MULTIPLE CHOICE

Questions in
COMMUNICATIONS
CERTII-CONSOLIDATED ENGINEERING REVIEW & TRAINING INSTITUTE, INC.

Encoded by:

VILLAMAYOR, DON RYAN M.

ECE-4/2006103613
ECE003/C12

COMMUNICATIONS
1. In reducing the voltage by , there is a decrease of _____.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
2. A measure if mismatch in a transmission line.
a. Reflection coefficient
b. Propagation delay
c. Standing wave ratio
d. All of these
3. Which type of transmission line has the least velocity factor?
a. Air-insulated parallel line
b. Air insulated coaxial line
c. Polyethylene parallel line
d. Polyethylene coaxial line
4. It is required to match a 73 ohm antenna to a 600 ohm transmission line, with a velocity
factor of 0.66, by means of a quarter-wave matching transformer. At a frequency of 150
MHz, calculate the length of matching section, in feet.
a. 2,2
b. 0.8
c. 1.0
d. 1.8
5. A transmitter radiates 5 kW with unmodulated carrier but when the carrier is sinusoidally
modulated, it radiates 6.5 kW. Now, another sinewave corresponding to 40% modulation
is transmitted simultaneously. Determine the total radiated power.
a. 6.9 kW
b. 6.5 kW
c. 6.4 kW
d. 7.6 kW
6. A circuit which is used to keep the signal levels approximately constant in the RF stage
and the mixer of an FM receiver.
a. AGC
b. AFC
c. Local oscillator
d. Limiter
7. The highest frequency that can be set back to earth by the ionosphere, if the wave is sent
vertically upward.
a. Maximum Usuable Frequency (MUF)
b. Critical frequency
c. Propagating frequency
d. Cut-off frequency
8. The difference between the farthest point the direct wave extend and the nearest point the
sky wave reflected to ground.
a. Skip distance

b. Radio horizon distance

c. Dead zone
d. Fresnel zone
9. Power density is defined as radiated power per unit area, it follows that power density is
reduced to of its value when distance from the source is____.
a. Double
b. Three-fold
c. Four-fold
d. Five fold
10. If the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the second Fresnel zone, the path of the
reflection wave is physically _____ wavelength longer than the direct wave.
a. One-half
b. One
c. Two
d. three
11. Attached around the rim of the parabolic antenna to eliminate side-lobes causing
interference to nearby microwave station.
a. Radome
b. Feed-horn
c. Reflector
d. shroud
12. It is polar diagram representing field strengths or power densities at various angular
positions
a. Lobe
b. Radiation pattern
c. Beamwidth
d. All of these
13. The gain of a Hertzian dipole with respect to an isotropic antenna.
a. 4.15 dB
b. 2.15 dB
c. 1.76 dB
d. 5.15 dB
14. A kind of noise in the form of randomly occurring spikes.
a. White noise
b. Impulse noise
c. Johnson noise
d. Thermal noise
15. Sound intensity varies directly to square of
a. Velocity
b. Density
c. Pressure
d. frequency
16. Rarefraction produces
a. crest
b. sound
c. vibration

d. trough
17. What are the basic components of a microphone?
a. Coil and magnet
b. Ceramic and crystal
c. Diaphragm and generating element
d. Wired and body
18. A cause for ghost and smears
a. Multipath reception
b. Open transmission line
c. Improperly positioned antenna
d. All of these
19. An FM broadcast station with an ERP of not more than 35 kW.
a. Clear channel
b. Class A
c. Class B
d. Regional Channel
20. In television-receiver, the alignment of all these colors guns to a common point is
referred to as _____.
a. Confetti
b. Convergence
c. Demodulation
d. blooming
21. It is a form of digital modulation where the digital information is contained in both the
amplitude and phase of the transmitted carrier.
a. QAM
b. FSK
c. PCM
d. PSK
22. An error detection scheme that uses parity to determine if transmission error has occurred
in a message.
a. CRC
b. VRC
c. HRC
d. All of the above
23. Synchronization modem usually contains a
a. Scrambler
b. Descrambler
c. Adaptive equalizers
d. All of the above
24. For a standard voice band communications channel with a S/N of 30 dB and a bandwidth
of 2.7 kHz, the Shannon limit for information capacity is _______.
a. 8.1 kbps
b. 12.4 kbps
c. 4.03 kbps
d. 26.9 kbps
25. A T3 carrier time division multiplexes _______ PCM-encoded voice channels.

a. 692
b. 672
c. 96
d. 4032
26. In this mode, a secondary station can not initiate transmission without first receiving
permission from the primary station.
a. NRM (Normal Response Mode)
b. ARM (Asynchronous Response Mode)
c. ABM (Asynchronous Balanced Mode)
d. LAP (Link Access Protocol)
27. With bit-oriented protocol, a frame starts with a ______.
a. Pad
b. Start bit
c. Flag
d. header
28. The controller provides
a. queueing
b. line querying
c. companding
d. buffering
29. A radar equipment located near the runway designed to accurately locate an airplane with
300 ft of range.
a. ASR
b. PAR
c. ILS
d. ARSR
30. A circuit in a radar used to allow an antenna to function as a transmitting and a receiving
antenna.
a. Diplexer
b. Duplexer
c. Combiner
d. Matrix
31. Is an electronically steerable antenna.
a. Yagi-Uda
b. Log Periodic
c. Phased Array
d. None of these
32. The ratio of the focal length to the mouth diameter of the parabola is called _______.
a. Aperture Number
b. Aperture diameter
c. Effective area
d. Aperture
33. Is an array antenna which has its maximum main beam directed along the axis of the
array.
a. Antenna array
b. End-fire array

c. Broadside array
d. None of these
34. The dish antenna is operating at 10 Ghz frequency. What is the directivity if the reflector
is 5m at 65% efficiency?
a. 18.703 dB
b. 42.67 dB
c. 13.6 dB
d. 12.2 dB
35. It uses a hyperboloid secondary reflector.
a. Double reflector
b. Waveguide feed horn
c. Feed horn
d. Cassegrain feed
36. When a waveguide is terminated by a horn, it is called ______.
a. Feed antennas
b. Horn antennas
c. Feed horn
d. None of these
37. Radio waves are collected by the large bottom surface which is a slightly curved and are
reflected upward at an angle of 45o, upon hitting the top surface which is large hyperbolic
cylinder, they are reflected downward to the focal point and collected by the conical horn
placed at the focus.
a. Horn antennas
b. Helical antennas
c. Discone antennas
d. Cass-horn antennas
38. Calculate the effective length of an antenna which has directive gain over an isotropic
antenna of 17 dB and a radiation resistance of 350 ohms at a frequency of 144 MHz.
a. 8 m
b. 10 m
c. 5 m
d. 7 m
39. Calculate the angular aperture for a paraboloid reflector antennas for which the aperture
number 0.48.
a. 37o
b. 55o
c. 65o
d. 28o
40. Is made up of one or more turns of wire on a frame which may be rectangular or circular,
and is very much smaller than one wavelength across.
a. Circular antennas
b. Helical antennas
c. Loop antennas
d. None of these
41. Is the radio-frequency current on the antenna with no modulation.

a. Carrier current
b. Antenna current
c. Current
d. None of these
42. Channels for FM broadcast station begin at ____ MHz and continue is successive steps of
200 kHz to and including 107.9 MHz
a. 89.1
b. 88.1
c. 89.9
d. None of these
43. The carrier which is modulated by the chrominance information.
a. Carrier frequency
b. IF frequency
c. Chrominance subcarrier
d. Color burst
44. The transmission of television signal which can be reproduced is gradations of a single
color only.
a. Monochrome transmission
b. Negative transmission
c. Color transmission
d. Video transmission
45. The carrier frequency allocated by the authority.
a. Frequency swing
b. High frequency
c. Center frequency
d. IF frequency
46. Serving as a control signal for use in the reception of FM stereophonic broadcast.
a. IF frequency
b. Pilot sub-carrier
c. RF frequency
d. Carrier frequency
47. The peak difference between the instantaneous frequency of the modulated wave and
carrier frequency.
a. Modulated index
b. Frequency deviation
c. Modulating frequency
d. Percentage modulation
48. AM Broadcast station licensed for aural or _____ transmission intended for direct
reception by the general public and operated on a channel in the medium frequency band.
a. Video
b. Carrier
c. Sound
d. Power
49. Is necessary to bring the main vertical beam tangential to the earth, which is curving
away from it.
a. Radio horizon

b. Take off angle

c. Money
d. Beam tilt
50. In Metro Manila and Metro Cebu, the maximum effective radiated power of 350 kW for
channel 2-6 and ____ kW for channel 7-13 are allowed.
a. 1,000
b. 5000
c. 500
d. 250
51. ______ are transmission circuits interconnecting two different switching centers.
a. Toll center
b. Trunk circuits
c. Hybrid circuits
d. Intertoll circuits
52. The phone system begins with ______, which is the pair of wires that connects the central
office to the users phone.
a. Loop extenders
b. Local change
c. Switching office
d. Local loop
53. When you dial the digit 8, the corresponding low and high group tones are generated
by the phone and sent to the central office are______.
a. 852 and 1336 Hz
b. 770 and 679 Hz
c. 941 and 1477 Hz
d. 770 and 1209 Hz
54. A signal travels via cables (propagation velocity 0.7 c) from New York to Los Angeles, a
distance of 3000 miles. What are the talker echo and listener echo times?
a. 46 ms and 78 ms
b. 38 ms and 69 ms
c. 46 ms and 69 ms
d. 38 ms and 78 ms
55. The word telephone is derived from the Greek word tele, meaning _____, and phone,
meaning ________.
a. Type, audio
b. Far, sound
c. Scope, sound
d. Far, handset
56. What are the second harmonics of the tones for the digit 3?
a. 1540, 2954 Hz
b. 1394, 2954 Hz
c. 770, 1209 Hz
d. 1714, 1852 Hz
57. A European unit of the traffic intensity equal to 1/30 of an Erlang.
a. Call second
b. EBHC

c. Erlang
d. Call minute
58. A two state switching device containing one or more elements that have a low
transmission impedance in one state and a very high one in the others.
a. Crosspoint
b. Coordinate switch
c. Folded Network
d. Expansions
59. Is the representation of a speech signal or other analog signal by sampling at a regular
rate and converting each sample to binary numbers.
a. QAM
b. FSK
c. PCM
d. PAM
60. A murray loop is connected to locate a ground in cable between two cities 64 km apart.
The lines forming the loop are identical. With the bridge balanced, R1 = 645 ohms and
R2 = 476 ohms. How far is the grounded point (p) from the test end.
a. 35.45 km
b. 26.28 km
c. 72.06 km
d. 54.35 km
61. Refers to the specific of how these various waves travel under different circumstances.
a. Scatter
b. Propagation
c. Waveguide propagation
d. radiation
62. Travel in a straight line from the transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna.
a. Ground wave
b. Scatter
c. Space wave
d. Sky wave
63. Are intended to pass through the earths ionosphere and into space, or travel from a
spaced-based transmitter to a receiver on the ground.
a. Satellite waves
b. Ground waves
c. Line of sight
d. None of these
64. Ducting is also called____.
a. Super ducting
b. Superrefraction
c. Superdiffraction
d. refraction
65. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate by means of
a. Ground wave
b. Surface wave
c. Sky wave

d. Space wave
66. An electromagnetic wave travel in free space, only one of the following can happen to
them.
a. Absorption
b. Attenuation
c. Refraction
d. reflection
67. VLF waves are for some types of services because
a. Of low powers required
b. They are very reliable
c. The transmitting antennas are of convenient size
d. They penetrate the ionosphere easily
68. A region where the air pressure is so low that the free electron and ions can move about
for some time without getting close enough to recombine into neutral atoms.
a. Ionosphere
b. Troposphere
c. Sky
d. Sky wave propagation
69. ________ is the distance between two wave fronts having the same phase at any given
instant.
a. Wavefront
b. Wavelength
c. Wave distance
d. Field intensity
70. Modulation is used to ________.
a. Increase the carrier power
b. Reduce bandwidth used
c. Allow the use of practical antennas
d. Shorten the transmission channel
71. A pre-emphasis circuit improves the signal-to-noise of an FM signal by __________.
a. Amplifying the higher audio frequency
b. Boosting the bass frequency
c. Amplifying the whole frequency
d. Increase the carrier power
72. In an AM broadcast super heterodyne receiver, the
a. Local oscillator operates below the signal frequency
b. Mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency
c. Local oscillator frequency normally double the IF
d. RF amplifiers normally works at 455 kHz above the carrier frequency
73. Carriers are spaced at 20 kHz, beginning at 100 kHz. Each carrier is modulated by a
signal with 5 kHz bandwidth. Is there interference from sideband overlap?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Maybe
d. Sure

74. The modulated peak value of a signal is 10 V and the unmodulated carrier value is 8V.
What is the modulated index?
a. 0.80
b. 0.25
c. 0.50
d. 0.75
75. What is the maximum suppression for a phase error of 2o?
a. 41.2 dB
b. 35.2 dB
c. 23.6 dB
d. 12.7 dB
76. An information signal that is sent directly without modulating any carrier is called
_________.
a. Modulating frequency
b. Baseband AM
c. Carrier frequency
d. Broadband AM
77. Superheterodyne receiver was invented by
a. A.H. Armstrong
b. H.E. Armstrong
c. E.H. Armstrong
d. H.A. Armstrong
78. Convert the RF signal to the intermediate frequency,
a. Mixer
b. Local oscillator
c. Mixer and local oscillator
d. Mixer and IF stage
79. ______ is a very important part of the receiving system.
a. RF amplifier
b. Mixer
c. Detector
d. AGC
80. The frequency used for out of band signaling under CCITT standard.
a. 3825 Hz
b. 3700 Hz
c. Both a and b
d. Either a and b
81. The following are advantages of the optical fiber except _____.
a. Greater capacity
b. Crosstalk immunity
c. Safer to handle
d. Lower initial cost of installation
82. The frequencies used for fiber optic system
a. 1014 to 1015 Hz
b. 107 to 1010 Hz
c. 109 to 1012 Hz

d. 1011 to 1011 Hz
83. Plastic fibers have the following advantage over glass fiber:
a. Flexibility
b. Ruggedness
c. Ease of installation
d. Low attenuation
84. A site that contains the cellular radio equipment. It can have one or more _____.
a. Base
b. Central Business District
c. boundary
d. Coverage
85. A modulated method using frequency changes to transmit data. Usually only two
frequencies are used.
a. FM
b. GSM
c. FSK
d. FCC
86. Is contained in the NAM (Number Assignment Module)
a. ERP
b. FDMA
c. DTMF
d. ESN
87. The amount of attenuation present in a waveguide is due to _________.
a. The air dielectric filling the guide
b. The fine coating of silver inside
c. Losses the conducting walls of the guide
d. I2R loss
88. The advantage of microwave baseband repeater over heterodyne repeater is:
a. It improve noise performance
b. It increase power output
c. It provide drops and inserts
d. All of these
89. The correctness and accuracy of the transmitted message content is:
a. Verified by the modem
b. Determined by the sender and receiver, not by the communications system.
c. Ensured by use of digital techniques
d. All of these
90. Transmission of binary signals requires ________.
a. Less bandwidth than analog
b. More bandwidth than analog
c. The same bandwidth as analog
d. A license from the FAA
91. Which of the following is a characteristic of a LAN?
a. Parallel transmission
b. Unlimited expansion
c. Low cost access for low bandwidth channels

d. Application independent interfaces

92. ADF means
a. Audio Direction Findings
b. Automatic Direction Finder
c. Automatic Detection Finder
d. Alternate Detection Form
93. A navigational system which employs gyroscopes, accelerometers and associated
electronics to sense burning rates and accelerations associated with the rotation of the
earth.
a. CNS
b. INS
c. GPS
d. VOR
94. It is referred to as the range and azimuth display.
a. A-scan
b. B-Scan
c. C-Scan
d. PPI
95. GCA operates with:
a. DME
b. Master and slave stations
c. Ground-based radar
d. Local radio stations
96. Bass response means:
a. Maximum high frequency response
b. Emphasizing the high audio frequencies
c. By passing high audio frequencies
d. By passing low audio frequencies
97. Sound intensity varies directly to the square of:
a. Density
b. Velocity
c. Pressure
d. frequency
98. Audience per person usually have an absorption coefficient in unit pert sq. ft. of :
a. 3.5
b. 4.7
c. 6.7
d. 7.4
99. Early reflected sound is also called as:
a. Echo
b. Reverberation
c. Pure sound
d. Intelligible sound
100. The optimum reverberation time for a 6000 cu. Ft. room is about:
a. 2.0 sec
b. 1.5 sec

c. 1.1 sec
d. 1.0 sec

dB / Transmission Lines
1. If the 10% of the microwave power is reflected at the mismatch, find the return loss.
a. 0.1 dB
b. 10 dBm
c. -10 dB
d. -10 dBm
2. If the return loss is 20 dB, find the present reflected power.
a. 1%
b. 10%
c. 5%
d. 20%
3. Convert ten times bigger to the equivalent numerical dB
a. 20 dB
b. 15 dB
c. 5 dB
d. 10 dB
4. Convert one-half as large to equivalent numerical dB
a. 3 dB
b. -3 dB
c. 2 dB
d. -2 dB
5. Special semiconductor diode use for electronically adjustable attenuation
a. Ideal diode
b. PIN diode
c. Zener diode
d. Tunel diode
6. A 50 ohm line is probed and found to have a SWR of 2.6, what are the two possible
quarter wave transformers sizes that may be used to match the load to the line of the
transformer are properly positioned.
a. 22 ohm, 82 ohm
b. 31 ohm, 80.5 ohm
c. 26.2 ohm, 12.71 ohm
d. 12.32 ohm, 26.7 ohm
7. A balanced load of 900 ohm pure resistance is fed through a balanced 600 ohm
transmission line which is 90 electrical degree long. The balanced 600 ohm transmission
line is in turn fed from a 50 ohm coaxial line by means of a half-wave balancing section.
What is the standing wave ratio on the 600 ohm line?
a. 1.0
b. 2.5
c. 1.5
d. 2.0
8. Given cascaded circuit; first stage is a filter circuit with insertion loss of 3 dB, followed
by an amplifier with a gain of 10 dB and followed by cable having an insertion loss of 1
dB. If the input power of the filter circuit is 1 mW, find the total insertion loss.
a. 6 dBm

b. 5 dBm
c. 7 dBm
d. 2 dBm
9. For a short circuited line or open circuited line, the standing wave ratio value is always
_____.
a. Unity
b. Infinity
c. Zero
d. Cannot be determined
10. If the voltage reading at a particular section of a transmission line is maximum, the
current reading should be:
a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Average
d. Zero
11. If five signals entered to an X-device at 3 dBm each, find the output power in dBm.
a. 12 dBm
b. 11 dBm
c. 10 dBm
d. 8 dBm
12. Given incident power of 0.4 mW and insertion loss of 3 dB, find the transmitted power.
a. 0.2 mW
b. 0.3 mW
c. 0.4 mW
d. 0.5 mW
13. The reflected voltage and reflected current along the transmission line are always:
a. 180o out of phase
b. In phase
c. Same value
d. 90o in phase
14. If the direction of the reflection coefficient is 90o, the nature of the lien is,
a. Resistive
b. Purely inductive
c. Purely capacitive
d. None of these
15. What are the three types of microwave transmission line?
a. Coaxial cable, open wire line, waveguide
b. Coaxial cable, stripline, waveguide
c. Open-wire line, waveguide, coaxial line
d. None of these
16. If the incident power is -27 dBm and insertion loss of 20 dB, find for the transmitted
power.
a. 12 dBm
b. 7 dBm
c. 2 dBm
d. 0 dBm

17. Energy applied to a transmission line may become dissipated before reaching the load.
a. Radiation
b. Conductor heating
c. Dielectric heating
d. All of the above
18. The velocity of light is very nearly 3 x 108 m/s in a vacuum and ___ in all other media.
a. Higher
b. Slower
c. Same
d. All of these
19. At a point exactly a quarter-wavelength from the load, the current is ______.
a. 180 degrees in of phase
b. 180 degrees out of phase
c. Permanently zero
d. None of these
20. Is a piece of transmission line which is normally short-circuited at the far end.
a. Terminator
b. Stub
c. Quarter wave transformer
d. None of these
21. For high frequencies, the best dielectric may be_______.
a. Polyethylene
b. Polyethylene foam
c. Teflon
d. None of these
22. Characteristic impedance are sometimes called _______.
a. Ohmic resistance
b. Surge impedance
c. Wave impedance
d. None of these
23. A transmission line is connected to a mismatched load. Calculate the VSWR in dB if the
reflection coefficient is 0.25
a. 2.6 dB
b. 1.67 dB
c. 4.3 dB
d. 3.6 dB
24. Is a power tool for the RF design
a. Calculator
b. Graphical solution
c. Smith chart
d. None of these
25. When will the system encounter a tremendous increase of interference.
a. When return loss is 0 dB
b. When the incident power is higher than the reflected
c. When the transmission line used is coaxial cable
d. None of these

26. In a two-stage amplifier, amplifier 1 has a noise figure of 3 dB and a gain of 20 dB. The
second amplifier has a noise figure of 6 dB. Find the total noise figure.
a. 3.1 dB
b. 4.2 dB
c. 2.6 dB
d. 2.27 dB
27. If the return loss is 13 dB, find the equivalent SWR.
a. 1.6
b. 3.2
c. 1.56
d. 2.6
28. Which of the following will you choose in order to minimize mismatch?
a. SWR = 1.4
b. T1 = 0.81
c. Return loss = 20 dB
d. None of these
29. If the equipment has input power of 33 dBm, what is the gain of the resulting output
power is 10 dBm.
a. -26 dBm
b. -23 dBm
c. -33 dBm
d. 33 dBm
30. A stripline transmission line is built on a 4 mm thick printed wiring board that has a
relative dielectric constant of 5.5. Calculate the characteristics impedance of the width of
the strip is 2 mm.
a. 256 ohms
b. 321 ohms
c. 126 ohms
d. 425.35 ohms
31. A 50 ohms transmission line is connected to a 30 ohm resistive load. Calculate reflection
coefficient.
a. 0.35
b. 0.25
c. 0.10
d. 0.15
32. The term _________ implies a sine wave of constant amplitude, phase and frequency.
a. Steady state
b. State of constant
c. State of calamity
d. Constant sine wave
33. Is defined as the ratio of the reflected signal to the incident signal.
a. VSWR
b. SWR
c. Reflection coefficient
d. None of these

34. It is a measure of one way loss of power in a transmission line due to reflection from the
load.
a. Return loss
b. Transmission loss
c. Propagation loss
d. None of these
35. If the velocity factor is equal to 0.66, the speed of light will be_____.
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Same
d. None of these
36. In 1939, _________ published a graphical device for solving transmission line design.
a. Phillip A. Smith
b. Phillip R. Smith
c. Phillip H. Smith
d. Phillip S. Smith
37. In order to make the smith chart universal, the impedances along the pure resistance line
are _________.
a. Normal
b. Normalized
c. Open circuit
d. Short circuit
38. Calculate the gain off an amplifier with an input power 10 kW and an output power of
200 kW.
a. 15 dB
b. 13 dB
c. 20 dB
d. 10 dB
39. A perfect termination for a transmission line.
a. Receiving end
b. Load
c. Antenna
d. Terminal end
40. It can be measured, and includes losses due to reflection and absorption inside the
component
a. Fading
b. Attenuation
c. Insertion loss
d. Return loss
41. A component that samples the microwave signal traveling in one direction down a
transmission line
a. Isolator
b. Directional coupler
c. Combiner
d. attenuator

42. A transmission line having air dielectric is operated at a frequency of 110 MHz. What is
the phase shift constant of the line is degrees per inch?
a. 2.56
b. 3.35
c. 4.6
d. 1.25
43. Consider the three networks in series, the first is an attenuator with a 12 dB loss, the
second network is an amplifier with 35 dB gain, and the third has an insertion loss of 10
dB. The input of the first network is 4 mW; what is the output of the third network in
watts?
a. 0.798 W
b. 0.00798 W
c. 0.0798 W
d. 798 W
44. Is a power level related to 1 mW.
a. dB
b. dBm
c. dBM
d. dBW
45. A transmission unit used in a number of Northern European countries as an alternative to
the decibel is ________.
a. Attenuation
b. Loss
c. Neper
d. dB loss
46. Adding two +30 dBm will produce how much dBm at the output.
a. 60 dBm
b. 15 dBm
c. 23 dBm
d. 33 dBm
47. Determines how the voltage or current decreases with distance
a. Phase-shift coefficient
b. Attenuation coefficient
c. Propagation coefficient
d. Numerical coefficient
48. Determines the phase angle of the voltage or current variation with distance
a. Phase-shift coefficient
b. Attenuation coefficient
c. Propagation coefficient
d. Numerical coefficient
49. Determines variation of voltage or current with distance along transmission line
a. Phase-shift coefficient
b. Attenuation coefficient
c. Propagation coefficient
d. Numerical coefficient
50. The R, L, G, and C in the transmission line are called________.

a. Passive elements
b. Active elements
c. Line primary constant
d. Reactances
51. Two wire line is usually operated in the:
a. Balanced mode
b. Unbalanced mode
c. High frequency
d. None of these
52. When the load impedance doest not match the line impedance, part of the energy in the
incident wave is ________ at the load.
a. Forwarded
b. Reflected
c. Same
d. None of these

Antenna System
1. A discone antenna is a radiator whose impedance can be directly matched to what type of
coaxial transmission line?
a. 70 ohm line
b. 30 ohm line
c. 300 ohm line
d. 50 ohm line
2. In order to increase the gain of Yagi-Uda arrays, what element are addad?
a. Using many director
b. Using many dipole
c. Using many reflector
d. All of these
3. It is a measure of how much the antenna concentrates its transmitted microwave power in
a given direction
a. Beamwidth
b. Polarization
c. Bandwidth
d. Gain
4. The angle where the transmitted power has dropped by from the maximum power in the
direction at which the antenna is pointing.
a. Bandwidth
b. Polarization
c. Beamwidth
d. None of these
5. Orientation of the electric field signal propagated from the antenna.
a. Directivity
b. Polarization
c. Sidelobes
d. Gain
6. Is not included in the group.
a. Slot
b. Horn
c. Helix
d. Marconi
7. Radiation from an antenna at other angles than the desired direction.
a. Antenna direction
b. Field strength
c. Sidelobe
d. Directivity
8. If the antenna is not in the exact dimension/measurement, the impedance of the antenna
turns to be:
a. Capacitive
b. Resistive
c. Inductive
d. a or c

9. Impedance for free space is _______.

a. 120(pi)
b. 30(pi)
c. 180(pi)
d. None of these
10. An antenna is formed of four array antenna, each of which has a gain of _____ if the total
gain of these antenna arrays is 30 dB.
a. 12 dB
b. 13 dB
c. 14 dB
d. 15 dB
11. ______ of the antenna is the ratio of the radiation resistance to the total resistance of the
system.
a. Gain
b. Directivity
c. Efficiency
d. None of these
12. The major lobes of the directive pattern are those in which the radiation is _______.
a. Minimum
b. Maximum
c. Same
d. None of these
13. Is one supplied power from the transmitter, usually through a transmission line.
a. Parasitic element
b. Driven element
c. Director element
d. Reflector element
14. Is one which the principal direction of the radiation is perpensicular to the axis of array.
a. Broadside array
b. End-fire array
c. Phased array
d. Array antenna
15. Front-to-back ratio is the ratio of the forward power and the ________.
a. Maximum power
b. Optimum power
c. Minimum power
d. Backward power
16. ________ is elective means to generate circular polarization.
a. Folded antenna
b. Marconi antenna
c. Helix antenna
d. Any antenna
17. Ranges of frequencies the antenna will radiate effectively.
a. Beamwidth
b. Bandwidth
c. Gain

d. Directivity
18. Is used to increase the cuurent at the base of the antenna, and also to make the current
distribution more uniform.
a. Amplifier
b. Top loading
c. Booster
d. None of these
19. _________ is a network composed of reactances and transformers, which provide
impedance matching.
a. Circulator
b. Antenna coupler
c. Matching section
d. None of these
20. Consisting of grouped radiations or elements.
a. Turnstile antenna
b. Antenna array
c. Phase array
d. Half-wave dipole
21. The design ratio of the log-periodic antenna must be _____.
a. Equal to zero
b. Greater than 1
c. Less than 1
d. Unity
22. For low and medium frequency antennas which are mounted vertically from the earths
surface, the effective length is referred to as __________.
a. Actual length
b. Effective height
c. Actual height
d. None of these
23. The main difference between half-wave and folded dipole is the __________.
a. Length
b. Radiation resistance
c. Transmission line
d. None of these
24. A wire several wavelengths in length that is suspended at some height above the earth.
a. Wire antennas
b. Long wire antennas
c. Short wire antennas
d. Rhombic antennas
25. Consist of two halfwave dipoles placed at right angles to each other and fed 90 o out of
phase with each other.
a. Long wire antennas
b. Turnstile antennas
c. Vertical antennas
d. Rhombic antennas
26. Directivity higher than that obtained with uniform phase.

a. Super gain
b. High gain
c. Medium gain
d. Low gain
27. A parabolic dish antenna has a diameter of 3m and operates at 46 Hz. Calculate the
aperture.
a. 3.5 square meters
b. 4.59 square meters
c. 2.7 square meters
d. 1.2 square meters
28. If the radiation resistance is 36 ohms, what must be the antenna length?
a. Half-wavelength long
b. One wavelength long
c. Quarter-wavelength long
d. Any of these
29. If the antenna is receiving of 10^-12 v/m of electric field, magnetic field of 3.2 x 10^-3
A/m at a 5 sq. m absorbing area, what is the power received?
a. 0.2561 pW
b. 0.72 pW
c. 0.016 pW
d. 0.0012 pW
30. The case where the electric field lies in a plane parallel to the earth surface.
a. Vertical polarization
b. Horizontal polarization
c. Circular polarization
d. None o f these
31. It is known as a single directive antenna.
a. Corner director
b. Corner dipole
c. Corner reflector
d. Yagi antenna
32. The presence of dielectric other than air ________ the velocity of light.
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Same
d. Secret
33. The fact that the second wire of the folded dipole is folded makes the current on the two
conductors of the antenna flow in the _______ direction.
a. Same
b. Opposite
c. No
d. None of these
34. A closed circuit antenna is also called __________.
a. Helix antenna
b. Discone antenna
c. Loop antenna

d. None of these
35. The omega match is slightly modified from the ___________.
a. T match
b. Gamma match
c. Delta match
d. None of these
36. A dish antenna has a diameter of 2m and operates at 46 Hz, find the antenna gain at 65%
efficiency.
a. 3422.6
b. 3.26 dB
c. 12.3 dB
d. 4266.67
37. What is the approximate effective length of an antenna at 10 MHz
a. 2.65 m
b. 9.55 m
c. 4.62 m
d. 8.6 m
38. Calculate effective absorbing area operating at 106 Hz for a standard half-wave dipole.
a. 0.265 mm2
b. 0.1175 mm2
c. 1.26 mm2
d. 2.3 mm2
39. The variation of the slot antenna is _________.
a. Isotropic antenna
b. Notch antenna
c. Lenz antenna
d. Horn antenna
40. A point where the power field strength is zero.
a. Minimum
b. Maximum
c. Lobe
d. Null
41. An area of radiation which exist between adjacent nulls.
a. Minimum
b. Maximum
c. Lobe
d. Nulls
42. The property of an antenna that causes it to receive signal better from one direction than
from another.
a. Gain
b. Directivity
c. Dipole
d. Reflector
43. The 70.7% point on the polar graph is known as the _________ point and represent the
point of maximum width of the lobe
a. Full power

b. Half-power
c. Quarter point
d. Maximum point
44. A transmitting antenna has a gain of 10 and a power input of 60 watts. What is the
effective radiated power?
a. 6 kW
b. 60 kW
c. 0.6 kW
d. 600 kW
45. Marconi antenna is used in many types of mobile communications unit because it allows
transmission and receptions in _________.
a. One direction
b. Two direction
c. More direction
d. All direction
46. Used only to a small degree in the VHF band because of its large size requirements
a. Vee antenna
b. Long antenna
c. Rhombic antenna
d. Marconi antenna
47. A resistance which accounts for the energy dissipated in the form of heat
a. Ohmic resistance
b. Surge resistance
c. Radiation resistance
d. None of these
48. Antenna array having one active dipole element and two or more parasitic element is
known as _______.
a. Marconi
b. Horizontal antenna
c. Ground antenna
d. Yagi-Uda antenna
49. This antenna is a monopole in that it uses a half-wavelength radiator, but is fed at a
voltage node rather than current node.
a. Voltage antenna
b. Zepp antenna
c. Quartz antenna
d. Xylene antenna
50. Vertical antenna like those used in the AM broadcast and lower frequency armature band
rely heavily upon a good __________ for maximum coverage.
a. Insulation
b. Ground system
c. Gain
d. Directivity
51. Class of citizens band station operating at 462.55 to 466.45 MHz.
a. Class A
b. Class B

c. Class C
d. Class D
52. Ground system recommended by the FCC for broadcast stations consists of a minimum
of _______.
a. 120 radials
b. 150 radials
c. 130 radials
d. 140 radials
53. To achieve maximum possible energy transfer between transmitting and receiving
stations at practical distances, _______ are used.
a. High gain
b. Parabolic reflector
c. Director
d. secret
54. ________ is the transmission of data metered at a distance from the observer.
a. Data communications
b. Altimetery
c. Telemetry
d. cemetery
55. Impedance transformation between a balanced and unbalanced impedances.
a. Gamma match
b. Eslun transformer
c. Decca match
d. Match box
56. Calculate the physical length required of a 146 MHz 4:1 balun mode of polyethylene
foam coaxial cable. Use velocity factor of 0.80.
a. 12.6 ft
b. 2.5 m
c. 32.4 inches
d. 6.2 inches
57. _______ is an instrument that measures the radiated field from an antenna.
a. Field strength meter
b. Field meter
c. Strength meter
d. Intensity meter
58. Calculate the number of turns required to make a 5 uH inductor on a t-50-6 core. Use
core factor AL of 40.
a. 25
b. 35
c. 45
d. 50
59. This resistance is a hypothetical concept that accounts for the fact that rF power is
radiated by the antenna.
a. Ohmic resistance
b. Resistance
c. Radiation resistance

d. None of these
60. If 1000 watts of RF power is applied to the feedpoint, and a current of 3.7 amperes was
measured, what is the radiation resistance?
a. 50 ohms
b. 300 ohms
c. 600 ohms
d. 73 ohms
61. Antenna theory recognizes a point of reference called the _________.
a. Half-wave dipole
b. Full wave dipole
c. Isotropic radiator
d. Image antenna
62. Quarter wavelength vertical antenna is basically a dipole placed vertically, with the other
half of the dipole being the ____________.
a. Gain
b. Radials
c. Ground
d. Reflector
63. Most common form of multi-band wire antenna is the __________.
a. Log periodic antenna
b. Yagi Uda
c. Long wire antenna
d. Trap dipole
64. The change in velocity resulting from a stray capacitance is called _________.
a. End effect
b. Skin effect
c. Proximity effect
d. No effect

Moduloation/Demodulation
1. A method that applied the modulated wave to the vertical deflection circuit of the
oscilloscope and the modulating signal to the horizontal deflection circuit.
a. Trapezoidal method
b. Circular method
c. Square method
d. Any method
2. The heart of all methods of single-sideband modulation and demodulation
a. Modulator
b. Balanced modulator
c. Modulation
d. demodulation
3. If the frequency and phase are parameters of carrier angle, which is a function of time,
the general term ___________-cover both.
a. Amplitude modulation
b. Frequency modulation
c. Phase modulation
d. Angle modulation
4. In FM radio communication system, narrow-band (NBFM) is used rather than wideband
(WBFM), because it,
a. Improves signal to noise ration
b. Reduces interchannel interference
c. Provides maximum coverage for a given amount of power
d. All of the above
5. Radio transmitter basically consists of two principal parts, one reproducing a carrier
frequency and one for __________.
a. IF Frequency
b. RF Frequency
c. Modulating Frequency
d. Power
6. Is a measure of its ability to maintain as nearly a fixed frequency as possible over as long
as time interval as possible.
a. Receiver Noise Factor
b. Selectivity
c. Sensitivity
d. Frequency stability
7. Is the effect of two-transmitter when they are in close proximity. This results into the sum
and difference frequencies of two carriers.
a. Intermodulation effect
b. Intermodulation interference
c. Intermodulation product
d. intermodulation
8. _________ is a continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a
second information carrying signal.
a. Carrier frequency

b. Center frequency
c. IF frequency
d. RF frequency
9. The varactor diode used in FM may be represented by the approximate equivalent circuit
of the _____ in series with a ________.
a. Diode, capacitor
b. Diode, resistor
c. Capacitor, resistor
d. Any of these
10. The name varactor comes from variable _________.
a. Resistor
b. Capacitor
c. Diode
d. reactor
11. 75 microseconds pre-emphasis time is used in __________.
a. FM
b. AM
c. TV
d. None of these
12. Recovers the modulating voltage from the frequency modulation by utilizing the phase
angle shift between primary and secondary voltages of tuned oscillators.
a. Direct method
b. Indirect method
c. Foster-Seeley discriminator
d. Slope detector
13. Is used in FM receivers to lock onto the received signal and stabilized recetions.
a. Automatic Gain Control
b. Automatic Frequency Control
c. Muscle Control
d. Automatic Frequency Gain Control
14. Are amplifier circuits that are used to eliminate amplitude modulation and amplitudemodulated noise from received FM Signals before detection.
a. Demodulators
b. Diode detector
c. Amplitude limiters
d. None of these
15. If the total sideband power is 12.5% of the total radiated power, find the modulation
index.
a. 50 percent
b. 53.4 percent
c. 26.2 percent
d. 32.3 percent
16. Carriers are spaced at 20 kHz, beginning at 100 kHz. Each carrier is modulated by a
signal with a 5 kHz bandwidth. Is there interference from the sideband?
a. Yes
b. No

c. Maybe
d. Secret
17. For an unmodulated carrier of 150 V and a modulated peak value of 230 V. What is the
modulation index
a. 0.35
b. 0.533
c. 0.652
d. 0.42
18. New frequencies outside the regular AM spectrum are called ___________.
a. Distortion
b. Interference
c. Splatter
d. Harmonic
19. A DSB-SC has a total power of 350 watts with 100% modulation suppresses 50% of the
carrier, and the suppressed carrier power goes to the sidebands. How much power is in
the sidebands?
a. 116.67 W
b. 233.33 W
c. 175 W
d. 350 W
20. A DSB-SC system must suppress the carrier by 30 dB from its original value of 30 W.
What value must the carrier be reduced?
a. 30000 W
b. 0.03 W
c. 300 W
d. 0.003 W
21. ___________, which further amplifies the signal and has the bandwidth and passband
shaping appropriate for the received signal.
a. RF stage
b. Mixer and local oscillator stage
c. IF stage
d. AF stage
22. In FM, a bandwidth estimate 98 percent level of Bessel functions
a. Approximate bandwidth
b. Narrow-band Bandwidth
c. Carsons rule
d. Wideband bandwidth
23. The complete series of stages for reproducing the FM signal with the desired carrier and
deviation is the _______.
a. Modulator
b. Exciter
c. IF stage
d. RF stage
24. Is the ability of FM system to provide low-noise, high fidelity music
background/broadcast..

a. Monophonic
b. Stereophonic
c. Stereonic
d. SCA
25. It make use of the shape of IF filter frequency response roll-off versus frequency.
a. Foster Seeley
b. Slope detector
c. Diode detector
d. Quadrature detector
26. In AM, modulation index is a number lying between ____ and 1.
a. 2
b. 5
c. 0
d. 3
27. This form of modulation is also known as independent sideband emission.
a. A3E
b. R3E
c. H3E
d. B8E
28. An attenuated carrier is reinserted into the SSB signal to facilitate receiver tuning and
demodulation.
a. A3E
b. R3E
c. H3E
d. B8E
29. Standard AM used for broadcasting
a. A3E
b. R3E
c. H3E
d. B8E
30. Single sideband, suppressed carrier in which the carrier is suppressed by at least 45 dB in
the transmitter.
a. A3E
b. R3E
c. H3E
d. B8E
31. The shift in the carrier frequency from the resting point compared to the amplitude of the
modulating signal is called _______.
a. Index
b. Deviation ratio
c. Carrier frequency
d. Deviation frequency
32. In FM, the amplitude of the modulated frequency wave remains ___________ at all
times.
a. Varying
b. Dependent

c. Constant
d. variable
33. An AM has a maximum span of 30 V, what is the required minimum span to attain 100%
modulation?
a. 30 V
b. 20 V
c. 0 V
d. None of these
34. DZMM having a carrier frequency of 630 kHz is modulated by 2.6 kHz audio signal
having an amplitude of 37.5 V. What is the amplitude voltage of 630 kHz carrier
frequency at 0.35 modulation index?
a. 57.6 V
b. 107.14 V
c. 206.5 V
d. 86.2 V
35. If the sideband power is 50% of the carrier power, what is the modulation index?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 90%
d. 100%
36. If the increase power is 180 watts at 1 kW unmodulated output power the modulation
index is _________.
a. 75%
b. 60%
c. 50%
d. 25%
37. In AM, if the unmodulated power carrier is 10 kW, and the total power is 15 kW, what is
the upper sideband power at 100% modulation index?
a. 25 kW
b. 2 kW
c. 2.5 kW
d. 4 kW
38. If the input resistance of the base station of AM broadcast produced 20 kW carrier power,
at what modulation index should the antenna rise at 108.63 A?
a. 20%
b. 50%
c. 60%
d. 80%
39. ________ used a phase detector to compare the phase and frequency of the received
signal to the VCO output.
a. PIL
b. PAL
c. PLL
d. PLI

40. A filter with a roll-off of 6 dB/kHz is used as a slope detector. The input signal varies
with +3 kHz deviation from center carrier frequency. How many dB down is the output at
full deviation?
a. 9 dB
b. -18 dB
c. 18 dB
d. -9 dB
41. A receiver limiter requires a 20 mV signal for quieting operation. The voltage gain
between the RF input and the limiter is 57.7 dB, what is the input at the antenna terminal
assuming equal resistance?
a. 75.6 mV
b. 26.67 uV
c. 52.3 uV
d. 49.6 uV
42. A 1-MHz carrier is modulated with a resulting 100 Hz deviation. It undergoes x36
multiplication, followed by mixing with a 34.5 MHz signal and remultiplication by 72.
What is the final carrier and deviations?
a. 5076 MHz, 2592 MHz
b. 2592 MHz, 259.2 kHz
c. 2592MHz, 5076 MHz
d. 259.2 MHz, 108 kHz
43. For standard commercial broadcast FM, the deviation ratio is ________.
a. 15
b. 75
c. 5
d. 10
44. A system has 150 kHz of bandwidth available for 10 kHz modulation signal. What is the
approximate deviation to be used?
a. 35 kHz
b. 65 kHz
c. 25 kHz
d. 15 kHz
45. An FM has a deviation of 100 kHz and a modulating frequency of 15 kHz, what happen
to m if the deviation triples?
a. 6.66
b. 2.22
c. 4.12
d. 0.20
46. A receiver for a signal at 100 MHz uses a 10.7 MHz IF and low tracking. What is the
image frequency?
a. 89.3 MHz
b. 78.6 MHz
c. 52.5 MHz
d. 35.2 MHz

47. What is the change in resonant frequency of the actual varactor capacitance value differs
by -5% (0.05) of the nominal value?
a. 2.06
b. 3.02
c. 1.03
d. 5.06
48. An oscillator resonate at 1 MHz with a nominal 100 pF capacitor and 0.25 mH inductor,
what s the resonant frequency of the actual capacitor value is +20% of the nominal value?
a. 1.006 MHz
b. 0.9188 MHz
c. 3.625 MHz
d. 2.00123 MHz
49. Front end is also called _________.
a. IF stage
b. AF stage
c. RF stage
d. None of these
50. Undesired signal on the other side of the local oscillator output will have the same
difference frequency and pass into the IF amplifier.
a. Carrier frequency
b. Sum frequency
c. Difference frequency
d. Image frequency