Questions with corresponding answers for GEAS Module 2

1.) Water molecules move back and forth between the liquid and the gaseous states
At all times, with evaporation, condensation, and saturation defined by the net movement.
2.) The tendency of a water drop to contract and occupy minimum area is due to
Surface tension.
3.) For a satellite orbiting above earth, if the distance above the surface of the earth will increase, its
Time period will increase.
4.) Which quantity has the greatest influence on the amount of kinetic energy that a large truck has
while moving down the highway?
Velocity
5.) An observer on the ground will hear a sonic boom from an airplane travelling faster than the
speed of sound
After the plane has passed by.
6.) Styrofoam is a good insulating material
Because it contains many tiny pockets of air.
7.) There is a circular hole on a metal plate. What happens to the radius of the hole when the plate is
heated?
Decreases
8.) In calculating for the upward force required to lift an object, it is necessary to use g if the mass is
given in kg. The quantity g is not needed if the weight is given in lb because
The pound is defined as a measure of force, and the kilogram is not.
9.) If two electrons re forced to come closer to each other, then the potential energy of the electrons
Increases.
10.) A simple pendulum is taken to the moon. Its frequency of vibration will
Decrease.
11.) The condensation of water vapour actually
Warms the surroundings.
12.) The newton-meter is called a joule. The similar unit in the English System, the foot-pound, is
called
The foot-pound, with no other name.
13.) One light-year is approximately equivalent to
10^16 m.
14.) When common salt is sprinkled on ice, the temperature of ice
Decreases.
15.) The fundamental frequency of a standing wave on a string has
Two nodes and one antinode.

16.) The most widely used source of energy today is

Petroleum.
17.) Boyles law is applicable in an
Isothermal process.
18.) The number of basic units in an SI System is
7.
19.) The physical quantity which produces angular acceleration is
Torque.
20.) What unit is used to measure the accumulative effects of radiation that can cause genetic and
somatic effects?
Roentgens
21.) What refers to radiation other than X-rays which will cause absorption equal to 1 roentgen?
Rep
22.) Under R.A. 9292, who are authorized to take charge of or supervise electronics construction and
installation?
Professional Electronic Engineers and Registered Electronic Engineers
23.) When was the effectivity of Presidential Decree No. 223?
June 22, 1973
24.) A person or entity intending to register as VoIP service provider is required to post a performance
bond of
P5 million.
25.) Authorized gateway operators shall provide a minimum of _____ switch termination.
300 local exchange lines per international
26.) All applicants for application of 3G radio frequency bands shall post a performance bond of
P300 M.
27.) The authorized transmit frequency range for cordless telephone sets operating in the UHF band is
_____ MHz.
1.725 to 1.79
28.) What is the standard IF Video Carrier for a cable TV system?
45.75 MHz
29.) Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed _____
breaks in every program hour.
6
30.) What is the maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in Metro
Manila?
20 kW

31.) All are AM radio prime time block for provincial stations except one. Which one?
11 AM to 3 PM
32.) What law created the Movie and Television Review and Classification Board (MTRCB)?
P.D. 1986
33.) When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 59?
February 24, 1993
34.) Which law vested the jurisdiction, control and regulation over the Philippine communications
satellite corporation with the National Telecommunications Commission?
E.O. 196
35.) In which type of organization where the structure can lead to a dual boss phenomenon?
Matrix organization
36.) When structuring an organization, the engineer manager must be concerned with the determining
of the scope of work and how it is combined in a job. This refers to
Division of Labor.
37.) An engineer is required to finish a certain engineering job in 20 days. He is said to be _____ if he
finished the job within the required period of 20 days.
Effective
38.) The process of partitioning an organization into subunits to improve efficiency is known as
_____.
Departmentalization.
39.) Middle management level undertakes what planning activity?
Intermediate planning
40.) What is defined as an organized method of providing past, present, and projected information on
internal operations and external intelligence for use in decision-making?
Management Information System
41.) In project management, O & M stands for:
Operation and Maintenance.
42.) In project management, R & D stands for:
Research and Development.
43.) What refers to a principal function of lower management which is to instill in the workforce a
commitment and enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of the organization?
Motivating
44.) What refers to a management function which is to encourage others to follow the example set for
them, with great commitment and conviction?
Leading
45.) What refers to the establishing interrelationships between people and things in such a way that
human and material resources are effectively focused toward achieving the goal of the company?
Organizing

46.) What management function refers to the process of anticipating problems, analyzing them,
estimating their likely impact and determining actions that will lead to the desired outcomes and
goals?
Planning
47.) What is the SI unit of specific heat capacity?
J/kg-degC
48.) 1 British Thermal Unit (BTU) is equivalent to how many joules?
1054
49.) What is the latent heat of fusion of water at 1 atm?
333.7 kJ/kg
50.) What refers to the temperature at which a pure substance changes phase, at a given pressure?
Saturation temperature
51.) What is the heat capacity of one mole of a substance?
Molar heat
52.) What states that if two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are also in
thermal equilibrium with each other?
Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
53.) Who coined the word energy in 1807?
Thomas Young
54.) What is a process during which the pressure remains constant?
Isobaric process
55.) What is a process during which the temperature remains constant?
Isothermal process
56.) A closed system may refer to
Control mass.
57.) What is a process in which the system remains infinitesimally closed to an equilibrium state at all
times?
Quasi-state or quasi-equilibrium process
58.) What is the unit of the total energy of a system?
kJ
59.) The state of a simple compressible system is completely specified by two independent, intensive
properties. This is known as _____.
State postulate.
60.) Which is NOT an extensive property of thermodynamics?
Density
61.) How are thermodynamic properties classified?

 Intensive and extensive

62.) What type of mirror that curves outward toward its center and diverges parallel light as though
the reflected light came from a single virtual focal point behind the mirror?
Convex mirror
63.) What is the index of refraction of air?
1.0003
64.) What coating material is used in the inside of the fluorescent lamp which emits visible light when
it is excited by an ultraviolet radiation?
Phosphor
65.) Infrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are below _____.
20 Hz
66.) What refers to the change in frequency of a wave when there is relative motion between its source
and an observer?
Doppler Effect
67.) The _____ of a pivotal object is that point at which it can be struck without producing a reaction
force on its pivot.
Center of oscillation
68.) The period of simple harmonic motion is _____ its amplitude.
Independent of
69.) The hydrometer is an instrument used to measure _____.
Density of a liquid
70.) When the forces that act on an object have a vector sum of zero, the object is said to be in _____.
Translational equilibrium
71.) The gravitational force of the earth of an object varies of the _____ the distance of the object
from the center of the earth.
Inversely as the square of
72.) What refers to the force perpendicular to the velocity of an object moving along a curve path?
Centrifugal force
73.) Coefficient of restitution is the ratio of:
Relative speed after collision to relative speed before collision.
74.) What will happen to the kinetic energy if it is a completely inelastic collision?
It is lost to maximum value.
75.) Efficiency of a machine is the ratio of:
Power output to power input.
76.) How many kilograms are there in 1 slug?
14.6

77.) What is the property of matter which is the reluctance to change its state of rest or of uniform
motion?
Inertia
78.) The work done by the net force on a particle equals the change in the particles kinetic energy.
This statement is known as _____.
Work-energy theorem
79.) The kilowatt-hour is a unit of _____.
Work
80.) What is the unit of luminous intensity?
Candela
81.) What is the unit of relative density?
Unitless
82.) What element is commonly used in making lasers?
Neodymium
83.) Which noble gas has the smallest atomic number?
Helium
84.) Which alkaline earth metal has the smallest atomic number?
Beryllium
85.) Halogens belong to what group in the periodic table?
Group VIIA
86.) Elements in Group IA in the periodic table are _____.
Alkali Metals
87.) When the elements are arranged in the order of increasing atomic number, elements with similar
properties appear at periodic intervals. This statement is known as _____.
The periodic law
88.) What is the identity number of an atom?
Atomic number
89.) What is the mass of a neutron in amu?
1.00866
90.) What is the charge of an electron in charge unit?
191.) Who formulated the atomic theory?
John Dalton
92.) When two or more elements form more than one compound, the ratio of the masses of one
element that combine with a given mass of another element in the different compounds is a ratio
of small whole numbers. This statement is known as:

 Law of multiple proportion.

93.) A material is to be _____ if its composition and properties are uniform throughout.
Homogeneous
94.) What acid is added to carbonated drinks to produce a tart test?
Phosphoric acid
95.) What is the property of metals that reflect the light that strikes their surfaces, making them appear
shiny?
Luster
96.) What is the property of metals that allow them to be rolled without breaking?
Malleability
97.) A very fine particle of soil when mixed to water will form a cloudy mixture. How is this mixture
classified?
Colloid
98.) The mixture of soil and water is an example of what classification of a mixture?
Suspension
99.) Who discovered the proton?
Ernest Rutherford

100.) Who discovered the electron?

Joseph John Thomson
GEAS MODULE6
1.) The molecules of gas moving through space with some velocity possess what kind of energy?
TRANSLATIONAL ENERGY
2.) What is defined as a process during which a fluid flows through a control volume steadily?
STEADY-FLOW PROCESS
3.) What states that if two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are also thermal
equilibrium with each other?
ZEROTH LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS
4.) What is the state at which all three phases of water coexist in equilibrium?
TRIPLE POINT OF WATER
5.) What is considered as the actual pressure at a given position and is measured relative to absolute
vacuum?
ABSOLUTE PRESSURE
6.) What pressure measuring device, consist of a coiled hollow tube that tends to straighten out when the
tube is subjected to an internal pressure?
BOURDON PRESSURE GAGE
7.) What is the first law of thermodynamics?
LAW OF CONSERVATION OF ENERGY
*8.) What is the energy absorbed during chemical reaction under constant volume conditions?
ENTHALPY
9.) When water exists in the liquid phase and is not about to vaporize, it is considered as _____

liquid.
COMPRESSED or SUBCOOLED
10.) What is the amount of heat needed to turn 1kg of the substance its boiling point from the liquid to the
gaseous state?
HEAT OF VAPORATION
11.) What is latent heat of fusion of water at 1atm?
333.7kJ/kg
12.) The gas constant of a certain gas is the ratio of:
UNIVERSAL GAS CONSTANT TO MOLAR MASS
13.) The ______ of a substance is the amount of heat that must be added or removed from a unit mass of a
substance to change its temperature by one degree.
SPECIFIC HEAT CAPACITY
14.) If there is no heat transferred during the process, it is called a _____ process.
ADIABATIC
15.) What states that the net mass transfers to or from a system during a process is equal to the net change
in the total mass of the system during that process?
CONSERVATION OF MASS PRINCIPLE
16.) What is a measure of the ability of the material to conduct heat?
THERMAL CONDUCTIVITY
17.) What states that for any two bodies in thermal equilibrium, the ratios of emissive power to
absorptivity are equal?
KIRCHOFFS RADIATION LAW
18.) What is the emissivity of a black body?
1
19.) What is sometimes known as the Fourth-power law?
STEFAN-BOLTZMAN LAW
20.) What law states that it is impossible to operate an engine operating in a cycle that will have no other
effect than to extract heat from a reservoir and turn it into an equivalent amount of work?
SECOND LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS
21.) Thermal efficiency is the ratio of:
NETWORK OUTPUT TO TOTAL HEAT INPUT
22.) Which statement of the second law of thermodynamics states that no heat engine can have a thermal
efficiency of 100%?
KELVIN-PLANCK CONSTANT
23.) What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a tension test at
constant load and constant temperature?
STRESS RAPTURE STRENGTH
24.) What is the process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a metal die?
EXTRUSION
25.) Which of the following process materials has permeability slightly less than that of free space?
DIAMAGNETIC MATERIALS
26.) Galvanized steel are steel products coated with______.
MEDIUM-CARBON STEEL
27.) What is a measure of rigidity?
MODULUS OF ELASTICITY
*28.) What is the chief ore of tin?
CASSITERITE
29.) What is the chief ore of zinc?
SPHALERITE
30.) The most common beta brass with a composition of 60% copper and 40% zinc is called______.
MUNTZ METAL

31.) What refers to the cost of borrowing money or the amount earned by a unit principal per unit time?
RATE OF INTEREST
32.) What type of depreciation is due to the reduction of the physical ability of an equipment or asset to
produce results?
PHYSICAL DEPRECIATION
33.) The depletion allowance method of computing depletion is commonly known as________.
PERCENTAGE METHOD
34.) A mathematical expression also known as the present value of annuity of one is called______.
PRESENT WORTH FACTOR
35.) What method is often in municipal project evaluations where benefits and costs accrue to different
segments of the community?
BENEFIT-COST RATIO
36.) What is defined as the ratio of its return cost?
VALUE OF AN INVESTMENT
37.) What represents the ownership of stockholders who have a residual claim on the assets of the
corporation after all other claims have been settled?
COMMON STOCK
38.) What stock represents ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock?
PREFERRED STOCK
39.) The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of obligation to
financial contributors and claims of others based on profit is known as______.
ECONOMIC RETURN
40.) What refers to the interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is zero of the
interest earned by an investment?
RATE OF RETURN
41.) What is measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are collected?
RECEIVABLE TURNOVER
42.) The ratio of the net income before taxes to the nets sales is called ______.
PROFIT MARGIN RATIO
43.) What is another term for acid-test ratio?
QUICK RATIO
44.) What is the basic accounting equation?
ASSETS = LIABILITY + OWNERS EQUITY
45.) What is an index of short-term paying ability?
CURRENT RATIO
46.) What is defined as the current assets minus inventories and prepaid expenses?
QUICK RATIO
*47.) What is the ratio of the quick assets to current liabilities?
QUICK RATIO
*48.) What is the measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are collected?
RECEIVABLE TURNOVER
49.) What is the ratio of the net income to owners equity?
RETURN OF INVESTMENT RATIO
50.) What is the ratio of the market price per share to earnings per share?
PRICE-EARNING RATIO
51.) What is profit margin ratio?
THE RATIO OF NET INCOME BEFORE TAXES TO NET SALES
52.) What is a gross margin?
THE RATIO OF GROSS PROFIT TO NET SALES
53.) It is a book value per share of common stock.

THE RATIO OF COMMON SHAREHOLDERS EQUITY TO THE NUMBER OF

OUTSTANDING SHARES
54.) What refers to the reduction in the level of a national income and output usually accompanied by a
fall in the general price level?
DEPLATION
55.) What is the ratio of the net income to owners equity?
RETURN OF INVESTMENT
56.) What is otherwise known as The Maritime Communication Law ?
R.A. 3396
57.) What is basic law that provides for the regulation of radio station, communications in the Philippines
and other purposes?
R.A. 3846
58.) What law specifically requires the services of a duly registered Electronics and Communication
Engineer in the designing, installation and construction, operation and maintenance of radio stations?
D.O. 88
59.) What governs the operations of cable television in the Philippines?
E.O.436
60.) When was the effectivity of Executive Order No.59?
FEBRUARY 24, 1993
61.) When was the effectivity of the Executive Order No.436?
SEPTEMBER 9, 1997
62.) What law created the Movie and Television Review and Classification Board (MTRCB)?
P.D. 1986
63.) What law created the Videogram Regulatory Board (VRB)?
P.D. 1987
64.) What is the prime time block for AM Radio in Metro Manila?
5AM TO 9AM AND 4PM TO 8PM
65.) According to the TV broadcast standards, what is the maximum effective radiated power in Metro
Manila and Metro Cebu for channels 7-13?
1000kW
66.) Authorized gateway operators shall provide at least one rural exchange line for every ______ urban
local exchange line.
10
67.) When is Electronic and Communications Engineer supervision required under Department Order No.
88?
STANDARD AM BROADCAST WITH A CARIER POWER OF 5kW
68.) Authorized gateway operators shall provide a minimum of _______ switch termination.
300 LOCAL EXCHANGE LINES PER INTERNATIONAL
69.) A person or entity intending to register as VoIP service provider is required to post a performance
bond of________.
5 MILLION
70.) What law refers to the Electronic Commerce Act of 2000?
R.A. 8792
80.) What is otherwise known as PRC MODERNIZATION LAW?
R.A. 8981
81.) Professional Regulations Commission was created under________.
R.A. 223
82.) When was the Electronic Commerce Act of the Philippines approved?
JUNE 14, 2000
83.) When was Republic Act No. 9292 approved by President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo?
APRIL 17, 2004

84.) Under R.A 9292, who are authorized to take charge of or supervise electronics construction and
installation?
PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONIC ENGINEERS AND REGISTERED
ELECTRONIC ENGINEERS
85.) The powers and functions of the Board is provided in ______ of the R.A. No. 9292
SECTION 7
86.) If the ECE consultants present is required in another place away from his office, additional
compensation of _______ for every hour he is away from his office of if the place is more than 50 km
away from his office.
ONE HUNDRED PESOS
87.) What is minimum fine for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as provided in the Ecommerce Act of the Philippines?
ONE HUNDRED THOUSAND PESOS
88.) What refers to radiation other than X-rays which will cause absorption equal to 1 roentgen?
rep
89.) What formula gives the maximum accumulated permissible dose (MPD) in rems to the whole body,
with N = persons age?
MPD = 5(N-18)
90.) What unit is used to measure the accumulated effects of radiation that can cause genetic and somatic
effects?
Roentgens
91.) A telephone companys cable entering a building from telephone cable feeder to the main crossconnecting a point within a building is called________.
Entrance Cable
92.) It does not constitute the foundation ethics.
Integrity
93.) It is defined as legally binding agreement or promise to exchange goods or services.
CONTRACT
94.) What refer to a fundamental obligation under the contract which goes to the root of the contract?
CONDITION
95.) What is a civil wrong committed by one person causing damage to another person of his property,
emotional well-being, or reputation?
TORT
96.) What refers to a statement or oath, often religious in nature, agreed by an individual in ceremonies?
CREED
97.) A rule is defined as:
A GUIDE FOR CONDUCT AND ACTION IN A CERTAIN SITUATION
98.) What law provides an absolute reference point for the determination of entropy?
THIRD LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS
99.) What law states that At constant temperature, the volume of a gas is inversely proportional the
pressure?
BOYLES LAW
100.) An adiabatic process in which there is no change in system enthalpy but for which there is a
significant decrease in pressure is called_______.
THROTTLING PROCESS
101.) What refers to the minimum temperature at which combustion can be sustained?
Ignition Temperature
GEAS MODULE 8
1. An acid can react with a base to produce a_____________

a. Salt
2. What is another term for chemical change?
a. Chemical reaction
3. The masses of elements in a pure compound are always in the same proportion. This statement
is known as_________
a. Law of definite proportion
4. What are the rows in the periodic table called?
a. Periods
5. The chalcogens are elements in what group in the periodic table?
a. Group VIA
6. What is the most abundant element in the human body?
a. Oxygen
7. When alkali metal is usually used for x-ray apparatus because of its ability to allow x-rays to pass
through with minimum absorption?
a. Beryllium
8. What element is used as a coating for iron to make galvanized iron a corrosion-resistant material?
a. Zinc
9. What is regarded as the most unique element in the periodic table?
a. Carbon
10. Nonpolar covalent bond occurs if the difference in electronegativity ranges from
a. 0.50 to 1.90
11. The total pressure of a mixture of gases equals the sum of the partial pressures of each of the
gases in the mixture. This statement is known as ______________
a. Daltons law of partial pressure
12. Compounds containing hydrogen and other element are known as ___________
a. Hydrides
13. What refers to the amount of heat absorbed by one mole of a substance when it changes from
liquid to solid?
a. Molar heat of fusion
14. What is the SI unit of temperature?
a. Kelvin
15. What is the unit of illumination?
a. Lux
16. The coefficient of restitution always applies _____________
a. Jointly to the colliding objects
17. What is defined as the mass per unit volume?
a. Density
18. What is another term for specific gravity?
a. Relative density
19. In a damped harmonic oscillator, what reduces the amplitude of the vibrations?
a. Friction
20. What refers to a shell of high pressure produced by the motion of an object whose speed exceeds
that of sound?
a. Shock wave
21. When two or more waves of the same nature travel past a given point at the same time, the
amplitude at the point is the sum of the amplitudes of the individual waves. This statement is
known as ________
a. Principle of superposition
22. The net electric charge in an isolated system remains constant. This statement is known as
_______
a. Principle of conservation of charge

23. What refers to the ratio between the speed of light in free space and its speed in a particular
medium?
a. Index of refraction
24. What type lens brings parallel light to a single real focal point?
a. Convergent lens
25. In telescopes, what refers to the ratio between the angle subtended at the eye by the image and the
angle subtended at the eye by the object seen directly?
a. Angular magnification
26. What law asserts that energy has quality as well as quantity?
a. Second law of thermodynamics
27. What is defined a region in space chosen for study?
a. System
28. A system in which even energy is not allowed to cross the boundary called _________
a. Isolated system
29. Which is not an intensive property of thermodynamics?
a. Mass
30. What refers to any change that a system undergoes from one equilibrium state to another
equilibrium state?
a. Process
31. The electrons in an atom which rotate about the nucleus posses what kind of energy?
a. Rotational kinetic energy
32. Who formulated the zeroth law of thermodynamics in 1913?
a. R. H. Fowler
33. What is the pressure below atmospheric pressure called?
a. Vacuum pressure
34. What is the amount of heat needed to turn 1 kg of the substance at its melting point from the
liquid to the solid state?
a. Heat of fusion
35. What is the specific heat capacity of water in J/kg C?
a. 4185
36. What is a body that emits a constant emissivity regardless of the wavelength?
a. Gray body
37. What is the absorptivity of a black body?
a. 1
38. Which statement of the second law of thermodynamics states that no heat engine can have a
thermal efficiency of 100 percent?
a. Kelvin-Planck statement
39. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a
specified load shows a specified amount of deflection?
a. Heat distortion temperature
40. What dimensional property of a material refers to a wavelike variation from a perfect surface,
generally much wider in spacing and higher in amplitude than surface roughness?
a. Waviness
41. What is the amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material?
a. Impact strength
42. What is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation?
a. Hardness
43. The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot-worked steels is known as _________
a. Pickling
44. A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of chromium?
a. 10%

45. What is the process of heating a hardened steel to any temperature below the lower critical
temperature, followed by any desired rate of cooling?
a. Tempering
46. What typical penetrator is used in Brinell hardness test?
a. 10 mm ball
47. What is measure of rigidity?
a. Modulus of elasticity
48. The electrical resistance of stainless steels can be as much as ____ times that of carbon steel.
a. 6
49. What is the chief ore of tin?
a. Cassiterite
50. The term brass is very commonly used to designate any alloy primarily of:
a. Copper and zinc
51. Yellow brass contains approximately how many percent of zinc?
a. 30%
52. What refers to a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security?
a. Coupon
53. What type of bond where the corporations owners name are recorded and the interest is paid
periodically to the owners with their asking for it?
a. Registered bond
54. What type of bond which can be redeemed before maturity date?
a. Callable bond
55. What refers to the value of an asset which a disinterested third party, different from the buyer and
seller, will determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties?
a. Market value
56. The unrecovered depreciation which results due to poor estimates as to the life of the equipment
is called ___________
a. Sunk cost
57. What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivables are collected?
a. Receivables turnover
58. What is other otherwise known as The Maritime Communications Law?
a. R. A. 3396
59. Which law provides for a national policy on the operation and use of international satellite
communications in the country?
a. E. O. 467
60. When is the effectivity of Republic Act No. 7925?
a. March 21, 1995
61. What is the prime time block for AM radio in Metro Manila?
a. 5 AM to 9 AM and 4 PM to 8 PM
62. Outside Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed ______ minutes for one hour program.
a. 17
63. The certificate of Authority issued by National Telecommunications Commission to a CATV
operator shall have a maximum term of how many years?
a. 15 years
64. When is Electronics and Communications Engineer supervision required under Department Order
No. 88?
a. Standard AM broadcast with a carrier power of 5 kW
65. Which law refers to the Electronic Commerce Act of 2000?
a. R. A. 8792
66. R.A. 9292, Section 17 states that the result of the boar examination shall be released within ___
days after the examination.

a. 15
67. What is the rbe of any radiation produced by a radio transmitter?
a. 1
68. The time required for a vibrating object to complete one full cycle
a. Period
69. The extent of displacement of a vibrating tuning fork is related to the resulting sound
characteristic wave of______
a. Amplitude
70. The number of cycles a vibrating tuning fork experiences in each second is related to the resulting
sound wave characteristic of ______
a. Frequency
71. If a ball swinging in a circle on a string is moved twice. The force on the string is______
a. Increased four times
72. If a ball swinging in a circle on a string when the string is doubled the force on the string is
_______
a. Decreased by half
73. A ball rolling on a floor slows to a stop because:
a. A net force is acting on it
74. Considering a system of forces of you and a bicycle as you pedal the bike at constant velocity on
a horizontal straight line.
a. All forces is balanced with a net force equal to zero
75. An equation is composed of symbols in such a way that:
a. The number and units on both sides are equal
76. Which of the following standard units is defined in terms of the object as opposed to an event?
a. Kg
77. The process of comparing a property to a well-defined and agreed-upon referent is called
a. Measuring
78. Quantity, or measured property capable of changing values are called __________
a. Variables
79. The heat transfer that does not require matter is:
a. Radiation
80. The type of energy usually transmitted by rotational motion
a. Mechanical energy
81. Dihydrogen monoxide is a systematic name of a compound commonly known as _______
a. Water
82. A photon of the following has the highest energy?
a. Blue light
83. Isotopes of the same atom as:
a. The same number of protons and electrons but different number of neutron
84. Which of the following is always a whole number?
a. Mass number of an atom
85. Conservation of energy states that:
a. Energy cannot be created nor destroyed
86. Sound interference is necessary for what phenomenon to occur?
a. Beats
87. The mass of a half liter of water
a. 500g
88. What does the term steady means?
a. No change with time
89. A covalent bond where there is an unequal sharing of bonding electrons
a. Polar covalent bond

90. The residual value of a companys assets after all outside liabilities (excluding shareholders) have
been allowed for?
a. Equity
91. It is the measure of the average speed with which accounts receivables are collected?
a. Receivable turnover
92. Return of investment ratio is the ratio of:
a. Net income to owners equity
93. The ratio of stress to strain of a material loaded within its elastic limit?
a. Modulus of elasticity
94. What refers to the phenomenon in which an electromagnetic wave composed of more than one
frequency is split to corresponding different beams as it refracts?
a. Dispersion
95. Which of the following form of energy is a kind of potential energy
a. Chemical energy
96. The heat transfer that takes place by energy moving directly from molecule to molecule?
a. Radiation
97. A transverse mechanical wave causes the particles of a material to move:
a. Perpendicular to the direction of the wave
98. What refers to a high-frequency electromagnetic wave emmited when fast moving electrons
impinge matter?
a. X-ray
99. The Bohrs model described the energy state of an electron in one quantum number. The
quantum mechanics model uses how many quantum numbers to describe the energy state of an
electron?
a. 4
100.
A particular element is located in column IVA of the periodic table. How many dots
would be placed around the symbol of this element in its electron dot notation
a. 4

GEAS Module 12 (bold = answers)

1 How are mixtures classified?
a. Elements or Compounds
b. Metals, Nonmetals or Metalloids
c. Homogeneous or Heterogeneous.
d. Suspension, Colloids or Solutions
2 An acid can react with a base to produce a _____.
a. hydrogen gas
b. salt
c. oxide
d. hydroxide
3 What acid is added to carbonated drinks?
a. Citric acid
b. Carbonic acid
c. Sulfuric acid
d. Nitric acid
4 What acid is added to make explosives?

a.
b.
c.
d.

citric acid
sulfuric acid
nitric acid
hydrochloric acid

5 What acid is present in car batteries?

a. citric acid
b. nitric acid
c. hydrochloric acid
d. sulfuric acid
6 A material is said to be ___ if its composition and properties are uniform throughout.
Homogeneous
Heterogeneous
Pure substance
Pure compound
7 A material is said to be ___ if its composition and properties are not uniform throughout.
Unpure
Homogeneous
Heterogeneous
malleable

8 What us a poisonous gas generated mostly by motor vehicles?

a. carbon monoxide
b. carbon dioxide
c. hydroxide
d. nitric acid
9 What is considered as one of the pollutants responsible for smog and acid rain?
a. sulfur dioxide
b. nitrogen dioxide
c. carbon dioxide
d. hydroxide
10 What refers to the forces of attraction that exist between molecules in a compound?
interaction forces
dispersion forces
intermolecular forces
induction forces
11 Compounds containing hydrogen and other elements are known as?
a. hydroxides
b. hydrides
c. hydros
d. hydrates
12 What is the process of changing from gas state to liquid state?
a. sublimation

b. condensation
c. deposition
d. vaporization
13 What is the process of changing from liquid state to gas state?
a. vaporization
b. sublimation
c. condensation
d. deposition
14 What is the process of changing from solid state to gas state?
a. vaporization
b. deposition
c. sublimation
d. condensation

15 What is the process of changing from gas state to solid state?

a. deposition
b. vaporization
c. condensation
d. sublimation
16 What is the process of changing from solid state to liquid state?
a. freezing
b. melting
c. condensation
d. vaporization
17 What refers to the amount of heat absorbed by one mole of a substance to change from solid to liquid?
a. molar heat of vaporization
b. molar heat of solidification
c. molar heat of fission
d. molar heat of fusion
18 What refers to the amount of heat released by one mole of a substance when it changes from liquid to
solid?
a. molar heat of vaporization
b. molar heat of solidification
c. molar heat of fission
d. molar heat of fusion
19 What refers to the amount of heat required by one mole of a substance to change from liquid to gas?
a. molar heat of vaporization
b. molar heat of solidification
c. molar heat of fission
d. molar heat of fusion

20 What refers to the amount of heat required by one mole of a substance to change from gas to liquid?
a. molar heat of vaporization
b. molar heat of solidification
c. molar heat of condensation
d. molar heat of fusion
21 Liquid that vaporizes easily are called ___ liquids.
a. volatile
b. nonvolatile
c. surfactant
d. hydrophilic
22 What refers to the temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied by an increase in pressure?
a. absolute temperature
b. absolute zero
c. critical temperature
d. maximum temperature
23 What is a homogeneous mixture made of particles that exist as individual molecules or ions?
a. solution
b. solute
c. solvent
d. colloid
24 What is the component of the solution that is dissolved?
a. solvent
b. solute
c. catalyst
d. colloid
25 What is the component of the solution in which the solute is dissolved?
a. solvent
b. catalyst
c. reactant
d. medium
26 Bronze is a solid solution of copper and tin. Which of the following is true?
a. tin is the solvent
b. copper is the solute
c. copper is the solvent
d. the solution is called an aqueous solution
27 When the solvent of the solution is water, it is an ___ solution.
a. wet
b. liquid
c. aqueous
d. fluid
28 What is the most common solvent in medicines?
a. paracetamol
b. acid

c. ethanol
d. starch

29 What is the term generally used to describe the combination of solute molecules or ions with solvent
molecules?
a. solubility
b. solvation
c. saturation
d. transformation
30 What is the term used to describe the maximum amount of solute that a give solvent can dissolve to
give a stable solution at a given temperature?
a. solubility
b. solvation
c. saturation
d. transformation
31 When the maximum amount of solute is dissolved on the given solvent at a stated temperature, the
solution formed is_____.
a. unsaturated
b. saturated
c. supersaturated
d. undersaturated
32 When the solution contains less solute particles than the maximum amount the solvent can dissolve at
that temperature, the solution is ____.
a. unsaturated
b. saturated
c. supersaturated
d. undersaturated
33 When the solution contains more solute particles than the solvent can normally hold, the solution is
____.
a. unsaturated
b. saturated
c. supersaturated
d. undersaturated
34 What is the most common solution on earth?
a. air
b. seawater
c. blood
d. fresh water
35 Solutions composed of two or more metals are called ____.
a. saturated solutions
b. supersaturated solutions
c. unsaturated solutions
d. alloys
36 The solubility of a substance in another substance is affected by the following factors except?

a.
b.
c.
d.

nature of the solute and solvent

pressure
volume
temperature

37 Liquids that do not mix are said to be?

a. miscible
b. immiscible
c. soluble
d. nonsoluble
38 Water and alcohol are both liquids that can be mixed in any proportion. They are said to be___.
a. miscible
b. immiscible
c. soluble
d. nonsoluble
39 How will an increase in temperature in solids affect solubility?
a. it will cause a decrease in solubility
b. it will not affect solubility at all
c. it will slightly affect solubility
d. it will cause an increase in solubility
40 How will an increase in temperature of gases dissolving in liquids affect solubility?
a. it will cause an decrease in solubility
b. it will not affect solubility at all
c. it will slightly affect solubility
d. it will cause an increase in solubility
41 How does pressure affects the solubility of gases in liquids?
a. it decreases solubility
b. it does not affect solubility at all
c. it slightly affects solubility
d. it increases solubility
42 How does pressure affects the solubility in liquids or of liquids in another liquid?
a. it decreases solubility
b. it does not affect solubility at all
c. it slightly affects solubility
d. it increases solubility

43 The solubility of gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the
solution. This is known as ____.
a. Hunds Law
b. Pascals Law
c. Henrys Law
d. Daltons Law
44 What refers to the measure of how fast a substance dissolves?

a.
b.
c.
d.

rate of solubility
rate of agitation
rate of dissolution
rate of solution

45 How can the rate of dissolution be increased?

a. reduce particle size
b. agitation
c. application of heat
d. all of the above
46 _____ means there is only a little amount of solute dissolved in a solution.
a. concentrated
b. dilute
c. saturated
d. unsaturated
47 ____ means there is a large amount of solute dissolved in the solution.
a. concentrated
b. dilute
c. saturated
d. unsaturated
48 What is the ratio of the number of moles of one component of a solution to the total number of moles
of all components?
a. molarity
b. molality
c. formality
d. mole fraction
49 What is the ratio of the number of moles of solute to the volume of the solution in liters?
a. molarity
b. molality
c. formality
d. mole fraction

50 What is the ratio of the number of moles of solute per kilogram of solvent?
a. molarity
b. molality
c. formality
d. mole fraction
51 What is the process of making a solution less concentrated as in the addition of more solvent?
a. concentration
b. dilution
c. saturation
d. colligation

52 What is the process of changing liquid to gas that is usually accompanied by the production of bubbles
of vapor in the liquid?
a. vaporizing
b. boiling
c. condensing
d. sublimation
53 What is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the prevailing atmospheric
pressure?
a. boiling point
b. triple point
c. saturation point
d. critical point
54 What is the temperature at which liquid and solid are in equilibrium?
a. boiling point
b. resting point
c. freezing point
d. critical point
55 What refers to the decrease in the freezing point of a pure liquid when another substance is dissolved
in the liquid?
a. freezing point compression
b. freezing point extension
c. freezing point depression
d. freezing point dilution
56 If two solutions have the same concentration of solute, they are?
a. hypertonic
b. hypotonic
c. isotonic
d. photonic
57 If one of the two solutions has a higher concentration of solute particles than the other, the one with
the higher concentration is described as ___.
a. hypertonic
b. hypotonic
c. isotonic
d. photonic
58 If one of the two solutions has a higher concentration of solute particles than the other, the one with
the lower concentrations is described as.
a. hypertonic
b. hypotonic
c. isotonic
d. photonic
59 The movement of solvent particles through a semi-permeable membrane from the region of lower
solute concentration to the region of higher solute concentration is called__.
a. osmosis
b. hymolysis

c. crenation
d. dialysis
60 The term colloid comes from the Greek kola and oidos which means.
a. cloudy appearance
b. cloudy shape
c. glue appearance
d. glue color
61 What are suspensions of liquid or solid particles in a gas called?
a. emulsions
b. aerosols
c. foams
d. sols
62 What is in some aerosols products that can harm to the atmosphere?
a. smog
b. chlorofluorocarbons (CFC)
c. emulsifying agent
d. hydrocarbons
63 What are colloidal dispersions of gas bubbles in liquids or solids?
a. emulsions
b. aerosols
c. foams
d. sols

64 What is a colloidal dispersion of a liquid in either a liquid or a solid?

a. emulsions
b. gels
c. foams
d. sols
65 What is a solid dispersed in either a solid or a liquid?
a. emulsions
b. gels
c. foams
d. sols
66 What is a colloidal system in which the dispersed phase consists of fibrous, interwoven particles called
fibrils which exert a marked effect on the physical properties of the dispersing medium?
a. emulsions
b. gels
c. foams
d. sols
67 Most cosmetics and ointments and creams used in medicines are ____.
a. emulsions
b. gels
c. foams

d. sols
68 The substance usually used in cleaning toilet bowls and tiles is muriatic acid. What is another term for
this?
a. nitric acid
b. sulfuric acid
c. hydrochloric acid
d. phosphoric acid
69 Upon dissociation in water, acids yield hydrogen ions while gases yield hydroxide ions. What is this
statement commonly called?
a. Arrhenius theory
b. pH concept
c. Bronsted-Lowry theory
d. Le Chateliers principle
70 What is defined as a substance which, upon reaction with water, causes an increase in the
concentration of the solvent cation, H30+?
a. Lewis acid
b. Lewis base
c. Arrhenius base
d. Arrhenius acid
71 What is defined as a substance which, upon dissolution in or reacting with water causes an increase in
the concentration of the solvent anion, OH+?
a. Lewis acid
b. Lewis base
c. Arrhenius base
d. Arrhenius acid
72 What is the dissolution constant of water at 25 degrees Celsius?
a. 1.8 x 10 ^ -15
b. 1.8 x 10 ^ -16
c. 1.8 x 10 ^ -17
d. 1.8 x 10 ^ - 18
73 What theory states that an acid is any substance that donates a proton to another substance, and a base
is any substance that can accept a proton from any other substance?
a. Arrhenius theory
b. Bronsted-Lowry theory
c. Lewis theory
d. pH concept
74 What theory states that an acid is a substance that can accept a lone pair from another molecule, and a
base is a substance that ha a lone pair of electrons?
a. Arrhenius theory
b. Bronsted-Lowry theory
c. Lewis theory
d. pH concept
75 An acid described as an electron pair acceptor is the ___ acid.
a. Arrhenius

b. Pure
c. Lewis
d. Bronsted-Lowry
76 The Bronsted-Lowry acid is?
a. a proton donor
b. a proton acceptor
c. an electron pair acceptor
d. an electron pair donor
77 According to Gilbert Lewis, an acid-base reaction as the sharing of an electron pair will form what
type of bond?
a. coordinate ionic bond
b. coordinate covalent bond
c. coordinate metallic bond
d. coordinate bond
78 What is the term used for the product of a Lewis acid-base reaction?
a. oxyacids
b. binary acid
c. acibas
d. adduct
79 Acids composed of only two elements, hydrogen and nonmetal, are called ___.
a. binary acids
b. ternary acids
c. oxyacids
d. organic acids
80 What is added to hydrochloride to form hydrochloric acid?
a. oxygen
b. sulfur
c. water
d. carbon
81 Acids consist of three elements, hydrogen and two nonmetals are called?
a. triacids
b. ternary acids
c. oxyacids
d. organic acids
82 If one of the two nonmetals of a ternary acid is oxygen, the acid is called?
a. oxide
b. oxyacid
c. oxide acid
d. acidic oxide
83 Which of the following is the formula of sulfuric acid?
a. H2SO4
b. H2SO3
c. HNO2

d. H2SO4
84 Which of the following is the formula of nitric acid?
a. HNO4
b. H2NO3
c. HNO2
d. HNO3
85 What acid is usually in vinegars?
a. sulfuric acid
b. acetic acid
c. nitric acid
d. carbonic acid
86 What acid is used in glass itching?
a. acetylsalicylic acid
b. hydrofluoric acid
c. phosphoric acid
d. hydrochloric acid
87 What acid is usually present in some fruits?
a. citric acid
b. carbonic acid
c. organic acid
d. nitric acid
88 What acid is used in carbonated drinks?
a. carbonic acid
b. hydrofluoric acid
c. nitric acid
d. citric acid
89 What acid usually used to reduce pain and inflammation such as aspirin and other pain relievers?
a. carbonic acid
b. acetylsalicylic acid
c. nitric acid
d. phosphoric acid
90 What acid is usually used in the manufacture of fertilizers?
a. carbonic acid
b. acetylsalicylic acid
c. nitric acid
d. phosphoric acid
91 What acid is usually used in the manufacture of explosives?
a. carbonic acid
b. acetylsalicylic acid
c. nitric acid
d. phosphoric acid
92 What acid is used in the batteries of cars and automobiles?

a.
b.
c.
d.

carbonic acid
acetylsalicylic acid
sulfuric acid
phosphoric acid

93 Bases are compounds consisting of:

a. metal and oxide ion
b. nonmetal and oxide ion
c. metal and hydroxide ion
d. nonmetal and hydroxide ion
94 Which base is used to remove carbon dioxide from air?
a. lithium hydroxide
b. sodium hydroxide
c. aluminum hydroxide
d. magnesium hydroxide
95 What base is used as an antacid with no dosage restrictions?
a. magnesium hydroxide
b. sodium hydroxide
c. aluminum hydroxide
d. lithium hydroxide
96 Magnesium hydroxide is a base used as antacid if consumed in small amounts and laxative if
consumed in large dosage. What is common term for magnesium hydroxide?
a. skim of magnesia
b. oil of magnesia
c. cream of magnesia
d. milk of magnesia
97 What is the most convenient way of expressing hydronium ion concentration?
a. hydrometer reading
b. pH scale
c. alkalinity
d. basicity
98 What does the symbol pH stands for?
a. the power of the hydroxide compound
b. the power of the hydroxide ion
c. the power of the hydrogen ion
d. the power of hydrogen
99 What is the pH of pure water?
a. 6.1
b. 6.5
c. 7
d. 7.4
100 Which of the two substances have the same pH, which is 6.5?
a. saliva and milk

b. orange juice and tomato juice

c. vinegar and calamansi juice
d. urine and apple juice
101 Which is the most acidic?
a. vinegar
b. calamansi juice
c. carbonated drink
d. orange juice
102 Which is the best description of strong acids?
a. they dissociate or ionize completely in water
b. they dont dissociate or ionize completely in water
c. they are normally found in vinegars
d. they are the acids that do not contain hydrogen
103 What is the best description of weak acids?
a. they dissociate or ionize completely in water
b. they dont dissociate or ionize completely in water
c. they are normally found in hydrogen chloride form
d. they are the acids that not found in vinegars
104 What is the substance that changes color at a certain pH range?
a. litmus paper
b. indicator
c. balancer
d. lichen
105 What refers to the reaction between and acid and a base forming salt and water?
a. neutralization
b. titration
c. hydrolysis
d. buffer
106 What is the process of measuring the concentration of an acid or base in one solution by adding a
base or acid solution of known concentration until the acid or base in the solution or unknown
concentration is fully neutralized?
a. neutralization
b. titration
c. hydrolysis
d. buffer
107 What refers to the point at which the added base or acid solution in titration is enough to fully
neutralize the acid or base?
a. neutral point
b. titrant point
c. central point
d. equivalence point

Geas Module 14
Great power comes with great responsibility

Questions:
1. What type of hydrocarbons that do not contain the benzene group or the benzene ring?
a. Aromatic hydrocarbon
b. Aliphatic hydrocarbon
c. Simple hydrocarbon
d. Carbon hydrocarbon
2. What is a reaction in which one molecule adds to another?
a. Partial reaction
b. Monomolecular reaction
c. Molecular reaction
d. Additional reaction
3. What refers to the minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical reaction?
a. Atomic energy
b. Activation energy
c. Initial energy
d. Reaction energy
4. Oxygen comprises what percent mass in the earths crust?
a. 50.5
b. 49.5
c. 48.5
d. 47.5
5. What percent of the human body is carbon?
a. 22%
b. 20%
c. 18%
d. 16%
6. What refers to how closely a measured value agrees with the correct value?
a. Accuracy
b. Precision
c. Relative precision
d. Relative accuracy
7. What refers to how closely a individual measurements agree with each other?
a. Accuracy
b. Precision
c. Relative precision
d. Relative accuracy
8. What is the physical appearance of sodium?
a. Silver metal
b. Yellowish gas
c. White crystal
d. Reddish gas

9. What is the physical appearance of chlorine?

a. Silver metal
b. White crystal
c. Yellowish gas
d. White metal
10. What is the physical appearance of sodium chloride?
a. Silver metal
b. White crystal
c. Yellowish gas
d. White metal
11. Who proposed the quantum theory in 1900?
a. J. J. Thomson
b. Neils Bohr
c. Max Planck
d. Ernest Rutherford
12. What is a general term that refers to an allowed energy state for an electron in the atom?
a. Quantum orbital level
b. Quantum energy level
c. Orbital
d. Quantum theory
13. What is an alloy of mercury with another metal or metals?
a. Amalgram
b. Amine
c. Allotrope
d. Alkynes
14. A compound that contains at least one animo group and at least one carboxyl group is
called ______.
a. Allotrope
b. Animo acid
c. Alkenes
d. Alkynes
15. A molecular orbit that is of higher energy and lower stability than the atomic orbitals
from which it was formed is called _______.
a. Main molecular orbital
b. Partial molecular orbital
c. Bonding molecular orbital
d. Antibonding molecular orbital
16. A molecular orbit that is of lower energy and greater stability than the atomic orbitals
from which it was formed is called _______.
a. Main molecular orbital

b. Partial molecular orbital

c. Bonding molecular orbital
d. Antibonding molecular orbital
17. An ion containing a central metal cation bonded to one or more molecules or ions is
called_____.
a. Compound ion
b. Complex ion
c. Simplex ion
d. Buffer ion
18. Compounds containing CN ion are called______.
a. Cyanides
b. Cycloalkanes
c. Carbides
d. Carboxylic acids
19. A molecule that does not possess a dipole moment is called_______.
a. Polar molecule
b. Nonpolar molecule
c. Nonelectrolytic molecule
d. Electrolytic molecule
20. What refers to a substance that when dissolved in water, gives a solution that is not
electrically conduction?
a. Nonpolar
b. Ectrolyte
c. Nonelectrolyte
d. Polar
21. What refers to a chemical formula that shows how atoms are bonded to one another in a
molecule?
a. Molecular formula
b. Structural formula
c. Standard formula
d. Bonding formula
22. A compound distinguished by a high molar mass, ranging into thousands and millions of
grams, and made up of many repeating cells is called______.
a. Electrolyte
b. Polymer
c. Nucleotide
d. Oxoacid
23. What is the standard unit of mass?
a. Kilogram
b. Pound

c. Gram
d. Newton
24. What is defined as the distance the light travels in a vacuum in 1/299,792,458 second?
a. Yard
b. Feet
c. Meter
d. Inch
25. What is the SI unit of pressure?
a. Pa
b. N-m
c. n/m
d. n-m/s
26. Which one is equivalent of the unit pascal?
a. n/mm^2
b. n/m^2
c. n/m
d. n/mm
27. What is the SI unit of intensity?
a. Joule/m^2
b. Kg/m^2
c. n/m^2
d. watt/m^2
28. what is the unit of potential difference?
a. Watt
b. Coulomb
c. Volt
d. Weber
29. Which of the following is equivalent to a volt?
a. Watt/coulomb
b. Joule/coulomb
c. Joule/watt
d. Watt/joule
30. One electron volt is equivalent to _______joules.
a. 1.6x10^-17
b. 1.6x10^-18
c. 1.6x10^-19
d. 1.6x10^-20
31. What is the unit of capacitance?
a. Farad
b. Weber

c. Coulomb
d. Gauss
32. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit farad?
a. Coulomb/volt
b. Joule/volt
c. Joule/coulomb
d. Coulomb/joule
33. What is the unit of electric current
a. Volt
b. Watt
c. Ampere
d. Coulomb
34. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit ampere?
a. Joule/second
b. Volt/second
c. Coulomb/second
d. Watt/second
35. What is the unit of resistance?
a. Ohm
b. Watt
c. Volt
d. Ampere
36. Ohm is equivalent to which of the following
a. Coulomb/ampere
b. Watt/ampere
c. Volt/ampere
d. Joule/ampere
37. Lux is equivalent to which combination of units?
a. Lumen/cm^2
b. Lumen/ft^2
c. Lumen/m^2
d. Lumen/in^2
38. Footcandle is equivalent to which combination of units?
a. Lumen/cm^2
b. Lumen/ft^2
c. Lumen/m^2
d. Lumen/in^2
39. What is an elemental unit ofenergy?
a. Quartz
b. Quark

c. Photon
d. Quantum
40. The size of some bacteria and living cells is in the order of _______.
a. Centimeter
b. Millimeter
c. Nanometer
d. Micrometer
41. The size of the largest atom is in the order of ________.
a. Centimeter
b. Millimeter
c. Nanometer
d. Micrometer
42. The mass of grain of salt is in the order of __________.
a. Milligram
b. Gram
c. Microgram
d. Nanogram
43. Which one is equivalent to the unit of joule?
a. Newton-second
b. Newton-meter
c. Newton-meter per second
d. Newton-meter per second squared
44. Which one is equivalent to the unit of watt?
a. Newton-second
b. Newton-meter
c. Newton-meter per second
d. Newton-meter per second squared
45. One horsepower is equivalent to how many watts?
a. 550
b. 746
c. 33,000
d. 250
46. The kilowatt-hour is a unit of _______.
a. Work
b. Energy
c. Power
d. Work or energy
47. The English unit slug is a unit of _______.
a. Mass
b. Weight

c. Force
d. Energy
48. How is sound intensity measured
a. in beats
b. in decibels
c. in phons
d. in sones
49. an electron volt is the energy required by an electron that has been accelerated by a
potential difference of how many volts?
a. 1 volts
b. 0.1 volts
c. 10 volts
d. 0.01 volts
50. What is a vector with a magnitude of one and with no unit?
a. Single vector
b. Unit vector
c. Dot vector
d. Scalar vector
51. What is the purpose of a unit vector?
a. To describe the direction in space
b. To indicate a magnitude without reference to direction
c. To serve as comparison with other vectors
d. To set a standard among vectors
52. What is another term for a scalar product of two vectors
a. Cross product
b. Vector product
c. Dot product
d. Plus product
53. What is another term for a vector product of two vectors
a. Cross product
b. Vector product
c. Dot product
d. Plus product
54. The scalar product of two perpendicular vectors is always ______.
a. Equal to 1
b. Greater than 1
c. Less than 1
d. Equal to 0
55. The vector product of two parallel or antiparallel vectors is always ______.
a. Equal to 1

b. Greater than 1
c. Less than 1
d. Equal to 0
56. The vector product of any vector with itself is _______.
a. Equal to 1
b. Greater than 1
c. Less than 1
d. Equal to 0
57. What refers to physical quantities that are completely specified by just a number and a
unit or physical quantities that have magnitudes only?
a. Scalar quantities
b. Vector product
c. Dot product
d. Vector quantities
58. What refers to physical quantities that have a magnitude and a direction?
a. Scalar quantities
b. Vector product
c. Dot product
d. Vector quantities
59. Which is not a fundamental physical quantity of mechanics?
a. Length
b. Mass
c. Volume
d. Time
60. What is an arrowed line whose length is proportional to the magnitude of some vector
quantity and whose directions is that of the quantity?
a. Vector diagram
b. Vector
c. Component
d. Resultant
61. What is a scaled drawing of the various forces, velocities or other vector quantities
involved in the motion of a body?
a. Vector diagram
b. Vector
c. Component
d. Resultant
62. The _______ of a moving object is the distance it covers in a time interval divided by the
time interval.
a. Acceleration
b. Instantaneous speed

c. Average speed *
d. Instantaneous velocity
63. The _______ of a particle is equal to the total work that particle can do in the process of
being brought to rest.
a. Kinetic energy
b. Potential energy
c. Total energy
d. Mechanical energy
64. Work is defined as the product of:
a. Force and displacement
b. Force and time
c. Displacement And time
d. Power and time
65. What is defined as the time rate at which work is done?
a. Impulse
b. Momentum
c. Power
d. Energy
66. What is defined as any influence that can change the velocity of an object?
a. Impulse
b. Force
c. Energy
d. Work
67. if no net force acts on it, an object at rest will remain at rest and an object in motion will
remain in motion at constant velocity. This statement is the _______.
a. First law of motion
b. Second law of motion
c. Third law of motion
d. Dalemberts principle
68. when an object exerts a force on another object, the second object exerts on the first a
force of the magnitude but in the opposite direction. This statement is the ______.
a. First law of motion
b. Second law of motion
c. Third law of motion
d. Dalemberts principle
69. What refers to the force with the earth attracts an object?
a. Gravitation pull
b. Mass
c. Weight
d. All of the above

70. How many kilograms are therein 1 slug?

a. 11.9
b. 12.5
c. 13.2
d. 14.6
71. What refers to an actual force that arises to oppose relative motion between contacting
surfaces?
a. Action force
b. Reaction force
c. Friction
d. Drag
72. What refers to the force between two stationary surfaces in contact that prevents motion
between them?
a. Kinetic friction
b. Sliding friction
c. Starting friction
d. Static friction
73. What is TRUE between kinetic friction and static friction?
a. Kinetic friction is always equal to static friction.
b. Kinetic friction is always less than static friction.
c. Kinetic friction is always greater than static friction.
d. Kinetic friction is equal to or greater than static friction.
74. What is another term for kinetic friction?
a. Dynamic friction
b. Starting friction
c. Sliding friction
d. All of the above
75. For the same materials in contact, what is TRUE between coefficient of static friction and
coefficient of kinetic friction?
a. Coefficient of static friction is always less than the coefficient of kinetic friction.
b. Coefficient of static friction is always equal to the coefficient of kinetic friction.
c. Coefficient of static friction is always greater than the coefficient of kinetic
friction.
d. Coefficient of static friction may be greater than or less than the coefficient of
kinetic friction.
76. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its motion?
a. Kinetic energy
b. Potential energy
c. Rest energy
d. Mechanical energy

77. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its mass?

a. Kinetic energy
b. Potential energy
c. Rest energy
d. Mechanical energy
78. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its position?
a. Kinetic energy
b. Potential energy
c. Rest energy
d. Mechanical energy
79. When the vector sum of the external forces acting on the system of particles equals zero,
the total linear momentum of the system _______.
a. Becomes zero
b. Maximizes
c. Changes abruptly
d. Remains constant
80. The centripetal force is:
a. Directed away from the center of the curvature of the path
b. Directed toward the center of curvature of the path
c. Tangent to curvature of the path
d. Either directed away or toward the center of curvature
81. What refers to the time needed by an object in uniform circular motion complete an
orbit?
a. Path time
b. Orbit time
c. Revolution
d. Period
82. The centripetal acceleration of a particle in uniform motion is ________ the radius of its
path.
a. Directly proportional
b. Inversely proportional
c. Equal
d. Not related in any way
83. Gravitation occurs between all objects in the universe by virtue of their _______.
a. Mass
b. Density
c. Weight
d. Volume

84. every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force directly proportional
to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance
separating them. This statement is known as:
a. Law of conservation of energy
b. Law of universal gravitation
c. Law of conservation momentum
d. Law of conservation of impulse
85. The gravitational force of the earth on an object varies of the __________ the distance of
the object from the center of the earth.
a. Inversely as
b. Inversely as the square of
c. Directly as
d. Directly as the square of
86. A rotating body has kinetic energy. This statement is _________.
a. Sometimes true
b. Sometimes false
c. Always true
d. Always false
87. What particles will experience tangential accelerations?
a. Those particles whose angular speed changes
b. Those particles whose angular speed remains constant
c. All particles
d. Those particles whose angular speed is zero.
88. The ____ of a force about a particular axis is the product of the magnitude of the force
and the perpendicular distance from the line of action of the force to axis.
a. Inertia
b. Mass moment
c. Torque
d. Moment
89. Which of the following is an example of neutral equilibrium?
a. A cone balanced on its apex.
b. A cone balanced on its base.
c. A cone on its side.
d. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base.
90. Which of the following is an example of stable equilibrium?
a. A cone balanced on its apex.
b. A cone balanced on its base.
c. A cone on its side.
d. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base.
91. If a cone is balanced on its apex, it illustrates what type of equilibrium?

a. Stable equilibrium
b. Unstable Equilibrium
c. Neutral equilibrium
d. Translational equilibrium
92. Which of the following is not a basic machine?
a. Lever
b. Incline plane
c. Hydraulic press
d. Wedge
93. Where is the center of gravity of an object located?
a. It is always inside the object
b. It is always outside the object
c. It is always at its geometric center
d. It may sometimes be inside the object and sometimes outside the object
94. All are values of the density of water except one. Which one?
a. 1000kg/m^3
b. 62.4lb/ft^3
c. 10g/cm^3
d. 9.81kN/m^3
95. The ______of substance is its density relative to that water?
a. Density
b. Weight density
c. Viscosity
d. Specific gravity
96. What is the average pressure of the earths atmosphere at sea level?
a. 1.042 bar
b. 1.021 bar
c. 1.013 bar
d. 1.037 bar
97. The hydraulic press is an instrument which uses one of the following theorems. Which
one?
a. Bernoullis energy theorem hands-on ans
b. Pascals principle
c. Archimedes principle
d. Reynolds principle
98. The maximum displacement of an object undergoing harmonic motion on either side of
its equilibrium is called the _______ of the motion.
a. Frequency
b. Oscillation
c. Period

d. Amplitude
99. What quantity is often used describing harmonic motion?
a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Period
d. Oscillation
100.
What refers to an oscillatory motion that occurs whenever a restoring force acts
on a body in the opposite direction to its displacement from its equilibrium position, with
the magnitude of the restoring force proportional to the magnitude of the displacement?
a. Damped harmonic motion
b. Pendulum
c. Simple harmonic motion
d. Damped harmonic oscillation
101.
What is a longitudinal wave phenomenon that results in periodic pressure
variations?
a. Sound
b. Resonance
c. Wave
d. Beat
Module 17
1 The ______ of a moving object is the distance it covers in a time interval divided by the time interval.
A.acceleration
B.instantaneous speed
C.average speed
D.instantaneous velocity
2 The net force acting on an object equals the product of the mass and the acceleration of the object. The
direction of the force is the same as that of the acceleration. This statement is the ______.
A.first law of motion
B. second law of motion
C.third law of motion
D. dAlemberts principle
3 Efficiency of a machine is the ratio of:
A. power output to power input
B. power input to power output
C. total work done to total energy
D. total energy to total power
4 In inelastic collision, kinetic energy is conserved. This statement is:
A. true
B. false
C. is either true or false, depending upon the colliding bodies

D. is either true or false, depending on the impact of the two colliding bodies
5 The gravitational force of the earth on an object varies of the _____ the distance of the object from the
center of the earth.
A. inversely as
B. inversely as the square of
C. directly as
D. directly as the square of
6 What quantity is often used in describing harmonic motion?
A.Amplitude
B.Frequency
C.Period
D.Oscillation
7 What occurs when periodic impulses are applied to a system at a frequency equal to one of its natural
frequencies of oscillation?
A.Beat
B.Resonance
C.Doppler effect
D.Shock wave
8 The ratio of the sines of the angles of incidence and refraction is equal to the ratio of the speeds of light
in the two media. This statement is known as ______.
A.Huygens principle
B.Snells law
C.Maxwells hypothesis
D.Dopplers effect
9 Every point on the wavefront can be considered as a source of secondary wavelets that spread out in all
directions with the wave speed of the medium. The wavefront at any time is the envelope of these
wavelets. This statement is known as _______.
A.Huygens principle
B.Snells law
C.Maxwells hypothesis
D.Dopplers effect
10 What is the index of refraction of water?
A.1.33
B.1.63
C.1.43
D.1.53
11 What is a probable explanation for observe phenomena which is supported by abundant data?
A.Theory
B.Hypothesis
C.Axiom
D.Conclusion
12 How are thermodynamic properties classified?
A.Physical and chemical

B.Intensive and extensive

C.Real and imaginary
D.Homogeneous and heterogeneous
13 A system is said to be in thermodynamic equilibrium if it maintains _______ equilibrium.
A.mechanical and phase
B.thermal and chemical
C.thermal, mechanical and chemical
D.thermal, phase, mechanical and chemical
14 What is a process during which the pressure remains constant??
A.isobaric process
B.isothermal process
C.isochoric process
D.isometric process
15 The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1kg of water through 1C is called ______.
A.calorie
B.joule
C.BTU
D.kilocalorie
16 What is the specific heat capacity of water in J/kg.C?
A.4581
B.4185
C.4518
D.4815
17 Which statement of the second law of thermodynamics states that no heat engine can have a thermal
efficiency of 100%?
A.kelvin-planck statement
B.clausius statement
C.kevin statement
D.rankine statement
18 What law states that it is impossible to build a device that operates in a cycle and produces no effect
other than the transfer of heat from a lower-temperature body to a higher-temperature body?
A.zeroth law of thermodynamics
B.first law of thermodynamics
C.second law of thermodynamics
D.third law of thermodynamics
19 A device that violates either the first law of thermodynamics or the second law of thermodynamics is
known as _______.
A.ambiguous machine
B.universal machine
C.perpetual-motion machine
D.unique machine
20 A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a _______.

A.perpetual-motion machine of the first kind

B.universal machine of the first kind
C.ambiguous machine of the first kind
D.unique machine of the first kind
21 A device that violates the second law of thermodynamics is called a _______.
A.perpetual-motion machine of the second kind
B.universal machine of the second kind
C.ambiguous machine of the second kind
D.unique machine of the second kind
22 Who proposed the carnot cycle?
A.sammy carnot
B.sonny carnot
C.sadi carnot
D.suri carnot
23 The carnot cycle is composed of how many reversible processes?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
24 The carnot cycle is composed of _______ processes.
A.one isothermal and one adiabatic
B.one isothermal and two adiabatic
C.two isothermal and one adiabatic
D.two isothermal and two adiabatic
25 What is the highest efficiency of heat engine operating between the two thermal energy reservoirs at
temperature limits?
A.ericson efficiency
B.otto efficiency
C.carnot efficiency
D.stirling efficiency
26 What is the heat engine that operates on the reversible carnot cycle called?
A.carnot heat engine
B.ideal heat engine
C.most efficient heat engine
D.best heat engine
27 A reversible adiabatic process is necessarily isentropic but an isentropic process is not necessarily
reversible adiabatic process. This statement is:
A.true
B.false
C.may be true and may be false
D.absurd
28 Water boils when:

A.its saturated vapor pressure equals to the atmospheric pressure

B.its vapor pressure equals to 76cm of mercury
C.its temperature reaches 212 degree celcius
D.its vapor pressure is 1 gram per sq. cm

29 Which of the following is standard temperature and pressure(STP)?

A.0 degree Celsius and one atmosphere
B.32 degree Fahrenheit and zero pressure
C.0 degree Kelvin and one atmosphere
D.0 degree Fahrenheit and zero pressure
30 Considering one mole of any gas, the equation of state of ideal gases is simply the _____ law.
A.gay-lussac
B.dulong and petit
C.avogadros
D.henrys
31 An ideal gas whose specific heats are constant is called ______.
A.perfect gas
B.natural gas
C.artificial gas
D.refined gas
32 Which one is the correct relation between energy efficiency ratio(EER) and coefficient of
performance(COP)?
A.EER=2.34COP
B.EER=3.24COP
C.EER=3.42COP
D.EER=4.23COP
33 The coefficient of performance(COP) is the ratio between the:
A.power consumption in watts and heat absorbed per hour
B.heat absorbed per hour and the power consumption in watts
C.work required and the absorbed heat
D.absorbed heat and the work required
34 What predicts the approximate molar specific heat at high temperatures from the atomic weight?
A.third law of thermodynamics
B.law of dulong and petit
C.mollier diagram
D.pressure-enthalpy diagram
35 The total volume of a mixture of nonreacting gases is equal to the sum of the partial volumes. This
statement is known as ______.
A.law of dulong and petit
B.Maxwell-boltzmann law
C.Amagats law
D.avogardros law

36 What law predicts the dew point of moisture in the fuel gas?
A.Daltons law
B.Law of dulong and petit
C.Ringelman law
D.Amagats law
37 Which is NOT a correct statement?
A.a superheated vapor will condense when small amount of heat are removed
B. an ideal gas is a gas that is not a superheated vapor.
C. a saturated liquid can absorb as much heat as it can without vaporizing
D. water at 1atm and room temperature is subcooled.
38 The sum of individual moments about a point caused by multiple concurrent forces is equal to the
moment of the resultant force about the same point. This statement is known as _______.
A.pappus theorem
B.D Alemberts principle
C.Varignons theorem
D.Newtons method
39 If the coefficient of restitution is zero, the impact is _____.
A.partially plastic
B.perfectly inelastic
C.perfectly elastic
D.partially elastic
40 Iron is said to be abundant in nature. About how many percent of the earths crust is iron?
A.10%
B.5%
C.20%
D.8%
41 What law provides regulation of the ownership and operation of radio and television stations and for
other purposes?
A.P.D. No. 223
B. P.D. No. 576-A
C.P.D. No. 567-A
D.P.D. No. 657-A
42 What law regulates the operation of CATV systems in the country?
A.EO 436
B.EO 205
C.EO 250
D.EO 346

43 When was the effictivity of Executive Order No. 205?

A. June 30, 1987
B. June 21, 1987
C. June 12, 1987
D. June 1, 1987

44 When is the effectivity of Republic Act No. 7925?

A. March 1, 1995
B. March 21, 1995
C. February 20, 1995
D. March 7, 1995
45 What is a new regulation issued by NTC providing the guideline for mobile personal communication
having a global coverage using satellite?
A.NMT
B.GMPCS
C.GSM
D.TACS
46 What government agency is the principal administrator of Republic Act No. 7925?
A.Bureau of Communications
B. Department of Transportation and Communications
C. House of Representatives
D. National Telecommunications Commission
47 What government agency was designated as the Chairman of the Electronic Commerce Promotion
Council?
A.NTC
B.DOTC
C.NEDA
D.DTI
48 The VRB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman and ____ members.
A.10
B.18
C.22
D.25
49 MTRCB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman and _____ members.
A.5
B.10
C.20
D.30

50 MTRCB law defines a Adult as a person ____ years of age and above.
A.18
B.19
C.20
D.21
51 For CATV system, prime time refers to the five-hour period from _____ local time.
A.6:00 to 11:00 pm
B.5:00 to 10:00 pm
C.4:00 to 9:00 pm
D.3:00 to 8:00 pm

52 In Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification for FM radio is from ______.

A.6AM to 8PM
B.9PM to 12MN
C.5AM to 6AM and 8PM to 9PM
D.12MN to 5AM
53 In Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed _____ minutes for one hour program.
A.10
B.15
C.20
D.25
54 KBP Radio Code requires each radio station a minimum of _____ of news per day.
A1hour
B.45minutes
C.2hours
D.1hour and 30minutes
55 Program iterruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed ____ breaks in
every program hour.
A.8
B.5
C.6
D.7
56 All station must have a minimum of ___ of news/day from 5:00AM to 10:00PM
A.50minutes
B.60minutes
C.30minutes
D.45minutes
57 Newscast is a distinct unit of program with minimum news content of ____ excluding intro, extro,
headline and commercial load.
A.1minute
B.2minutes
C.30seconds
D.1minute and 30seconds
58 TV stations is required atleast _____ newscast (aggregate total including advisories) per day during
weekends.
A.20minutes
B.40minutes
C.60minutes
D.30minutes
59 Which band is allocated to Short Range Radio Service in the country?
A.ELF
B.UHF
C.VHF
D.HF

60 What NTC memorandum circular regulates the Public Repeater Network Service?
A.MC 20-12-92
B.MC 10-18-90
C.MC 8-9-95
D. MC 11-9-93
61 What refers to a satellite system providing telecommunications services directly to end-users anywhere
in the globe form a constellation of satellites?
A.GSM
B.GPS
C.GMPCS
D.MSS
62 The National Telecommunications Commission can grant an authority to operate a cable television
system within the same franchise area covered by any Provisional Authority or Certificate of Authority
previously granted by the Commission within a minimum number of ____ years upon determination of
cause pursuant to EO 436.
A.5
B.3
C.2
D.4
63 What authority does NTC issue to a public telecommunications carrier applicant after it was issued
Congressional Franchise?
A.Permit to purchase
B.Radio station construction permit
C.Certificate of public convenience and necessity
D.Radio station license
64An entity providing transmission and switching of telecommunication services, primarily but not
limited to voice, in a geographical area anywhere in the country is called ______.
A.Franchisee
B.Value-added service operator
C.Public toll calling operator
D.Local exchange operator
65 Cable TV operator can lease or sub-lease its capacity if:
A. lessor is within the franchise area
B. he can generate capacity for lease
C. he has capacity
D. lessor can pay higher cost
66 Working main lines refers to the:
A.fiber optic lines used in telephone facilities
B.main telephone lines
C.broadband lines of telecommunications entities
D.main telephone switch
67 What refers to an NTC permit authorizing the holder thereof to process transmitter/s or transceiver/s as
described therein?

A.permit to purchase
B.permit to sell
C.permit to process
D.permit to operate
68 What refers to local exchange residence and business telephone service and telegraph service without
additional features?
A.Basic Telecommunication Service
B.basic telephony service
C.basic local carrier service
D.basic telecommunication access
69 What refers to the availability of reliable and affordable telecommunications service both urban and
rural areas of the Philippines?
A.National Access
B.Countrywide Access
C.Universal Access
D.Global Access
70 What refers to a permit issued by the NTC authorizing the holder thereof to engage to the acquisition,
servicing, maintenance, purchase or sale of transmitters and or transceivers, parts and accessories thereof?
A.radio communication equipment dealer permit
B.radio communication equiment manufacturer permit
C.service center operation permit
D.radio communication equipment service center permit
71 A series whose episodes have had no national network television exhibitions in the Philippines and no
regional network exhibition in the relevant market is known in CATV system as_____.
A.Off-network
B.Cablecasting
C.First-Run Series
D.First-Run No-series program
72 The installation or construction of a cable TV head-end station shall be directly supervised by a
registered ECE. The statement above is:
A.true
B.false
C.it depends upon the area of coverage
D.it depends upon the number of households using the CATV system
73 Which of the following shall be complied by an international shop pursuant to the global maritime
distress and safety system implemented last 1999?
A.A facsimile
B. A radio personnel
C. A Morse code
D. A radio telegraph operator
74 An entity, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of local exchange and
inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers enhanced services beyond those ordinarily
provided by such carriers is known as ________.
A.International carrier

B.Value-added service provider

C.inter-exchange carrier
D.Local exchange carrier
75 What refers to a privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by congress, authorizing an
entity to engage in a certain type of telecommunications service?
A.Authority to operate
B.Certificate of public convenience and necessity
C.franchise
D.provisional authority

GEAS MODULE 19:

1. What is used to determine whether the flow is laminar or turbulent? Reynolds number.
2. In a vacuum, a coin and a feather fall equally,side by side,what is the reason for this: The ratios of
their weights to masses are equal.
3. The following are all names of the element sulfur,except: Selenur.
4. Frederick Soddy named isotopes from the Greek word iso meaning: same place.
5. Plasma will become a very good conductor when a small amount of potassium salts or cesium
metal is added.
6. When is the effectivity of the Implementing Rules and Regulations of the Republic Act No.
9292? Oct. 2,2007
7. In chemistry, the lowest common multiple is: easiest to use when the charge from one ion is used
as the multiplier for the other ion.
8. Slug is a unit of: mass.
9. What is the unit of molar fraction? Unitless.
10. A synthesis of a large body of information that encompasses well-tested and verified hypotheses
about certain aspects of the natural world is called theory.
11. An astronaut is an orbiting spacecraft is weightless because: the spacecraft is in free fall.
12. An Invar is composed of what metals? Iron and Nickel.
13. What do you call the amount of energy needed to cause a reaction to happen? It is called the
activation energy level.
14. When was the Implementing Rules and Regulations (IRR) of the Republic Act 9292 approved by
the Professional Regulations Commission (PRC)? August 31, 2007
15. Which of the following is true about radio wave and sound wave? Radio wave travels faster than
sound wave.
16. Which of the ff. does not contain carbon? Table Salt
17. What is another term for German Nickel? Nickel Silver
18. A concentration of mass resulting from gravitational collapse, near which gravity is so intense
that not even light can escape. Black Hole
19. Which metal wins the friendliest award Iron
20. In astronomy, who named the black holes? Wheeler
21. The theorem which states that no engine operating between two temperatures can be more
efficient than a reversible engine is Carnots theorem.
22. A general hypothesis or statement about the relationship or natural quantities that has been tested
over and over again and has not been contradicted is called : Law.

23. A type of damage to provide for indirect losses incurred by an injure party but not directly related
to a contract is a consequential damage.
24. Which of the ff. is not a true statement about gases? Some gases take on very distinct shape.
25. Inelastic collision in which the colliding objects. A.)All choices are correct. B.) become distorted
C.) generated heat D.) possible stick together.
26. What is heavy water? Water made mostly from deuterium and oxygen
27. The color produced by a thin film results from: Interference
28. Barium is never used in: medicine
29. How many basic units are there in the SI system? 7
30. Which of the ff. element gropus are most widely known? Transistion metals
31. Gold is the most malleable and ductile metal
32. If you are located on the equator of the earth, how many times a year will the sun appear directly
overhead? 2 times
33. When a spectrum is formed by a prism, it is the violet light that is refracted most.
34. At what temperature (in degree C) will give water its highest density?4
35. What is the main constituent of natural gas? Methane
36. The electrons configuration of an atom describes the specific distribution of electrons in a
subshell
37. In hydrogeneation of alkenes in margarine manufacture, which catalyst is used? Nickel
38. Surface tension is the force that pulls molecules down and to the sides
39. If you take a barometer outside on a windy day, what happens to its reading? Lower than indoor
40. When can we say that a pulley is an ideal pulley? When it has no mass and no friction
41. Ionization energy of an element is the energy needed to detach an electron from an elemental
atom
42. Silicon makes up what percent of the earths elements? 25%
43. What do you call the elements found in group IIIA in the periodic table? Boron Family.
44. Sulfur is a member of the chalcogens
45. Red Brass is composed of what materials? Copper and zinc
46. In the petroleum industry, the separation of the different parts of naturally occurring crude oil and
the collection of many products is an example of Fractionation.
47. Who coined the word isotope? Soddy
48. Which of the ff. elements has the highest thermal conductivity? A.)Copper B.) Gold C.)
Aluminum D.) Zinc
49. Sodium hypochlorite is commonly called Bleach
50. The force exerted by a light beam on a elevated surface is twice the force exerted on a black
surface.
51. What is the electrical resistivity of the insulating metal mica in ohm-cm?10^15
52. Who postulates that the universe contains much dark matter? Rubin
53. It is impossible to cool a system to absolute zero. This is an equivalent statement of Third law
of thermodynamics
54. The pH of milk is roughly 6.4
55. The average position of mass on the single point associated with an object where all its mass can
be considered to be concentrated is called center of mass
56. How many pascals are there in 10 millibars? 1000

57. Which of the ff. elements has the highest thermal conductivity? Copper
58. The state of an object or systems of objects for which any impressed forces cancel to zero and no
acceleration occurs is called mechanical equilibrium.
59. A heat engine is a device that changes internal energy to mechanical work
60. Of the elements below, which one is the least conductor of electric current? A.)Aluminum
B.)Copper C.)Gold D.)Silver
61. If the volume of one mole of gas molecule remains constant, what will happen to the pressure if
the temperature is reduced? It will decreases
62. The modern concept of the atoms was developed by Ernest Rutherford
63. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper? Zinc
64. A tide occurs when the moon is midway in either direction. Neap tide
65. A wire fuse is usually made of what materials? Lead and Tin
66. Solar constant is the amount of power per square meter received from the star each second at the
top of the earths atmosphere on an area perpendicular to the rays of the sun. What is the
equivalent in kW per sq. m? 1.4
67. What refers to the phenomenon of melting under pressures and freezing again when the pressure
is reduced? Regelation
68. When an object is in translational equilibrium, it must be stationary
69. The number 501,000 has how many significant figures? 3
70. Since ethylene is a linear molecules, the two carbon form a triple bond of 180 degree angle
71. What law holds for gravity and for all phenomens wherein the effect from a localized source
spreads uniformly throughout the surrounding space? Inverse-square law
72. n object is in simple harmonic motion if its acceleration is proportional to displacement
73. The image formed by a convex mirror compared to the object is usually erect and smaller
74. Which of the ff. is the most acidic? Battery acid
75. In which of the ff. does sound travels the fastest? Iron
76. Which of the ff. is an insulator? A.) Glass B.)Silver C.)Aluminum D.)Copper
77. The 18 elements potassium(K) through Krypton (Kr) are found in period 4 of the periodic table
78. A skydiver jumps from an airplane. As he falls faster and faster through the air, his acceleration
decreases
79. The abre of energy quanta is proportional to frequency
80. Which metal reacts violently with cold water? Potassium
81. The ore of the hemoglobin molecules is Iron
82. What is otherwise known as E-commerce Act of the Philippines? R.A. 8792
83. In dropping from a high energy level to a lower one, the electron of a hydrogen atom emits a/an
Photon
84. Which of the ff. is true about Celsius degree and a Kelvin? They are equal
85. The entropy of the universe never decreases
86. A carnot is an ideal engine
87. How do electrons behave in metals? They float around in metal ions like broth
88. How many atomic nuclei are there in an oxygen atom? 1
89. Who proposed the first theory on the characteristics of individual atoms and particle? Dalton
90. What are parts of opposite theory? Oxidation and reduction

91. Elasticity is the property of a substance to recover to their original shape when the external
applied force is removed.
92. The simplest hydrocarbon molecule is methane
93. What is the maximum shear modulus of steel? 90Gpa
94. By how much does the gravitational force between two objects decreases when the distance
between their centers is doubled? One-fourth
95. Transuranic elements are not naturally occurring
96. In physics, Reynolds number is used to determine the type of flow of a liquid. It is the ratio of
inertial force to viscous force in a liquid.
97. What is the type of force which binds the protons and neutrons together in the nucleus of an
atom? Exchange force
98. A close system may refer to control mass
99. What refers to the point in which the bending moment changes sign through a zero value? Point
of contraflexure
100.
What is the most widely known carbide? Silicon carbide