Name:

Course and Section:

1.

Date:
Instructor:

What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each non-root switch in a spanning-tree topology?
A.

lowest port MAC address

B.

port priority number and MAC address.

C. highest port priority number.

D. path cost
2.

A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not
appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration
error is causing this problem?

A.
B.
C.
D.
3.

The OSPF area is configured improperly.

The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
The network number is configured improperly.
The network subnet mask is configured improperly.

In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?
A.

after broken links are re-established

B.

in an improperly implemented redundant topology

C. when upper-layer protocols require high reliability

D. during high traffic periods
4.

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

A.

learning

B.

listening

C. discarding
D. forwarding
5.

Which one of these is a valid HSRP Virtual Mac Address?

A.

0000.0C07.AC01

B.

0000.5E00.0110

C. 0007.B400.1203
D. 0000.C007.0201
6.

Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include redundant links?
A.

link aggregation

B.

virtual private networks

C. virtual LANs
D. spanning Tree Protocol
7.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which
IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the host?

A.

192.168.2.0

B.

192.168.2.1

C. 192.168.2.2
D. 192.168.2.100
8.

If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing the root bridge?
A.

highest MAC address

B.

highest IP address

C. lowest IP address
D. lowest MAC address
9.

What is the purpose of HSRP?

A.

It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.

B.

It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.

C. It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.

D. It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.
10. When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP so that it initiates the EtherChannel
negotiation?
A.

auto

B.

active

C. desirable
D. passive
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow each access layer switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth
between each Layer 2 switch and the Layer 3 switch?

A.

trunking

B.

PortFast

C. HSRP
D. EtherChannel
12. Which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?

A.

switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.

B.

switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.

C. switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.

D. switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.
13. When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port
receives PAgP packets from another device?
A.

desirable

B.

auto

C. active
D. passive
14. Which command will a network engineer issue to verify the configured hello and dead timer intervals on a point-to-point WAN link between
two routers that are running OSPFv2?
A.

show ip ospf interface fastethernet 0/1

B.

show ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0

C. show ip ospf neighbor

D. show ipv6 ospf interface serial 0/0/0
15. A network engineer has manually configured the hello interval to 15 seconds on an interface of a router that is running OSPFv2. By default,
how will the dead interval on the interface be affected?
A.

The dead interval will now be 15 seconds.

B.

The dead interval will now be 60 seconds.

C. The dead interval will now be 30 seconds.

D. The dead interval will not change from the default value.
16. When OSPFv2 neighbors are establishing adjacencies, in which state do they elect a DR and BDR router?
A.

Exchange state

B.

Two-Way state

C. Loading state
D. Init state
17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured the OSPF timers to the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the result
of having those manually configured timers?

A.

R1 automatically adjusts its own timers to match the R2 timers.

B.

The neighbor adjacency has formed.

C. The hello timer on R2 expires every ten seconds.

D. The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Four routers are connected to an Ethernet LAN segment and are configured to run OSPFv3. However, none of the
routers are receiving routing updates. What is the cause of the problem?

A.

All of the routers have an OSPFv3 interface priority of 0.

B.

The network type has been set to BROADCAST instead of NBMA.

C. The routers are using IPv6 link local addresses to communicate.

D. The routers are using IPv4 addresses for router IDs.

19. Refer to the exhibit. These two routers are configured to run OSPFv3 but they are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of
the problem?

A.

The routers have both been elected as the DR.

B.

The routers do not have global IPv6 addresses that are configured on the Fa0/0 interfaces.

C. The routers are configured with the same router ID.

D. The routers have the same priority.
20. Which command can be used to verify the contents of the LSDB in an OSPF area?
A.

show ip ospf interface

B.

show ip ospf database

C. show ip ospf neighbor

D. show ip route ospf
21. What is one advantage of using multiarea OSPF?
A.

It improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-state update overhead.

B.

It allows OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 to be running together.

C. It enables multiple routing protocols to be running in a large network.

D. It increases the routing performance by dividing the neighbor table into separate smaller ones.

22. An ABR in a multiarea OSPF network receives LSAs from its neighbor that identify the neighbor as an ASBR with learned external
networks from the Internet. Which LSA type would the ABR send to other areas to identify the ASBR, so that internal traffic that is destined
for the Internet will be sent through the ASBR?
A.

LSA type 2

B.

LSA type 3

C. LSA type 4
D. LSA type 5
23. Where can interarea route summarization be performed in an OSPF network?
A.

ABR

B.

any router

C. ASBR
D. DR
24. The network administrator has been asked to summarize the routes for a new OSPF area. The networks to be summarized are 172.16.8.0,
172.16.10.0, and 172.16.12.0 with subnet masks of 255.255.255.0 for each network. Which command should the administrator use to
forward the summary route for area 15 into area 0?
A.

area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248

B.

area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248

C. area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0

D. area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0
25. Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the O IA in the router output?

A.

The route was learned from another area.

B.

The route was learned from within the area.

C. The route was manually configured.

D. The route was learned from outside the internetwork.
26. A network administrator is verifying a multi-area OSPF configuration by checking the routing table on a router in area 1. The administrator
notices a route to a network that is connected to a router in area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the routing table within area
1?
A.

O E2

B.

O IA

C. O
D. C
27. Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
A.

configuring or changing the VTP password

B.

configuring or changing the VTP domain name

C. configuring or changing the VTP version number

D. configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name
28. Which type of traffic can still be received on a switch interface that is in STP blocking mode?

A.

BPDU frames

B.

multicast frames

C. broadcast frames
D. Layer 3 packets
29. Why is it advisable that a network administrator use SSH instead of Telnet when managing switches?
A.

SSH uses TCP whereas Telnet does not.

B.

SSH encrypts only the username and password when logging in.

C. SSH encrypts all remote management communications whereas Telnet does not.
D. SSH sends a clear text message steam which reduces the bandwidth use for management.
30. Which STP port type can only appear once on a segment, and must be present in order for traffic to flow on that segment?
A.

non-root port

B.

disabled port

C. designated port
D. non-designated port
31. A network administrator is implementing VTP in a large campus LAN that contains one hundred switches. What are valid considerations for
reliability and administration?
A.

Using server mode on a single master switch and client mode on all other switches will provide the most fault tolerance for
retaining VLAN information in all switches if power is lost on the network.

B.

Using transparent mode on all switches will allow for efficient administration and prevent VLAN data loss from the loss of any
single switch.

C. Configuring several switches in server mode will allow all VLANs to be entered from a single switch and preserve VLAN data if
any of the switches or connections are lost.
D. Configuring one primary and one backup switch in server mode and all other switches in transparent mode will provide fault
tolerance for the VLAN data and allow for efficient distribution of the VLAN configurations to all switches.
32. What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
A.

disable port security

B.

make the port operational

C. override the default port behavior

D. force the port to be a part of a single vlan
33. When a switch is powered on, it must begin to populate its bridging table. What information is added to the bridging packets?
A.

Source MAC address and incoming port number

B.

Destination MAC address and incoming port number

C. Source IP Address and incoming port number

D. Destination IP address and incoming port number
34. What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a trunk port?
A. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
B. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
C. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.
D. The command is invalid.
35. Refer to the exhibit. What does the state "FULL/ -" indicate?

A.

The DR/BDR election is currently taking place.

B.

The router with router ID 10.112.0.34 and RouterA are on a point-to-point network.

C. RouterA could not form a neighbor relationship with the router with router ID 10.112.0.34.
D. OSPF hello and dead timers between RouterA and the router with router ID 10.112.0.34 do not match.

36. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures a standard access control list on Router1 to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.0.0/24
network from reaching the Internet. The access control list also permits traffic from the 192.168.0.0/24 network to reach the 192.168.1.0/24
network. On which interface and in which direction should the access control list be applied?

A.

interface Fa0/0, inbound

B.

interface Fa0/0, outbound

C. interface S0/0/0, inbound

D. interface S0/0/0, outbound
37. What is a collapsed core in a network design?
A.

A combination of the functionality of the distribution and core layers

B.

A combination of the functionality of the access, distribution, and core layers

C. A combination of the functionality of the access and core layers

D. A combination of the functionality of the access and distribution layers
38. Which method would mitigate a MAC address flooding attack?
A.

Using ACLs to filter broadcast traffic on the switch

B.

Increasing the speed of switch ports

C. Increasing the size of the CAM table

D. Configuring port security
39. Which interface is the default location that would contain the IP address used to manage a 24-port Ethernet switch?
A.

Fa0/0

B.

VLAN 99

C. VLAN 1
D. Fa0/1
40. What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?
A.

The port automatically associates itself with the native VLAN

B.

The port creates the VLAN again

C. The port becomes inactive

D. The port goes back to the default VLAN
41. What is the effect of issuing a switchport access vlan 20 command on the Fa0/18 port of a switch that does not have this
VLAN in the VLAN database?
A.

The command will have no effect on the switch

B.

VLAN 20 will be created automatically

C. Port Fa0/18 will be shut down

D. An error stating that VLAN 20 does not exist will be displayed and VLAN 20 is not created

42. What condition is required to enable Layer 3 switching?

A.

The Layer 3 switch must have IP routing enabled

B.

All routed subnets must be on the same VLAN

C. All participating switches must have unique VLAN numbers

D. Inter-VLAN portions of Layer 3 switching must use router-on-a-stick
43. Which statement describes a disadvantage of using router subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing?
A.

All untagged traffic is dropped

B.

Routed traffic must contend for bandwidth on a single router interface

C. It is more expensive than using individual router interfaces

D. Trunking cannot be used to connect the router to the switch
44. Which command will provide information specific to OSPFv3 routes in the routing table?
A.

show ip route ospf

B.

show ip route

C. show ipv6 route ospf

D. show ipv6 route
45. What is a function of OSPF hello packets?
A.

To send specifically requested link-state records

B.

To discover neighbors and build adjacencies between them

C. To request specific link-state records from neighbor routers

D. To ensure database synchronization between routers
46. Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what could be the cause of this problem?

A. HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.

B. The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.
C. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.
D. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.
47. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures a new router and enters the copy startup-config running-config on the router. The
network administrator powers down the router and sets it up at a remote location. When the router starts, it enters the system configuration
dialog as shown. What is the cause of the problem?

A. The network administrator failed to save the configuration.

B. The configuration register is set to 02100.
C. The boot system flash command is missing from the configuration.

D. The configuration register is set to 02102.

48. Select the action that results from executing these commands:
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A.
B.
C.
D.

A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.

A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.

49. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from
the server?

a.
b.
c.
d.

the MAC address of router interface e0

the MAC address of router interface e1
the MAC address of the server network interface
the MAC address of host A

50. What is the config-register of password recovery for a cisco router?

A.

0x2102

B.

0x2142

C. 0x2112
D. 0x2124