nozzle when steam is initially superheated is
A) 0.555
B) 0.578
C) 0.5457
D) 0.6
13) The critical pressure ratio of a convergent nozzle is defined as

A) the ratio of outlet pressure to the inlet pressure of nozzle
B) the ratio of outlet pressure to the inlet pressure when mass flow
rate per unit area is minimum
C) the ratio of inlet pressure to outlet pressure of nozzle
D) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow
rate per unit area is minimum
14) In jet type condenser
A) cooling water passes through tubes and steam surrounds them
B) steam passes through tubes and cooling water surrounds them
C) steam and cooling water mix
D) steam and cooling water do not mix
SLR-UM 73
*SLRUM73*
-4-
15) In a shell and tube surface condenser

A) steam and cooling water mix to give the condensate
B) cooling water passes through the tubes and steam surrounds them
C) steam passes the cooling tubes and cooling water surrounds them
D) all of the above varying with situation
16) Evaporative type of condenser has
A) steam in pipes surrounded by water
B) water in pipes surrounded by steam
C) either A and B
D) none of these
17) In case of reaction steam turbine
A) there is enthalpy drop both in fixed and moving blades
B) there is enthalpy drop only in fixed blades
C) there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
D) none of these
18) The maximum efficiency of Parsons reaction turbine is given by
A) max =
cos
1 + cos
B) max =
2 cos
1 + cos
C) max =
2 cos 2
1 + cos 2
D) max =
1 + cos 2
2 cos 2
19) The work input to air compressor is minimum if the compression law followed
is
A) PV1.35 = const.
B) Isothermal, PV = const.
C) Isentropic PV = const.
D) PV1.2 = const.
20) For the same overall pressure ratio, the leakage of air past the piston for
multistage compression as compared to single stage compression is
A) more
C) constant
B) less
D) may be more or less
____________
-5-
*SLRUM73*
SLR-UM 73
Seat
No.

APPLIED THERMODYNAMICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80
Answer any two questions from each Section.

Use of steam tables and Mollier diagram is allowed.
Use of Scientific calculator is allowed.
Assume suitable data if required and state is clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Calculate the standard enthalpy change at 298.15 K for the reaction

C6H12(g) + 8O2(g) 5CO2(g) + H2O(g) standard enthalpy of formation at
298.15 K for
CO2(g) = 393 KJ/mol

H2O(g) = 242 KJ/mol
C5H12(g) = 146.5 KJ/mol.
b) Explain throttling calorimeter in detail. Also mention the applications of throttling
process.
c) A boiler produces wet steam having dryness fraction 0.90. The working pressure
of boiler is 12 bar absolute. It generates steam at the rate of 640 kg/hr and consumes
coal at the rate of 80 kg/hr. If the calorific value of coal is 31,400 kJ/kg and water
is fed at temp. of 20C, calculate :
i) Equivalent evaporation/kg of coal
ii) Boiler efficiency
iii) Factor of evaporation.
SLR-UM 73
-6-
*SLRUM73*
3. a) A heat engine receives reversibly 420 KJ/cycle of heat from a source at 327C
and rejects heat reversibly to a sink at 27C. There are no other heat transfer.
Show which of following cases the cycle is irreversible, reversible and
impossible
i) 210 kJ/cycle is rejected

ii) 105 kJ/cycle is rejected
iii) 315 kJ/cycle is rejected
b) With the help of formulae, explain the different heat losses occurs in boiler
plant.
c) In a Rankine cycle, dry saturated steam enters turbine at a pressure of 30 bar

and the exhaust pressure is 0.25 bar. Determine :
i) Rankine cycle efficiency.
ii) Condenser heat rejected.
Assume mass flow rate of steam as 10 kg/sec.

4. a) Explain the principle of increase of entropy, also state Carnot theorem I.
b) Explain ideal regenerative cycle with block diagram and T-S dig. Also comment
on supercritical Rankine cycle.
c) In Carnot cycle, heat is added at 480C, producing a change of entropy of 5.65 kJ/kg K.
The work delivered per cycle is 2360 kJ. Determine the temperature at
which heat is rejected ?
SECTION II
5. a) What is critical pressure ? Find out the critical pressure and throat area for a
nozzle if the steam expands pvn = c, isentropically. Explain its physical
significance.
b) Calculate the throat and exit diameters of a convergent-divergent nozzle which

will discharge 820 kg of steam per hour from a pressure of 8 bar superheated
to 220C into a chamber having a pressure of 1.05 bar. Friction loss in the divergent
part of the nozzle may be taken as 0.15 of the total isentropic enthalpy drop.
c) Define a steam condenser and state its objects. Explain the reason for
inefficiency in surface condenser.
*SLRUM73*
-7-
SLR-UM 73
6. a) What do you mean by compounding of steam turbines ? Discuss various

methods of compounding steam turbine.
b) Explain the effect of air leakage in a condenser. What are the sources of air in
the condenser ?
c) Steam at a pressure of 2.5 bar with a velocity of 60 m/s and the dryness
fraction of 0.96 reaches the nozzles of one stage of an impulse turbine. The
pressure of steam that drops along the nozzles is 0.7 bar and the 5% of the
isentropic enthalpy drop is absorbed in overcoming friction. The nozzles are
inclined at an angle of 16 to the plane of wheel, and the ratio of blade velocity
to the tangential component of steam velocity is 0.43. If the blade velocity
coefficient is 0.86, find the blade angles so that the steam may enter the blade
without shock and leave them in an axial direction. Find also the power input
and frictional losses over the blades per kg of steam.
7. a) Derive the equation for the work done in two-stage compressor per kg of air
delivered with perfect intercooling.
b) Write short notes on :
1) Clearance in compressors.
7
6
2) F.A.D. (compressor)
c) A single-stage double -acting air compressor is required to deliver 14m3 of air
per minute measured at 1.013 bar and 15C. The delivery pressure is 7 bar
and the speed 300 r.p.m. Take the clearance volume as 5% of the swept
volume with the compression and expansion index of n = 1.3. Calculate
1) Swept volume
2) The delivery temperature
3) Indicated power.
_____________________
SLR-UM 75
*SLRUM75*
Seat
No.

MACHINE TOOLS AND PROCESSES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

I. General : 1) Complete all the entries on answer sheet with black ball pen.
2) Answers should be bubbled only with black ball pen.
3) Only correctly bubbled answer will be given full marks.
4) There is no negative marking or partial marking system for any type.
5) Do not fold or mutilate the answer sheet.
II. Particulars :
Read the following instructions carefully before you bubble your answer.
1. Type 1 : Matrix Match Type : All questions are compulsory. There are two
questions carrying three marks each. Each question contains statements given
in two columns, which have to be matched. Statements in column I are labelled
as A, B and C whereas statements in column II are labelled as p, q, r and s. The
statement in column I may have no match in column II or may have one or more
than one correct matches. The answers to these questions have to be
appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches
are A-q, A-r, B-p, B-s, C-p, C-r, C-s :
p
q
r
s
A
B
C
If all the bubbles are correctly matched you will get full three marks, there is no
partial marking system.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 75
2.
-2-
*SLRUM75*
Type 2 : Assertion and Reason Type : Attempt any one from two questions.
Each question carries two marks.
It consists of two statements, one labelled as statement 1 and other labelled as
statement 2. Select the answer using following code :
A) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true, and statement 2 is the correct
explanation of statement 1.
B) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true, but statement 2 is not the correct
C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
D) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
3.
Type 3 : Multiple Correct Answers Type

Attempt any four from five questions given. Each question carries two marks.
If you bubble correctly all the answers you will get full marks. There is no partial
marking system.
There are five multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has four
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which one or more is/are correct. For
example if choices (B) and (C) are correct, then bubble as below :
A
4.
4.
Type 4 : State Objective Type/Classical MCQ

Attempt any four from five questions given. Each question carries one mark.
Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D). Out of which only one is
correct. For example, if correct choice is (C), then bubble as below :
A
11.
*SLRUM75*
SLR-UM 75
-3-
Time : 30 Minutes
Marks : 20

Type 1 : Match the appropriate pairs :
1.
Column I
Column II
A) Boring operation
p) Planer machine
B) Simple gear cutting
q) Boring machine
C) Facing of large workpiece
r) Milling machine
s) Lathe machine
2.
Column I
Column II
A) Glazing
p) Drilling machine
B) Collet chuck
q) Surface grinding
C) Magnetic vice
r) Lathe machine
s) Grinding wheel
Type 2 : Attempt any one (3 and 4) of the following questions :
3. i) Centreless grinding are used to clean the external surface of hollow cylinders.
ii) While performing this operation the workpiece must rotate along the grinding
wheel.
A) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect
B) Statement (i) and (ii) both are incorrect
C) Statement (i) and (ii) both are correct
D) Statement (ii) is correct and (i) is incorrect
4. i) Boring operation is perform on lathe machine to enlarge the predrilled hole.
ii) This operation is performed by using single point cutting tool.
B) Statement (i) and (ii) both are incorrect
C) Statement (i) and (ii) both are correct
D) Statement (ii) is correct and (i) is incorrect
SLR-UM 75
*SLRUM75*
-4-
Type 3 : Attempt any four (5 to 9) of the following question (Multiple correct answer) :
5. The work piece is reciprocates in
A) Surface grinding machine
C) Planer machine
B) Shaping machine
D) Slotting machine
6. Cylindrical work piece can rigidly clamp in

A) Three jaw chuck
B) V block
C) Machine vice
D) Angle plate
7. Which of the following are gear generation process ?
A) Gear shaping
B) Gear hobbling
C) Gear broaching
D) Gear casting
8. Which of the following tool is employed in lathe and drilling machine ?

A) Drill bit
B) Reamer
C) Boring tool
D) Tap
9. Standard grinding wheel are manufactured based on

A) abrasive type
B) grade
C) wheel thickness
D) bond type
Type 4 : Attempt any four (10 to 14) of the following (Classical objective) :
10. Tapping operation
A) follows drilling
C) proceed drilling
B) follows boring
D) follow jig boring
11. Non conducting materials can be machined on

A) EDM
B) ECM
C) USM
D) None of these
12. Worm ad Worm gear are disengage while

A) Direct indexing
B) Simple indexing
C) Angular indexing
D) Compound indexing
13. In case of capstan lathe the hexagon turret is mounted on

A) Saddle
B) Auxiliary slide
C) Bed of machine
D) Ram
14. To vary the speed of the spindle in lathe machine

A) Tumbler mechanism
B) Back gear mechanism
C) Half nut mechanism
D) Apron mechanism
_____________
*SLRUM75*
-5-
SLR-UM 75
Seat
No.

MACHINE TOOLS AND PROCESSES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
1. a) For a given work piece prepare sequence of operation and tool layout perform
in lathe machine.
b) Draw the neat sketch of back gear mechanism and explain in brief.
2. a) Draw the block diagram of column type upright drilling machine and explain
its parts and working principle.
b) Explain with diagram turret indexing mechanism for capstan/turret lathe.
3. a) Explain Ultrasonic Machining (USM) with its working principle, advantages

and disadvantages.
b) Draw neat sketch of double housing planer machine and explain its working
and principle parts.
SLR-UM 75
-6-
*SLRUM75*
4. Write short note on (any three) :
14
a) Slotting machine
b) Specification of lathe machine
c) Metal removal processes
d) Automats.
SECTION II
5. a) Explain with neat sketch different types of milling cutters.
b) Describe in detail gear cutting on milling machine.
6. a) Index work piece for 83 divisions on milling machine using dividing head by
differential indexing.
7
6
7
The change gears set available : 24, 24, 28, 32, 40, 44, 48, 56, 64, 72, 86, 100.
Plate No. 1 : 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20.
Plate No. 2 : 21, 23, 27, 29, 31, 33
Plate No. 3 : 37, 39, 41, 43, 47, 49. No of holes.
b) Explain construction and working of vertical boring machine with neat sketch. 6
7. a) Explain with a neat sketch centerless grinding machine.
b) Explain with neat sketch various broaching operations.
8. Write short note on any three :
a) Boring tools and bars
b) Gear rolling
c) Types of CNC machines
d) Mounting of grinding wheel.
_____________
7
6
14
*SLRUM75*
SLR-UM 75
Supervisors sign
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
ANSWER SHEET
PART A
Marks
Type 1 :
1
A
B
C
2
A
B
C
Type 2 :
A
3
4
A
Type 3 :
5
6
7
8
9
A
Type 4 :
10
11
12
13
14
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
Total Marks :
SLR-UM 76
*SLRMD76*
Seat
No.

MACHINE DRAWING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 objective question is compulsory, for the same,

time duration is 30 min.
2) Q. No. 2 is a compulsory question.
3) Attempt any three questions out of Q. No. 3 to Q. No. 6.
4) Retain all the constructional details.
5) Figures to right side indicate full marks for the respective
question.
6) Mention the suitable details/assumptions whenever
necessary.
7) Use and assume suitable scale, data, dimensions whenever
necessary and clearly mention the same.
8) Wherever necessary, refer the Tolerance Table, provided
with the question paper.
9) Read the instructions carefully, mentioned for objective
question (Q. No. 1).

Instructions For Q. No. 1 (Objective Question) :
I. General :
1) Complete all the entries/answers on answer sheet with black ink pen.
2) Only corrected bubbled answer will be given full marks.
3) There is no negative marking system.
4) Do not fold the answer-sheet.
5) Re-entry/rough out entry/scratch entry/more than correct no. of bubble position
entry, etc. in such cases the answer will not be entitled for marks.
II. Particular :
1) Type I : Match the Pairs
The question contains two Columns I and II. The each sub question carries
one mark each. For the sub question of Column I, match the appropriate
ans. from Column II. The sub questions in Column I has only one correct
ans. in Column II. The ans. to these questions have to be appropriately
bubbled as illustrated in following example/pattern.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 76
-2-
*SLRUM76*
If the correct matches are A q, B p, C r, then

p
A
B
C
2) Type II : Correct or Incorrect
Attempt all questions. Each question carries one mark each. The ans. to
these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in following
example/pattern :
If the ans. for respective bits are A Incorrect, B Correct, C Incorrect then
P-Correct
Q-Incorrect
A
B
C
3) Type III : Multiple Correct Answers Type
Attempt all questions given. Each question carries two marks. If you bubble
correctly all the answers you will get full marks. There is no partial marking
system.
There are two multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has
four choices p, q, r, s out of which two are correct. For example if choices
q and r are correct then bubble as below :
p
A
4) Type IV : Straight Objective Type/Classical MCQ
Attempt all questions given. Each question carries one mark. Each question
has four choices p, q, r, s. Out of which only one is correct. For example if
correct choice is r then bubble as below :
p
A
*SLRUM76*
-3-
SLR-UM 76
1. Type I : Match the pair (4 bit 1 mark) :

Roughness Grade No.
Roughness Grade Symbol
A) N5
P)
B) N7
Q)
C) N10
R)
D) N12
S)
Type II : Identify correct or Incorrect (3 bit1 mark) :

A) In fit designation 50 H8Sg, H indicate Hole basis system is followed.
B)
Here X indicate multidirectional pattern of direction of lay.
C) The size of 50
+ 0 .02
0
is example of unilateral tolerance system.
Type III : Multiple correct answers type (3 bit2 marks) :

A) Which of following an example of clearance fit
P) 15 H7 e8
R) 15 H7 js6
Q) 15 H7 r6
S) 15 H8 d9
B) Which of the following an example of interference fit ?

P) 65 H7 n6
Q) 45 H8 s6
R) 65 H7 p6
S) 25 H8 a11
C) Identify the correct statements

this symbol delivers information
P) 0.2 indicate min. permissible value of surface roughness.
Q) 0.4 indicate max. permissible value of surface roughness
R) 0.2 indicate max. permissible value of surface roughness
S) 0.4 indicate min. permissible value of surface roughness
SLR-UM 76
*SLRUM76*
-4-
Type IV : Straight objective type/classical MCQ (Each bit one mark) :

A) In fit designation ex- 25H7g6 like, how many tolerance grade are facilitated
for a particular alphabet of shaft element.
P) 16
Q) 17
B)
R) 18
S) 19
is the example of which of the following dimensioning
system.
P) Unidirectional
R) Aligned
Q) Multidirectional
S) Variable
C) Out of the following, which gear application normally delivers and used for
reciprocation motion ?
P) Bevel gear
R) Rack and pinion
D)
Q) Spur gear
S) Screw gears
is the example of
P) Circular section
R) Ordinary section
Q) Revolved section
S) IS section
Here geometry on the peripheral side is
E)
P) Carries threads
Q) Carries groove
R) Carries color
S) Plain geometry
F)
This convention is used to represent

P) Liquid
Q) Glass
R) Concrete
S) Bronze
G) In case of 50+0.1, the lower limit size dimension that can be accepted is
P) 50.01
Q) 50.000
R) 49.900
S) 50.100
*SLRUM76*
-5-
SLR-UM
76
SLR-UM
76
Seat
No.

MACHINE DRAWING (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Q. No. 2 is a compulsory question.

Attempt any three questions out of Q. No. 3 and Q. No. 6.
Retain all the constructional details.
Figures to right side indicate full marks for the respective
Question.
5) Mention the suitable details/assumptions whenever
necessary.
6) Use and assume suitable scale, data, dimensions whenever
necessary and clearly mention the same.
7) Wherever necessary, refer the Tolerance Table, provided
with the question paper.
2. Fig. No. I shows the details of FOUR JAW CHUCK.
35
A) Assemble all the parts together and draw the following views of the ASSEMBLY
DRAWING.
a) Front View.
b) Sectional Side View.
Also show the necessary dimensions in the various views.
B) Prepare a bill of material (Part List) with all its necessary details.
3. Draw the free hand sketches of the following (Attempt any three)
(53=15)
a) Oldhams coupling
b) Knuckle Joint
c) Cotter joint with sleeve
d) Riveted joint (double strapped double riveted zig-zag type)
4. A) Draw the B.I.S. convention for the following :
a) Spiral spring with barrel.
b) Repeated parts.
c) Symbol for Weld joint any four type.
SLR-UM 76
-6-
*SLRUM76*
B) Draw the fig. to indicate Hole Basis System and Shaft Basis System.
C) Identify the type of fit indicated with following fit designation (Attempt any 2)
a) 140 H7 js6
(23 bit marks)
b) 200 H11 g6
c) 25 H8 s6.
Also to support the answer, write/draw the calculations/explanation/diagram
for the same.
5. Refer Fig. II and draw following views with necessary dimensions.
1) Draw front view in direction of X.
2) Top view.
3) Partial auxiliary view (to represent true shape of inclined surface geometry).
Fig. No. II (for Q. No. 5)
15
*SLRUM76*
-7-
SLR-UM 76
6. Refer Fig. III and draw front view in direction of X. Left hand side view (sectional
along B B). Show the following in appropriate views.
15
a) The hole 30 is with a tolerance (+75 microns) and (75 microns).
And 18 hole is with +80 microns.
b) The side surfaces of rib are not machined. (Material is not removed).
c) The hole 32 is perpendicular with hole 18 within 0.080 mm.
d) Flatness of surface B is within 75 microns.
e) For surface A is grounded surface with a surface roughness 0.4 , its direction
of lay is parallel, sampling length is 10 mm, machining allowance is 2 mm.
30
Fig. III (for Q. No. 6)
*SLRUM76*
-8-
(Details of Four Jawchuck) Fig. I (for Q. No. 2)
SLR-UM 76
*SLRUM76*
SLR-UM 76
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
Type I :
Exam No. :
Subject :
ANSWER SHEET
PART A
S
Marks
A
B
C
D
Correct Incorrect
P
Type II :
A
B
C
Type III :
A
B
C
Type IV :
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
Total Marks :
SLR-UM 77
*SLRUM77*
Seat
No.
S.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

FLUID MECHANICS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

I. General :
1) Complete all the entries on answer sheet with black ball pen.
II. Particular :
1) Type I : Matrix Match Type All questions are compulsory. There are
two questions carrying three marks each. Each question contains statements
given in two columns, which have to be matched. Statement in column I are
labelled as A, B and C whereas statements in column II are labelled as p, q, r
and s. The statement in column I may have no match in column II or may
have one or more than one correct matches. The answers to these questions
have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the
correct matches are A-q, A-r, B-p, B-s, C-p, C-r, C-s :
p
A
B
C
If all the bubbles are correctly matched you will get full three marks, there is
no partial marking system.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 77
-2-
*SLRUM77*
2) Type II : Assertion and Reason Type Attempt any one from two questions.
It consists of two statements, one labelled as statement 1 and other labelled
as statement 2. Select the answer using following code :
A) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct
B) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true, but statement 2 is not the
correct explanation of statement 1.
C) Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false.
D) Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true.
3) Type III : Multiple Correct Answer Type
Attempt any four from five questions given. Each question carries two marks.
If you bubble correctly all the answers you will get full marks. There is no
partial marking system.
There are five multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has
four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which one or more is/are correct.
For example if choices (B) and (C) are correct, then bubble as below :
A
5.
Attempt any four from five questions given. Each question carries one mark.
Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D). Out of which only one
is correct. For example, if correct choice is (C) then bubble as below :
A
11.
*SLRUM77*
SLR-UM 77
-3-
Time : 30 Minutes
Marks : 20

Important : Read Instructions to candidates carefully before solving the question
paper.
Type 1 :
1. Column I
A) Centroid
B) Centre of pressure
C) Fre surface
2. Column I
A) Stable equilibrium for floating body
B) Unstable equilibrium for floating body
C) Stable equilibrium for submerged body
p)
q)
r)
s)
p)
q)
r)
s)
Column II
Resultant force
Area moment zero
Constant pressure
Point of application of the
weight of displaced liquid
Column II
B is above G
M is above G
B is below G
M is below G
Type 2 :
3. Statement 1 : According to Bernoullis theorem total energy at any point of the fluid
is constant
Statement 2 : In a Pitot tube pressure head is converted to kinetic head.
2
4. Statement 1 : In case of forced vortex flow V = w.r and flow is rotational.
Statement 2 : In forced vortex no external torque is required to rotate the mass of
fluid.
2
Type 3 :
5. Equipotential lines
A) These are the lines drawn along the stream lines
B) These are the lines drawn perpendicular to the stream lines
C) Represented by =constant
D) Represented by =constant
6. The relation between tangenteal velocity v and radius r is given by

A) v.r=constant for forced vortex B) v/r=constant for forced vortex
C) v.r=constant for free vortex
D) v/r=constant for free vortex
SLR-UM 77
*SLRUM77*
-4-
7. When the pipes are connected in parallel

A) The loss of head in each pipe is same
B) The rate of flow in main pipe is equal to sum of the rate of flow in each pipe
C) The loss of head in each pipe different
8. The equivalent pipe is consist of

A) A single pipe of uniform diameter
B) Having the same discharge and same loss of head
C) A single pipe of varying diameters
D) Having the same discharge and different loss of head
9. Bernoullis equation states

A) Steady flow
B) Ideal flow of incompressible fluid

C) Total energy at any point of the fluid is different
D) All of the above
Type 4 :
10. The value of momentum correction factor ( ) for circular pipe is
A) 3/4
B) 1/3
C) 2/3
D) 4/3
11. The value of h is given by differential U tube manometer for contents lighter
liquid.
S
S
S
A) x h 1 B) x 1 l C) x 1 o
S o
S o
S l
S
D) o 1
S h
12. T.E.L. with respect to some reference line of

A) Pressure head only
B) Datum head only
C) Pressure head and datum head
D) Pressure head, datum head and velocity head
13. Similarity of forces between the model and prototype

A) Geometric similarity
B) Dynamic similarity
C) Kinematic similarity
14. Force exerted by the fluid in the direction of motion

A) Lift
B) Total drag on a body
C) Drag
D) The co-efficient of lift
_____________
-5-
*SLRUM77*
SLR-UM 77
Seat
No.

FLUID MECHANICS (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Answer three questions from each Section. Question

No. 2 and Question No. 6 are compulsory.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Use of single memory, non-programmable calculator is
allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain meta centre and metacentric height.
b) Difference between Eulerian and Lagrangian description of fluid flow. Which

is useful to study ?
c) If for a two dimensional potential flow, the velocity potential is given by

= x(2y 1). Determine the velocity at the point P(4, 5). Determine also the
value of stream function at the point P.
3. a) A jet of water issues out from a nozzle which is inclined at 45 to the horizontal
and held at 3 m above the ground. Observations indicate that the jet strikes
the ground at a horizontal distance of 15 m from the nozzle. Work out
i) Velocity of jet issuing from the nozzle
ii) Maximum height reached by the fluid particles and
iii) Location of the top most point, air resistance neglected.
b) What are different types of fluid flow ? Explain wit an example.
4. a) Define stream and potential function and explain in brief.

b) What are the different cases of potential flow ? Explain uniform flow parallel
to y-axis.
OR
6
7
SLR-UM 77
-6-
*SLRUM77*
b) A triangular plate of base width 2 m and height 3 m is immersed in water with

its plan making an angle of 60 with the free surface of water. Determine the
hydrostatic pressure force and the position of centre of pressure when apex
of the triangle lies 5 m below the free water surface.
5. a) Describe use and limitations of flow net.
b) Explain doublet and define strength of doublets.
7
6
7
SECTION II
6. a) What are different types of energy losses ? Write down the equation of loss of
head due to friction and give meaning of each of them.
b) Explain hydraulic gradient and total energy line.
c) An oil of sp. gravity 0.7 is flowing through a pipe diameter 300 mm at the rate
of 500 liters/sec. Find the head cost due to friction and power required to
maintain the flow for a length 1000 m. Take =0.29 stokes.
7. a) The head of water over an orifice of diameter 100 mm is 10 m. The water

coming out from orifice is collected in a circular tank of diameter 1.5 m. The
rise of water level in this tank is 1 m in 25 sec. Also the co-ordinates of a
point on the jet measured from vena-contracta are 4.3 m horizontal and 0.5 m
vertical. Find the co-efficient Cd, Cv and Cc.
b) What is Pitot tube ? How will you determine the velocity at any point with the
help of the Pitot tube ?
OR
b) Explain the impulse momentum principle. State its applications.
8. a) State, explain and derive the Bernoullis equation.
b) The difference in water surface levels in two tanks, which are connected by
three pipes in series of lengths 300 m, 170 m and 210 m and of diameters
300 mm, 200 mm and 400 mm respectively is 12 m. Determine the rate of
flow of water, if coefficient of friction are 0.005, 0.0052 and 0.0048 respectively.
Considering minor losses.
9. a) What are the steps involved in the CFD approach ?
b) Explain what is boundary layer and boundary layer theory.
_____________
6
7
6
7
6
*SLRUM77*
SLR-UM 77
Supervisors sign
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
ANSWER SHEET
PART A
Type 1 :
1
Marks
A
B
C
2
A
B
C
Type 2 :
3
4
Type 3 :
5
6
7
8
9
Type 4 :
10
11
12
13
14
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
Total Marks :
*SLRUM78*
-1-
SLR-UM
78
SLR-UM
78
Seat
No.

THEORY OF MECHANICS I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 is compulsory. Attempt any 2 questions from each

Section.
2) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and state them
clearly.
4) Solve objective questions on answer sheets provided
separately for the same.
6) Figures in the question papers are not drawn to the scale.
7) Use of non-programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
8) Solve graphical method on blank drawing sheets provided.
Marks : 20
1. 1) Choose the lower pair:

a) Ball bearing
b) Toothed gears in mesh
c) Cam and follower
d) Crank shaft and bearing
2) In a kinematic chain a tertiary joint is equivalent to
a) One binary joints
b) Two binary joints
c) Three binary joints
3) A mechanism having n links with all binary pairs will have the number of
instantaneous equal to
a) 2n
b) n(n 1)
c) n(n 1)/2
d) 2n 1
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 78
-2-
*SLRUM78*
4) Magnitude of the linear velocity of any point on the kinematic link relative to
the other point in the same kinematic link is
a) Zero
b) Product of angular velocity of the link and the square of the distance
between them
c) Product of square of angular velocity of the link and the distance
between them
d) Product of angular velocity of the link and the distance between them
5) Link AB has angular velocity which is varying from instant to instant. At one
instant it is clockwise, then the angular acceleration at this instant
a) Must be clockwise
b) Must be anticlockwise
c) May be clockwise or anticlockwise
d) Is unpredictable as to the direction
6) Scott-Russel mechanism for generating straight line
a) Has four lower kinematic turning pair
b) Has two lower kinematic turning pair and have lower kinematic
sliding pair
c) One lower kinematic turning pair and two kinematic sliding pair
7) The angular velocity ration of Hookes joint is minimum when,
a) =
b) = 90
c) = 180
8) In a reciprocating horizontal engine the inertia forces due to reciprocating
mass helps the piston effort at
b) = 30
c) = 120
d) = 180
a) = 45
9) Automobiles engines normally use, cam and follower arrangements with
a) Knife edge follower
b) Roller follower
c) Mushroom follower with flat face d) Mushroom follower with spherical face
10) The reference point on the follower for the purpose of laying the cam profile is
known as
a) Pitch point
b) Trace point c) Cam centre
d) Roller centre
11) The stroke of the follower is equal to
a) Half the travel of the follower from the base circle
b) Maximum travel of the follower from the base circle
c) Half the travel of the follower from the pitch circle
d) Maximum travel of the follower from the pitch circle
*SLRUM78*
SLR-UM 78
-3-
12) Choose the correct statement

a) Static friction is greater than dynamic friction
b) Angle of friction is the angle included between the direction of normal
reaction and the direction of resultant reaction when the body is at
impeding slide of the plane
c) Angle of repose is equal to angle included between the direction of
normal reaction and the direction of resultant reaction when the body
is at the impending slide on the plane
d) All of the above
13) The efficiency of screw jack
a) Depends on the load on the jack
b) Depends on the pitch of the screw threads of the jack
c) Depends on both (a) and (b)
d) Does not depend on both (a) and (b)
14) To be on the safe side in design, the uniform pressure and uniform wear
is assumed respectively
a) For power transmitted by friction and power lost due to friction
b) For power lost due to friction and power transmitted by friction
c) For torque transmitted by friction and frictional torque overcome
15) For multiple plate friction clutch with n plates, the number of active surfaces
na for transmitting power is
b) na = (2n 1)
c) na = (n 1)
d) na = 2(n 1)
a) na = 2n
16) Refer fig. 16. It shows a band brake arrangements. The brake to work with
force at A upwards and direction of drum clockwise.
Fig. 16
a) a = b
b) a > b
c) a < b
d) independent of ratio a/b
SLR-UM 78
-4-
*SLRUM78*
17) Refer Fig. 17. Force downwards at A and direction clockwise.
Fig. 17
a) a = b gives self lock
b)
a T1
>
gives self-lock
b T2
c)
a T1
<
gives self-lock
b T2
d) no self lock is possible in this arrangement

18) With the increase in governor speed
a) Radius of rotation and height of governor increases
b) Radius of rotation and height of governor decreases
c) Radius of rotation decreases but height of governor increases
d) Radius of rotation increases but height of governor decreases
19) The centrifugal governor as compared to inertia and flywheel governors are
a) Less sensitive and more simple
b) More sensitive and more simple
c) More sensitive and less simple
d) Less sensitive and less simple
20) The controlling force in case of
a) Porter governor is provided by the mass of balls and the sleeve
b) Hartnell governor is provided by sleeve springs
c) Prole governor is provided by the mass of balls and the sleeve
d) All of the above
________________
*SLRUM78*
-5-
SLR-UM
78
SLR-UM
78
Seat
No.

THEORY OF MECHANICS I (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Attempt any 2 questions from each Section.

2) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and state them
clearly.
4) Solve objective questions on answer sheets provided
separately for the same.
5) Figures in the right indicate full marks.
6) Figures to the question papers are not drawn to the scale.
7) Use of non-programmable scientific calculator is allowed.
8) Solve graphical method on blank drawing sheets provided.
SECTION I
2. a) Give the various applications of a quadric cycle chain.
b) Locate the instantaneous centers and draw the circle diagram for the
mechanism in Fig. 2 b.
8
4
Fig. 2 b
c) Explain with proof how Peauceliers mechanism can be used to produce straight
line motion.
SLR-UM 78
-6-
*SLRUM78*
3. a) Fig. 3 a shows Withorth quick return motion mechanism. The various

dimensions are : OQ = 10 cm, OA = 20 cm, QC = 15 cm, CD = 50 cm. Crank
OA makes an angle of 65 with the vertical. Crank rotates at 120 rpm.
Determine the linear acceleration of block D and the angular acceleration of
links CQB and CD.
12
Fig. 3 a
b) Explain Davis steering mechanism.
4. a) Derive expressions for various forces acting on the reciprocating parts of an

engine (neglect mass of the connecting rod).
10
b) Define :
i) Kinematic link.
ii) Kinematic pair
iii) Kinematic chain.
c) Two shafts P and Q connected together by Hookes coupling have their axes
inclined at 20. The shaft P revolves at uniform speed of 1500 rpm and the
shaft Q carries a flywheel of mass = 15 kg, k = 10 cm. Find the maximum
torque in shaft Q , if it is assumed that shafts are torsionally rigid.
*SLRUM78*
-7-
SLR-UM 78
SECTION II
5. a) Cam with 30 mm as minimum diameter is rotating clockwise at a uniform
speed of 1200 rpm and has to give the motion to the roller follower 10 mm
diameter as defined below :
i) Follower to complete outward stroke of 25 mm during 120 of cam rotation
with equal uniform acceleration and retardation.
ii) Follower to dwell of 60 of cam rotation.
iii) Follower to return to its initial position during 90 of cam rotation with
equal uniform acceleration and retardation.
iv) Follower to dwell for the remaining 90 of cam rotation.
Layout the cam profile when the roller follower axis is offset to right by 5 mm. 12
b) The drum for a band brake of a crane is 30 cm diameter, the crane barrel is
35 cm diameter, the angle of contact of band brake is 280 and the coefficient
of friction between the band and the drum is 0.25. The brake lever is arranged
as shown in Fig. 5 b. Calculate the force F required to support a load of
10,000 N on the rope around the barrel.
280
Fig. 5 b
SLR-UM 78
-8-
*SLRUM78*
6. a) Derive an expression to determine the power lost in friction in case of flat

collar pivot.
b) A spring controlled governor has two balls each weighing 2 kg and each
attached to the arm of a bell crank lever which pivots about a fixed fulcrum.
The other arms of the bell crank lever carry rollers which lifts the sleeve
against the pressure exerted by a spring surrounding the governor spindle.
The two arms of each bell crank lever are of equal length and the minimum
and maximum radii of rotation of the governor balls are 7.5 cm and 12 cm
respectively. If the sleeve is to begin to lift at 240 rpm and the increase of
speed allowed is 7%, find the initial load on the sleeve and the required
stiffness of the spring.
12
7. a) Define :
i) Governor effort
ii) Governor power
iii) Equilibrium speed.
b) Give detailed classification of followers.
c) A cone clutch with a cone semi-angle 12 is to transmit 10 kW at 750 rpm.

The width of the face is 1/4th of the mean diameter and the normal pressure
between the contact faces is not to exceed 0.85 bar. Allowing = 0.2,
determine the mean dimensions of the clutch and the axial force required.
Assume uniform wear.
8
_____________________
*SLRUM78*
SLR-UM 78
-9-
Supervisors sign
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
ANSWER SHEET FOR OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

1.
a)
b)
c)
d)
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
20)
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
Total Marks :
SLR-UM 79
*SLRUM79*
Seat
No.

MANUFACTURING PROCESSES (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : i) Objective question is compulsory.

ii) Answers should be bubbled with black pen.
iii) No negative or partial marking.
Objective Type Questions
Marks : 20
Type 1 :
1. Match the pairs :
A) Air furnace
B) Direct arc furnace
C) Crucible furnace
(3 Marks)
p) Remelting unit
q) Pig iron
r) Malleable iron
s) Low melting point alloys
Type 2 : Attempt the following :
(2 Marks)
2. i) Seamless tubes can be manufactured by drawing process.

ii) Drawing is cold working process.
B) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
D) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
(2 Marks each)
3. Which of the following statements are correct ?

A) Casting produces machinable parts.
B) Wooden patterns possess good wear resistance.
C) Except for the various allowances a pattern exactly resembles the casting to
be made.
D) Metal patterns can be easily machined as compared to wooden patterns.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 79
*SLRUM79*
-2-
4. Which of the following statements are incorrect ?

A) Wire drawing is cold working process.
B) Core prints are located on core.
C) Core seats are used to place core.
D) Hot working is carried out at below recrystallization temperature.
5. Which of the following are the allowances provided on pattern ?
A) Taper allowance
B) Shape allowance
C) Moulding allowance
D) Rapping allowance
6. Filler metal is not used in
A) Gas welding
C) SMAW
B) Resistance welding
D) Brazing
(1 Mark each)
7. Trimming process is associated with

A) Polishing of metals
B) Machining
C) Forging
D) Drawing
8. In soldering, filler metal having liquidous not exceeding _________ is used.
A) 527C
B) 427C
C) 327C
D) 727C
9. Which of the following is forging operation ?
A) Upsetting
B) Forge welding
C) Swagging
D) All of the above
10. Core is not used in
A) Sand moulding
C) Centrifugal casting
B) Permanent moulding
D) All of the above
11. For shell moulding, the pattern is made up of

A) Wax
B) Wood
C) Metal
D) Plaster of paris
12. In drawing down operation of forging

A) Length is increased and thickness is reduced
B) Length is reduced and thickness is increased
C) Only length is increased
D) Only thickness is increased
13. Angle sections are produced by
A) Forging
B) Casting
C) Rolling
_____________________
D) Drawing
*SLRUM79*
-3-
SLR-UM 79
Seat
No.

MANUFACTURING PROCESSES (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : i) Attempt any three questions from each Section.

ii) Draw the sketches wherever necessary.
SECTION I
1. a) Define core. Enlist types of cores. Draw sketches of any two cores.
b) What is gating system ? How the efficiency of riser can be improved ?
2. a) Explain shell moulding in detail with its merits and demerits.
b) Explain steps involved in investment casting. What are its advantages and
disadvantages ?
3. a) Enlist types of allowances. Explain any two types of allowances in detail.
b) Explain properties of moulding sand.
7
7
7
6
7
6

a) Computer application in foundry.
b) Indirect arc furnace.
c) Defects in casting and its causes.
d) Mechanical blast cleaning.
4
SECTION II
5. a) Define forming processes. How does it differs from machining process.

b) Give broad classification of forging processes.
4
4
SLR-UM 79
-4-
*SLRUM79*
c) Explain briefly the following terms for rolled products :

i) Bloom
ii) Billet
iii) Slab
iv) Plate
v) Sheet.
6. Draw neat self explanatory sketches (No explanation is required).
i) Cold Heading.
ii) SMAW.
iii) Impact Extrusion.
7. a) Discuss the various methods of mechanical working used for the production
of pipes and tubes.
b) Explain in detail hydrostatic extrusions.
7
6

a) Forging equipments.
b) Welding joints.
c) Soldering.
4
_____________________
*SLRUM79*
SLR-UM 79
Supervisors sign
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
1
Type 1
(3 Marks)
Marks
Obtained
A
B
C
Type 2
(2 Marks)
Type 3
(2 Marks
each)
3
4
5
6
Type 4
(1 Mark
each)
8
9
10
11
12
13
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
Total Marks :
*SLRUM8*
-1-
Seat
No.
SLR-UM 8
SLR-UM
8
Set A
BASIC CIVIL ENGINEERING

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : Question 1 is compulsory. It should be solved in first

30 minutes in OMR sheet given. Each question carries
one mark.
Marks : 20

1. Following is the branch of Civil Engineering
a) Mechanical Engineering
b) Electrical Engineering
c) Environmental Engineering
d) None of these
2. The true meridian passes through
a) Geographic poles
b) Magnetic poles
c) Arbitrary poles
d) None of these
3. The sum of the interior angles in closed traverse is
a) (2n 4)90
b) (2n + 4)90
c) (2n 4)/90
d) (2n 4)60
4. The irrigation method providing the water direct to root zone is
a) Sprinkler
b) Flooding
c) Sub-surface irrigation
d) None of these
5. A gravity dam is proportioned in such a way that the external forces on it are
resisted by
a) Arch action b) RCC design c) Steel design d) Own weight
6. A Civil Engineer cannot play role of
a) Structural designer
b) Valuer
c) Architect
d) Arbitrator
7. The preliminary inspection of the area to be surveyed is known as
a) Primary survey
b) Root survey
c) Reconnaissance survey
d) Both a) and c)
8. Curvature of the earth surface is considered in
a) Plane surveying
b) Chain surveying
c) Geodetic surveying
d) Chain and compass surveying
P.T.O.
Set
A
SLR-UM 8
-2-
*SLRUM8*
9. Fly leveling is adopted for the purpose of

a) Establishing new bench marks
b) For checking accuracy of work
c) For fixing alignment of road, canal
d) All the above
10. For closed growing crops (such as wheat) the method of irrigation used is
a) Free flooding
b) Border flooding
c) Check flooding
d) Basin flooding
11. Arrangement of door or windows on external wall, to reveal desirable and
conceal undesirable views is known as _____________
a) Aspect
b) Prospect
c) Grouping
d) Elevation
12. Substructure consists of
a) Foundation b) Window
c) Parapet
d) All above
13. Height of building is restricted based on _____________
a) Road width in front of building
b) Front margin
c) Line drawn at 63.5 from rear boundary
d) All the above
14. Framed structure can be used for _____________
a) Ground floor only
b) Multistoried building
c) One or two storied building
d) All the above
15. Building bye laws are essential to _____________
a) Maintain hygienic conditions b) Restrict haphazard development
c) Enforce parking places
d) All of above
16. The function of parapet is _____________
a) Beautification
b) Protection of terrace user
c) Storage of rain water
d) All of these
17. Final setting time of cement should not be _____________
a) Less than 30 min.
b) Greater than 30 min.
c) Less than 10 hr.
d) Greater than 10 hr.
18. Eco-friendly construction encourages _____________
a) Use of cheap material
b) Use of costly material
c) Use of locally available material
d) None of these
19. Green city concept encourages _____________
a) Mass transportation
b) Use of non-conventional energy
c) Pollution free city
d) All the above
20. A foundation made up of thick R.C.C. slab covering entire bottom of the
structure is called as _____________
a) Slab foundation
b) Raft foundation/mat foundation
c) Flat foundation
d) Combined footing
_____________________
Set A
*SLRUM8*
-3-
Time : 2 Hours 30 Minutes
SLR-UM 8
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 2 is compulsory from Section I. Solve any two

questions from questions 3, 4, 5.
2) Q. No. 6 is compulsory from Section II. Solve any two
from remaining.
3) Make suitable assumptions only if necessary. But state
them clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) The following bearings were taken in running compass traverse. Draw rough
traverse, calculate included angles and comment about stations affected by
local attractions. Calculate corrected bearings.
10
LINE
FB
BB
1- 2
350
17030
23
356
173
34
91
274
45
176
355
b) What are the sub branches of Civil Engineering ? Explain any one in short.
3. a) Following consecutive readings were taken with a level staff of 4 m on

continuously slopping ground at a common interval of 30 m.
0.780, 1.535, 1.955, 2.430,
2.985,
3.480, 1.155, 1.965,
2.365, 3.64, 0.935, 1.045,
1.630,
and 2.545.
The R.L. of the first point was 180.750 m. Rule out a page of level book and
enter the above readings. Calculate R.L.s of all points by Rise and Fall method.
And also find gradient of the line joining first and last points.
b) Which are the temporary adjustments of dumpy level ?
4. a) The area of the plan plotted to a scale of 10 m to 1 cm measured now as

100.20 cm2 as measured by planimeter. The plan is found to have shrunk so
that the line originally 10 cm long now measures 9.76 cm only. Further the
20 m chian used is one decimeter too short. Find the true area of survey.
b) Explain the different types of dams.
9
4
Set A
SLR-UM 8
-4-
*SLRUM8*
5. a) Write a note on :
i) Types of canal.
ii) Air transport.
b) Draw cross section of road in cutting and filling indicating road width, shoulders,
berms, right of way etc.
SECTION II
6. a) Explain in brief :
i) Substructure
iii) Plinth
v) Parapet
ii) Superstructure
iv) Lintel
vi) Spout.
b) Differentiate between load bearing and framed structures.
7. a) In a place, maximum FSI allowed is 1.6 and space of 3 m is to be left all

around the building. Determine the width of the square plot to have optimum
utilisation of land, for a four storied building.
b) What are the types of concrete? Why concrete is reinforced ?
8. a) Enlist various materials required for building construction. Give ideal
engineering properties of any three of them.
b) What are the various grades of concrete ? Give their uses.
9. a) Explain concept of green building. How it is useful ?
b) What is remote sensing ? Give its applications in various fields.
9
4
8
5
6
7
_________________
Set A
Code No. SLR-UM 80

Seat
No.
*SLRUM80*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- ------------------------------S.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Question No. 1 is compulsory. Attempt in first thirty minutes.

Attempt any three questions from each Section.
Marks : 20
20
d2 y
dy
d
and z = log x, then the differential equation x
+
2
= 6x
dx
dz
dx 2
becomes
a) D(D 1)y = 6ez
b) D(D 1)y = 6e2z
1) If D
c) D(D + 1)y = 6e2z
d) D(D + 1)y = 6ez

P.T.O.
SLR-UM 80
-2-
DO
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2) Particular integral of (D2 2D + 1) y = ex is

a)
x x
e
2
2 x
b) x e
c) 0
x2 x
e
d)
2
3) For the P.D.E. p q = log(x + y) second solution is

a) x log (x + y) x
b) x log (x + y) z
c) log (x + y) z
d) log (x + y) + z
4) The complete solution of P.D.E. involves
a) no. of arbitrary constant equals order of P.D.E.
b) no. of arbitrary constant equal no. of independent variables
c) no. of arbitrary constant is always one
d) none of these
*SLRUM80*
*SLRUM80*
5)
-3-
1 ax
e v = ? , where v is function of x.
f (D)
a) eax .
b) v
1
. e ax
f (D a )
ax
c) e .
d) v
1
v
f (D a )
1
v
f (D + a )
1
. e ax
f (D + a )
6) For the P.D.E. p3 q3 = 0 complete solution is

a) z = ax + ay + c
b) z = ax + by + c
c) z = ax + by c
d) z ax ay + c = 0
7) The Fourier series of f(x) = 1 x2 in (1 1) contains
a) Only sine terms
b) Both sine and cosine terms
c) Only cosine terms
d) Neither sine terms nor cosine terms
8) A function can be expanded in Fourier series if it satisfies
a) Fouriers conditions
b) Eulers conditions
c) Dirichlets conditions
d) Bernoullis formula
SLR-UM 80
SLR-UM 80
-4-
*SLRUM80*
9) The Half range sine series for f(x) defined in the interval (0, 1) is
a) f (x ) = a 0 +
b) f (x ) =
c) f (x ) =
d) f (x ) =
n =1
a n cos nx
n=1
a n cos nx
b n sin nx
n =1
b n sin nx
n =1
10) e x c1 cos 3x + c 2 sin 3x + c 3 e 2 x is the general solution of

a)
b)
c)
d)
d3 y
dx 3
d3 y
dx 3
d3 y
dx 3
d3 y
dx
+ 4y = 0
+ 8y = 0
8y = 0
d2y
dx
dy
2=0
dx
11) L {3t} = ___________

a)
1
s log 3
b)
1
s + log 3
c)
s
s 2 + (log 3 )
d) None of these
*SLRUM80*
-5-
12) L e 2 t cos 3t = _____________

a)
b)
c)
s2
(s + 2 )2
+9
s2
s 2 4s + 13
s+2
2
s + 4s + 13
d) None of these
t
13) If L {f (t ) } = 2
, then L f (u) du = __________
0
s 4
2
a)
b)
c)
d)
s2 s2 4
2s
2
s 4
s s2 4
2s 2
s2 4
14) If L {f(t)} = (s ) , then L {f (t ) } = ___________

a) s 3 (s ) s 2 f (0 ) + sf (0 ) f (0 )
b) s 3 (s ) s 2 f (0 ) sf (0 ) f (0 )
c) f (0 ) sf (0 ) s 2 f (0 ) s 3 (s )
d) None of these
SLR-UM 80
SLR-UM 80
-6-
*SLRUM80*

15) If r is position vector then . r = ____________
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
16) The divergence of vector function is also
a) vector
b) scalar
c) irrotational
d) none of these

17) If r = a e 3 t + b e 2 t , where a and b are constants vectors, then at t = 0,

dr
2 r = ____________
dt

a) a

b) b

c) a b

d) a + b
18) If f(z) = excosy + i exsiny, then f (z ) is
a) ez
b) ez
c) ex(cosy + siny)
d) None of these
*SLRUM80*
-7-
19) If 2x x2 + ay2 is to harmonic, then the value of a is equal to

a) 0
b) 1
c) 1
d) 3
20) The transformation cwz + wd bz a = 0 is bilinear if
a) bd ac 0
b) ad bc 0
c) bd ac = 0
d) ad bc = 0
______________
SLR-UM 80
SLR-UM 80
-9-
*SLRUM80*
Seat
No.
S.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

SECTION I
(4+4+6=14)
a) Solve (D4 + 2D2 + 1) y = x2.

b) Solve xq = yp + xe x2 + y2 .
2
c) Solve (x + 1)
d2 y
dx 2
3(x + 1)
dy
+ 4y = x 2 .
dx
OR
c) Find cosine series of f(x) = sin x in 0 < x < .
(4+4+5=13)
a) Solve (D2 + 1)y = sin x . sin 2x + 2x.

b) Solve z2(p2 + xq2) = x.
c) Obtain the cosine series for f(x) = c x; 0 < x < c.
(8+5=13)
a) Find the Fourier series for f (x ) = 1 cos x in (0 2) .

b) Use variable separable method to solve 4
z(0, y) = 3ey e5y.
z z
+
= 3z given
x y
SLR-UM 80
*SLRUM80*
-10-

a) Obtain the Fourier series for f(x) = x2 in (l l).
b) Solve pz = 1 + q2.
c) The motion of the particle is given by
d2 s
dt 2
+ k2
(5+3+5=13)
ds
= 0 . If at t = 0, s = s0, and
dt
v
ds
= v 0 , show that as time t , s = s 0 + 20 .
dt
k
SECTION II
6. a) Find the analytic function f(z) = u + iv, given that u v = ex (cosy siny).
cos t
b) Find L
.
t
c) Find the unit tangent vector at any point on the curve x = t2 + 2, y = 4t 5,

z = 2t2 6t, where t is any variable. Also determine the unit tangent vector at
the point t = 2.
5
4
7. a) Show that u = ex (x cosy y siny) is harmonic and find its harmonic conjugate.
Also determine the corresponding analytic function.
7
b) Find the following :
(3+3)
1
i) L {t cosat}
ii) L
s 2
.
(s + 1)3
8. a) A particle moves along the x-axis according to the law

x (t ) + 6 x (t ) + 25 x (t ) = 0 . If the particle is started at x = 0 with an initial
velocity of 12 ft/sec. to the left, determine x in terms of t using Laplace
transform method.

r
b) Prove that F = 2 is irrotational and find its scalar potential.
r
cos at cos bt
dt by using Laplace transform method.
c) Evaluate
t
0
9. a) Find the bilinear transformation which maps z = 1, i, 1 into w = 2, i, 2
respectively.
b) Prove that 2 f (r ) = f (r ) + 2 f (r ) .
r
1
1
L
tan
(
s
+
1
)
.
c) Find
______________
5
5
4
5
4
4
Code No.
*SLR-UM-81*
SLR-UM 81
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------S.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS TECHNOLOGY (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

3) Separate answer sheet should be given to each Section.
Marks : 20
1. Choose the correct options :
(201=20)
1) A 3 phase, 4 pole, 50 Hz induction motor runs at 1440 rpm. The speed of

rotating magnetic field with respect to rotor is _____________ rpm.
a) 1500
b) 1440
c) 60
d) 0
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 81
*SLR-UM-81*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) A single phase induction motor employs ________________ rotor.

a) wound
b) squirrel
c) either squirrel cage or wound
3) The most commonly used induction meter is
a) Induction voltmeter
b) Induction wattmeter
c) Induction ammeter
d) Induction watt-hour meter
4) The slip of induction motor is given by,

a) S = (Ns N)/N
b) S = (Ns N)/NS
c) S = (Ns N)
5) Multimeter is used for measurement of

a) Current
b) Resistance
c) Voltage
d) All of the above
6) The magnetizing current drawn by transformer and induction motor is due to

their ____________ power factor.
a) zero
b) leading
c) lagging
d) unity
*SLR-UM-81*
SLR-UM 81
-3-
7) A moving iron type instrument is used for current and voltage measurements
a) In d.c. circuits only
b) In a.c. circuits only
c) In both d.c. and a.c. circuits
d) None of above
8) A capacitor start capacitor run single phase induction motor does not have
a) Centrifugal switch
b) Starting winding
c) Squirrel cage rotor
d) High power factor
9) A dc series motor does not start at

a) Full load
b) Any load
c) Fractional load
d) No load
10) In direct resistance heating, heat is transferred by _____________ mode of

heat transfer.
a) radiation
b) conduction
c) convection
d) any of the above
11) In non-inverting op-amp the out is _____________ phase with input signal.
a) out of
b) in
c) in or out
d) none of above
12) In microcontroller 8051, data bus is of _____________ lines.

a) 16
b) 32
c) 8
d) 64
13) When op-amp is used to detect the voltage level, then the circuit is called as
_____________
a) An integrator
b) Differentiator
c) Comparator
d) Buffer
14) The logic gate giving output high when both inputs low is _____________
a) Buffer
b) NOT
c) NOR
d) OR
SLR-UM 81
*SLR-UM-81*
-4-
15) The data bus is _____________

a) Unidirectional
b) Bidirectional
c) Parallel
d) Serial
16) A flip flop can store _____________

a) 1 bit of data
b) 2 bits of data
c) 3 bits of data
d) 4 bits of data
17) 8051 microcontroller has inbuilt _____________

a) Timers
b) I/O ports
c) Limited memory
d) All of above
18) The main purpose of an instrumentation amplifier is to amplify _____________

signals that are riding on _____________ common-mode voltages.
a) Small, small
b) Small, large
c) Large, small
d) Large, large
19) An 8-bit microprocessor signifies that it has _____________

a) 8-bit Counters
b) 8-bit controller
c) 8-bit ALU
d) 8-interrupt lines
20) A digital circuit that can count the clock pulse is called _____________
a) Latch
b) Counter
c) Shift Register
d) Trigger
______________________
*SLR-UM-81*
-5-
SLR-UM 81
Seat
No.
S.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS TECHNOLOGY (Old)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) Figures right to indicate full marks.
3) Separate answer sheet should be given to each Section.
SECTION I
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
a) Explain the speed control of D.C. shunt motor.

b) Explain DOL starter used for 3 phase induction motor with circuit diagram.
c) Explain capacitor start single phase induction motor with phasor diagram.
d) Explain with neat sketch direct and indirect resistance heating.
e) Describe the constructional details and working of moving iron attraction type
instrument.
f) Explain with neat diagram the working of digital tachometer.
3. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Explain briefly different characteristics of dc series and dc shunt motor.

b) A 3-phase 400 V motor load has a power factor of 0.4. The two wattmeters
connected to measure the input. They show the input to be 25 KW. Find the
reading of each instrument.
c) Calculate the time taken for 10 KW furnace having overall efficiency of 36%
to melt 3.2 kg of aluminium. The initial temperature is 15C. Take specific
heat of aluminium = 880 J/kgC. Melting point of aluminium = 657C. Latent
heat of aluminium = 42 KJ/kg 1 J = 2.78 10 7 Kwh.
SLR-UM 81
-6-
*SLR-UM-81*
SECTION II
(45=20)
a) Explain with block diagram PLC system.

b) Give five differences between microprocessor and microcontroller.
c) Explain the characteristic of an ideal op-amp.
d) Explain op-amp can be used as instrumentation amplifier.
e) Write short note memory.
f) Explain flash ADC (Analog to Digital Converter).
(210=20)
a) Explain with neat diagram operation of op-amp as differentiator and integrator.

b) Explain different types of flip-flop circuit in detail.
c) Explain different addressing modes of the microcontroller 8051. Give example
of each.
___________________
SLR-UM 82
*SLRUM82*
Seat
No.
S.E. (Mech.) (Part II) (New) Examination, 2014

FLUID MECHANICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

I. General :
1) Complete all the entries on Answer Sheet with black ball pen.
II. Particular :
1) Type I : Matrix Match Type All questions are compulsory. There are
two questions carrying three marks each. Each question contains
statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. Statements in
column I are labelled as A, B and C whereas statements in column II are
labelled as p, q, r and s. The statement in column I may have no match in
column II or may have one or more than one correct matches. The answers
to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the
following example. If the correct matches are A-q, A-r, B-p, B-s, C-p, C-r,
C-s.
p
A
B
C
If all the bubbles are correctly matched you will get full three marks,
there is no partial marking system.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 82
-2-
*SLRUM82*
2) Type II : Assertion and Reason Type Attempt any one from two questions.
It consists of two statements, one labelled as statement 1 and other labelled
as statement 2. Select the answer using following code :
B) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true, but statement 2 is not the
correct explanation of statement 1.
3) Type III : Multiple Correct Answer Type
Attempt any four from five questions given. Each question carries two
marks. If you bubble correctly all the answers you will get full marks. There
is no partial marking system.
There are five multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has
four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which one or more is/are correct.
For example if choices (B) and (C) are correct, then bubble as below :
A
5.
Attempt any four from five questions given. Each question carries one
mark. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D). Out of which
only one is correct. For example, if correct choice is (C) then bubble as
below :
A
11.
*SLRUM82*
SLR-UM 82
-3-

Time : 30 Minutes
Marks : 20
Important : Read Instructions to Candidates carefully before solving the question paper.
Type I :
1.
Column I
A) Centre of buoyancy
B) Centre of gravity
C) Centroid
2.
Column I
A) Venturimeter
B) Orifice meter
C) Pitot tube
s)
Column II
Area moment zero
Point of application of the weight of
displaced liquid
Point of application of the weight of
displaced body
Constant pressure
p)
q)
r)
s)
Column II
Measurement of flow through pipe
Measurement of velocity
Application of Bernoullis Equation
Conversion of K.E. to P.E.
p)
q)
r)
Type II :
3. Statement (I) : According to Bernoullis theorem total head with flowing fluid is
constant.
Statement (II) : In Pitot tube pressure head is converted in to total head.
4. Statement (I) : Drag force can be classified as pressure drag and friction drag.
Statement (II) : Pressure drag is also called as form drag.
Type III :
5. Under which of the following conditions Bernoullis equation cannot be applied ?
A) When the flow is rotational
B) When the flow is turbulent
C) When the flow is irrotational
D) When the flow is steady
6. The rotational components are
A) Wz =
1 v u
2 x y
B) Wz =
1 u v
2 y x
C) Wx =
1 w v
2 y z
D) Wx =
1 v w
2 z y
SLR-UM 82
*SLRUM82*
-4-
7. Convective accelerations
u v w
from the acceleration components in
,
A) These forms excluding ,
t t t
x, y and z direction respectively
u v w
from the acceleration components in
,
,
B) These forms including
x y z
x, y and z direction respectively
C) Are responsible for acceleration in only one direction
D) Are responsible for fluid flow in rotational form
8. Equivalent pipes
A) Loss of head and discharge equal to loss of head and discharge in compound
pipe
B) Loss of head and discharge are different to loss of head and discharge in
compounds pipe
C) Length of equivalent pipe is sum of lengths of compound pipe
D) Length of equivalent pipe is multiplication of length of compound pipes
9. Equipotential lines
A) These are the lines drawn along the stream lines
B) These are the lines drawn perpendicular to the stream lines
C) Represented by = constant
D) Represented by = constant
Type IV :
10. When a body is immersed wholly or partially in a liquid, it is lifted up by a force
equal to the weight of liquid displaced by the body. This statement is called
A) Pascals law
B) Archimedes principle
C) Principle of floatation
D) Bernoullis theorem
11. The ratio of the inertia force to the __________ is called Reynolds number.
A) Pressure force
B) Elastic force
C) Surface tension force
D) Viscous force
12. The hydraulic mean depth or the hydraulic radius is the ratio of
A) Area of flow and wetted perimeter
B) Wetted perimeter and diameter of pipe
C) Velocity of flow and area of flow
D) None of these
13. The loss of head at exit of a pipe is
A) V2/2g
B) 0.5 V2/2g
C) 0.375 V2/2g
D) 0.75 V2/2g
14. The velocity of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of a venturimeter
A) Remains constant
B) Increases
C) Decreases
D) Depends upon mass of liquid
_____________
1
1
1
1
1
*SLRUM82*
-5-
SLR-UM 82
Seat
No.

FLUID MECHANICS
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Answer three questions from each Section. Question No. 2

and Question No. 6 are compulsory.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Use of single memory non-programmable calculator is
allowed.
SECTION I
2. a) Derive an expression for the depth of centre of pressure from free surface of
liquid of an inclined plane surface submerged in liquid.
b) The velocity vector in a fluid flow is given by V = 2x3 i 5x2y j + 4t k. Find the
velocity and acceleration of a fluid particle at (1, 2, 3) at time t = 1.
3. a) An oil of specific gravity 0.8 is flowing through a venturimeter having inlet

diameter of 20 cm and throat diameter of 10 cm. The oil-mercury differential
manometer shows reading of 25 cm. Calculate the discharge of oil through
horizontal venturimeter. Take Cd = 0.98.
b) What are different types of fluid flow ? Explain any two with example.
4. a) What is Pitot tube ? How will you determine the velocity at any point with help
of Pitot tube ?
b) With neat sketches, explain conditions of equilibrium for floating and submerged
bodies.
OR
b) A crude oil of viscosity 0.97 poise and relative density 0.9 is flowing through
a horizontal circular pipe of diameter 100 mm and length 10 m. Calculate
the difference of pressure at the two ends if 100 kg of oil is collected in tank
in 30 seconds.
SLR-UM 82
-6-
*SLRUM82*
5. a) Explain in detail Lagrangian and Eulerian method of description of fluid flow.
b) A tank has two identical orifices on one of its vertical sides. The upper orifice
is 3 m below the water surface and lower one is 5 m below water surface. If
the value of Cv for each orifice is 0.96, find the point of intersection of the two
jets.
SECTION II
6. a) What is siphon ? Where it is used ? Explain its working with sketch. Write the
equation for pressure head at summit.
b) A kite weighing 9.8 N and having an area of 1 m2 makes an angle of 7 to

horizontal when flying in a wind of 36 km/hr. If pull on the string attached to
the kite is 49 N and it is inclined to horizontal at an angle of 45, calculate lift
and drag coefficients. Take density of air as 1.2 kg/m3.
7. a) Three pipes of diameters 300 mm, 200 mm and 400 mm and lengths 450 m,
255 m and 315 m are connected in series. The difference in water surface
levels in two tanks is 18 m. Determine the rate of flow of water considering
minor losses, if coefficients of friction are 0.0075, 0.0078 and 0.0072
respectively.
b) Define drag force and lift force of an object immersed in a fluid. Derive an
expression for drag and lift on a stationary solid body in a stream of real fluid
moving with uniform velocity.
8. a) What are the steps involved in the CFD approach ?
b) State Buckinghams theorem. What are repeating variables ? How are

these selected in dimensional analysis ?
9. a) An oil of specific gravity 0.7 is flowing through a pipe of diameter 300 mm at

the rate of 500 lit/sec. Find the head lost due to friction and power required to
maintain the flow for a length of 1000 m. Take kinematic viscosity (v) as 0.29
stokes. Use the relation f = 0.079/(Re1/4).
b) Explain in brief :
i) Displacement thickness
ii) Momentum thickness
iii) Energy thickness.
_____________
*SLRUM82*
SLR-UM 82
Supervisor's sign
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
ANSWER SHEET
TYPE I :
B C D
B C D
B C D
Marks
A
B
C
2
A
B
C
TYPE II :
3
4
TYPE III :
5
6
7
8
9
TYPE IV :
10
11
12
13
14
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
Total Marks :
SLR-UM 83
*SLRUM83*
Seat
No.

THEORY OF MACHINES I (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Max. Marks : 100

Scratching, rubbing of answers are not allowed.
Solve the objectives on separate answer sheet only
provided along with this question paper.
20
I) Match the pairs :
List (i)
List (ii)
A) Self locking screws
P) Use of springs
B) Overhauling screws
Q) Thin layer of lubricant
C) Non viscous friction
R) Thick layer of lubricant
D) Viscous friction
S) Efficiency more than 50%
E) Centrifugal clutch
T) Efficiency less than 50%
II) Multiple choice questions each question carries 2 marks :
A) _____________ are the examples of higher pair.

a) Pair of friction clutches
b) Toothed gearing
c) Belt and Rope drive
d) Ball and roller bearing
B) The Coriolis component of acceleration is taken into account for

a) Slider Crank mechanism
b) Four bar chain mechanism
c) Crank and slotted lever mechanism
d) With worth quick return mechanism
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 83
*SLRUM83*
-2-
C) Following are the conditions of equivalent dynamical system.

a) Sum of two masses is equal to total mass of the body
b) The centre of gravity of two masses coincides with that of body
c) Sum of mass moment of inertia of the masses about their centre of
gravity is equal to mass moment of inertia of the body.
d) Magnitude of each mass must be same
D) ____________ are centrifugal governors.
a) Watt
b) Porter
c) Proell
d) Hartnell
III. Single correct answer type, each question carries 1 mark :

A) The two links OA and OB are connected by a pin joint at O. If the link OA
turns with angular velocity w1 rad/sec in clockwise direction and the link
OB turns with angular velocity w2 rad/sec in the anticlockwise direction,
then the rubbing velocity at the pin joint O is
a) w1.w2.r
b) (w1 w2).r
c) (w1 + w2).r
d) (w1 w2).2r
B) In Pantograph, all the pairs are

a) Turning pairs
b) Sliding pairs
c) Spherical pairs
d) Self-closed pairs
C) In a radial cam, the follower moves

a) In a direction perpendicular to the cam axis
b) In a direction parallel to the cam axis
c) In any direction irrespective of the cam axis
d) Along the cam axis
D) The height of a Watts governor (in meters) is equal to
a) 8.95
N2
c)
895
2
b)
d)
89.5
N2
8950
N2
*SLRUM83*
SLR-UM 83
-3-
E) The ratio of the height of a Porter governor (when the length of arms and
links are equal) to the height of a Watts governor is
a)
m
m+M
b)
M
m+M
c)
m+M
m
d)
m+M
M
F) When the sleeve of a Porter governor moves upwards, the governor

speed
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unaffected
d) None of above
G) The brakes commonly used in motor cars is

a) Shoe brake
b) Band brake
c) Band and block brake
d) Internal
_____________________
*SLRUM83*
-5-
SLR-UM 83
Seat
No.

THEORY OF MACHINES I (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80
Attempt any two questions from each Section.

Make suitable assumptions if required and state them clearly.
Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
Figures to the right full marks.
SECTION I
2. a) With neat sketch explain any two inversions of four bar chain.
b) In the mechanism as shown in Fig. (II-b) the Crank OA rotates at 20 rpm

anticlockwise and gives motion to the sliding blocks B and D. The dimensions
of various links are OA = 300 mm, AB = 1200 mm, BC = 450 mm and
CD = 450 mm. For the given configuration determine i) Velocities of sliding at
B and D ii) Angular velocities of CD iii) Linear acceleration of D iv) Angular
acceleration of CD.
12
-6-
*SLRUM83*
3. a) Explain Pantograph with neat sketch.
SLR-UM 83
b) The crank and connecting rod of a reciprocating engine are 200 mm and 700 mm
respectively. The crank is rotating in clockwise direction at 120 rad/sec. Find
with the help of Kleins construction, find
i) Velocity and acceleration of the piston.
ii) Velocity and acceleration of the midpoint of the connecting rod.
iii) Angular velocity and angular acceleration of the connecting rod, at the
instant when the crank is at 30 to IDC.
c) Two shafts with an included angle of 160 are connecting by a Hookes joint.
The driving shaft runs at a uniform speed of 1500 rpm. The driven shaft
carries a flywheel of mass 12 kg and 100 mm radius of gyration. Find the
maximum angular acceleration of the driven shaft and maximum torque required. 8
4. a) Explain Harts mechanism with neat sketch.
b) Derive an expression for velocity and acceleration of Piston in single slider

crank mechanism.
c) A connecting rod is suspended from a point 25 mm above the centre of small

end and 650 mm above its centre of gravity, its mass being 37.5 kg. When
permitted to oscillate, the time period is found to be 1.87 seconds. Find
dynamical equivalent system constituted of two masses, one of which is
located at the small end centre.
SECTION II
5. a) Derive an expression for torque transmitted in case of flat pivot bearing
using uniform pressure and uniform wear theory.
b) A cam with a minimum radius of 25 mm, rotating clockwise at uniform speed
is to be designed to give a roller follower, at the end of a valve rod motion
described below;
1) To raise the valve through 50 mm during 120 rotation of the cam.
2) To keep the valve fully raised through next 30
3) To lower the valve during next 60
4) To keep valve closed during rest of revolution.
*SLRUM83*
-7-
SLR-UM 83
The diameter of roller is 20 mm and diameter of the camshaft is 25 mm.

Draw the profile of the cam when the line of stroke of valve rod passes
through the axis of the camshaft.
The displacement of the valve, while being raised and lowered is to take
place with simple harmonic motion.
12
6. a) Draw displacement, velocity and acceleration diagram for a follower with
simple harmonic motion.
b) A conical pivot supports a load of 20 kN, the cone angle is 120 and the
intensity of normal pressure is not to exceed 0.3 N/mm2. The external diameter
is twice the internal diameter. Find the outer and inner radii of the bearing
surface. If the shaft rotates at 200 rpm, and coefficient of friction is 0.1. Find
power absorbed in friction. Assume uniform pressure.
c) All the arms of a Porter governor are 178 mm long and are hinged at a
distance of 38 mm from the axis of rotation. The mass of each ball is1.15 kg
and mass of the sleeve is 20 kg. The governor sleeve begins to raise at 280
rpm. When the links are at an angle of 30 to vertical. Assuming the friction
force to be constant, determine the minimum and maximum speed of rotation
when the inclination of the arms to the vertical is 45.
7. a) Derive an expression for braking torque in case of single block brake when
the line of action of braking force passes through a distance a below the
fulcrum O.
b) Define following terms :

i) Height of Governor
ii) Equilibrium speed
iii) Mean equilibrium speed
iv) Sleeve lift.
c) A simple band brake shown in figure (VII-c) is applied to a shaft carrying a
flywheel of mass 400 kg. The radius of gyration of the flywheel is 450 mm and
runs at 300 rpm. If the coefficient of friction is 0.2 and brake drum diameter is
240 mm.
SLR-UM 83
-8-
*SLRUM83*
Find :
i) The torque applied due a hand load of 100 N
ii) The number of turns of the wheel before it is brought to rest and
iii) The time required to bring it to rest, from the moment of the application of
the brake.
_____________________
*SLRUM83*
SLR-UM 83
Supervisors sign
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
ANSWER SHEET FOR OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

1. I) Match the pairs:
P
Q
R
5
S
A
B
C
D
E
II) Multiple choice questions :
a
b
c
d
A
B
C
D
III) Single correct answer type :
a
b
c
d
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
Total Marks :
*SLRUM84*
SLR-UM 84
Seat
No.

MANUFACTURING PROCESSES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

2) There will be two types of multiple choice questions. MCQs
with only one answer correct and MCQs with more than
one answer correct.
I. MCQ with one answer correct (1 mark each) :
Marks : 20
(110=10)
1) The extra projection is provided on __________ for making cavity in the mold
for location and support of core.
a) Core box
b) Core
c) Pattern
d) Casting
2) The mains freq. induction furnace operates at __________ frequency in India.
a) 100 Hz
b) 60 Hz
c) 1000 Hz
d) 50 Hz
3) Which of the following process is called expendable pattern process ?
a) Green sand molding
b) Centrifugal casting
c) Investment casting
d) CO2 process
4) Carburator body for a two wheeler is manufactured by
a) Die casting
b) Continuous casting
c) Shell molding
d) Investment casting
5) In cast Iron foundry, gates and risers are removed from casting by
a) Gas cutting
b) Saw cutting
c) Hammering
6) Manufacture of I-beams of mild steel is done by
a) Drawing
b) Hot rolling
c) Cold rolling
d) Hot Extrusion
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 84
*SLRUM84*
-2-
7) Which of the following is product of forging ?

a) Engine Head
b) Lead Screw
c) Spanner
d) M.S. bar
8) Which of the following is cold working process ?

a) Rolling of bars
b) Tube rolling
c) Rod drawing
d) Tube extrusion
9) For joining two parts without melting any base metal, following processes are
used
a) Welding and soldering
b) Welding and brazing
c) Brazing and soldering
d) All the above
10) In spot welding process, Electrodes of ___________ are used.
a) Steel
b) Tungsten
c) Graphite
d) Copper
II. MCQs with more than one answer correct (2 marks each) :
(25=10)
1) Coarse grained sand has

a) Higher permeability
b) Lower green compression strength
c) Lower refractoriness
d) Higher green compression strength
2) Which of the following tests are routinely carried out on green molding sand ?
a) Green compression strength test
b) Permeability test
c) Grain fineness test
d) Silica content test
3) Which of the following are fettling operations ?
a) Jumbling
b) Shot blasting c) Salvaging
d) Averaging

a) Cold working is carried out above recrystallisation temp.
b) Cold working improves surface finish
c) Cold working reduces hardness and strength
d) Cold working is carried out below recrystallisation temp.
5) Which of the following welding processes employ inert gas shield ?
a) TIG welding
b) MIG Welding
c) Resistance Welding
d) SMAW
_____________________
*SLRUM84*
-3-
SLR-UM 84
Seat
No.

MANUFACTURING PROCESSES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Marks : 80
Attempt any three questions from Section I.

Attempt any three questions from Section II.
Neat sketches must be drawn wherever necessary.
Assume suitable data wherever necessary and mention it
clearly.
SECTION I
1. a) Enlist various types of patterns and explain match plated cope and drag
pattern with neat sketch.
b) Draw neat sketch illustrating any two types of cores. (Based on their position
in mold cavity).
c) Give typical composition of green molding sand mentioning ingredients and

additives.
2. a) Explain the process of centrifugal casting with neat sketch.
b) Explain advantages of CO2 process of molding over green and dry sand
molding.
c) Explain advantages and limitations of cold box process of core making.
3. a) Explain classification of Induction furnaces. What is its principle of working ? 4

b) Explain elements of gating system and their function in brief.
c) Explain the process of Blow molding of plastics with neat sketch.
4. Write notes on any three of the following :

a) Steps in casting process and significance of casting process.
b) Stages in preparation of Cupola.
c) Stages in fettling of casting.
d) Injection molding of plastics.
SLR-UM 84
-4-
*SLRUM84*
SECTION II
5. a) Explain classification of forming processes in brief.
b) Enlist any four rolled products and mention whether they are manufactured
by hot rolling or cold rolling.
c) Explain with neat sketch process of closed die forging.
6. a) Explain basic hand forging operations in brief.
b) Explain the process of cold drawing of rods with neat sketch.
c) Compare between Direct extrusion and indirect extrusion.
7. a) Enlist methods of tube drawing and draw neat sketch illustrating tube drawing
with fixed mandrel.
5
b) Explain the process of TIG welding with neat sketch.
c) Compare between brazing and soldering.
8. Write notes on any three of the following :

a) Resistance Welding.
b) Cold Heading.
c) Gas welding equipments.
d) Rolling of bars and sections.
_____________________
SLR-UM 84
*SLRUM84*
Supervisors sign
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
ANSWER SHEET
PART A
I. MCQ with one answer correct :
Marks
(1 mark each)
Mark
Obtained
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
10)
II. MCQ with more than one answer correct
(2 marks each)
Mark
Obtained
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
Total Marks :
Code No.
SLR-UM 85
Seat
No.
*SLRUM85*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - S.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

NUMERICAL METHODS (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Mars. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks Signature of
Examiner
Out of
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 1 is multiple choice questions. It is compulsory and solve

in first 30 minutes. Each question carries one mark.
3) Attempt any two questions from each Section from remaining
three questions.
4) Use of calculator is allowed .
_________________________________________________________________________
1. Tick (9) the correct alternative (each carries one mark) :
1) The value of correlation coefficient r lies between
b) 1 and 1
a) 2 and 1
c) 1 and 2
d) 3 and 2
Marks : 20
20
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 85
*SLRUM85*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
2) The equations of lines of regression are x + 2y = 5 and 2x + 3y = 8.

Then x and y are
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 5
d) 1 and 2
3) The Newton-Raphson method fails when
b) f( x ) is positive
a) f( x ) is negative
c) f( x ) is zero
d) never fails
4) The positive real root of the equation x3 3x 5 = 0 is lies between

b) + 1 and + 3
a) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) None of these
5) Using bisection method the second approximation to the root of equation
b) 2.5
a) 2.25
c) 2.75
d) 2.625
6) Which of the following method is used to find largest eigen value of
given square matrix ?
b) Power method
a) Cayley-Hamilton
c) Lagranges method
d) None of these
7) In solving simultaneous linear equations, which method reduces the
b) Jacobis method
a) Gauss-elimination method
c) Gauss-Jordan method
d) Gauss-Seidal method
8) Gauss-Seidal method converges only, if the coefficient matrix is
b) Diagonally dominant
a) Singular matrix
c) Upper-triangular
d) Non-singular matrix
*SLRUM85*
SLR-UM 85
-3-
9) To fit the straight line y = a + bx to N observations, the normal equations

are
a) y = b x + aN , xy = a x + b x2
b) y = a x + b x2, xy = aN + b x
c) y = a + N x, xy = a x + b x2
10) If f(x) = x3, whose arguments are 2 and 3, then the value of first
divided difference [ 2, 3] is
b) 1
a) 5
c) 5
d) 7
11) For the following data :
x:
0
0.25
0.5
y:
0
0.1108 0.1979
0. 5
The approximate value of

a) 0.0073
c) 0.735
2
1
y dx by Simpsons 3
0
rd
rule is ________
b) 0.00073
d) None of these
12) If
f(x) dx = a1f(x1) + a 2f(x2 ) + a3 f(x 3 ) by Gaussian three point
formula, then the value of a1, a2, a3 are ________________

a)
5 9 5
, ,
8 8 8
5 8 5
c) , ,
8 9 8
b) 3 5 , 0 , 3 5
d)
5 8 5
, ,
9 9 9
13) The error in the Weddles rule is of the order ________

b) h4
a) h2
c) h6
d) h3
dy
dz
= x + yz,
= y + xz with y(0) = 1, z(0) = 1 and h = 0.1, then
dx
dx
the value of K1 and l1 by Runge-Kutta forth order for calculating y and z
at x = 0.1 are ________________
b) K1 = 0.1, l1 = 0.1
a) K1 = 0, l1 = 1
c) K1 = 0.1, l1 = 0.1
d) none of these
14) If
SLR-UM 85
*SLRUM85*
-4-
15) The Finite difference approximation to the first order derivative y at

x = xi is
1
1
yi + 1 + yi 1
yi + 1 y i 1
a)
b)
2h
2h
1
c) 2 y i + 1 2 yi + y i 1
d) None of these
h
2u 2u u
= 0 is
16) The partial differential equation 2 + 2 +
x
x
y
a) Hyperbolic
c) Elliptic
b) Parabolic
d) None of these
2
k
17) For solving u = a 2 u , where = 2 2 , the Bender-Schmidts
a h
t
x 2
method is valid if ________
1
a) =
b) = 1
c) = 1
d) = 2
2
18) The Partial differential equation xfxx + yfyy = 0 is elliptic if __________
b) x = 0, y > 0
a) x < 0, y > 0
c) x > 0, y > 0
d) x = 1, y =1
a
19) If I1 and I2 are the values of I = f(x )dx at different width h1 and h2
b
then the improved value of I by Rombergs method is ____________

I2 I1
I +I
a) I = I1 + 1 2
b) I = I2 +
3
I2 + I1
c) I = I2
d) None of these
3
20) The Crank-Nicolson formula subject to K = ah2 for solving parabolic
equation is ______________
1
a) ui, j + 1 = ui 1, j + 1 + ui + 1, j + 1 + ui 1, j + ui + 1, j
4
1
b) ui, j + 1 = (ui 1, j + ui + 1, j )
2
1
c) ui, j = (ui 1, j 1 + ui 1, j +1 + ui +1, j 1 + ui + 1, j 1)
4
d) None of these
_________________
*SLRUM85*
SLR-UM 85
-5-
Seat
No.

NUMERICAL METHODS (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 6 are compulsory.

2) Attempt any two questions from each Section from
remaining three questions.
3) Use of calculator is allowed .
SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Using the bisection method, find an approximate root of the equation

1
sin x = , that lies between x = 1 and x = 1.5 (measured in radians).
x
Perform five iterations.
b) Find an approximate root of x log10x 1.2 = 0, by false position method.
Take four iterations.
c) Apply Gauss-elimination method to solve the equations :
x + 4y z = 5, x + y 6z = 12, 3x y 4 = 4.
d) Given :
x-series
y-series
Mean
18
100
S.D.
14
20
Coefficient of correlation between x and y is 0.8. Find two line of regression

of y on x and x on y. Also find out the most probable value of y if x is 70.
e) Using Newtons divided difference formula, find the missing value from the
table :
x:
y:
81
SLR-UM 85
*SLRUM85*
-6-
3. a) Solve by Newton-Raphson method the equations x2 + y2 = 16 and x2 y2 =4
given that the starting approximate solution is 2 2 , 2 2 . Perform two

iterations.
b) Using Lagranges interpolation, calculate the profit in the year 2000 from the
following data :
Year
1997
1999
2001
2002
Profit in lakhs of Rs.
43
65
159
248
4. a) Fit a parabola y = a + bx + cx2 to the following data :
x:
y:
10
11
11
10
b) Determine the largest eigen value and the corresponding eigen vector of the
5 4
matrix
, taking
1 2
1
0 as initial eigen vector. Perform four iterations.

5. a) Solve the equations :

27x + 6y z = 85
x + y + 54z = 110
6x + 15y + 2z =72
by Gauss-Seidal method, correct to three decimal places.
b) Compute the coefficient of co-relation between x and y from the following
data :
x:
11
y:
18
12
10
5
5
SECTION II
6. Solve any four :
0.7
a) Evaluate
x exdx by using Simpsons 1

3
4.2
2.3
0.5
b) Evaluate
(45)
rd
rule, taking five ordinates.
1
dx dy by using Trapezoidal rule with h = k = 0.1.
xy
*SLRUM85*
-7-
SLR-UM 85
c) Apply Picards method to find second approximation to the value of y and z at

x = 0.1 given that
1
dy
dz
=z,
= x 3 (y + z) with condition y0 = 1, z0 =
when x0 = 0.
2
dx
dx
2u u
d) Using Bender-Schmidts method, solve 2 =
subject to u(0, t)= 0, u(1, t) = 0
t
x
for all t > 0 and u(x, 0) = sin( x), 0 < x < 1 upto 0.1 second. Taking width
h = 0.2 for variable x.
2u u
=
for one time step, subject to
e) Using Crank-Nicolson method, solve
x 2 t
u(0, t) = 0, u(4, t) = 100 for all t and u(x, 0) = 20 for all 0 < x < 4 and taking
width h = 1 for variable x and = 1.
0.4
7. Evaluate
e x dx , using Rombergs method by taking initial value of h = 0.2,
correct to 4 places of decimal.
10
8. Using finite difference method, solve boundary value problem y y = x with the
boundary conditions y(0) = 0, y(1) = 0 and taking subintervals n = 4.
10
2u 2u
+
= 0 for the following square mesh with
x 2 y 2
boundary values as shown in figure, using Liebmanns iterative method.
(Taking 05 iterations) :
10
9. Solve the Laplace equation
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 86
*SLRUM86*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
-------------------------------------------------------------------S.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS TECHNOLOGY (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks -
__________ Examination ____________

For Office Use only
Signature of
Examiner
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.

Marks : 20

1) Cranes and hoists offer which type of load ?
A) non-reversing, no load start
B) reversing, no load start
C) reversing, heavy start
D) non-reversing, heavy start
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 86
*SLRUM86*
-2-
DO
T
O
N
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
WR
2) The consideration involved in the selection of the type of electric drive for a
particular application depends on
A) Speed control range and its nature
B) Starting torque
C) Environmental conditions
D) All of the above
3) Advantages of electric heating is
A) all of below
B) it is free from dirt
C) the system does not produce any flue gas
D) installation and maintenance cost are less
4) Series motors have a relatively
A) high starting torque
B) medium starting torque
C) low starting torque
D) a zero starting torque
5) _______________ Characteristics are called as Electrical characteristics.

A) torque/armature current
B) speed /armature current
C) speed /torque
D) none of above
6) Speed of rotating magnetic field in three phase induction motor is given

A)
120 f
p
B)
C)
f
120p
D) none of above
120 p
f
*SLRUM86*
SLR-UM 86
-3-
7) Shunt d.c. motor works on a.c. mains

A) satisfactorily
B) unsatisfactorily
C) not at all
8) Synchronous speed of linear induction motor does NOT depend on

A) width of pole pitch
B) number of poles
C) supply frequency
D) any of the above
9) Speed of universal motor is

A) dependent on frequency of supply
B) proportional to frequency of supply
C) independent of frequency of supply
10) If starting winding of single phase induction motor is left in the circuit, it will
A) draw excessive current and overheat
B) run slower
C) run faster
D) spark at light loads
11) Convert the binary number into decimal number for 110101
A) (45)10
C) (12.6)10
B) (255)10
D) (53)10
12) The instrumentation amplifier uses ________________

A) wheastones bridge
B) thermocouple
C) thermistor
D) transducer bridge
13) When the op-amp is used to detect the voltage level, then the circuit is called
A) Integrator
B) Differentiator
C) Comparator
D) Buffer
14) 2s complement of number 01100100 is

A) 10011100
B) 10010010
C) 11011000
D) 01100111
SLR-UM 86
*SLRUM86*
-4-
15) The clock frequency of microprocessor is

A) 2 MHz
B) 8 MHz
C) 1 MHz
D) 4 MHz
16) The end of the clock pulse, the value of Q is uncertain condition it is referred
as
A) Forbidden condition
B) Race around Condition
C) Clear
D) Preset
17) State the instruction for copy the content of accumulator in register C
A) mov A, C
B) mov C, A
C) mvi A, C
D) IN C, A
18) Address bus it is a group of _______________

A) 8 lines
B) 9 lines
C) 16 lines
D) 32 lines
19) The microcontroller 8051 has stack pointer is _______________

A) 8 bit
B) 16 bit
C) 2 bit
D) 32 bit
20) The algebraic difference between the current into the inverting and
non inverting terminal is related as ___________
A) input bias current
B) input offset current
C) supply current
D) power consumption
_____________________
*SLRUM86*
-5-
SLR-UM 86
Seat
No.

ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS TECHNOLOGY (New)
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Two Sections should be written in separate answer books.

2) Solve all two questions from each Section.
3) Use non-programmable calculator.
SECTION I
(45=20)
a) Derive the torque equation for d.c. motor.

b) 4-Pole, 250V, 7.46KW dc shunt motor with a full load efficiency of 85% has
382 wave connected armature conductors. The shunt field resistance is
125 ohm and the armature resistance is 2 ohm. If the, motor takes a current
of 4 A from mains on no load and the flux per pole is 20 m Wb. Calculate its
no load speed. At what speed will the motor run on full load ?
c) Why starter is required to start 3 phase induction motor with neat circuit
diagram explain DOL starter.
d) A 3 phase IM having a star connected rotor has an induced emf of 80 volts
between slip rings at standstill on open circuit. The rotor has a resistance
and reactance per phase of 1 ohm and 4 ohm resp. Calculate current/phase
and power factor when 1. Slip rings are short circuited 2. Slip rings are
connected to star connected rheostat of 3 ohm per phase.
e) Explain the concept of double field revolving theory w.r.t. single phase induction
motor.
f) Draw the neat diagram and explain the working of any one induction furnace.
3. Solve any two :
(210=20)
a) Discuss dielectric heating.

Find the usefull rating of tin smelting furnace in order to smelt 50 Kg of tin / hr.
given smelting temperature of tin is 235C. Specific heat of tin 0.055, Latent
heat of liquidification 13.31 Kcal/Kg. initial temperature = 15C.
SLR-UM 86
-6-
*SLRUM86*
b) Write note on :
1) Linear Induction Motor
2) Brushless D.C. Motor.
c) Explain torque/slip characteristics of 3 phase induction motor. And write
applications of it.
SECTION II
(45=20)
A) Explain op-amp with block diagram.

B) Explain the function of J-K flip flop.
C) Explain op-amp as a differentiator.
D) Explain the flags present in the microprocessor.
E) Explain the program counter and stack pointer in 8051.
(210=20)
A) Draw the equivalent circuit of practical inverting op-amp and derive the
expression for output voltage gain.
B) Draw and explain the architecture of 8051.
C) Compare microprocessor and microcontroller ? Draw the architecture of
microprocessor.
_____________________
Code No.
SLR-UM 87
*SLRUM87*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------T.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

THEORY OF MACHINES II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Question number one is compulsory.

2) Solve any two questions from Section I.
3) Solve any two questions from Section II.
1. Solve the following MCQs :
Marks : 20
20
1) Axial thrust will be negligible in case of

a) Helical gears
b) Bevel gears
c) Spiral gears
d) Herringbone gears
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 87
-2-
DO
T
O
N
*SLRUM87*
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) The purpose of differential in railway locomotive is served by

a) Providing independent bearing for each wheel
b) Providing taper on the rall surface
c) Providing taper on wheel rim
d) Large no. of wheels
3) The axis of spin, the axis of precession and axis of applied gyroscopic
couple are contained in
a) One plane
b) Two plane perpendicular to each other
c) Three planes perpendicular to one another
4) Idle gears are used in compound gear train
a) To bridge over distance between driver and driven
b) For great speed ratio
c) For both (a) and (b)
5) For full depth involute spur gears, minimum number of teeth of pinion to
avoid interference depends on
a) Pressure angle
b) Speed ratio
c) Circular pitch
d) Pitch diameter
6) If mean speed of prime mover is increased then the coefficient of fluctuation
of speed will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains same
d) Unpredictable
7) A disc spinning on its axis at 20 rad/sec will undergo precession when a
torque 100 Nm is applied about an axis normal to it at an angular speed if M.I.
of the disc is 1 kg.m2
a) 2 rad/sec
b) 5 rad/sec
c) 10 rad/sec
d) 20 rad/sec
*SLRUM87*
SLR-UM 87
-3-
8) Circular pitch X diametral pitch is equal to

a)
b) 2
c) module
d) 1/
9) In a simple gear train, there is an odd number of idlers. The direction of
rotation of the driver and the driven gears will be
a) Opposite
b) Same
c) Depends on number of teeth of the gears
d) None of above
10) In turning moment diagram the variation of energy above and below the
mean resisting torque line is called
a) Fluctuation of energy
b) Maximum fluctuation of energy
c) Coeff. of fluctuation of energy
11) For complete dynamic balance at least ____________mass/masses are
necessary.
b) Three
a) Two
c) Four
d) One
12) In reciprocating engine, the primary unbalanced force.
a) Cannot be balanced
b) Can be fully balanced
c) Can be partially balanced
d) None of above
13) The primary unbalanced force is maximum when the angle of inclination of
the crank with the line of stroke is
b) 90
a) 0
c) 180
d) 360
14) A reduction in amplitude of successive oscillations indicates ___________
vibrations.
a) Free
b) Forced
c) Damped
d) Natural
15) In under damped vibrating system if x1 and x2 are successive values of the
amplitude on same side of the mean position then the logarithmic is equal to
x
x
a) 1
b) log 1
x2
x2
x
c) loge 1
x2
d) log (x1 x2)
SLR-UM 87
*SLRUM87*
-4-
16) In a spring mass system, the static deflection caused by mass m in spring
of stiffness k is . The natural frequency of free longitudinal vibration of the
system will be
a) fn =
1
2
k
mg
b) fn =
1
2
mg
1 g
1 m
d) fn =
2
2 k
17) The ratio of maximum displacement of forced vibration to the defection due to
the static force is known as
a) Damping factor
b) Damping coefficient
c) Logarithmic decrement
d) Magnification factor
c) fn =
18) The whirling speed of a rotating shaft carrying a mass m at centre is

a) More than the natural frequency of transverse vibration of the system
b) Less than the natural frequency of transverse vibration of the system
c) Equal to the natural frequency of transverse vibration of the system
d) Is more or less depending upon the stiffness of shaft
19) A torsional vibratory system having three rotors connected by a shaft has
a) One node
b) Two node
c) Three node
d) No node
20) The heavy rotating masses are connected by shaft of non-uniform cross
section with length l1, l2, l3, l4 with diameters d1, d2, d3, d4. This system can
be reduced to torsionally equivalent system with uniform diameter d1 then
equivalent length of shaft is
a)
l2 + l2 + l3 + l4
4
2
d1
d1
d1
b) l1 + l2 + l3 + l4
d2
d3
d4
d1
d1
d1
c) l1 + l2 + l3 + l4
d2
d3
d4
d1
d1
d1
d) l1 + l2 + l2 + l4
d2
d3
d4
______________________
*SLRUM87*
-5-
SLR-UM
87
SLR-UM
87
Seat
No .

THEORY OF MACHINES II
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Solve any two questions from Section I.

2) Solve any two questions from Section II.
2. a)
b)
c)
3. a)
SECTION I
Two gear wheels mesh externally and are to give a velocity ratio of 3 to 1.
The teeth are of involute form : Module = 6 mm, addendum = one module,
pressure angle = 20. The pinion rotates at 90 rpm. Find (i) No. of teeth on
pinion to avoid interference on it and the corresponding no. on the wheel.
(ii) The length of path and arc of contact (iii) The no. of pairs of teeth in
contact.
10
The center distance between two meshing spiral gears is 260 mm and the
angle between the two shafts 65. The normal circular pitch is 14 mm and the
gear ratio 2.5. The driven gear has a helix angle of 35. Find
i) The no. of teeth on each wheel.
ii) The exact center distance.
iii) The efficiency assuming friction angle to be 5.5.
6
Define the terms related to helical gears helix angle, circular pitch, normal
circular pitch.
4
In the epicycle gear train shown in fig. the compound wheel A and B as well
as internal wheels C and D rotate independently about the axis O. The wheels
E and F rotate on the pins fixed to arm a. All the wheels are of same module.
The no. of teeth on the wheels are TA = 52, TB = 56, TE = TF = 36. Determine
the speed of C if (i) the wheel D fixed and arm a rotates at 200 rpm clockwise.
(ii) the wheel D rotates at 20 rpm counter clockwise and the arm a rotates at
200 rpm clockwise.
10
SLR-UM 87
-6-
*SLRUM87*
i) Coeff. of fluctuation of speed

ii) Coeff. of fluctuation of energy.
c) Explain with the help of sketch pitching, rolling yawing in case of naval ship.
4. a) The propeller of aero weighs 500 N and has radius of gyration of 0.8 m. The
propeller shaft rotates at 2000 rpm clockwise as viewed from tail end. The
plane turns left, making U turn i.e. though 180 of 120 m radius, at a speed of
360 Kmph. Determine the gyroscopic couple and its effect on the aircraft.
Also find the extra pressure on bearings if the distance between two bearings
of the propeller is 0.75 m.
12
b) Find the maximum and minimum speeds of a flywheel of mass 5200 kg and
radius of gyration of 1.8 m when the fluctuation of energy is 100 800 N.m. The
mean speed of the engine is 180 rpm.
SECTION II
5. a) Explain in brief static and dynamic balancing.
b) The three cylinders of an air compressor have their axes 120 to one another
and their connecting rods are coupled to a single crank. The stroke is
100 mm and the length of connecting rod is 150mm. The mass of reciprocating
parts per cylinder is 1.5 kg. Find the maximum primary and secondary forces
acting on the frame of the compressor when running at 3000 rpm. Describe
clearly a method by which such forces may be balanced.
c) Write a short note on critical or whirling speed of shafts.
6. a) Explain in detail springs in parallel and in series.
12
4
6
b) A shaft 50 mm diameter and 3 m long is simply supported at the ends and

carries three loads of 1000 N, 1500 N and 750 N at 1 m, 2 m and 2.5 m from
the left support. The Youngs modulus for shaft material is 200 GN/m2. Find
frequency of transverse vibration.
c) Explain vibration isolation and transmissibility.
8
6
*SLRUM87*
-7-
SLR-UM 87
7. a) How the natural frequency of vibration for a two rotor system is obtained ?
b) A steel shaft 1. 5 m long is 95 mm in diameter for the first 0.6 m of its length
60 mm in diameter for the next 0.5 m of the length and 50 mm in diameter for
the remaining 0.4 m of its length. The shaft carries two flywheels at two ends,
the first having a mass of 900 kg and 0.85 m radius of gyration located at the
95 mm diameter end and the second having a mass of 700 kg and 0.55 m
radius of gyration located at the other end. Determine the location of the node
and the natural frequency of free torsional vibration of the system. The modulus
of rigidity of shaft material may be taken as 80 GN/m2.
c) Find the mass such that the system has a natural frequency of 10 Hz, if
k1 = 2000 N/m, k2 = 1500 N/m, k3 = 3000 N/m, k4 = k5 = 500 N/m.
Fig. 7(a)
___________________
SLR-UM 88
*SLRUM88*
Seat
No.

FLUID MACHINERY & FLUID POWER
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Question No. 1, 2 and 5 are compulsory.

2) Solve any one question from each Section of remaining
questions.
4) Use of Non Programmable Calculator Steam Table and Mollier Chart
are permitted.
5) Question no. 1 is having time duration of 30 minutes.
Marks : 20
1. MCQ/Objective question paper :
20
1 and 2 statements in Column I may have 0/1/2 matches with statements in

Column II. Bubble correct answers (each question 3 marks) :
1)
Column I
Column II
a) Hydraulic system
p) DCV
b) Pneumatic system
q) FRL
c) Constant resisting load
r) Brake system
s) Meter in circuit
2)
Column I
Column II
a) Delavel steam turbine
p) Reaction turbine
b) Ratean steam turbine
q) Impulse turbine
c) Francis water turbine
r) Impulse steam turbine

s) Reaction water turbine
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 88
*SLRUM88*
-2-
3 to 4 multiple answer type objective question (each question 2 marks) :

3) Which of the following are positive displacement pumps ?
a) Vane pump
b) Centrifugal pump
c) Gear pump
d) Reciprocating pump
4) Which of the following are reaction turbines ?

a) Delavel turbine
b) Pelton wheel
c) Parson turbine
d) Kaplan turbine
5) Degree of reaction in reaction steam turbine (parson) is

a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 2
6) Specific speed of centrifugal pump is

a) Speed at which pump lifts 1m3/s water at 1 m head
b) Speed at which pump works at 1m head
c) Speed at which pump consumes 1 kw power at 1 m head
d) All of above
7) Specific speed of water turbine is
a) Ns =
c) Ns =
N Q
3
N P
3
b) Ns = N Q
5
H 4
d) Ns =
N p
5
8) Centrifugal compressor is
a) Rotary compressor
b) Axial compressor
c) Reciprocating compressor
d) None of above
*SLRUM88*
-3-
9) Time delay value is

a) Pneumatic flow control valve
b) Pneumatic pressure control valve
c) Hydraulic flow control valve
d) Hydraulic pressure control valve
10) Seals are made of
a) Rubber
b) M.S.
c) All of above
d) None of above
11) Manometric head responsible for

a) Power consumption in pump
b) Power delivery in pump
c) Lifting of water
d) None of above
12) Unit quantities are

a) Calculated considering unit power in water turbine
b) Calculated considering unit heads in hydraulic jack ?
c) Calculated considering unit heads and unit power in pump
d) All of above
13) DCV is used to
a) Control pressure of fluid
c) Direct and control fluid flow
b) Cushioning effect
d) All of above
14) Mostly in railways following brake used

a) Pneumatic brake system
b) Hydraulic brake system
c) All of above
d) None of above
________________
SLR-UM 88
SLR-UM 88
-4-
*SLRUM88*
*SLRUM88*
SLR-UM 88
-5-
SLR-UM 88
Seat
No.

FLUID MACHINERY & FLUID POWER
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Question No. 2 and 5 are compulsory.

2) Solve any one question from each Section of remaining
questions.
4) Use of Non Programmable Calculator Steam Table and
Mollier Chart are permitted.
SECTION I
(54=20)
a) Explain losses in steam turbine.

b) Explain throttle governing of steam turbine.
c) Explain construction and working of francis turbine.
d) Explain construction and working of multistage (parallel type) centrifugal pump.
e) Explain cavitation effect.
f) Explain priming.
g) Explain importance of model testing.
3. a) Show that pressure vise in the impeller of a centrifugal pump when frictional
1
Vf12 + u22 Vf22 cosec 2
29
where vf1 and vf2 are velocity of flow of inlet and outlet 112 is tangential
velocity of impeller at outlet is vane angle at outlet.
losses in a impeller are neglected is given by
]
7
b) Derive specific speed of centrifugal pump.
c) Derive hydraulic efficiency of pelton wheel ?
SLR-UM 88
-6-
*SLRUM88*
4. a) A Francis turbine working under a head of 30 m has a wheel diameter of 1.2 m

at the entrance and 0.6 m at the exit. The vane angle is 15. The water at the
exit leaves the vanes without any tangential velocity and velocity of flow in
the runner is constant. Neglecting the effect of draft tube and losses in the
guide and runner passages, determine the speed of wheel in rpm and vane
angle at the exit. State whether the speed calculated is synchronous or not. If
not, what speed would you recommend to couple the turbine with an alternator
of 5 cycle ?
b) The following data relates to single stage impulse turbine.

steam velocity = 600 m/s
black speed = 250 m/s
nozzle angle = 20
black outlet angle = 25
Neglecting friction calculate work developed by the turbine for a steam feed
rate of 20 kg/sec. Also calculate axial thrust on the bearing.
c) The penstock supplies water from a reservoir to the pelton wheel with a gross
head 500 m. one third of gross head is lost in friction in the penstock. The rate
of flow of water through the nozzle fitted at the end of the penstock is 2m3/s.
The angle of deflection of jet is 165. Determine the power given by the water
to the runner and also hydraulic efficiency of the pelton wheel. Take speed ratio
as 0.45 and Cv = 1.
SECTION II
(54=20)
a) Draw symbols of hydraulic valve and speed control pneumatic valve with
integral check.
b) Explain with neat sketch centrifugal compressor.
c) Explain with neat sketch hydraulic intensifier.
d) Explain with neat sketch types of seals.
*SLRUM88*
-7-
SLR-UM 88
e) Explain with neat sketch pneumatic brake system in automobile.

f) Explain with neat sketch
3
poppet valve.
2
g) Explain with neat sketch time delay circuit.

6. a) Explain with neat sketch vane pump.
b) Explain cushioning effect in hydraulic system.
c) Explain hydraulic brake system in automobile.
7. a) Explain with neat sketch
5
DCV in pneumatics.
2
b) Explain with neat sketch and symbol tandem cylinder.
c) Explain meter in circuit in speed control.
_____________________
SLR-UM 88
-8-
*SLRUM88*
*SLRUM88*
-9-
SLR-UM 88
Supervisors sign
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Exam No. :
Date of Exam :
Subject :
ANSWER SHEET FOR OBJECTIVE QUESTION PAPER
PART A
1. 1.
a
b
c
2.
b
c
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
Name &
Sign. of Examiner :
Total Marks :
Marks
SLR-UM 9
*SLRUM9*
S

BASIC ELECTRONICS AND COMPUTER PROGRAMMING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 80

3) Use separate answer sheets for Basic Electronics
(Section I) and Computer Programming (Section II).
Marks : 20
SECTION I
(Basic Electronics)
10

1) Ripple frequency of the output waveform of full wave bridge rectifier, when
fed with a 50Hz sine wave is
a) 25 Hz
b) 100 Hz
c) 50 Hz
d) 200 Hz
2) When the reverse voltage across PN junction is gradually decreased, the

depletion region inside the diode
a) Does not change in width
b) Continuously decrease in width
c) Continuously increase in width
d) Remains constant
3) In saturation region in an NPN transistor
a) VCB is ve and VEB is + ve
b) VCB is + ve and VEB is ve
c) VCB is + ve and VEB is + ve
d) VCB is ve and VEB is ve
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 9
*SLRUM9*
-2-
4) Thermocouple is a _____________ transducer and used for measurement of

______________
a) Passive, temperature
b) Active, light sensitivity
c) Active, displacement
d) Active, temperature
5) A transistor connected in common base configuration has
a) high input and low output resistance
b) low input and low output resistance
c) high input and high output resistance
d) low input and high output resistance
6) In bridge rectifier, if input voltage is Vm sinwt then PIV across any diode will be
b) Vm
a) 2Vm
c)
v
d)
m
2
2
7) To display the digit 7 in seven segment display then

a) segments a, b and c should be turned on and all other segments should be off
b) segments a, b and c should be off and all other segments should be
turned on
c) segments a, f and e should be turned on and all other segments should be off
d) segments a, f and e should be off and all other segments should be turned on
8) The Boolean expression
)
is equal to
a) A + B
b)
c)
d) both a) and b)
9) The _____________ gauges operates on the principle of photoresistivity.

a) bonded
b) unbonded
c) semiconductor
d) both a) and b)
Set A
*SLRUM9*
SLR-UM 9
-3-
10) Electrolytic capacitors are _______________ and ____________

a) variable and unpolarized
b) fixed and polarized
c) fixed and unpolarized
d) variable and polarized
SECTION II
(Computer Programming)
(110=10)
11) C is a ___________ programming language.

a) structured
b) simple
c) complexs
d) none of above
12) _____________ symbol is used to represent decision of task in flow chart.

a) Square
b) Rectangle
c) Rhombus
d) Diamond
13) Algorithm is a
a) Logic of program
b) Program using symbol
c) C program
d) None of above
14) C has _____________ keywords.
a) 42
b) 21
c) 32
d) 10
15) When a = 15 and b = 15, c = (a = = b), what value c is holding ?

a) c = 1
b) c = 0
c) c = 1
d) c = 2
16) What is the value of x and y when, x = 12, y = + + x ?

a) x = 12, y = 12
b) x = 13, y = 12
c) x = 12, y = 13
d) x = 13, y= 13
17) Tick the valid variable name

a) 1name
b) 1 name
c) 1_name
d) name_1
Set A
SLR-UM 9
-4-
*SLRUM9*
18) In what sequence the initialization, testing and execution of the body is done
in a while loop
a) initialization, execution of the body, testing
b) execution of the body, initialization, testing
c) initialization, testing, execution of the body
19) Char data type occupies
a) 1 bytes
b) 2 bytes
c) 3 bytes
d) 4 bytes
20) To read value from keyboard ______________ function is used.
a) printf
b) scanf
c) clrscr
Set A
*SLRUM9*
SLR-UM 9
-5-

3) Use separate answer sheets for Basic Electronics
(Section I) and Computer Programming (Section II).
SECTION I
(Basic Electronics)
2. Solve any four :
(45=20)
1) Explain working of transistor as an amplifier.

2) Explain object counting system using photo electric pick up transducer.
3) Draw and explain seven segment common cathode LED display.
4) Explain construction and operation of photo transistor. Compare photo diode
and photo transistor.
5) Explain different types of variable capacitor.
3. Solve any two :
(210=20)
1) What is active and passive transducer ? Explain construction and operation

of linear voltage differential transformer. Give its advantages and application.
2) Why filters are required ? Explain working of capacitor filter using full wave
rectifier. With associated waveforms. Derive an expression of ripple factor.
3) a) Perform subtraction using 2 complement and convert in to octal :
(22=4)
i) (673.56)8 (572)8
ii) (1766)8 (23)8
b) Prove the following Boolean identities :
i)
ii)

(23=6)
Set A
SLR-UM 9
-6-
*SLRUM9*
SECTION II
(Computer Programming)
(45=20)
a) What are the different types of operators ? Explain any five with example.
b) Give the difference between structure and union with example.
c) List the error of following program with explanation.
#include<stdio.h>
void main( );
{
int a
a=10
if(a>18);
printf(eligible for voting);
else;
printf(eligible for not voting);
}
d) Modify the given program to obtain the following output
1
1
1
1
1
2
2
2
2
3
3
3
4
4
void main( )
{
int i, j;
for(i=3; i<2 ; i++)
{
for(j=5; j<=i; j--)
{
printf(%d\t);
}
printf(\t);
}
}
Set A
*SLRUM9*
-7-
SLR-UM 9
e) Explain the following string handling functions with example,

1) strcat
2) strcpy.
f) Find the the output with explanation
void main( )
{
int i=3;
int *j;
j=&i;
*j=*j + 10 + *j;
printf (%d\n%d, i, *j);
}
______________
Set A
SLR-UM 90
*SLRUM90*
Seat
No.

METROLOGY AND MECHANICAL MEASUREMENT
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100
PART A
Marks : 20
Instructions :
I. General :
1) All questions from objective type question paper are compulsory.
2) There is no negative and partial marking system for objective type questions.
3) Instructions for all four types of objective questions are as per the particulars
given below.
II. Particulars :
1) Type 1 : Matrix Match Type :
All questions are compulsory. There are two questions carrying three marks
each. Each question contains statements given in two Columns, which have
to be matched. Statements in Column I are labeled as A, B and C, whereas
statements in Column II are labeled as p, q, r and s. The statements in
Column I may have no match in Column II or may have one or more than one
correct matches. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately
bubbled as illustrated in the following example; if the correct matches are
A q, A r, B p, C p, C r, C s.
p
q
r
s
A
B
C
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 90
-2-
*SLRUM90*
2) Type 2 : Assertion and Reasoning Type :

Solve any one of the following. It consists of two statements, one labelled as
statement 1 and other labelled as statement 2. Select the answer using the
following code :
B) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not correct
3) Type 3 : Multiple Correct Answer Type :
There are four multiple correct answer type questions. All questions are
compulsory. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which one or more is/are correct. For example, if choices (B) and (C) are
correct. Then bubble as below.
A
B
C
D
4) Type 4 : Straight Objective Type :

There are four questions of this type. All are compulsory. Each question
has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. For
example, if choice (C) are correct, then bubble as below :
A
B
C
D
_____________________
*SLRUM90*
-3-
SLR-UM 90
PART A
Type 1 : Matrix Match Type :
i)
Column I
A) Gear tooth vernier
B) Pneumatic comparator
C) Spirit level
Column II
p) For checking angles
q) No moving parts
r) Chordal thickness
s) Pitch diameter
ii)
Column I
A) Rotameter
B) Stroboscope
C) Strain gauges
p)
q)
r)
s)
Column II
Flow measurement
Force measurement
Speed measurement
Temp. measurement
Type 2 : Assertion and reasoning type :

iii) Statement 1 : Comparator is used to compare linear dimension.
Statement 2 : Comparator indicates size difference between work piece and
working std.
OR
iv) Statement 1 : Sensitivity is defined as ratio of magnitude of response to the
magnitude of quantity being measured.
Statement 2 : Sensitivity has a wide range of units depending upon the
instrument of measurement system.
Type 3 : Multiple correct answer type :
v) Advantages of dial indicator
A) Contact pressure is low and uniform
B) Contact pressure is high and uniform
C) The instrument is accurate and economical
D) The instrument is not accurate
vi) Terms used in measurement
A) Calibration
C) Selective assembly
B) Sensitivity
D) Inter changeability
SLR-UM 90
-4-
*SLRUM90*
vii) Most common material used for the Fabrication of bellows of a bellows
pressure gauge is
A) Leather
B) Plastic
C) Brass and Bronze
D) Animal membrane
viii) Electrical resistance strain gauges are used to measure
A) Static strain
B) Dynamic strain
C) Voltage
D) Resistance
Type 4 : Straight objective type :
ix) Most common material used for slip gauges
A) HCHCr
B) C45
C) 55C8
D) M.S.
x) F.D. for hole basis system is
A) Zero
C) +ve
B) ve
D) One
xi) Temperature rise in metals is due to

A) Molecular activity
B) Energy
C) Pressure
D) Stress
xii) The average speed measurement are given by
A) Centrifugal tachometer
B) Revolution counter
C) Stroboscope
D) Drag cup tachometer
_____________________
*SLRUM90*
-5-
SLR-UM 90
Seat
No.

METROLOGY AND MECHANICAL MEASUREMENT
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
General Notes :
1) The Parts of this question paper time allotted and maximum marks are as
follows :
Part A : Objective Type Question Paper Initial Half an Hour,
Maximum Marks : 20.
Part B : Descriptive Type Question Paper, Remaining 2.5 hours,
Maximum marks : 80.
2) Use separate answer sheet provided for marking answers of Part A, according
to the separate instruction sheet with particulars.
3) Use main answer book provided for attempting questions of both the Sections
of Part B.
4) Make suitable assumptions if necessary stating them clearly.
PART B
Descriptive Type Question
Instructions : 1) Question 1 and 6 are compulsory.
2) Answer any two from remaining questions of each Section.
3) Answer briefly and to the point using simple sketches.
SECTION I
1. A) What do you understand by line and end standard ? Discuss their relative
characteristics.
B) Discuss the grade, sets and wringing in usage of slip gauges.
7
7
2. A) An angle of value 57 34 9 is to be measured with the help of the following

standard angle gauges.
1 3 9 27 41
1 3 9 27
3 6 18 30
Show the arrangements of angle gauges with a neat sketch by selecting
minimum number of gauges.
SLR-UM 90
-6-
*SLRUM90*
B) Explain principle of
i) Optical flat
ii) Sine bar.
3. A) Calculate the F.D. and tolerances and hence the limits of size for the shaft
and hole for the following fit 60 H8f7 steps dia 50 mm and 80 mm.
[f = 5.5 D0.41].
B) Explain with the help of a sketch the following terms :

1) Basic size
2) Tolerance
3) Zero line
4) Fundamental deviation
5) Allowance.
4. A) Explain how sine bar is used to measure angle of a component.

B) Write short notes on vernier Bevel Protractor.
5. A) How the effective diameter of screw-thread is measured ?
7
6
7
B) Explain in brief constant chord method in measurement of gear tooth thickness. 6

SECTION II
6. A) Explain the meaning of measuring lag, threshold, resolution and dead time.
B) Write a short note on thermistors. What are materials used for thermistors ?
7
7
7. A) With neat sketch explain Mc Lead gauge.
B) Explain in detail photoelectric pick up.
8. A) With neat sketch explain Gas flow meter.
B) Explain the working of Wheatstones bridge network using electrical strain

gauges.
9. A) Write a note on piezoelectric accelerometers.
B) What is importance of acoustic measurement ? Explain the meaning of sound
pressure and sound power levels.
_____________________
6
7
6
*SLRUM90*
SLR-UM 90
Supervisors sign
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
ANSWER SHEET
PART A
Marks
Type 1 : Matrix Match Type

i)
ii)
A
B
C
A
B
C
Type 2 : Assertion and Reasoning Type

iii)
OR
iv)
Type 3 : Multiple Correct Answer Type
A
v)
vi)
vii)
viii)
Type 4 : Straight Objective Type
A
ix)
x)
xi)
xii)
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
Total Marks :
Code No.
SLR-UM 91
*SLRUM91*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
---------------------------- ---- ----------------------------T.E. (Part I) (Mech.) Examination, 2014

INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 is objective type. It is compulsory. It is to be answered

separately in first half an hour.
2) Out of remaining questions, solve any two from each Section.
Marks : 20
1. Multiple choices are given to each question. There is only one right answer
for each. Put a (9) tick against each question :
(120=20)
i) Taylor contributed to
a) Time study
c) Project study
b) Motion study
d) Value Engg.
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 91
-2-
DO
T
O
N
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
ii) Productivity is defined as

a)
output
input
c) output input
b)
input
output
d) none of above
iii) In method study inspection is indicated by

a)
b)
c)
d)
iv) Mass production generally uses

a) Product layout
b) Process layout
c) Combination layout
d) Fixed position layout
v) Personal allowance for a male worker is

a) 5%
b) 4%
c) 6%
d) 8%
vi) Tool grinding is an example of

a) Contingency allowance
b) Personal allowance
c) Fatigue allowance
d) Policy allowance
vii) Light source is required for drawing
a) Cyclegraph
b) String diagram
c) Flow chart
d) Travel chart
*SLRUM91*
*SLRUM91*
-3-
viii) Average rating of a worker during time study is

a) 100%
b) 90%
c) 110%
d) 200%
ix) Following technique of work measurement is based on statistics

a) Time study
b) Work sampling
c) Analytical estimation
d) Standard date
x) Following technique requires time scale during drawing

a) Outline process chart
b) Flow process chart
c) Multiple activity chart
d) String diagram
xi) Point rate system is a technique of
a) Merit rating
b) Incentive scheme
c) Method study
d) Job evaluation
xii) In PDCA cycle P stands for

a) Programme
b) Point
c) Plan
d) Project
xiii) Rowan plan is a type of

a) Job evaluation plan
b) Merit rating plan
c) Sampling plan
d) Incentive plan
xiv) Basic time + allowances =

a) Standard time
b) Normal time
c) Watch time
d) Observed time
xv) Ergonomics is related to

a) PMTS
b) Sampling
c) MSD
d) Incentive
xvi) Direction of activity can be traced in (using light source).

a) Cyclegraph
b) Chronocyclegraph
c) Outline process chart
d) Flow process chart
SLR-UM 91
SLR-UM 91
-4-
xvii) Examine critically is a step in

a) Time study
b) Work sampling
c) Method study
d) Analytical estimation
xviii) Turning operation on a lathe is an example of

a) Machine element
b) Fixed element
c) Policy element
d) Contingency element
xix) MOST is
a) Work measurement technique
b) Method study technique
c) Layout technique
d) Job evaluation technique
xx) PMTS involves
a) Time study
b) Determining motions of job
c) Statistical sampling
d) Job evaluation
______________________
*SLRUM91*
*SLRUM91*
-5-
SLR-UM
91
SLR-UM
91
Seat
No.
T.E. (Part I) (Mech.) Examination, 2014

INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instruction : Solve any two from each Section.

SECTION I
2. a) Define and explain the term productivity. What are the different factors
affecting productivity ?
b) Define Ergonomics and what are its objectives.
c) Explain work study procedure.
3. a) What is micro motion study ? And draw any five therbligs.
b) How climatic conditions affects on productivity ?
c) Explain with figure a material type flow chart.
4. a) Explain the importance of critical examination in method study and

its procedure.
b) Describe ergonomic consideration at work place.
c) Explain cyclegraph and chronocycle graph with neat diagram.
SLR-UM 91
-6-
*SLRUM91*
SECTION II
5. a) Define time study. Explain how to select a job for time study.
b) What is an element in time study ? Explain various type of elements.
c) Describe various factors affecting rate of working.
6. a) Compare product layout with process layout.
b) Explain the principles of material handling.
c) Explain point rate system of job evaluation.
7. a) What is merit rating ? What are its objectives ?
b) Explain PDCA cycle with suitable example.
c) Explain any one incentive scheme.
_____________________
8SLRUM928
SLR-UM92
92
SLR-UM
-1-
Seat
No.

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : i) Question No. 1 of objective questions is compulsory.

ii) Bubble the correct answer / answers for objective in the
answer sheet provided for Q. 1.
iii) Answer any two questions from each Section.
iv) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
v) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
Marks : 20
1. Objective Question Paper :

A) Match the following :
a) Bolted joint
b) Welded joint
c) Feather key
d) Flat saddle key
4
p)
q)
r)
s)
t)
Tight in shaft and loose in hub

Tight in both shaft and hub
Segmental cross-section
Permanent joint
Temporary joint
B) Match the following :
a) Flat spiral spring
p) Wrist watch
b) Torsion spring
q) Gramphones
c) Leaf spring
r) Automobiles
d) Conical spring
s) Light service
t) Telescopic
C) Multiple correct answers :
1) The requirement of wire ropes have

a) Withstand shock loads
b) More reliable
c) Low efficiency
d) Low cost
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 92
8SLRUM928
-2-
2) The fatigue failure depends upon a number of factors

a) No. of cycles
b) Mean stress
c) Yield stress
d) Ultimate stress
3) In a design of casting the following factors must be taken into consideration.
a) Economy in production
b) Maximum production
c) Consideration of safety
d) Strength of casting
4) The stress concentration is reduced by
a) Use of multiple notches
b) Removal of undesired material
c) Increase the hardness
d) Change property of materials
D) Single correct answer :
1) Two shaft will have equal strength, if

a) Diameter of both shaft is same
b) Angle of twist of both shaft same
c) Material of both shaft is same
d) Twisting moment of both shaft is same
2) Factor of safety for fatigue loading is the ratio of
a) Elastic limit to the working stress
b) Youngs modulus to the ultimate tensile strength
c) Endurance limit to the working stress
d) Elastic limit to yield point
3) The factor of safety for steel and steady load is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
4) The taper on cotter varies from
a) 1 in 15 to 1 in 10
c) 1 in 32 to 1 in 24
b) 1 in 24 to 1 in 20
d) 1 in 48 to 1 in 24
_____________________
8SLRUM928
-3-
SLR-UM92
92
SLR-UM
Seat
No.

MACHINE DESIGN I
Time :10.00 a.m. to 1.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : i) Answer any two questions from each Section.

iii) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention it clearly.
SECTION I
2. a) Explain preferred series. What is its importance in machine design ?
b) Explain the factor of safety used in machine design. How to determine the
magnitude of factor of safety ?
5
5
c) A knuckle joint is required to withstand a tensile load of 25 kN. Design the

joint if the permissible stresses are
Tensile stress (6t) = 56 N/mm2
Shear stress (6s) = 40 N/mm2
Crushing stress (6c) = 70 N/mm2.
10
3. a) Design a right angled bell crank lever. The horizontal arm is 500 mm long and
a load of 4.5 kN acts vertically downward through a pin in the forked end
of this arm. At the end of the 150 mm long arm which is perpendicular to the
500 mm long arm, a force p act at right angles to the axis of 150 mm arm
through a pin into a forked end. The lever consists of forged steel material
and a pin at the Fulcrum. Take the following data for both pins and lever
material.
Safe stress in tension = 75 N/mm2
Safe stress in shear = 60 N/mm2
Safe bearing pressure on pins = 10 N/mm2.
12
b) A pulley used to transmit power by means of ropes has a diameter 3.6 meters
and has 15 groove of 45 angle. The angle of contract is 170 and the
coefficient of friction between the ropes and the groove side is 0.28. The
maximum possible tension in the ropes is 960 N and the mass of rope is
1.5 kg per meter length. Determine the speed of the pulley in rpm and power
transmitted if the condition of maximum power prevail.
SLR-UM 92
-4-
8SLRUM928
4. a) Draw and explain S-N diagram.

5
5
i) Endurance limit.
ii) Notch sensitivity.
c) A forged steel bar, 50mm in diameter, is subjected to a reversed bending
stress of 250 N/mm2. The bar is made of steel 40 c8 (Sut = 600 N/mm2),
calculate the life of bar for a reliability of 90%.
Take surface finish factor, ka = 0.43
Size factor, kb = 0.85
Reliability factor, kc = 0.897.
10
SECTION II
5. a) What are design consideration for forging ?
b) A standard splined connection 8 36 40 is used for a gear and shaft

assembly rotating at 700 rpm. The dimension of the splines are :
Major diameter = 40 mm
Minor diameter = 36 mm
No. of splines = 8
The length of the gear Hub is 50 mm and the normal pressure on the splines
is limited to 6.5 N/mm2. Calculate the power that can be transmitted from
the gear to the shaft.
c) Explain the design procedure muff coupling with necessary sketch.
6. a) What are the design consideration for assembly ?
b) Explain the constructional details of leaf spring.
c) Design a valve spring of a petrol engine for the following operating conditions. 10
Spring load when the valve is open = 400 N
Spring load when the valve is closed = 250 N
Maximum inside diameter of spring = 25 mm
Length of the spring when the valve is open = 40 mm
Length of the spring when the valve is closed = 50 mm
Maximum permissible shear stress = 400 N/mm2
8SLRUM928
-5-
7. a) Explain man-machine relationship.

b) Enlist the disadvantages of welded joint over bolted joint.
SLR-UM 92
5
5
c) A bracket is riveted to a column by 6 rivets of equal size as shown in fig. It

carries a load of 60 kN at a distance of 200 mm from the centre of column. If
the maximum shear stress in the rivet is limited to 150 mpa, determine the
diameter of rivet.
10
All dimenstions are in mm

_____________________
8SLRUM928
-7-
Seat
No.
SLR-UM 92
Supervisors sign
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
ANSWER SHEET
Marks
1.
A)
a
b
c
d
B)
a
b
c
d
C)
1
2
3
4
D)
1
2
3
4
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
Total Marks :
SLR-UM 93
*SLR-UM-93*
Seat
No.
T.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

MACHINE DESIGN II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100
Instructions : 1) Question No. 1 is compulsory. (Obj. questions)

3) Solve objective questions on separate answer sheet
provided. Fill in the circles.
4) Make suitable assumptions, if required.
Marks : 20
1. I) Match the pairs :

Column I
5
Column II
A) Hypoid gears
P) Quiet motion
B) Herringbone gears
Q) High speed reduction
C) Helical gears
R) Non interchangeable
D) Worm gears
S) Zero axial thrust
E) Mitre gears
T) Pitch cone angle 45
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 93
*SLR-UM-93*
-2-
II) Multiple correct answers objective questions :
A) Objective of Autofrettage is
a) To increase overall thickness
b) To decrease overall thickness
c) To increase pressure capacity
d) To decrease pressure capacity
B) The wear strength of pinion tooth depends upon
a) Velocity factor
b) Surface endurance strength
c) Youngs modulus
d) Form factor
C) The basic types of the parameters used in optimum design are
a) Controllable parameters
b) Geometrical parameters
c) Material parameters
d) Uncontrollable parameters
D) Thick film lubrication is used in

a) Plain journal bearing
b) Hydrostatic bearing
c) Angular contact bearing
d) Hydrodynamic bearing
III) Single correct answer type objective questions :
A) In involute gears pressure angle is

a) Dependent on size of teeth
b) Constant
c) Dependent on size of gears
d) Variable
B) For velocity ratio of 40, the no. of starts on the worm will be
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 6
*SLR-UM-93*
SLR-UM 93
-3-
C) For a bevel gear having pitch angle , the ratio of formative teeth to the
actual teeth will be
a)
1
sin
b)
1
sin2
c)
1
cos
d)
1
tan
D) In a bearing no. 6205, the digit 2 designates

a) Bore size
b) Series of bearing
c) Type of bearing
d) None of these
E) The reliability of ball bearings for rated life is

a) 50%
b) 90%
c) 99%
d) 10%
F) The product of diametral pitch and circular pitch is equal to

a) 2
b)
d) 2
G) The type of the end closure for which thinness required will be minimum is
c)
a) Flat end closure
b) Torrispherical end closure
c) Hemispherical end closure
d) Ellipsoidal end closure
_____________________
*SLR-UM-93*
-5-
SLR-UM 93
Seat
No.
T.E. (Mechanical) (Part II) Examination, 2014

MACHINE DESIGN II
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80

2) Solve any two questions from each Section.
3) Make suitable assumptions, if required.
SECTION I
2. a) A spur pinion having 20 teeth is to mesh with a gear having 43 teeth. The
pinion and gear are made of plain carbon steel having ultimate tensile strength
of 450 N/mm2. The pinion is to be driven by a three phase induction motor
having a speed of 1440 rpm and 10 kW rating. The starting torque is twice the
rated torque of motor. The facewidth of the gears is 10 times its normal
module. If the surface hardness of the gear pair is to be 400 BHN, design a
gear pair with a factor of safety of 1.5 assuming velocity factor to account for
the dynamic load.
Use Cv =
6
6+V
2.87
Z
b) Describe the dynamic load acting on meshing teeth of gears.
Y = 0.484
c) Explain the types of design equations used in optimum design.

3. a) Explain the types of gear failures and suggest remedies.
b) A left hand 18 teeth helical pinion rotating at 1000 rpm transmits 10 kW
power to a right hand 37 teeth gear mounted on parallel shaft. The normal
module is 6 mm while the normal pressure angle is 20. The helix angle is 25.
The pinion is rotating in clockwise direction when viewed from the right side.
Determine the magnitude and direction of force components acting on
meshing teeth of pinion and gear. Draw free body diagram.
10
5
5
6
SLR-UM 93
-6-
*SLR-UM-93*
c) A pair of parallel helical gear consists of a 25 teeth pinion meshing with

50 teeth gear. The normal module is 4 mm. The centre distance is 165 mm.
Calculate :
i) Helix angle
ii) Pitch circle diameters of pinion and gear
iii) Axial pitch
iv) Transverse pressure angle.
4. a) What is an Auto frettage ? Explain the methods used for Autofrettage.
6
6
b) A high pressure compound cylinder consists of inner tube of inside diameter

30 mm and outer diameter 60 mm. It is jacketted by the steel tube of outer
diameter 90 mm. The tubes are assembled by a shrinkage process in such a
way that the maximum tangential stress in any tube is limited to 80 N/mm2.
Calculate the shrinkage pressure and original dimensions of the tubes. Assume
E = 2.07 105 N/mm2.
c) Design a bar of length L subjected to a constant axial tensile fore F for its
minimum material cost. Use Johnsons method of optimum design.
SECTION II
5. a) Explain static load carrying capacity, dynamic load carrying capacity and
equivalent bearing load in case of rolling contact bearing.
b) A single -row deep groove ball bearing has a dynamic load capacity of 40500
N and operates on the following work cycle :
i) Radial load of 5000 N at 500 r.p.m. for 25% of the time ;
ii) radial load of 10000 N at 700 r.p.m. for 50% of the time ; and
iii) Radial load of 7000 N at 400 r.p.m. for remaining 25% of the time.
Calculate the life of the bearings in hours.
6. a) Write down the procedure of designing the worm gears considering thermal
effects.
12
8
b) A pair of worm and worm wheel is designated as 1/30/10/10.

The input of the worm is at 1200 r.p.m. The worm wheel is made of centrifugally
cast phosphor-bronze with bending stress factor 7.0. The worm is made of
case-hardened carbon steel 14C6 with bending stress factor 28.2. Determine
the power transmitting capacity based on the beam strength.
Speed factors for 1200 r.p.m. is 0.25 and for 40 rpm, 0.48.
12
*SLR-UM-93*
-7-
SLR-UM 93
7. a) In a particular application, the radial load acting on a ball bearing is 5 kN and

the expected life for 90% of the bearings is 8000 hr. Calculate the dynamic
load carrying capacity of the bearing when the shaft rotates at 1450 r.p.m.
b) Draw the neat sketch of bevel gear showing the forces acting on it, also write
the expressions for the forces.
c) An oil ring bearing of a transmission shaft is shown in fig. 1 There is no

hydrodynamic action over the width of 4 mm of the oil ring. The total radial
load acting on the journal is 20 kN and the journal rotates at 1450 r.p.m. The
radial clearance and minimum film thickness are 20 and 5 microns respectively.
Calculate :
i) The viscosity of the lubricant ; and
ii) The required quantity of the oil.
Refer table
10
Fig. 1
_____________________
*SLR-UM-93*
SLR-UM 93
Supervisors sign
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
ANSWER SHEET FOR OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. I) Match the pairs : (5)
P
A
B
C
D
E
II) Multiple choice questions : (8)

a
A
B
C
D
III) Single correct answer type : (7)

a
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
Total Marks :
Marks
SLR-UM 94
*SLRUM94*
Seat
No.
T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

TOOL ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Instructions : 1)
2)
3)
4)
Time : 30 Minutes
Total Marks :100
You have to complete this questions in first 30 minutes.

Use Answer Sheet attached herewith.
Fill up the correct circles with Black Pen.
Figures to right shows full marks.
20
1. A) Single correct answer type questions :
(101=10)
1) In blanking operation the clearance is provided on

A) 50% on punch
B) 50% on Die
C) on punch
D) on die
2) Following is the combined bending and cutting operation along a line in

work material
A) Notching
B) Lancing
C) Piercing
D) Embossing
3) Spring back effect is more common in

A) Forming
B) Punching
C) Blanking
D) Shaving
4) In ASA system, if the tool signature is 8-6-5-5-10-15-2 then nose radius

will be
A) 6
B) 5
C) 8
D) 2
5) In a strip layout, front scrap and back scrap a is given as

A) 0.015h + t mm
B) 0.0025t + h mm
C) 0.05h + t mm
D) 0.15h + t mm
6) Discontinuous chips are formed during machining of

A) Cast Iron
B) Mild Steel
C) Aluminium
D) Tin
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 94
-2-
*SLRUM94*
7) Set up costs do not include

A) Labour cost of setting up machine
B) Ordering cost of raw material
C) Maintenance cost of machine
D) Cost of processing the work piece
8) A cup without flanges and height of 100 mm and diameter 50 mm with
corner radius as 2 mm is to be made from 2.5 mm thick stock. What is
blank size ?
A) 150 mm
B) 250 mm
C) 140 mm
D) 200 mm
9) Tensile strength is most important in
A) Drawing
B) Punching C) Blanking
D) None of these
10) Helix angle or rake angle of drill tool used for steel material is
A) 14
B) 24
C) 40
D) 60
B) Multiple correct answer type questions :
(52=10)
1) The chip thickness ratio (r) is
A) Ratio of feed to cut chip thickness
B) Always less than unity
C) Ratio of cut chip length to uncut chip length
D) None of these
2) The tool life is expressed in
A) No. of pieces produced
B) Volume of metal removed
C) Time between two grinds
D) None of these
3) Break Even Point is used to analyze
A) Economics of Machine tools
B) Min. Qty to produce
C) Profit or loss
D) None of these
4) Which is the chip removal process from given below ?
A) Die casting B) Broaching C) Forging
D) Shaping
5) Which of following costs are considered while determining economic order
quantity for procurement ?
A) Inventory carrying cost
B) Ordering cost
C) Demand
D) Sales price
_____________
-3-
*SLRUM94*
SLR-UM 94
Seat
No.

TOOL ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 7.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Question No. 1 and 5 are compulsory.

Attempt any two questions from Q. No. 2, 3, 4 from
Section I and any two questions from Q. No. 6, 7, 8
from Section II.
2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary and state
it clearly.
SECTION I
1. Design press tool for the component shown in Fig. I giving following details :
i) Strip layout
ii) Punch and die size
iii) Force estimation
iv) Design of various elements.
Also draw two views of a tool along with strip layout and part list.
Fig. I
Fig. not to scale
OR
20
Material Brass
Shear Strength 28 kg/mm2
Thickness 3 mm
All dimension are in mm
SLR-UM 94
-4-
*SLRUM94*
Design the drawing tool for component shown in fig. II. Determine the following :
i) Blank size
ii) Draw ratio
iii) No. of draws
iv) % Reduction
v) Die and punch clearance
vi) Drawing force
vii) Blank holding force
viii) Press capacity.
Also draw two views of drawing tool with part list.
20
Fig. II
Fig. not to scale
2. a) In an orthogonal turning operation :
Cutting speed : 100 m/min
Cutting force : 30 kg
Feed force : 8 kg
Back rake angle : 12
Feed : 0.2 mm/rev
Chip thickness : 0.5 mm
Determine the following
a) Shear angle
b) Work done in shear
c) Shear strain.
b) Explain the crater wear and flank wear in tool.
6
4
*SLRUM94*
-5-
SLR-UM 94
3. a) If VTn = C is the tool life equation, calculate the cutting speed that will give a
tool life of 60 minutes if n = 0.2 and C = 100. Also recommend cutting speed
to have a tool life of 75 minutes.
b) What is machinability index ? Explain the factors affecting machinability.
4. Write notes on (any two) :
a) Strip layout
c) Tool materials
5
5
10
b) Spring back effect

d) Tool dynamometers.
SECTION II
5. Design and draw two views of Jig for drilling 2 holes of M14 mm at 60 0.1
P.C.D. for the component shown in fig. III.
OR
Design and draw a milling fixture for milling a slot of 20 20 80 mm size for the same
component shown in fig. III.
20
Fig. not to scale
Fig. III
SLR-UM 94
-6-
*SLRUM94*
6. a) Explain the break even point analysis in economics of tooling.
b) Explain the nomenclature of milling cutter with neat sketch.
7. a) Explain the principles of clamping used in Jig and Fixture.

b) Explain the importance of various cutting parameters in machining operation.
8. Write a short note on (any two) :
a) Types of drill jig bushes
b) Tool signature
c) Elements of cost
d) Economic lot size.
_____________
5
5
10
*SLRUM94*
SLR-UM 94
Supervisors sign
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
PART A
Marks
(110=10)
1. A. Single correct answers :

1
10 A
2. B. Multiple correct answers :

1
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
(25=10)
Total Marks :
Code No. SLR-UM
95
Seat
No.
*SLRUM95*
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. Mechanical (Part II) Examination, 2014

HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
Code No.
Instructions :1) Q. No. 1 is objective type questions which is compulsory.

Time duration for this question is 30 minutes.
2) Out of remaining questions, attempt any two questions
from each Section.
Marks : 20
1. Attempt the following multiple choice questions.

20
1) With increase in temperature, the thermal conductivity of gases _____________
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains constant
d) First increases and then decreases
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 95
*SLRUM95*
-2-
DO
T
NO
RE
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
2) Cork is a good insulator because_____________

a) It is porous
b) It can be powdered
c) It is flexible
d) Its density is very low
3) The critical radius of insulation for a sphere is equal to

a) 2 Kho
b) 2 K/ho
c) ho/2K
d)
2Kh o
4) The finning of surfaces to enhance heat dissipation is justified ____________

a) For all systems
b) Only in systems with low thermal conductivity
c) Only in systems with fluid around being a liquid
d) Only in systems with small heat transfer coefficient
5) A fin will be effective only when Biot number is____________
a) Less than one
b) More than one
c) Equal to one
d) Infinite
6) The lumped parameter procedure should be applied when ____________

a) The convective heat transfer coefficient is low
b) The thermal conductivity is high
c) The characteristic dimension is small
d) All of above are true
*SLRUM95*
SLR-UM 95
-3-
7) In which of the following cases most unsteady heat flow occurs ?

a) Through the wall of furnace
b) Through wall of refrigerator
c) Through a casting being annealed
d) All of above
8) Dropwise condensation occurs on a ____________surface.
a) Smooth
b) Oily
c) Coated
d) Glazed
9) In pool boiling, the heat flux becomes maximum towards the end of __________
a) Free convection boiling regime
b) Nucleate boiling regime
c) Unstable film boiling regime
d) Stable film boiling regime
10) The characteristic length for horizontal plate for natural convection is given
by equation ____________
a) Lc =
c)
4 Ac
p
As
p
b) Lc =
4. As
p
d) None of above
11) The ratio of heat transfer by convection to the heat transfer by conduction
gives ____________number.
a) Nusselts
b) Reynolds
c) Prandtl
d) Grashoffs
12) The NTU of a heat exchanger is an index of its ____________

a) Number of tubes
b) Number of passes
c) Performance
d) Mode of action
SLR-UM 95
*SLRUM95*
-4-
13) In a counter flow heat exchanger, the heat capacities for hot and cold fluids
are equal. If NTU is equal to 0.5, then effectiveness of heat exchanger is
____________
a) 0.2
b) 0.5
c) 0.33
d) None of above
14) The correction factor for steam condenser is ____________

a) Equal to one
b) Less than one
c) Equal to zero
d) None of these
15) The radiator of an automobile is ____________ type of heat exchanger.
a) Recuperator
b) Cross flow
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
16) ____________ type of heat exchanger has more effectiveness.
a) Parallel
b) Counter
c) Cross flow
d) Same for all
17) The phenomenon of mass transfer is defined by ____________
a) Fouriers law of diffusion
b) Ficks law of diffusion
c) Stefan-Boltzmann law
d) All of these
18) The wavelength range for thermal radiation is (microns) ____________
2
4
1
2
a) 10 to 10
b) 10 to 10
1
2
2
c) 10 to 10
d) 10 to 10
19) A body which partly absorbs and partly reflects and does not allow any radiation
to pass through it is known as ____________
a) Specular
b) Diffuse
c) Grey
d) Opaque
20) An effective radiation shield should have surfaces of

a) Low emissivity
b) High emissivity
c) Low reflectivity
d) Low absorptivity
*SLRUM95*
-5-
SLR-UM 95
Seat
No.
T.E. Mechanical (Part II) Examination, 2014

HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Out of remaining questions, attempt any two questions

from each Section.
SECTION I
a) State and explain Fouriers law of heat conduction.
b) Explain the physical significance of thermal diffusivity.
c) An exterior wall of house consists of 10.16 cm layer of common brick having

thermal conductivity 0.7 W/mk. It is followed by 3.8 cm layer of gypsum
plaster with thermal conductivity of 0.48 W/mk. What thickness of loosely
packed rockwool insulation (K = 0.065 W/mk) should be added to reduce the
heat loss through the wall by 80%.
d) A steel pipe having thermal conductivity of 43 W/mk of 5 cm inner diameter

and 7.5 cm outer diameter is covered with 2.5 cm layer of asbestos insulation
having K = 0.20 W/mk. The hot gases are flowing in a pipe at 300C,
(hi = 280 W/m2k) while outer surface (ho = 18 W/m2k) is exposed to
ambient temperature of 30C. Estimate the heat loss to air from 3m length
of pipe and temperature drop across the insulating layer.

a) Derive an expression for temperature distribution and heat flow rate through
the fin having finite length with insulated end.
b) Derive an expression for temperature distribution in a solid cylinder of

radius R with uniformly distributed heat sources and constant thermal
conductivity K.
SLR-UM 95
-6-
*SLRUM95*
c) A stainless steel rod of outer diameter 1 cm originally at a temperature of

320C is suddenly immersed in a liquid at 120C for which convective heat
transfer coefficient is 100 W/m2k. Determine the time required for the rod to
reach a temperature of 200C for stainless steel, take
= 7800 kg/m 3, Cp = 460 J/kgk
k = 40 W/mk.
a) State Planks distribution law of radiation. Derive Wiens displacement law
from Planks distribution law.
b) Explain the following terms :
1) Lamberts cosine rule

2) Irradiation
3) Radiosity.
c) A pipe carrying steam having an outside diameter of 20 cm runs in a
large room and is exposed to air at a temperature of 30C. The pipe
surface temperature is 400C. Calculate the heat loss to the surrounding
per meter length of pipe due to thermal radiation. The emissivity of the
pipe surface is 0.8.
1) What would be the heat loss due to radiation, if the pipe is enclosed in a
50 cm diameter brick conduit of emissivity of 0.9 ?
2) What would be the radiation heat transfer from the pipe, if it is enclosed
within a square conduit of 0.5 m side of emissivity of 0.9 ?
SECTION II
5. a) Derive an expression for effectiveness of counter flow heat exchanger.
b) An oil cooler for a lubrication system has to cool 1000 kg/h of oil (Cp = 0.09
kJ/kgC) from 80C to 40C by using a cooling water flow of 1000 kg/hr. at
30C. Give your choice for a parallel flow or counter flow heat exchanger,
with reasons. Calculate the surface area of the heat exchanger, if the overall
heat transfer coefficient is 24 W/m2C. Take Cp of water = 4.18 kJ/kgC.
c) Differentiate between condenser and evaporator.
*SLRUM95*
-7-
SLR-UM 95
6. a) The liquid metal flows at a rate of 270 kg/min through a 5 cm diameter stainless
steel tube. It enters at 415C and is heated to 440C, when it passes through
the tube. The tube wall temperature is kept 20C higher than the liquid bulk
temperature and a constant heat flux is maintained along the tube. Calculate
the length of the tube required to effect the transfer. Use
Nu = 4.82 + 0.0185 (Re.Pr)0.827

Use the following properties.
= 1.34103 kg/m.s., Cp = 149 J/kgK, Pr = 0.013 kf = 15.6 W/mK.

b) Explain in detail development of thermal and hydrodynamic boundary layers
for heat transfer through tube.
c) Explain with curve theory of boiling along with different regimes.
7. a) A horizontal cylinder of 2.5 cm diameter and 0.6 m long is suspended in liquid

at 20C. The cylinder surface is at 55C. Calculate the rate of heat transfer if
the liquid is water.
Following properties at 37.5C may be used.

Specific volume = 0.0010m3/kg, Cp = 4.182 kJ/kgK.
= 1.002 103 kg/ms, K = 0.603 W/mK

Use the following correlation.
Nu = 0.53 (GrPr)1/4.
b) Draw different flow patterns for heat transfer by natural convection over a flat
and vertical plate, cylinder.
c) Explain analogy between heat and mass transfer.
d) A vertical plate 0.5 m high and 1 m wide is maintained at uniform temperature

of 124C. It is exposed to ambient air at 30C. Calculate the heat transfer rate
from the plate use
NuL = 0.59 (Ra)1/4 and properties at bulk mean temperature are
= 2.076 105 m2/sec, Pr = 0.697, kair= 0.03 W/mK,

=
1
350
= 2.86 103 K1
SLR-UM 96
*SLR-UM-96*
Seat
No.

AUTOMATIC CONTROL ENGG.
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks:100

Instructions to candidates :
I. General :
1) All the objective type questions are compulsory.
2) Answers should be bubbled with black ball pen only.
II. Particular :
1) Type 1 : Match the Pairs Type : Statements in Column I are labelled as
A, B, C and D and the statements in Column II are labelled as p, q, r, s, t. Each
statement in Column I has Only one correct match in Column II. Answers
have to be bubbled as illustrated. If correct matches are A-q, B-s, C-p, D-t.
p
B
C
z
z
(1 question of 4 marks)
Partial marks will be given for partially correct answers.

2) Type 2 : True or False Type : The statement given is either true or false.
Answer should be bubbled as illustrated. If the given statement is true;
A
True
False
(4 questions of 1 mark each)
3) Type 3 : Classical M.C.Q. Type : Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which only one is correct. Answer should be bubbled as
illustrated. If correct choice is (B), then;
A
D
(12 questions of 1 mark each)
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 96
*SLR-UM-96*
-2-
Objective Type Question Paper :
20
Type (1) : Match the pairs :

1. Column I
Column II
A) Compressible fluids
p) Disturbance signal
B) Incompressible Fluids
q) Mass rate of flow
C) Grounded chair
r) Volume rate of flow
D) Feedback (closed) loop system
s) Actual physical arrangement of

elements
Type (2) : True - False :

2. In parallel electric ckt. current is distributed amongst each element.
A) True
B) False
3. In direct analog series mechanical elements are replaced by parallel electric

elements.
A) True
B) False
4. In step input value of the input is constant w.r.t. to time.
A) True
B) False
5. Steady state behaviour of the system with Integral controller is better than other
modes of controller.
A) True
B) False
Type (3) : SMCQ
6. A hydraulic amplifier amplifies
(112=12)
A) Displacement
B) Torque
C) Power
D) Force
7. In grounded chair representation the co-ordinate where force is applied

A) Is always at the bottom
B) Is always shown at the top
C) Can be shown anywhere
D) Is always related to mass
*SLR-UM-96*
-3-
SLR-UM 96
8. In linearisation of operating curves the partial derivatives are

A) Evaluated from equation
B) Evaluated from graph
C) Not at all required
D) Equated to zero
9. In steady state condition the system variables
A) Changes w.r.t. time
B) Does not changes w.r.t. time
C) Changes with respect to space
D) Not required at all
10. If proportional band is zero in proportional controller, then action is similar to
_______________
A) Integral
B) ON-OFF action.
C) Derivative
D) PID
11. Intersection of Root locus with jw axis is obtained using _______________

A) Bode Plot
B) Rouths Array
C) Both A) and B)
D) None of these
12. If P = No. of poles ; Z = No. of zeros then if P > Z, the root locus will have
following number of branches going to infinity.
A) P
B) Z
C) P+ Z
D) P Z
13. If the entire root locus is in the left half plane, then the system is _______________
A) Unstable
B) Stable
C) Stable only for certain range of K
D) Marginally stable
14. For marginally stable system _______________
A) Gain Margin (GM) = 0
B) Phase Margin (PM) = 0
C) GM = PM = 0
SLR-UM 96
-4-
*SLR-UM-96*
15. In Bode plot, if two zeros are at origin of S plane, slope of the magnitude line is
_______________
A) 20 dB per decade
B) +20 dB per decade
C) 40 dB per decade
D) + 40 dB per decade
16. Interms of Bode plot, the system is stable if

A) Phase Margin (PM) = Gain Margin (GM)
B) PM and GM both are negative
C) PM and GM both are positive
D) PM is negative but GM is positive
17. State Space approach is mostly suited for _______________
A) Simple Linear System
B) Complex and Non Linear Systems with non-zero initial condition
C) Simple and Derivative System
D) None
_____________
*SLR-UM-96*
-5-
SLR-UM 96
Seat
No.

AUTOMATIC CONTROL ENGG.
Marks:80
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.

Instructions : 1) Answer any three questions from each Section.
SECTION I
1. a) Effect the linear approximation for P in the equation of state PV = WRT. The
reference conditions are Pi = 100, Vi = 100, Wi = 10, Ti = 1000. Determine the
approximated value of pressure P when V = 110, T = 1200, W = constant
R = 53.3.
b) Determine the overall block diagram representation for Jet Pipe Amplifier.
7
6
2. a) For the ckt. shown in the Fig. determine the equation relating output voltage
E2 to the input voltage E1
SLR-UM 96
*SLR-UM-96*
-6-
b) For the spring mass damper system combination shown in the Fig. determine
equation relating
i) f and x
ii) f and y
iii) x and y.
3. a) Distinguish between manual control system and automatic control system

with the help of suitable examples.
b) The speed torque curves for a D.C. motor are shown in the Fig. where V is
the applied voltage, N is the speed and T is output torque. The linear
approximation for change in torque t due to a change in speed n and change
dn
in voltage V. The motor drives inertial load such that t = j
where j is the
dt
mass moment of inertial for j = 0.1. Determine the differential equation relating
the change in speed n and change in voltage V. Also determine the
time constant.
*SLR-UM-96*
SLR-UM 96
-7-
4. a) Reduce following Block diagram to obtain transfer function.
b) For the control system shown in the Fig. determine the steady state equation
k1
relating v, u and c for G1(D) = 1 + D .
1
k2
1 + 2D
SECTION II
5. a) Draw the complete root locus and comment on the stability of the system,
having G(s ) H(s ) =
k (s + 3 )
s (s + 1) (s + 2 ) (s + 4 )
b) What do you mean by integral time and derivative time ? State the necessary
equations and give the plots.
SLR-UM 96
-8-
6. a) A certain unity feed back control system given by G(s ) =
*SLRKD216*
k
s (s + 1) (1 + 0.1s )
Draw the Bode Plot of the above system. Also determine gain margin and
phase margin.
.
8
b) Explain the terms angle of arrival and angle of departure in relation with root
locus and how they are evaluated.
D +1
f(t ) , determine computer diagram and
(D + 3)(D + 5)
state space representation by parallel programming.
7. a) For a system Y(t) =
b) For bode plots define the following terms with suitable graph.
i) Gain Margin
ii) Phase Margin
iii) Gain cross over frequency
iv) Phase cross over frequency.
8. a) What is the controller output for P + D controller initially and 4 seconds after
the error begins to change from zero at the rate 2%. The controller has a set
point of 35%, KP = 5, KD = 0.8 sec. Also plot :
i) Error against time plot
ii) Controller output against time plot.
b) By means of Rouths criteria determine the stability of the system represented

by the following characteristics equations. Find number of roots of
characteristics equation on the left half of the s plane on jw axis and on right
half of th s plane.
s5+ 3s4 + 2s3 + 6s2 + 9s + 3 = 0
_____________
*SLRKD216*
SLR-UM 96
Supervisors sign
Seat
No.
Name of Exam :
Date of Exam :
Exam No. :
Subject :
PART A
Marks
Type 1 : (04 Marks)

1
A
B
C
D
Type 2 : (04 questions of 01 Mark each)
A
2
3
4
5
Type 3 : (12 questions of 01 Mark each)
A
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
Name &
Sign of Examiner :
Total Marks :
Code No.
SLR-UM 97
Seat
No.
*SLRUM97*

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - T.E. (Mech.) (Part II) Examination, 2014

CAD/CAM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Max. Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instruction : Every question carries one mark. (1 mark 20 questions

= 20 marks)
Marks : 20
1. Which one of the following is an input device ?

b) CPU
a) UPS
c) Light pen
d) None of these
2. In computer graphics, which one of the following represents image
generation technique ?
b) Monitor
a) CRT
c) Raster scan
d) Mapping
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 97
-2-
DO
*SLRUM97*
E
R
HE
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
3. The basic transformation of scaling of an object takes place with reference

to ___________
a) Corner of an object
b) Origin
c) Centre of object
d) None of these
4. The process of changing the image on the screen and repositioning the
items in the database is called as ___________
a) Transformation
b) Modification
c) Alteration
d) None of these
5. Which one of the following is a computer graphics standard ?

a) PHIGS
b) ISO
c) EIA
d) MCU
6. For an assembly of products with more intricacies, visualisation of

features of products becomes most difficult in case of _________
a) Wireframe modelling
b) Surface modelling
c) Solid modelling
d) All of these
7. In any curve representation, the shape associated with control points is

called as ___________
a) Uniform curve
b) Rectangle
c) Circle
d) Control polygon
8. Stand alone CNC machines are recommended for ___________

a) Transfer lines
b) Mass production
c) FMS
d) Jobbing production
*SLRUM97*
-3-
SLR-UM 97
9. A group of products having similarities in design or manufacturing

attributes is called as ___________
a) Group technology
b) Automation
c) Part families
d) None of these
10. Which one of the following is an output device ?

a) CPU
b) MCU
c) Joystick
d) Electrostatic plotter
11. A numerically controlled drilling machine is an example of ___________

a) PTP machining
b) Contouring
c) Straight cut machining
d) Vertical machining
12. Checking of NC part program without actual loading of job on machine is

called as ___________
a) Dry run
b) Job run
c) Program run
d) Dry program
13. Integrating business functions to CAD/CAM leads to the concept of

___________
a) Automation
b) Expert system
c) Artificial intelligence
d) CIM
14. In numerical control systems, DNC stands for ___________

a) Dedicated Numerical Control
b) Directional Numerical Control
c) Distributed Numerical Control
d) None of these
15. Which one of the following is NC controller ?

a) Tata
b) Infosys
c) Pearson
d) Fanck
16. An ATC in CNC machine tool is used for ___________

a) Tool checking
b) Tool cutting
c) Tool changing
d) None of these
SLR-UM 97
-4-
*SLRUM97*
17. Z-axis in CNC machine tool is ___________

a) Always vertical
b) Always horizontal
c) Along the spindle axis
d) None of these
18. Which function prepares the MCU to perform a specific mode of operation ?
a) Miscellaneous function
b) Preparatory function
c) Tool function
d) Speed function
19. Tape rewind feature of NC part program is included in which one of the
following miscellaneous command ?
a) M02
b) M10
c) M20
d) M30
20. Preparatory code for absolute programming is ___________

a) G70
b) G80
c) G90
d) G91
_____________________
*SLRUM97*
-5-
SLR-UM 97
Seat
No.

CAD/CAM
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Attempt any three questions from Section I.

2) Q. No. 5 is compulsory from Section II and solve any two
clearly.
SECTION I
1. a) What is CAD/CAM ? Hence, discuss the concept of integration.
b) Discuss various types of plotters in computer graphics.
2. a) What are the standards in computer graphics ? Discuss in detail.
b) What is geometric modelling ? Discuss its types in detail.
7
6
6
7
3. a) What is the concept of part families in GT ? Hence, discuss the scope and
importance of GT.
b) Discuss the concept of FMS with neat sketch.
4. Write notes on any three :
a) Selection of CAD/CAM software
b) Bezier curve
c) Data exchange formats
d) CIM.
7
6
14
SLR-UM 97
*SLRUM97*
-6-
SECTION II
5. a) Write CNC part program for the mounting plate of MS as shown in figure
below. Mention your assumptions clearly regarding tool, speed, feed, tool
material, etc. Draw a neat sketch of setup.
10
16, Th.r
Mounting plate of 150 150 mm

size, thickness 12 mm, ms.
Hole @ Centre
(All dimensions are in mm.

Figure - not to scale)
12, Th.r
Four Holes
Equispaced
b) What is dry run in CNC ?
6. a) What is NC ? Discuss with neat sketch the features of VMC.

b) Discuss the scope and importance of CNC in India.
7. a) What is the concept of DNC ? Discuss its advantages and limitations.
b) What are pallets in CNC machine tools ? Discuss its importance.
8. Write notes on any three :
7
6
7
6
13
a) Subprogram and macros in NC programming

b) Tool magazine
c) Adaptive control
d) Servomotors.
_______________
Code No. SLR-UM 98
*SLRUM98*
Seat
No.
Seat No. ______________________ Centre _______________________
For Office Use Only

Code No.
Seat No. in words ____________________________________________
----- ---------------------------------- - ---- -----------------------B.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 100

Subject ____________________________ Section ______________________________________
Out of
Marks Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination ____________
__________________ (Paper - ________)
For Office Use only
Code No.
Instructions : 1) Q. 1 (Objective questions) is compulsory. This question

is to be solved in the first thirty minutes only.
2) Out of the remaining questions, answer any two questions
from each Section.
3) Tick ( ) mark for the correct answer in Q. 1.
Marks : 20
1. 1) The most likely range of compression ratio for modern day spark
ignition engines is
a) 5 to 8
b) 8 to 12
c) 12 to 16
d) 16 to 22
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 98
*SLRUM98*
-2-
DO
E
R
E
H
E
T
I
R
W
T
O
N
2) Which part of the petrol engine needs to be modified if it is to be run

on LPG ?
a) piston
b) crankshaft
c) valves
d) carburettor
3) Friction power of a internal combustion engine increases with the increase in

a) speed
b) brake power
c) indicated power
d) fuel flow
4) Engines used for large cargo ships are typically

a) 4S CI engines with high BSFC
b) 2S CI engines with high BSFC
c) 2S CI engines with low BSFC
d) 4S CI engines with low BSFC
5) The primary advantage of the pintause nozzle is
a) good fuel distribution
b) good atomization
c) good penetration
d) good cold starting performance
6) Octane number of alcohol is
a) 0
b) 100
c) > 100
d) 50
*SLRUM98*
SLR-UM 98
-3-
7) The NOx emission in SI engines are highest when the mixture is

a) rich
b) lean
c) stochiometric
d) very rich
8) In SI engines with an increase in compression ratio the tendency to

detonate
a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
9) Which of the following is not a compensation device of a carburettor ?

a) auxillary valve
b) emulsion tube
c) bypass valve
d) choke
10) If the bore of an engine is 83 mm and stroke is 90 mm and rotation

speed is 4000 rpm, then the mean piston speed is
a) 10 m/s
b) 15 m/s
c) 12 m/s
d) 14 m/s
11) For a given valve of ratio of specific heats and cut off ratio the efficiency
of a diesel cycle
a) increases with increase in compression ratio
b) decreases with increase in compression ratio
c) is not dependant on compression ratio
d) remains constant
12) Ignition quality of diesel depends upon
a) flash point
b) octane number
c) cetane number
d) HUCR
13) The centrifugal type super charger is preffered at

a) low speeds
b) high speeds
c) high pressure
d) all the above
14) Single point fuel injection in SI engines is

a) throttle body injection
b) port injection
c) direct injection
d) both b) and c)
SLR-UM 98
*SLRUM98*
-4-
15) Incomplete combustion in SI engines is indicated by

a) high percentage of carbon monoxide
b) high percentage of carbon dioxide
c) high percentage of NOx
d) low percentage of NOx
16) Tendency of knocking in SI engine is increased by
a) retarding the spark
b) increasing the turbulence
c) reducing the compression ratio
d) increasing the flame travel distance
17) As the throttle valve of the carburettor is opened, the volumetric
efficiency
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains unaffected
d) depends upon other factors
18) The thermal efficiency of large diesel engines is in the range of

a) 10 to 20 percent
b) 20 to 30 percent
c) 35 to 50 percent
d) 50 to 100 percent
19) The petrol generally used in cars has octane number in the range of
a) 100-200
b) 80-90
c) 50-60
d) 35-50
20) A reduction in the ignition delay in diesel engine

a) reduces diesel knock
b) increases diesel knock
c) does not affect diesel knock
d) reduces the SOx formation
______________
*SLRUM98*
-5-
SLR-UM 98
Seat
No.
B.E. (Mech.) (Part I) Examination, 2014

INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINES
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Marks : 80
Instructions : 1) Answer any two questions from each Section.

SECTION I
2. a) Why does the efficiency of the fuel air cycle differ from that of the actual
cycle ?
b) What do you understand by the term carburetion ? Sketch the complete

carburettor including all its sub-systems.
c) What is turbo charging ? Explain the different techniques of turbocharging.
3. a) Explain with the help of a neat sketch single hole and multi hole nozzle.
b) Why diesel engines find application as prime movers for locomotives and
large ships ?
c) Compare 2S and 4S internal combustion engines.
4. a) Explain with the help of neat sketch common rail and unit injection system
for diesel engines.
b) What do you understand by the term RAM effect ?
6
4
c) A simple carburettor is to supply 5 kg of air per minute and 0.4 kg of fuel. The
density of air is 1.17 kg/m3 and that of the fuel is 740 kg/m3. The air is initially
at 1.013 bar and 300k. Calculate the throat diameter of choke for a flow
velocity of 95 m/s and velocity coefficient of 0.8. Calculate the orifice diameter
if the pressure drop across orifice is 75% of that at choke. The coefficient of
discharge of fuel orifice is 0.6.
10
SLR-UM 98
-6-
*SLRUM98*
SECTION II
5. a) Discuss the phenomenon of knock or detonation in SI engines.
b) Explain with the help of sketch the combustion process in a CI engine.
c) What is exhaust gas recirculation ? How does it help in reducing NOx

emissions ?
6. a) What is the importance of flame speed in combustion in SI engines ? Discuss

the engine variables on which flame speed depends.
8
b) What do you understand by the terms octane number, cetane number and
HUCR ?
c) Discuss the suitability of biogas as an alternative fuel.
7. a) Explain any three factors affecting knock in CI engines.

b) Define the terms mechanical efficiency, volumetric efficiency, broke thermal
efficiency and specific power.
c) During a test on an engine the following data were recorded :
Engine type : 4 cylinder 4 stroke diesel
Bore = 105 mm Stroke = 125 mm
Engine speed = 1500 rpm
Max torque = 150 Nm
Fuel consumption = 6 kg/hour
Fuel density = 850 kg/m3
Calorific valve of fuel = 42000 kJ/kg
Diameter of air box orifice = 50 mm
Coefficient of discharge of orifice = 0.6
Pressure drop across orifice = 60 mm of water
Ambient temperature = 27C
Air density = 1.15 kg/m3
Ambient pressure = 1.013 b.
Calculate :
1) Brake power
2) Brake thermal efficiency
3) BMEP
4) Volumetric efficiency
5) Mean piston speed.
_____________________
6
4
10
Code No.
SLR-UM 99
*SLRUM99*
Seat
No.
Seat No. _____________ Centre ____________________________
For Office Use Only
Code No.
Seat No. in words _______________________________________
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - B.E. (Part I) (Mechanical) Examination, 2014

POWER PLANT AND ENERGY ENGINEERING
Max. Marks : 100
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Day & Date ____________________ _
Examination __________________
Paper No. _______________________________________
Subject _____________________ Section ________________________________________
Marks -
Out of
Signature of
Examiner
__________ Examination _________

______________ (Paper - _______)
For Office Use only
Code No.
N.B. : i) Shade the bubble for right answer.

ii) Each question carries 1 mark each only.
Shade the correct answer.
Marks : 20
(120=20)
1. The rate of energy consumption is increasing, supply is depleting resulting in

a) Inflation
b) Energy shortage
c) Energy crisis
d) None of these
P.T.O.
SLR-UM 99
*SLRUM99*
-2-
DO
RE
E
H
E
IT
R
W
T
NO
2. It is essential to develop for future energy requirement

a) Alternative energy, coal energy, petroleum energy
b) Non conventional energy, renewable energy, petroleum energy
c) Non conventional energy, renewable energy, alternative energy
d) Alternative energy, natural gas energy, fossil fuel energy
3. India first nuclear power plant was installed at
a) Tarapure
b) Kota
c) Kalpakkam
d) None of these
4. Diversity factor is always

a) Equal to unity
b) Less than unity
c) More than unity
d) Less than or more than unity
5. The load factor of domestic load is usually

a) 10 to 15%
b) 30 to 40%
c) 50 to 60%
d) 60 to 70%
6. High load factor indicates that

a) Cost generation per unit power is increased
b) Total plant capacity is utilised for most of the time
c) Total plant capacity is not properly utilised for most of the time
*SLRUM99*
SLR-UM 99
-3-
7. The main parts of the alternator is (are)

a) stator
b) rotor
c) exciter
d) all of the these
8. The short circuit current can be considerably reduced by the use of

a) Current limiting reactors
b) By their judicious placing
c) Either (a) or (b) only
d) Both (a) and (b)
9. A consumer has to pay lesser fixed charges in

a) Flat rate tariff
b) Two part tariff
c) Maximum demand tariff
d) All of these
10. In Hopkinson demand rate or two part tariff the demand rate are
a) The demand upon the energy consumed
b) Dependent upon the maximum demand of the consumer
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
11. In India the tariff for charging the consumers for the consumption of electricity
is based on
a) Straight meter rate
b) Block meter rate
c) Reverse form of block meter rate
d) Two part tariff
12. Most of the solar radiation received on earth surface lies within the range of
a) 0.2 to 0.4 microns
b) 0.38 to 0.78 microns
c) 0 to 0.38 microns
d) None of these
13. Which type of wind mill is of simple design ?

a) Horizontal axis wind mill
b) Vertical axis wind mill
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
SLR-UM 99
*SLRUM99*
-4-
14. Maximum power density available in the wind

a)
8
A 3Vi
27
b)
8 3
AVi
27
c)
8
A 3Vi3
27
d)
8
AVi3
27
15. Largest geothermal plant in operation is in

a) Mexico
b) Italy
c) Russia
d) California
16. Geothermal plant as compared to fossil fuel plant load factor have
a) Equal
b) Lower
c) Higher
d) None of these
17. Energy audit helps in

a) Energy cost optimization and safety aspects
b) Pollution control and improve methods of operating
c) (a) and (b)
d) (a) nor (b) only
18. Power co-efficient (Cp) for horizontal axis wind machine is not exceed
a) 0.359
b) 0.539
c) 0.503
d) 0.593
19. Approximately ________ of total energy usually accounting for preliminary energy
audit.
a) 80%
b) 70%
c) 60%
d) 50%
20. There is a ________ relationship between the level of energy consumption in a

country and its economic development.
a) No relation
b) Close relation
c) Partial relation
d) Cannot say relation
SLR-UM 99
-5-
*SLRUM99*
Seat
No.
B.E. (Part I) (Mechanical) Examination, 2014

POWER PLANT AND ENERGY ENGINEERING
Time : 3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m.
Total Marks : 80
Instructions: 1) Answer any two questions from each Section.

3) Make suitable assumptions if necessary and state then
clearly.
4) If necessary may be use graph sheet.
SECTION I
1. a) Discuss electric energy growth in India.
b) What is meant by load curve ? Explain in detail with significance.
c) A power station supply the following loads to the consumers with maximum
demand of 95000 kw as given below.
Time (hrs.)
0-6
Load (mw)
45
6 - 8 8 - 12
60
70
12 - 14 14 - 18 18 - 22 22 - 24
60
85
95
48
i) Draw the load curve and estimate the load factor of the plant.
ii) What is the load factor of stand by equipment of 30 mw capacity that
takes up all the loads above 70 mw ? Also calculate its use factor.
2. a) Draw a neat diagram showing all components of compressed air storage
plant which is used as peak load plants and explain modes of operation.
b) Explain base load plants and peak load plant.
c) Explain the working principle of a generator and what are characteristics of

D.C. generator.
SLR-UM 99
-6-
*SLRUM99*
3. a) What is circuit breaker ? Explain how they are classified.
b) What is meant by depreciation of a power station ? Explain method of

calculating depreciation.
c) For an industrial consumer the load demand is as given
325 kw for 1 hour per day

Estimate the yearly energy cost, if two part tariff is Rs. 100 per kw t 10 paise
per kwh.
SECTION II
4. a) Define the terms
i) Altitude angle
iii) Latitude angle
v) Declination angle.
7
ii) Incident angle
iv) Hour angle
b) List out various type of collects and explain liquid flat collector.
c) Calculate the number of day light hours at Delhi on December 21 and June 21
in a leap year.
5. a) Describe neat sketch the working of a WECS with main components.
b) Explain with sketch forces on blade of a wind turbine.
c) Explain with schematic diagram of binary cycle system for liquid dominated
system for geothermal energy.
6. a) What is the basic principle of OTEC ? Explain.
b) How can energy conservation be promoted in small scale industries ?
c) Discuss the various roles of an energy management team.
_____________________

Engg PDF

Caricato da

Informazioni sul documento

Titolo originale

Copyright

Formati disponibili

Condividi questo documento

Condividi o incorpora il documento

Opzioni di condivisione

Hai trovato utile questo documento?

Questo contenuto è inappropriato?

Copyright:

Formati disponibili

Engg PDF

Caricato da

Copyright:

Formati disponibili

Code No.

Q. No. 1 is M.C.Q. type.

2) With a rise in temperature, the sensitivity of the bubble tube

5) If angular measurements of a traverse are more accurate than the

7) The horizontal angle between two lines is generally measured

12) In area measurement by planimeter, additive constant is zero, if

13) Two instruments and two operators are required in

14) Contours can be interpolated by

15) Block contouring is particularly suitable for

16) Indian pattern clinometer has scale of

19) In graphical method of three point problem use

20) Biggest advantage of plane table survey is

S.E. (Civil) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Q. No. 2 and Q. No. 6 is compulsory.

Compute the length and bearing of PQ.

4. a) A theodolite was set up at a distance of 150 m from tower. The angle of

' while the angle of depression the

'. The staff reading on the BM of RL 50.217 with the

b) Define following terms :

5. a) Explain the methods of soundings.

7. a) What are advantages and disadvantages of plane table survey.

b) Explain mechanical method of solving three point problem.

8. a) How to identify following topographical features in contour map.

Code No. SLR-UM 100

Instructions : 1) Type I-questions carry one mark each.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

Choose correct alternatives :

2) Coefficient of basic variable in objective function in simplex table will

6) Pure strategy games are those in which both players

TYPE II (2 marks each 5 questions = 10 marks)

3) The value of game whose pay off matrix is

B.E. (Mechanical) (Part I) Examination, 2014

Answer any three questions from each Section.

1. a) Solve following LPP by simplex method

b) Elaborate various phases in solving or problems.

b) Discuss the application of assignment problems in automobile manufacturing

b) Discuss the mathematical formulation of transportation problem.

b) Explain the applications and scope of or in space research.

b) Discuss the principles of dominance is games theory.

% failing by month end : 10

7. a) The data for a certain project is given below : (Time in days)

b) Explain the rules governing the preparation of a network of a project. Hence

b) Discuss the considerations is maximal flow algorithm of network models.

Code No. SLR-UM 111

Instructions : 1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

MCQ/Objective Type Questions

1. Tick mark the correct answer :

2) The Norton Resistance RN and Norton current IN between the terminals

3) A network has 7 nodes and 5 independent loops the number of branches in

10) The admittance matrices of two-port networks are

11) The time constant of series RL circuit is

13) Transient current in an RLC circuit is oscillatory when

14) The cutoff frequency of constant K high pass filter is

17) Attenuation offered by network in decibels is

19) The system is said to be stable, if and only if.

S.E. (Electronics) (Part I) (Old) Examination, 2014

Instructions : 1) All questions are compulsory.

a) State and verify reciprocity theorem.

c) In the following circuit, an inductance of 0.1 H having a Q of 5 is in parallel

3. a) Obtain the current passing through 2

resistor by using superposition theorem.

a) In the circuit shown in fig. 4-a, determine the current i.

b) Derive the design equations for T-type attenuator.