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Which of the following is the most common precipitating illness leading to the Guillain-Barre
syndrome?
D. Mycoplasma pneumonia.
E. Cytomegalovirus infection
QUESTION 2
Symptom-limited treadmill exercise testing is often done in the weeks after ST elevation myocardial
infarction to identify those at low risk of death. Which of the following parameters at exercise testing
most strongly indicates a good prognosis with medical treatment?
A. Absence of ST depression.
QUESTION 3
A. females often being more variably and mildly affected than males.
D. males often being more variably and mildly affected than females.
A 50 kg person is given gentamicin 320 mg daily IV. The serum concentration measured one hour
post the infusion is 20 mg/L and the serum concentration six hours post infusion is 5 mg/L. Using this
data, what is the best estimate of the serum gentamicin clearance in this person?
A. 37 mg/hour.
B. 12.5 mg/hour.
C. 1 L/hour.
D. 3.5 L/hour.
E. 3 mg/L/hour.
QUESTION 5
A. Adrenaline.
B. Cortisol.
C. Noradrenaline.
D. Growth hormone.
E. Glucagon.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the main risk factor for the development of delirium in older people?
A. Surgery.
B. Dementia.
C. Polypharmacy.
D. Indwelling catheter.
E. Sensory impairment.
A randomized, double-blind controlled trial compared the rate of major coronary events in diabetic
patients treated with fenofibrate or placebo and followed for up to six years. The trial was negative on
intention-to-treat analysis (event rates 5.2% and 5.9% respectively, p=0.16). The figure shows drop-
out from and drop-in to other lipid-modifying treatment during the trial.
Assuming fenofibrate is efficacious, which of the following is most likely to explain the negative trial
result?
QUESTION 8
In which of the following conditions is ursodeoxycholic acid most likely to relieve symptoms?
B. Massive choledocholithiasis.
In a clinical trial presenting two survival curves, the absolute benefit of treatment is best described by
which of the following?
QUESTION 10
In a patient with vasculitis whose serum contains perinuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-
ANCA), what is the most likely target antigen for this antibody?
A. Proteinase 3.
B. Myeloperoxidase.
C. Lactoferrin.
D. Cathepsin G.
E. Lyzosyme.
QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the most common mechanism of a Febrile Non-Haemolytic Transfusion
reaction (FNHTR) to transfusion of packed red cells?
E. Interaction between donor red cells with recipient red cell antibodies.
A 45-year-old female with a ten-pack year history of cigarette smoking and a body mass index of 39
kg/m2, presents with a 12-month history of shortness of breath on exercise. An exercise test was
performed, with no evidence of myocardial ischaemia.
What is the most likely cause of the breathlessness and oxygen desaturation on exercise?
C. Morbid obesity.
D. Chronic asthma.
E. Beta-blockade.
QUESTION 13
When travelling with standard international commercial airlines currently, the partial pressure of
oxygen inflight approximates which sea-level FIO2 [Fraction of inspired oxygen]?
A. 5%.
B. 10%.
C. 15%.
D. 21%.
E. 25%.
Adjuvant chemotherapy is given in many solid tumours. What is the main reason for doing this?
QUESTION 15
The principle mechanism of action by which inhaled nitric oxide can improve oxygenation in severe
hypoxemic respiratory failure is:
D. bronchodilatation.
QUESTION 16
A 60-year-old man presents with nephrotic syndrome. He undergoes a renal biopsy. What is the most
likely histological finding?
D. Membranous glomerulonephritis.
E. Amyloidosis.
The following graph shows the effect of codeine against its concentration over the first eight hours
after ingestion.
3 hours
100
2 hours
4 hours
80
Effect (%)
60 6 hours 1 hour
40 30 minutes
8 hours
20 10 minutes
0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80
Blood concentration (mg/mL)
What is the best explanation for this unusual concentration-effect loop for this drug?
QUESTION 18
Which of the following has the greatest effect on peak bone mass?
A. Pubertal age.
C. Genetic factors.
E. Body weight.
Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with risk of sudden death in the first six
months after myocardial infarction?
B. Cigarette smoking.
QUESTION 20
A new highly sensitive D-dimer assay has a sensitivity of 99.5% but a specificity of only 50%.
What is the likelhood ratio for a positive result nearest to?
A. 2.
B. 5.
C. 10.
D. 20.
E. 50.
QUESTION 21
A 74-year-old female presents with severe jaw pain following tooth extraction. The jaw is swollen and
disfigured. The X-ray shows extensive changes around the site of extraction consistent with
osteonecrosis. The medication most likely to cause this condition is:
A. ergocalciferol.
B. zolendronate.
C. calcitriol.
D. fluoride.
E. strontium.
= Affected
= Male
= Female
QUESTION 23
Recurrent infections with which of the following organisms is most characteristic of a disorder of
neutrophil phagocytic function (such as chronic granulomatous disease)?
A. Non-tuberculous mycobacteria.
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C. Nocardia species.
E. Staphylococcus aureus.
The diagram below shows the time-course of a typical ventricular myocyte action potential (Figure 1).
Figure 1b shows the principal cation currents between the intra and extra-cellular space concurrent
with phase 0-3 of the action potential shown in Figure 1a. The direction and size of the arrows in
Figure 1b indicate whether the current is inward-directed or outward-directed and the relative current
strengths of the ion identified by a letter at the base of the arrow.
Figure 1
From the table below, select the cations that BEST represent X, Y, and Z in Figure 1b.
+ 2+ +
A. X = Na Y = Ca Z=K
+ + 2+
B. X=K Y = Na Z = Ca
2+ + +
C. X = Ca Y=K Z = Na
+ + 2+
D. X = Na Y=K Z = Ca
2+ + +
E. X = Ca Y = Na Z=K
The risk factor with the greatest impact on development of esophageal cancer is:
A. achalasia.
B. Barrett’s oesophagus.
D. smoking.
E. reflux.
QUESTION 26
The emergence of a pandemic strain of influenza is best explained by which of the following
mechanisms?
QUESTION 27
Cholinesterase inhibitors are widely used to improve cognitive function in Alzheimers disease. Which
of the following urinary symptoms would be the most likely type A (dose-dependent) adverse drug
reaction?
D. Urinary retention.
E. Stress incontinence.
A. hyperventilation syndrome.
C. acute asthma.
D. tracheobronchomalacia.
E. respiratory bronchiolitis.
Which of the following is the greatest cause of mortality occurring more than 100 days following
allogeneic peripheral blood cell stem transplantation for acute leukaemia?
B. Graft-versus-host disease.
D. Transplantation-related infection.
E. Recurrent leukaemia.
QUESTION 30
A 30-year-old woman has known Sjogren’s syndrome and a past history of a single renal calculus.
She presents with a metabolic acidosis, with hyperchloraemia. The plasma anion gap is normal.
There is no bicarbonate in the urine and the urine pH is 5.7. What is the most likely cause of her
presentation?
B. Osteomalacia.
C. Chronic diarrhoea.
QUESTION 31
Which of the following tests is most specific for a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?
B. Rheumatoid factor.
C. Antinuclear antibody.
D. Anti-Ro antibody.
Many HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) protease inhibitors are marketed in a combination that
includes a small dose of ritonavir eg. Lopinavir 133mg-ritonavir 233mg. Which of the following
provides the best rationale for the use of such combinations?
QUESTION 33
The graph below shows the estimated concentrations of pralidoxime in a typical patient over the first
th
two days when given as one gram 8 hourly.
300
Pralidoxime[µM]
200
100
0
0 8 16 24 32 40 48
hours
If it was given as a two gram bolus followed by an infusion of 500 mg/hour, the best estimate of the
time until the drug is in steady state is:
A. 3 hours.
B. 8 hours.
C. 16 hours.
D. 24 hours.
E. 40 hours.
What is the most likely consequence of inheriting a mutated, maternally imprinted gene?
QUESTION 35
Absorption of which of the following is most likely to be impaired in untreated coeliac disease?
A. Vitamin K.
B. Iron.
C. Vitamin B12.
D. Folate.
E. Calcium.
QUESTION 36
A 16-year-old male presents with short stature. Which of the following findings is most suggestive of
growth hormone deficiency?
D. Delayed puberty.
QUESTION 37
In a patient with rheumatic mixed mitral valve disease, for which of the following procedures is there
the strongest indication for antibiotic prophylaxis?
A. Flexible bronchoscopy.
B. Cardiac catheterisation.
D. Oesophageal dilatation.
E. Gastroscopy.
Which class of drugs has been shown to be most closely associated with the risk of falling in older
people?
A. Beta blockers.
E. Diuretics.
QUESTION 39
Secretion of which of the following cytokines is most characteristic of T helper cells from patients with
cell-mediated immune disorders such as multiple sclerosis?
A. Interleukin - 4 (IL-4).
B. Interleukin - 10 (IL-10).
C. Interleukin - 12 (IL-12).
QUESTION 40
Patients infected with strains of Staphylococcus aureus which secrete the Panton-Valentine
Leucocidin (PVL) toxin are most likely to present with which of the following?
A. Endocarditis.
D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
Lung Volumes
SVC (L) 3.64 1.76 48
(Slow vital capacity)
IC (L) 2.06 1.48 72
(Inspiratory capacity)
ERV (L) 1.58 0.28 18
(Expiratory reserve
volume)
TGV (Pleth) (L) 2.52 1.65 65
(Thoracic gas volume)
RV (Pleth) (L) 1.17 1.37 117
(Residual volume)
TLC (Pleth) (L) 4.59 3.13 68
(Total lung capacity)
RV/TLC (Pleth) (%) 23 44
Lung Diffusion
DLCOunc (ml/min/mmHg) 26.09 11.95 46
(Diffusing capacity for
Carbon Monoxide)
Alveolar Volume (L) 4.59 1.98 46
DL/VA (ml/min/mmHg/L) 6.53 6.02 92
Blood Gases
Inspired O2 (%) 21.00
Ph 7.40 7.41
PaCO2 (mmHg) 38-42 38
PaO2 (mmHg) 98.0
HCO3 (mEq/L) 24.0
Base Excess -1.0
SaO2 Calculated(%) 97.0
A. Kyphoscoliosis.
B. Goodpastures syndrome.
C. Myasthenia Gravis.
A trial comparing two antiplatelet treatments for the prevention of vascular events randomizes 11000
patients into two equal groups, followup for up to six years. Event rates are 8.6% for drug A and 8.3%
for drug B. The p value for the comparison is 0.051.
QUESTION 43
Small interfering RNAs (also called “micro-RNAs”) influence gene expression. The mechanism of
action is best explained by their effect on:
E. chromatin compaction.
QUESTION 44
The main reason for bone loss in patients treated for metastatic prostate cancer with the luteinising
hormone releasing hormone (LHRH) agonist goserelin and the antiandrogen flutamide is:
A patient presenting to the Emergency Department is thought to have acute intermittent porphyria.
Which of the following is most suggestive of an alternative diagnosis?
A. Ileus.
B. Hypertension.
C. Fever.
D. Urinary retention.
E. Tachycardia.
QUESTION 46
Memory loss in Alzheimers disease most closely correlates with changes in which brain region?
A. Cingulate gyrus.
B. Thalamus.
C. Frontal lobe.
D. Amygdala.
E. Hippocampus.
QUESTION 47
A certain autosomal recessive disorder affects 1 in 1600 people; the carrier frequency is 5%. A DNA
assay can identify the mutation in 80% of carriers; the false-positive rate of this assay is zero.
What is the best estimate of the positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV) of
this assay in screening the population for carriers?
PPV NPV
A 20% 100%
B 80% 80%
C 100% 80%
D 100% 99%
E 100% 100%
QUESTION 48
In a normal person, which of the following is most likely to cause a decrease in circulating growth
hormone concentration?
B. Hyperglycaemia.
C. Protein meal.
D. Exercise.
E. Sepsis.
What is the most distinguishing feature of loss of imprinting of a growth-promoting imprinted gene?
QUESTION 50
Which of the following is the most likely initial site of involvement in primary osteoarthritis of the knee?
C. Patellofemoral cartilage.
D. Intercondylar cartilage.
QUESTION 51
Which of the following most increases the risk of hepatotoxicity of paracetamol when taken in
overdose?
A. Cigarette smoking.
B. Old age.
A man is diagnosed with a rare autosomal recessive disorder. His pedigree is shown below.
Unaffected female
What is the best estimate of the risk of his cousin (indicated on the diagram by an arrow) developing
the same disorder?
A. 1/2.
B. 1/4.
C. 1/8.
D. 1/16.
E. 1/32.
QUESTION 53
Desensitisation is most likely to be effective in individuals who have had which of the following
reactions to penicillin?
A. Haemolytic anaemia.
B. Laryngeal oedema.
C. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome.
A 68-year-old diabetic has chest pain and T wave inversion in the precordial chest leads. In this
patient, elevation of which biomarker is most predictive of an adverse outcome?
A. B natriuretic peptide.
B. Myeloperoxidase.
C. Blood glucose.
E. Troponin.
QUESTION 55
Cyclosporin has very low bioavailability. It is a lipid soluble drug and a major route of metabolism is by
the CYP3A4 enzyme in the liver. However, removal by the liver accounts for only approximately half of
the low bioavailability. The best explanation for the other cause of low bioavailability is:
QUESTION 56
An 18-year-old gives a history of recurrent morning myoclonus and absences after sleep deprivation.
The most likely epilepsy syndrome is:
E. absence epilepsy.
A novel therapeutic agent is developed which increases numbers of CD4+ CD25+ regulatory T cells.
For which of the following conditions is there the most potential for benefit from treatment with this
agent?
A. Alzheimer’s disease.
D. Hodgkin’s disease.
E. Multiple sclerosis.
QUESTION 58
All of the following drugs have clinically significant variation in response due to genetic polymorphisms.
For which of the following drugs is the variation in effect most related to pharmacodynamic (as
opposed to pharmacokinetic) response?
A. Warfarin.
B. Carvedilol.
C. Azathioprine.
D. Phenytoin.
E. Isoniazid.
QUESTION 59
Differentiation between cardiogenic and non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema is most reliably performed
by measurement of:
The primary factor leading to the accumulation of ascites in patients with chronic liver disease is?
B. Splanchnic vasodilatation.
C. Hypoalbuminaemia.
QUESTION 61
Which clinical feature of delirium is most useful for differentiating it from dementia?
D. Paranoid delusions.
QUESTION 62
In a patient with Type 2 diabetes which of the following co-existing clinical situations is the strongest
contraindication to the use of a thiazolidinedione drug?
QUESTION 63
The first manifestation of illness in a patient with new variant Creutzfeldt-Jacob Disease (nvCJD) is
most likely to be which of the following?
A. Psychiatric.
B. Myoclonus.
C. Ataxia.
D. Slurred speech.
E. Epilepsy.
Genetic variation in the thiopurine methyltransferase gene is most likely to lead to increased toxicity
following administration of:
A. oxaliplatin.
B. allopurinol.
C. azathioprine.
D. cyclophosphamide.
E. 5-fluorouracil.
QUESTION 65
A. neurogenic inflammation.
B. neuronal dysfunction.
C. cerebral vasoconstriction.
D. cerebral vasodilatation.
E. central sensitisation.
QUESTION 66
Oral medications, Drugs A and B, have the following properties in healthy individuals.
Drug A Drug B
Absorption 100% 100%
Bioavailability 2% 90%
Volume of distribution 350 L 50 L
Renal Clearance 2 L/hr 1 L/hr
Hepatic clearance 10 L/hr 2 L/hr
Protein Binding 75% 25%
Compared to healthy individuals, patients with cirrhosis have a much higher concentration of drug A
than drug B. The best explanation for this is the difference in:
A. bioavailability.
B. volume of distribution.
C. renal clearance.
D. hepatic clearance.
E. protein binding.
Human papilloma virus (HPV) is a well-recognised causal factor for cancer of the cervix. For which of
the following other cancers is there the strongest association with HPV?
A. Uterine.
B. Anal.
C. Rectal.
D. Oral.
E. Vulval.
QUESTION 68
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the hirudin class of anticoagulant
drugs (lepirudin, bivalirudin)?
B. Factor Xa inhibition.
C. Cycloxygenase antagonism.
QUESTION 69
E. temporal demyelination.
A 70-year-old man is admitted with general malaise, nausea and vomiting. He had recently suffered
from gastroenteritis with three days of diarrhoea. He has longstanding hypertension and osteoarthritis
of his knees. He is taking Bendrofluazide, Enalapril, Aspirin, Codeine and Ibuprofen.
A. Calcium gluconate.
B. Magnesium sulphate.
C. Sodium bicarbonate.
D. Amiodarone.
E. Lignocaine.
Answers
1 A 25 B 49 D
2 E 26 B 50 A
3 A 27 A 51 C
4 D 28 B 52 D
5 E 29 E 53 B
6 B 30 D 54 E
7 C 31 A 55 D
8 C 32 C 56 A
9 A 33 A 57 E
10 B 34 C 58 B
11 D 35 B 59 A
12 B 36 A 60 B
13 C 37 D 61 A
14 B 38 B 62 C
15 C 39 D 63 A
16 D 40 C 64 C
17 A 41 A 65 B
18 C 42 C 66 A
19 D 43 D 67 B
20 A 44 A 68 A
21 B 45 C 69 C
22 D 46 E 70 A
23 E 47 D
24 A 48 B