ORAL SURGERY PART - I

1.
a.
b.
c.
d.
2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
3.
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
a.
b.
c.
d.
5.
a.
b.
c.
d.
6.
a.
b.
c.
d.
7.
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
a.
b.
c.
d.
9.
a.
b.
c.
d.
10.
a.

local anesthesia is ___ in local area

Loss of sensation of pain
Loss of sensation of pressure
Loss of sensation of heat/cold
All the above
____ is not an ideal property of ideal local
anesthetic
Reversible action
Low degree of toxicity
Non-irritating to tissue
Potent allergic reaction
Difference between amides and esters
amides - metabolized in liver
esters in plasma through soluble in
pseudocholinesterases
Esters cause allergic reaction
All of the above
Chemical structure of L.A
All are weak bases
Amine group on right side
Amine end is hydrophilic
All of the above
Factors affecting local reaction of L.A
Lipid solubility
PH influence
Vasodilation
All of the above
PH of L.A
3.5-4.5
4.5-5.5
6.5-7.5
7.5-8.5
Only L.A that act as vasoconstrictor
Lidocaine
Bupivacaine
Cocaine
All the above
____ and ____ significantly influence rate of
biotransformation of an amide
Liver function & hepatic perfusion
Kidney function & nephrotic perfusion
Lung function & pleural perfusion
None
Synthetic hormone with vasoconstrictor property
Atricaine
Cocaine
Felypressin
Lidocaine
How much of L.A should be given in PSA?
0.9-1.8 ml
NEVER QUIT..

b.
c.
d.
11.

2-3 ml
2.5-4 ml
0.2-0.3 ml
Rotary movement is used for the extraction of the
a) Mandibular canine.
b) Maxillary 1st premolar.
c) Mandibular molar.
d) None of the above.
12. According to Geoffrey Howe in a T.E. case maxillary
canine should be extracted
a) Before anteriors and premolars.
b) After anteriors and premolars.
c) Simultaneously.
d) Randomly
13. Dry socket is
a) Alvelo osteitis.
b) Osteomyelitis.
c) Cellulitis
d) None of the aabove.
14. A patient on aspirin therapy come for dental
extraction Extraction
a) Can be done immediately.
b) Done after 7 days.
c) Done after 7 days of stoppage of the aspirin.
d) Extraction contra indicated.
15. A pregnant patient indicated for extraction of teeth
should be placed on dental chair
a) In left lateral position.
b) In right lateral position.
c) In supine position.
d) Extraction contraindicated
16. Which type of third molar impaction is most common
a) Distoangular.
b) Buccoangular.
c) Mesioangular.
d) linguoangular.
17. Which tooth is most commonly impacted?
a) Maxillary 3rd molar.
b) Mandibular third molar.
c) Maxilary canine.
d) mandibular premolar.
18. Most difficult disimpaction is
a) Mesioangular
b) Distoangular.
c) Vertical.
d) Horizontal.

Page 1

ORAL SURGERY PART - I

19. The bevel side of the chisel during bone removal
should be facing
a) Towards the bone.
b) Away from the bone.
c) Any direction.
d) None of the above.
20. The relation of the mandibular molar to the inferior
alveolar canal is best determined by
a) Occlusal radiograph.
b) IOPA
c) Lateral oblique
d) Dentascan.
21. Most common complication of inferior alveolar nerve
block is
a) Trismus
b) Facial palsy
c) Haematoma
d) None of the above
22. Which of the following block anaesthesia procedure is
most likely to result in hematoma
a) mental nerve block
b) infraorbital nerve block
c) inferior alveolar nerve block
d) Posterior superior alveolar nerve block
23. Paresthesia of the lip results in
a) numbness in the area
b) hypersensitivity in the area
c) tingling sensation in the area
d) all of the above
24. Initial toxic reaction to xylocaine injection is
a) Twitching of the muscles
b) shivering
c) Talkativeness of patient
d) sleepy feeling
25. Trismus after inferior alveolar nerve block is most
likely due to
a) Hematoma formation
b) Damage to medial pterigoid
c) Injection into parotid gland
d) Injury to mandibular nerve
26. Adrenaline is added to local anesthetic agents because
it
a) Potentiate the action of all anesthetic agents
b) Increases the rate of destruction of local
anesthetic agent
c) Decrease the rate of absorption of local
anaesthetic at injection site
d) Prevents deterioration of anaesthetic solution
NEVER QUIT..

27. Toxic dose of lignocaine with adrenaline is

a) 5 mg/kg body wt
b) 10 mg/kg body wt
c) 15 mg/kg body wt
d) 20 mg/kg body wt
28. Of the following in which condition local anaesthesia
is ineffective
a) Edema
b) Localized infection
c) Hematoma
d) Anemia
29. All of the following areas become anaesthetized by
inferior alveolarar nerve block except
a) Lower incisors
b) Lower third molars
c) Buccal gingiva of mandibular second molars
d) Mandibular 2nd premolar
30. According to Mallampatirs grading, which of the
following presents maximum difficulty during intubation:
a) Class I
b) Class IV
c) Class III
d) Class V
31. All of the following are objectives of premedication
except
a) Amnesia
b) Reduction of stomach acidity and volume
c) Prophylaxis against allergies
d) Hypnosis
32. N2O use should be avoided especially drring_____
trimester of pregnancy
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) All
33. All are the complications of dental anaesthesia except
a) Hypoxia
b) Cardiac dusarrythemias
c) Angina pectoris
d) Mouth breathing
34. Finger sweep method is used for
a) Unconscious patients
b) Before inducing G A
c) Mandibular # pt.
d) None of the above
35. The sequence of events in hemostasis is

Page 2

ORAL SURGERY PART - I

a) Clot formation, retraction of clot, constriction of
vessel wall and platelet plug formation.
b) Constriction of vessel wall, platelet plug
formation, clot formation, retraction of clot.
c) Constriction of the vessel wall, clot formation,
platelet plug formation, retraction of clot.
d) None of the above.
36. The contact phase and extrinsic pathway of
coagulation respectively is screened by
a) BT & PTT.
b) BT & CT.
c) CT & PTT.
d) PTT &PT
37. The sequence of events in hemostasis is
a) Clot formation, retraction of clot, constriction of
vessel wall and platelet plug formation.
b) Constriction of vessel wall, platelet plug
formation, clot formation, retraction of clot.
c) Constriction of the vessel wall, clot formation,
platelet plug formation, retraction of clot.
d) None of the above.
38. Management of patients of Haemophilia A having
antibodies to factor VIII (Ig-G inhibitor) is done by all of
the
following except
a) Systemic EACA and traneseamic acid.
b) infusion of porcine factor VIII>
c) Plasmapheresis.
d) Desmopressin.
39. For patients on ora anticoagulants one of the
following is a good test for hemostatic mechanism
efficacy
a) Stoppage of oral anticoagulants.
b) Minor oral surgical procedures.
c) Tooth extraction.
d) Pt. shifted to heparin
40. Shock is depressed state of vital functions due to
inadequate tissue perfusion of vital organs due to
inefficient
a) Arteriolar circulation.
b) Capillary circulation.
c) Venular circulation.
d) All of the above.
41. Oligaemic shock proceeds in the following events if
not treated early
a) Renal conservation of blood volumereinforcement of total blood volume-adrenergic
discharge- organ failure of shock- cardiac arrest.
NEVER QUIT..

b) Adrenergic discharge, renal conservation of

blood volume, reinforcement of total blood
volume, organ failure of shock, cardiac arrest.
c) Adrenergic discharge, reinforcement of total
blood volume, renal conservation of blood
volume, organ failure of shock, cardiac arrest.
d) none of the above.
42. In the management of haematogenic shock in
replacement of blood loss, RBCs serve important
physiologic
functions because
a) Being the largest molecule in fluid.
b) Provide high osmolarity
c) Prevent extravascular escape of fluid which is
transfused.
d) All of the above.
43. Chances of gram negative shock are increased after
the procedures or conditions like
a) After tracheostomy.
b) Monitoring catheter placed for prolonged time.
c) Septic abortion.
d) All of the above.
44. Le Fort III fracture is the same as
A. Craniofacial dysjunction
B. Guerrin's fracture
C. Pyramidal fracture
D. None of the above
45. Which of the following is not included in the
Glassgow coma scale
A. Eye opening
B. Motor response
C. Verbal response
D. Pupil size
46. CSF rhinorrhea is found in :
A. Frontal bone structure
B. Zygomatico maxillary fracture
C. Naso ethmoidal fracture
D. Condylar fracture
47. After fracture of middle cranial foramen there
is epiphora this is due to damage of:
A. Ciliary ganglion
B. Greater palatine nerve
C. Infraorbital nerve
D. None of the above
48.The first step in management of head injury is :
A. Secure airway
B. I.V. mannitol

Page 3

ORAL SURGERY PART - I

C. I.V. dexamethasone
D. Blood transfusion
49.Which of the following is not a feature of Le
Fort II fracture :
A. Enophthalmos
B. Malocclusion
C. Paraesthesia
D. CSF rhinorrhea
50.Gillis approach for reduction of zygomatic
fractures is done through
A. Temporal fossa
B. Intra temporal fossa
C. Infra orbital fossa
D. All of the above
51.Guerin fracture is :
A. Maxillary fracture
B. Maxillary and zygomatic fracture
C. Maxillary and nasal bone fracture
D. Nasal bone fracture only
52. A fracture of eye by a ping pong boll is
A. Blow out fracture
B. Orbital fracture
C. Blow in fracture
D. Compound fracture
53. CSF rhinorrhea is not found in
A. LEFORT I
B. LEFORT II
C. LEFORT III
D. ethmoidal .
54."Panda facies" is commonly seen after
A. Le fort I fractures
B. Le fort II fractures
C. Mandible fractures
D. None of the above
55.Walsham's forceps are used to :
A. Remove teeth
B. Remove root
C. Clamp blood vessels
D. Reduce nasal bone fractures
56. A patient is in shock with gross comminuted
fracture, immediate treatment is to give :
A. Normal saline
B. Ringer's lactate solution
C. Whole blood
D. Plasma expanders

NEVER QUIT..

57. Forceps used for maxillary fracture

disimpaction
A. Rowe's
B. Bristows
C. Ashs
D. Walshams
58. Paresthesia is seen with which of the following
types of fractures:
A. Subcondylar
B. Zygomatico maxillary
C. Coronoid process
D. Symphyseal
59. Diplopia is most common with :
A. Mandibular fracture
B. Craniofacial dysjunction
C. Nasal fractures
D. Zygomatico maxillary complex
60. Suturing in facial wound injuries should be
done with in:
A. 2 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 8 hours
61. The "hanging drop appearance in the maxillary
sinus radiograph indicates :
A. A nasal polyp
B. A blow out # of the orbit
C. A radiograph artifact
D. An antrolith
62. Le fort 1 fracture is characterized by:
A. Bleeding from the ear
B. Bleeding from the antrum
C. Angle class 2 skeletal relationship
D. None of the above
63. Which is the immediate danger to a patient
with severe facial injuries
A. Bleeding
B. Associated fracture spine
C. infection
D. respiratory obstruction.
64. The safest initial approach to open airway of
patient with maxillofacial trauma is
A. Head tilt-chin tilt
B. Jaw thrust technique
C. Head lift-neck lift
D. Heimlich procedure
65.In depressed zygomatic arch fracture, difficulty
Page 4

ORAL SURGERY PART - I

in opening the mouth is caused by impingement
of:
A. Condyles
B. Ramus
C. Petrous temporal
D. Coronoid process
66.True open bite is caused by :
A. Horizontal fracture of the maxilla
B. Unilateral fracture of mandibular angle
C. Fracture of the coronoid process of left side of
mandible
D. Fracture of mandibular symphysis
67.All of the following statements of nasal
fractures are true except:
A. Even if minor, they may be followed by
bilateral ecchymosis and facial
oedema
B. They may need to be reduced for a few weeks
C. They need not be complicated by traumatic
telecanthus
D. They may lead to the telescoping of the nasal
complex into the frontal sinus
68.Fixation with pack in maxillary sinus is
A. To support comminuted fracture of the body of
zygomatic complex
B. To support and reconstitute comminuted orbital
floor fracture
C. To protect mucosal covering of maxillary sinus
D. (A) and (B) are correct
69. Floating maxilla is typically found in :
A. Le Fort I or guerin fractures
B. Le Fort II or pyramidal fractures
C. Craniomandibular dysjunction
D. All of the above
70. In a patient of head njury which is more
important to note first:
A. Pupillary light reflex
B. Pupillary size
C. Corneal reflex
D. Ability to open eye
71.Which of the following always indicates
obstruction to the airway?
A. Slow pounding pulse
B. Stertoreous breathing
C. Increase in pulse rate
D. Decrease in blood pressure
72. Moon face is seen in
NEVER QUIT..

A. Le Fort I
B. Le Fort II
C. Le Fort III
D. Orbital fractures
73. Whitehead's varnish in gauze is used to arrest
bleeding from
A. Gingival crest
B. Bleeding from pulp
C. Bleeding from bone
D. Bleeding from capillaries
74. In blow out fractures which of the following is
seen
A. Enophthalmos
B. Exophtholmos
C. Bulbar hemorrhage
D. None
75. Gillis approach is used in
A. Open reduction of zygomatic fracture
B. Mandible
C. Closed reduction of zygomatic fracture
D. None of the above
76. Le Fort II fracture is called
A. Guerin
B. Pyramidal
C. Floating
D. Cranial disjunction
77. Diplopia after fracture results fro entrapment
of
A. Inferior rectus
B. Inferior oblique
C. Lateral rectus
D. Superior oblique
78. In Le Fort III fracture all are seen except
A. Crack pot sound on tapping teeth
B. CSF rhinorrhea
C. Fracture at frontozygomatic suture
D. Whole face is mobile
E. None of the above
79. The muscle that aids in displacement of
maxillary fractures are
A. Masseter
B. Temporalis
C. Orbicularis oculi and orbicularis oris
D. None of the above
80. Hooding of eyes is seen in which fracture :
A. Le Fort 1
Page 5

ORAL SURGERY PART - I

B. Le Fort 2
C. Le Fort 3
D. Nasal bone
81. In the symphysis # medial displacement is due
to
a) Mylohyoid muscle.
b) Muscles attached to the genial tubercles.
c) Hyoglossus.
d) Both a and b.
82. All are true except
a) Presence of teeth on the proximal segment of #
line reduces chances of displacement.
b) Severe tear of musculature and overlying soft
tissues permit wider displacement.
c) There is more displacement of #ed segment in
ramus # than in the # of the body of mandible.
d) Direction of # line has effect on displacement..
83. Closed reduction is not indicated in
a) Nondisplaced favourable #.
b) Soft tissue overlying the # site.
c) Coronoid process #.
d) Severely atrophic edentulous mandible.
84. Ideal treatment of # of angle of mandible is
a) Transosseous wiring.
b) Intermaxillary fixation.
c) Plating on lateral side of body of mandible.
d) Plating at the inferior border of mandible.
85. Displaced mandibular fracture in a child
should be managed by
a) Circum mandibular wiring.
b) Early mobilization.
c) Intermaxilary fixation.
d) Transosseous wiring.
86. Deviation of the mandible to the right side may
suggest
a) # of left condyle.
b) Hyperplasia of right condyle.
c) Hyperplasia of left condyle.
d) # of right condyle.
87. Anterior open bite is seen in
a) Unilateral condylar #.
b) Bilateral condylar #
c) Maxillary #
d) Coronoid #
88. Condition where healed # is malpositioned but
functionally accept is called
a) Dysarthrosis
b) Meta arthrosis
c) Pseudo arthrosis
d) None of the above
NEVER QUIT..

89. Untrue of myofunction dysfunction syndrome

is
a) Common in females.
b) Patient in middle age are affected more
commonly.
c) Radiographically and histologically detectable
changes present
d) More in early hours of day.
90. The Al-kayat and Bramely approach to the tmj
is a modification of the
a) Hemi-coronal approach.
b) Preauricular approach.
c) Retroauricular approach.
d) Risdons approach.
91. Ankylosis of TMJ is best treated by
a) Sclerosing solution.
b) Actice mouth exercise
c) Codylectomy
d) Intra-articular injections of hydro cortisone.
92. Of the following which is not the structural
element of tmj?
a) Joint cavities.
b) Sigmoid notch
c) Condyloid process
d) Articular disc
93. Following clinical disease process afftects tmj
directly.
a) Ankylosis.
b) Dislocation.
c) Arthritis
d) All of the above.
94. Most common disorder causing pain about the
masticatory apparatus including the tmj is
a) Trigeminal neuralgia.
b) Degenerative arthritis
c) Traumatic arthritis
d) MPDS>
95. Most common cause of TMJ ankylosis
a) Rheumatoid arthritis.
b) Osteoarthritis
c) Trauma
d) Childhood disease.
96. Early movement of TMJ following surgery for
tmj ankylosis
a) Desirable
b) Contra indicated
c) Harmful
d) Both band c.
97. Infracranial view for TMJ is also called as
a) Watersview
Page 6

ORAL SURGERY PART - I

b) Zimmers view
c) Mequeen view
d) Lateral view.
98. Which of the following is a psycho
physiologic disorder
a) Marfans syndrome.
b) MPDS
c) Marie Strumpbell disease
d) Treacher Collins syndrome.
99. Which is incorrect of hemorrhagic shock?
a.
Approx blood volume in 90
kg man is 6.3 litres.
b.
Approx blood volume of 20
kg child is 1.6 litres.
c.
Blood loss up to 15% in an
adult will show no signs.

NEVER QUIT..

d.

With a loss of 1500 mls of

blood infusion of 3000 mls of crystalloid will
be needed to normalize parameters.
100. Which facial view xray is the best for
examining the orbits and midface?
a)
OPG
b)
Waters or occipitomental
c)
Caldwell or PA view
d)
Submental vertex

Page 7